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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 300 IMPORTANT MCQ PDF
1. DC MACHINES MCQ-100
2. AC MACHINES MCQ-80
3. TRANSFORMERS MCQ-20
4. POWER SYSTEM MCQ-100
DC MACHINES MCQ
1) The developed electromagnetic force and/or torqe in electromechanical energy conversion system act
in a direction that tends
a) to increase the stored energy at constant flux.
b) to decrease the stored energy at constant flux.
c) to decrease the coenergy at constant mmf.
d) to decrease the stored energy at constant mmf.
ANS: B
2) For a linear electromagnetic circuit,the following statement is true
a) field energy is equal to the coenergy.
b) field energy is greater than the coenergy.
c) field energy is lesser than the coenergy.
d) coenergy is zero.
ANS: A
3) In an electromechanical energy conversion device, the developed torque depends upon
a) stator field strength and torque angle.
b) stator field and rotor field strength.
c) stator field and rotor field strengths and the torque angle.
d) stator field strength only.
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4) In electromechanical energy conversion devices(e.g. generators and motors),a small air gap is left
between the stator and the rotor ignored to
a) reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path.
b) increase fiux density in the air gap.
c) permit mechanical clearance.
d) avoid saturation of field.
ANS: C
5) Reluctance torque in rotating machines is present,when
a) air gap is not uniform.
b) reluctance seen by stator mmf varies.
c) reluctance seen by rotor mmf varies.
d) reluctance seen by the working mmf varies.
ANS:D
6) A rotating electrical machine having its self inductance of both the stator and the rotor winding,
independent of rotor position will definitely not developed
a) starting torque.
b) synchronizing torque.
c) hysteresis torque.
d) reluctance torque.
ANS:D
7) A circular metallic disc is placed in a vertical magnetic field of constant induction in the downward
direction.If the disc is rotated in a horizontal plane,the emf induced will be
a) zero.
b) constant independent of disc size.
c) increasing radially in the outward direction.
d) decreasing radially in the outward direction.
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ANS:A
8) The emf induced in a conductor rotating in a bipolar field is
a) dc. b) ac.
c) dc and ac both. d) none of these.
ANS:B
9) In a dc motor the windage loss is proportional to
a) supply voltage.
b) square of the supply voltage.
c) square of the flux density.
d) square of the armature speed.
ANS:D
10) Which of the following are the variable losses in a rotating machine?
a) core loss and mechanical loss.
b) core loss and stray load loss.
c) copper and mechanical losses.
d) copper loss and stray load loss.
ANS:D
11) stray losses are sum of:
a) iron and mechanical losses.
b) copper and iron losses.
c) copper and mechanical losses.
d) none of these.
ANS:A
12) The principle of dynamically induced emf is utilized in
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a) transformer.
b) choke.
c) generator.
d) thermocouple.
ANS:C
13) Which of the following is not a part of dc machine?
a) armature. b) commutator.
c) field winding. d) damping winding.
ANS:D
14) The field coils of a dc generator are usually made of
a) mica. b) copper.
c) cast iron. d) carbon.
ANS:B
15) Laminated yoke in dc motor can reduce
a) speed regulation.
b) iron loss.
c) temperature rice.
d) sparking on load.
ANS:B
16) pole shoe of a dc machine is laminated for the purpose of
a) decreasing hysteresis loss.
b) decreasing eddy current loss.
c) decreasing both hysteresis and eddy current loss.
d) manufacturing ease.
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ANS:B
17) Poles of dc machine are often laminated to
a) reduce pulsation.
b) reduce armature reaction.
c) reduce iron weight.
d) dissipate more heat.
18) The ventilating ducts in most of the dc machines are
a) radial. b) longitudinal.
c) radial as well as longitudinal. d) none of these.
ANS:C
19) Armature of a dc machine is made of
a) conducting material.
b) insulating material.
c) non-ferrous material.
d) silicon steel.
ANS:D
20) Consider the following parts of a dc machine:
1. yoke 2. armature core.
3. brushes. 4. pole core.
Which of following subject to iron loss?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only
b) 1 only d)1,2,3 and 4
ANS:B
21) The armature of a dc machine is laminated
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a) to reduce the hysteresis loss.
b) to reduce eddy current loss.
c) to reduce the mass.
d) to reduce the inductance.
ANS:B
22) What are slot wedges in a dc machine made of?
a) mild steel. b) silicon steel.
c) fibre. d) cast iron.
ANS:C
23) The teeth in the armature of a dc machine are something skewed.This is done to reduce
a) hysteresis loss.
b) copper loss.
c) eddy current loss.
d) vibrations.
ANS:D
24) The commutator of a dc motor serves the purpose of
a) changing ac to dc.
b) converting dc into ac.
c) reducing friction.
d) avoiding arc at the brushes.
ANS:B
25) Wave winding is employed in a dc machine of
a) high current & low voltage rating.
b) low current & high voltage rating.
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c) high current & high voltage rating.
d) low current & low voltage reting.
ANS:C
26) In lap winding,the number of brushes is always------the number of poles.
a) double
b) same as
c) half
d) none of these
ANS:B
27) A 4 pole generator with 16 coils has a two layer lap winding.The pole pitch is
a) 32 b) 16 c) 8 d) 4
ANS:C
28) Welding generator will have
a) lap winding. b) wave winding.
c) either lap or wave winding. d) none of these.
ANS:A
29) The number of parallel paths for a 4-pole duplex lap winding will be
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
ANS:D
30) Minimum number of coils for 400v,6-poles lap connected dc machine for a maximum voltage of 15v
between adjacent commutator segments should be
a) 80 b) 160 c) 200 d) 400
ANS:B
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31) Width of a carbon brush should be equal to
a) less than the width of one commutator segment
b) the width of 1to 2 commutator segment
c) the width of 2 to 3 commutator segment
d) the width of more than 3 commutator segments
ANS:C
32) Wave winding is composed of
a) any odd number of conductors
b) any even number of conductors
c) that even number which is exact multiple of poles +or- 2
d) that even number which is exactly multiple of poles
ANS:C
33) For a 4-pole machine wave winding is impossible with --- armature conductors
a) 30 b) 32 c) 34 d) 38
ANS:B
34) A homopolar generator usually has
a) high voltage and high current b) low voltage and high current
c) low voltage and low current d) high voltage and low current
ANS:D
35) In a dc generator,the ripples in the direct emf generated are reduced by employing
a) cpmmutator with large number of segments
b) equalizer rings c) carbon brushes d) graphite brushes
ANS:A
36) The coil span
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a) must be exactly equal to pole pitch
b) can never be equal to pole pitch
c) may or may not be exactly equal to pole pitch
d) none of the above
ANS:C
37) The commutator pitch for simplex wave winding is equal to
a) +1 or -1 b) twice average pitch c) average pitch d) half average pitch
ANS:C
38) The commutator pitch for simplex lap winding is
a) +1 b) -1 c) +1 or -1 d) average pitch
ANS:C
39) In a dc machine armature windind,the number of commutator segments is equal to the number of
armature
a) coils b) coils sides c) conductors d) turns
ANS:A
40) How many segments will be there for the commutator of a 6-pole dc machine having a simple wave-
wound armature with 72 slots?
a) 73 b)72 c) 71 d) 70
ANS:B
41) For both lap and wave windings, there are as many commutator bar as the number of
a) armature conductors b) winding elements
c) poles d) slots
ANS:B
42) In a drum type dc armature winding the back pitch and front pitch in terms of the coil-sides must be
a) even and odd respectively b) odd and even respectively
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c) both even d) both odd
ANS:D
43) In a dc machine, fractional pitch winding is employed to
a) increase generated voltage b) reduce sparking
c) save copper d) both b and c
ANS:D
44) Aluminum is not used as winding wire in dc machine armature as it
a) is costlier b) is of low resistivity
c) is of lower thermal conductivity d) requires large winding space
ANS:D
45) In a lap wound dc generator having P poles and Z conductors the maximum number of equalizes rings
will be
a) Z/P b) 2Z/P c) Z/2P d) Z/4P
ANS:B
46) Number of tapping’s to each equalizer ring is equal to number of
a) poles b) pole pairs c) parallel paths d) commutator segments
ANS:B
47) A 250 V dc generator is run at rated speed with no excitation. The open-ckt voltage will be
a) zero b) very small,say about 2 or 3 V
c) about 100V d) 250 V
ANS:B
48) The field coils of a dynamo have an inductance of 8H and have a R of 60 ohms and are connected
to120 V dc source.The steady state current in the field coils is
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a) 15 A b) 2 A c) 0 A d) none of the above
ANS:B
49) In a dc machine,the air gap flux distribution in space at no load is
a) sinusoidal b) triangular c) flat topped d) pulsating
ANS:C
50) The armature MMF waveform of a dc machine is
a) pulsating b) rectangular c) triangular d) sinusoidal
ANS:C
51) The armature current in a dc shunt generator is gives as
a) EG+V/RA b) EG/RA c) d) IL+ISH
ANS:C
52) When the shunt field of a dc compound generator is connected across both the series field and
armature. Such a connection is known as
a) short shunt b) long shunt
c) cumulative compounding d) differential compounding
ANS:B
53) The series field of a short shunt dc generator is excited by ---------current
a) armature b) shunt field c) load d) Il+Ish
ANS:C
54) With the increase in field excitation of dc generator,is generated emf
a) increases b) decreases c) remains constant d) increases up to a limit and

the remain almost constant
ANS:D
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55) The slight curvature at the lower end of the OCC of a self excited dc generator is due to
a) magnetic inertia b) residual flux
c) high speed d) high field resistance
ANS:B
56) The fall in speed of a dc generator due to increase in load can be connected by
a) cooling the armature b) increasing the excitation
c) reducing the load voltage d) increasing the input to the prime mover
ANS:D
57) The magnetic field which initially emf in the armature in a self excited dc generator is because of
a) permanent magnets b) armature rotation
c) residual magnetism d) none of the above
ANS:C
58) A generator may loose residual magnetism is of the oder of
a) heating b) vibrations c) over excitation d) any of these
ANS:A
59) In dc generators the residual magnetism is of the order of
a) 2.5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 25%
ANS:A
60) The voltage at the terminals of a dc series generator running at rated rpm and no load will be
a) more then the rated voltage b) full rated voltage
c) a very small voltage d) zero
ANS:C
61) A dc series generator is provided with divertor and is delivering its rated current.If the divertor switch
is opened, the terminal voltage will
a) remain constant b) decrease c) increase d) none of these
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ANS:C
62) A 4 pole, 25 kw, 200 v wave wound dc shunt generator the current in each parallel path will be
a) 62.5 A b) 125 A c) 31.25 A d) 250 A
ANS:A
63) A dc shunt generator is supplying a load of 1.8 kw at 200 V. Its armature and field resistances are 0.4
ohms and 200 ohms respectively. What is the generated emf>
a) 190 V b) 196 V c) 204 V d) 210 V
ANS:C
64) If the field circuit resistance of a dc shunt generator exceeds its critical value, the generator
a) fails to build up b) builds up a very high voltage
c) exceeds its current capacity d) produces power beyoud its rating
ANS:A
65) The factor that is not responsible for drop in terminal voltage of a dc shunt generator on load is
a) commutation b) armature reaction
c) armature resistance drop d) field weakening due to (b) and (c)
ANS:A
66) In a dc shunt generator, the voltage build up is generally restricted due to
a) armature heating b) insulation restrictions
c) saturation of iron d) speed limitation
ANS:C
67) An ideal dc generator has a regulation of ------ per cent
a) zero b) 10 c) 25 d) 100
ANS:A
68) The terminal voltage of an over compounded dc generator
a) decreases with the increase in load current
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b) increases with the increase in load current
c) remains constant at all load current
ANS:B
69) In a dc compound generator, flat compound characteristic, required for certain applications,may be
obtained by connecting a variable resistance
a) across the series field b) in series with the series field
c) in oarallel with the shunt field d) in series with the shunt field
ANS:A
70) A cumulatively compounded dc generator is supplying 20 A at 200 V. Now if the series field winding
is short circuited, the terminal voltage
a) will remain unaltered at 200 V
b) will rise to 220 V
c) will shoot upto a very high value
d) will become less than 200 V
ANS:A
71) Over or under compounding of a dc generator is achieved by
a) shunting more or less current from the shunt field
b) shunting more or less current from the series field
c) connecting its as long shunt
d) connecting its as short-shunt
ANS:B
72) An over-compounded dc generator is supplying 800 A at full load on 500 V. The resistance of each
conductor is 0.02 ohm. The percentage of compounding is
a) 1.6 % b) 3.2% c) 6.4% d) 12.8%
ANS:C
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73) Which of the following dc generators will be in a position to build up without any residual magnetism
in the field?
a) series b) shunt c) separately excited d) compound
ANS:C
74) Which of the following dc generators has rising v-I characteristics?
a) series b) shunt c) compound d) none
ANS:A
75) Which of the following dc generators will have negligible terminal voltage on no load?
a) shunt b) series c) compound d) none
ANS:B
76) An exciter for turbo-generator is a dc ---------
a) shunt b) series c) compound d) separately excited
ANS:A
77) For a specific open-ckt voltage of a dc generator, the short-ckt current will be maximum when it is
a) separately excited b) shunt connected
c) cumulatively compounded d)differentially compounded
ANS:C
78) The voltage regulation of a dc generator at full load being zero implies that the generator is
a) shunt-connected b) differentially compounded
c) cumulatively compounded d) series-connected
ANS:C
79) The ------ generator has the poorest voltage regulation
a) shunt b) over compounded
c) under compounded d) differential compounded
ANS:D
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80) The voltmeter connected across a generator reads voltage same at no load and at full load. The
generator is of the type
a) shunt generator b) series generator
c) level compound d) short-shunt compound
ANS:C
81) Flashing of field of dc generator means
a) neutralization of residual magnetism
b) creation of residual magnetism by a dc source
c) increasing flux density by providing extra ampere-turns in field
ANS:B
82) a dc series generator is employed
a) as a booster to maintain constant voltage at the load end of the feeder
b) for supplying traction load
c) for supplying industrial load a constant voltage
d) for battery charging
ANS: A
83) The type of dc generator used for arc welding purposes is a
a) series generator b) shunt generator
c) differentially compounded generator d) cumulatively compounded generator
ANS: D
84) The essential condition for satisfactory parallel operation of two dc generators is that they should have
same
a) kw output rating
b) drooping voltage characteristics
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c) percentage regulation
d) speed of operation
ANS: B
85) When two dc series generators are operating in parallel, an equalizer bar is used
a) to reduce armature reaction b) to increase emf
c) to increase the speed d) so that the two similar machines take approximately equal
load current
ANS: D
86) The simplest way of shifting load from one shunt generator to the other operating in parallel is by
a) Adjustment of speeds b) adjustment of armature resistances
c) Adjustment of field rheostats d) using equalizer connections
ANS: C
87) If field of one of two generators operating in parallel is made very weak, then it wil
a) not take any load b) take major share of load
c) operate as a motor and run in the same direction d) operate as a motor and run in the opposite
direction
ANS: C
88) DC generators are connected to or disconnected from the busbar only under the floating condition.
This is done to avoid
a) burning of switch constants b) sudden loading of the prime mover
c) mechanical jerk to the shaft d) all of the above
ANS: D
89) The main factor that leads to unstable parallel operation of flat or over compounded dc generators is
a) their rising voltage characteristics b) unequal series field resistance
c) unequal speed regulation of their prime movers d) their drooping voltage characteristics
ANS: A
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90) In the case of parallel operation of dc compound wound generators, for proper division of load from
no load to fill load it is essential that they should have the same
a) KW output rating b) percentage regulation
c) series field resistance d) speed of operation
ANS: B
91) In parallel operation two dc compound generator provided with interpoles, the equalizing bar must be
connected to
a) inter pole field only b) series field only
c) junction of series and interpole fields d) none of the above
ANS: C
92) For parallel operation, the dc generator normally preferred are
a) shunt b)series c) over-compound d) under compound
e) both shunt and under compound
ANS: E
93) Equalizer bar is necessary for parallal operation of dc ----------- generators
a) series b) shunt c) over-compound d) under compound
e) series and over-compound
ANS: E
94) In the block diagram of a separately excited dc motor, how does the armature induced emf appear as?
a) positive feedback b) negative feedback
c) disturbance input d) output
ANS: B
95) A 220 V dc machine has an armature resistance of 1ohm if the full load current is 20 A, the difference
of induced voltage, when the machine is running as a motor and generator, is
a) 20 V b) 0 V c) 40 V d) 60 V
ANS: C
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96) The current drawn by a 220 V dc motor of armature resistance 0.5 ohms and back emf 200 V is
a) 40 A b) 44 A c) 400 A d) 440 A
ANS: A
97) The current drawn by a 120 V dc motor with back emf of 110 V and armature resistance of 0.4 ohms
is
a) 4 A b) 25 A c) 275 A d) 300 A
ANS: B
98) In a dc motor, energy conversion would not have been possible but for
a) input energy from the supply b) production of back emf in the armature
c) use of commutator d) rotation of the machine
ANS: B
99) With the increase in speed of a dc motor
a) both back emf as well as line current increase
b) both back emf as well as line current fall
c) back emf increases but line current falls
d) back emf falls and line current increases
ANS: C
100) If the back emf in a dc motor vanishes suddenly, the motor will
a) start hunting b) burn
c) run at very high speed d) run at very slow speed
ANS: B
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AC MACHINES MCQS
1) The basic function of a transformer is to change
a) the level of the voltage
b) the power level
c) the power factor
d) the frequency
ANS: A
2) In an ordinary transformer which of the following does not change
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Frequency
d) All of the above
ANS: C
3) The efficiency of the power transformer is
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 95%
ANS: D
4) In a transformer electrical power is transferred from primary to secondary
a) Through air
b) By magnetic flux
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c) Through insulation medium
d) None of these
ANS: B
5) The two windings of transformers are
a) Conductively linked
b) Inductively linked
c) Not linked at all
d) Electrically linked
ANS: B
6) Transformer action requires a
a) constant magnetic flux
b) increasing magnetic flux
c) alternating magnetic fluxd
d) alternating electric flux
ANS: C
7) The flux created by the current flowing through the primary winding induces emf in
a) primary winding only
b) secondary winding only
c) transformer core only
d) both primary and secondary windings
ANS: D
8) The primary and secondary windings of a power transformer always have
a) a common magnetic circuit
b) separate magnetic circuit
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c) wire of same size
d) same number of turns
ANS: A
9) The iron core in a transformer provides a _______ path to a main flux
a) low reluctance
b) high reluctance
c) low resistance
d) high conductivity
ANS: A
10) If rated dc voltage applied instead of ac to the primary of a transformer
a) secondary of transformer will burn
b) primary transformer will burn
c) secondary voltage will be excessively high
d) there will be no secondary voltage
ANS:B
11) A transformer transforms
a) voltage b) current
c) voltage and current d) frequency
ANS:C
12) For an ideal transformer the window should have
a) maximum resistance on primary side and least resistance on secondary side
b) least resistance on primary side and maximum resistance on secondary side
c) equal resistance on primary and secondary sides
d) no ohmic resistance on either side
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ANS:D
13) The core flux in transformer depends mainly on
a) supply voltage
b) supply voltage and frequency
c) supply voltage frequency and local
d) supply voltage and load but independent of frequency
ANS:B
14) when voltage is transformed from primary to secondary then it is__________
a) multiplied by k2 b) multiplied by k
c) divided by k2 d) divided by k
ANS: B
15) The applied voltage of a certain transformer is increased by 75% while the frequency of the applied
voltage is reduced by 25%. The maximum core flux density will
a) increase by seven times b) increase by three times
c) reduce to one quarter d) remain the same
ANS: B
16) The low voltage winding of a 400/230 V single phase 50 HZ transformer is to be connected to a 25
HZ supply. In order to keep the magnetization current at the same level in both the cases the voltage at
25 Hz should be
a) 230 V b) 460 V
c) 115 V d) 65 V
ANS: C
17) A 50 Hz transformer having equal hysteresis and eddy current losses at rated excitation is operated
at 45 Hz at 90% of its rated voltage. Compared to rated operating point, the core losses under this
condition.
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a) reduced by 10% b) reduced by 19%
c) reduced by 14.5% d) remain unchanged
ANS: C
18) A 1-ph transformer when supplied from 220 V, 50 Hz has eddy current loss of 50 W. If the
transformer is connected to a voltage of 330 V, 50 Hz, the eddy current loss will be
a) 168.75 W
b) 112.5 W
c) 75 W
d) 50 W
ANS: B
19) 1 kVA, 230 V, 50 Hz, single phase transformer has an eddy current loss of 30 watts. The eddy current
loss when the transformer is excited by a dc source of same voltage will be
a) 30 watts b) more than 30 w c) less than 30 w d) zero watt
ANS: D
20) At 50 Hz operation, a single phase transformer has hysteresis loss of 200 W and eddy current loss of
100 W. Its core loss at 60 Hz operation will be
a) 432 W
b) 408 W
c) 384 W
d) 360 W
ANS: C
21) On no-load phasor diagram of transformer, the core loss component of the current remains in phase
with
a) no-load current b) primary supply voltage
c) core flux d) primary induced voltage
ANS: B
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22) In a transformer core, 3rd and 5th harmonic components of fluxes are respectively 10% and 4% of
the fundamental flux. The 3rd and 5th harmonic induced emfs in the winding, in terms of the
fundamental induced emfs are respectively
a) 30%, 20% b) 10%, 12% c) 50%, 20% d) 50%, 12%
ANS: A
23) In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the impressed voltage
provided
a) only the leakage impedance drop is ignored
b) only the core loss is ignored
c) both the leakage impedance drop and the core loss are ignored
d) only the no-load copper loss is ignored
ANS: C
24) The power factor of a power transformer on no load will be about
a) unity b) 0.75 c) 0.5 d) 0.35
ANS: D
25) The power factor of a transformer on no load is poor due to
a) magnetizing reactance of the transformer
b) open-circuited secondary
c) low primary winding resistance
d) low no-load current
ANS: A
26) Primary winding of a transformer comprises of two identical windings in parallel. If one winding
is removed, magnetizing current will be
a) halved b) the same c) doubled d) increased four times
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ANS: C
27) The core flux of a practical transformer with a resistance load
a) is strictly constant with load changes
b) increases linearly with load
c) increases as the square root of the load
d) decreases with increase of load
ANS: A
28) The inductive reactance of a transformer depends on
a) electromotive force b) magnetomotive force
c) magnetic flux d) leakage flux
ANS: D
29) The flux in transformer core
a) increases with load b) decreases with load
c) remains constant irrespective of load d) none of the above
ANS: C
30) The mutual flux in a loaded transformer can be varied by varying
a) primary current b) load impedance
c) secondary current d) reluctance of the magnetic path
ANS: D
31) The primary ampere-turns are counter balanced by
a) secondary ampere-turns b) primary flux
c) increase in mutual flux d) increase in secondary current
ANS: A
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32) In a transformer_________ decreases with the increase in leakage flux
a) primary induced emf b) secondary induced emf
c) secondary terminal voltage d) none of the above
ANS: C
33) power transformed from primary to secondary depends upon
a) number of primary turns
b) number of secondary turns
c) current transformation ratio
d) magnetic coupling b/w primary and secondary winding
ANS: D
34) A transformer is supplying pure resistive load. The power factor on primary side will be
a) about 0.95(lead) b) about 0.95(lag)
c) zero d) unity
ANS: B
35) The phasor diagram of a transformer on load can be drawn only if we know
a) equivalent circuit parameters of the transformer
b) load current
c) load p.f.
d) all of the above
ANS: D
36) When a transformer is operating on no-load, the primary applied voltage is approximately balanced
by
a) primary induced emf b) secondary induced emf
c) terminal voltage across the secondary d) voltage drop across the resistance and
reactance
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ANS: A
37) In the transformer circuit mode, the core loss is represented as a
a) series resistance b) series inductance
c) shunt resistance d) shunt inductance
ANS: C
38) Full load voltage regulation of a power transformer is zero when power factor of the load is near
a) unity and leading b) zero and leading
c) zero and lagging d) unity and lagging
ANS: A
39) In a transformer zero voltage regulation at full load is
a) not possible
b) possible at leading power factor load
c) possible at lagging power factor load
d) possible at unity power factor load
ANS: B
40) Positive voltage regulation is an indication of ____ load
a) inductive b) capacitive
c) either inductive or capacitive d) pure resistive
ANS: C
41) A 4kva, 400/200 V 1-ph transformer has resistance of 0.02 pi and reactance of 0.06 pu. Its actual
resistance and reactance referred to hv side, are, respectively
a) 0.2 ohm and 0.6 ohm
b) 0.8 ohm and 2.4 ohm
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c) 0.08 ohm and 0.24 ohm
d) 2 ohm and 6 ohm
ANS:B
42) If the percentage resistance of a power transformer for secondary side is 2.5 percent and turn ratio
is 1:10, the percentage secondary resistance referred to primary will be
a) 25
b) 2.5
c) 0.25
d) 0.025
ANS:B
43) 10 KVA , 400V/200V single phase transformer with a resistance of 3 % and reactance of 6% is
supplying a current of 50A to resistive load.the voltage across the load is
a) 194 V
b) 196 V
c) 198 V
d) 390 V
ANS:A
44) In a power transformer iron losses remain practically constant from no load to full load this is
because
a) Core flux remains constant
b) Leakage flux remains contant
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
ANS: A
45) In a power transformer if in place of sinusoidal wave a peaked wave voltage is fed to primary
P a g e | 29
a) copper losses will be less
b) noise level will be reduced
c) iron losses will be more
d) iron losses will be less
ANS: D
46) On which of the following factors does hysteresis loss depend
a) flux density
b) frequency
c) thickness of laminations
d) time
select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 4
d) 3 and 4
ANS:B
47) The full load copper loss and iron loss of a transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W respectively. The
copper loss and iron loss at half load will be, respectively
a) 3200 W and 2500 W
b) 1600 W and 5000W
c) 1600 W and 1250 W
d) None of these
ANS:B
48) The main purpose of performing open circuit on a transformer is to measure its
P a g e | 30
a) Copper losses
b) Iron losses
c) Total losses
d) Insulation resistance
ANS: B
49) Power transformer are designed to have maximum efficiency around -------- full load
a) Nearly
b) 70%
c) 50%
d) 25%
ANS:A
50) The transformer efficiency will be maximum at a power factor of
a) 0.8 lead
b) Unity
c) 0.8 lag
d) 0.5 lag or lead
ANS: B
51) What is load at which maximum efficiency occurs in case of a 100 KVA transformer with iron loss
of 1 KW and full load copper loss of 2 KW ?
a) 100 KVA
b) 70.7 KVA
c) 50 KVA
d) 25 KVA
ANS:B
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52) A Two KVA transformer has iron loss of 150 W full load copper loss of 250 W the maximum
efficiency of transformer would occur when the total loss is
a) 500 W
b) 300 W
c) 200 W
d) 100 W
ANS:B
53) The size of transformer core depends upon
a) Frequency
b) Permissible flux density in core material
c) Area of the core
d) Both a and b
ANS:D
54) The permissible flux density in cold rolled grain oriented steel is about
a) 1.8 T
b) 2.5 T
c) 3.5 T
d) 4.5 T
ANS:A
55) Transformer oil must be free from
a) Moisture
b) Sledges
c) Gases
d) Sulphur
P a g e | 32
ANS: A
56) A 10 KVA 400V/200V single phase transformer with 10% impedance draws a steady short circuit line
current of
a) 50 A
b) 150 A
c) 250 A
d) 350 A
ANS:C
57) The efficiency of two identical transformers under load conditions can be determined by
a) Back-to-back test
b) Short circuit test
c) Open circuit test
d) Any of the above
ANS:A
58) Transformer will operate at maximum efficiency when
a) Hysteresis = eddy current loss
b) Eddy current loss = copper loss
c) Copper loss = iron loss
d) Hysteresis loss= copper loss
ANS: C
59) Which part of transformer is subjected to maximum heating?
a) Frame
b) Core
P a g e | 33
c) Winding
d) Oil
ANS: C
60) zero sequence current flows from a line into a transformer bank if the windings are
a) Grounded star/delta
b) Delta/star
c) Star/grounded star
d) Delta/delta
ANS:A
61) magnetizing current in transformer rich in harmonics
a) 3rd harmonic
b) 5th harmonic
c) 6th harmonic
d) 4th harmonic
ANS:A
62) Transformer fed from a fundamental frequency voltage source, the source of harmonic is the
a) Overload
b) Poor insulation
c) Iron loss
d) Saturation of core
ANS:D
63) The outer cage of a double squirrel rotor consists of
a) Manganese brass
b) Red copper
P a g e | 34
c) Bronze
d) Steel
ANS: A
64) In the equivalent ckt of a double-cage induction motor, the two rotor cages can be considered
a) To be parallel
b) To br in series-parallel
c) To be in series
d) To be in parallel with stator
ANS: A
65) The purpose of the starter is to
a) Limit the starting current
b) Limit the speed
c) Protect against over voltage
d) Produce back emf
ANS: A
66) For a starting a 3-ph induction motor is about ____ of its full-load rated current
a) Half
b) Twice
c) 5 to 7 times
d) 15 to 20 times
ANS: C
67) Synchronous speed of an induction motor can be increased by
a) Reducing mechanical friction
b) Increasing supply voltage
P a g e | 35
c) Increasing number of poles
d) Increasing supply frequency
ANS: D
68) while operating on variable frequency supplies, the ac motor requires variable voltage as well in
order to
a) Protect the insulation
b) Avoid the effect of saturation
c) Improve the capabilities of the inverter
d) Protect the thyristor from dv/dt
ANS: B
69) In rotor resistance control of induction motor, the hardness of speed torque characteristics
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remain same
ANS: B
70) During plugging of an induction motor
a) Phase sequence is reversed
b) A dc source is connected to stator
c) One phase is open-circuited
d) Power is fed back to mains
ANS: A
71) The method that gives continuous speed control of a slip-ring induction motor is
a) Rotor resistance control
b) Secondary foreign voltage control
P a g e | 36
c) Concatenation or cascade operation
d) Line voltage control
ANS: B
72) In case of voltage injection method of speed control, the injected emf should be of
a) Supply frequency (f)
b) Slip frequency(sf)
c) (1-s)f
d) (2-s)f
ANS: B
73) Induction generators deliver power at
a) Leading power factor only
b) Lagging power factor only
c) Leading as well as lagging power factor
d) Unity power factor only
ANS: A
74) The primary winding of a Schrage motor is located
a) In stator
b) In lower part of the rotor
c) In upper part of rotor
d) Partly in stator and partly in rotor
ANS: B
75) linear induction motor is used in
a) Traction
b) Magnetic attraction
P a g e | 37
c) Mechanical workshops
d) Textile mills
ANS: A
76) In a split phase motor the ratio of number of turns on auxiliary winding to that on main winding is
a) Unity
b) Less than one
c) More than one
d) Two
ANS: B
77) why is a centrifugal switch used in a 1-ph induction motor
a) To protect the motor from overloading
b) To improve the starting performance of the motor
c) To cut off the starting winding at an appropriate instant
d) To cut in the capacitor during running conditions
ANS: C
78) The torque speed characteristics of two phase induction motor is largely affected by
a) Voltage
b) Speed
c) x/r ratio
d) supply frequency
ANS: C
79) The capacitor in a capacitor-start induction run ac motor is connected in series with
a) starting winding
b) running winding
P a g e | 38
c) squirrel cage winding
d) compensating winding
ANS: A
80) In a shaded pole motor, shading coils are using to
a) reduce winding losses
b) reduce friction losses
c) produce rotating magnetic field
d) protect against sparking
ANS: C
Transformer MCQ
1. A transformer steps up the voltage by a factor 100. The ratio of current in primary to secondary is
a) 1 b) 100 c) 0.01 d) 0.1
Ans:b
2. The power factor of a power transformer on no load will be about
a) Unity b) 0.75 c) 0.5 d)0.35
Ans:d
3. The flux in transformer core
a) Increases with load
b) Decreses with load
c) Remains constant irrespective of load
d) None of the above
Ans:c
4. The primary ampere-turns of are counter balanced by
a)secondary ampere-turns
P a g e | 39
b)primary flux
c)increase in mutual flux
d)increase in secondary current
Ans:a
5. If the applied voltage to a transformer primary is increased by keeping the v/f ratio fixed, then the
magnetizing current and the corelessloss will respectively
a) decrease and remain the same
b) increase & decrease
c) remains same & increase
d) both remains same
Ans:d
6. If applied voltage of a certain transformer is increased b 50% & frequency is reduced to 50%
(assuming that the magnetic circuit remains unsaturated),the maximum core flux density will
a)change to three time the original value

b)change to 1.5 times the original value
c) change to 0.5 times the original value
d) remains the same as the original value
Ans:a
7.The applied voltage of a certain transformer s increased by 75% while the frequency of applied voltage
is educed by 25%. The maximum core flux density will
a) Increase by seven time
b) Increase by three times
c) Reduce to one quarter
d) Remains the same
Ans:b
8. A single phase transformer reted or 220/240, 50hz operates at no load at 220V , 40Hz. This frequency
operation at rated voltage results in which one of following?
P a g e | 40
a) Increase of both eddy current & hysteresis losses
b) Reduction of hysteresisloss & increase of eddy current lodd
c) Increase of hysteresis loss &no change in eddy current loss
Ans:c
9. A 50hz transformer having equal hysteresis and eddy current losses at rated excitation is operated at
45hz at 90% of its rated voltage. Compared to rated operating point , the core losses under this condition.
a) Reduce by 10%
b) Reduce by 19%
c) Reduce by14.5%
d) Remains unchanged
Ans:c
10. A single phase transformer when suppilied from 220v, 50hz has eddy current loss of 50hhz , the
eddy current loss will be
a) 168.75W
b) 112.5W
c) 75W
d) 50W
Ans:b
11. 1KVA,230V,50HZ, single phase transformer has an eddy current loss of 30 watts, the eddy current
loss when the transformer is excited by a dc source of same voltage will be
a) 30 watts
b) More than 30 watts
c) Less than 30 watts
d) Zero watt.
P a g e | 41
Ans:d
12. At 50hz operation , a single phase transformer has hysteresis loss of 200W and eddy current loss of
100w its core loss at 60hz operation will be
a) 432 w
b) 408w
c) 384w
d) 360w
Ans:c
13. Can a 50 hz transformer be used for 25hz, if the input voltage is maintained constant at the rated
value corresponding to 50hz?
a) Yes, since the voltage is constant current level will not change
b) No,flux will be doubled which will drive the core to excessive saturation
c) No,owing to decreaed resistance of transformer , input current will be doubled at the load
d) Yes,at constant voltage, insulation will not be overstressed
Ans:b
14. On load phasor diagram of transformer the core loss component of current remains in phase with
a) No-load current
b) Primary supply voltage
c) Core flux
d) Primary induced voltage
Ans:b
15. The induced reactance of a transformer depends on
a) Electromotive force
b) Magnetomotive force
P a g e | 42
c) Magnetic flux
d) Leakage flux
Ans:d
16. Open circuit test performed on a transformer with
a) Rated secondary terminal voltage
b) Rated transformer current
c) Direct current
d) High frequency supply
Ans:a
17. In transformer circuit mode the core losses is represented as a
a) Series resistance
b) Shunt resistance
c) Series inductive
d) Shunt inductive
Ans:b
18. When a transformer is operating on no load , the primary applied voltage is approximately balanced
by
a) Primary induced emf
b) Secondary induced emf
c) Terminal voltage across the secondary
d) Voltage drop across the resistance and reactance
Ans:a
19. Full load voltage regulation of a power transformer is zero when power factor of the load is near
a) Unity and lagging
b) Zero and leading
P a g e | 43
c) Zero and lagging
d) Unity and lagging
Ans:a
20. In transformer , zero voltage regulation at full load is
a) Not possible
b) Possible at leading power factor load
c) Possible at unity power factor load
d) Possible at lagging power factor load
Ans:b
POWER SYSTEMS MCQ
1) A 3-ph, 4-wire system is commonly used for
a) primary distribution
b) secondary distribution
c) primary transmission
d) secondary transmission
ANS: B
2) The rated voltage of a 3-ph power system is given as
a) rms phase voltage
b) peak phase voltage
c) rms line to line voltage
d) peak line to line voltage
ANS: C
3) Which of the following is usually not the generating voltage
a) 6.6kv
P a g e | 44
b) 9.9kv
c) 11kv
d) 13.2kv
ANS: B
4) In a transmission system the feeder supplies power to
a) Transformer substation
b) Service mains
c) Distribution
d) All of the above
ANS: C
5) Feeder is designed mainly from the point of view of
a) Its current carrying capacity
b) Voltage drop in it
c) Operating voltage
d) Operating frequency
ANS: A
6) Distributers are designed from the point of view of
a) Its current carrying capacity
b) Operating voltage
c) Voltage drop in it
d) Operating frequency
ANS: C
7) Transmission and distribution of electric power by underground system is superior to overhead system
in respect of
a) Appearance and public safety
P a g e | 45
b) Maintenance cost
c) Frequency of faults, power failure and accidents
d) All of the above
ANS: D
8) By increasing the transmission voltage double of its original value, the same power can be despatched
keeping the line loss
a) Equal to its original value
b) Half of original value
c) Double the original value
d) One-forth of original value
ANS: D
9) In a transmission system, the weight of copper used is proportional to
a) E2
b) E
c) 1/E2
d) 1/E
ANS: C
10) The volume of copper required for an ac transmission line is inversely proportional to
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Pf
d) Both (b) and (c)
ANS: D
11) Improving power factor
a) Reduces current for a given output
P a g e | 46
b) Increases losses in line
c) Increases the cost of station equipment
ANS: A
12) which of the following distribution systems is preferred for good efficiency and high economy
a) Single-phase, 2-wire system
b) 2-ph, 3-wire system
c) 3-ph, 3-wire system
d) 3-ph, 4-wire system
ANS: D
13) The approximate cost ratio of a 220 kv, underground cable transmission and 220kv/ O/H transmission
is
a) 50
b) 25
c) 13
d) 5
Ans: C
14) The main reason for using high voltage for long distance power transmission is
a) Reduction in transmission losses
b) Reduction in time of transmission
c) Increase in system reliability
ANS: A
15) 66 kv is suitable for transmission of power over
a) 30km
b) 60km
P a g e | 47
c) 120km
d) 200km
ANS: B
16) If 3 MW power is to be transmitted over a distance of 30km, the desired transmission voltage will be
a) 11kv
b) 33kv
c) 66kv
d) 3.3kv
ANS: C
17) The highest transmission voltage used in India is
a) 400 kv
b) 220 kv
c) 132 kv
d) 765 kv
ANS: D
18) For high-voltage transmission lines, conductors are suspended from towers so as to
a) Increase clearance from ground
b) Reduce clearance from ground
c) Take care of increase in length
d) Reduce wind and snow effects
ANS: A
19) The wooden poles well impregnated with creosote oil or any preservative compound have life of
a) 25-30 years
b) 20-25 years
P a g e | 48
c) 10-15 years
d) 5-10 years
ANS: A
20) Steel poles for transmission lines need protection against
a) Borer
b) Termites
c) Corrosion
d) All of the above
ANS: C
21) RCC poles usually have the spans of
a) 250-400 m
b) 80-150 m
c) 50-80 m
d) 25-50 m
ANS: B
22) In india for distribution of electric power we usually use
a) Wooden poles
b) Steel poles
c) RCC poles
d) Both (b) and (c)
ANS: D
23) Conductors used in ht transmission lines are stranded because of
a) Increased tensile strength
b) Ease in handling
P a g e | 49
c) Cheaper in cost
d) Reduced resistivity
ANS: B
24) Which of the following properties has got higher value for aluminium in comparison to that of copper
a) Electrical resistivity
b) Melting point
c) Thermal conductivity
d) Specific gravity
ANS: A
25) ACSR is used in place of copper in overhead lines because of
a) Higher current carrying capacity
b) Being lighter in weight
c) Economy
d) Higher tensile strength
ANS: C
26) ACSR conductors have
a) All conductors made of aluminium
b) Outer conductors made of aluminium
c) Inner conductors made of aluminium
d) No conductors made of aluminium
Ans: B
27) The function of steel wire in an ACSR conductor is to
a) Compensate for skin effect
b) Take care of surges
P a g e | 50
c) Provide additional mechanical strength
d) Reduce inductance
ANS: C
28) The material used for the manufacture of ground wire is
a) Aliminium
b) Galvanized steel
c) Cast iron
d) Stainless steel
ANS: B
29) Guy wire is employed for
a) Providing protection against surges
b) Providing emergency earth route
c) Supporting the pole
d) All of the above
ANS: C
30) Effect of temperature rise in overhead lines is to
a) Increase the sag and decrease the tension
b) Decrease the sag and increase the tension
c) Increase both
d) Decrease both
ANS: A
31) The sag of a transmission line conductor in summer is
a) Less than that in winter
b) More than that in winter
P a g e | 51
c) Same as in winter
d) More than that in winter
32) In a transmission line sag depends upon
a) Span length
b) Tension in conductor
c) Weight of the conductor per unit length
d) All of the above
ANS: D
33) Wind loading in coastal regions in the range of
a) 40-50 kg/m2
b) 150 kg/m2
c) 96 kg/m2
Ans: B
34) Stringing chart is useful
a) For finding the sag in the conductor
b) In the design of tower
c) In the design of insulator string
d) Finding the distance between towers
Ans: A
35) Which type of insulators is used on 132 kv transmission lines
a) Pintype
b) Disc type
c) Shackle type
d) Pin and shackle type
P a g e | 52
Ans: B
36) Post type insulators are generally used in lines operating
a) Above 100 kv
b) Below 33 kv
c) At any voltage level, hv or ehv
Ans: C
37) The number of discs in a string of insulators for 400 kv ac overhead transmission line lies in the range
of
a) 32 to 33
b) 22 to 23
c) 15 to 16
d) 9 to 10
ANS: B
38) The voltage across the various discs of a string of suspension insulators having identical discs is
different due to
a) Surface leakage currents
b) Series capacitance
c) Shunt capacitance to ground
d) Series and shunt capacitances
ANS: C
39) The string efficiency of a string of suspension insulators is dependent on
a) Size of the insulators
b) Number of discs in the string
c) Size of tower
ANS: B
P a g e | 53
40) The string efficiency of a high-voltage line is around
a) 100%
b) 80%
c) 40%
d) 10%
ANS: B
41) The ratio of puncture voltage to the flash-over voltage of a line insulator is
a) Equal to 1
b) Lower than 1
c) Much greater than 1
ANS: C
42) The insulator may fail due to
a) Flash over
b) Short-circuits
c) Deposition of dust
d) Any of the above
ANS: D
43) Corona is
a) Partial breakdown of air
b) Complete breakdown of air
c) Sparking between lines
ANS: B
44) Corona loss in a transmission line is dependent on
a) Diameter of a conductor
P a g e | 54
b) Material of the conductor
c) Height of the conductor
ANS: A
45) Hollow conductors are used in transmission lines to
a) Reduce weight of copper
b) Improve stability
c) Reduce corona
ANS: C
46) In hv transmission, the spacing between subconductors of a bundle is approximately
a) 20cm
b) 40cm
c) 60cm
d) 3.5cm
ANS: B
47) For a standard conductor the ratio of GMR to actual radius is
a) Equal to 1
b) More than 1
c) Equal to 0.7788
d) Less than 0.7788
ANS: C
48) Transmission lines are transposed to
a) Reduce corona loss
b) Reduce skin effect
P a g e | 55
c) Prevent interference with neighbouring telephone lines
d) Prevent short-ckt between any two lines
ANS: C
49) Transposition of transmission line is done to
a) Reduce line loss
b) Reduce skin effect
c) Balance line voltage drop
ANS: C
50) Which of the following is neglected while analyzing the performance of transmission line of
a) 50 km length
b) 150 km length
c) 250 km length
d) All of the above
ANS: C
51) The capital cost on a HVDC converter is
a) Less than ac substation
b) More than ac substation
c) Same as that of ac substation
ANS: B
52) In an HVDC link, power flows
a) From rectifier end to the inverter end
b) From the inverter end to the rectifier end
ANS: A
P a g e | 56
53) HVDC transmission needs
a) Pulse converters
b) Dc generators
c) Ac filters
d) Dc filters
ANS: A
54) The pu impedance of a line to 50 MVA, 132 kv base is 0.4, the pu impedance to a 100 MVA, 132 kv
base will be
a) 0.2
b) 0.4
c) 0,8
d) 1.6
ANS: C
55) A dc line carries
a) Less power than an equivalent ac line
b) More power than the ac line
c) Same power as an ac line
ANS: B
56) In the case of an HVDC system, there is
a) Charging current but no skin effect
b) No charging current but skin effect
c) Neither charging current nor skin effect
d) Both charging current and skin effect
ANS: C
57) For bulk power transmission over long distance HVDC transmission is
P a g e | 57
a) Is economically and technically superior to ac transmission
b) Not good alternative to ac transmission
c) Not economically viable
ANS: A
58) Bulk power transmission over long HVDC lines are preferred an account of
a) Low cost of an HVDC terminal
b) No harmonic problem
c) Minimum line power losses
d) Simple protection
ANS: C
59) As compared to ac transmission dc transmission is free from
a) Inductance
b) Capacitance
c) Phase displacement
d) All of the above
ANS: D
60) Insulation coordination for UHV lines (above 500 kv) is done based on
a) Lightning surges
b) Lightning surges and switching surges
c) Switching surges
ANS: C
61) The most accurate and versatile method of achieving reactive power compensation is by using
a) Switched capacitors
P a g e | 58
b) Fixed capacitor with controlled reactor
c) Saturable reactor with capacitor bank
d) Switched capacitor with controlled reactors
ANS: D
62) Series capacitors
a) Increase the power transmission capability of an EHV long line
b) Provide voltage control
c) Increase the shunt admittance of the line
ANS: A
63) Series capacitor is used in a transmission line to
a) Compensate the voltage drop
b) Reduce line loss
c) Limit short ckt current
d) Improve load power factor
ANS: A
64) With bundled conductors
a) The corona inception voltage increases
b) The corona inception voltage decreases
c) The corona inception voltage remain unaffected
ANS: A
65) The conductor of an EHV line is selected on the basis of
a) Current carrying capacity
b) Corona and RI performance
c) Line voltage
P a g e | 59
d) none of these
ANS: B
66) frequency of resonant vibration lies in the range of
a) 10-20 hz
b) 100-200 hz
c) 50-100 hz
d) 200-300 hz
ANS: C
67) On what basis is the insulation level of a 400 kv, EHV overhead transmission line decided?
a) Lightning over voltage
b) Corona inception voltage
c) Switching over voltage
d) Radio and TV interference
ANS: C
68) In order to reduce the inductive interference to parallel communication circuits to the minimum
a) The conductors are transposed at regular intervals
b) Bundle conductors are used
c) Thick conductors are used
d) Either (a) or (b)
ANS: D
69) Extra high voltage transmission means
a) Voltage less than 400kv
b) Voltage in the range of 400-750kv
c) Voltage grater than 750
P a g e | 60
ANS: A
70) Bundled conductors are used for EHV transmission lines primarily for reducing the
a) Corona loss
b) Surge impedance
c) Voltage drop across the line
ANS: A
71) The medium sized induction motor will operate at minimum power factor while operating at
a) Full load
b) 50% full load
c) 25% full load
d) Any load
ANS: A
72) An industrial installation has a power factor of 0.8 lagging. It would be economical to improve p ftp
a) Unity
b) About 0.8 leading
c) About 0.95 lagging
d) About 0.95 leading
ANS: C
73) The most economical limit of power factor correcting is governed by
a) Original power factor
b) Relative costs of the supply and power factor correction equipment
c) Both a and b
P a g e | 61
ANS: B
74) Advantage of the improved power factor are
a) Increase in operating efficiency of the power system
b) Improvement in voltage regulation
c) Reduction in overall cost per unit
d) Better utilization of kw capacities of prime movers, transformers, switchgear and the lines
ANS: D
75) For power factor improvement static capacitors have the drawback of
a) Short-service life
b) Getting damaged by high voltage
c) Not repairable
d) All of the above
ANS: D
76) For power factor improvement static capacitors have the advantage of
a) Small losses
b) Easy installation
c) Low initial cost and little maintenance
d) All of the above
ANS: D
77) Static capacitors are rated in terms of
a) kVAR
b) kW
c) kVA
d) kWh
P a g e | 62
ANS: A
78) For a consumer the most economical power factor is usually
a) 0.25-0.5 lagging
b) 0.25-0.5 leading
c) 0.85-0.95 lagging
d) 0.85-0.95 leading
ANS: C
79) The primary reason for low power factor is owing to installation of
a) Synchronous motors
b) Dc motors
c) Induction motors
d) Commutator furnaces
ANS: A
80) Low power factor is usually not due to
a) Discharge lamps
b) Incandescent lamps
c) Arc lamps
d) Induction furnaces
ANS: B
81) Doherty rate tariff is applied to
a) Domestic consumers
b) Medium industrial consumers
c) Bulk supplies
d) Municipal loads
P a g e | 63
ANS: C
82) The penalty for low power factor is imposed on
a) Residential and commercial consumers
b) Industrial consumers
c) Agricultural consumers
d) All of the above
Ans: B
83) Two part tariff is charged on the basis of
a) Connected load
b) Units consumed
c) Maximum demand
d) Both a and b
ANS: D
84) Domestic consumers are usually charged
a) Flat demand tariff
b) Block rate tariff
c) Flat rate tariff
d) Off peak tariff
ANS: B
85) Flat rate tariff can be charged on the basis of
a) Connected load
b) Units consumed
c) Maximum demand
d) Both a and b
P a g e | 64
Ans: B
86) As the load factor of a generating plant increases, the generation cost per kWh generated
a) Reduces the installation cost
b) Increases the installation cost
c) Does not effect the installation cost
ANS: A
87) A power plant has a maximum demand of 15 MW, The load factor is 50% and the plant factor is
40%, The operating reserve is
a) 3.75 MW
b) 3 MW
c) 6 MW
d) 7 MW
ANS: A
88) The power which must be available ever under emergency conditions is known as
a) Spinning reserve
b) Cold reserve
c) Firm reserve
d) Hot reserve
ANS: C
89) The knowledge of diversity factor helps in computing
a) Plant capacity
b) Average load
c) Units (kWh) generated
d) Peak demand
ANS: A
P a g e | 65
90) Diversity factor * maximum demand is
a) Average demand
b) Sum of consumers maximum demand
c) Installed capacity
d) Generated power
ANS: B
91) The power system experiences peak demand from
a) Midnight to 8 A.M.
b) 8 A.M. to 2 P.M.
c) 2 P.M. to 6 P.M.
d) 6 P.M to 10 P.M.
ANS: D
92) During which season the load on a power system is maximum
a) Autumn
b) Rainy
c) Summer
d) Winter
ANS: C
93) The load duration curve for unity load factor will be of
a) Rectangular shape
b) Triangular shape
c) L-shape
d) I-shape
Ans: A
P a g e | 66
94) Load curve of power generating station is of always
a) Negative slope
b) Zero slope
c) Positive slope
d) Any combination of a, b, and c
ANS: D
95) The efficiency of a boiler used in a modern steam power plant is of the order of
a) 30%
b) 50%
c) 85%
d) 100%
ANS: C
96) In bleeder turbines, part of the steam is extracted for
a) Condensation
b) Reheating
c) Feed water heating
d) Secondary air heating
ANS:C
97) The average load factor of thermal power plants in India is
a) 100%
b) 80-95%
c) 50-60%
d) 35-45%
ANS: C
P a g e | 67
98) As the size of a thermal generating unit increases, the capital cost per kW of installed capacity
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) May increase or decrease
ANS: B
99) In thermal power plants, the pressure in the working fluid cycle is developed by
a) Condenser
b) Superheater
c) Feed water pumps
d) Turbine
ANS: C
100) In a thermal power plants, the feed water coming to the economizer is heated using
a) HP steam
b) LP steam
c) Direct heat in the furnace
d) Flue gases
ANS: D
P a g e | 68

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ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING 300 IMPORTANT MCQ PDF

4. POWER SYSTEM MCQ-100

a) to increase the stored energy at constant flux.

b) to decrease the stored energy at constant flux.

c) to decrease the coenergy at constant mmf.

d) to decrease the stored energy at constant mmf.

2) For a linear electromagnetic circuit,the following statement is true

a) field energy is equal to the coenergy.

b) field energy is greater than the coenergy.

c) field energy is lesser than the coenergy.

3) In an electromechanical energy conversion device, the developed torque depends upon

a) stator field strength and torque angle.

b) stator field and rotor field strength.

d) stator field strength only.

a) reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path.

b) increase fiux density in the air gap.

c) permit mechanical clearance.

d) avoid saturation of field.

5) Reluctance torque in rotating machines is present,when

a) air gap is not uniform.

b) reluctance seen by stator mmf varies.

c) reluctance seen by rotor mmf varies.

d) reluctance seen by the working mmf varies.

b) constant independent of disc size.

c) increasing radially in the outward direction.

d) decreasing radially in the outward direction.

8) The emf induced in a conductor rotating in a bipolar field is

c) dc and ac both. d) none of these.

9) In a dc motor the windage loss is proportional to

b) square of the supply voltage.

c) square of the flux density.

d) square of the armature speed.

a) core loss and mechanical loss.

b) core loss and stray load loss.

c) copper and mechanical losses.

d) copper loss and stray load loss.

11) stray losses are sum of:

a) iron and mechanical losses.

b) copper and iron losses.

c) copper and mechanical losses.

12) The principle of dynamically induced emf is utilized in

13) Which of the following is not a part of dc machine?

c) field winding. d) damping winding.

14) The field coils of a dc generator are usually made of

c) cast iron. d) carbon.

15) Laminated yoke in dc motor can reduce

16) pole shoe of a dc machine is laminated for the purpose of

a) decreasing hysteresis loss.

b) decreasing eddy current loss.

c) decreasing both hysteresis and eddy current loss.

17) Poles of dc machine are often laminated to

b) reduce armature reaction.

c) reduce iron weight.

d) dissipate more heat.

18) The ventilating ducts in most of the dc machines are

c) radial as well as longitudinal. d) none of these.

19) Armature of a dc machine is made of

20) Consider the following parts of a dc machine:

1. yoke 2. armature core.

3. brushes. 4. pole core.

Which of following subject to iron loss?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only