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PassGuide 642-892

Cisco 642-892

CCNP Composite Exam

Q&A V3.31

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1. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

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A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.

Answer: A

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the 6.6.6.0/24 prefix?

A. If another path advertises the 6.6.6.0/24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more
preferred.
B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor 10.10.23.3.
C. The route 10.10.23.3 is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors.
D. Route 6.6.6.0/24 is learned by an IBGP peer.

Answer: B

3. Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route? (Choose two.)

A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)


B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)

Answer: CE

4. Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)


A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.

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E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.

Answer: ABE

5. What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp
command output? (Choose two.)

A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.

Answer: AC

6. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided.
(Choose two.)

A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.


B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.

Answer: AB

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

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A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.

Answer: CD

8. Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are
used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network
Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are
constrained to a local group or organization.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are limited scoped addresses that have been reserved for OSPF.
E. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments.
Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.

Answer: ACE

9. Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are always forwarded because they are transmitted with
Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1.
B. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers.
C. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.13 and 224.0.0.22 are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and
IGMPv3.
D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses 224.0.1.1 and
238.1.1.1 could not be used together.
E. Multicast address 224.0.1.1 has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
F. The administratively scoped multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are similar in purpose
to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.

Answer: CEF

10. Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.)

A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.

Answer: ADE

11. Which two multicast protocol statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Dense mode multicast requires explicit join messages from their members.
B. Dense mode multicast uses a push model to flood traffic throughout the network and then prunes the
unwanted traffic.
C. Sparse mode multicast uses a pull model to send multicast traffic to where it is requested.
D. Sparse mode uses reverse path forwarding (RPF) to prune off redundant flows.
E. The primary use of sparse mode multicast is for test labs and router performance testing.

Answer: BC

12. Which command enables OSPF for IPv6?

A. router ospf process-id

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B. ipv6 ospf process-id
C. ipv6 router ospf process-id
D. router ospf ipv6 process-id

Answer: B

13. Refer to the output. What IOS command produces this output?

A. show ip ospf
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ipv6 ospf interface
D. show ipv6 ospf

Answer: D

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about a voice VLAN?

A. Physically the voice network and the data network are separate.
B. The voice traffic will normally be on a different IP subnet than will the data traffic.
C. End user intervention is necessary to place the phone into the proper VLAN.
D. The same security policy should be implemented for both voice and data traffic.
E. The data VLAN must be configured as the native VLAN.

Answer: B

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos on
the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?

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A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.


B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the
CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.

Answer: A

16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect when the switchport priority extend cos 3 command is
configured on the switch port interface connected to the IP phone?

A. Effectively, the trust boundary has been moved to the PC attached to the IP phone.
B. The computer is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The IP phone is enabled to override with a CoS value of 3 the existing CoS marking of the PC attached to the IP
phone.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will extend the trust boundary to the
distribution layer switch.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.

Answer: C

17. Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP. D. Another term for
infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
E. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access
point.
F. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel
contention.

Answer: ABC

18. Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?

A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2
link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not
exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.

Answer: D

19. Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose three.)

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A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority
of the port.
E. PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured. F. The default CoS value for incoming
traffic is set to 0.

Answer: BDF

20. In what three ways is QoS applied in the campus network? (Choose three.)

A. No traffic marking occurs at the core layer. Layer 2/3 QoS tags are trusted from distribution layer switches and
used to prioritize and queue the traffic as it traverses the core.
B. IP precedence, DSCP, QoS group, IP address, and ingress interface are Layer 2 characteristics that are set by
the access layer as it passes traffic to the distribution layer. The distribution layer, once it has made a switching
decision to the core layer, strips these off.
C. MAC address, Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS), the ATM cell loss priority (CLP) bit, the Frame Relay
discard eligible (DE) bit, and ingress interface are established by the voice submodule (distribution layer) as traffic
passes to the core layer.
D. The distribution layer inspects a frame to see if it has exceeded a predefined rate of traffic within a certain time
frame, which is typically a fixed number internal to the switch. If a frame is determined to be in excess of the
predefined rate limit, the CoS value can be marked up in a way that results in the packet being dropped.
E. The access layer is the initial point at which traffic enters the network. Traffic is marked (or remarked) at Layers
2 and 3 by the access switch as it enters the network, or is "trusted" that it is entering the network with the
appropriate tag.
F. Traffic inbound from the access layer to the distribution layer can be trusted or reset depending upon the ability
of the access layer switches. Priority access into the core is provided based on Layer 3 QoS tags.

Answer: AEF

21. Which two Aironet enterprise solution statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. A Cisco Aironet AP handles the transmission of beacon frames and also handles responses to probe-
request frames from clients.
B. A Cisco Aironet solution includes intelligent Cisco Aironet access points (APs) and Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. In the Cisco Aironet solution, each AP is locally configured by the use of either a web interface or the
command line interface.
D. The Cisco Aironet AP handles real-time portions of the LWAPP protocol, and the WLAN controller handles
those items which are not time sensitive.
E. Virtual MAC architecture allows the splitting of the 802.11 protocol between the Cisco Aironet AP and a LAN
switch.

Answer: AD

22. Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) is true?

A. LWAPP encrypts control traffic between the AP and the controller.


B. LWAPP encrypts user traffic with a x.509 certificate using AES-CCMP.
C. LWAPP encrypts both control traffic and user data.
D. When set to Layer 3, LWAPP uses a proprietary protocol to communicate with the Cisco Aironet APs.

Answer: A

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements accurately describe this GLBP topology? (Choose three.)

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A. Router A is responsible for answering ARP requests sent to the virtual IP address.
B. If Router A becomes unavailable, Router B will forward packets sent to the virtual MAC address of Router
A.
C. If another router were added to this GLBP group, there would be two backup AVGs.
D. Router B is in GLBP listen state.
E. Router A alternately responds to ARP requests with different virtual MAC addresses.
F. Router B will transition from blocking state to forwarding state when it becomes the AVG.

Answer: ABE

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) statement is true about the roles of
the master virtual router and the backup virtual router?

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A. Router A is the master virtual router, and Router B is the backup virtual router. When Router A fails, Router B
will become the master virtual router. When Router A recovers, Router B will maintain the role of master virtual
router.
B. Router A is the master virtual router, and Router B is the backup virtual router. When Router A fails, Router B
will become the master virtual router. When Router A recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.
C. Router B is the master virtual router, and Router A is the backup virtual router. When Router B fails, Router A
will become the master virtual router. When Router B recovers, Router A will maintain the role of master virtual
router.
D. Router B is the master virtual router, and Router A is the backup virtual router. When Router B fails, Router A
will become the master virtual router. When Router B recovers, it will regain the master virtual router role.

Answer: B

25. Which issue or set of issues does the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) address?

A. reduction of processing in wireless controllers


B. distributed approach to authentication, encryption, and policy enforcement
C. provides security by blocking communication between access points and wireless clients
D. access point discovery, information exchange, and configuration

Answer: D

26. Refer to the exhibit. When a profile is configured in the Aironet Desktop Utility, which security option permits
the configuration of host-based Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)?

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A. WPA/WPA2/CCKM
B. WPA/WPA2 Passphrase
C. 802.1x
D. Pre-Shared Key (Static WEP)

Answer: C

27. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about trust boundaries in the campus network? (Choose
three.)

A. A device is trusted if it correctly classifies packets.


B. A device is trusted if it correctly declassifies packets.
C. The outermost trusted devices represent the trust boundary.
D. Classification and marking occur using 802.1ab QoS bits before reaching the trust boundary.
E. Network trust boundaries are automatically configured in IOS version 12.3 and later.
F. For scalability, classification should be done as close to the edge as possible.

Answer: ACF

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28. Refer to the exhibit. The command spanning-tree bpdufilter enable is configured on interface Fa0/1 on switch
S6. The link between switch S5 and S6 fails. Will Host A be able to reach Host B?

A. Fifty percent of the traffic will successfully reach Host B, and fifty percent will dead-end at switch S3
because of a partial spanning-tree loop.
B. No. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S2 and dead-end at S2.
C. No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switch S6 and Host A.
D. No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switches S2 and S3. E. Yes. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S2 to
S1.

Answer: E

29. Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Choose two.)

A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the
access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable data encryption.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the
same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the
wireless client adapter.
E. When the user selects a different profile in the Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU), the settings for the wireless
client adapter are changed only after a reboot.

Answer: AC

30. Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Client Adapter has been installed and configured through
the ADU on the PC. The Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) has been enabled during the installation and the icon
appears in the system tray area in the lower right of the desktop. What is the significance of the icon?

A. It indicates that the radio of the client adapter is disabled.


B. It indicates that the client adapter is not associated to an access point or another client.
C. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, but the user is not
EAP authenticated.
D. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is
authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is excellent or
good.
E. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is
authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is fair.
F. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is
authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is poor.

Answer: F

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31. What are three required steps to configure DHCP snooping on a switch? (Choose three.)

A. Configure DHCP snooping globally.


B. Configure DHCP snooping on an interface.
C. Configure DHCP snooping on a VLAN or range of VLANs.
D. Configure the switch as a DHCP server.
E. Configure all interfaces as DHCP snooping trusted interfaces.
F. Configure the switch to insert and remove DHCP relay information (option-82 field) in forwarded DHCP request
messages.

Answer: ABC

32. Which two statements are true about voice packets in a LAN? (Choose two.)

A. Voice traffic data flow involves large volumes of large packets.


B. Because a packet loss involves a small amount of data, voice traffic is less affected by packet losses than
traditional data traffic is.
C. Voice carrier stream utilizes Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) to carry the audio/media portion of VoIP
communication.
D. Voice packets are very sensitive to delay and jitter.
E. Voice packets are encapsulated in TCP segments to allow for proper sequencing during delivery.

Answer: CD

33. What does the command udld reset accomplish?

A. allows an UDLD port to automatically reset when it has been shutdown


B. resets all UDLD enabled ports that have been shutdown
C. removes all UDLD configurations from interfaces that were globally enabled
D. removes all UDLD configurations from interfaces that were enabled per-port

Answer: B

34. A client is searching for an access point (AP). What is the correct process order that the client and access
point go through to create a connection?

A. probe request/response, authentication request/response, association request/response


B. association request/response, authentication request/response, probe request/response
C. probe request/response, association request/response, authentication request/response
D. association request/response, probe request/response, authentication request/response

Answer: A

35. Which two statements are true about voice VLANs? (Choose two.)

A. Voice VLANs are only used when connecting an IP phone and a host to distinct switch ports.
B. Access ports that are configured with voice VLANs will always trust the CoS that is received from phones.
C. Access ports that are configured with voice VLANs may or may not override the CoS value that is
received from an IP phone.
D. Voice VLANs are configured using the switchport voice vlan vlan-ID interface configuration command.
E. Voice VLANs provide a trunking interface between an IP phone and an access port on a switch to allow traffic
from multiple devices that are connected to the port.
F. Enabling Voice VLAN on a switch port will automatically configure the port to trust the incoming CoS
markings.

Answer: CD

36. Which two types of activities does the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) define? (Choose two.)

A. access point certification and software control


B. compression and Layer 3 address mapping

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C. Layer 3 addressing and distribution
D. packet encapsulation, fragmentation, and formatting
E. SNMP monitoring services

Answer: AD

37. Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) protocol is true?

A. The processing of 802.11 data and management protocols and access point capabilities is distributed between
a lightweight access point and a centralized WLAN controller.
B. LWAPP aggregates radio management forward information and sends it to a wireless LAN solution engine.
C. LWAPP authenticates all access points in the subnet and establishes a secure communication channel with
each of them.
D. LWAPP advertises its WDS capability and participates in electing the best WDS device for the wireless LAN.

Answer: A

38. Which statement describes the function of a trust boundary?

A. Trust boundaries determine whether certain types of traffic can pass.


B. Trust boundaries are a point in the network where decisions about CoS markings on incoming packets are
made.
C. Trust boundaries are a point in the network where QoS functionality begins and ends.
D. Trust boundaries are points in the network where Layer 2 CoS markings are converted to Layer 3 DSCP
or IP precedence markings.

Answer: B

39. Which two statements about voice VLANs are correct? (Choose two.)

A. Voice VLANs eliminate the need for QoS configuration.


B. Voice VLANs are used on trunk links to eliminate the need for QoS CoS markings.
C. Voice VLANs are mainly used to reduce the number of access switch ports that are used in the network.
D. Voice VLANs can be configured to forward existing CoS priorities or override them.
E. Voice VLANs are mainly used between access layer switches and distribution layer switches.
F. Voice VLANs can be configured on Layer 2 ports only.

Answer: DF

40. Which two statements are true about network voice traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Voice traffic is affected more by link speed than FTP traffic is.
B. Voice traffic is affected more by packet delays than FTP traffic is.
C. Voice streams involve larger packet sizes than most TCP network traffic involves.
D. Voice traffic is more sensitive to packet loss than TCP network traffic is.
E. Voice traffic requires QOS mechanisms only in heavily loaded network segments.

Answer: BD

41. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch interface configuration command would automatically configure quality
of service (QoS) for voice over IP (VoIP) within a QoS domain?

A. auto qos voip cisco-phone

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B. mls qos trust
C. switchport priority extend cos 7
D. switchport priority extend trust

Answer: A

42. Refer to the exhibit. Which Catalyst switch interface command would be used to cause the switch to instruct
the phone to override the incoming CoS from the PC before forwarding the packet to the switch?

A. switchport priority extend trust


B. switchport priority extend cos 2
C. switchport priority extend cos 11
D. mls qos cos 2
E. mls qos cos 2 override

Answer: B

43. Refer to the exhibit. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is enabled on switch SW_A only. Both Host_A and Host_B
acquire their IP addresses from the DHCP server connected to switch SW_A. What would the outcome be if
Host_B initiated an ARP spoof attack toward Host_A ?

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A. The spoof packets will be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be permitted.
B. The spoof packets will be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be dropped.
C. The spoof packets will not be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be permitted.
D. The spoof packets will not be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be dropped.

Answer: C

44. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Adapter CB21AG is inserted into a PC cardbus slot. Both the green status
LED and the amber activity LED are blinking slowly. What is the condition of the adapter?

A. The adapter is not receiving power.


B. The adapter is in power save mode.
C. The adapter is scanning for the wireless network for which it is configured.
D. The adapter is associated to an access point or another client.
E. The adapter is transmitting or receiving data while associated to an access point or another client.

Answer: D

45. On an Aironet card, LED 0 and LED 1 are blinking alternately. What does this indicate?

A. The Aironet card is in power save mode.


B. The Aironet card is looking for a network association.
C. The Aironet card is joined to a network, but there is no network activity.
D. The Aironet card is joined to a network, and there is network activity.

Answer: B

46. Refer to the exhibit. The signal transmitted from the AP is reflected off a wall resulting in multipath
interference at the client end. Which statement is true?

A. If signal 1 is in phase with signal 2, the result is essentially zero signal or a dead spot in the WLAN.
B. If signal 2 is close to 360 degrees out of phase with signal 1, the result is essentially zero signal or a dead
spot in the WLAN.
C. Multipath interference is solved by using dual antennas.

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D. Multipath interference is less of an issue when using a DSSS technology because multipath is
frequency selective.
E. The transmitted signal from the AP arrives at the client at slightly different times resulting in phase shifting.

Answer: E

47. Refer to the exhibit. Which two Lightweight Access Point statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. An AP that has been upgraded from an autonomous AP to lightweight AP will only function in
conjunction with a Cisco Wireless LAN controller.
B. Autonomous APs receive control and configuration information from a WLAN controller.
C. LWAPP increases the amount of processing within the APs, enabling them to support filtering and policy
enforcement features.
D. Real time events such as authentication, security management, and mobility are handled by the
lightweight AP.
E. Lightweight APs require local configurations using local management.
F. WLAN controllers provide a single point of management.

Answer: AF

48. Which two WLAN client utility statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. In a Windows XP environment, a client adapter can only be configured and managed with the Microsoft
Wireless Configuration Manager.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to enable or disable the adapter radio and to configure
LEAP authentication with dynamic WEP.
C. The Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can both be
enabled at the same time to setup WLAN client cards.
D. The Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be configured to display the Aironet System Tray
Utility (ASTU) icon in the Windows system tray.

Answer: BD

49. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is being used as a relay device for autoconfiguration of switch S1. Which
configuration will accomplish this?

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A. S1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1


S1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.0.0.2
B. S1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
S1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
C. R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.2
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.3
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.4
R1(config-if)# exit
R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.0.0.1
D. R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
R2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
R3(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R3(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
R4(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R4(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
E. S1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
S1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.0.0.2
R2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
R3(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R3(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
R4(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R4(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1

Answer: C

50. Which statement is true about Layer 2 security threats?

A. MAC spoofing, in conjunction with ARP snooping, is the most effective counter-measure against
reconnaissance attacks that use dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) to determine vulnerable attack points.
B. DHCP snooping sends unauthorized replies to DHCP queries.
C. ARP spoofing can be used to redirect traffic to counter dynamic ARP inspection.
D. Dynamic ARP inspection in conjunction with ARP spoofing can be used to counter DHCP snooping attacks.
E. MAC spoofing attacks allow an attacking device to receive frames intended for a different network host. F. Port

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scanners are the most effective defense against dynamic ARP inspection.

Answer: E

51. What does the global configuration command ip arp inspection vlan 10-12,15 accomplish?

A. validates outgoing ARP requests for interfaces configured on VLAN 10, 11, 12, or 15
B. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports
C. intercepts, logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings
D. discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings on trusted ports

Answer: C

52. Refer to the exhibit. The wireless user is moving from right to left towards AP2. What are three reasons
that the wireless client would initiate roaming? (Choose three.)

A. The client has missed too many beacons from AP1.


B. The client has received too many beacons from AP2.
C. The client data rate from AP1 has been reduced.
D. The client data rate from AP2 has been increased.
E. The maximum data retry count from AP1 is exceeded.
F. The minimum data retry count from AP1 is exceeded.

Answer: ACE

53. Which two statements about WLAN components are true? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Aironet autonomous access points cannot be supported by the Cisco Unified Wireless Network.
B. Cisco Aironet lightweight access points cannot be supported by the Cisco Unified Wireless Network.
C. In the autonomous access point solution, control is provided by the Wireless Domain Services (WDS).
D. In the autonomous access point solution, control is provided by the WLAN controller.
E. In the lightweight access point solution, WLAN management is provided by the WLAN Solution Engine
(WLSE).

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F. In the lightweight access point solution, WLAN management is provided by the WLAN Control System
(WCS).

Answer: CF

54. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly sequences the order in which a lightweight access point
associates with the WLAN controller?

A. B, D, C, J, I, A
B. B, D, G, J, I, A
C. D, B, G, E, I, H
D. D, F, C, E, I, H
E. F, D, C, E, I, H
F. F, D, G, J, I, A

Answer: B

55. An attacker is launching a DoS attack with a public domain hacking tool that is used to exhaust the IP address
space available from the DHCP servers for a period of time. Which procedure would best defend against this type
of attack?

A. Configure only untrusted interfaces with root guard.


B. Configure only trusted interfaces with root guard.
C. Configure DHCP spoofing on all ports that connect untrusted clients.
D. Configure DHCP snooping only on ports that connect trusted DHCP servers.
E. Implement private VLANs (PVLANs) to carry only DHCP traffic.
F. Implement private VLANs (PVLANs) to carry only user traffic.

Answer: D

56. Which two statements about voice traffic are true? (Choose two.)

A. Voice packets are typically around 60 to 120 bytes.


B. Voice packets are typically around 600 to 1200 bytes.
C. Voice packets are typically around 60 to 120 KB.
D. For voice quality, packet loss should be less than 1 percent and delay should be no more than 150 ms.
E. For voice quality, packet loss should be less than 2 percent and delay should be no more than 250 ms.
F. A typical voice call requires 17 kbps to 106 kbps of guaranteed priority bandwidth plus an additional 15 kbps per
call for voice-control traffic.

Answer: AD

57. Which two codecs are supported by Cisco VoIP equipment?

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A. G.701 and G.719


B. G.711 and G.729
C. G.721 and G.739
D. G.731 and G.749

Answer: B

58. What are three characteristics of the wireless repeater topology? (Choose three.)

A. Lightweight access points are required.


B. Autonomous access points are required.
C. The recommended overlap of the access point on the wired LAN and the wireless repeater is 50%.
D. The recommended overlap of the access point on the wired LAN and the wireless repeater is 25%.
E. The SSID of the root access point must be configured on the repeater access point.
F. The SSID of the root access point must be distinct from that of the repeater access point.

Answer: BCE

59. Refer to the exhibit. What radio button option on the Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) Security tab includes the
option of Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) and Extensible Authentication Protocol-Flexible
Authentication via Secure Tunneling?

A. WPA/WPA2/CCKM
B. WPA/WPA2 Passphrase
C. 802.1x
D. Pre-Shared Key (Static WEP)

Answer: A

60. What are two methods of mitigating MAC address flooding attacks? (Choose two.)

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A. Place unused ports in a common VLAN.
B. Implement private VLANs.
C. Implement DHCP snooping.
D. Implement port security.
E. Implement VLAN access maps.

Answer: DE

61. Which three components are included in the Cisco autonomous WLAN solution? (Choose three.)

A. Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)


B. Access Control Server (ACS)
C. Wireless Control System (WCS)
D. Wireless Services Module (WiSM)
E. Wireless Domain Services (WDS)
F. Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)

Answer: ABE

62. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about VLANs 200 and 202?

A. VLAN 202 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the
same VLAN. VLAN 200 carries traffic between community ports and to promiscuous ports.
B. VLAN 202 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the
same VLAN. VLAN 200 carries traffic from isolated ports to a promiscuous port.
C. VLAN 200 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the
same VLAN. VLAN 202 carries traffic between community ports and to promiscuous ports.
D. VLAN 200 carries traffic from promiscuous ports to isolated, community, and other promiscuous ports in the
same VLAN. VLAN 202 carries traffic from isolated ports to a promiscuous port.

Answer: B

63. Which three features are part of the Cisco Compatible Extensions program? (Choose three.)

A. security
B. routing and switching
C. VLAN and QoS
D. analog and digital voice
E. accounting
F. mobility

Answer: ACF

64. What is the objective of the Cisco Compatible Extensions program?

A. to provide access to proprietary Cisco IOS software code in order to expand the number of vendors writing
wireless code
B. to provide Cisco engineers with the opportunity to certify that any wireless devices that are made by third
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parties are compatible with Cisco wireless products
C. to provide customers with a broad range of WLAN client devices that have been tested for interoperability with
Cisco Aironet innovations
D. to provide third parties with Cisco hardware in order to encourage the development of radical innovation in the
area of wireless

Answer: C

65. Which three statements are true about implementing Cisco wireless LANs? (Choose three.)

A. LWAPP allows encrypted communication between lightweight access points and WLAN controllers.
B. The WLAN Solution Engine (WLSE) is used to control lightweight access points.
C. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is only available when a WLAN controller is integrated into the network.
D. One of the advantages of the lightweight WLAN solution is that the devices act independently.
E. Antenna power is a relative value reference to dBi.
F. Characteristics of antennas are directionality, gain, and polarization.

Answer: AEF

66. Which two statements correctly describe features of Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)?
(Choose two.)

A. Data traffic between an access point and a controller is encrypted within LWAPP.
B. Control traffic between an access point and a controller is encrypted within LWAPP.
C. Data traffic between an access point and a controller is encapsulated within LWAPP.
D. Layer 3 mode packets are transmitted in TCP frames.
E. VLAN tagging and QoS markings are applied at the access point.

Answer: BC

67. Which two features or capabilities are valid options for both an Autonomous and a Lightweight WLAN solution?
(Choose two)

A. use of a Cisco Wireless Location Appliance for location tracking


B. use of Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS) for security
C. Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) for management
D. PoE capability
E. Cisco IOS software for configuration

Answer: BD

68. Which two statements correctly describe the association process between a lightweight access point and a
WLAN controller? (Choose two.)
A. In order to associate in Layer 3 mode, the access point must have been preconfigured with an IP address.
B. An access point first searches for a controller in LWAPP Layer 2 mode. If the search is not successful, the
access point then attempts to locate a controller in LWAPP Layer 3 mode.
C. Once an access point associates with a controller in LWAPP Layer 3 mode, it receives an IP address from the
controller.
D. An access point will search for a controller using a broadcast address if using LWAPP Layer 2 mode and a
unicast address if using LWAPP Layer 3 mode.
E. If multiple wireless controllers are detected by an access point, the controller with the fewest associated access
points is chosen to associate with.

Answer: BE

69. Refer to the exhibit. What should be taken into consideration when using the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility
(ADU) to configure the static WEP keys on the wireless client adapter?

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A. The client adapter WEP key should be generated by the AP and forwarded to the client adapter before the client
adapter can establish communication with the wireless network.
B. The client adapter WEP key should be generated by the authentication server and forwarded to the client
adapter before the client adapter can establish communication with the wireless network.
C. In infrastructure mode the client adapter WEP key must match the WEP key used by the access point. In ad
hoc mode all client WEP keys within the wireless network must match each other.
D. Before the client adapter WEP key is generated, all wireless infrastructure devices (such as access points,
servers, etc.) must be properly configured for LEAP authentication.

Answer: C

70. Refer to the exhibit. What is the sequence of events when a VoIP call is placed from IP phone P1 to IP phone
P2?

A. RTP traffic is exchanged between IP phone P1 and IP phone P2. IP phone P1 alerts the CCM of off-hook state.
CCM instructs IP phone P1 to provide dialtone. IP phone P1 passes digits to CCM.
CCM routes call to PSTN or IP phone P2.
B. CCM instructs IP phone P1 to provide dialtone. IP phone P1 alerts the CCM of off-hook state.
IP phone P1 passes digits to CCM.
CCM routes call to PSTN or IP phone P2.
RTP traffic is exchanged between IP phone P1 and IP phone P2.
C. CCM instructs IP phone P1 to provide dialtone.
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IP phone P1 alerts the CCM of off-hook state. IP phone P1 passes digits to CCM.
RTP traffic is exchanged between IP phone P1 and IP phone P2. CCM routes call to PSTN or IP phone P2.
D. IP phone P1 alerts the CCM of off-hook state. CCM instructs IP phone P1 to provide dialtone. IP phone P1
passes digits to CCM.
CCM routes call to PSTN or IP phone P2.
RTP traffic is exchanged between IP phone P1 and IP phone P2.

Answer: D

71. What are three examples of call control signaling? (Choose three.)
A. MGCP
B. RTP C. G.711
D. G.729
E. H.323
F. SIP

Answer: AEF

72. Refer to the exhibit. What type of message will be used by the lightweight access point (LAP) in an attempt
to locate the wireless LAN controller (WLC)?

A. The LAP will send out a Layer 2 LWAPP discovery request to the WLC on the wireless network.
B. The LAP will send out a Layer 3 LWAPP discovery request to the WLC on the wireless network.
C. The LAP will send out a DHCP request. In return, the DHCP server will provide the IP addresses for the LAP and
the WLC.
D. The LAP will send out a DNS request. In return, the DNS server will provide the WLC domain name.

Answer: B

73. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about how the IP phone can be configured to perform
CoS markings? (Choose two.)

A. The IP phone can tag voice traffic in the access or voice VLAN with a Layer 2 CoS value.
B. The IP phone can only tag voice traffic with a Layer 2 CoS value in the voice VLAN.
C. The default configuration of the IP phone is to pass traffic from the host without changing the CoS value.
D. The IP phone can be configured to pass traffic from the host without changing the CoS value. E. By default, the
IP phone tags traffic from the host with the default CoS value of 5.

Answer: AD

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74. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the configuration that is shown?

A. Untagged ingress traffic will be dropped.


B. Untagged ingress traffic will be marked with the default CoS value of the port.
C. Tagged and untagged ingress traffic will be carried on VLAN 1.
D. Ingress traffic from the host will be tagged with the CoS value of 5.

Answer: B

75. Why is BPDU guard an effective way to prevent an unauthorized rogue switch from altering the
spanning-tree topology of a network?

A. BPDU guard can guarantee proper selection of the root bridge.


B. BPDU guard can be utilized along with PortFast to shut down ports when a switch is connected to the port.
C. BPDU guard can be utilized to prevent the switch from transmitting BPDUs and incorrectly altering the root
bridge election.
D. BPDU guard can be used to prevent invalid BPDUs from propagating throughout the network.

Answer: B

76. What two steps can be taken to help prevent VLAN hopping? (Choose two.)

A. Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN.


B. Enable BPD guard.
C. Implement port security.
D. Prevent automatic trunk configurations.
E. Disable CDP on ports where it is not necessary.

Answer: AD

77. For what purpose is the command config network webmode enable used?

A. to allow HTTPS access to the WLAN controller


B. to allow HTTP access to the WLAN controller
C. to allow SSH access to the CLI of the WLAN controller
D. to allow SSL access to the CLI of the WLAN controller

Answer: A

78. Which statement is true about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)?

A. The control traffic between the client and the access point is encapsulated with the LWAPP.
B. Data traffic between the client and the access point is encapsulated with LWAPP.
C. Authentication, security, and mobility are handled by the access point.
D. Real-time frame exchange is accomplished within the access point.
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Answer: D

79. Refer to the exhibit. On basis of the configuration that is provided, where will the trust boundary be
established in this network?

A. at the PC
B. at the IP phone
C. at the access switch
D. at the distribution switch

Answer: C

80. Refer to the exhibit. DHCP snooping is enabled for selected VLANs to provide security on the network. How do
the switch ports handle the DHCP messages?

A. Ports Fa2/1 and Fa2/2 source DHCP requests only. Port Fa3/1 is eligible to source all DHCP messages and
respond to DHCP requests.
B. Ports Fa2/1 and Fa2/2 respond to DHCP requests only. Port Fa3/1 is eligible to source all DHCP
messages.
C. Ports Fa2/1 and Fa2/2 are eligible to source all DHCP messages and respond to DHCP requests. Port
Fa3/1 can source DHCP request only.
D. All three ports, Fa2/1, Fa2/2, and Fa3/1, are eligible to source all DHCP messages and respond to DHCP
requests.

Answer: C

81. Refer to the exhibit. This network is running IS-IS. Router RTC is inside Cloud#1. From the output on
RTD, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

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A. The SNPA for RTE is the source data link address that is used to transmit frames to RTD.
B. IP routing updates between RTC and RTD will be IP datagrams that are encapsulated by HDLC.
C. IP routing updates between RTC and RTD will be IP datagrams that are encapsulated by CLNS.
D. IP routing updates between RTC and RTD will be CLNS datagrams that are encapsulated by HDLC.
E. Because it is running IS-IS in IP-only mode, RTD will not transmit CLNS packets.
F. The NET for RTE will be 49.0150.0019.06b7.fd5f.00.

Answer: AD

82. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose
two.)

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A. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the ISP router.
B. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the SanJose1 router.
C. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 50 command.
D. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 75 command.
E. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to
SanJose1 because of the lower MED value of SanJose1.
F. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to
SanJose2 because of the higher MED value of SanJose2.

Answer: AE

83. When the passive-interface command is used on a router, which two routing protocols will continue to receive
routing updates on an interface that is configured as passive? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. RIPv2
D. EIGRP

Answer: BC

84. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are running EIGRP and have converged. On the basis of the
information that is presented, which statement is true?

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A. All outgoing routing updates from router R1 to router R2 will be suppressed, but the inbound updates will
continue to be received.
B. All incoming routing updates from R2 will be suppressed, but the outgoing updates will continue to be sent.
C. Both outgoing and incoming routing updates on R1 will be stopped because of the passive-interface
Serial0/0 configuration statement.
D. Both outgoing and incoming routing updates on R1 will be permitted because the distribute-list 20 out
Serial0/0 command cannot be used with association with the outgoing interface.

Answer: C

85. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true about the IS-IS configuration? (Choose two.)

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A. The router is in area 49.0001.0002.


B. The router has a system ID of 0003.0004.
C. The router acts as a Level 1-2 router.
D. The network service access point selector (NSEL) byte has a value of 0. E. CLNS routing is enabled for the
router.

Answer: CD

86. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the IS-IS configurations of router R1 and router R2 are
correct? (Choose two.)

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A. The IS-IS Level 2 metric that is assigned on the serial interface of router R2 is over three times the default
value.
B. Router R1 sends only Level 1 hellos out the interface that is connected to R2.
C. Router R2 sends only Level 2 hellos out the interface that is connected to R1.
D. Router R1 is configured as a Level 1-2 router.
E. Router R2 has the same metric value assigned for Level 1 and Level 2 on the serial interface.
F. The network entity titles (NETs) that are configured on L1 and L2 are incompatible.

Answer: AB

87. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, what two conclusions can be reached? (Choose two.)

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A. Three physical interfaces are taking part in integrated IS-IS.


B. Address summarization is configured.
C. There are two neighboring routers sending IS-IS routing information.
D. The default administrative distance has been changed.
E. IS-IS is not redistributing any other routing protocols.
F. IS-IS is not enabled.

Answer: CE

88. Which three options are supported as address allocation mechanisms for DHCP on Cisco routers? (Choose
three.)

A. The IP address can be automatically assigned to a host.


B. The IP address can be assigned as a random hash value of the burned-in-address of the lowest-numbered
LAN interface on the router.
C. The network administrator can assign a specific IP address to a specific host MAC address.
D. The IP address can be assigned from configured pools in a reverse lexicographical order.
E. The IP address can be assigned to a host for a limited time or until the host explicitly releases the address.

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F. The IP address can be assigned to a host until the host usurps the assigned value using its own
dynamic override mechanism.

Answer: ACE

89. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be made based on the DHCP configuration? (Choose two.)

A. The second DNS server configured will never be queried.


B. The first IP address assigned by DHCP is 172.16.0.1.
C. The IP address of the default router is used for DHCP relay.
D. The DHCP clients learn the excluded address ranges that area configured.
E. The configured domain name is propagated to the DHCP clients.

Answer: BE

90. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the configuration?

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A. Hosts will receive IP settings from pool 1 until the addresses run out, and then hosts will receive the settings
from pool 2.
B. Hosts belonging to DHCP pool 1 and pool 2 will retain their IP settings for 30 hours before they must renew.
C. Hosts in the 10.10.20.0/24 subnet will use 10.10.20.50 as its DNS server.
D. DHCP pool 0 needs to have the ip dhcp excluded-address command to exclude the default router and DNS
servers.

Answer: C

91. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is reflected in the output that is displayed in the exhibit?

A. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco in


!
access-list 66 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255

!
route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66
set local-preference 90

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B. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco out


!
access-list 66 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255
!
route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66
set metric 90

C. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco out


!
access-list 66 permit 10.30.0.0 0.0.255.255
!
route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66
set metric 90

D. neighbor 192.168.28.1 route-map cisco in


!

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access-list 66 permit 10.30.0.0 0.0.255.255


!
route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66
set local-preference 90

Answer: D

92. Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 chooses one path to network 198.133.219.0/24. Indicate the reason
Router RT-1 chooses this "best" path.

A. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the origin code.
B. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the BGP MED values.
C. IP address 128.107.2.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
D. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 prefers the IGP metrics.
E. RT-1 prefers internal BGP routes.
F. IP address 128.107.254.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.

Answer: A

93. What technique should be used on BGP edge routers to prevent a multi-homed autonomous system from
becoming a transit system?

A. Advertise with a high MED value all networks that are discovered via external BGP.
B. Remove the AS-Path information on all routes in the BGP table prior to advertising externally.
C. Only advertise networks externally if they have been discovered via internal BGP.
D. Use an outgoing distribution list to filter all networks not originating from inside the autonomous
system.
E. Set the no-export community attribute on all networks that are advertised externally.
F. Set the origin code to incomplete for all networks that are discovered via external BGP.

Answer: D

94. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the router configuration that is shown?

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A. Additional DHCP options will be imported from another DHCP server.


B. The DHCP server pools need to be bound to an interface to operate.
C. This configuration will provide IP configuration information to two different subnets.
D. Additional DCHP option information needs to be imported from another DHCP server.
E. If the router hands out all the addresses in pool 1, then it will supply addresses from pool 2.

Answer: C

95. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the router with ID 10.64.0.1?

A. It is the BDR for the local segment.


B. It is the DR for the local segment.
C. It is not running OSPF.
D. It has an OSPF priority of 1 on the attached interface.
E. It has a loopback that is configured.
F. It is not the DR or BDR for the local segment.

Answer: F

96. Which statement is true about Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast
routing?

A. PIM DM supports shared distribution trees.


B. If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic.
C. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface.
D. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are
pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces.

Answer: C

97. The show ip route command generated routes flagged as O N2 and O N1. Which option best
describes how these routes were created?

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A. Summarization was performed on an ASBR connected to a totally stubby area.


B. Static routes were redistributed into an ASBR.
C. Redistribution was performed into a totally stubby area.
D. Redistribution was performed into an NSSA area.
E. Summarization was performed on an ASBR connected to a NSSA area.

Answer: D

98. How is the configuration of a totally stubby area different from that of a stub area?

A. The totally stubby area requires the no-summary command on the ABR.
B. The totally stubby area requires the totally stubby command on the ABR.
C. The no-summary command should be included on all routers within the totally stubby area.
D. The totally stubby command should be included on all routers within the totally stubby area.
E. The totally stubby area requires the no-summary command on the ASBR.

Answer: A

99. Refer to the exhibit. Which one statement is true?

A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.


B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the
10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but users on the
192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.

Answer: E

100. Refer to the exhibit. RTR-38 has two possible paths to reach the indicated networks but only chooses next
hop 172.20.72.1. Which two options would cause RTR-38 to choose next hop 172.20.73.1 for network
192.168.101.0 but still use next hop 172.20.72.1 for the remaining networks? (Choose two)

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A. On RTR-38 apply a route map to neighbor 172.20.73.1 incoming that changes the local-preference to
200 for network 192.168.101.0.
B. On RTR-38 apply a route map to neighbor 172.20.73.1 incoming that changes the local-preference to
200 for all networks accept 192.168.101.0.
C. On RTR-38 apply the command neighbor 172.20.73.1 weight 200.
D. On RTR-38 apply the command neighbor 172.20.72.1 weight 200.
E. On BGP neighbor router 172.20.73.1 apply a route map that advertises a MED of 200 for network
192.168.101.0 to RTR-38.
F. On BGP neighbor router 172.20.72.1 apply a route map that advertises a MED of 200 for network
192.168.101.0 to RTR-38.

Answer: AF

101. During BGP configuration on a router that has peered with other BGP speakers, the BGP command
aggregate-address 172.32.0.0 255.255.252.0 is issued. However, the peers do not receive this aggregate
network in BGP advertisements. Also, the router does not have this aggregate network in its BGP table. Which
option indicates a possible reason this command did not cause the router to advertise the aggregate network to
its peers?

A. Interface NULL 0 is likely shutdown.


B. The BGP command no synchronization is missing.
C. The BGP command no auto-summary is missing.
D. Subnets of 172.32.0.0/22 do not exist in the BGP table.
E. The IGP running on this router does not have network 172.32.0.0/22 installed.
F. The next hop IP address must be a loopback address.

Answer: D

102. What are the two effects of the IP multicast global configuration command ip pim send-rp-announce
loopback0 scope 31 group-list 5 issued on multicast router RTA? (Choose two.)

A. RTA will drop all RP announcements it receives if the TTL field is greater than 31.
B. RTA will forward RP announcements provided they are within the scope of 31.
C. RTA will originate RP announcements with TTL set to 31.
D. RTA will forward RP announcements from any neighbor router with a source IP address that matches
access-list 5.
E. RTA will originate RP announcements for multicast groups that match access-list 5.

Answer: CE

103. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show command on RT1 which statement is true?

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A. OSPFv3 uses global IPv6 addresses to establish neighbor adjacencies.


B. RT1 has a subnet mask of 64 bits.
C. RT1 has FastEthernet0/0 set as a DR for network type broadcast.
D. OSPFv3 uses Link-local addresses to establish neighbor adjacencies.
E. RT1 does not have a global IPv6 address set on FastEthernet0/0.
F. OSPFv3 uses IPv4 addresses to establish neighbor adjacencies.

Answer: D

104. Refer to the exhibit. In the show ipv6 route output, what would the metric be for a summary route that
summarizes all three OSPFv3 routes displayed?

A. 20
B. 40
C. 100
D. 120
E. 140
F. 160

Answer: C

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105. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is correct regarding the partial configuration shown?

A. The router's fa0/0 interface will be assigned the reserved address of 20.0.0.2.
B. The router will import its DHCP options from a configuration file on a TFTP server.
C. The router's fa0/0 interface will be assigned any address from the 20.0.0.0/8 network except 20.0.0.2.
D. The router will add the DHCP option parameters it learns from another server into its DHCP server
database.

Answer: D

106. Refer to the exhibit. It is desired to set up a BGP neighbor relationship between routers R1 and R4. BGP
packets between them could travel through R2 or R3. What is the simplest configuration that will allow for
failover?

A. Configure BGP neighbor relationships between all interfaces on R1 and R4.


B. Install a direct connection between R1 and R4.
C. Configure loopback interfaces on R1 and R4 to provide the update source address for BGP packets.
D. Configure only one neighbor relationship between R1's 192.168.1.2 interface and R4's 172.16.10.2
interface.

Answer: C
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107. Refer to the exhibit. Routing updates for the 192.168.1.0 network are being received from all three
neighbors. Which statement is correct regarding the result of the configuration shown?

A. The router will prefer the next hop of 172.16.1.1 for packets destined for the 192.168.1.0 network.
B. The router will prefer the next hop of 172.26.1.1 for packets destined for the 192.168.1.0 network.
C. The router will advertise the 192.168.1.0 network only to 172.30.1.1.
D. The router will advertise the 192.168.1.0 network only to 172.26.1.1.
E. The router will prefer the next hop of 172.26.1.1 for packets except those destined for the 192.168.1.0
network.

Answer: B

108. Refer to the exhibit. The neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200 BGP configuration command has been
configured on router A. What will be the result of this configuration?

A. Router A will prefer the path through router B for network 172.20.0.0.

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B. Router A will prefer the path through router C for network 172.20.0.0.
C. Packets from router D will prefer the path through router B for networks advertised by router A.
D. Packets from router D will prefer the path through router C for networks advertised by router A.

Answer: A

109. Which spanning-tree command would cause a PortFast-enabled interface to lose its
PortFast-operational status and disable BPDU filtering if it receives BPDUs?

A. spanning-tree guard root


B. spanning-tree bpduguard enable
C. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
D. spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
E. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default

Answer: E

110. Which spanning-tree command would essentially disable spanning tree on an interface and make that
interface susceptible to spanning-tree loops?

A. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default


B. spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
C. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default
D. spanning-tree bpduguard enable
E. spanning-tree guard root

Answer: B

111. Which statement correctly describes the results of the Ethernet switch global configuration command
spanning-tree loopguard default?

A. When any port receives a BPDU, it is put it in the error-disabled state.


B. An interface is moved directly to the spanning-tree forwarding state without waiting for the standard
forward-time delay.
C. Prevents interfaces that are in a PortFast-operational state from sending or receiving BPDUs.
D. Detects indirect link failures and starts the spanning-tree reconfiguration sooner.
E. Prevents alternate or root ports from becoming designated ports because of a failure that leads to a
unidirectional link.
F. Provides fast convergence after a direct link failure where a root port transitions to the forwarding state
immediately without going through the listening and learning states.

Answer: E

112. Which optional feature of an Ethernet switch disables a port on a point-to-point link if the port does not
receive traffic while Layer 1 status is up?

A. BackboneFast
B. UplinkFast
C. Loop Guard
D. UDLD aggressive mode
E. Fast Link Pulse bursts
F. Link Control Word

Answer: D

113. Which three statements are true about routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose three)

A. A routed port can support VLAN subinterfaces.


B. A routed port will take an IP address assignment.
C. A routed port can be configured with routing protocols.
D. A routed port is a virtual interface on the multilayer switch.

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E. A routed port is only associated with one VLAN.


F. A routed port is a physical interface on the multilayer switch.

Answer: BCF

114. Which three statements are true about CEF? (Choose three.)

A. The FIB table is derived from the IP routing table.


B. The adjacency table is derived from the ARP table.
C. CEF IP destination prefixes are stored in the TCAM table, from the least specific to the most specific entry.
D. When the CEF TCAM table is full, packets are dropped.
E. When the adjacency table is full, a CEF TCAM table entry points to the Layer 3 engine to redirect the
adjacency.
F. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 3 destination address prefix (shortest match).

Answer: ABE

115. Refer to the exhibit. Why are users from VLAN 100 unable to ping users on VLAN 200?

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A. Encapsulation on the switch is wrong.


B. Trunking needs to be enabled on Fa0/1.
C. The native VLAN is wrong.
D. VLAN 1 needs the no shutdown command.
E. IP routing needs to be enabled on the switch.

Answer: B

116. Refer to the exhibit. What problem is preventing users on VLAN 100 from pinging addresses on VLAN
200?

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A. No default route on DLS1.


B. Encapsulation mismatch between switches.
C. Native VLAN mismatch.
D. Subinterfaces should be created on Fa0/7 and Fa0/8 on DLS1.
E. Trunking needs to be enabled.
F. The ip routing command is missing on DLS1.

Answer: F

117. Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)

A. bursty
B. greedy
C. drop sensitive
D. delay sensitive
E. UDP priority
F. TCP retransmits

Answer: CDE

118. Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.)

A. TCP retransmits
B. benign
C. greedy
D. drop sensitive
E. smooth
F. delay insensitive

Answer: BDE

119. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on all routers in the network. On the basis of the show ip ospf

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neighbor output, what prevents R1 from establishing a full adjacency with R2?

A. Router R1 will only establish full adjacency with the DR and BDR on broadcast multiaccess networks.
B. Router R2 has been elected as a DR for the broadcast multiaccess network in OSPF area 1.
C. Routers R1 and R2 are configured as stub routers for OSPF area 1 and OSPF area 2.
D. Router R1 and R2 are configured for a virtual link between OSPF area 1 and OSPF area 2.
E. The Hello parameters on routers R1 and R2 do not match.

Answer: A

120. Which two statements are true about voice VLANs? (Choose two.)

A. Voice VLANs allow IP phones to be moved around without worrying about subnets.
B. Voice VLANs allow voice and data packets to be logically combined.
C. Implementing voice VLANs causes network administrators to change their existing IP topology.
D. Using voice VLANs makes it easier for network administrators to identify and troubleshoot network
problems.
E. Voice VLANs are available on all Cisco switches.

Answer: AD

121. Which two statements are true about trust boundaries? (Choose two.)

A. Classifying and marking traffic should be done as close to the traffic source as possible.
B. Classifying and marking traffic should be done at the distribution layer.
C. Traffic is classified and marked as it travels through the network.
D. If untrusted traffic enters a switch, it can be marked with a new QoS value appropriate for the policy in place.
E. The trust boundary moves depending on the type of traffic entering the network.

Answer: AD

122. In the event that two devices need access to a common server, but they cannot communicate with each
other, which security feature should be configured to mitigate attacks between these devices?

A. port security
B. dynamic ARP inspection
C. DHCP snooping
D. private VLANs
E. BPDU guard
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Answer: D

123. Which statement best summarizes how DHCP snooping works?

A. DHCP snooping validates the header information of all DHCP replies and only allows the reply through if it has a
matching request in the DSRT.
B. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the
destination port sent a DHCP request in the last 5 seconds.
C. DHCP snooping validates all DHCP responses from all switch ports and only allows packets through if the
destination port specifically sent a DHCP request.
D. DHCP snooping determines which switch ports are trusted and can source all DHCP messages.

Answer: D

124. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration provided, how are the Hello packets sent by R2 handled
by R5 in OSPF area 5?

A. The Hello packets will be exchanged and adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5.
B. The Hello packets will be exchanged but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors only.
C. The Hello packets will be dropped and no adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5.
D. The Hello packets will be dropped but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors.

Answer: C

125. A network administrator would like to configure 802.1x port-based authentication, however, the client
workstation is not 802.1x compliant. What is the only supported authentication server that can be used?

A. TACACS with LEAP extensions


B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS with EAP extensions
D. LDAP

Answer: C

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126. Which two statements are true about port security? (Choose two.)

A. With port security configured, four MAC addresses are allowed by default.
B. Port security cannot be configured for ports supporting VoIP.
C. With port security configured, only one MAC address is allowed by default.
D. The network administrator must manually enter the MAC address for each device in order for the switch
to allow connectivity.
E. Port security can be configured for ports supporting VoIP.

Answer: CE

127. A switch has been configured with PVLANs. With what type of PVLAN port should the default
gateway be configured?

A. Isolated
B. Promiscuous
C. Community
D. Primary
E. Trunk

Answer: B

128. Refer to the exhibit. The lightweight wireless architecture splits the processing of the 802.11 data and
management protocols and the access point functionality between the access point and the WLAN controller
using split MAC approach. Which three functionalities are handled by the WLAN controller? (Choose three.)

A. the transmission of beacon frames


B. the portions of the protocol that have real-time requirements
C. the response to Probe Request frames from clients
D. 802.11 authentication
E. 802.11 association and re-association (mobility)
F. 802.11 frame translation and bridging

Answer: DEF

129. What is the function of the Service Set Identifier (SSID) in the wireless LAN?

A. The SSID should be configured on the client site only and provides data-privacy functions and
authentication to the access point.
B. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point. The SSID is advertised in plain-text in the
access point beacon messages.
C. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides encryption keys for
authentication to the access point.
D. The SSID must match on both the client and the access point and provides MAC Address Authentication to
authenticate the client to the access point.

Answer: B

130. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the repeater access point that is deployed in this wireless
network?
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A. The repeater access point should use a different SSID than the SSID configured on the parent access point.
B. The repeater access point should use a different WEP encryption method than the WEP encryption that is
enabled on the parent access point.
C. The repeater access point reduces the throughput in half because it receives and then re-transmits each
packet on the same channel.
D. The repeater access point requires a 10 percent channel overlap with channel of the root access point.

Answer: C

131. What are two differences between the Autonomous WLAN solution and the Lightweight WLAN solution?
(Choose two.)

A. TACACS+ can only be used for authentication with the Cisco Lightweight WLAN solution.
B. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Autonomous WLAN Solution.
C. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Lightweight WLAN Solution.
D. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Lightweight WLAN solution.
E. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Autonomous WLAN solution.

Answer: BD

132. Which statement is true about the data traffic between the access point and controller?

A. The data traffic is switched at the access point before being sent to the WLAN controller where VLAN tagging
and QoS are applied.
B. The data traffic is encrypted with AES.
C. The data traffic between the access point and controller is encrypted.
D. The data traffic is encapsulated with LWAPP.

Answer: D

133. Refer to the exhibit. If VLAN 21 does not exist before typing the commands, what is the result of the
configuration applied on switch SW1?

A. A new VLAN 21 is created and port 0/8 is assigned to that VLAN.


B. A new VLAN 21 is created, but no ports are assigned to that VLAN.
C. No VLAN 21 is created and no ports are assigned to that VLAN.
D. Configuration command vlan database should be used first to create the VLAN 21.

Answer: A

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134. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when the switch SW2 is connected to the rest of the network in the VTP
domain Lab_Network?

A. The recently introduced switch SW2 adds one more VLAN to the VLAN database in the VTP domain.
B. The recently introduced switch SW2 creates a STP loop in the VTP domain.
C. The recently introduced switch SW2 removes all configured VLANs throughout the VTP domain.
D. The recently introduced switch SW2 switches over to VTP transparent mode in order to be included into the
VTP domain.
E. A trunk should be configured between the two switches in order to integrate SW2 into the VTP domain.

Answer: C

135. Which routing protocol will continue to receive and process routing updates from neighbors after the passive-
interface router configuration command is entered?

A. EIGRP
B. RIP
C. OSPF
D. IS-IS

Answer: B

136. What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?

A. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain


B. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
C. enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain

Answer: D

137. How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?

A. by restricting unicast traffic to across VTP domains


B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limiting the spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates

Answer: B

138. Which technology manages multicast traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 LAN interfaces
dynamically to forward multicast traffic only to those interfaces that want to receive it?

A. IGMP
B. IGMP snooping
C. PIM-DM
D. DVMRP
E. MOSPF

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Answer: B

139. Which well-defined routing protocol would a network administrator configure on multicast routers when
member routers are widely dispersed?

A. Distance Vector Multicast Routing Protocol (DVMRP)


B. Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM-DM)
C. Multicast Open Shortest Path First (MOSPF)
D. Protocol Independent Multicast Sparse Mode (PIM-SM)
E. Core-Based Trees (CBT)

Answer: D

140. When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to
forward multicast packets for the group?

A. PIM-DM
B. PIM-SM
C. PIM-RP
D. CGMP
E. IGMP snooping

Answer: B

141. Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode 'desirable'?

A. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
B. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.

Answer: B

142. Given the following partial configuration for Router A:


interface serial 0
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 encapsulation frame-relay
ip ospf network point-to-multipoint router ospf 7
network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. DR/BDR elections do not take place.


B. The router is restricted to a hub and spoke topology.
C. The area 0 NBMA cloud is configured as more than one subnet.
D. OSPF neighbor statements are not necessary.

Answer: AD

143. Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP
negotiation frames?

A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto

Answer: D

144. Which command displays the number of times that the OSPF Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm has
been executed?

A. show ip protocol
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B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ip ospf
D. show ip ospf database

Answer: C

145. Which of the following NSAP addresses is a private, locally administered address?

A. 39.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
B. 48.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00
C. 49.0004.30ac.0000.3090.c7df.00
D. 52.0f01.0002.0000.0c00.1111.00

Answer: C

146. Which two methods advertise internal networks to external ISPs via BGP? (Choose two.)

A. using aggregate routes


B. disabling synchronization
C. forcing the next-hop address
D. defining routes via the network statement

Answer: AD

147. Which two table types are CEF components?(Choose two.)

A. forwarding information base


B. adjacency tables
C. neighbor tables
D. caching tables
E. route tables

Answer: AB

148. A network administrator assigns a multicast address of 239.255.8.5 to an application running on a device
with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use?

A. 01.00.5e.7F.08.05
B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80
C. 01.b2.7d.0a.08.05
D. 01.00.5e.05.f1.80
E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff

Answer: A

149. For the accompanying router output, which of the following statements describes the state that
neighbor 172.16.254.3 is in?

A. The router will not accept connections from the peer.


B. The router has sent out an active TCP connection request to the peer.
C. The router is listening on its server port for connection requests from the peer.
D. BGP can exchange routing information in this state.

Answer: C

150. Above is the output from show ip bgp neighbors command. What is line 21 stating about the BGP
connection?

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A. the number of consecutive TCP connections to the specified remote neighbor


B. the number of times the router has established a TCP connection
C. the number of total TCP connections that the router has
D. the number of neighbors that the router has

Answer: B

151. IS-IS is often considered an alternative to OSPF in the IP world. Which two statements identify
similarities between IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose two.)

A. support for designated intermediate systems and backup designated intermediate systems
B. support for multiple areas per router
C. support for classless routing
D. support for address summarization between areas
E. support for both DIS adjacencies and neighbor adjacencies

Answer: CD

152. In an IS-IS environment, what happens when the designated IS router crashes?

A. The elected backup designated router takes the place of the DIS indefinitely without the necessity of a new
election.
B. The elected backup designated router takes the place of the DIS temporarily without the necessity of a new
election, until the original DIS comes back online.
C. A new election process occurs immediately, establishing a new DIS that will remain in place indefinitely.
D. A new election process occurs immediately, establishing a new DIS until a router with a higher priority or MAC
address establishes an adjacency.

Answer: D

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153. Which protocol inserts a four byte tag into the Ethernet frame and recalculates CRC value?

A. VTP
B. 802.1Q
C. DTP
D. ISL

Answer: B

154. Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks?

A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking.


B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not.
C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match.
D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled.

Answer: B

155. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the show ip route isis output on R1, which statement is true?

A. The i su 10.1.0.0/23 route is an IS-IS external route.


B. The R1 IS-IS router is an ASBR.
C. The i su 10.1.0.0/23 route is a suppressed route.
D. The i su 10.1.0.0/23 route is a summary route.
E. The R1 IS-IS router is an ABR that belongs to multiple IS-IS areas.
F. The R1 IS-IS router is performing route aggregation and is suppressing the more specific 10.1.0.0/23 prefix.

Answer: D

156. In reference to the P1R3 show isis route output, which statement is true?

A. P1R1 is the exit point out of the area for P1R3.


B. P1R1 is a level-1 only IS-IS router.
C. P1R1 has been configured with a nondefault IS-IS metric.
D. P1R3 is a level-2 only IS-IS router.
E. P1R3 has been configured with a nondefault IS-IS metric.
F. P1R3 routing table should contain i L2 entries.

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Answer: A

157. Why should iBGP sessions be fully meshed within a Transit AS?

A. BGP requires redundant TCP sessions between iBGP peers.


B. A full mesh allows for optimal routing within the Transit AS.
C. Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other eBGP peers.
D. Routes learned via iBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.
E. Routes learned via eBGP are never propagated to other iBGP peers.

Answer: D

158. The 192.168.0.0 network is not being propagated throughout the network. Observe the BGP
configuration commands from the advertising router. What is the reason the 192.168.0.0 route is not being
advertised?
router bgp 65111
neighbor 172.16.1.1 remote-as 65111 neighbor 172.16.2.1 remote-as 65112 network 192.168.0.0
network 10.0.0.0

!
ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 null0

A. The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.255.0.0


B. The network 192.168.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.0.255.255.
C. The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 255.0.0.0.
D. The network 10.0.0.0 statement is missing mask 0.255.255.255.
E. The auto-summary configuration is missing.

Answer: A

159. What are the basic configuration steps to enable IS-IS?

A. Configure the net system-id command under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router
isis command.
B. Configure the network net-id command(s) under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router
isis command.
C. Configure the network net-id command(s) and the is-type level-1-2 command under router isis.
D. Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis.
E. Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis and enable IS-IS on each
interface with the ip router isis command.

Answer: A

160. Which BGP attribute is used by BGP to prevent routing loops?

A. AS-path
B. next-hop
C. MED
D. weight
E. local preference
F. origin

Answer: A

161. What is periodically sent by a DIS on a LAN to ensure that all adjacent neighbors' IS-IS link-state
databases are synchronized?

A. complete SNP (CSNP)


B. partial SNP (PSNP)
C. database query
D. database description packet (DDP)
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E. link-state summary
F. hello

Answer: A

162. Which three characteristics apply to IS-IS but not to OSPF? (Choose three.)

A. encapsulates PDUs directly into a data-link frame


B. uses a DIS and a backup DIS to present the pseudo-node on the LAN
C. uses stubby areas to improve network scalability
D. uses a default IOS metric of 10 on each interface
E. runs PRC (Partial Route Calculations) to calculate IP reachability information
F. uses an on-demand circuit to reduce the hello and LSA flooding across switched WAN links, such as
ISDN

Answer: ADE

163. Which BGP path attribute is Cisco proprietary?

A. weight
B. MED
C. local preference
D. origin
E. next-hop
F. AS-path

Answer: A

164. A network administrator has enabled OSPF across an NBMA network and has issued the command ip ospf
network nonbroadcast. Given those facts, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. DR and BDR elections will occur.


B. DR and BDR elections will not occur.
C. All routers must be configured in a fully meshed topology with all other routers.
D. The neighbor command is required to build adjacencies.
E. Interfaces will automatically detect and build adjacencies with neighbor routers.

Answer: AD

165. What does IS-IS use to establish and maintain neighbor relationships between IS's?

A. IIH
B. LSP
C. CLNS
D. CLNP
E. ISH

Answer: A

166. Which three statements are correct about the differences in IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose three.)

A. IS-IS LSP contains TLV fields and OSPF LSU contains the LSAs.
B. New additions to the protocol are easily implemented in OSPF but not with IS-IS.
C. For greater fine tuning there are more IS-IS timers.
D. OSPF has more area types than does IS-IS.
E. IS-IS is more CPU-intensive than is OSPF.

Answer: ACD

167. What is the default metric used on IS-IS routers for each interface?

A. The cost is set to 10 for all interfaces.


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B. The cost is set to 10 for LAN interfaces and 20 for WAN interfaces.
C. The cost is based on the speed of the interface.
D. The cost is based on a composite of bandwidth and delay of the interface.

Answer: A

168. Which three statements are true regarding the above diagram? (Choose three.)

A. A trunk link will be formed.


B. Only VLANs 1-1001 will travel across the trunk link.
C. The native VLAN for Switch B is vlan 1.
D. DTP is not running on Switch A.
E. DTP packets are sent from Switch B.

Answer: ACE

169. Which two tasks are required to configure PIM for IP multicast routing? (Choose two.)

A. Join a multicast group.


B. Enable CGMP.
C. Enable IP multicast routing.
D. Configure the TTL threshold.
E. Enable PIM on an interface.

Answer: CE

170. Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3?

A. membership query message


B. membership report message
C. leave group message
D. source filtering
E. destination filtering

Answer: D

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171. Which configuration commands will enable RTA to advertise all local interfaces over OSPF?
A. RTA(config)# router ospf 1
RTA(config-router)# default-information originate
B. RTA(config)# router ospf 1
RTA(config-router)# network 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255
C. RTA(config)# router ospf 1
RTA(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0
D. RTA(config)# router ospf 1
RTA(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
E. RTA(config)# router ospf 1
RTA(config-router)# redistribute static
F. RTA(config)# router ospf 1
RTA(config-router)# redistribute connected

Answer: F

172. Which attribute must exist in the BGP update packet?

A. LOCAL_ PREF
B. AGGREGATOR
C. AS_Path
D. Weight

Answer: C

173. Which BGP attribute will not be advertised in routing updates to its neighboring routers?

A. weight
B. local preference
C. origin
D. AS_path
E. next hop

Answer: A

174. Observe the diagram. RTC is the hub router and RTA and RTB are the spokes. There are no virtual circuits
between the spoke locations. What is needed to successfully route traffic to the 11.11.11.0/24 network from RTA?

A. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTA.


B. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTB.
C. The neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self command on RTC.
D. Nothing is required. This is the default behavior on this topology.

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Answer: C

175. Refer to the exhibit diagram and configuration. RTB is summarizing its networks from AS 64100 with the
aggregate-address command. However, the show ip route command on RTA reveals the RTB individual
networks as well as its summary route. Which option would ensure that only the summary route would appear in
the routing table of RTA?

A. Delete the four network statements and leave only the aggregate-address statement in the BGP
configuration.
B. Add the keyword summary-only to the aggregate-address command.
C. Add a static route with a prefix of 192.168.24.0 255.255.252.0 pointing to the null0 interface.
D. Create a route map permitting only the summary address.

Answer: B

176. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on router RTA to summarize all routes from area 0 to area 1?

A. area 0 range 172.16.96.0 255.255.224.0


B. area 0 range 172.16.96.0 255.255.255.0
C. area 1 range 172.16.96.0 255.255.224.0
D. area 1 range 172.16.96.0 255.255.0.0
E. summary-address 172.16.96.0 255.255.224.0

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F. summary-address 172.16.96.0 0.0.63.255

Answer: A

177. Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.)

A. VTP mode
B. STP root status
C. negotiation status
D. management domain
E. configuration revision number

Answer: DE

178. What is the maximum Ethernet frame size on a trunk link configured using IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation?

A. 1496 Bytes
B. 1500 Bytes
C. 1518 Bytes
D. 1522 Bytes
E. 1548 Bytes

Answer: D

179. What are two Cisco IOS commands that can be used to view neighbor adjacencies? (Choose two.)

A. show ip ospf database


B. show ip ospf neighbors
C. show ip ospf protocols
D. show ip ospf interfaces

Answer: BD

180. Which statement is true about IBGP routers?

A. They must be fully meshed.


B. They can be in a different AS.
C. They must be directly connected.
D. They do not need to be directly connected.

Answer: D

181. Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured?

A. show ip bgp
B. show ip bgp paths
C. show ip bgp peers
D. show ip bgp summary

Answer: D

182. Which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.)

A. L1 IS
B. L1 ES
C. L2 IS
D. L2 ES
E. L1/L2 IS

Answer: AE

183. The lack of which two prevents VTP information from propagating between switches? (Choose two.)
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A. VLAN 1
B. a trunk port
C. VTP priority
D. a root VTP server

Answer: AB

184. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have simultaneously been reloaded and the DR election has
concluded as expected. What state is RTB in?

A. 2WAY/DROTHER
B. 2WAY/BDR
C. 2WAY/DR
D. FULL/DROTHER
E. FULL/BDR
F. FULL/DR

Answer: D

185. Which statement is true about EBGP?

A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.


B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D. EBGP requires a full mesh.

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Answer: C

186. Based on the show ip bgp summary output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The BGP session to the 10.1.1.1 neighbor is established.


B. The BGP session to the 10.2.2.2 neighbor is established.
C. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established.
D. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.1.1.1 neighbor.
E. The BGP session to the 10.3.3.3 neighbor is established, but the router has not received any BGP routing
updates from the 10.3.3.3 neighbor.
F. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the 10.2.2.2 neighbor.

Answer: AF

187. Given the NSAP, 39.0100.0102.0001.0c00.1211.00, which portion is interpreted by IS-IS as the area?

A. 39
B. 39.0100
C. 39.0100.0102
D. 0001
E. 0001.0c00
F. 0001.0c00.1211

Answer: C

188. Refer to the exhibit. By default, when RTB passes BGP advertisements from RTA about network
192.168.2.0 to RTC, what address will be listed as the next-hop address?

A. 10.1.1.1
B. 10.1.1.2
C. 192.168.1.49
D. 192.168.1.50

Answer: D

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189. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 7 LSAs into type
5 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
B. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 7 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 7 LSAs
throughout the backbone.
C. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will flood the type 5 LSAs
throughout the backbone.
D. RTA will redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA as type 5 LSAs. RTB will translate the type 5 LSAs into type
7 LSAs and flood them throughout the OSPF backbone.
E. RTA will not redistribute the RIP routes into the NSSA.

Answer: A

190. OSPF is configured over a Frame Relay network as shown in the exhibit. All PVCs are active. However, R1
and R3 fail to see all OSPF routes in their routing tables. The show ip ospf neighbor command executed on R2
shows the state of the neighbors. What should be done to fix the problem?

A. The ip ospf network non-broadcast command should be configured on each Frame Relay interface.
B. The ip ospf network broadcast command should be configured on each Frame Relay interface.

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C. The neighbor command should be configured under the OSPF routing process on all routers.
D. The ip ospf priority value on the hub router should be set to 0.
E. The ip ospf priority value on the spoke routers should be set to 0.

Answer: E

191. Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the
configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed?

A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC.
C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC.
D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC.

Answer: A

192. Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the
configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?

A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone.
B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone.

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C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW.
D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch
port Fa0/4.
E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port.

Answer: C

193. Which option correctly identifies the Cisco IOS switching methods in descending order from the fastest
method to the slowest method?
A. CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching, process switching
B. distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching, process switching
C. fast switching, process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
D. process switching, fast switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF
E. process switching, distributed CEF (dCEF), CEF, fast switching
F. process switching, CEF, distributed CEF (dCEF), fast switching

Answer: B

194. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is verifying that a CEF FIB entry exists to destination network
192.168.150.0. Given the output generated by the show ip cef and show adjacency detail commands, which
three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. There is a valid CEF entry for the destination network 192.168.150.0.


B. The "valid cached adjacency" entry indicates that CEF will put all packets going to such an adjacency to the
next best switching mode.
C. The counters (0 packets, 0 bytes) indicate a problem with the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
D. There is an adjacency for the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
E. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the 192.168.199.3 next hop IP address.
F. The number 003071506800 is the MAC address of the source IP address.

Answer: ADE

195. Which two statements are true about a switched virtual interface (SVI)? (Choose two.)

A. An SVI is created by entering the no switchport command in interface configuration mode.


B. An SVI is created for the default VLAN (VLAN1) to permit remote switch administration by default.
C. An SVI provides a default gateway for a VLAN.
D. Multiple SVIs can be associated with a VLAN. E. SVI is another name for a routed port.

Answer: BC

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196. Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.)

A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other routing
protocols such as EIGRP.
B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group.
C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of 224.0.0.2, and a TTL
value of 1.
D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers.
E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward
traffic from.
F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode.

Answer: BCE

197. Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping?
(Choose two.)

A. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously on a switch.
B. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help Layer 3
switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own.
C. IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded only to hosts that sent
an IGMP message toward the router.
D. IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches.
E. IGMP snooping is enabled with the ip multicast-routing global configuration command.

Answer: CD

198. Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and cannot
access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence would
correct the problem?

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A. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1


SW1(config-if)# no shut
B. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
C. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access
SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10
D. SW1(config)# vlan 10
SW1(config-vlan)# no shut
E. SW1(config)# vlan 10
SW1(config-vlan)# state active

Answer: A

199. Which two statements are true about IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.)

A. An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors.


B. A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the
autonomous system.
C. IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems.
D. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via EBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.
E. The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers.

Answer: BE

200. Refer to the exhibit. Routers RTA and RTB are running BGP but the session is active. What
command needs to be added to establish the BGP session?

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A. ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/0 ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 s0/1


B. network 10.10.10.0
C. neighbor 10.10.10.1 next-hop-self
D. no synchronization

Answer: A

201. An administrator types in the command router ospf 1 and receives the error message: "OSPF process
1 cannot start." (Output is omitted.) What should be done to correctly set up OSPF?

A. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address.


B. Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address and is up.

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C. Ensure that IP classless is enabled.
D. Ensure that the interfaces can ping their directly connected neighbors.

Answer: B

202. Refer to the exhibit. Given the exhibited router output, which command sequence can be
added to R1 to generate a default route into the OSPF domain?

A. default-router
B. ip default-network
C. default-information originate always
D. ip default-gateway

Answer: C

203. Which three statements are true about IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.)

A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
B. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router.
C. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known.
D. PIM sparse-dense mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.
E. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network.
F. PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network.

Answer: BCE

204. Refer to the exhibit. The switchport output in Figure 1 displays the default settings of
interface FastEthernet 0/13 on switch SW1. Figure 2 displays the desired interface settings.
Which command sequence would configure interface FastEthernet 0/13 as displayed in Figure 2?

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A. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q


SW1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA
SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
B. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic auto SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native DATA
SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan add 1,10,20
C. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode
dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan DATA SW1(config-if)#
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
D. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
SW1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10
SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,10,20
E. SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q SW1(config-if)# switchport mode
dynamic desirable SW1(config-if)# switchport trunk native vlan 10

Answer: B

205. Refer to the exhibit. For what purpose is the command show ip cef used?

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A. to display rewritten IP unicast packets


B. to display ARP resolution packets
C. to display ARP throttling
D. to display TCAM matches
E. to display CEF-based MLS lookups
F. to display entries in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB)

Answer: F

206. Refer to the exhibit. Host A and Host B are connected to the Catalyst 3550 switch and
have been assigned to their respective VLANs. The rest of the 3550 configuration is the default
configuration. Host A is able to ping its default gateway, 10.10.10.1, but is unable to ping Host B.
Given the output displayed in the exhibit, which statement is true?

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A. HSRP must be configured on SW1.


B. A separate router is required to support interVLAN routing.
C. Interface VLAN 10 must be configured on the SW1 switch.
D. The global config command ip routing must be configured on the SW1 switch.
E. VLANs 10 and 15 must be created in the VLAN database mode.
F. VTP must be configured to support interVLAN routing.

Answer: D

207. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output generated by the show commands,
which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

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A. All interfaces on the switch have been configured as access ports.


B. Because it has not been assigned to any VLAN, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not
appear in the show vlan output.
C. Because it is configured as a trunk interface, interface gigabitethernet 0/1 does not appear in
the show vlan output.
D. There are no native VLANs configured on the trunk.
E. VLAN 1 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.
F. VLAN 2 will not be encapsulated with an 802.1q header.

Answer: CE

208. What does the Catalyst switch interface configuration command switchport trunk
native vlan 7 accomplish?

A. configures the interface to be a trunking port and causes traffic on VLAN 7 to be 802.1q
tagged
B. causes the interface to apply ISL framing for traffic on VLAN 7
C. configures the trunking interface to send traffic from VLAN 7 untagged
D. configures the trunking interface to forward traffic from VLAN 7

Answer: C

209. Refer to the exhibit. Switch P1S1 is not applying VLAN updates from switch P2S1. What
are three reasons why this is not occurring? (Choose three.)

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A. Switch P2S1 is in server mode.


B. Switch P1S1 is in transparent mode.
C. The MD5 digests do not match.
D. The passwords do not match.
E. The VTP domains are different.
F. VTP trap generation is disabled on both switches.

Answer: BDE

210. Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the output of show vlan on switch CAT2, what can we
conclude about interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14?

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A. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are in VLAN 1
B. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are down
C. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 are trunk interfaces
D. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a domain mismatch with another switch
E. that interfaces Fa0/13 and Fa0/14 have a duplex mismatch with another switch

Answer: C

211. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true based upon the configuration in the exhibit?

A. If a rendezvous point is configured, the interface cannot operate in dense mode.


B. The rendezvous point is IP address 172.16.4.16.
C. IGMP version 2 is being used.
D. CGMP version 2 is being used.
E. The switch will use sparse mode first, dense mode second.
F. A rendezvous point must be configured in order for the interface to operate in sparse mode.

Answer: F

212. Refer to the exhibit. VLAN2, VLAN3, and VLAN10 are configured on the switch D-SW1.
Host computers are on VLAN 2 (10.1.2.0), servers are on VLAN 3 (10.1.3.0), and the
management VLAN is on VLAN10 (10.1.10.0). Hosts are able to ping each other but are unable
to reach the servers. On the basis of the exhibited output, which configuration solution could
rectify the problem?

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A. Enable IP routing on the switch D-SW1.


B. Configure a default route that points toward network 200.1.1.0/24.
C. Assign an IP address of 10.1.3.1/24 to VLAN3.
D. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.2.1 on each host.
E. Configure default gateways to IP address 10.1.10.1 on each host.
F. Configure default gateways to IP address 200.1.1.2 on each host.

Answer: C

213. Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.)

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A. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs.


B. This interface is configured for access mode.
C. This interface is a member of VLAN1.
D. This interface is a member of VLAN7.
E. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN.

Answer: BD

214. Refer to the exhibit. Which interface or interfaces on switch SW_A can have the port security
feature enabled?

A. Port 0/1
B. Ports 0/1 and 0/2

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C. Ports 0/1, 0/2 and 0/3
D. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3 and the trunk port 0/22
E. The trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports
F. Ports 0/1, 0/2, 0/3, the trunk port 0/22 and the EtherChannel ports

Answer: C

215. Which three interface commands will configure the switch port to support a connected
Cisco phone and to trust the CoS values received on the port if CDP discovers that a Cisco
phone is attached? (Choose three.)

A. mls qos trust override cos


B. mls qos trust cos
C. mls qos trust device cisco-phone
D. switchport priority extend cos_value
E. switchport voice vlan vlan-id

Answer: BCE

216. Refer to the exhibit. How will interface FastEthernnet0/1 respond when an 802.1x-
enabled client connects to the port?

A. The switch port will enable 802.1x port-based authentication and begin relaying authentication
messages between the client and the authentication server.
B. The switch port will disable 802.1x port-based authentication and cause the port to
transition to the authorized state without any further authentication exchange.
C. The switch will cause the port to remain in the unauthorized state, ignoring all attempts by the
client to authenticate.
D. The switch will uniquely authorize the client by using the client MAC address.

Answer: B

217. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true when voice traffic is forwarded on the same
VLAN used by the data traffic?

A. Quality of service cannot be applied for the voice traffic.


B. The voice traffic cannot be forwarded to the distribution layer.
C. Port security cannot be enabled on the switch that is attached to the IP phone.
D. The voice traffic cannot use 802.1p priority tagging.

Answer: D

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218. Which statement is true about 802.1x port-based authentication?

A. Hosts are required to have a 802.1x authentication client or utilize PPPoE.


B. Before transmitting data, an 802.1x host must determine the authorization state of the switch.
C. RADIUS is the only supported authentication server type.
D. If a host initiates the authentication process and does not receive a response, it assumes
it is not authorized.

Answer: C

219. Which two statements are true about recommended practices in VLAN design? (Choose
two.)

A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should
occur at the distribution layer.
B. Routing should always be performed at the distribution layer.
C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches.
D. VLANs should be localized to a switch.
E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized.

Answer: BD

220. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?

A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with
a value of 48.
B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging
from 8 to 56.
C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11
and Fa0/12 with a value of 45.
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D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of 0008.8595.d1a7 and 0007.8595.d2b7 are
connected to
CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively.
E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12. F.
Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40.

Answer: D

221. Which statement is true about the Forward Information Base (FIB) table?

A. The FIB is derived from the IP routing table and is optimized for maximum lookup throughput.
B. The FIB table is derived from the Address Resolution Protocol table, and it contains Layer
2 rewrite (MAC) information for the next hop.
C. The FIB lookup is based on the Layer 2 destination MAC address.
D. When the FIB table is full, a wildcard entry redirects traffic to the Layer 3 engine.

Answer: A

222. Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs.
On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an
attempt to ping from host to host?

A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping
command to be successful.
B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping
command to be successful.
C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful.
D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes.

Answer: D

223. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct output of the command show ip route on router R2?

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A. R2# show ip route


<output omitted>
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks
i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1,
Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0
i L1 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
i L2 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1

B. R2# show ip route


<output omitted>
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks
i L2 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1,

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Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0

C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0


i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1

C. R2# show ip route


<output omitted>
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks
i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1,
Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0
C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0
i L2 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1

D. R2# show ip route


<output omitted>
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 7 subnets, 3 masks
i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L2 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1,
Serial1/1 i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0
C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i su 10.1.2.0/23 [115/10] via 0.0.0.0, Null0
C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1
i L2 10.1.0.0/23 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1

E. R2# show ip route


<output omitted>
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks
i L1 10.200.200.14/32 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0 i L1 10.200.200.13/32 [115/30] via 10.1.2.4,
Serial1/0 [115/30] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
i L1 10.1.3.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.2.4, Serial1/0
C 10.1.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/0
i L1 10.1.1.0/24 [115/20] via 10.1.0.1, Serial1/1
C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, Serial1/1

Answer: C

224. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are
exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates
from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will
successfully accomplish this task?

A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1


R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0
B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1
R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0

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C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any
R1(config)# router eigrp 1
R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any
R2(config)# router eigrp 1
R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0
E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any
R1(config)# router eigrp 1
R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0
F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any
R2(config)# router eigrp 1
R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0

Answer: C

225. Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and
Recipient B are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which
statement is true?

A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the
multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will
participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast
tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast
tree once pruning has taken place.
E. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast
tree once pruning has taken place.
F. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast
tree once pruning has taken place.

Answer: B

226. Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host B and
Host F are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which
statement is true?

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A. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree.


B. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
C. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place.
D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree. E. Switch 1 is the rendezvous of
the multicast tree.

Answer: D

227. Refer to the network of Layer 3 switches in the exhibit. The RPI Multicast Server only
multicasts to hosts connected to multilayer switches 5 and 6. The CMU Multicast Server
multicasts to hosts on multilayer switches 1-6. Given the number of configuration steps involved,
what is the most efficient way to configure the network while meeting the requirements for
multicast data flow?

A. Configure each switch with PIM dense mode.

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B. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode.
C. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode.
Leave each multicast server as the root of its own multicast tree.
D. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode.
Allow the switches to elect their own root for each multicast tree.
E. Configure each switch with PIM sparse mode and a separate instance of PIM dense mode.
Specify switch 1 as the root for the RPI Multicast Server. Specify switch 2 as the root for the
CMU Multicast Server.
F. Configure each switch with PIM sparse-dense mode. Configure switch 3 as a rendezvous
point for the RPI multicast stream.

Answer: F

228. A router is running BGP and receives more than one route for a particular prefix. Assume
all the routes for this prefix have the same attributes. Which three path features would be
reasons be for the router to ignore some of the routes and not consider them as candidates for
the best path? (Choose three.)

A. paths that are marked as synchronized in the show ip bgp output


B. paths that are marked as not synchronized in the show ip bgp output
C. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is accessible
D. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is inaccessible
E. paths from an external BGP (eBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS)
appears in the
AS_PATH
F. paths from an internal BGP (iBGP) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS)
appears in the
AS_PATH

Answer: BDE

229. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Interface FastEthernet 0/0 was configured with the ipv6 ospf 1 area 1 command.
B. OSPF version 2 has been enabled to support IPv6.
C. The IP address of the backup designated router (BDR) is FE80::205:5FFF:FED3:5808.
D. The output was generated by the show ip interface command.
E. The router was configured with the commands:
router ospf 1
network 172.16.6.0 0.0.0.255 area 1
F. This is the designated router (DR) on the FastEthernet 0/0 link.

Answer: AC
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230. Which three route filtering statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. After the router rip and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0
interface will not send any RIP updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
B. After the router eigrp 10 and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0
interface will not send any EIGRP updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
C. After the router ospf 10 and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued , the s0/0
interface will not send any OSPF updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface.
D. When you use the passive-interface command with RIPv2, multicasts are sent out the
specified interface.
E. When you use the passive-interface command with EIGRP, hello messages are not
sent out the specified interface.
F. When you use the passive-interface command with OSPF, hello messages are not sent
out the specified interface.

Answer: AEF

231. Which two statements are true about IS-IS routing? (Choose two.)

A. IS-IS is more efficient than OSPF in the use of CPU resources.


B. Based on the default timers, OSPF detects a failure faster than IS-IS does.
C. OSPF default timers permit more tuning than IS-IS does.
D. OSPF is more scalable than IS-IS because of its ability to identify normal, stub, and NSSA
areas.
E. IS-IS and OSPF are both Open Standard, link-state routing protocols which support VLSM.

Answer: AE

232. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF has been configured on all routers in the network and Area 1
has been configured as a NSSA. Which statement is true about the NSSA Area 1?

A. Redistributed RIP and IGRP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 5
LSAs.
B. Only redistributed RIP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 7 LSAs.
C. Only redistributed IGRP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 7 LSAs.
D. No redistributed routes can appear in Area 1, only summary routes.

Answer: C

233. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) enabled
interfaces. On the basis of the configuration provided on routers R1 and R2, which router will
take on the function of rendezvous point (RP) for the multicast network?

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A. router R1
B. router R2
C. both routers R1 and R2
D. none of the routers since they are not configured with static RP

Answer: B

234. Which two statements are true about the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network?
(Choose two.)

A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM
DM).
B. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM
SM).
C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse-
dense mode
(PIM-SDM).
D. The multicast sources must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree. E. The
multicast receivers must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree.
F. To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join
the RP.

Answer: BF

235. Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast for group address 224.1.1.1 has been enabled on all
routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However, hosts on
Network B do not. On the basis of outputs provided, what could be the cause of the problem?

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A. Router R2 does not have an RP configured on the multicast network.


B. Router R2 does not see the upstream router R1 as a PIM neighbor.
C. Because of RPF failure, Router R2 does not forward multicast packets to Network B.
D. The multicast packets are sourced from a server with an unspecified IP address.

Answer: C

236. What does the command clear ipv6 ospf process accomplish?
A. The OSPF adjacencies are cleared and initiated again.
B. The route table is cleared. Then the OSPF neighbors are reformed.
C. The shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed on the LSA database.
D. The OSPF database is repopulated. Then the shortest path first (SPF) algorithm is performed.

Answer: D

237.
Scenerio:
Online Incorporated is an online investment firm. The network uses OSPF as its routing protocol,
Recently, system administrators have experienced discrepancles in synchoroizing their
accounting servers at separate locations within OSPF area 0. Link failures have been observed
in the network as several adds. Moves and changes have been applied during the company’ s
rapid growth. However,it is the intent that OSPF be able to converge around these failures. Read
through all questions before answering.

Topology:

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Question 1
CRRouter1 has lost connectivity to Router2. The following is Router1’s current route table:
172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 3 subnets, 2 masks
o IA 172.16.30.0/24 [110/11] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:03, FastEthernet0/0
o IA 172.16.44.0/24 [110/12] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:03, FastEthernet0/0
o IA 172.16.2.0/30 [110/2] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:03, FastEthernet0/0
10.0.0.0/30 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 10.147.5.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
Which expected route is missing from CRRouter1’s route table based on the topology during the
maintenance period?

A. o 10.243.0.0 [110/2] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0


B. o IA 10.243.0.0 [110/2] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
C. o 10.134.184.0 [110/3] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
D. o IA 10.134.184.0 [110/3] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
E. o IA 3.121.201.44 [110/2] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
F. o IA 7.2.161.93 [110/3] via 10.147.5.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0

Answer: C

Question 2
Examine the following excerpt from the show ip ospf command on Switch1:

Area BACKBONE(0)
Number of interfaces in this area is 1
Area has no authentication
SPF algorithm last executed 00:00:31.280 ago
SPF algorithm executed 5 times
Area ranges are
Number of LSA 13. Checksum Sum 0x16F0FD
Number of opaque link LSA 0. Checksum Sum 0x000000
Number of DCbitless LSA 0
Number of indication LSA 0
Number of DoNotAge LSA 0
Flood list length 0
Area 3
Number of interfaces in this area is 2
Area has message digest authentication
SPF algorithm last executed 00:00:34.928 ago
SPF algorithm executed 7 times
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Area ranges are
Number of LSA 5. Checksum Sum 0x02FCD3
Number of opaque link LSA 0. Checksum Sum 0x000000
Number of DCbitless LSA 0
Number or indication LSA 0
Number of DoNotAge LSA 0
Flood list length 0
What is causing the different missing routes throughout the network?

A. Area 3 has been configured as a stub network.


B. Area 3 has been configured as a total stub network.
C. Area 0 and Area 3 have been configured with mismatched LSA numbers.
D. Area 3 has been configured to use the same interfaces as Area 0.
E. Area 0 is discontiguous.
F. Area 3 Is configured with authentication.

Answer: E

Question 3
Which configuration command on Switch1 (with a similar command on Switch2) will provide an
immediate solution to the missing route problem?

A. No area 3 stub
B. No area 3 stub no-summary
C. No area 3 authentication message-digest
D. Area 3 virtual-link 7.2.161.93
E. Area 3 virtual-link 172.16.2.2
F. Network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 3

Answer: D

238.

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Question 1
During routine maintenance,it became necessary to shut down gidabitethernet1/01 on DSW1.
ALL other interfaces were up, during this time,DSW1 remained the active device for vlan 102's
HSRP group.You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track
command in VLAN 102's HSRP group .what needs to be done to make the group function
properly?

A: The DSW1'S decrement value should be configured with a value from 5 to 15


B: The DSW1'S decrement value should be configured with a value from 9 t0 15
C: The DSW1'S decrement value should be configured with a value from 11 to 18
D: The DSW1'S decrement value should be greater than 190 and less 200
E: The DSW1'S decrement value should be configured with a value from 195 to less than 205
F: The DSW1'S decrement value should be configured with a value from 200 to less than 205

Answer: C

Question 2
DSW2 has not become the active device for vlan 103's HSRP group even though all interfaces
are active,as related to vlan 103's HSRP group,what can be done to make the group function
properly?

A: on DSW1 ,disable preempt


B: on DSW1,decrease the priority value to a value less than 190 and greater 150
C: ON DSW2,increase the priority value to a value greater 241 and less than 249
D: ON DSW2,increase the decrement vlue in the track command to a value greater than 10 and
less than 50

Answer: C

Question 3
During routine maintenance,it became necessary to shut down GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on DSW1
and DSW2 .all other interfaces were up, during this time,DSW1 became the active device for
VLAN 104's HSRP group,as related to vlan 104's HSRP group,what can to be done to make the
group function properly

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A: on DSW1,disable preempt
B: ON DSW2 decrease the priority value to a value less than 150
C: on DSW1,increase the decrement vlaue in the track command to a value greater than 6
D: ON DSW1,disable the track command

Answer: C

Question 4
If GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on DSW1 is shut down,what will be the current priority value of the vlan
105's HSRP group on router DSW1?

A:95
B:100
C:150
D:200

Answer: A

Question 5
What is the configured priority value of vlan 105's HSRP group on DSW2?
A:50
B:100
C:150
D:200

Answer: B

Question 6
During routine maintenance,GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on DSW1 was shut down. All other interfaces
were up,DSW2 became the active HRSP device for vlan 101 as desired .however.after
GidabiEthernet1/0/1 on DSW1 was reactivated,DSW1 did not become the active device as
desired. What needs to be done to make the group for VLAN101 function properly?

A: enable preempt in DSW1's VLAN 101 HSRP group


B: disable preempt in DSW2'S VLAN 101 HSRP group
C: decrease DSW1'S priority value for vlan 101's HSRP group to a value that is less than the
priority value configured on DSW2'S HSRP group for VLAN 101
D: decrease the decrement value in the track command for DSW1's vlan 101 HSRP group to a
value less than the value in the track command for DSW2'S VLAN 101 HSRP group

Answer: A

239. Acme is a small shipping company that has an existing enterprise network comprised of 2
switches;DSW1 and DSW2.The topology diagram indicates their layer 2 mapping,vlan 40 is a
new vlan that will be used to provie the shiping personnel access to the server.for security
reasons,it is necessary to restrict access to vlan 20 in the following manner;
-users connecting to ASW1'S port must be authenticate before they are given access to the
network authentication is to be done via a radius server

The Radius server and application servers will be installed at a future date,you have been tasked
with implementing the above access control as a pre=-condition to installing the servers,you
must use the available ios switch features

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Switch 1 provision ws-c3750g-24t
!
ip subnet-zero

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Answer:

ASW1#conf t
ASW1(config)#aaa new-model
ASW1(config)#radius-server host 172.120.39.46 key rad123
ASW1(config)#aaa authentication dot1x default group radius
ASW1(config)#dot1x system-auth-control
ASW1(config)#int f0/1
ASW1(config-if)#switchport mode access
ASW1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
ASW1(config-if)#dot1x port-control auto
ASW1(config-if)#end
ASW1#copy run start

DSW1#conf t
DSW1(config)#ip access-list standard 10
DSW1(config-std-nacl)#permit 172.120.40.0 0.0.0.255
DSW1(config-std-nacl)#exit
DSW1(config)#vlan access-map PASS 10
DSW1(config-access-map)#match ip address 10
DSW1(config-access-map)#action forward
DSW1(config-access-map)#exit
DSW1(config)#vlan access-map PASS 20
DSW1(config-access-map)#action drop
DSW1(config-access-map)#exit
DSW1(config)#vlan filter PASS vlan-list 20
DSW1(config)#end
DSW1#copy run start

240.

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line aux 0
line vty 0 15
transport input ssh
!
end

Answer:

R2(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1


R2(config-router)#area 11 virtual-link 3.3.3.3

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R2(config-router)#end
R2#copy run start

R3(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1


R3(config-router)#area 11 virtual-link 2.2.2.2
R3(config-router)#no area 54 virtual-link 4.4.4.4
R3(config-router)#end
R3#copy run start

R4(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1


R4(config-router)#no area 54 virtual-link 3.3.3.3
R4(config-router)#end
R4#copy run start

241.

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Answer:

DSW1#conf t
DSW1(config)#spanning-tree vlan 20 priority 61440
DSW1(config)#int g1/0/5
DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree vlan 40 cost 1
DSW1(config-if)#no shut DSW1(config-if)#exit
DSW1(config)#int g1/0/6
DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree vlan 30 port-priority 64
DSW1(config-if)#no shut
DSW1(config-if)#end
DSW1#copy run start

Verification:
DSW1# show spanning-tree vlan 20
DSW1# show spanning-tree vlan 30
DSW1# show spanning-tree vlan 40

242.

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Answer:

R3>enable R3#conf t
R3(config)#router eigrp 123
R3(config-router)#no eigrp stub receive-only
R3(config-router)#eigrp stub
R3(config-router)#end
R3#copy run start

R4>enable
R4#conf t
R4(config)#int s0/0
R4(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp 123 10.2.3.0 255.0.0.0
R4(config-if)#no shut
R4(config-if)#end
R4#copy run start
R4# show ip route

243.
Online Incorporated is an internet game provider. The game service network had recently added an
additional switch block with multiple VLANs configured. Unfortunately, systemadministrators neglected to
document the spanning-tree topology during configuration. For baseline purposes, you will be required to
identify the spanning-tree topology for the switch block. Using the output of the show spanning-tree
command on switch SW-C and the provided physical topology, answer the questions given below

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Question: 1
Which bridge ID belongs to switch SW-B?

A. 24663.000f.34f5.0280
B. 32768.000d.bd03.0145
C. 32768.000d.65db.0025
D. 32769.000d.65db.0025
E. 32947.000d.bd03.0145
F. 32855.000d.bd03.0145

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Answer: A

Question: 2
Which port state is interface Fa0/2 of switch SW-B in for VLANs 1 and 179?

A. Blocking
B. Disabled
C. Discarding
D. Forwarding
E. Learning
F. Listening

Answer: A

Question: 3
Which bridge ID belongs to switch SW-A?

A. 32768.000d.bd03.0308
B. 32769.000d.65db.0102
C. 32874.000d.db03.0308
D. 32815.000d.db03.0308

Answer: B

Question: 4
Which Spanning Tree Protocol has been implemented on switch SW-B?

A. PVST+
B. PVRST
C. MSTP/IEEE 802.1s
D. STP/IEEE 802.1D

Answer: A

Question: 5
Which port role has interface Fa0/2 of switch SW-A adopted for VLAN 87?

A. Alternate port
B. Backup port
C. Designated port
D. Root port
E. Nondesignated port

Answer: C

244. The Company company recently completed merging with Lynaic. The two companies have
been using separate routing protocols on their corporate networks, and an immediate solution
is required for the two companied to begin sharing data. A boundary router, Amadiya, has been
established to perform mutual redistribution of route information between the two networks. Configure
route redistribution from EIGRP into IS-IS and from IS-IS into EIGRP onthe boundary route per the
following requirements:

1. Seed metric for EIGRP must have the following characteristics: Bandwidth=512 Kbps
Delay=100
Reliability=255
Load=1
MTU=1500
2.Seed metric for IS-IS must be set to 50.
3.Only redistribute Level-1 IS-IS routes into EIGRP.
4.Redistribute EIGPR routes into IS-IS as Level-1 routes

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All Passwords on all rotuers are "cisco"

Amadiya (config)#conf t
Amadiya (config)# router isis
Amadiya (config-router)# redistribute eigrp 100 level-1 metric 50
Amadiya (config)# router eigrp 100
Amadiya (config-router)# redistribute isis level-1 metric 512 100 255 1 1500
Amadiya (config-router)# redistribute connected
Amadiya # copy run start

245.

VLAN IDs: 20 21
IP Addresses 172.16.200.1/24 172.16.39.1/24
You task is described as follows :
1. Configure the VTP information with the distribution layer switch as the VTP server
2. Configure the VTP information with the access layer switch as a VTP client
3. Configure VLANs on the distribution layer switch
4. Configure inter-VLAN routing on the distribution layer switch
5. Specific VLAN port assignments will be made as users are added to the access layer switches in the
future.
6. All VLANs and VTP configurations are to completed in the global configuration To configure the switch
click on the host icon that is connected to the switch be way of a serial console cable.
Commands that use the [Control] or [Escape] keys are not supported and are not necessary to complete
this simulation. The help command does not display all commands of the help system. The help
supports the first level of help system and selected lower layers.

Answer:

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VTP Server Configuration:


DLswitch#conf t
DLswitch(config)#vtp mode server
DLswitch(config)#vtp domain CISCO
DLswitch(config)#vlan 20
DLswitch(config)#vlan 21
DLswitch(config)#int vlan 20
DLswitch(if-config)#ip add 172.16.200.1 255.255.255.0
DLswitch(if-config)#no shut
DLswitch(if-config)#int vlan 21
DLswitch(if-config)#ip add 172.16.39.1 255.255.255.0
DLswitch(if-config)#no shut
DLswitch(if-config)#exit
DLswitch(config)#ip routing
DLswitch(config)#exit
DLswitch#copy run start

VTP Client Configuration:


ALswitch#conf t
ALswitch(config)#vtp mode client
ALswitch(config)#vtp domain CISCO
ALswitch(config)#exit
ALswitch#copy run start

246. OSPF is configure on routers Indianapolis and Atlanta. Indianapolis's S0/0 interface and Atlanta's
S0/1 interface are in Area 0. Lynaic's Loopback0 interface is in Area 2.Your task is to configure the
following:
Company's S0/0 interface in Area 1
Amaniya's S0/1 interface in Area 1
Use the appropriate mask such that ONLY Company's S0/0 and Amaniya's S0/1 could be in
Area 1.
Area 1 should not receive any external or inter-area routes (except the default route).

Portland # conf t
Portland(config)# router ospf 1
Portland (config-router)# network 192.168.4.4 0.0.0.3 area 1
Portland (config-router)# area 1 stub Portland (config-router)# end Portland # copy run start

Indianapolis# conf t
Indianapolis (config)# router ospf 1
Indianapolis (config-router)# network 192.168.4.4 0.0.0.3 area 1

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Indianapolis (config-router)# area 1 stub no-summary


Indianapolis (config-router)# end
Indianapolis # copy run start

247. The PassGuide headquarter office for a book retailer is installing a temporary Catalyst 3550 in an
IDF to connect 24 additional users. To prevent network corruption, it is important to have the correct
configuration prior to connecting to the production network. It will be necessary to ensure that the switch
does not participate in VTP but forwards VTP advertisements that are received on trunk ports. Because
of errors that have been experienced on office computers, all nontrunking interfaces should transition
immediately to the forwarding state of Spanningree. Also, configure the user ports(all FastEthernet ports)
so that the ports are permanently nontrunking. You will have to scroll this window and the problem
statement window to view the entire problem. To configure the switch click on a host icon that is
connected to a switch by a serial console cable(shown in the diagram as a curved solid black line).The
[Tab] key.

PassGuide-S#conf t
PassGuide-S(config)#vtp mode transparent
PassGuide-S(config)#interface range fa0/1 - 24
PassGuide-S(config-if-range)#switchport mode access PassGuide-S(config-if-range)#spanning-tree
portfast PassGuide-S(config-if-range)#exit
PassGuide-S(config)#interface range fa0/12 - 24
PassGuide-S(config-if-range)#switchport access vlan 10
PassGuide-S(config-if-range)#end
PassGuide-S# copy run start

248. Drag and Drop Question Drag the items to the proper locations

Answer:

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249. Drag and drop question. Drag the items to the proper locations.

Answer:

250.

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Answer:

251. Place the BGP attributes in the correct order used for determining a route

252. Which three statements about STP timers are true? (Choose three.)

A: STP timers values (hello, forward delay, max age) are included in each BPDU.

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B: A switch is not concerned about its local configuration of the STP timers values. It will only consider
the value of the STP timers contained in the BPDU it is receiving.
C: To successfully exchange BPDUs between two switches, their STP timers value (hello, forward delay,
max age) must be the same.
D: If any STP timer value (hello, forward delay, max age) needs to be changed, it should at least be
changed on the root bridge and backup root bridge.
E: On a switched network with a small network diameter, the STP hello timer can be tuned to a lower
value to decrease the load on the switch CPU.
F: The root bridge passes the timer information in BPDUs to all routers in the Layer 3 configuration.

Answer: ABD

253. Which two statements are true about HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP? (Choose two.)

A. GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment without the different host IP
configurations required to achieve the same results with HSRP.
B: GLBP allows for router load balancing of traffic from a network segment by utilizing the creation of
multiple standby groups.
C: GLBP and VRRP allow for MD5 authentication, whereas HSRP does not.
D: Unlike HSRP and VRRP, GLBP allows automatic selection and simultaneous use of multiple available
gateways.
E: HSRP allows for multiple upstream active links being simultaneously used, whereas GLBP does not.

Answer: AD

254. The network administrator has found the following problem. The remote networks 172.16.10.0,
172.16.20.0, and 172.16.30.0 are accessed through the Central router's serial 0/0 interface. No users
are able to access 172.16.20.0. After reviewing the command output shown in the graphic, what is the
most likely cause of the problem?

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A. no gateway of last resort on Central


B. Central router's not receiving 172.16.20.0 update
C. incorrect static route for 172.16.20.0
D. 172.16.20.0 not located in Central's routing table

Answer: C

255. The network administrator of the COMPANY-A router adds the following command to the router
configuration: ip route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. What are the results of adding this
command? (Choose two.)

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A. The command establishes a static route.


B. The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.12.0.
C. Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.
D. Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.12.1.

Answer: A, C

256. An administrator would like to configure a switch over a virtual terminal connection from locations
outside of the local LAN. Which of the following are required in order for the switch to be configured from
a remote location? (Choose two.)

A. The switch must be configured with an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.
B. The switch must be connected to a router over a VLAN trunk.
C. The switch must be reachable through a port connected to its management VLAN.
D. The switch console port must be connected to the Ethernet LAN.

Answer: A, C

257. 6to4 is a system that allows IPv6 packets to be transmitted over an IPv4 network (generally the
IPv4 internet) without the need to configure explicit tunnels. How is a 6-to-4 tunnel different than a
manually configured tunnel?

A. It is not a dual-stack solution.


B. It uses NAT-PT.
C. Automatic tunnel creation.
D. IPv6 addresses are embedded in IPv4 addresses.

Answer: C

258. Which statement best describes Dual stack?

A. Running IPv4 and IPv6 at the same time


B. Passing IPv6 through UDP
C. Process interception
D. Translating IPv4 traffic to IPv6

Answer: A

259. In order to enable IPv6 routing on a Cisco router ,which command will necessarily be used?

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A. ipv6 routing
B. ipv6 unicast-routing
C. None, IPv6 routing is enabled by default.
D. ipv6 address

Answer: B

260. Which item is supported by OSPFv3 instead of OSPFv2?

NBMA networks
B. NSSAs
C. Multiple OSPF processes
D. 128-bit prefixes

Answer: D

261. A mobile IPv6 binding is an association between which of the following?(choose two)

A. Home address
B. Prefix
C. Correspondent nodes
D. Care-of address

Answer: A, D

262. A NIC has a MAC address of 00-0F-66-81-19-A3 and discovers a routing prefix of
2001:0:1:5::/64. Which IPv6 addresses are assigned to it?(choose four)

A. 2001::1:5:20F:66FF:FE81:19A3
B. FE80::20F:66FF:FE81:19A3
C. ::1
D. FF02::1

Answer: A, B, C, D

263. Which function is implemented with extension headers?

A. Fragmentation
B. Checksum
C. Flow labels
D. TCP

Answer: A

264. Which command will display the multicast groups ?

A. show multicast router


B. show multicast group
C. show igmp interface
D. ip igmp snooping

Answer: B

265. IGMPv1 does not have a mechanism to allow a host to leave a group when it is no longer interested
in the content of that group. Which advantage is of IGMPv3 over version 2?

A. Leaves
B. Group-specific queries
C. Joins
D. Source Filtering

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Answer: D

266. Multicasting supports applications that communicate

A. Many-to-many
B. One-to-many
C. Many-to-one
D. One-to-one

Answer: B

267. Which two advantages are of IGMP v2 over IGMPv1?(choose two)

A. Group-specific queries
B. Source Filtering
C. Group Leaves
D. Group Joins

Answer: A, C

268. Which is a difference between broadcasts and multicasts?

A. Multicasts are unidirectional.


B. Multicasts are used by RIPv1.
C. Multicasts are routable.
D. Multicasts are one-to-many.

Answer: C

269. Given the following route map. What will be the local-preference for 192.168.26.0/24?

A. 100
B. 200
C. 150
D. 0

Answer: C

270. Which statement is correct concerning the BGP local-preference attribute?

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A. It is proprietary
B. BGP prefers the highest value
C. Only used outside an AS
D. Default value is zero

Answer: B

271. What can the Network Analysis Module on the 6500 series switches be used to do? (Choose two.)

A. Remotely gather traffic statistics.


B. Remotely change passwords.
C. Remotely configure QoS options.
D. Remotely measure traffic parameters.

Answer: A, D

272. Which of the following is BGP next hop (by default) set to?

A. Your BGP neighbor


B. The local router
C. The first router in the advertising AS
D. The first router in the AS

Answer: C

273. Which interface command sets the standby IP address on VLAN1 interface to 192.168.1.200?

A. ip address 192.168.1.200 standby


B. standby 1 ip address 192.168.1.200
C. standby 1 ip 192.168.1.200
D. hsrp address 192.168.1.200

Answer: C

274. Which statement is correct about Weighted Round Robin Queuing?

A. A queuing mechanism where each queue is of configurable length and is serviced using strict priority
B. A queuing mechanism where each queue is of configurable length and is serviced in turn
C. A queuing mechanism where each queue is the same length and is serviced in turn
D. A queuing mechanism where each queue is of different length and is serviced in priority of size

Answer: B

275. Given the following items, which IP is used for the source address of BGP traffic in the absence of
the command update-source?

A. Router ID
B. 0.0.0.0
C. Derived from the AS
D. Output interface

Answer: D

276. What is the reason that system buffers are made in so many different sizes?

A. Because buffers have to be discarded once they are used


B. Because different interfaces support different MTUs
C. Because different systems allow different frames to be received
D. Because the buffers can be used as particles to create larger buffers

Answer: B

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277. Which one of the following techniques allows policies to be reapplied without destroying the existing
peering?(choose two)

A. clear ip bgp *
B. Rebooting the local router
C. clear ip bgp * soft in
D. clear ip bgp * soft out

Answer: C, D

278. When a show port capabilities command on a 4000 series router shows that a port is type 2q1t,
what does that mean?

A. The port has two configurable queues, with one drop threshold.
B. The port has two queues but a single timer.
C. The port has one configurable queue with two drop thresholds.
D. The port has the option of one or two configurable queues.

Answer: A

279. Ideally, what will be displayed by the output of the show ip bgp neighbors command?

A. Idle
B. Open
C. Established
D. Active

Answer: C

280. Which one of the following commands is used to display the non-configured entries in a CAM table
on a 2950 series switch?

A. show cam dynamic


B. show cam
C. show bridge dynamic
D. show dynamic cam

Answer: A

281. Put the BGP connection strategies in order from lowest to highest based on likelihood to take the
best path.(choose three)

A. Accept only default routes from all providers


B. Accept some routes plus a default route from all providers
C. Accept full routing updates from all providers

Answer: A, B, C

282. Which queuing mechanisms will the 2950 switches support, running standard edition IOS software?
(Choose three.)

A. First in, first out queuing


B. Low Latency Priority Queuing
C. Weighted Round Robin Queuing
D. Strict Priority Queuing

Answer: A, C, D

283. You work as a network engineer at Company.com. If a switch is running 'hybrid IOS,' what do you
understand it to be using?

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A. IOS on the switch and CatOS on the router


B. CatOS on the switch and IOS on the routing module
C. Software that is a combination of CatOS and IOS
D. Software that has commands from both operating systems running in tandem

Answer: B

284. Which description is true about the routers that utilize eBGP to communicate with each other?

A. Routers running different IGPs


B. Routers within an autonomous system
C. Routers in different autonomous systems
D. Routers in different countries

Answer: C

285. Which statement is correct about DiffServe?

A. Packets forwarded using DiffServe parameters


B. Packets forwarded by each DiffServe router using per-hop forwarding according to TOS
C. Packets marked and forwarded by each DiffServe router
D. Packets following a predetermined path through the DiffServe cloud

Answer: B

286. The following output is generated by which command? IP address Hardware address Lease
expiration Type 172.16.1.11 00a0.9802.32de Feb 01 1998 12:00 AM Automatic

A. dhow ip dhcp database


B. show ip dhcp conflict
C. show ip dhcp binding
D. show ip dhcp pool

Answer: C

287. What is the meaning of the term non-blocking when referring to an Ethernet switch?

A. The switch has more than one bus.


B. The switch has sufficient capacity to forward data without delay.
C. The switch has dual power supplies.
D. The switch has enhanced management to allow frames to pass through undelayed.

Answer: B

288. Which UDP broadcasts will an IOS DHCP relay automatically forward?(choose six)

A. NTP (port 37)


B. DNS (port 53)
C. TFTP (port 69)
D. TACACS (port 49)
E. NetBIOS name service (port 137)
F. NetBIOS datagram service (port 138)

Answer: A, B, C, D, E, F

289. Which option will be used to search the bridging tables in a 3550 switch?

A. Bridging database
B. CAM
C. TCAM

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D. DCAM

Answer: C

290. Which ports are forwarded by UDP by default?

A. UDP 666
B. UDP 500
C. UDP 51
D. UDP 67

Answer: D

291. Which statement accurately describes SLB?

A. An alternative to switching
B. A protocol allowing server load sharing
C. An alternative to HSRP
D. A server redundancy protocol

Answer: B

292. On the basis of the following configuration, users can not communicate through the router.
What should be changed to fix the configuration?

A. Illegal/inappropriate mask
B. Pool is not applied
C. Illegal IP address
D. No default gateway in DHCP

Answer: D

293. When would you configure the VTP domain on an interface of an external router?

A. When it doesn??t use ISL or 802.1Q encapsulation


B. Always
C. When it uses ISL encapsulation
D. When it is connected to a VTP server or client

Answer: D

294. In which way will the following route map configuration effect on OSPF routes redistributed into
EIGRP?

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A. Routes matching prefix-list pfx are forward with EIGRP metric 20000 2000 255 1 1500.
B. All routes are redistributed.
C. Routes without a tag of 6 and not matching prefix-list pfx have their tag set to 8.
D. Routes with a tag of 6 are redistributed unchanged.

Answer: C

295. What are the differences between PIM DM and PIM SM? (Choose three.)

A. PIM DM assumes that all PIM neighbors have active members directly connected and initially
forwards multicast data out every interface.
B. PIM SM requires an explicit join from a router before the router is added to the shared tree.
C. PIM DM is based on a source root tree distribution mechanism.
D. PIM SM is based on bidirectional shared root tree distribution.

Answer: A, B, C

296. Which two descriptions are correct concerning the router configuration provided in the exhibit?
(Choose two.)

A. This configuration allows applications on the same segment to communicate via IPv4 or IPv6.
B. This configuration will attempt to route packets using IPv4 first, and if that fails, then IPv6.
C. This configuration is referred to as a dual stack.
D. This configuration is referred to as a dual-stack 6to4 tunnel.
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Answer: A, C

297. When using route maps for redistribution when a statement is configured to deny and there is a
match, which action will the route map take?

A. The packet is sent to the normal routing process.


B. The route is not redistributed.
C. The packet is dropped.
D. An ICMP packet is sent to the sender.

Answer: B

298. Which three characteristics are of IPv6? (Choose three.)

A. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.


B. An IPv6 header contains the protocol field.
C. An IPv6 header contains the next header field.
D. IPv6 routers send RA messages.

Answer: A, C, D

299. For the following items, which criteria activates an interface that is configured to use dense mode?
(Choose two.)

A. Directly connected hosts


B. Directly connected PIM routers
C. When the interface receives a prune statement from a directly connected PIM router
D. Router configured as a border router

Answer: A, B

300. Many match statements could be used in a route map. How many match statements must be
matched for the set to be applied?

A. None of them
B. All the criteria
C. At least 50 percent of the criteria
D. At least one

Answer: B

301. On the basis of the exhibit. Assuming that Company-S is active for the standby group and the
standby device has only the default HSRP configuration. Which conclusion is valid?

A. If Company-S had the highest priority number, it would not take over as active router.
B. If port Fa1/1 on Company-S goes down, the standby device will take over as active.
C. If port Fa1/1 on Company-S goes down, the new priority value for the switch would be 190.
D. If the current standby device were to have the higher priority value, it would take over the role of
active for the HSRP group.

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Answer: C

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