JEE-MAIN

MODEL GRAND TEST

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
* The test is of 3 hours duration.
* The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions in three parts, having 30 questions in each part
of equal weightage.
* Each question is allotted four marks for correct response. Maximum marks is 360.
* One mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question.

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PART A — CHEMISTRY

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1. The degree of dissociation (α ) of a weak electrolyte, Ax B y is related to van’t Hoff

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factor (i) by the expression
x + y −1 x + y +1 i −1 i −1
1) α =
i −1
2) α =
tib
i −1
3) α =
( x + y − 1)
4) α =
( x + y + 1)
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2. Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal–craft’s reaction easily
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1) Nitro benzene 2) Toluene 3) Cumene 4) Xylene

OCH 3
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3. Methoxy benzene is called anisole .

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How many more structures can be drawn for the same forumula?
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1) 5 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2
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4. In the following compounds

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I) II) III) IV)

N N N N
H H H

The order of basic strength is

1) IV>I>III>II 2) III>I>IV>II 3) II>I>III>IV 4) I>III>II>IV

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5. Find the product of the given reaction?
CH3
CH3 H⊕
?
∆
OH

CH3 CH3
1) 2)
CH3 CH3

CH3

3) 4) CH3

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CH3 CH3

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6. The reagent(s) for the following conversion
?

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Br
H H is/are
Br
1) Alcoholic KOH 2) Alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH2
3) Aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2 tib 4) Zn/CH3OH
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7. A,B and C are the elements of the same period in the long form of the periodic table
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.Oxides of A is amphoteric, B is acidic and C is basic. The increasing order of atomic

numbers of the elements is
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1) C<A<B 2) C<B<A 3) A<C<B 4) B<A<C

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8. The correct order of increasing C-O bond length of CO, CO32 − ,CO2 is
1) CO3−2 < CO2 < CO 2) CO2 < CO32 − < CO
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3) CO < CO32 − < CO2 4) CO < CO2 < CO32 −

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9. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has its hydration
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enthalpy greater than its lattice enthalpy?

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1) CaSO4 2) BeSO4 3) BaSO4 4) SrSO4

10. Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6 in solid state as well as in solution of non-
polar solvents such as benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives

1) Al 3+ + 3Cl − 2) Al2O3 + 6 HCl

3− 3+
3)  Al ( OH )6 
  4)  Al ( H 2O )6 
  + 3Cl −

11. Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

2
 1) Ionic carbides are formed by highly electropositive metals
2) Carborundum and boron carbide are true covalent carbides
3) Carborundum and boron carbide are used as abrasive
4) Mg 2C3 like CaC2 on hydrolysis evolves C2H2

12. H 2O2 exists as ______ in alkaline medium

1) HO2- 2) HO2+ 3) O22- 4) Both 1 & 3

13. The common components of photo chemical smog are

1) O3, NO, acrolein , HCHO, Peroxyacetyl Nitrate

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2) O3,O2,H2

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3) NO + O3

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4) only Peroxyacetyl Nitrate , acrolein

14. Dacron is a polymer of

1) Ethylene glycol +Phenol
tib 2) Ethylene glycol+ Vinyl acetate
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3) Glycerol +phthalic anhydride 4) Ethylene glycol+ Terephthalic acid
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H O OH
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15. Which set of terms correctly identifies the carbohydrate shown? OH H

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HOH2C H
H OH

i) pentose ii) Hexose iii) Aldose

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iv) Ketose v) pyranose vi) Furanose

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1) i,iii and v 2) i,iii and vi 3) ii,iii and v 4) i,iv and vi

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16. The correct statements among the following is/are

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a) phosphorus is an essential constituent of animal and plant matter

b) phosphoproteins are present in milk and eggs
c) selenium can form dichlorides and dibromides
d) In the oxidising properties of sulphuric acid, with metals, non metals it is
reduced to SO3
1) All are correct 2) a,b only 3) a,b,d only 4) a,b,c only
17. Which of the following can exist as dimer
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 1) BrCl 2) ClF3 3) ICl3 4) IF3

18. With which of the following Xenon fluorides can form cationic species
1) PF5 2) NaF 3) SbF5 4) Both 1,3

19. a) MnO4− + e− → MnO42 − ; E0 =

x

b) MnO4− + 4 H ⊕ + 3e− → MnO2 + 2 H 2O ; E 0 =

y

c) MnO4− + 8 H ⊕ + 5e− → Mn +2 + 4 H 2O ; E 0 =
z

The correct relation between x,y and z is

1) x>y>z 2) x>y<z 3) y>z>x 4) x<y=z

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20. Match the following

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Table-1 Table-2

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Ore composition
A) Fools gold
B) Chalcopyrites
i) CuFeS2
ii) ZnCO3
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C) Malachite iii) FeS2
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D) Calamine iv) Cu2S

v) CO3.Cu(OH)2
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1) A-iii,B-i,C-v,D-ii 2) A-iii,B-v,C-i,D-ii
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3) A-i,B-iii,C-v,D-ii 4) A-iii,B-i,C-ii,D-v

21. Energy required to stop the ejection of electron from Cu plate is 0.24ev. Calculate
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the work function when radiation of λ = 253.7 nm strikes the plate

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1) 4.89ev 2) 4.65 ev 3) 4.89 J 4) 7.835x10-19 ergs

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22. One litre flask contains air, water vapour and a small amount of liquid water at a
pressure of 200mmHg. If this is connected to another one litre evacuated flask, what
will be the final pressure of the gas mixture at equilibrium? Assume the
temperature to be 500C. Aqueous tension at 500C = 93 mmHg.
1) 53.5mm 2) 93 mm 3) 146.5 mm 4) 107 mm

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23. What will be the PH of an aqueous solution of 1.0M ammonium formate ? Given

P K a 3.8,
= = P Kb 4.8
1) 7.5 2) 3.4 3) 6.5 4) 10.2

24. 2 moles of FeSO4 in acid medium are oxidized by ‘x’ moles of KMnO4 where as
2 moles of FeC2O4 in acid medium are oxidized by ‘y’ moles of KMnO4. The ratio of
‘x’ and ‘y’ is
1) 1/3 2) 1/2 3) 1/4 4) 1/5

25. The equilibrium constant for a reaction is 1x1020 at 300K . The standard free energy

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change for this reaction is

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1) -115 kJ 2) 115 kJ 3) 166 kJ 4) -166 kJ

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26. For a gas having molar mass M, specific heat at constant pressure can be given as:
gR g M gRM
1)
M (g- 1)
2)
RM tib 3)
R (g- 1)
4)
g+ 1
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27. In a solid ‘AB’ having the NaCl structure ‘A’ atoms occupy the corners of the cubic
unit cell. If all the Face centred atoms along one of the axes are removed , then the
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resultant stoichiometry of the solid is

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1) AB2 2) A2B 3) A4B3 4) A3B4

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K310
28. For which of the following reactions would be maximum
K300
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1) A + B → C Ea =
50kJ 2) x + y → z Ea =40kJ
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3) P + Q → R Ea =
60kJ 4) E + F → G Ea =
100kJ
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29. Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with zinc dust and water gives
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compound E. Compound E on further treatment with aqueous KOH yields

compound F. Compound F is

CHO CHO
1) 2)
CO2H

3) COOH 4)
CO2H
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30. Efficiency of the following cell is 84%
2+ 2+
A+ B A+ B ∆H =−285kJ
(s) (aq) (aq) (s)
.
Then the standard electrode potential of the cell will be
1) 1.20v 2) 2.40v 3) 1.10v 4) 1.24v

PART B — MATHEMATICS
1 1 1

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31. If=
D 1 1+ x 1 for x ≠ 0, y ≠ 0 then D is
1 1 1+ y

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1) divisible by x but not y 2) divisible by y but not x

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3) divisible by neither x nor y 4) divisible by both x and y

tib  2x 
32. Let f : (−1,1) → B , be a function defined by f ( x) = tan −1   , then f is both one-
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 1 − x2 
one and onto when B is the interval
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 π  π  π π  π π
1) 0,  2)  0,  3)  − ,  4)  − , 
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 2  2  2 2  2 2

33. If z 2 + z + 1 =0 , where z is a complex number, then the value of

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2 2 2 2
 1  2 1  3 1  6 1
 z +  +  z + 2  +  z + 3  + ... +  z + 6  is
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z z z z
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1) 18 2) 54 3) 6 4) 12
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34. The system of equations

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α x + y + z = α − 1, x + α y + z = α − 1, x + y + α z = α − 1 hs no solutions, if α is
1) either -2 or 1 2) -2 3) 1 4) not -2

35. Let R = {(1,3),(4, 2),(2, 4),(2,3),(3,1)} be a relation on the set A = {1, 2,3, 4} . The relation
R is
1) not symmetric 2) transitive 3) a function 4) reflexive

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36. If the roots of the equation x 2 − bx + c =0 be two consecutive integers, then

b 2 − 4c equals
1) 3 2) -2 3) 1 4) 2

37. How many ways are there to arrange the letters in the word SANDESH with the
vowels in alphabetical order?
1) 360 2) 2520 3) 120 4) 480

38. If the sum of the coefficients in the expansion of ( a + b ) is 4096, then the greatest
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coefficient in the expansion is
1) 1594 2) 792 3) 924 4) 2924

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 x cos θ  −1  cos θ 
39. tan −1   − cot   is equals to
 1 − x sin θ   x − sin θ 

1) θ 2)
π
2
−θ tib 3)
θ
2
4)
π
4
−
θ
2
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40. In a geometric progression consisting of positive terms, each term equals the sum of
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the next two terms. Then the common ratio of this progression is equals
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1) 5 2)
1
2
( )
5 −1 3)
1
2
(
1− 5 ) 4)
1
2
5
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   
41. The vectors AB= 3i + 4k and AC =5i − 2 j + 4k are the sides of a triangle ABC. The
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length of the median through A is

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1) 72 2) 33 3) 288 4) 18
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2cos β − 1 α
42. =
If cos α (0 < α, β < =
π ) , α + β π then tan is equal to
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2 − cos β 2
1 1
1) 3 4 2) 3 2 3) 3 4) 32
43. Suppose a population A has 100 observation 101,102,…,200, and another
population B has 100 observations 151,152,…,250.If V A and VB represent the

variances of the two populations, respectively, then V A / VB is

1) 1 2) 9/4 3) 4/9 4) 2/3

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44. A random variable X has poisson distribution with mean 2. The P ( X > 1.5 ) equals

3
1) 0 2) 2 / e 2 3) 3 / e2 4) 1−
e2

n.3n 1
46. If lim = then the range of x is (where n ∈ N )
n → ∞ n ( x − 2 ) + n.3
n n + 1 −3n 3

1) [2,5) 2) (1,5) 3) (-1,5) 4) ( −∞, ∞ )

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47. Let ‘f’ be a function satisfy

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y ) f ( x) + f ( y ) + f ( xy ) − 2∀x, y ∈ R and f(2) = 5 then lim f ( x) =
f ( x) f ( =
x→4

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1) 4 2) 16 3) 21 4) 17

( x + 2)
dy
tib
48. If y(x) is the solution of the a differential equation

= x 2 + 4 x − 9, x ≠ −2 and y(0) = 0 then y(-4) is

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dx
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1) 2 2) 0 3) 1 4) -1

49. If at each point on the curve y = x3 − ax 2 + x + 1a the tangent is inclined at an acute

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angle with the +ve direction of the x-axis, then

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1) a > 0 2) − 3 ≤ a ≤ 3 3) a ≤ 3 4) ( −∞, ∞ )

 π π π
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by g ( x) 2 tan −1 e x − then g is
50. Let g : ( −∞, ∞ ) →  − ,  be a function given =
 2 2 2
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1) Strictly decreasing in ( −∞, ∞ ) & odd function

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2) Strictly increasing only in ( 0,∞ )

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3) Strictly increasing in ( −∞, ∞ ) , but neither even nor odd

4) Strictly increasing in ( −∞, ∞ ) & odd function

51. A curve

(1 + x + x2 ) ( 6 x2 + 5x + 4) dx is passing through (0,0) then g(1) =

6
∫x
27
g=
( x)

37 36 27 26
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 6 7 6
8
 e −t
1 b
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52. If ∫ dt = a then ∫ dt =
t +1 t − b −1
0 b −1

1) a.eb 2) − a.eb 3) − a.e−b 4) a.eb

53. The area bounded by the curves=y + 3 0 , x-axis and lying in the first
x , 2 y − x=
quadrant is
1) 3 2) 19 3) 6 4) 9
54. The lines x + y =a and ax − y =
1 intersect each other in Q1 . Then the set of all

possible values of a is the interval

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1) ( 0,∞ ) 2) (1,∞ ) 3) ( −1, ∞ ) 4) (−1,1]

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55. The radices of the circle of least size that passes through (-2,1) and touching both

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axes is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 5 4) 6
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56. If ( x, y ) lies on the ellipse 9 ( x − 2 ) + 16 ( y − 1) =
2 2
144 then the maximum value of
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x + y is
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1) 4 2) 8 3) 1 4) 16
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57. The product of the perpendiculars from a point on 9 ( x + y ) − 16 ( x − y ) =

2 2
144 to its

asymptotes is
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144 144 144 144

1) 2) 3) 4)
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9 50 25 16
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58. If the straight lines x = 1 + s, y = −3 − λ s, z = 1 + λ s and x = , y =+ 2 t with
1 t , z =−
2
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parameters s and t respectively are coplanar then λ =

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1) 1 2) 3 3) 2 4) -2
59. A line makes an angle θ with x-axis and y-axis, a possible θ is in

π π  π π   π  π
1)  ,  2)  ,  3) 0,  4) 0, 
4 2 3 6  2  4

60. Let f ( x)= x + cot x and f is the inverse of g then g1 ( x ) =

−1 x x 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
[ x − g ( x)]
2
[ x − g ( x)] 2 x − g ( x) [ x − g ( x)]2
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 PART C — PHYSICS
61. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side ‘l’ is suspended between the

pole pieces of a permanent magnet such that B is in plane of the coil. If due to a
current ‘i’ in the triangle, a torque ‘T’ acts on it, side ‘l’ of the triangle is
1/2 1/2
 T  2 T  2 T 
1) 2   2)   3)   4) None
 3Bi  3  Bi  3  Bi 
62. Three persons P, Q and R of same mass travel with same speed u along an
equilateral triangle of side ‘d’ such that each one faces the other always. After how
much time will they meet each other

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Q

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u

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u

1) d/u seconds
tib
P u R

2) 2 d/3 u seconds
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3) 2d / ( 3) u seconds 4) d / ( 3) u seconds
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  
63. The resultant of two vectors A and B is perpendicular to the vector A and its
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 
magnitude is equal to half of the magnitude of vector B . Then the angle between A

and B is
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1) 30o 2) 45o 3) 150o 4) 120o

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64. Three blocks of masses m1, m2 and m3 are connected by massless string as shown in
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fig. on a frictionless table. They are pulled with a force T3 = 40 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 =

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6 kg and m3 = 4 kg, the tension T2 will be

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T1 T2 T3
m1 m2 m3

1) 20 N 2) 40 N 3) 10 N 4) 32 N
65. The kinetic energy K of a particle moving in a straight line depends on the distance
s as K = as2. The force acting on the particle is

1) 2 as 2) 2 m as 3) 2 a 4) as 2

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66. A rigid spherical body is spinning around an axis without any external torque. Due
to temperature its volume increases by 3%. Then percentage change in its angular
speed is
1) -1% 2) 1% 3) -2% 4) -3%
67. Infinite number of masses each of 3 kg are placed along a straight line at the
distances of 1 m, 2m, 4m, 8m, …. From a point O on the same line. If G is the
universal gravitational constant, thent he magnitude to gravitational field intensity
at O is :
1) 1.0 G 2) 2.0 G 3) 3.0 G 4) 4.0 G

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68. Two wires of the same length and radius are joined end to end and loaded. If the

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Young’s modulus of the materials of the wire are Y1 and Y2, the combination

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behaves as a single wire of Young’s modulus

(Y1 + Y2 )
1) Y1 + Y2 2) Y1Y2
tib 3)
2
4)
2Y1Y2
(Y1 + Y2 )
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69. What change in surface energy will be noticed when a drop of radius R splits up
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into 1000 droplets of radius r, surface tension T ?

1) 4π R 2T 2) 7π R 2T 3) 16π R 2T 4) 36π R 2T
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70. A flat plate of area 10 cm2 is separated from a large plate by a layer of glycerine 1
mm thick. If the coefficient of viscosity of glycerine is 20 dyne cm2 s, the force
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required to keep the plate moving with a velocity of 1 cm per sec is :

1) 80 dyne 2) 200 dyne 3) 800 dyne 4) 2000 dyne
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71. A metal sphere of radius r and specific heat S is rotated about an axis passing
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through its centre at a speed of n rotations per second. It is suddenly stopped and
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50% of its energy is used in increasing its temperature. Then the rise in temperature
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of the sphere is
2
2 π 2n2r 2 2 π 2n2 7  π rn 
1) 2) 3) π r 2 n 2 S 4) 5  
5 S 10 r 2 S 8  145 

72. In the P-V diagram shown in Fig. ABC is a semicircle. The work done in the process
ABC is

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 y

3 C

P (Nm-2)
B
2

1 A

0 1 2
V (m3)

π π
1) zero 2) 4 J 3) J 4) − J
2 2

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73. An engine has an efficiency of 1/3. The amount of work this engine can perform

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per kilocalorie of heat input is

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1) 1400 cal 2) 700 cal 3) 700 J 4) 1400 J

74. Two plates of same area are placed in contact. Their thickness as well as thermal
tib
conductivities are in the ratio 2 : 3. The outer surface of one plate is maintained at
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10oC and that of other at 0oC. What is the temp. of the common surface surface ?
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1) 0oC 2) 2.5oC 3) 5oC 4) 6.5oC

75. A spring mass system oscillates with a time period T1. when a certain mass is
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attached to the spring. When a different mass is attached after removing the first
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mass the time period becomes T2. When both the mass are attached to the free end
of the spring with the other end fixed, the time period of oscillation is :
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T1 + T2
1) T1T2 2) T1 + T2 3) 4) T12 + T22
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2
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76. Mono chromatic radiation of wave length ' λ ' is incident on a hydrogen sample in
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ground state. Hydrogen atoms absorb a fraction of light and subsequently emits six
difference wave length. The value of ' λ ' is
o o o o
1) 970.6 A 2) 1970 A 3) 1276 A 4) 1658 A

77. In the circuit shown, the potential difference across the capacitor is 12V. The cell is
ideal, the emf of the cell is

12
 R
C

R R
R R

1) 9V 2) 12V 3) 15V 4) 18V

78. The radius of second orbit of an electron in hydrogen atom is 2.116Ao. The

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deBroglie wavelength associated with the electron in this orbit would be

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o o o o
1) 1.058 A 2) 3.32 A 3) 6.64 A 4) 13.28 A

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79. Statement-1 : If the frequency of the incident light on a photosensitive surface is

tib
doubled, the maximum K.E of emitted photo electrons becomes double.
Statement-2 : The intensity of the light will set doubled by doubling the frequency
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of light falling on surface, keeping the distance between the source of the light and
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the surface same

1) Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true.
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2) Statement-1 and Statement-2 are false

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3) Statement-1 is true and Statement-2 is false.

4) Statement-1 is false and Statement-2 is true.
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80. With a concave mirror, an object is placed at a distance ‘X1’ from the principal
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focus, on the principal axis and the image is formed at a distance X2 from the
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principal focus. Then the focal length of the mirror is

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x1 + x2 x1
1) x1x2 2) x1x2 3) 4)
2 x2

81. If 10% of a radio active material decays in 5 days then the amount of the original
material left after 20 days is approximately
1) 60% 2) 65% 3) 70% 4) 75%

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82. In Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity at a point where path difference is
λ I
is I. If Io denotes the maximum intensity, then is equal to
6 I0

1 3 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 2 2

83. The transfer ratio ' β ' of a transistor is 50. The input resistance of the transistor
when used in the common emitter configuration is 500Ω . The peak value of the
collector ac current for a peak value of ac input voltage of 0.02 V is
1) 1 mA 2) 2 mA 3) 4 mA 4) 20 mA

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84. An electric bulb has a rated power of 50w at 100V. Calculate the inductance of a
choke coil to be used is series with this bulb operating on 220V, 50 Hz ac source is

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1) 1.25 H 2) 1 H 3) 0.1 H 4) 1.25 mH

tib
85. A T.V transmission tower at a particular station has a height of 160m. By how much
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the height of tower be increased to double its coverage range (Given radius of earth
is 6400 km)
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1) 640 m 2) 160 m 3) 320 m 4) 480 m

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86. Consider the charge configuration and a spherical Gaussian surface as shown in
figure. When calculating the flux of electric field over the spherical surface, the
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electric field will be due to

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+ q1 + q2
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−q1
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1) q2 2) only positive charges

3) + q1 Q − q1 4) all the charges

87. A magnetizing field of 1600 Am-1 produces a magnetic flux of 2.4 × 10−5 wb in an
iron bar of cross sectional area of 0.2 cm2. The susceptibility of the iron bar is
1) 298 2) 596 3) 1192 4) 1788

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88. Five identical plates are connected across a battery as shown in figure. If charge on
plate ‘I’ be +q, then the charges on plates 2, 3, 4 and 5 are :
1

2
3
4
5

+ -

1) − q, + q, − q, + q 2) − q, + 2q, − 2q, + q

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3) −2q, + 2q, − 2q, + q 4) none of these

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b
89. The pressure P exerted by a liquid is given by P
= ax + , where x is distance, t

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c + t2
is time; a, b, c are arbitrary constants. The dimensions of a, b, c are respectively

1) ML−2T −2 ; ML−1; T 2 tib 2) ML−1T −2 ; T 2 ; L2

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3) ML−2T 2 ; MT −2 ; ML−1 4) MT −2 ; L2 ; T 2
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πx
90. In the equation for a stationary wave given by y = 5cos sin100π t. Where ‘X’ is in
25
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cm and ‘t’ in second, a node will not occur at

1) 12.5 cm 2) 25 cm 3) 37.5 cm 4) 62.5
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 JEE-MAIN
MODEL TEST
KEY SHEET

CHESMISTRY

et
1) 1 2) 3 3) 4 4) 2 5) 4 6) 3 7) 2 8) 3 9) 1 10) 2

.n
11) 2 12) 1 13) 1 14) 4 15) 1 16) 3 17) 4 18) 1 19) 2 20) 4

ha
21) 1 22) 3 23) 4 24) 2 25) 1 26) 2 27) 2 28) 4 29) 1 30) 2

tib
ra
MATHEMATICS
up

31) 1 32) 2 33) 2 34) 4 35) 1 36) 1 37) 1 38) 4 39) 2 40) 4
ad

41) 4 42) 4 43) 1 44) 4 45) 1 46) 2 47) 3 48) 4 49) 3 50) 1
en

51) 2 52) 3 53) 3 54) 1 55) 1 56) 1 57) 1 58) 4 59) 3 60) 4
.e
w

PHYSICS
w
w

61) 1 62) 2 63) 3 64) 4 65) 1 66) 3 67) 4 68) 4 69) 4 70) 4

71) 1 72) 3 73) 4 74) 3 75) 4 76) 1 77) 3 78) 3 79) 4 80) 1

81) 2 82) 2 83) 2 84) 1 85) 4 86) 4 87) 2 88) 3 89) 1 90) 2

16
 JEE-MAIN MODEL TEST
CHEMISTRY SOLUTIONS 1
8. Bond length ∝
Bond order
1. Ax By → xA+ y + y.B − x

1 0 0 9. Due to small size of Be+2

1−α xα yα
10. Al 2 Cl6 + 3H 2 O → Al 2 O3 + 3HCl
i −1
α=
( x + y − 1) 11. Mg 2C3 + 4 H 2O → 2 Mg ( OH )2 + CH 3 − C ≡ CH
(propyne)
2. -NO2 is electron withdrawing group.

et
12. H 2 O2 + OH − → H 2 O + HO2−
CH2OH
O

.n
13. Photochemical smog contains PAN, NO,
and

ha
3.
O3 and acrolein
CH3

4. I is the most basic as the lonepair belongs

tib 14. Polymer of terephthalic acid and ethylene
ra
glycol is commercially called dacron
sp3 orbital therefore available for donation.
up

IV is the least basic as the lonepair of 15. Carbohydrate contains 5 carbons, H atoms
electrons on N forms a part of aromatic and aldehyde. It was in pyranose structure.
ad

sextet
16. Selenium usually forms tetrahalides
CH3 CH3 CH3
en

⊕
CH3 H CH3 CH3 (20 carbocation)
5. OH O+ H 2
-H2O
⊕ 17. As monomer IF3 is less stable
.e

CH3 CH3

⊕
⊕ Methyl 18. XeF2 + PF3 → [XeF]+ [PF6 ]−
CH3 − H Shift
w

CH3
(30 carbocation)

19. E 0 value for MnO −4 to MnO2 is less,

w

6. Simple alkyl halides are

compared to other two conversions
w

dehydrohalogenated by using strong base

like alc.KOH. Whereas vinyl halides 20. Composition of minerals

require strongest base like NH 2 for 21. Ephoton= work function + KE absorbed
elimination
(1.602×10-19J=1ev)
= work function + ev0
7. Basic nature of Oxides decreases and
Where e = electronic charge ;
acidic nature of oxides increases from left
v0 = stopping potential
to right in a period

17
 nR
Þ CP =
22. M (n- 1)
v=1lit 1lit
27. Along one axis two Faces are present so
Aqueous tension remain same in both
8
plasks No.of ‘A’ atoms in unitcell= = 1
8
p1v1 = p2v2 p1v1 = p2v2 4
No.of ‘B’ atoms in unit cell= = 2
2
(intial) (final) 107x1 = p2x2
The formula is AB2
Intial pressure p1 = 200-93=107
28. Increase in rate constant is maximum for
107
=p2 = 53.5mm the reaction having maximum activation
2
v1 =1

et
energy
pressure of gaseous mixture

.n
=53.5+93=146.5mm i)O3
29.
p2=? ii)Zn/H2O

ha
(since aqueous tension in plask =93) CHO OH
OH ( − )
∆
v2=2 (1+1)

23. p H=
1 kw
 p + p ka − p kb 
tib CHO

∆G 0
−nFE 0
CHO
CHO
ra
2 30. Efficiency = =
∆H 0 ∆H 0
up

24. Fe +2 → Fe +3 + e −
MATHEMATICS SOLUTIONS
Fe +2 → Fe +3 + e −
ad

1 1 1
Mn +7 + 5e − → Mn +2
31. D 1 1+ x
= 1
en

−2 −
C2O → 2CO2 + 2e
4 1 1 1+ y
5mole FeSO4 = 1mole Mn+7
(Apply C2 → C2 − C1 , C3 → C3 − C1 )
.e

5mole of FeC2O4 = 3moles of Mn+7

1 0 0
w

2 mole of FeSO4 = ?
= 0 x 0= 1( xy − 0)= xy
2 6 x 2 5 1
w

= = x= = y ; = × = 1 0 y
5 5 y 5 6 3
w

Hence, D is divisible by both x and y

25. ∆G 0 =
−2.303RTLogK
32. For x ∈( −1,1)
R
26. CP - CV =
M
 2x 
we have f ( x ) = tan −1 
CP R C  1 − x 2 
CP - = (Q P = n)
n M CV
 2 tan θ 
∴ f ( tan θ ) =
tan −1 
æ 1ö R  1 − tan 2 θ 
Þ CP ç
ç1- ÷÷=
è nø M
ç ÷
(By x = tan θ )

18
= tan
= −1
tan 2θ 2 tan −1 x 36. Let α , α + 1 are consecutive integer

π  2x  π ∴ ( x + α ) ( x + α + 1) = x 2 − bx + c
⇒− < tan −1  < .
2  1 − x 2  2
Comparing both sides we get
33. 2
z + z + 1 =0 ⇒ z =ω,ω 2
b 2α + 1
⇒ −=
2 2 2 c α2 + α
=
 1  1  1
∴  z +  +  z 2 + 2  + ...  z 6 + 6 
 z  z   z  ∴ b 2 − 4c = ( 2α + 1) 2 − 4 (α 2 + α )= 1

( ) ( )
2 2
=4 ω + ω2 + 2 ω3 + ω3
37. Number of letters = 7
2
( )
= 4 ( −1) + 2 22 = 4 + 8 = 12
Number of vowels = 2 namely A.E these

et
alphabets can be arrange themselves by 2!

.n
34. For no solution A = 0 and (adj A) (B) ≠ 0 Ways

ha
α 1 1 7!
Therefore, number of words = = 2520
0⇒ 1 α
Now A = 1 =
0 2!
1 1 α

⇒ α 3 − 3α + 2 = 0 ⇒ (α − 1) 2 ( α + 2) = 0
tib 38. Consider
ra
⇒ α =1, −2
( a + b)=n C0 a n + C1a n −1b + C2 a n − 2b 2 + ... + Cnb n
up

Putting a= b= 1
But for α = 1 , A = 0 and (adj (A) (B) = 0
∴ 2n = C0 + C1 + C2 + .... + Cn
ad

⇒ For α = 1 there exist infinitely many

2n 4096
= = 212
solution .Also the each equation becomes
en

⇒n=
12 ( even)
x+ y+ z =0 again for α = −2
Now (a + b) n =( a + b )
12

A = 0 but (adj A)(B) ≠ 0

.e

As n = 12 is even so coefficient of greatest

⇒ ∃ no solution.
w

term is
w

n 12 12
= Cn C12
= C6
35. R is a function as A = {1, 2,3, 4} and
w

( 2, 4) ∈ R and ( 2,3) ∈ R =
12 11 10 9 8 7
× . . .
6 5 4 3 2 1
R is not reflexive as (1,1) ∉ R
11 × 9.8.7
= 11 3.4.7 =
=× 924
R is not symmetric as ( 2,3) ∈ R but 3.2.1

( 3, 2) ∉ R 39.
 x cos θ
tan −1 
 −1  x − sin θ 
 − tan  
 1 − x sin θ   cos θ 
R is not transitive as (1,3) ∈ R and
= tan
= −1
( tan θ ) θ
( 3,1) ∈ R but (1,1) ∉ R
40. Given, a = ar + ar 2 ⇒ r 2 + r − 1 = 0

19
 45.
−1 + 5
⇒r=
2
41. Median through any vertex divide the
opposite side into two equal parts
   n
AB + AC = 2 AD 46. Divide Nr & Dr by n.3
 1   1 x−2
⇒ AD=  AB + AC =
  [8i − 2 j + 8k ] −1 < <1
2 2 3

∴ AD = 33 ⇒ −1 < x < 5 ⇒ x ∈( −1,5)
47. Put
42. cos (π − α ) =
cos β = − cos α

et
x =2 ,y =2 , f ( 2 ) f ( 2 ) =f ( 2 ) + f ( 2 ) + f ( 4 ) − 2
−2 cos α − 1
cos α = 25 = 5 + 5 + f ( 4 ) − 2

.n
2 + cos α
f ( 4 ) = 17

ha
cos 2 α + 4 cos α + 1 =0

( cos α + 2 )
2
3 cos α =3 − 2
=⇒
x2 + 4x − 9
α 
∴ tan  =
2

1 − cos α
1 + cos α
1
= 34
tib 48. ∫ dy = ∫ x + 2 dx
ra
x2
⇒y= + 2 x − 13log x + 2 + c
2
up

43. Series a y ( 0) = 0 ⇒ c = 13log 2

ad

= 101,102,103,………………,200 Therefore, y ( −4) =

0
Series B
dy
en

= 151,152,153,………………,250 49. ≥0
dx
Series B is obtained by adding a fixed
⇒ 3 x 2 − 2ax + 1 ≥ 0∀x
.e

quantity to each item of series A, we know

∆ ≤ 0 ⇒ 4a 2 − 12 ≤ 0
w

that variance is independent of change of

origin both series have the same variance ⇒− 3≤a≤ 3
w

so ratio of their variances is 1.

2e x
w

e− λ λ r 50. g ( x)
= 1
> 0∀x ∈( −∞, ∞ )
44. P ( X= r=
) ( λ= mean) 1 + e2 x
r!
π
∴ P ( X =r > 1.5) =P ( 2) + P ( 3) + .....∞ &
= ( )
g ( − x ) 2 tan −1 e − x −
2
= 1 −  P ( 0) + P (1)   1 π
= 2 tan −1  x  −
e  2
 e −2 × 22  3
1 − e −2 +
=  1− 2
= π
 2  e = 2cot −1 e x −
2
π  π
2  − tan −1 e x  −
=
2  2
20
 π x1 − x2 y1 − y2 z1 − z2
= − 2 tan −1 e x =
− g ( x)
2 58. a1 b1 c1 =0
Therefore, g is odd function a2 b2 c2

∫ x (1 + x + x ) ( 6 x )
2 6
51. ( x)
g= 24 5
+ 5 x 4 + 4 x3 dx 59. 2cos 2 θ = sin 2 α ∴ 0 ≤ 2cos 2 θ ≤ 1
π π 
∫(x ) (6x )
6
4
= + x5 + x 6 5
+ 5 x 4 + 4 x3 dx ⇒ θ ∈  ,  ( cos θ is decreasing)
4 2

= ∫ t 6 dt 60. f −1 ( x) = g ( x) f  g ( x )  = x

4 5 6 ⇒ g ( x) + cot g ( x) =
x
Put x + x + x =
t

et
⇒ cot g ( x ) =
x − g ( x)
( )
7
x 6 + x5 + x 4
g ( x)

.n
= +c Diff w.r.t x
7
PHYSICS SOLUTIONS

ha
7
3
( 0,0) ⇒ c =0 ∴ g (1) = P
7
52. Take t − b =− y and proceed tib 61.

S
B

N
ra
∫ ( 2 y + 3 − y )dy
3
2
53. =
R.A l
0
l
up

1 2
54. a>0 ⇒x=
1 60o
Q R
O
ad

2
⇒ y = a −1> 0
o PO PO 3
sin 60
= = =
a>1 a ∈(1, ∞ ) PQ l 2
en

55. Center C = (-r,r) ,P(-2,1) 3l

PO = Area of ∆PQR is
2
.e

CP = r ⇒ r=1
56. x + y = 2 + 4cos θ + 1 + 3sin θ 3= +34cos
= + 4 cos θ + 3sin θ
θ + 3sin θ
w

QR × PO l 3l
w

Maximum = 3 + 16 + 9 =
8 A= = ×
2 2 2
w

9
57. a 2 8,=
= b2 =
Torque, T MB sin θ =
⇒T ( iA) B sin 90o
2
2 2 i 3l 2 3
x + y x − y =T B ×1
= Bi l 2
4 4
 2   2 
− 1
=  T 
1/ 2
8 9 Therefore, l = 2 
2  3Bi 

a 2b 2 144
=
Product =2 2
a +b 50

21
 62. The persons P, Q, R at the vertices of an Proceeding as in the above equation,
equilateral triangle will meet at O, i.e., the F= F=
t 2 as
centre of median of triangle PQR, Fig. So 4
66. As V = π R 3 , we find V ∝ R 3
the person at P will travel a distance PO, 3
with velocity along PO = u cos30o Here, ∆V ∆R
Or × 100 = 3 × 100
d 2 d V R
PO = PB sec 30o = × =
2 3 3 ∆R ∆V / V 3
∴ = == 1%
∴ time of meeting, R 3 3
2
dis tan ce d/ 3 d / 3 2d intertia, I
Moment of = MR 2 or I ∝ R 2
=t = = o
= 5
velocity u cos 30 u 3 / 2 3u = 2%

et
Q
u
As no external torque is being applied,
ω cons tan t

.n
L I=
=
Since, I increases by 2%, angular

ha
C A
O
30o velocity ω will decrease by 2% or increase
u
30o by -2%.

B sin θ
B u R
tib
67. I=
GM GM GM
12
+ 2 + 2 + .....
2 4
ra
63. tan 90o
= B cos θ 0
or A + =
A + B cos θ
 1 1 
= GM 1 + + + ......
up

A
or cos θ = − ….i)  4 16 
B
 
ad

B 1/2
 1  4 4
R = =  A2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos θ  = GM  = GM = × G × 3 = 4G
2 1 
 1−  3 3
en

B2  4
Or = A2 + B 2 + 2 AB ( − A / B ) = B 2 − A2
4 68. Since the two wires are joined end to end
.e

A2 3 A 3 and loaded, each wire will have the same

Or
= =or
B2 4 B 2
w

extension force say F. If ∆l1 and ∆l2 are

3 the extensions in the two wires and k1 and
w

From i), cos θ =

− cos150o
=
2
k2 are their force constants, then
w

Or θ = 150 o
F l F l
F Y1 = and Y2 =
64. Common acceleration, a = A ∆l1 A ∆l2
m1 + m2 + m3
40 F Y1 A F YA
= = 2m / s 2 ∴ k1 = = k2 = 2
and =
10 + 6 + 4 ∆l1 l ∆l2 l
Equation of motion of m3 is T3 – T2 = m3 a
40 − T2 =4 × 2, T2 =32 N
65. When the particle is moving in a straight
line,
Fc = 0

22
 If k is the restoring force per unit extension 1 2 1 π
(1)
2
= =πr π= joule
of the combined wires in series, then 2 2 2

k1k2 YA W 1
k= and k = , where Y is the 73. η= W= η Q1= ×1000 cals.
k1 + k2 2l Q1 3

total Young’s modulus of the combination 1000

= × 4.2 joule = 1400 J
3
of two wires.
74. Let θ be the temp. of common surface. As
 Y1 A   Y2 A 
YA  l   l  2Y1Y2
=∴ = or Y  ∆Q   ∆Q 
2l Y A Y A Y1 + Y2   = 
1
+ 2  ∆t 1  ∆t  2
l l

et
69.
4 3 4 3
1000 × π=
r π R or=r R /10 K1 A1
(10 − θ ) = K A2
(θ − 0 )
3 3 x1
2
x2

.n
Increase in surface energy = S.T × K1 x
Or (10 − θ ) =1 θ

ha
increase in surface area K2 x2
= T 1000 × 4π r 2 − 4π R 2  x1 K1 2


T 4π 1000 ×
=×
R2 
− R2  =36 π R 2T
tib A1 A2 , =
Now =

2
=
x2 K 2 3

2
ra
 100  ∴ (10 − θ ) =θ or θ = 5o C
3 3
up

dυ
70. Viscous force, F = η A m1 kT 2
dx 75. T1 = 2π or m1 = 12
1 k 4π
ad

= 20 ×10 × = 2000 dyne

0.1 kT22
Similarly, m2 =
50 4π 2
en

71. Here, (KE of rotation) = s m θ

100 When two masses are kept together at one
.e

11 2 end of string, then at one end of string,

 Iω  = S mθ
22  then
w

12 2 kT12 kT22

 m r  ( 2π n ) = S m θ
2
w

+
45  m + m2 4π 2 4π 2
= π 1
T 2= 2π
w

k k
2 π 2n2r 2
θ=
5 S = T12 + T22
72. Refer to fig. In the part AB, volume of the
76. From nth energy state, total number of
gas is decreasing, and in the part BC,
wavelengths emitted
volume of the gas increasing. Therefore,
n ( n − 1)
WAB is negative and WBC is positive. As = = 6∴ n 2 − n − 12 = 0
2
WBC > WAB , therefore, net work is Solving, n = 4
positive. Wnet = area of semicircle ABC

23
 E −13.6 5
As Em =21 ⇒ E4 = 2 = −0.85 ev . E= × 9 = 15V (∴ IR = 9 )
n 4 3
Energy required to take hydrogen atom 78. According to Bohr’s postulate of stationary
from ground state to n = 4 is orbits

∆E =E4 − E1 =−0.85 − ( −13.6) eV nh 2h h

mvR = ⇒ mvR = ( or ) mv =
2π 2π πR
= 12.75eV
∴ deBroglie wavelength,
hc
= 12.75 ×1.6 ×10−19
λ h
λ
= = π=
R 3.14 × 2.116
−34
6.6 × 10 × 3 × 10 8 mv
λ=
12.75 × 1.6 × 10−19 = 6.64 Ao

et
⇒λ = 970.6 Ao
77. In steady state, there will be no current 79. Statement-1 : ( K .Emax )= hv − φ0

.n
1
through the branch containing capacitor.
( K .E=
max ) 2 h ( 2v) − φ0

ha
Let ‘I’ be the current supplied to the
circuit. The current through different arms = h ( 2v) −  hv − ( k .Emax )1 

will be as shown in figure. Potential

I
tib = hv + ( K .Emax )1
ra
difference across C and D is VC − VD =R = ( K .Emax )1 + φ0 + ( K .Emax )1
3
up

potential difference across D and F is = 2 ( K .Emax )1 + φ0

VD − VF =
IR.
i.e., ( K .Emax )2 > 2 ( K .Emax )1 ,
ad

R
B C Thus Statement – 1 : is false
G
en

I Statement – 2 → Incident light intensity is

I
3 R
3 R R I = nhv.
R
.e

A F If ‘ υ ’ becomes = 2v,
2I D
I I
w

3
I =
then I 1 nh
= ( 2v ) 2 I
E
w

Thus statement-2 is true.

∴VC − VF = (VC − VD ) + (VD − VF )
w

80. Object distance, U= x1 + f and Image

IR 4
= + I R = IR
3 3 distance, V= x2 + f , using mirror formula,
As VF = VG . since no current in arm FG
1 1 1 1 1
we have = + = +
4 t u v x1 + f x2 + f
VC − VG= I R= 12 ( or ) IR= 9
3
on simplification, we get f = x1 x2
In the closed circuit EADFE we have
2I 5 81. Percentage of material left after 5 days
E= R + IR= IR
3 3 = 100 – 10 = 90%

24
 Fraction of material left XL Z 2 − R2
As X
= L WL=
,L =
90 w 2π v
f
after 5 days= = 0.9 .
100
4402 − 2002
Number of fractions involved in 20 days =L = 1.25 H .
2π × 50
20
n
for material left behind, = = 4 85. Coverage range, d = 2 Rh (or) d ∝ h .
5
N N d1 h1 h1
As = (f)
n
⇒ = ( 0.9 )
4
= 0.656 ∴ = ⇒ 2= ( or ) h=1 4h
NO NO d h h

N ∴ h1 =4 ×160 =640m
× 100 =
65.6%
NO Increase in height of tower = h1 − h

et
82. If I 1 is intensity of each of each source of = 640 − 160 = 480m

.n
light, then I max= I= 4 I 1 . When path 86. The electric field will be there due to all
0
the charges. It is a separate matter that

ha
λ
difference, ∆X = then phase difference,
6 presence of ' q2 ' does not a effect the

∆φ=
2π
λ
∆X ⇒ ∆φ=
π
3 tib electric flux and algebraic sum of charges
enclosed is zero.
ra
Therefore, resultant intensisty, 87. φ 2.4 ×10−5 wb
= 1600 Am −1 ,=
Hence, H
π 
up

I = I 1 + I 1 + 2 I 1I 1 cos   A 0.2 ×10−4 m 2

=
3
1 φ B 1.2
I = 2 I 1 + 2 I 1 × ⇒ I = 3I 1 B= = 1.2T & µ= =
ad

2 A H 1600
1
I 3I 3 µ 1.2
∴ = = µ= = = 597
en

1
I0 4I 4 r
µ0 1600 × 4π ×10−7
83. β 50, R
= =I 500Ω χ = µr − 1= 597 − 1= 596
.e

∆Vi 0.02
∆I in =∆I b = = 4 10−5 A
=× 88. Plates connected across a battery
w

Ri 500
P ML−1T −2
∆V 89. ax= P, a= = = ML−2T −2
w

∆I C = β ∆I B = β i = 50 × 4 × 10−5 x L
Ri
w

b
2 × 10−3 A =
= 2mA 2
c= t = T 2 ; 2= P
T
P 50 V 100 or b= PT 2 = ML−1T −2 × T 2 = ML−1
84. = = 0.5 A &=
R = = 200Ω
V 100 I 0.5
when operated with a c source, 90. Node will occur where amplitude of

EV EV 220 stationary wave is zero. It will be so if

Z
= = = = 440Ω
IV I 0.5 πx πx π 3π 5π
cos = 0 (or) = , , ,...... (or)
25 25 2 2 2
∴ R 2 + X L2 = Z 2 ⇒ X L = Z 2 − R2
x = 12.5 cm, 37.5 cm, 62.5 cm……etc.
Thus node will not occur at x = 25 cm.
25