Escolar Documentos
Profissional Documentos
Cultura Documentos
All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by
any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information
and retrieval system, without the written consent of The MBA Center, except where permitted
by law.
I. INTRODUCTION
II. LESSONS
QUANTITATIVE SECTION
INTRODUCTION ............................................................................35
VERBAL SECTION
INTRODUCTION ..........................................................................197
III. APPENDICES
BEFORE THE GMAT ....................................................................457
MBA ADMISSIONS......................................................................463
The MBA Center GMAT course is a sophisticated global package that helps our students
prepare for the GMAT Computer Adaptive Test. The package contains the present manual
with lessons, strategies, drills, and practice questions and is accompanied by online resources
on our website - www.mba-center.net: a GMAT Diagnostic Test, GMAT Study materials, and
the latest news about the GMAT and the MBA admissions process on our website
www.mba-center.net.
This first point requires personal reading, inquiries, self-evaluation, and an introduction to Point 1 should
our general strategies – in other words, getting acquainted with the GMAT CAT. This is what not last more
we advise you do to: than 2 weeks.
Take our FREE online GMAT Diagnostic Test at www.mba-center.net. This online test is
tailored to identify your individual strengths and weaknesses on different key points tested on
the GMAT. Alternatively, you can also take the same test at any MBA Center, free of charge.
Read the chapter "What Is This Thing Called the GMAT?" You should do this before your first
lesson. It will give you information on the origin and purpose of the GMAT, its format and most
recent changes, and samples of the types of questions being tested.
Check out our website www.mba-center.net. It features the most recent information on the
GMAT CAT, as well as comments from our students who have taken our preparation course
and the test. You are also welcome to take advantage of our free online introductory lessons
to the GMAT (see the website section "Free Study Materials").
Attend your first class with the lesson "The MBA Center Approach to the GMAT CAT," where
your instructor will teach you how to use GMAT CAT to your advantage. These general
strategies are the first and most immediate way to increase your score. They also form the basis
for the more specific strategies that follow, and are further developed at each step of our
GMAT preparation.
Preparing for the GMAT is a demanding process. In order to make your job easier, we
Point 2 should
provide access to the most updated, complete, and modern test prep technology, including: not last more
than 10 weeks.
The Study Book: This textbook contains 16 steps illustrated by examples and strategies. Our
lessons provide in-depth analysis of section structures and question types for all sections of the
GMAT: the Analytical Writing Assessment, Problem Solving, Data Sufficiency, Sentence
Correction, Critical Reasoning, and Reading Comprehension.
Online Forum: the MBA Center Forum, forum.mba-center.net, is a great way of getting
answers to your questions, as well as getting feedback and opinions from those who have
already taken the test.
Practice Exercises: Don't forget to apply the theories you learn from the book, the class, and
the website when working with practice tests and other study materials.
Point 3: Winning!
After you have completed your course, the best key to improving your score is to practice with
simulated GMAT CATs. You can download additional materials from the official GMAT website:
Point 3 should www.mba.com. Also, check regularly the website of the MBA Center: www.mba-center.net,
not last more as well as your local MBA Center to find out what additional GMAT practice CATs they may
than 4 weeks. have available in their computer lab.
The Tutorial
The test begins with a mandatory computer tutorial. The tutorial will methodically guide
you through the (new) format of the test, including the various computer functions
necessary for the test, such as: how to select answers, advance to the next question, show
or hide the clock, access the HELP mode, and use word processing functions. One trip
through this tutorial in your practice should be enough to get you going, since GMAT CAT
commands and functions are intentionally easy to use.
End
When finished
reading
tutorial
CAT TUTORIALS click on the
icon below
How to Use the Mouse
How to Answer
How to Use Testing Tools
How to Scroll Dismiss
Tutorial
After you have completed the mandatory (and somewhat insulting) tutorial you’re
instructed to write two essays of 30 minutes each: one called Analysis of an Issue and one
called Analysis of an Argument. The task itself is to write a clear, concise, and cogent short
essay (3 to 5 paragraphs or so) for each analysis topic.
Of the two topics, the first is typically the Analysis of an Issue question which might ask
you to evaluate a statement (on business, government and business, or personal success
issues) or to consider a point of view, or opinion. Whether statements or opinions, business
or personal, Issues are broad, topical subjects – such as those you might find in a newspaper or
magazine. (See the Official Guide for the GMAT Review or www.mba.com for samples.)
Your Analysis of an Issue essay should be a logical, thoughtful assessment of the Issue resented
in which you might either deconstruct and analyze a statement or discuss whether or not you
agree with an opinion. Inclusion of personal experiences and examples is strongly encouraged
for essays on this question type, a luxury not allowed on the Analysis of an Argument.
The Analysis of an Argument question type also presents you with only one subject, or
argument, to analyze and write about. This time the subject is a formal argument composed
of premises and conclusions which is no different than the arguments you’ll find in the
Critical Reasoning section. You might evaluate arguments based on basic principles of
market economics, business, and entrepreneurship, or on education, lifestyle, or health
topics. Whatever the subject matter, your interpretation and your essay should stick very
closely to the logic of the argument presented to you. The Analysis of an Argument is the
more strict of the two essays, and including personal experiences in this essay is
discouraged.
The Analytical Writing Assessment primarily tests your ability to analyze an issue or an
argument and to write a logical and well-organized essay. For more information and our
strategies for this section of the test, see the Analytical Writing Assessment lesson in Step 13
of this book.
same mathematical principles (Arithmetic, Algebra, Geometry, and Word Problems) are
tested by both question types, though in two very different ways. Problem Solving and
Data Sufficiency questions are intermixed in the Quantitative section. You will get one or
two or three Problem Solving questions, followed by one or two Data Sufficiency
questions, and then back to Problem Solving. In all, of the 37 Quantitative questions,
approximately 24 will be Problem Solving and approximately 13 will be Data Sufficiency.
And here are the vital statistics for the Verbal Section: a total of 41 questions to be Not all the
completed in 75 minutes. Two of the Verbal question types — Critical Reasoning and questions count.
Sentence Correction — are in the Verbal section, much as the two Quantitative question
types are intermingled throughout, the Quantitative section. That is, you may get one,
two Sentence Correction questions, followed by one or two Critical Reasoning questions,
then perhaps another Sentence Correction item. However, questions of the third Verbal
type — Reading Comprehension — are grouped. Each Reading passage is accompanied
by a set of three to six questions in a row, all relating to that passage.
It is a fact that about 8 of the 37 Quantitative questions and about 11 of the 41 Verbal
questions will actually not count towards your score. These are called experimental
questions or equating items — they are used only for research purposes.
Unfortunately, there is no way to know which questions are unscored. You must approach
each question as if it counts.
The results of our website open forum are in: here is a transcript of the most frequently
asked questions about the GMAT CAT and our answers.
A: Absolutely not! If you answer a question wrong, the computer will give you an easier
question but your score will go down as a result. If you want a good score (you know you
do!) you must answer as many questions correctly as possible. The harder the question, the
higher the point value. This is crucial information! Since the CAT scoring algorithm very
rapidly determines your testing level, answering correctly without hesitation from the first
question on is extremely important so that you start off with a high score. It’s much easier to
maintain a high score than it is to raise a low score.
Q: How much does the level of difficulty change from question to question?
A: In the beginning, quite a lot. Near the end, not so much. This is an important quirk in the
system. The objective of the CAT is to quickly determine (right from the beginning) your
approximate testing level and then fine-tune it while you continue the test. To illustrate: a
right answer on the first question results in an increase of 50 points, a right answer on the
second, an increase of 40 points – on the second-to-last question a right answer nets you an
increase of only 10 points. So, if you answer the first few questions correctly, you’ll swiftly
receive more difficult (higher score value) questions and can therefore raise your score.
Q: Does my performance on one section affect the level of difficulty of the questions in the
other sections?
A: No. Each section is scored separately and begins with a question at the 500-level score
value. If, for example, the Quantitative Section is the first section of the test, and if you get all
the questions wrong, you’ll still begin with a question valued at 500 on the Verbal Section.
A: At The MBA Center, we don’t think so: it’s about as precise as the pencil-and-paper test.
Standardized tests, even on computer, cannot be 100 percent accurate in their estimation of
the level of difficulty of a given question. Some students consider difficult questions to be easy,
other students consider easy questions to be difficult – it varies from test to test, student to
student. However, the Adaptive Scoring System comes closer to identifying a personalized
testing level than did the pencil-and-paper test.
A: No. Unlike the old test, on the CAT you cannot skip a question and come back to it. Neither
can you change your responses. In order to advance to the next question you must enter your
answer and then confirm it. The explanation is simple: the computer selects a question for
you which depends on an algorithm that takes into consideration all of your answers thus far
– if you could go back and change an answer, the continuity of the algorithm would be
broken.
The Computer Adaptive Test format was introduced in order to update the old format
using the capabilities of high technology and to add new sections to the GMAT. Now that
some time has passed since the introduction of the CAT, certain conclusions can be drawn
regarding the advantages and disadvantages of the new test.
Good CAT
The most important advantage of the new CAT is flexibility. For example, the CAT
version of the GMAT is offered continuously throughout the year. Unlike the pencil-and-
paper test, you do not have to wait months between test dates. Test sessions are offered
three weeks out of every month, and you can register easily by phone or by mail. This
flexibility is particularly beneficial for students who plan to prepare thoroughly for the test
and would like to make a convenient study schedule for themselves. Now, you can take
the test when you want to, would like to, or need to.
Another advantage of the new test is that you can take it as many times as you’d like.
But keep in mind that you must wait until one calendar month has passed before
repeating the test. If you took the test on March 20th, for example, you could take it again
beginning April 1st.
Door number 3....? Something else advantageous? You should be pleased to hear that
20 percent more time is allocated per question on the new test than on the old. Because
you cannot skip questions to save time on the CAT, as you could on the old test, you now
get 20 percent more time.
In the days of the pencil-and-paper test, you had to wait six weeks for your official score.
Now, the computer has an unofficial score for you immediately following the test. Since
you’re being scored by the computer every step of the way, it “knows” your score the minute
you finish. For your official score you’ve still got to wait by the mailbox. It’s mailed to you in
about 15 days along with your AWA results.
Bad CAT
The bad CAT: if you’re not computer-literate, you have a distinct disadvantage.
Fortunately, the commands required to use the CAT are not difficult to learn, and you can
practice them on preparation software available. We recommend that you spend time
practicing with a computer well before the date of your test.
A second disadvantage of the CAT is that your essays, the Analytical Writing
Assessment, must be typed on a computer. If you use computers all the time, typing your
essays on the CAT is little different from using any of the more popular word processing
programs. However, if you do not know what “word processing” is and sense anxiety
coming on as a result, then reduce stress by practicing on a computer well before the test.
(Note: The actual test is taken using an American keyboard.)
For some test takers, not being able to skip questions on the CAT as you could on the
pencil-and-paper test is a disadvantage. If you have not yet learned how to think like the
test, such as knowing when to make educated guesses to save yourself time and
frustration, you may worry about having to answer every question. Our lessons include
alternative approaches to skipping questions and we recommend that you practice them
in class and on your own.
Strategy is very important on the CAT. For instance, you’ll never know the level of
difficulty of the questions on the actual test. But, you still must learn to answer easy
questions correctly in order to increase the level of difficulty and the score value of
following questions, and therefore raise your overall score as high as possible.
GENERAL OUTLINE
The GMAT is said to be a test that assesses your ability to succeed in an MBA
program. GMAC claims that it is impossible to prepare for the GMAT. However, a
standardized test means standardized content and after taking one or two practice
tests, you will see that success on the GMAT very much depends on strategy,
practice, and a thorough understanding of the precise areas of math and verbal skills
tested. The GMAT is a test that lends itself to strategy because it is a test made with
strategy in mind. For this reason, a strategic overview of each section of the test is
part of each lesson. Studying for the GMAT is not like studying for a final exam for
which you have notes to memorize and that is all. The concepts and methods
necessary for a high score on the GMAT cannot be learned by rote, but they can be
mastered by practice. Improving your GMAT score requires a method, instruction,
and practice to answer every type of question, even the most obscure.
The adaptive format means strategy is important, since the difficulty level of the
questions fluctuates throughout the greater part of the test. What is more, the
change to the adaptive format means that it is essential to be informed about how
to use it, so that you anticipate, not react to, the test.
KEY WORDS
Computer Adaptive Test. A type of test that adjusts the difficulty level of each question to
the testing capabilities of each test taker. Test questions for a computer-adaptive test are
selected from a large database and are classified by content and level of difficulty. The main
purpose of the adaptive program is to assess each test taker’s level of ability by adapting the
level of difficulty of the questions.
Process of Error Identification. This technique helps you find the “best answer” by
eliminating answer choices you are sure are wrong. The Process of Error Identification allows
you to choose the “best answer” even when you aren’t sure what it is, and should be used
systematically. Using the Process of Error Identification is the most efficient method of
identifying and eliminating wrong answer choices and should be used in combination with
your knowledge of Phineas the test writer’s techniques and the Wrong Answer Factory
principles that follow.
Phineas and the Wrong Answer Factory. It’s time you met Phineas, a test writer and part
of the Wrong Answer Factory – the name we have given to the test makers to explain how
wrong answer choices are constructed according to standardized types, a principle no
standardized test is exempt from. Phineas isn’t extraordinary. He’s smart enough guy; he
probably did well on his SATs, went to a respectable college where he enjoyed his studies,
and possibly continued them for a while afterward. Eventually, thought, Phineas realized
that academics weren’t for him, fished around for a career, and discovered that he wasn’t
really qualified for much. So he started writing tests because the salary was decent and it
beat waiting tables. The job was relatively stress-free; it left him time to relax and hang out
with friends. Phineas is not such a bad guy; really, you might even like him, if it weren’t for
one small item:
“There’s a sucker born every minute,” Phineas reminds himself as he sets down each day
Meet Phineas*
to write his questions. He proceeds to attempt to sucker test takers. How does he do this?
Facing and unknown
opponent is always
Like all pathologicals, Phineas is pretty predictable. One of his basic tricks is to make very scary. Learn how
simple concepts appear very difficult, mostly by expressing them in obscure language and Phineas thinks, how he
syntax. He's generally quite successful (you would be too if this were all you had been writes questions, and
doing for years), but the keyword above is "appear." These concepts appear difficult, but what traps he lays for
the unwary test taker.
remain simple. And after you decipher Phineas' jargon and methods, the questions he
poses will no longer appear very complex.
Another of Phineas' ruses is to provide answer choices to difficult questions that leap off
* All characters in this
the page and look correct. Phineas loves the idea of sucker test takers falling for this one. book are purely
But with practice you can learn to recognize these choices and eliminate them quickly. fictitious. Any similarity
to real people, living or
dead, is purely
How do you avoid being a sucker? One way is to learn exactly the types of wrong
coincidental.
answer choices that Phineas will use, and we’ll do that shortly.
Except for the Analytical Writing Assessment and the Reading Comprehension
questions, all the questions on the computer test are adaptive. A good understanding of
the principle and use of adaptivity on the updated test is highly recommended to improve
your score.
The adaptivity principle on the GMAT means that the more correct answers you choose
on certain questions (the first 7 or so), the higher the level of difficulty and the score value
of the following questions. If you answer certain questions correctly, then harder questions
will follow. Likewise, if you don’t answer certain questions correctly, the next questions you
receive will be easier and your score will go down. Your objective is to reach the higher
score value questions with as much certainty as possible. Two more things:
1. Higher scores come from the value, not the number, of questions you answer
correctly.
2. The test was designed to quickly determine your individual testing level, within the
first few questions of any adaptive section, and fine tune it as you go along.
500
1 2 3 4 5 6
Questions
Comments
The graph above gives you an idea of the CAT adaptivity principle as it would look if it
were plotted out in the traditional manner. While answering the first few questions, the
computer is tracking you and raising and lowering your score by as much as 30 to 50
points. After 7 or 8 questions, the tracking system has formed its general impression of
your testing abilities and as it continues to adapt the test to you, the following questions
vary by only 10 points or so.
CAPITAL QUIZ
Directions: Time for some practice with the CAT adaptivity principle. On this quiz there
are 10 questions which ask about the capital city of a country. Select the right answer from
among the 4 answer choices. Your first right answer is worth 4 points. After that, the points
per question range from 1 to 7 according to its level of difficulty. For every right answer,
you move up to the next question on the ladder; for every wrong answer, move down one
step. Use your quantitative skills to figure out your score at the end. Go to town!
Although our
games simulate
the adaptivity Q1-What is the capital of the US? Q6-What is the capital of the United
principle of the
CAT, your experi-
Kingdom?
ence on the actual
test may be New York Manchester
slightly different. Washington D.C. Glasgow
Los Angeles London
Detroit Nottingham
Score value 4 Score value 2
Stockholm Moroni
Oslo Lumbashi
Copenhagen Antanarivo
Helsinki Fianarantsoa
Score value 5 Score value 7
Ottawa Nagoya
Toronto Tokyo
Montreal Nagasaki
Vancouver Beijing
Score value 4 Score value 1
Q7
v
Q4
v x
Q2 Q8
v x v
Q1 Q5
x v x
Q3 Q9
x v
v = right answer Q6
x = wrong answer
x
Q10
Since your testing level is determined during the first few questions of the test, our first
piece of advice is to spend the most time and effort on the first seven questions, and less
on the ones that follow. Adjust your strategy to the strategy of the test. A safe time to guess
is on the last question. It will hardly affect your score.
Time
Questions
5 25 37
3) Draw a grid
Instead of letters for answer choices on the computer test you’ll see small white bubbles,
perfect for pointing your mouse toward. Since you cannot write on the monitor screen, you
cannot cross out wrong answers. Our technique and our advice to make things easier is to
draw a grid like this one:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
A X X
B X X X X X
C X X X X
D X X X X X X
E
On test day, use the time (as long as 30 minutes) during the mandatory CAT-tutorial
(which you will know long before the exam) and during the optional 5-minute break
between the Quantitative and Verbal sections to draw yourself one of our helpful grids.
1. You can eliminate wrong answers easily and focus on remaining possible answer
choices. This is very effective for Reading Comprehension questions for which you must
scroll up and down and move back and forth between the questions and the passage. On
the test, it’s easy to forget which answer choices you’ve recognized as wrong and waste
time looking back at the screen to make sure.
2. You can cross out an answer choice, and have a record of it, as soon as you see that
it’s incorrect. This is an especially useful system on Problem Solving and Data Sufficiency
questions in which some answer choices can be eliminated immediately.
➩
It takes Susan three hours to mow her lawn. If her friend Melinda
helps her, they can mow the same lawn in 1 hour. How long does it
take Melinda to mow the lawn alone?
! (A)
! (B)
! (C)1 1/2 hours
! (D)
! (E)
➩
Phineas knows the right answer first. He has four more plausible answers to write and
he knows how the average test taker thinks.
(A) 1 hour
(B) 2 hours
(C) 1 1/2 hours
(D) 3 hours
(E) 4 hours
Phineas got wise by reading score and experimental section reports and he knows the
average test taker is attracted by solutions that can be easily found. For instance, Phineas
knows that some test takers will just subtract: 3 – 1 = 2. That’s why he created choice (B).
And Phineas knows that other test takers will just add: 3 + 1 = 4. That’s why he created
choice (E).
Weaker test takers are often attracted by a number already seen in the problem and
might choose (A) or (D). These are totally wrong, eliminate them.
In the previous example you saw that Phineas creates traps for those who oversimplify
a difficult problem. The Wrong Answer Factory principles also apply to Verbal questions:
➩
Trumpeting the victory of her team in the volleyball semifinals, the
coach’s attitude was one of exuberance and guarded optimism.
! (A) the coach’s attitude was one of exuberance and guarded
optimism.
! (B) the coach’s attitude reflected her exuberance and guarded
optimism.
! (C) the attitude of the coach was exuberant and guardedly
optimistic. CAT and
Process of Error
! (D) the coach displayed an attitude of exuberance and guarded
Identification
optimism. The Identification
! (E) the coach displayed an attitude of exuberance which was process will help
guardedly optimistic. you overcome
➩
one of the great-
est challenges on
Answer
the GMAT CAT:
Test Section
time.
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
If you analyze the structure of the sentence, you can determine that it begins with a
participial phrase (-ing form). Then there is a comma and underlined text. The grammar
problem is that the subject of the participle “trumpeting” is supposed to follow the
comma.
Choice (A) is wrong because the coach’s attitude is supposed to be the subject of the
participle, which is impossible here. Choice (B) should be avoided because it reproduces
the same error. Choice (C), although it offers different wording, reproduces the same type
of error (illogical connection between participle, “Trumpeting,” and subject “the attitude of
the coach,” as in (A) and (B)).
Choice (E) fixes the initial mistake because it is the coach that is trumpeting the victory
and not the “coach’s attitude” or “the attitude of the coach”. However choice (E) introduces
a new mistake with “which was guardedly optimistic” and breaks the parallelism. Only
choice (D) is valid, since it correctly refers to the participle “Trumpeting” and retains the
parallelism.
On a Multiple Choice Question test the right answer is always in front of you. By
employing common sense and an understanding of how the Wrong Answer Factory
works, you can identify and eliminate wrong answers, leaving the right answer ready to
choose.
Unless you spent time in Madagascar, or study maps in your spare time, there is little
chance that you know the answer to this question. However, you may be able to eliminate
answer choices (A) and (B) since there is a good chance that you know Los Angeles is in the
USA, Madrid is in Spain, and neither is in Madagascar. If you know a little more geography
you might know that Bangkok is in Thailand, and bingo you pick up the right answer just
by eliminating the wrong answers. On a Multiple Choice Question test looking for wrong
answers can be just as effective as looking for right answers.
➩
A bookstore makes a gross profit of 15% of the wholesale cost on
a certain book it carries. If each book is sold by the bookstore for a
retail price of $23, what is the wholesale price of the book?
! (A) $10.00
! (B) $11.50
! (C) $19.55
! (D) $20.00
! (E) $23.00
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
Suppose you don’t know the formula to solve this problem, or you don’t know the
difference between wholesale cost and retail price and cannot come up with the answer on
your own. It’s time to start eliminating.
The Process of Error Identification should be learned and practiced. It allows you to
eliminate answer choices even when you do not know which choice is best.
3) Guessing
Good guesswork is still important no matter how much other preparation you do. MEDIUM
Sometimes the best you can do is eliminate two or three answer choices, and move on to QUESTIONS:
the next question. You should use guesswork for two reasons: first, you cannot skip a Questions of me-
dium difficulty are
question on the GMAT CAT; second, and more importantly for a high test score, your easy enough to
testing level is constantly checked and adapted. understand but
By a certain point on the test, your testing abilities have been generally determined and difficult to answer
if you’ve done well up to that point you’ll be given difficult questions with high score because the ans-
wer choices are
values. If you become stuck, especially toward the end of a section, use strategic deliberately tric-
guesswork for a correct answer and move on into higher-score territory. ky – read answer
choices comple-
For quantitative questions calculation is not always necessary to eliminate wrong tely and don’t be
hasty.
answers. You can also use common sense to eliminate answer choices that are obviously
incorrect or do not belong.
➩
If Lorenzo walks to work at 3 miles per hour and returns along the
same route at 2 miles per hour, what is his average speed, in miles
per hour for the round trip?
! (A) 2.0
! (B) 2.2
! (C) 2.4
! (D) 2.5
! (E) 3.0
➩
Suppose you do not know how to solve this problem, or that you have little time left.
Thanks to the Wrong Answer Factory we can eliminate (A) and (E), which reuse numbers
already seen in the initial statement, as well as (D), because it is an obvious average
between 2 and 3. You still have two options left, (B) and (C), and if you are still unsure of
the answer, guess and move on to the next.
Two questions may test the same material, but vary in level of difficulty. Sometimes, this
is because of traps within the question itself, other times it’s because the answer choices
have been altered to make them easier or harder.
Sentence 2: Both Christina and Marion, one having chosen not to eat with Jonathan because
he always eats greasy fried food and the other having made the same choice because she refuses
to be seen in public with Jonathan, wants food.
Well, it should be apparent at a glance that Sentence 2 seems to have a lot of information
written in a very confusing manner, and that Sentence 1 is a very simple statement of fact with
just one small easily recognizable error. Did you spot what it was? The same grammatical rule,
subject-verb agreement, was tested in both sentences. (Subject-verb agreement is a common
testing point in the Sentence Correction section.) However, the error was much easier to spot
in Sentence 1 than in Sentence 2, which was intentionally written to confuse you. You can
quickly see in Sentence 1 that there are two actors, Christina and Marion, and therefore that
the singular verb “is” must be changed to the plural verb “are” in order to correct the subject-
verb agreement error. The second sentence, which frankly is far more Phineas-like, contains
some information we don’t care about (for example, the bit about ”greasy fried food”) and a
misleading singular noun, ”Jonathan”, which tries to mask the subject-verb agreement error
at the end. The same type of correction as in Sentence 1 needs to be made here: the singular
verb ”wants” should be changed to the plural verb ”want”. Just as important as correcting the
grammatical error is noticing how Phineas can turn an easy question into a hard one just by
adding extra clauses and information.
When you see a question that seems wordy and difficult, try to reduce it to its essential
parts. (In the sentences above these were simply the subjects, Christina and Marion, and
the respective verbs is/are and wants/want). Here are two reasons why you should reduce:
For instance, if you recognize a difficult question and realize a possible answer came
too easily to you, then you’ve probably made one of the three common mistakes, and a
trap was set for you by Phineas. On the other hand if a question seems easy and an answer
seems clearly right, then trust your instincts: easy questions have no real traps.
➩
A machine manufactures 10 nails per hour for three hours. Then
the machine is sped up and produces 20 nails per hour for three
hours. The machine, over the 6 hours, produces an average of how
many nails per hour?
! (A)12
! (B)15
! (C)16
! (D)20
! (E)90
➩
Question 2
If a book that is usually sold for $23.95 is now on sale for $19.95,
then the price decrease is closest to:
! (A) 10 %
! (B) 16 %
! (C) 20 %
! (D) 25 %
! (E) 30 %
➩
These questions probably appear, at a glance, to have about the same level of difficulty.
An intuitive answer to question 1 would be 15, and is effectively the best answer. An
intuitive answer, to the second question would be 20%, and is wrong.
Question 1 is an easy question (score value 450), and you can trust your instinct if you
chose (B). Question 2 is of medium difficulty, and if you thought 20 percent was the right
answer don’t trust your instinct (unless you score 700 on your diagnostic test). If you do not
know how to solve this question you can always use the Process of Error Identification.
Choices (D) and (E) are wrong because the percentage decrease is too high. Choice (A) is
wrong because the percentage decrease is too low. Understanding how the Wrong Answer
Factory works, you might recognize Phineas’ trap: the possible confusion between a per-
centage increase from $19.95 to $23.95, which is 20%, and a percentage decrease from
$23.95 to $19.95, which is less than 20%: (23.95 19.95)/23.95. The only possible answer is (B).
SUMMARY
The GMAT CAT is not a linear test. It adapts to the level of each test taker who receives
points according to the difficulty level of the question.
The computer adds or subtracts more points at the beginning of an adaptive section and
fewer at the end. Your effort and concentration should be greater at the beginning when
questions directly affect your final score.
Since the Process of Error Identification is a very effective method and you cannot write
on the monitor screen when eliminating wrong answers, our advice is to take the time to
draw a scoring grid.
Phineas offers you the same chances to make mistakes throughout the test. Learn how
to recognize the most common traps.
Once familiar with Phineas’ tricks, you’ll find that looking for wrong answers can be as
effective as looking for right answers.
Use the level of difficulty to your advantage. On difficult questions, Phineas always uses
traps we’ve explained by Wrong Answer Factory principles: Consider answer choices very
carefully. On easier questions the traps set by Phineas are not difficult to spot: Use your
instinct.
GENERAL OUTLINE
The Quantitative Section of the GMAT CAT is a 75-minute section designed to test your
mastery of basic mathematical concepts and your ability to reason quantitatively. In this
section there are 37 multiple-choice questions which fall into two distinct categories:
Problem Solving and Data Sufficiency. Problem Solving questions are simply math
problems in a multiple-choice format. Data Sufficiency questions are similar to Problem
Solving questions, but you are not required to arrive at a solution. Instead, you must
determine whether the information in the question is sufficient to solve the problem.
These two types of questions are intermingled throughout the Quantitative Section and
are presented in random order. You should expect approximately 23 Problem Solving and
14 Data Sufficiency questions in this section. However, because the number of each
question type is decided by the computer, the actual allocation of questions may vary.
Although Problem Solving and Data Sufficiency questions generally test the same skills and
require the same basic knowledge of mathematics, they will be taught separately in this
course because they require very different strategies and techniques.
The Quantitative Section of the GMAT requires knowledge of only a limited range of
fairly low-level math concepts. These concepts are the same for every GMAT and are tested
in similar ways on each test. The most commonly tested math topic on the GMAT is
arithmetic. Virtually all of the Problem Solving and more than three-quarters of the Data
Sufficiency questions require at least some knowledge of basic arithmetic. Algebra is the
second most commonly tested topic in the Quantitative Section; over half of the questions
include algebra in some form or another. Geometry is the third most commonly tested
math topic; approximately 15 percent of all GMAT math problems relate to geometry. A
few problems in the Quantitative Section relate to topics such as logic, data interpretation
(graphs), and sets. Many GMAT math problems, particularly word problems, combine two
or more math topics.
Unfortunately, many people who take the GMAT have forgotten the basic math skills
tested. You probably learned most of the math covered before you left high school, which
was a long time ago. Don’t worry though, you have time now to brush up on the necessary
math before you take the test. All of the math topics tested on the GMAT are covered in
the Comprehensive Math Review for the GMAT, which is Step 2 in this book. We
recommend that you look through the math review and become familiar with the math
covered before you begin the Problem Solving and Data Sufficiency lessons which follow.
THE CHALLENGE
The Quantitative Section tests not only your mastery of basic math, but also your ability
to reason through complex problems quickly and accurately. Generally, the difficulty in
solving GMAT math problems is not calculating the answers, but sorting through the
information given in the questions and quickly finding the best approach to solving them.
The typical question in this section combines several simple math concepts in a way
designed to confuse the test taker. Your task then is to identify the math concepts tested
and work through the problem logically, and above all, quickly. The principal challenge of
the Quantitative Section of the GMAT is time. If you were given an unlimited amount of
time, you could probably solve all or nearly all of the questions. However, the time given
is very limited and most test takers have difficulty finishing the section in the time allowed.
For this reason the MBA Center method stresses both mastery of the necessary
mathematics and employment of the time-saving strategies in the Problem Solving and
Data Sufficiency lessons which follow.
GMAT MATH
The Quantitative Section of the GMAT CAT, like the Verbal Section, is adaptive. This
means that the computer determines your ability and selects questions that match your
level.
When you begin the Quantitative Section of the GMAT CAT, the computer will give you
a question (either Data Sufficiency or Problem Solving) of medium difficulty, in other words,
a question that roughly half of all test takers get right and roughly half get wrong. If you
answer the first question correctly the computer will give you a harder question. Likewise,
if you answer the first question incorrectly the computer will give you an easier question.
This process is then repeated for the rest of the section. As you progress through the section
each successive jump gets smaller and smaller as the computer focuses in on your level. In
theory, you will eventually arrive at a point where every question will be about at your level.
The score you receive for the section depends not on the number of questions you answer
correctly, but on the level of difficulty of those questions. The idea is to award more points
for difficult questions than for easy ones. Therefore, correct answers to difficult questions
increase your score more than do correct answers to easy questions.
CAT Strategy
In order to maximize your score on the Quantitative Section of the GMAT, it is important
to keep in mind how the CAT arrives at a score. Remember, the computer tries to find your
level of ability and present you with questions accordingly. Early in the section the computer
makes large jumps in order to find your general level of ability. As the section progresses,
the jumps get smaller and smaller as the computer focuses in on your level. Because your
final score depends on the level of difficulty of the questions you answer correctly, it is
important that you answer the early questions correctly in order to get quickly to the
harder, more valuable questions.
Because of the incredible time pressure on the CAT, it is important that you have a
strategy for managing time. Use the chart below to help pace yourself on the Quantitative
Section of the CAT. Those test takers who are weaker at math may want to spend a bit
more time on the first eight questions to make sure they are answered correctly. Likewise,
test takers who are stronger at math should move a bit more quickly through the early
questions in order to conserve time for the difficult questions later in the section.
Time
Questions
5 25 37
1) You can’t skip questions on the CAT. The computer will not let you move on to
the next question until you answer the question you are currently on, so if you don’t know
the answer to a question, you must guess. Don’t worry. There isn’t a guessing penalty on
the CAT.
2) Because the computer adapts to your level, you should find that nearly every
question on the test is difficult. For this reason you will have to guess more often than you
would on the pencil-and-paper test.
Because guessing is necessary on the CAT, it is important that you become good at it.
By using the techniques and strategies described in the Problem Solving and Data
Sufficiency lessons, you will be able to eliminate several wrong answer choices and improve
your chances of guessing the correct answer.
When time expires, every question left unanswered in the section is considered wrong.
For this reason it is important that you answer every question in the section, even if you
have to take random guesses at the end. Remember there is no penalty for getting a
question wrong, and if you take a random guess on a question you have at least a 20
percent chance of getting it right. So make sure to allow enough time at the end to guess
on the final questions. You should of course try to eliminate any wrong answers you can,
but if you can’t, just take a guess.
Materials for taking notes are provided at the test center. You can use it in any way you
find useful, including solving equations and drawing diagrams. Be careful to transfer
information carefully and accurately from the computer screen to your notes. We
recommend that you practice using note-taking materials when you take the practice
GMAT CATs.
You are not permitted to use a calculator when taking the GMAT. Because many of the
questions require you to do calculations, you should practice calculating in your notes
before you actually take the test.
GENERAL OUTLINE
Number Properties
Fractions
Percents
Average, Median, And Mode
Exponents And Square Roots
Equations
Quadrilaterals
Triangles
Circles
Phineas’ Favorite Word Problems
1. NUMBER PROPERTIES
Real numbers — numbers that have locations on the number line. All
numbers on the GMAT are real numbers.
Greater than — to the right on the number line (symbol: >).
Less than — to the left on the number line (symbol: <).
Positive — greater than 0 (to the right of 0 on the number line). If you know what imaginary
Negative — less than 0 (to the left of 0 on the number line). and complex numbers are, you
can forget about them while
Q: Which is greater: –8 or –15? you’re taking the GMAT.
Integers — the positive whole numbers, zero, and the negative whole
numbers — numbers that can be expressed without a decimal or fraction.
The integers: . . . –6, –5, –4, –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, . . .
When can you stop dividing by prime numbers? When you get a quotient
smaller than the prime number you’re dividing by.
Prime factorization — the expression of a positive integer as a product of
prime numbers. The prime factorization of 36, for example, is 3 s 3 s 2 s 2.
To determine an integer’s prime factorization, break it down into factors bit
by bit until all the factors are prime.
Q: Find the prime factorization of 1,650.
A: Break 1,650 down into factors bit by bit. You might first break it
down this way:
1,650 = 165 s 10
Then you could reexpress 165 as 5 s 33 and 10 as 2 s 5:
165 s 10 = 5 s 33 s 2 s 5
All that’s left now is to reexpress 33 as 3 s 11:
5 s 33 s 2 s 5 = 5 s 3 s 11 s 2 s 5
That’s the prime factorization. To put it in standard form, put the
prime factors in order from least to greatest:
1,650 = 2 s 3 s 5 s 5 s 11
When you want to find the LCM of two integers, sometimes the easiest
approach is to check out successive multiples of the larger integer until you
find one that is also a multiple of the smaller integer.
Q: What is the least common multiple of 24 and 32?
A: Take the larger integer, 32, and keep multiplying it until you find
a multiple that is also a multiple of 24. 32 × 2 = 64, which is not
a multiple of 24. 32 × 3 = 96, which is a multiple of 24. The LCM
of 24 and 32 is 96.
1. What is the product of the greatest 2-digit multiple of 7 and the greatest
2-digit prime number?
(A) 9,312
(B) 9,408
(C) 9,506
(D) 9,603
(E) 9,702
2. If the sum of two integers A and B is even, which of the following must be
even?
I. A×B
II. A÷B
III. A–B
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
5. Which of the following has the greatest number of distinct prime factors?
(A) 30
(B) 32
(C) 34
(D) 36
(E) 38
AB
+BA
CDC
6. In the correctly worked computation above, A, B, C, and D represent
distinct nonzero digits. What is the value of A + B + C + D?
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 20
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.
8. If p and q are distinct integers, and the sum of p and q is zero, which of
the following statements must be true?
(A) The product of p and q is even.
(B) The product of p and q is odd.
(C) The product of p and q is negative.
(D) The product of p and q is zero.
(E) The product of p and q is positive.
10. If the sum of two prime numbers a and b is prime, which of the following
must be true?
I. a – b is odd.
II. ab is even.
III. a ≠ b
(A) III only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
2. FRACTIONS
A fraction is a number written in the form N in which the top number N
D
is called the numerator and the bottom number D is called the
denominator. The denominator tells you into how many equal parts a
whole is divided, and the numerator tells you how many of those parts
you’re considering.
Equivalent fractions look different, but they’re equal in value. Any fraction
can be expressed as an equivalent fraction simply by multiplying the nume-
rator and the denominator by the same number.
Q: Reduce 16 .
24
A: The greatest common factor of 16 and 24 is 8. Divide both the
numerator and denominator by 8 and you end up with 2 .
3
To add or subtract fractions, convert the fractions to equivalent fractions
with the same denominator and add or subtract the numerators.
Q: 1 + 1 = ?
2 3
A: Convert each fraction to an equivalent fraction with a denominator
of 6:
1 + 1 = 3 + 2
2 3 6 6
Now add the numerators and put the sum over the 6:
3 + 2 = 3+2 = 5
6 6 6 6
Q: 3 – 1 = ?
4 6
A: Convert each fraction to an equivalent fraction with a denominator
of 12:
3 – 1 = 9 – 2
4 6 12 12
Now subtract the numerators and put the difference over the 12:
9 – 2 = 9–2 = 7
12 12 12 12
Q: 1 s 2 = ?
6 3
A: Multiply the numerators (1 s 2 = 2), and multiply the
denominators (6 s 3 = 18):
1 s 2= 1s2 = 2 = 1
6 3 6s3 18 9
Q: 14 × 30 = ?
45 49
A: You could just go ahead and multiply the numerators and multiply
the denominators:
14 × 30 = 420
45 49 2205
The result 420 can be simplified. But it would have been easier
2205
to cancel out common factors before multiplying. The numerator of
14 and the denominator of 30 are both multiples of 7, so you can
45 49
cancel a factor of 7 from each:
14 × 30 = 2 × 30
45 49 45 7
Similarly, the denominator of the first fraction and the numerator
of the second are both multiples of 15, so you can cancel a factor
of 15 from each:
2 × 30 = 2 × 2 = 4
45 7 3 7 21
To divide fractions, first flip the second fraction (the one after the ÷ sign),
and then multiply.
Q: 1 ÷ 2 = ?
6 3
A: First flip the second fraction, and then multiply:
1 ÷ 2 = 1 × 3 = 1×3 = 3 = 1
6 3 6 2 6×2 12 4
Q: 3 ÷ 8 = ?
4
3 ÷ 8= 3 ÷ 8 = 3 × 1 = 3
4 4 1 4 8 32
Mixed number — a number with an integer part and a fraction part that is
less than 1. Improper fractions can be expressed as mixed numbers.
21 3 = 150
7 7
Q: Which is greater: 7 or 8 ?
25 25
A: The fractions have the same denominator, so the greater one is the
one with the larger numerator: 8 .
25
One way to compare fractions that do not have a common denominator is
to reexpress them so that they do.
Q: Which is greater: 4 or 5 ?
7 8
A: Reexpress both fractions with a common denominator of 56:
4 = 32 and 5 = 35
7 56 8 56
The greater fraction is the one with the larger numerator: 35 is
56
greater than 32 , and so 5 is greater than 4 .
56 8 7
Sometimes it’s easier to compare fractions by reexpressing them with a
common numerator. In such case, the one with the smaller denominator
will be the greater fraction.
Q: Which is greater: 5 or 10 ?
16 33
A: In this case it’s a lot easier to use the common-numerator approach
than the common-denominator approach. Double the numerator
and denominator of the first fraction:
5 = 10
16 32
Now the fractions have the same numerator, so the greater one is
Q: Which is greater: 16 or 13 ?
25 20
A: Convert both fractions to decimals:
16 = 0.64 and 13 = 0.65
25 20
It is especially easy to convert a fraction to a decimal when you use a
calculator. But of course that is not possible on the GMAT.
Q: Convert 7 to a decimal.
15
A: When you divide the numerator 7 by the denominator 15, you get:
0.4666666666...
)
15 7.0000000000...
Q: Convert 15 to a decimal.
7
A: When you divide the numerator 15 by the denominator 7, you get:
2.1428571428...
)
7 15.0000000000...
In the first example above, it’s a single digit that repeats. To write that more
simply, put a bar over the repeating digit:
0.4666666666... = 0.46
In the second example, it’s a the sequence of digits 142857 that repeats. To
write that more simply, put a bar over the repeating sequence:
2.1428571428... = 2.142857
12. 1 + 2 × 3 – 4 =
2 3 4 5
17. What is the 99th digit after the decimal point in the decimal equivalent
of 1 ?
11
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) 9
18. A recipe requires 2 1 cups of flour, 2 3 cups of sugar, and 1 1 cups of milk
2 4 3
to make one cake. Victor has 15 cups of flour, 16 cups of sugar, and 8
cups of milk. What is the greatest number of cakes Victor can make using
this recipe?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) 9
19. Martha biked 18 2 miles in 2 hours and 40 minutes. What was her
3
average rate of speed in miles per hour?
(A) 7
(B) 7 2
3
(C) 8 1
3
(D) 9
(E) 9 1
3
20. Exactly 3 of the people in the room are under the age of 21, and exactly
7
5 of the people in the room are over the age of 65. If the total number
13
of people in the room is greater than 50 and less than 100, how many
(A) 21
(B) 35
(C) 39
(D) 60
(E) 65
3. PERCENTS
Most percent problems can be solved by plugging into one basic formula:
Percent × Whole = Part
This formula describes the relationship among three quantities. Given any
two of them, you can find the third. Whether you’re looking for the
Percent, the Whole, or the Part, use the same formula.
In the last example, the Part was bigger than the Whole. That’s why the
Percent was greater than 100%.
If the Part can be bigger than the Whole, how are you supposed to be able
to tell which is the Part and which is the Whole? You can tell by watching
for these little key words: “of” and “is”/“are.” The Whole is almost always
associated with the word “of,” and the Part is almost always associated with
the verb “is”/“are.”
Q: What is 80% of 25?
A: The word “what” comes just before the word “is,” and so it’s the
Part. The 25 comes just after the word “of,” and so it’s the Whole.
To solve a percent word problem, use the key words and your
understanding of the sense of the problem to identify the Percent, the
Whole, and the Part. Plug the two numbers you know into the formula and
calculate the number you’re looking for.
Q: In a baseball game, the starting pitcher lasted 5
innings and threw 65 pitches, 39 of which were strikes.
What percent of her pitches were strikes?
A: The total number of pitches (65) is the whole. The number of
strikes (39) is the part. You’re looking for the percent:
Percent × Whole = Part
Percent × 65 = 39
39
Percent = = 0.6 = 60%
65
Amount of increase
Percent increase = × 100%
Original amount
Amount of decrease
Percent decrease = × 100%
Original amount
It’s a bit more complicated to calculate the original amount when given
the percent increase or decrease and the new amount. You cannot just
multiply the percent by the new amount. The thing to do instead is to add
the percent increase to 100% (or subtract the percent decrease from 100%),
then divide that into the new amount.
Q: This year, the regular price for a box seat is $30, which
is 20 percent more than last year. What was the price
of a box seat last year?
A: You cannot just figure out what’s 20% less than $30, as we did in
the previous example. Here you must first add 20% to 100%,
which gives you 120%, and then divide that into $30:
21. If 51 of the 85 marbles in a bag are green, what percent of the marbles
are green?
(A) 57%
(B) 60%
(C) 63%
(D) 65%
(E) 67%
(A) 73
(B) 74
(C) 75
(D) 76
(E) 77
23. If 7 of the student body is male, what percent of the student body is
16
female?
(A) 37.5%
(B) 43.75%
(C) 56.25%
(D) 62.5%
(E) 68.25%
24. In addition to the price of the meal, Janet paid sales tax equal to 8.5
percent of the price of the meal, and a tip equal to 15 percent of the price
of the meal. If she paid $2.04 in sales tax, how much was the tip?
(A) $3.06
(B) $3.36
(C) $3.42
(D) $3.60
(E) $4.08
25. If the price of a painting rises from $5,000 to $100,000, what is the
percent increase?
(A) 95%
(B) 190%
(C) 950%
(D) 1,900%
(E) 9,500%
26. A promotion gave Martin a 32 percent increase in his hourly wage. If his
hourly wage after the promotion was $9.90, what was it before the
promotion?
(A) $7.50
(B) $7.60
(C) $7.72
(D) $8.00
(E) $8.18
27. The price of a share of stock increased by 20 percent in one year. The
following year the price increased by 30 percent. By what percent did the
price increase over the two-year period?
(A) 44%
(B) 45%
(C) 50%
(D) 55%
(E) 56%
(A) 12,000
(B) 12,480
(C) 13,000
(D) 14,580
(E) 18,720
(A) 2,952
(B) 4,428
(C) 7,971
(D) 8,856
(E) 10,332
30. In the first half of the 20th century, the population of a particular country
increased by 200 percent. In the second half of the century, the
population increased by 300 percent. What was the percent increase for
the 20th century as a whole?
(A) 500%
(B) 600%
(C) 800%
(D) 1,100%
(E) 1,200%
Average = 2 + 5 + 8 + 19 + 56 = 90 = 18
5 5
Averaging averages — You can average the averages of two groups only if
you know that the two groups are the same size.
Average = 86 + 92 = 178 = 89
2 2
Do not average the averages if you do not know the relative sizes of the
groups.
Weighted average — If you have two groups of different sizes, but you
know the actual or relative sizes, then you can find a weighted average. To
find the weighted average, multiply each average by the appropriate
weighting factor before adding, and then divide by the sum of the
weighting factors. If you are given actual numbers, use them as the
weighting factors.
Using the average to find the sum — If you know the average of a list of
numbers and you know how many numbers are in the list, you can use the
following variation of the average formula to find the sum:
Sum of the numbers = (Average) × (Number of numbers)
This variation of the average formula is also useful when you’re looking for
a missing number in an average. Just remember, whenever you know the
average and you know how many numbers there are, then you also know
what the sum is.
If the number of numbers is even, then the average is halfway between the
two numbers in the middle.
How to find the middle number — When a list of evenly spaced numbers
is relatively short, it’s easy enough just to see the number that’s in the
middle. For a longer list, the way to find the number in the middle is to find
the average of the first and last numbers in the list.
Median — the middle number. To find the median, first arrange the
numbers in order from least to greatest and then find the number that’s
right in the middle.
Q: Find the median: 12, 734, 52, –74, 345, 1, 8, –90, 23
A: Arrange the numbers by size:
–90, –74, 1, 8, 12, 23, 52, 345, 734
Now the number in the middle is 12, and so the median is 12.
If there’s an even number of numbers in the set, then there is no one
number in the middle. In that case, find the pair of numbers in the middle
and take their average (arithmetic mean).
Q: Find the median: 45, 3, 67, 2, 498, 5, 3, 10
A: Arrange the numbers by size:
2, 3, 3, 5, 10, 45, 67, 498
This time there are 8 numbers in the set, so there is no number
exactly in the middle. The middle pair of numbers is 5 and 10. The
average of those numbers is 7.5, and so the median is 7.5.
If two numbers appear with equal frequency, then there are two modes.
Q: Find the mode: 24, 24, 24, 25, 27, 27, 27, 28, 29, 29, 30
A: The numbers 24 and 27 both appear three times, more often than
any other number, and so there are two modes: 24 and 27.
If no number appears more often than once, then there is no mode.
Q: Find the mode: 1, 3, 5, 7, 13, 63, 198, 873
A: No number appears more than once, and so there is no mode.
Range — the positive difference between the largest and smallest values in
a set of numbers.
Q: Find the range: 31, 43, 25, –17, 19, 63, 18, –3
A: The largest number is 63 and the smallest is –17, and so the range
is 63 – (–17) = 80.
Q: Set C = {11, 12, 13, 14, 15}. Set D = {81, 82, 83, 84, 85}.
Which set has the greater standard deviation?
A: You should be able to tell, without actually calculating, that these
two sets have the same standard deviation. They have the same
dispersions about their respective averages. (In fact, the standard
deviation for each set is the square root of 2 (about 1.4).
(A) 13.5
(B) 26
(C) 32.5
(D) 45
(E) 54
36. After the first four tests of the semester, Claudia’s average (arithmetic
mean) score is 76. What score does Claudia need on the fifth test to bring
her average up to 80?
(A) 84
(B) 87
(C) 90
(D) 93
(E) 96
37. A chemistry test was administered to 21 boys and 24 girls. The boys’
average (arithmetic mean) score was 60 and the girls’ average score was
90. What was the average score for all 45 students?
(A) 74
(B) 75
(C) 76
(D) 77
(E) 78
38. What is the average (arithmetic mean) of all the even numbers from 186
through 540 inclusive?
(A) 363
(B) 364
(C) 365
(D) 366
(E) 367
39. What is the sum of all the positive integers up to and including 50?
(A) 1,250
(B) 1,275
(C) 2,050
(D) 2,450
(E) 2,500
To multiply powers with the same base, keep the base and
add the exponents.
Ex: 319 × 312 = 319 + 12 = 331
To divide powers with the same base, keep the base and
subtract the exponents.
5 24
Ex: = 5 24 − 6 = 518
6
5
To raise a power to a power, multiply the exponents.
2
Ex: (610) = 610 × 2 = 620
To multiply powers with the same exponent, keep the
exponent and multiply the bases.
Ex: 59 × 49 = (5 × 4)9 = 209
Square Roots
The number A is a square root of B if A squared equals B.
Q: What are the square roots of 9?
A: 3 squared equals 9, so 3 is a square root of 9. –3 squared also
equals 9, so –3 is also a square root of 9.
Every positive number has two square roots, one positive and one negative.
On the other hand, as far as the GMAT is concerned, negative numbers have
no square roots.
The symbol is used to represent the nonnegative square root.
Q: 9 = ?
A: The nonnegative square root of 9 is 3, and so 9 = 3.
You should be able to recognize numbers up to 144 that have integer square
roots. These numbers are called perfect squares.
1 = 12 16 = 42 49 = 72 100 = 102
4 = 22 25 = 52 64 = 82 121 = 112
9 = 32 36 = 62 81 = 92 144 = 122
If an integer is not a perfect square, then its square root is an irrational
number — that is, a number that cannot be expressed precisely as a fraction
or decimal. An irrational number is a real number — it has a value and a
place on the number line. Two very important irrational numbers are 2
and 3 . You should have some sense of the value of these numbers:
2 ≈ 1.414
3 ≈ 1.732
The Rules Of Square Roots
To simplify a square root, factor out the perfect squares inside the radical,
unsquare them, and put the result in front.
Q: Simplify: 300
A: Factor out a perfect square of 100 and reexpress 300 as 100 × 3:
300 = 100 × 3
Now you can break this square root into two and unsquare the
perfect square:
100 × 3 = 100 × 3 = 10 3
Q: Simplify: 2 5
5 2
A: Multiply both the numerator and denominator by 2:
2 5 2 5× 2 2 10 10
= = =
5 2 5 2× 2 10 5
43. 27 × 25 × 312 = ?
(A) 612
(B) 624
(C) 1212
(D) 1224
(E) 12420
45. 35 + 35 + 35 = ?
(A) 93 (B) 94 (C) 95 (D) 96 (E) 915
46. 2 5 ( 3 2 + 2 2 ) = ?
(A) 5 10
(B) 10 10
(C) 10 5
(D) 20 5
(E) 30
(−4)
4
47. =?
(A) –16 (B) –4 (C) 16 (D) 64 (E) 128
1 1 2 3 6
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
2 2 4 6 12
2 3 +3 2
49. =?
2
(A) 2 + 2 3
(B) 2+ 6
(C) 2 + 3 6
(D) 3 + 2 3
(E) 3 + 6
50. 50 + 200 = ?
(A) 2 15
(B) 5 5
(C) 5 10
(D) 10 5
(E) 15 2
6. EQUATIONS
To solve an equation with one variable and no exponents, the basic rule is
this: do whatever you must to both sides to get the variable all by itself on
one side, or, in other words, to isolate the variable. You can add the same
thing to both sides, subtract the same thing from both sides, multiply both
sides by the same thing, or divide both sides by the same thing. As long as
you do exactly the same thing to both sides, you will maintain the equality.
Q: Solve: –3x + 5 = 11
A: To start to isolate x, first subtract 5 from both sides:
−3 x + 5 = 11
−3 x + 5 − 5 = 11 − 5
−3 x = 6
Now, to isolate x, divide both sides by –3:
−3 x 6
=
−3 −3
x = −2
How do you know what operations to perform in what order? Usually you’ll
just know from experience. But here is a systematic procedure:
1. Eliminate all denominators by multiplying both sides of the equation
by the LCM of all denominators.
2. Eliminate all parentheses.
3. Move all terms that contain the variable to one side and all terms that
do not contain the variable to the other side.
4. Combine all terms that contain the variable into a single term.
5. Divide both sides by the coefficient of the variable.
( )
Q: Solve: 2 x − 5 = 1 x + 5
3 4
A: First eliminate the denominators. The LCM of 3 and 4 is 12, so
multiply both sides by 12:
12 ×
2
3
( x − 5) = 12 × x + 5
1
4
8( x − 5) = 3 x + 60
np
Q: Solve for n: v =
r + nt
A: First, eliminate the denominator by multiplying both sides by
r + nt:
np
v=
r + nt
(
v r + nt =) np
r + nt
(
r + nt )
( )
v r + nt = np
Then distribute to eliminate the parentheses:
rv + ntv = np
Now move every term with an n to one side and every term without
n to the other. Subtract np from both sides and subtract rv from
both sides:
rv + ntv − np − rv = np − np − rv
ntv − np = −rv
Next, rewrite the left side as one term with n. To do that, you
“factor” n out:
(tv − p)n = −rv
Lastly, divide both sides by the “coefficient” of n:
2x + 3y = 18
Q: Solve for x and y:
3x − 5y = 8
A: You can start with either equation and either variable. Let’s start
with the first equation and solve for x. Subtract 3y from both sides,
and then divide both sides by 2:
2 x + 3y = 18
2 x = 18 − 3y
3y
x = 9−
2
Now you know that is the same as x. Take that new expression for
x and substitute it for x in the other equation:
3 x − 5y = 8
3y
3 9 − − 5y = 8
2
Now you have one equation with one variable. To solve for y, first
distribute the 3 and multiply both sides by 2:
9y
27 − − 5y = 8
2
54 − 9y − 10 y = 16
54 − 19y = 16
Then subtract 54 from both sides and divide both sides by –19:
−19y = −38
y=2
Note that you can find numerical roots of a pair of equations only if they
are distinct equations.
2a − 6b − 1 = 3
Q: Solve for a and b:
5a − 3 = 15b + 7
A: Solve the first equation for a:
2a − 6 b − 1 = 3
2a = 6 b + 4
a = 3b + 2
5a − 3 = 15 b + 7
( )
5 3 b + 2 − 3 = 15 b + 7
Solving Inequalities
To solve an inequality means to isolate the variable on one side. The process
is much the same as the process for solving an equation.
Q: 5x – 13 > 3x – 5
A: To begin to isolate x, first subtract 3x from both sides and add 13
to both sides:
5 x − 13 > 3 x − 5
5 x − 13 − 3 x + 13 > 3 x − 5 − 3 x + 13
2x > 8
Then divide both sides by 2 get the solution: x > 4.
The only thing different about solving an inequality is that when you
multiply or divide both sides by a negative number, you must flip the sign.
Q: −7x + 15 ≤ 8
A: To begin to isolate x, first subtract 15 from both sides:
−7 x + 15 ≤ 8
−7 x + 15 − 15 ≤ 8 − 15
−7 x ≤ −7
All that’s left to do now is to divide both sides by –7. When you do
that, you must flip the sign, that is, change ≤ to ≥. The solution is
x ≥ 1.
Factoring Polynomials
When simplified, polynomials have no parentheses. There are times,
however, when you want parentheses. The process of reexpressing a
polynomial with parentheses, i.e., as a product, is called factoring.
Q: Factor: x2 – 10x
A: This polynomial is relatively easy to factor. You can see that the
two terms each have a factor of x, so you can just “factor out” the
x:
x2 – 10x = x(x – 10)
Q: Factor: 2x2 – x – 3
A: If this polynomial is factorable, then it will probably factor into
two binomials, one beginning with 2x and the other beginning
with x:
2x2 – x – 3 = (2x )(x )
The second part of each factor will be a number, and the product
of those numbers will be –3. Thus they could be +1 and –3, or –1
and +3: Those are the only pairs of integers that have a product of
–3. But in this case the order is important. It makes a difference
which one goes in the first factor with the 2x and which one goes
in the second factor with the x. Pick a pair and try it. Say, +1 and
–3:
(2x + 1)(x – 3) = 2x2 – 5x – 3
The first and third terms are the right ones, but the middle term is
wrong. Now try the same numbers in the other order. Put the –3 in
the first factor and the +1 in the second factor:
(2x – 3)(x + 1) = 2x2 – x – 3
Q: Factor: x2 + 3x – 5
A: If this polynomial is factorable, then it will probably factor into
two binomials, each beginning with x:
x2 + 3x – 5 = (x )(x )
The second part of each factor will be a number, and the product
of those numbers will be –5. Thus they could be –1 and +5, or +1
and –5. Those are the only possibilities. Pick a pair and try it. Say,
–1 and +5:
(x – 1)(x + 5) = x2 + 4x – 5
That pair did not work, so try the other possibility, +1 and –5:
(x + 1)(x – 5) = x2 – 4x – 5
That pair did not work either, and there are no other possibilities,
so this polynomial is not factorable.
Factor Patterns
With practice and experience, you will become adept at factoring. You will
begin to recognize patterns. There are three factor patterns in particular you
should know:
1. Common monomial factor
2. Difference of squares
3. Square of a binomial
Whenever you are trying to factor a polynomial, the first thing to look for
is a common monomial factor — that is, a monomial that can be factored
out of every term in the polynomial.
Q: Factor: 2x3 + 6x2 + 10x
A: In this polynomial, every term has a factor of 2x. That means you
can “factor it out.” To do so, write 2x in front of an open
parenthesis:
2x3 + 6x2 + 10x = 2x( )
Now, inside the parentheses, write term by term what’s left after
you divide by 2x:
2x3 + 6x2 + 10x = 2x(x2 + 3x + 5)
A second factor pattern you should be able to spot is what is called the
difference of squares. This is one of the easiest patterns to recognize. It
consists of two monomials squared separated by a minus sign.
A polynomial in the form a2 – b2 factors to (a – b)(a + b). So to factor the
difference of squares, “unsquare” them both and make two binomials out
of the results — one with a minus sign and one with a plus sign.
Q: Factor: 9x2 – 16
A: This is an example of a difference of squares: in front of the minus
sign you have 9x2, which is the square of 3x, and after the minus
sign you have 16, which is the square of 4. Unsquare the first
square and you get 3x. Unsquare the second square and you get 4.
Put those results into two binomials, one with a minus sign and
the other with a plus sign:
9x2 – 16 = (3x – 4)(3x + 4)
Q: Factor: y2 – 8y + 16
A: The first term is the square of y, the third term is the square of –4,
and the middle term is twice the product of y and –4. So this is the
square of the binomial y – 4:
y2 – 8y + 16 = (y – 4)2
Q: Solve: 2x2 + 7x = –3
A: First rearrange the equation into “polynomial = 0” form:
2x2 + 7x + 3 = 0
Now factor the polynomial:
(2x + 1)(x + 3) = 0
In this form, the equation tells you that the product of 2x + 1 and
x + 3 is 0. That means that either 2x + 1 = 0 or x + 3 = 0:
2 x + 1 = 0 OR x + 3 = 0
1
x=− OR x = −3
2
1
So the two roots are − and –3.
2
If when you put the equation into “polynomial = 0” form the polynomial
is the square of a binomial, then there will be only one root.
Quadratic Formula
You can always solve a quadratic equation with what is called the quadratic
formula. Once you have the equation in “polynomial = 0” form, think of it
this way:
ax 2 + bx + c = 0
If the coefficient of the x2 term is a, the coefficient of the x term is b, and
the number term is c, then the solution to the equation is:
− b ± b 2 − 4ac
x=
2a
Q: Solve: x2 + 2x = 9
A: First rearrange the equation into “polynomial = 0” form:
x2 + 2x – 9 = 0
Now plug a = 1, b = 2, and c = –9 into the quadratic formula:
x= =
2
− b ± b 2 − 4ac −2 ± 2 − 4 1 −9 ( )( )
= −1 ± 10
2a 21 ()
But the quadratic formula can also be handy when the polynomial is
factorable, but factoring seems like too much trouble.
Q: Solve: 12x2 + 20 = 31x
A: First rearrange the equation into “polynomial = 0” form:
12x2 – 31x + 20 = 0
Now plug a = 12, b = –31, and c = 20 into the quadratic formula:
(−31) − 4(12)(20 ) = 31 ± 1 = 4
2
− b ± b 2 − 4ac 31 ± 5
x= = OR
2a 2(12) 24 3 4
(
52. Solve for x: 5 x + 2y = −3 4y − x − 2 )
(A) –7y + 3
(B) –3y – 3
(C) –3y + 7
(D) 3y – 7
(E) 7y + 3
3x + 2y = −1
53. Solve for x:
4 x + 3y = 1
(A) –7
(B) –5
(C) 0
(D) 5
(E) 7
7 x + 4y = 19
54. Solve for x + y:
4 x + 7 y = 3
(A) – 5
3
(B) 2
(C) 11
3
(D) 16
3
(E) 16
(A) –4 or 8
(B) –4 or 6
(C) –3 or 8
(D) 3 or –8
(E) 4 or 6
x 2 + x = 2
56. Solve for x: 2
x − 4 = 0
(A) –2 only
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 only
(D) –2 or 2
(E) There is no real solution.
57. If 2 – 1 = 1 + 2 , then x =
x x
(A) 1
3
(B) 1
2
(C) 1
(D) 2
(E) 3
(A) 15
(B) 12
(C) –9
(D) –12
(E) –15
(A) –4
(B) –3
(C) –2
(D) –1
(E) 0
7. QUADRILATERALS
Rectangle — a quadrilateral with four right angles.
Opposite sides of a rectangle are parallel and equal in length.
The diagonals of a rectangle are equal, and they bisect each other. [Bisect
means to divide into two equal pieces.]
The two dimensions of a rectangle are generally called the length and
width. [There is no consensus on which is the length and which is the
width. For some people, the length is the longer dimension and the width
is the shorter dimension. For other people, the length is the vertical
dimension and the width is the horizontal dimension. On the GMAT, it
doesn’t matter.]
The perimeter of a rectangle is length plus width plus length plus width,
or, in other words, twice the length plus twice the width. If the length is l
K L and the width is w, then the formula is:
Perimeter of a rectangle = 2l + 2w
4
Q: What is the perimeter of a rectangle JKLM in Figure 1?
A: Plug 4 and 9 in for l and w in the formula:
J 9 M Perimeter = 2l + 2w = 2(4) + 2(9) = 26
Figure 1
The area of a rectangle is length times width:
Area of a rectangle = l w
Be aware that all squares are rectangles and that all rectangles are 6
parallelograms, but that not all parallelograms are rectangles and not all Figure 4
rectangles are squares. When a GMAT math question says “rectangle,” the
figure referred to might be a square.
Here is a summary of the characteristics and formulas for squares,
rectangles, and parallelograms:
area: A = s2 A = lw A = bh
Trapezoid — a quadrilateral with one pair of parallel sides and one pair of
nonparallel sides.
To find the area of a trapezoid, call the two parallel sides the bases b1 and
b2 and the perpendicular distance between them the height h. Then:
Area of a trapezoid = b1 b 2 h
2 8
Think of it as the height times the average of the bases.
5
Q: What is the area of the trapezoid in Figure 5?
A: The average of the bases is 9, and the height is 5, so the area is
10
9 s 5 = 45.
Figure 5
I. quadrilateral
II. rectangle
III. parallelogram
(A) I only
Figure 6 (B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III
62. If the area of the rectangle in Figure 7 is 21, what is the perimeter?
3
(A) 10
(B) 10.5
(C) 14.5
Figure 7 (D) 20
(E) 21
63. If rectangles A and B in Figure 8 have the same perimeter, what is the area
8 of rectangle B?
5 A B 6 (A) 24
(B) 26
(C) 30
Figure 8
(D) 36
(E) 42
(A) 38
P (B) 51
S
(C) 64
Figure 9 (D) 76
(E) 131
5
65. If the perimeter of the trapezoid in Figure 10 is 22, what is the area?
5 (A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 26
8 (D) 32
(E) 40
Figure 10
(A) 1
5 A 5
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5 5
5
67. How many of the quadrilaterals in Figure 11 are parallelograms?
5 B 5
(A) 1
(B) 2
88°
(C) 3
(D) 4 5
(E) 5
6
(A) A
(B) B 6
(C) C
(D) D 6
(E) E
4 D 4
69. Which of the quadrilaterals in Figure 11 has the least area? 88°
6
(A) A
(B) B 8
(C) C
(D) D 3 E 3
(E) E
8
8. TRIANGLES
Triangle — polygon with three sides.
In one sense the triangle is the simplest of polygons: it has the fewest sides.
But in many ways the triangle is the most complex. There are many facts
and formulas for triangles, and there are several special triangles with their
own special facts and formulas.
One simple trait common to all triangles is that the three interior angles
add up to 180 degrees. So whenever you know the measures of two angles,
you can easily find the measure of the third.
86°
Q: What is the value of x in Figure 12?
A: The two given angles add up to 86 + 34 = 120 degrees. That leaves
x° 180 - 120 = 60 degrees for the other angle, and so x = 60.
34°
If you extend one side of a triangle, you create what is called an exterior
Figure 12 angle. Because an exterior angle is supplementary to the adjacent interior
angle, and because the measure of that interior angle is equal to 180° minus
the other two interior angles, it follows that an exterior angle is equal to the
sum of those other two interior angles. (Those angles — the interior angles
78° other than the adjacent one — are called the remote interior angles.)
Area of a triangle = 1 bh
2
B
Q: In Figure 15, AC = 10 and BD = 3, what is the area of
triangle ABC?
A: AC and BD are perpendicular, so you can use them as the base and
height:
A C Area = 1 bh = 1 (10)(3) = 15
D 2 2
Figure 15 If all you know is the length of two sides of a triangle, you cannot find the
area — unless those two sides happen to be perpendicular.
Any side of a triangle can potentially be used as the base. It does not have
to be the side on the bottom. Look for a side for which you are given a
height. H
Figure 17
Side-Angle Relationships
The longest side of a triangle will always be found opposite the biggest
angle. Likewise, the shortest side will be found opposite the smallest angle.
Thus, if you know the relative measures of the three angles, then you also
know the relative lengths of the three sides. Or, if you know the relative
lengths of the sides, then you also know the relative measures of the angles.
If two sides of a triangle have the same length, it follows that the angles
opposite the equal sides are equal. Likewise, if two angles have the same
measure, it follows that the sides opposite the equal angles are equal.
Furthermore, if all three sides of a triangle are equal, it follows that the
angles are all equal, and likewise, if all three angles are equal, then all three
sides are equal.
Special Triangles
Isosceles Triangle — a triangle with two equal sides.
The equal sides of an isosceles triangle are called the legs. Short hatch
marks are often used to indicate equal sides.
As we have seen, if two sides of a triangle are the same length, then the
angles opposite them are equal. The equal angles of an isosceles triangle are
called the base angles (even if they're not at the bottom). The other angle
is called the vertex angle.
T
When you know that a particular pair of sides are equal, you can use one
angle measure to find the other two.
Right triangle — a triangle with a right angle (that is, a 90° angle).
60o 60o
If one angle measures 90°, it follows that the other two angles are acute and
Figure 20 add up to 90°. In a right triangle, the 90° angle is always the biggest angle,
and so the side opposite the 90° will always be the longest side. The longest
side is called the hypotenuse. The other two sides, the sides that are
perpendicular, are called the legs.
Pythagorean Theorem
The lengths of the sides of a right triangle are related. This relationship is
summarized in the Pythagorean theorem, which says that the sum of the
squares of the legs is equal to the square of the hypotenuse. Algebraically
speaking, if the lengths of the legs are a and b and the length of the
hypotenuse is c, then:
a2 + b2 = c2
In Figure 21, for example, the legs have lengths 8 and 15, and the
hypotenuse has length 17. The squares of the legs are 82 = 64 and 152 = 225.
The sum of the squares of the legs is 64 + 225 = 289, which is indeed equal 17
8
to the square of the hypotenuse: 172 = 289.
You can use the Pythagorean theorem to find the length of the hypotenuse
when you know the lengths of the legs, or to find the length of a leg when 15
you are given the lengths of the other leg and the hypotenuse.
Figure 21
Q: The legs of the right triangle in Figure 22 have lengths
7 and 24. What is the length of the hypotenuse?
A: The squares of the legs are 72 = 49 and 242 = 576. The sum of the 7
squares of the legs is 49 + 576 = 625. That’s the square of the
hypotenuse, so to find the hypotenuse, take the square root: 24
hypotenuse = 625 = 25 Figure 22
hypotenuse = 5 2 4 2 25 16 41
leg = 5 2 4 2 25 16 9 3
Besides the 3-4-5 and its multiples, there are many other Pythagorean
triples. A very popular one on the GMAT is the 5-12-13.
Q: The legs of the right triangle in Figure 28 have lengths
5
5 and 12. What is the length of the hypotenuse?
A: There's no need to use the Pythagorean theorem. You should realize
12 right away that the hypotenuse is 13.
Figure 28 Multiples of the 5-12-13 are Pythagorean triples as well.
Q: One leg of the right triangle in Figure 29 has length 24
24 and the hypotenuse has length 26. What is the length
of the other leg?
A: The ratio of the given leg to the hypotenuse is 12:13, so this is a
26 multiple of the 5-12-13 triangle. The given sides are twice 12 and
13, respectively, and so the missing side is twice 5, or 10.
Figure 29
88 © The MBA Center
Math Review
45-45-90 Triangle
All isosceles right triangles have the same side proportions. When the legs
are both 1, the hypotenuse is 2 . When the legs are both 2, the hypotenuse
whatever the length of a leg, just multiply that by 2 to get the hypotenuse.
5
Q: In Figure 30, what is the length of the hypotenuse?
A: Because the legs are both 5, this is a right isosceles triangle. Just
multiply the leg length by 2 to get the hypotenuse: 5 2 .
5
To turn a leg length into the hypotenuse, you multiply by 2 . So to turn Figure 30
the hypotenuse into a leg, you do the opposite — divide by 2.
(opposite the 30° angle) is 1, then the longer leg (opposite the 60° angle) is
3 and the hypotenuse is 2. So when the shorter leg is 2, then the longer
leg is 2 3 and the hypotenuse is 4. And when the shorter leg is 10, then the
Q: In Figure 32, what are the lengths of the longer leg and
hypotenuse? 60o
5
A: The shorter leg is 5, so the longer leg is 3 times that, or 5 3. The
30o
hypotenuse is twice the shorter leg, or 10.
If what you are given is the hypotenuse, then divide by 2 to get the shorter Figure 32
leg, and then multiply the shorter leg by 3 to get the longer leg. And if
what you are given is the longer leg, then divide by 3 to get the shorter
leg, and then multiply the shorter leg by 2 to get the hypotenuse.
71. If the measure of one angle of an isosceles triangle is 96°, what is the
degree measure of the smallest angle?
(A) 42°
(B) 48°
(C) 64°
(D) 84°
(E) Cannot be determined from the information given.
72. If the measure of one angle of an isosceles triangle is 40°, what is the
degree measure of the biggest angle?
(A) 70°
(B) 80°
(C) 100°
(D) 140°
(E) Cannot be determined from the information given.
73. If the lengths of the two legs of a right triangle are 10 and 24, what is
the length of the hypotenuse?
(A) 25
(B) 26
(C) 30
(D) 34
(E) Cannot be determined from the information given.
74. If the lengths of two sides of a right triangle are 9 and 12, what is the
length of the third side?
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 18
(D) 21
(E) Cannot be determined from the information given.
75. If the lengths of two sides of an isosceles triangle are 3 and 7, which of
the following could be the perimeter of the triangle?
I. 13
II. 15
III. 17
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III
(A) 25 10
(B) 50
(C) 75
(D) 90 45°
(E) 100
Figure 35
78. If the length of one leg of a right triangle is 6, and if the perimeter is 18,
what is the area of the triangle?
(A) 12.5
(B) 13.5
(C) 21
(D) 25
(E) 27
79. In Figure 36, AD = 20 and DC = 36. If the area of triangle ABC is 420, B
what is the perimeter of triangle ABC?
(A) 120
(B) 132
(C) 144 A C
(D) 156 20 D 36
(E) 168 Figure 36
(A) 9 + 9 2 105°
6
(B) 9 + 9 3
45°
(C) 9 2 + 9 3
Figure 37
(D) 18 + 18 2
(E) 18 + 18 3
9. CIRCLES
Circle — set of all the points in a plane that are the same given distance
away from a particular point.
D
A circle will often be designated by the name of the point in the middle,
C which is called the center. The distance from the center to any point on the
circle is called the radius (plural: radii). All radii of a circle are the same
E length.
F A line segment with endpoints on a circle is called a chord of the circle. In
the circle in Figure 38, CD and EF are chords.
Figure 38 A chord that passes through the center of a circle is called a diameter. The
same word is also used to mean the distance across the circle. The diameter
of a circle is equal to twice the radius.
R
Q: In Figure 39, Q, R, and S are points on circle P. If
11 PR = 11 what is the length of diameter QS?
A: The radius is 11, so the diameter is twice that, or 22.
Q S
P
An angle formed by two radii, with the center as the vertex, is called a
central angle. The central angles of a circle add up to 360°.
Length Of An Arc
The part of the circumference of a circle extending from one given point to A
another is called arc. For any two points on a circle, there are two arcs.
B
Unless the two points are directly opposite each other (that is, endpoints of
a diameter), one arc will be shorter than the other. The shorter arc, the one
that goes less than halfway around the circle, is called the minor arc. The
longer arc, the one that goes more than halfway around the circle, is called
the major arc. In Figure 41, the part of the circumference of the circle
below that goes from A to C through B can be called arc ABC or minor arc C
AC.
An arc has two different measures: the degree measure and the length. The Figure 41
degree measure is a description of the arc’s curvature and is simply the
measure of the central angle formed by its endpoints and the center of the
circle.
D
Q: In circle O in Figure 42 what is the degree measure of
minor arc DE? 10
A: Central angle DOE measures 54°, and so the degree measure of 54°
minor arc DE is also 54°. E
O
The length of an arc is a fraction of the circle’s circumference. To find the
length of an arc, you need to know not just the measure of the central
angle, but also something about the size of the circle, such as radius or
diameter or circumference. To calculate the length of an arc, first divide the Figure 42
degree measure of the central angle by 360. That will tell you what fraction
of the circumference is on the arc. Then find the circumference and
multiply it by the fraction.
Q: In circle O in Figure 42, what is the length of minor arc
DE?
A: First divide the degree measure of the central angle by 360:
54 3
=
360 20
Then find the circumference. Plug r = 10 into the formula:
C = 2π(10) = 20π
Now multiply the fraction by the circumference:
3
length of arc DE = ( 20 π ) = 3 π
20
The process of finding the length of arc when you know the radius r and the
degree measure of the central angle a can be summarized in one formula:
a
length of arc = ⋅ 2 πr
360
Area Of A Circle
The formula for the area A of a circle of radius r is:
A = πr2 5
Area is expressed in square units: square inches, square feet, square meters,
etc. O
Q: What is the area of circle O in Figure 43?
A: Plug r = 5 into the formula:
A = π(52) = 25π Figure 43
The formulas for circumference and area look somewhat similar. To avoid
confusing them, remember that area is a measure of square units and
therefore has the r squared.
You need the radius to find the area. To find the area when you're given the
diameter, first divide the diameter by 2 and then proceed with the above
formula.
Q: What is the area of a circle of diameter 6?
A: First divide the diameter by 2 to get r = 3, then plug that into the
formula:
A = π(32) = 9π
To find the area when you're given the circumference, use the circumference
formula to find the radius.
Q: What is the area of a circle of circumference 20π?
A: First use the circumference formula to find r:
20 π = 2 πr
r = 10
Then plug r = 10 into the area formula:
A = π(102) = 100π
Area Of A Sector
A closed figure formed by two radii and an arc is called a sector. You can
think of a sector as a fraction of the interior of a circle. You can find the area
of a sector if you know the measure of the interior angle and something
about the size of the circle, such as the radius. Use the angle measure to
determine what fraction of the circle is contained within the sector.
P Q: What is the area of the shaded portion of circle O in
Figure 44?
A: The radius is 4, and so the area of the whole circle is 16π. The
45° central angle measures 45°. Put that over 360° to see what fraction
Q
O 4 of the circle is contained within the sector:
45 1
=
360 8
Figure 44
Thus the area of the sector is 1 of the area of the circle:
8
1
area of sector = ( 16 π ) = 2 π
8
If the degree measure of the central angle is a and the radius is r, then the
formula is:
a
area of sector = ⋅ πr 2
360
area of sector =
20
360
( )
π 6 2 = 2π
(A) 4π
(B) 8π
(C) 16π
(D) 32π
(E) 64π
(A) 4π
(B) 8π
(C) 16π
(D) 32π
(E) 64π
A
83. What is the length of minor arc AB in Figure 45?
5
(A) π
108°
(B) 2π O
(C) 3π
B
(D) 4π
(E) 5π
Figure 45
Figure 46
85. In Figure 47, the angles marked x° and y° are central angles. If the ratio
of x to y is 4 to 5, what is the value of x?
(A) 130 x°
(B) 140 y°
(C) 150
(D) 160
(E) 170
Figure 47
A B 86. In Figure 48, if ABCD is a square of area 10, what is the area of the circle?
(A) 5π
(B) 10π
(C) 25π
(D) 50π
D C (E) 100π
Figure 48
87. What is the area of the shaded region in the Figure 49?
6
70° (A) 28π
(B) 29π
O (C) 30π
(D) 31π
(E) 32π
Figure 49
A 88. In circle O in Figure 50, if the length of arc ABC is 2π, what is the area of
B the shaded region?
5
(A) 4π
O C (B) 5π
(C) 8π
(D) 10π
(E) 12π
Figure 50
E (A) 9π
O D (B) 12π
(C) 18π
(D) 24π
(E) 27π
Figure 51
A
90. In Figure 52, if the length of minor arc AB is 10, and the length of major
arc AB is 35, what is the value of x?
x° (A) 75
O B (B) 80
(C) 85
(D) 90
(E) 95
Figure 52
Notice that Phineas kindly gave you the francs-per-dollar and liters-per-
gallon conversion rates. Fortunately Phineas does not expect you to know a
lot of conversion rates. You do not need to remember anything like how
many ounces in a pound, inches in a foot, yards in a mile, centimeters in
an inch, liters in a gallon, or grams in a pound. You do not even need to
know how many centimeters in a meter or grams in a kilogram.
If you ever need one of these conversion rates to solve a problem, Phineas
will give it to you. That’s because none of these units are universal. Phineas
does not expect Americans to know all about meters, liters, and grams. Nor
does he expect non-Americans to know all about inches, feet, ounces,
pounds, pints, and gallons.
Combined Rate
Another way Phineas likes to complicate rate problems is by asking you to
combine them.
Working Together
When the problem concerns the amount of time it takes two individuals
alone to accomplish some task, and the amount of time it takes them
working together to accomplish the task, use this formula:
t t
+ =1
a b
In this formula, a represents the time in takes one person alone, b represents
the time it takes the other person alone, and t represents the amount of
time it takes them working together. If you are given values for two of the
quantities a, b, and t, you can solve for the third.
Here’s a variation on this problem type in which you are not given any
particular values:
Average Rate
The general formula is:
Total A
Average A per B
Total B
In the case of average speed, the formula is:
Total distance
Average speed
Total time
Mixture Problems
Another classic word problem type that Phineas loves is the mixture
problem. The situation described will be something like this: a certain
amount A, of which a certain fraction or percent is something, is combined
with a certain amount B, of which a certain fraction or quantity is
something, to yield a mixture, of which a certain fraction or percent is
something. The basic set-up is this:
Solve this equation and you’ll find that x = 0.44, and so the percent
alcohol in the resulting solution is 44.
93. Two runners start at the same time from the same point on an oval track.
Runner A runs clockwise around the track at a rate of 25 feet per second,
and runner B runs counterclockwise at a rate of 15 feet per second. The
total distance around the track is 1000 feet. When they meet, runner A
will have run how many feet more than runner B?
(A) 100
(B) 150
(C) 200
(D) 250
(E) 300
94. Hose A can fill a pool in 10 hours. Hose B can fill the pool in 15 hours.
How many hours will it take the two hoses working simultaneously to fill
the pool?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7.5
(D) 12.5
(E) 25
95. Alice can snap a pound of beans in 6 minutes. Bert can snap a pound of
beans in 4 minutes. Carmen can snap a pound of bean in 3 minutes. How
long will it take the three of them working together to snap a pound of
beans?
(A) 1 minute
(B) 1 minute, 20 seconds
(C) 1 minute, 33 seconds
(D) 1 minute, 40 seconds
(E) 2 minutes
96. Robert ran for 1 hour at 15.0 kilometers per hour, and then he walked for
8 hours at 6.0 kilometers per hour. What was his average rate of speed in
kilometers per hour for the whole trip?
(A) 7.0
(B) 7.5
(C) 8.0
(D) 9.0
(E) 10.5
97. Lydia drove half of the distance from A to B at 120 kilometers per hour,
and the other half of the distance at 80 kilometers per hour. What was
her average rate of speed, in kilometers per hour, for the whole trip?
(A) 96
(B) 98
(C) 100
(D) 102
(E) 104
98. An opera house has 2,200 seats, some in the orchestra and the rest in the
balcony. Orchestra seats cost $50 each, and balcony seats cost $30 each.
When every seat is sold, the total receipts are $82,000. How many
orchestra seats are there?
(A) 750
(B) 800
(C) 850
(D) 900
(E) 950
100. Elizabeth put a total of $5,000 into two investments one year ago. One
investment earned 8 percent interest and the other investment earned 12
percent interest. If the combined interest earned was $462, how much
was invested at 8 percent?
(A) $1,550
(B) $1,875
(C) $2,250
(D) $3,125
(E) $3,450
1. C 51. E
2. C 52. A
3. E 53. B
4. B 54. B
5. A 55. B
6. A 56. A
7. A 57. E
8. C 58. D
9. A 59. E
10. E 60. C
11. C 61. E
12. B 62. D
13. D 63. E
14. D 64. A
15. B 65. C
16. C 66. C
17. A 67. E
18. A 68. A
19. A 69. D
20. C 70. E
21. B 71. A
22. C 72. E
23. C 73. B
24. D 74. E
25. D 75. B
26. A 76. B
27. E 77. A
28. C 78. B
29. E 79. A
30. D 80. B
31. A 81. B
32. E 82. E
33. C 83. C
34. B 84. A
35. D 85. D
36. E 86. A
37. C 87. B
38. A 88. B
39. B 89. E
40. D 90. B
41. A 91. B
42. B 92. D
43. A 93. D
44. D 94. B
45. A 95. B
46. B 96. A
47. C 97. A
48. C 98. B
49. E 99. A
50. E 100. E
GENERAL OUTLINE
KEY TERMS
The Wrong Answer Factory. The Wrong Answer Factory is the name we
have given to the people who create wrong answers designed to
attract the unwary test taker.
READY…
THE DIRECTIONS
The directions for the Problem Solving questions are similar to the
following:
End
When finished
Directions: Solve the following problems reading
and indicate the best answer from the choices directions
given. click on the
Numbers: All numbers used are real icon below
numbers.
Figures: Figures accompanying prob-
lems are intended to provide information
useful in solving the problem. Except when
otherwise specifically stated, figures are Dismiss
drawn as accurately as possible. All figures Directions
lie in a plane unless otherwise stated. Straight
lines may appear jagged on the computer
screen.
The directions first state that you should select the “best” answer. What
this means, of course, is that you should choose the correct answer. These
are math problems, so there should be only one correct answer. If you find
that more than one answer is possible, it is likely that you have
misunderstood the problem. The directions also indicate that all numbers
used are real numbers. This simply means that all of the numbers used in
the test have a place on the number line. None of the numbers are
imaginary or complex numbers. Finally, the directions state that, unless
The correct answer to this question is (B) or 20P. Answers (A) and
(D) are meant to lure test takers who make simple multiplication
errors and choices (C) and (E) are designed to trick test takers who
don’t understand the problem.
Authors Note: On the GMAT CAT, the answer choices will be preceded by
hollow ovals. You indicate your choice by clicking on the appropriate oval using
the mouse. In this chapter and in the rest of this book, however, the answer choices
will be designated by the letters A, B, C, D, and E for ease of reference.
THE CHALLENGE
The principal challenge of the Quantitative Section of the GMAT is time.
If you were given an unlimited amount of time, you could probably answer
most of the questions in this section. Unfortunately, time is very limited.
Most test takers find it difficult to finish all 37 questions in the Quantitative
Section before time has expired. Time is a particular problem with respect
to Problem Solving questions because you not only have to determine how
to solve the problems, but you must also do the math necessary to arrive at
a solution. For this reason the MBA Center method stresses both mastery of
the necessary mathematics and employment of the time-saving strategies in
this lesson.
108 © The MBA Center
Problem Solving
AIM…
On the GMAT CAT, Problem Solving questions are chosen from a very
large database of questions categorized by content and difficulty. The
difficulty level of a question is based on how previous test takers have
responded to it. The CAT tries to determine your level of ability and give
you questions that are appropriate. In theory, you will eventually reach a
level of difficulty where you will get roughly half of the questions right and
roughly half wrong. Below are three questions representing three different
levels of difficulty:
AN EASY QUESTION
Score Value: 350
(A) 20
(B) 40
(C) 100
(D) 200
(E) 400
A MEDIUM QUESTION
Score Value: 500
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 7
(D) 11
(E) 13
A DIFFICULT QUESTION
Score Value: 680
➩
Series T is a sequence of numbers where each term after the first
term is x greater than the term that precedes it. If the sum of the first
and last terms of series T is 14, then what is the sum of the first three
terms of series T and the last three terms of series T?
! (A) –7
! (B) 7
! (C) 14
! (D) 42
! (E) 84
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
For every Problem Solving question there are five answer choices, only
one of which is correct. The other four answers are wrong, but there’s more
to it than that. After writing a question and determining the correct answer,
the test writer (whom we’ve nicknamed Phineas) sets about to devise
incorrect answers that will attract test takers who have made a common
mistake, who only partially understand the problem, or who haven’t any
idea what the question is asking. This is really what makes Problem Solving
questions difficult. Take a look at the previous example of a difficult
question with a different set of answers.
Not quite a 680-level question now, is it? So you can see that the
wrong answers are very important in making Problem Solving
questions difficult.
Learning how Phineas creates wrong answers will help you to eliminate
incorrect answer choices and improve your chances on the Problem Solving
questions. In general, there are three different types of wrong answers: those
designed to trick people who have made a common mistake (adding two
numbers instead of subtracting, for example); those designed to tempt
people who only partially understand the problem; and those designed to
fool people who have no idea how to solve the problem. The following
example illustrates how Phineas devises the wrong answers for the Problem
Solving questions:
Score Value: 500
➩
Jack bought a packet of pens in a store. If Patti went to another
store and bought 10 percent more pens than Jack and paid 10 percent
more per pen than Jack, what percent more did Patti spend on pens
than Jack?
! (A)
! (B)
! (C)
! (D)
! (E) 21%
➩
Phineas starts with the correct answer, in this case 21, but his work is far
from finished. He still must think of four plausible wrong answer choices.
➩
Jack bought a packet of pens in a store. If Patti went to another
store and bought 10 percent more pens than Jack bought and paid
10 percent more for each pen than did Jack, what percent more did
Patti spend on pens than Jack?
! (A) 10%
! (B) 11%
! (C) 18.5%
! (D) 20%
! (E) 21%
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
Answer choice (A) simply repeats the number 10, which appears in
the question. This kind of answer choice is very popular among test
takers who have no idea what to do.
Answer choice (D) simply adds the two 10’s in the question, a one-
step solution to a multi-step question.
Or...
Notice the difference between the two questions. The first asks for
the percent increase and the second asks for the percent of. Two very
different questions. Note also that the number of male employees is
irrelevant in both questions. If you misunderstood the question — for
example, if you thought the second example was asking for the
percent increase — Phineas will have a wrong answer waiting for you.
In this lesson you will learn strategies designed to help you save time on
Problem Solving questions. When you read Problem Solving questions, try
to determine early on which time-saving strategies and shortcuts you can
use.
Time is precious on the GMAT CAT, so you can’t afford to spend too
much time pondering any one question. If you’ve been through steps one
and two of the MBA Center Method and you’re stuck, you have to
determine how much time and effort to put in before you guess. Remember,
the early questions are a lot more valuable than the later questions, so you
should try to avoid guessing until later in the section. But if you get a
problem that you really don’t think you will be able to solve, you shouldn’t
waste time staring at the question. If you think you are going to have to
guess on a problem, you should try to eliminate as many answers as you can
and guess quickly rather than wasting a lot of time and energy trying to
solve the problem. Take a look back at Time Management on the CAT in the
previous lesson to get an idea of how much time you should spend on the
questions in the various stages of the section.
Remember that the CAT determines your level of ability and gives you
Summary of the MBA Center
Method for Problem Solving questions that are appropriate, so you will find that most of the questions
on the CAT are difficult for you. Therefore, you are going to have to guess
Read and understand the on some of the questions. That’s unavoidable. But you can improve your
question. chances of guessing correctly by eliminating wrong answer choices. In this
Determine the best way to lesson you will learn how to use the Process of Error Identification to
solve the question. narrow down the answer choices. You should practice using this strategy in
order to improve your chances of guessing the correct answer.
Decide how much time to
spend on the question.
If stumped, guess.
FIRE!
In this section of the lesson we are going to show you how to apply
specific techniques to solve the problems more easily and more accurately.
INSERTING NUMBERS
Many Problem Solving questions require you to work with algebraic
expressions (a formula or equation with variables such as x and y). Some
questions give you an algebraic expression directly while some, particularly
word problems, require you to set up an algebraic expression on your own.
Often, the best way to solve these problems is to substitute numbers for the
variables in the problem.
Sometimes the problem will explicitly state what the variables are (a
carpet has dimensions x by y, for example). Often, particularly in word Make life easy for yourself.
Pick low, easy numbers to
problems, you will have to spot the variables yourself (a farmer sells 2 of insert in the problem.
5
his goods, for example).
The first step in using this strategy is determining what the variables are.
Again, you are sometimes given the equations in the problem itself or in
the answer choices. These are easy to spot. In word problems, however, you
are often required to set up the equations yourself. Look for words that
express a mathematical relationship such as “doubled” or “increased by x
percent” to help you set up equations contained in the problem.
Pick numbers that will make calculations simple. Generally, you should
pick low integers in order to make your work easy. In percent
increase/decrease problems, pick numbers that will give you 100 as a
starting value. For problems involving fractions, pick numbers that are
multiples of the denominators of the fractions so that the calculations will
work out to integers.
Insert the numbers you picked above and solve the equations. For many
problems, this will lead you directly to the correct answer choice. For some
questions, particularly number property questions (“Which of the following
is a prime number?” for example) and questions with variables in the answer
choices, more than one answer choice may work using the numbers you
picked. If this happens, eliminate the answer choices you can and pick a
fresh set of numbers. The correct answer choice will work for any set of
numbers picked.
➩
A jar contains a number of beads and a second jar contains three
times as many beads as the first. If 60 percent of the beads in the first
jar are red and 20 percent of the beads in the second jar are red, then
what percent of the total beads in both jars are red?
! (A) 25%
! (B) 30%
! (C) 33.3%
! (D) 40%
! (E) 50%
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
Now you need to pick a total number of beads for each of the jars.
You know that all of the information necessary to determine the
answer is somewhere in the problem. Because the total number of
beads is never mentioned, you know that the total number of beads
in the jars can’t make a difference. That means that you can pick any
numbers that will make your calculations easy. Since this is a percent
problem, you want to pick numbers that will give you 100 as a
starting point. Pick 25 for the first jar. The question tells you there are
three times as many beads in the second jar as the first, so the total
number of beads in the second jar has to be 75. If there are 25 beads
in the first jar and 75 beads in the second jar, then the total number
of beads in both jars is 100, which is just what we wanted.
You’re now ready to solve the problem. If there are 25 beads in the
first jar, and 60% of them are red, then the number of red beads in
the first jar is 60% of 25, or 0.6 × 25 = 15. Likewise, there are 75 beads
in the second jar, 20% of which are red, so the number of red beads
in the second jar is 0.2 × 75 = 15. If there are 15 red beads in the first
jar and 15 red beads in the second jar, then the total number of red
beads in both jars is 30. Remember, you’re asked to determine what
percent of the total beads in both jars are red. You know that the total
number of beads in both jars is 100. The question then is this: 30 is
what percent of 100? That’s easy. It’s 30%, which is the correct answer.
➩
2
formula d nw , where d is the depth of the dam in meters, w is the
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
! (A) 60%
! (B) 80%
! (C) 100%
! (D) 120%
! (E) 140%
➩
➩
2 1
If a vendor sells
5 of his goods in the morning and 3 of the
remaining goods in the afternoon, what fraction of his goods did he
! (A) 3
8
! (B) 2
5
! (C) 3
5
! (D) 2
3
! (E) 11
15
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
! (A) 1 ! (D) 1
48 8
! (B) 1 ! (E) 1
24 6
! (C) 1
12
➩
➩
If a, b, and c are consecutive positive integers and a < b < c,
which of the following must be true?
I. a + b + c is an even integer.
II. ab is an even integer.
a+ b
III. =c
2
! (A) I only
! (B) II only
! (C) I and II only
! (D) II and III only
! (E) I, II, and III
! (A) xy
! (B) 3xy2
x2– y2
! (C) x – y – y
2x2– 2y2 – 2x
! (D) x–y
2 2
! (E) x – y + 3y – x
x–y
➩
(A) ty
xn
(B) nty
x
(C) n
xyt
(D) y
xnt
(E) xy
nt
B
INSERTING NUMBERS
OUTLINE
A C
Identify the unknowns or
variables in the problem
Determine the equations D
you need to solve the
problem
Pick numbers to stand in for
Square ABCD above is partially within a circle with center A. Each
the variables of sides AB and AD of the square is a radius of the circle. If the area
Insert the numbers and of square ABCD is x, then what is the area of the circle?
solve the equations
BACKSOLVING
Because the answer choices are arranged in order from least to greatest or
greatest to least, you should generally start with the middle answer choice.
That way, if the answer choice is too large or too small, you will have
eliminated the answer choice you picked and the two above or below it.
However, if it appears that using the middle answer choice will make
calculations difficult, pick a different answer choice.
Work through the problem using the answer choice you picked.
If you backsolve an answer choice and it doesn’t work, you can eliminate
it. If the answer choice is too large, you can eliminate both of the answer
choices that are larger than it. Likewise, if the answer choice is too small,
you can eliminate both of the answer choices that are smaller than it. Now
you can pick from the two remaining answer choices and try again.
(A) $240
(B) $360
(C) $480
(D) $600
(E) $800
Start with the middle answer choice, in this case $480, and work
through the problem. If the total rent for the apartment is $480, then
each of the four friends initially pays $120 per month (480 ÷ 4 = 120).
The question then tells you that after one of the friends leaves, each
of the remaining three pays $50 more than before. If each person was
paying $120 before, they would now be paying $170 each per month
(120 + 50 = 170), but if that’s true then the total monthly rent would
be $510 (170 × 3 = 510), which is higher than $480, so we know that
the total monthly rent has to be higher than $480. Eliminate the
middle answer choice and the two that are lower than it.
Now we move to the next highest answer choice, in this case $600,
and work through the problem the same way. If the total rent for the
apartment is $600, then each of the four friends initially pays $150
per month (600 ÷ 4 = 150). The question then tells you that after one
of the friends leaves, each of the remaining three pays $50 more than
before. If each person was paying $150 before, they would now be
paying $200 each per month (150 + 50 = 200). If each person pays
$200 per month, then the total monthly rent is $600 (200 × 3 = 600),
which is correct. So $600 is the best answer.
➩
A salesman is paid $5.00 per hour for every hour he works in the
office and $8.00 for every hour he spends on the road. If the
salesman earned $360 during a certain week, and if he worked twice
as many hours in the office as he spent on the road, then how many
hours did the salesman work in the office during the week?
! (A) 20
! (B) 40
! (C) 50
! (D) 60
! (E) 70
➩
➩
A car dealer had a sale in order to sell off excess stock. Before
the sale, the dealer had three times as many cars as he had trucks.
During the sale, he sold 100 cars and 25 trucks. If after the sale the
dealer has twice as many cars as he has trucks, then how many cars
did the dealer have prior to the sale?
! (A) 60
! (B) 90
! (C) 120
! (D) 150
! (E) 180
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
➩
If (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3)(x – 4) = 24, then x could be which of the
following?
! (A) 4
! (B) 5
! (C) 6
! (D) 7
! (E) 8
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
➩
If (x – 1)(y – 2) + (x – 3)(y – 4) + (x – 5)(y – 6) = 8, and x + y = 9,
then x could be which of the following?
! (A) 0
! (B) 1
! (C) 2
! (D) 3
! (E) 7
➩
BACKSOLVING OUTLINE
● Start with the middle
answer choice (generally)
● Work through the problem
using the answer choice you
picked
● If necessary, check the next
answer choice
In order to identify and eliminate answer choices that don’t make sense
in the context of the question, you must first understand what the question
asks you to find. Many times wrong answer choices are designed to fool the
test taker who doesn’t read the question carefully enough. Take a look at the
following example:
Score Value: 590
A
D C
➩
Or...
Score Value: 590
B
Did you notice the difference between the two questions? The first
asks for the perimeter of the hexagon and the second asks for the area.
Two very different questions.
Remember that the answer choices are designed to attract test takers who
have made a common mistake (adding instead of subtracting, for example)
or who have misunderstood the problem. Many times you will be able to
see that several of these answer choices are unreasonable if you simply take
a step back and look at the problem using your common sense.
➩
F A
E B
D C
Regular hexagon ABCDEF is inscribed in a circle with area 16π.
What is the area of hexagon ABCDEF?
! (A) 4 ! (D) 24 3
! (B) 6 3 ! (E) 48 2
! (C) 12 2
➩
First, note what the question asks you to find. In this case it is the
area of the hexagon inscribed in the circle. If you look at the figure,
you can see that the hexagon is smaller than the circle, but not that
much smaller. π is about 3.14, so you can estimate that the area of the
circle is about 48. Now, you can safely eliminate any answer choice
that is larger than 48 or significantly smaller than 48.
➩
David can sail m miles in 13 hours. At that constant rate, how many
hours will it take David to sail n miles?
mn 13m m
! (A) ! (C) ! (E)
13 n 13n
13 13n
! (B) ! (D)
mn m
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
In this question you are asked to determine how long it will take
David to sail n miles. You should first notice that as n increases the
amount of time it will take David to sail n miles has to increase as
well. For example, it would certainly take David longer to sail 1,000
miles than it would to sail 10 miles. So you can eliminate any answer
choices where n appears in the denominator of the fraction.
Remember that as the denominator of a fraction increases the value
of the fraction decreases. Therefore, answer choices (B), (C) and (E) are
gone. If you guess at this point, you have a fifty-fifty shot.
Try working with only the last Now try the Process of Error Identification on the following problem:
digits. In this example you
know that the last digit of the
Score Value: 610
total price of the discs is 5 and
the last digit of the total price
of the tapes is 4. If you add 00:30 GMAT CAT– Section 3 : Quantitative 25 of 37
the two together, you know
that the last digit of the total
cost of the discs and the tapes
➩
is 9. Because we know that If John had three times the amount money he has now, he would
John has one third the have exactly the amount necessary to purchase three compact discs
amount necessary to purchase at $9.95 each and two tapes at $7.92 each. How much money does
the discs and the tapes, we John have?
know that the last digit of the
amount he actually has must ! (A) $12.32
end in a 3. ! (B) $13.55
! (C) $15.23
! (D) $16.81
! (E) $17.79
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
SUMMARY
The main challenge of the Quantitative Section is time. The time you
are allowed is very limited and must be managed well in order to make sure
you can answer all the questions before time expires. The MBA Center
Method employs specific strategies designed to help you save time when
answering Problem Solving and Data Sufficiency questions.
For every question there is only one correct answer. The wrong answers
are designed by Phineas to attract test takers who make common mistakes
or who don’t completely understand the question. Understanding how
Phineas devises wrong answers will help you to avoid traps.
1. B 14. B
2. B 15. C
3. D 16. D
4. D 17. B
5. E 18. D
6.a 43 1 % 19. D
3
20. B
6.b 143 1 % 21. D
3
22.a 18
7. B
27 3
8. B 22.b
9. A 2
10. C 23. D
11. C 24. D
12. B 25. C
13. C
HOMEWORK/PRACTICE TEST
PROBLEM SOLVING
ANSWER GRID
A B C D E
1 ! ! ! ! !
2 ! ! ! ! !
3 ! ! ! ! !
4 ! ! ! ! !
5 ! ! ! ! !
6 ! ! ! ! !
7 ! ! ! ! !
8 ! ! ! ! !
9 ! ! ! ! !
10 ! ! ! ! !
11 ! ! ! ! !
12 ! ! ! ! !
13 ! ! ! ! !
14 ! ! ! ! !
15 ! ! ! ! !
16 ! ! ! ! !
End
When finished
TIME – 25 MINUTES reading
16 QUESTIONS directions
click on the
Directions: Solve the following problems icon below
and indicate the best answer from the choices
given.
Numbers: All numbers used are real
numbers.
Figures: Figures accompanying prob- Dismiss
lems are intended to provide information Directions
useful in solving the problem. Except when
otherwise specifically stated, figures are
drawn as accurately as possible. All figures lie
in a plane unless otherwise indicated. Straight
lines may appear jagged on the computer
screen.
(A) 1.89 (B) 3.86 (C) 18.9 (D) 38.6 (E) 386
10. For all numbers p and q, the operation ! is
defined by p ! q = p2(q – 3). If 2 ! x = –20, what is
the value of x ?
4. How many minutes does it take to read 40 pages
reading at the constant rate of 100 pages per hour? (A) –10 (B) –8 (C) –7 (D) –5 (E) –2
(A) 234 (B) 260 (C) 2,340 (D) 2,600 (E) 23,400
13. If 1 < a < b < c 16. A company hires a consultant to help with the
development of a new product line. The consultant is
1
1
and if x = a and y = 1
1 and z = able to choose from two methods of payment, either a
1
b flat fee of $800 plus 6 percent of the revenues from the
1 new product, or a flat fee of $200 plus 10 percent of
c the revenues from the new product. For what amount
then which of the following must be true? of revenue would the consultant’s salary be the same
under either payment methods?
(A) z < y < x (B) x < y < z (C) x < z < y
(A) $3,750 (B) $6,250 (C) $15,000
(D) y < z < x (E) z < x < y
(D) $18,500 (E) $25,000
(E) 4w + 4l + 4
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK
134 © The MBA Center
Problem Solving
1. C
2. B
3. E
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. E
11. E
12. C
13. E
14. B
15. E
16. C
14. (B) To find the area of the frame, you can find
11. (E) You know that the integers are consecu- the area of the big rectangle and subtract the area
tive. of the smaller rectangle, leaving only the frame.
This makes our work much easier, but don't get The length of the big rectangle is l + 4 + 4, or l +
tricked! 8.
Saying that the sum is just 5 less is too easy; The width of the big rectangle is w + 4 + 4, or w + 8.
instead, think about the fact that the 1st integer is 5 The area of the big rectangle,
less than the 6th, the 2nd is 5 less than the 7th, the then, is (l + 8)(w + 8) = lw + 8w + 8l + 64.
3rd is 5 less than the 8th, etc. Now subtract the area of the smaller rectangle,
In other words, each number on the list of the first lw, and you have left 8w + 8l + 64, or B.
5 is 5 less than a corresponding number on the list of Note that a common error on this problem is to
the last 5. consider the length of the big rectangle l + 4, instead
The total, then is 25 less than the list of the last 5, of l + 8. You have to count the 4 centimeters on both
making the sum 205. sides of the frame.
End
When finished
TIME – 60 MINUTES reading
32 QUESTIONS directions
click on the
Directions: Solve the following problems icon below
and indicate the best answer from the choices
given.
Numbers: All numbers used are real
numbers.
Figures: Figures accompanying prob- Dismiss
lems are intended to provide information use- Directions
ful in solving the problem. Except when other-
wise specifically stated, figures are drawn as
accurately as possible. All figures lie in a
plane unless otherwise stated. Straight lines
may appear jagged on the computer screen.
EASY
5. If 3 – x3 = 2 + x2 , what is the value of x ?
(A) –1
(A) 28
(B) 36
(C) 42
(D) 64
(E) 100
A
8. If (4x – 1) 2 = 0, then x =
B
60°
C
(A) x = – 1 O
2
(B) x = – 1
4
(C) x = 0 12. If the circle above with center O has an area of
16), then what is the perimeter of ABCO?
(D) x = 1
4 4
(A) 8 + 3
(E) x = 1
2 8
(B) 16 + 3
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III
(E) II and III
(A) 15%
(B) 27.75%
(C) 30%
(D) 70%
(E) 85%
(A) 100
(B) 122
(C) 150
(D) 200
(E) 220
MEDIUM
17. Of the following, the closest approximation to
(20 - 90)(201)
is:
10 - 45
13. Forty percent of the pets in a certain apartment
building are dogs. Of the pets which are not dogs, 24
are cats and 18 are birds. If cats, dogs, and birds are (A) 20
the only types of pets in the building, how many pets (B) 40
are in the building? (C) 60
(D) 80
(A) 70 (E) 100
(B) 90
(C) 110
(D) 130 18. A car dealer has a large inventory of cars of
(E) 150 which 25 percent are red, 15 percent are blue, 30
percent are black and the remainder are other colors.
For each color of car, 70 percent are equipped with
14. If (8 + 4 ) (a + 3) = 0, and a * –3, then a = automatic transmission and of these, 20 percent have
a
air-conditioning. What is the probability that a car
(A) –8 chosen at random will not be black and will have both
(B) –2 automatic transmission and air-conditioning?
2
16. If x is the product of three consecutive positive (A) 4
integers, which of the following must be true?
2
I. x is a multiple of 3 (B) 2
II. x is a multiple of 4
III. x is a multiple of 5 (C) 1
21. The value of x for which x2 + 6 = 5x 23. If circle O above has area x, what is the length
and x2 + 12 = 7x is, of its radius in terms of x ?
(A) –3 (A) x
(B) –2
(C) 2 x
(D) 3 (B)
(E) 4
x
(C)
22. A chemist starts with a solution that is 10
percent alcohol. After the chemist adds a certain x
amount of pure alcohol, the resulting solution is 25 (D) 2
percent alcohol. By what percent was the volume
increased? x
(E)
(A) 15%
(B) 20%
(C) 50%
(D)120%
(E) 150%
DIFFICULT
27. If N = 1000x + 100y + 10z, where x, y, and z
are different positive integers less than 4, the
remainder when N is divided by 9 is
24. A swimming pool is in the shape of a
rectangular solid, and its width is 25 meters, its length (A) 2
is 50 meters and its depth is 4 meters. If the pool is half (B) 4
full, approximately how much water, in cubic meters, (C) 6
(D) 8
is needed to make it 7 full? (E) 9
8
(A) 312
(B) 625 28. If x and y are positive integers such that
(C) 1,875
1 > 1 1 2
(D)2,188
3 x + 3 > 9 and 2 < y < 20, then which of
(E) 2,500
the following CANNOT be true?
a° b°
26. A store sold a total of 416 toy robots during an
8-day sale and a total of 275 toy trains during an 11-
a
day sale. The average (arithmetic mean) number of toy 29. In the figure above, if a+b = 3 , then a =
4
robots sold per day during the 8-day sale was what
percent greater than the average number of toy trains (A) 45
sold per day during the 11-day sale? (B) 75
(C) 105
(A) 28 (D) 115
(B) 47 (E) 135
(C) 67
(D) 108
(E) 127
30. At a certain store, 1 of the sodas sold in one 32. A bookstore has a shelf that contains
8
biographies which normally sell for $20 each and
week were Pepsis and 1 of the remaining sodas sold mysteries that normally sell for $12 each. During a
3
sale, the biographies and mysteries are discounted at
were Coca Colas. If x of the sodas sold were Coca different rates so that a customer saves a total of $19
from the normal price by buying 5 discounted
Colas, how many were Pepsis? biographies and 3 discounted mysteries. If the sum of
the discount rates for the two types of books is 35
percent, what is the discount rate on mysteries?
3
(A) 8 x
(A) 9
(B) 3 x (B) 10
7
(C) 13
(C) 7 x (D) 22
16
(E) 25
7
(D) 8 x
(E) x
I. a = b
II. b < c
III. a > c
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III
(E) II and III
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
1. D
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. E
6. A
7. D
8. D
9. E
10. B
11. D
12. A
13. A
14. C
15. A
16. A
17. A
18. A
19. E
20. D
21. D
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. C
26. D
27. C
28. D
29. E
30. B
31. C
32. E
GENERAL OUTLINE
KEY TERMS
READY…
1. Arithmetic
2. Algebra
3. Geometry
4. Word Problems
This question does not require you to determine the area of the lawn.
Rather you must determine whether the information given to you in the
statements, alone or combined, is sufficient to determine the area.
Authors Note: On the GMAT CAT, the answer choices will be preceded by
hollow ovals. You indicate your choice by clicking on the appropriate oval using
the mouse. In this chapter and in the rest of this book, however, the answer choices
will be designated by the letters A, B, C, D, and E for ease of reference.
THE DIRECTIONS
The directions for the Data Sufficiency questions are similar to the
following:
End
➩
When finished
Directions: Each data sufficiency prob- reading
lem consists of a question followed by two directions
statements containing data related to the click on the
question. You must determine whether the icon below
information provided in the statements, either
individually or combined, is sufficient to
answer the question given. Using the
information in the statements, plus your
knowledge of mathematics and commonly Dismiss
known facts (such as the number of seconds Directions
in a minute), you must indicate whether
The directions first describe the form of the Data Sufficiency questions:
a question (which is often accompanied by information or data) followed
by two statements. Note that the directions do not indicate that you need
to answer the question. You don’t. You are only required to determine
whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question. The directions
also indicate that you must use your knowledge of mathematics in order to
determine if the information in the statements is sufficient. The math
required by the Data Sufficiency questions is the same basic math required
for the Problem Solving questions, all of which is covered in the
Comprehensive Math Review in this manual.
The Data Sufficiency Finally, and perhaps most importantly, the directions indicate that when
Answer Choices a problem asks for the value of a quantity (“What is the value of x?” for
Note that the Data Sufficiency
answer choices are the same example), the information in the statements is sufficient only if it allows
for every Data Sufficiency you to determine exactly one value for the quantity. For example, if one of
question. Memorize them the statements tells you that x2 = 25, this is not sufficient to determine the
now so that you will not have value of x because x could be 5 or –5.
to waste time reading them
on the actual test.
(A) 90
(B) 120
(C) 160
(D) 250
(E) 300
Note that you are provided with the same information as you were when
this problem was presented as a Data Sufficiency question, but in this exam-
ple you must actually calculate an answer. Another important difference
between Problem Solving and Data Sufficiency questions is that you know
that the information provided in Problem Solving questions is sufficient to
determine the answer, but in Data Sufficiency questions it is possible that
the information provided in both statements is not sufficient.
➩
What is the value of x ?
(1) x > 13
(2) x < 19
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
B
Score Value: 500
(1) x > 13
(2) x < 19
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
➩
What is the value of integer x ?
(1) x2 < 13
(2) x4 > 60
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
Test Section Answer
Quit Exit Time Help Confirm Next
(1) x2 < 13
(2) x4 > 60
➩
➩
If x and y are positive integers, what is the value of x + y ?
(1) x2 = y
(2) x > 16
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
Or...
Score Value: 550
(1) x2 = y
(2) x > 16
➩
sufficient because it doesn’t give a value for y and it only indicates that
x is greater than 16. Combined, the statements are not sufficient. For
example, x and y could be, respectively, 5 and 25, or 6 and 36, giving
two different values for x + y.
➩
If x, y, and z are positive integers, what is the average
(arithmetic mean) of x, y, and z ?
(1) x + y = 20
(2) y + z = 30
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
(1) x + y = 20
(2) y + z = 30
➩
➩
Triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle.
What is the area of triangle ABC ? C B
(1) Triangle ABC is an equilateral triangle.
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
Test Section Answer
Quit Exit Time Help Confirm Next
A
➩
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
THE CHALLENGE
AIM…
THE DIFFICULTY WITH DATA SUFFICIENCY
The two principal mistakes test takers make on Data Sufficiency
problems are (1) failing to see relationships between the statements and the
question and (2) seeing relationships that don’t exist. From years of
experience writing Data Sufficiency problems, Phineas knows the average
test taker’s weaknesses and designs questions with traps and pitfalls that
exploit those weaknesses. Here are some of the mistakes that average test
takers make.
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
The average test taker knows that statement (1) is not sufficient
because there is no mention of the weight of the watermelons, and he
knows that statement (2) is not sufficient because there is no mention
of how many watermelons are in the shipment. Now, the average test
taker might think, “if I multiply the quantity (120) by the minimum
weight (3) I can determine the gross weight, so the answer must be (C).”
This is wrong. To get the gross weight, you need to multiply the
quantity by the average weight, which is not given to you in the
problem.
COMMON MISTAKE 2 —
SEEING RELATIONSHIPS BETWEEN THE STATEMENTS AND THE
QUESTION THAT DON’T EXIST
Score Value: 580
➩
If a machine produces 25 units per minute, how many units
did it produce in time period T?
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
Test Section Answer
Quit Exit Time Help Confirm Next
The average test taker might think that the correct answer is (D)
because both statement (1) and statement (2) provide the length of
time period T and, since you know the rate at which the machine is
producing units, determining the number of units produced in 5
hours seems a matter of simple arithmetic. This is wrong. Neither of
the statements mentions time period T. Regarding statement (1) you
can’t assume that the time period given is equal to time period T. This
is also true with respect to statement (2).
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
The average test taker will probably see that statement (1) is not
sufficient on its own to answer the question. Moving on to statement
(2), the average test taker will probably think that it too is not
sufficient, failing to notice that if x is an odd integer then x – 3 must
be an even integer. Statement (2) tells us that x – 3 is prime, so x – 3
must be equal to 2 because it is the only even prime number. If we
know that x – 3 is equal to 2, then we know that x is equal to 5.
Step 1: Read and understand the question before you move on to the
statements.
First read and understand the question. Before you move on to the
statements ask yourself what information you need in order to answer the
question. For example, if the question asks “What is the value of x?”, then you
need an equation or expression that will allow you to determine a single
value for x. But if the question asks “What is the value of x + y?” or “What is
the average of x and y?”, then you need the values of both x and y or some
equation or expression that will allow you to determine the sum of x and y.
➩
If x, y, and z are consecutive positive integers and x < y < z,
what is the value of y ?
➩
Test Section Answer
Quit Exit Time Help Confirm Next
➩
If x + 2y + 3z = 50, what is the value of x ?
➩
After you read the question and have some idea what information would
be sufficient to answer it, move on to the statements. Pick the statement
that looks easier and start with it. If that statement alone is sufficient to
answer the question, you can eliminate answer choices (C) and (E). If the
statement is insufficient, you can eliminate answer choices (A) or (B)
(depending on which statement you started with), and (D).
STATEMENT 1 STATEMENT 2
Sufficient Answer D
Sufficient Eliminate B, C, E
Insufficent Answer A
Sufficient Answer B
Insufficient Eliminate A, D
Insufficent Eliminate B
STATEMENT 2 STATEMENT 1
Sufficient Answer D
Sufficient Eliminate A, C, E
Insufficent Answer B
Sufficient Answer A
Insufficient Eliminate B, D
Insufficent Eliminate A
The above flow chart illustrates how you should eliminate incorrect
answer choices as you examine the statements. If, for example, you know
that statement (1) alone is sufficient, but you are unsure whether statement
(2) alone is sufficient, you can eliminate answer choices (B), (C), and (E), Eliminating some wrong
which gives you a fifty percent chance of guessing the correct answer. answer choices is better than
eliminating none - it also
improves your chances of
Step 3: If necessary, consider the statements together. guessing the correct answer.
You should only reach this step if you determine that each statement
alone is insufficient. If either statement alone is sufficient to answer the
question, you do not need to consider the statements together. At this
point, the only possible answer choices are (C) and (E). Consider all of the
information in the question and in the statements as one large problem and
ask yourself if you have sufficient information to answer the question. Also,
try to determine if information in one statement makes information in the
other statement more useful. Take a look at the following example.
➩
(1) xy = z –y
(2) z=9
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
Test Section Answer
Quit Exit Time Help Confirm Next
FIRE!
DATA SUFFICIENCY STRATEGIES
INSERTING NUMBERS
Inserting numbers for unknowns or variables can be as useful for solving
Data Sufficiency questions as it is for solving Problem Solving questions.
Any number property Data Sufficiency question (is x prime?, is x an odd
integer?, is x + y an even integer?, is x a multiple of 6?, for example) is a good
candidate for inserting numbers. If substituting different numbers for the
variables in a statement gives you two different answers to the question,
then you know that the statement is not sufficient to answer the question.
Try inserting numbers for variables in the following example.
Score Value: 550
(2) x is a multiple of 6.
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
Start with statement (1). You can pick the value 16 for x, which is
a multiple of 16 but is not a multiple of 48. But you can also pick 48
as a value for x, which is a multiple of both 16 and 48. Because you
are able to pick two values for x which satisfy statement (1) and give
you two different answers to the question “is x a multiple of 48?” you
know that statement (1) is not sufficient. Now move on to statement
(2). It is also not sufficient because you can pick the values 6 or 48 for
x, again giving you two different answers to the question “is x a
multiple of 48?” Now you can combine the statements. The lowest
number you can pick for x that is a multiple of both 16 and 6 is 48. If
you continue to think of larger and larger values for x that are
multiples of both 16 and 6, you will see that they are all multiples of
48, so statements (1) and (2) combined are sufficient to answer the
question.
➩
Is the integer m odd?
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
Test Section Answer
Quit Exit Time Help Confirm Next
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
➩
What is the length of side a ? a c
(1) a2 + b2 = 25
(2) b2 + c2 = 41
b
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
➩
What is the value of x ?
(1) x2 + 25 = 10x
(2) x2 – 8x = –15
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
Often one of the statements will provide you with all or some of the
same information contained in the other statement. Phineas does this
because an unwary test taker may become confused and assume that because
one statement is sufficient, the other statement, which contains some of the
same information, is also sufficient. Take a look at the following example.
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
ASSUMPTION TRAPS
Many Data Sufficiency questions are written in such a way that the
average test taker will assume information that isn’t provided. Here are
some of the most common assumption traps on Data Sufficiency questions.
➩
technicians at Company X increased by what percent?
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
➩
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
Is x2 > x3 ?
(1) x xx
(2) x2 < x4
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
If a, b, and c are all positive integers, is abc an even number?
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
Test Section Answer
Quit Exit Time Help Confirm Next
➩
What is the value of x ?
(1) x2 + 14x + 49 = 0
(2) x2 + 2x – 35 = 0
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
➩
For all positive integers s and n, the function @ is defined by
s@n = sn + 2s. If s@n is an even number, is n an odd number?
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone
is not sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone
is not sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are sufficient to answer the question, but
neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are not sufficient to answer the question
➩
Test Section Answer
Quit Exit Time Help Confirm Next
SUMMARY
-The Data Sufficiency answer choices are always the same. Memorize
them so that you will not waste time reading them on the actual test.
You must indicate whether:
- Step 1: Read and understand the question before you move on to the
statements.
- Step 2: Examine each statement separately, using the Process of Error
Identitfication to eliminate the wrong answer choices.
- Step 3: If necessary, consider the two statements together.
- Guessing
- Inserting numbers
- Counting variables
ANSWERS TO EXAMPLES
1. C
2.a E
2.b C
3. E
4. C
5. E
6. C
7. E
8. C
9. C
10. A
11. E
12. E
13. B
14. N/A
15. N/A
16. C
17. C
18. B
19. C
20. C
21. E
22. A
23. A
24. E
25. A
26. E
27. A
28. D
HOMEWORK/PRACTICE TEST
DATA SUFFICIENCY
ANSWER GRID
A B C D E
1 ! ! ! ! !
2 ! ! ! ! !
3 ! ! ! ! !
4 ! ! ! ! !
5 ! ! ! ! !
6 ! ! ! ! !
7 ! ! ! ! !
8 ! ! ! ! !
9 ! ! ! ! !
10 ! ! ! ! !
11 ! ! ! ! !
12 ! ! ! ! !
13 ! ! ! ! !
14 ! ! ! ! !
15 ! ! ! ! !
16 ! ! ! ! !
17 ! ! ! ! !
18 ! ! ! ! !
19 ! ! ! ! !
20 ! ! ! ! !
✄
End
➩
TIME – 25 MINUTES
When finished
20 QUESTIONS reading
Directions: Each data sufficiency problem directions
consists of a question followed by two statements click on the
containing data related to the question. You must
determine whether the information provided in the
icon below
statements, either individually or combined, is
sufficient to answer the question given. Using the
information in the statements, plus your knowledge of
mathematics and commonly known facts (such as the
number of seconds in a minute), you must indicate
Dismiss
whether Directions
(A) Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient to answer
the question, but statement (2) alone is not
sufficient
(B) Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient to answer
the question, but statement (1) alone is not
sufficient
(C) Statements (1) and (2) COMBINED are
sufficient to answer the question, but neither
statement alone is sufficient
(D) Each of statements (1) and (2) is sufficient to
answer the question
(E) Statements (1) and (2), alone or combined, are
not sufficient to answer the question
Example:
How much money did Bill spend on movie tickets
last week?
(1) Bill bought 3 movie tickets last week.
(2) Bill spent an average of $6 per movie ticket
that he purchased last week.
Explanation: Statement (1) indicates the number
of movie tickets Bill purchased last week, but not the
price of the tickets. It is therefore not sufficient to
answer the question. Statement (2) alone indicates
the average price Bill paid per movie ticket last week,
but not the number of tickets purchased. Statement (2)
is thus also not sufficient by itself to answer the
question. Taken together, the two statements do
provide enough information to answer the question.
Therefore the answer is (C).
➩
A Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (2) by itself is not sufficient.
B Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (1) by itself is not sufficient.
C NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient, but the two statements COMBINED are sufficient.
D EACH statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
E Statement (1) and statement (2) COMBINED are not sufficient.
4. What is the value of 2mn ? (2) Ten of the people waiting for the elevator
have an average weight of 54 kilograms.
(1) m + n = 8
(2) m – n = 8
z°
5. An arts center rents out a music hall for
performances, charging a base fee plus a commission
that is equal to a fixed percentage of the revenues
generated from ticket sales. How much did the arts x° y°
center charge for Thursday’s concert?
9. Is the the figure above an isosceles triangle?
(1) The base fee for a concert in the music hall is
$1,200. (1) z = 36
(2) The art center’s commission is 8 percent of the (2) x = 2z
concert revenues.
A Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (2) by itself is not sufficient.
B Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (1) by itself is not sufficient.
C NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient, but the two statements COMBINED are sufficient.
D EACH statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
E Statement (1) and statement (2) COMBINED are not sufficient.
y
(1) 3 =9
(1) k is an integer.
2
1
(2) k is prime. (2) < 50
(3 )
y
A Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (2) by itself is not sufficient.
B Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (1) by itself is not sufficient.
C NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient, but the two statements COMBINED are sufficient.
D EACH statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
E Statement (1) and statement (2) COMBINED are not sufficient.
II I
III IV
(1) pq < 0
(2) p + q < 0
(2) ab = 4 and c2 = 15
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
© The MBA Center 183
Total PrepKit for the GMAT® Step 5.2 Homework
1. D
2. E
3. A
4. C
5. E
6. D
7. E
8. E
9. C
10. D
11. B
12. C
13. B
14. B
15. C
16. A
17. B
18. C
19. E
20. B
EXPLANATIONS TO 4. (C)
DATA SUFFICIENCY Statement (1) is not sufficient. You could verify
HOMEWORK/PRACTICE TEST this by trying a few numbers.
For example, 2 + 6 = 8. Then, when you go back
to the question, 2(2)(6) = 24. Try another set of
numbers. 4 + 4 = 8. 2(4)(4) = 32. Since in one case
you get 24 and in another case you get 32, the
1. (D) statement is not sufficient.
Statement (1) is sufficient because the problem
states how many spectators the manager expected, so Statement (2) is also not sufficient. You could try
it is possible to compute 81% of this to find out how 10 – 2 = 8. Then, when you go back to the question,
many had full-price tickets. 2(10)(2) = 40.
Statement (2) is also sufficient because it is Try a second example. 7,000,008 – 7,000,000 = 8.
possible to compute 90% of 11,880 to get the Now, when you go back to the question,
answer. 2(7,000,008)(7,000,000) does not equal 40. (No
need to calculate here.)
= 36, which is even, so the answer is “no.” With 1 trickier to see why than in statement (1). An equation
“yes” and 1 “no” the answer is really “maybe,” which with a variable squared is sometimes sufficient to solve
is the same as “not sufficient.” for the variable, and it is best to actually work it out.
In this case:
(y + 4)2 = y2 9. (C)
y2 + 8y + 16 = y2 Remember that isosceles means that 2 sides (and
8y + 16 = 0 therefore 2 angles) are equal.
You can stop here, as you now have the same Statement (1) alone is not sufficient. The
equation you had in statement (1). Again, the equation statement z = 36 doesn't indicate anything about x
now is linear (meaning there are no exponents) and so it and y except that they add up to 144 (because 3
can be solved for 1 variable. angles of a triangle must add up to 180°). x and y
could be the same (they could each be 72), or they
could be different.
10. (D)
Remember to look to simplify equations, as statements
8. (E) on the GMAT will often miraculously turn into exactly, or
This question is tricky, because there are a lot of almost exactly, what is necessary to solve the problems.
unknowns. What is the maximum weight capacity of the
elevator? How much do the people who are waiting Statement (1) is sufficient. Simplify!
weigh? And which 8 of the 12 people waiting will get in? 2a(x + y) = 12
And what did they eat for dinner last night? (Just a(x + y) = 6
kidding.) ax + ay = 6
ay = 6 – ax
Statement (1) is not sufficient, because although Since this is exactly the equation in the question,
the problem gives the capacity of the elevator, it does the statement is sufficient to answer the question.
not give the weight of the people.
Statement (2) is also sufficient. Statement (2)
Statement (2) is also not sufficient, the weight gives you a value for each variable. Since the values
capacity of the elevator is not indicated. are given, it is possible to verify whether the equation
works. As is it not necessary to determine whether the
The statements together still don’t supply enough answer to the question is “yes” or “no,” it is not
information. If the 8 people who actually get in each necessary to continue.
weigh 54 kg, their total weight is 432 kg which is safe
(less than the capacity of 450 kg). But if, for example,
6 people get in who each weigh 54 kg, and the other
2 who get in were the 2 not referred to in statement 11. (B)
(2), and they each weigh 200 kg (that is possible, Before going to the statements, you might want to
albeit unlikely), the 8 would certainly exceed the just jot down the average formula:
capacity. With 2 different answers (1 yes and 1 no), a + b + c = avg
the statements are not sufficient. 3
Now go to statement (1). It is not sufficient
because you don't know anything about c. c could be
2, or it could be 2,000,000,000.
may look sufficient. When is x2 > y2 ? If x = 5 and y answer to the question would be “no.” But y could
=3, then x2 > y2. When you go back to the question, also be 100, in which case the answer to the question
the answer is “yes.” But what about trying negatives? would be “yes.” Statement (2) allows two different
Try x = –7 and y = –4. Again, x2 > y2 (49 > 16). But answers to the question and is therefore insufficient.
when you go back to the question, x is not greater
than y (–7 < –4).
18. (C)
Statement (1) looks sufficient, but actually is
not. (m + n)2 = 25 tells us that m + n = 5 or –5. Since
there are 2 possible answers, the statement is not
sufficient.
19. (E)
Here it is necessary to work out the possibilities.
End
➩
When finished
TIME 60 MINUTES reading
31 QUESTIONS directions
Directions: In each of the problems below, you will find a question click on the
followed by two statements, marked (1) and (2). You must decide whether icon below
the information given in the two statements is sufficient to answer the
question, based on your understanding of the principles of mathematics and
knowledge of common facts (for example, the fact that there are one
hundred cents in a dollar or that north and east are perpendicular directions).
Dismiss
You then are to select the answer
A if statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question but Directions
statement (2) by itself is not sufficient;
B if statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question but
statement (1) by itself is not sufficient;
C if neither statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question,
but the two statements COMBINED are sufficient to answer the
question;
D if EACH statement BY ITSELF is sufficient to answer the question;
E if NEITHER statement (1) nor statement (2) is sufficient to answer
the question BY ITSELF or COMBINED.
Numbers: All the numbers in this section are real numbers.
Diagrams: Diagrams are drawn as accurately as possible according to
the data contained in the QUESTION, but are not necessarily drawn to scale
as far as the new information in the two STATEMENTS:
Unless stated otherwise all figures lie in a plane. All lines drawn in figures
may be assumed to be straight. All angles indicated must have a
measurement greater than 0 degrees. The relative positions of lines, angles,
points, shapes etc. may be assumed to be in the order in which they appear.
For questions that ask for the value of a variable, a statement is sufficient
only when it allows you to find exactly one value for the variable.
Example:
How much money did Bill spend on movie tickets last week?
(1) Bill bought 3 movie tickets last week.
(2) Bill spent an average of $6 per movie ticket that he purchased last
week.
Explanation: Statement (1) indicates the number of movie tickets Bill
purchased last week, but not the price of the tickets. It is therefore not
sufficient to answer the question. Statement (2) alone indicates the average
price Bill paid per movie ticket last week, but not the number of tickets
purchased. Statement (2) is thus also not sufficient by itself to answer the
question. Taken together, the two statements do provide enough information
to answer the question. Therefore the answer is (C).
➩
A Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (2) by itself is not sufficient.
B Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (1) by itself is not sufficient.
C NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient, but the two statements COMBINED are sufficient.
D EACH statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
E Statement (1) and statement (2) COMBINED are not sufficient.
(1) 28 guests ordered the salad. (1) The combined length of 2 of the pieces is 130
(2) 35 guests ordered the soup. centimeters.
(2) The shortest piece is exactly 60 centimeters long.
(1) 3a = 5b
(2) a + b = 80
a
9. If = c , then what is the value of a ?
b
(1) bc = 4
5. What is the value of y ?
1
(2) b = 8 and c =
2
(1) 4y – 2 = 2y
(2) 2 +1=3
y
10. What is the value of integer x ?
(1) x4 < 25
(2) x = x2
A Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (2) by itself is not sufficient.
B Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (1) by itself is not sufficient.
C NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient, but the two statements COMBINED are sufficient.
D EACH statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
E Statement (1) and statement (2) COMBINED are not sufficient.
MEDIUM
y°
c 13. Is x3 > x2 ?
b
z° y° (1) x2 > 1
a (2) x > –1
A B
s r
15. What is the value of 2 + 2 ?
I II III
s r
(1) 3+ 3 = 6
D C
(2) r + s = 18
(1) The sum of the areas of rectangles I and II is 28. 16. Does c = 8 ?
(2) The sum of the areas of rectangles II and III is 24.
(1) The average of a, b, and c is 8.
(2) a – b = 0
A Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (2) by itself is not sufficient.
B Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (1) by itself is not sufficient.
C NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient, but the two statements COMBINED are sufficient.
D EACH statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
E Statement (1) and statement (2) COMBINED are not sufficient.
(1) v + w = z
P (2) w + x = y
R
S
D C 21. What is the value of a + b ?
(1) 2a + 3b = 15
(2) 6a + 9b = 45
17. The circular base of a statue is set on a
quadrilateral stand, as indicated in the figure above,
such that the circular base just reaches the edge of the
stand at points P, Q, R, and S. What is the area of the
circular base?
a = b2 ?
c
(1) c = b
ac
b
(2) c =
a
A Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (2) by itself is not sufficient.
B Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (1) by itself is not sufficient.
C NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient, but the two statements COMBINED are sufficient.
D EACH statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
E Statement (1) and statement (2) COMBINED are not sufficient.
(2) c =6
ab
26. In a clothing store, 60 percent of the shirts are
short-sleeved and 70 percent of the shirts are cotton. If
20 percent of the cotton shirts are white, how many of
23. An omega sequence is an infinite sequence of the cotton shirts are white?
positive integers that contains an infinite number of
prime integers. If D is an infinite sequence of positive (1) There are 300 short-sleeved shirts in the store.
integers, is D an omega sequence?
(2) Of the shirts that are not cotton, 1 are white.
3
(1) D contains an infinite number of odd integers.
(2) The integer 3 is not an element of D.
✪
x❐
24. A credit card company offered a promotion in
▲❋
1995 such that all users of credit card X would get a
travel voucher at the end of the year equal in value to
a fixed percentage of the amount of money charged on 27. In the multiplication problem shown above,
the credit card for that year. Mr. Pavlov charged d each of the symbols ✪, ❐, ▲, and ❋ represents a
dollars on credit card X and Mrs. Pavlov charged positive digit (not including 0). If ▲ > ❋ and ✪ > ❐,
$3,400 on credit card X. If Mr. Pavlov got a travel what is the value of ❐ ?
voucher equal in value to $380, what was the value of
Mrs. Pavlov’s travel voucher? (1) ✪ = 8
(2) ▲ = 3
(1) The vouchers were equal in value to $0.05 for
each dollar charged to credit card X in 1995.
(2) d = 7,600
A Statement (1) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (2) by itself is not sufficient.
B Statement (2) BY ITSELF is sufficient, but statement (1) by itself is not sufficient.
C NEITHER statement BY ITSELF is sufficient, but the two statements COMBINED are sufficient.
D EACH statement BY ITSELF is sufficient.
E Statement (1) and statement (2) COMBINED are not sufficient.
(1) ab = 1
(2) bc = 1 (1) 3n + 1 > 100
(2) 3n – 1 = 3n – 162
STOP
IF YOU FINISHED BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
1. C
2. E
3. E
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. E
8. A
9. D
10. E
11. D
12. E
13. C
14. C
15. D
16. E
17. B
18. D
19. D
20. E
21. E
22. B
23. E
24. D
25. D
26. A
27. D
28. E
29. D
30. B
31. B
GENERAL OUTLINE
The Verbal Section of the GMAT requires knowledge of basic skills in logic, grammar,
and reading. These concepts are the same for every GMAT and are tested in similar ways
on each test. The two most commonly tested skills in the Verbal Section of the GMAT are
making inferences (Critical Reasoning and Reading Comprehension) and spotting subject-
verb agreement (Sentence Correction). Inferences are implied in every Critical Reasoning
argument, and typically about one-third of the Critical Reasoning questions are inference
questions. In Reading Comprehension, inference questions were once somewhat rare,
though now you are likely to see two or three inference questions for each passage.
Sentence Correction questions which test subject-verb agreement are more frequently
asked than any of the other nine question types reviewed in your Sentence Correction
lesson. Though questions are mixed on the CAT Critical Reasoning, Sentence Correction,
and Reading Comprehension, the logic, grammar, and reading tested are distinct skills,
each requiring separate mastery and strategy. HINT
The 41 questions
in the Verbal
The sections are designed to test precise concepts that contribute to a comprehensive Section include
assessment of general verbal skills. Each general verbal skill is broken down into a certain 11 experimental
number of testing points designed to measure more specific verbal skills, which we’ve questions which
are unrecogniza-
simplified into question types. For instance, in Sentence Correction there are ten testing
ble from any other
points, Critical Reasoning has eight, and Reading Comprehension contains four. The ideal question:
GMAT assessment is a thorough assessment. the experimental
questions are not
designed to assess
Many students learned grammar long ago and, as with math, need a reminder of basic new testing points,
rules. Since the grammar rules tested are basic, if unfamiliar, and count toward roughly they are designed
one-third of your score on the Verbal Section (based on 14 or so Sentence Correction to assess old tes-
questions) we recommend that you take a look at the Grammar Review in this book before ting points in new
ways.
you begin the Sentence Correction lesson in Step 7.
THE CHALLENGE
The Verbal Section tests not only your mastery of certain verbal skills, but also your ability
to determine answers to difficult questions quickly and accurately. The principal challenge
of the Verbal Section of the GMAT is time. If you were given an unlimited amount of time,
you could probably answer all or nearly all of the questions correctly. However, the
testmaker designed each question in this section to confuse you, and the time allowed is
limited. As a result most test takers have difficulty finishing the section in the time allowed.
For these reasons, the MBA Center approach stresses both mastery of necessary basic verbal
skills and use of the time-saving strategies in the Critical Reasoning, Sentence Correction,
and Reading Comprehension lessons which follow.
The Verbal Section also challenges your command of standard written English. All of the
material in each of the three subject areas, Critical Reasoning, Sentence Correction, and
Reading Comprehension presumes a high level of competence in the stylistic conventions
and grammar rules of standard written English. Though the GMAT has been given in non-
native English speaking countries for many years, the test is still written in American English,
which can prove challenging for many test takers whose first language is not English. While
understanding the language in which the test is written is a significant challenge for many
who take the test, nearly all test takers are challenged by the analytical skills required by
over 60 percent of Verbal Section questions. The analytical skills tested involve your ability
to reason, to make inferences, and to understand logical relationships. While completing
the lessons which follow and practicing on your own it is important to understand how
these analytical skills are tested in the Verbal Section, since all Critical Reasoning questions
and at least two or three Reading Comprehension questions per passage are designed to
measure these skills. Though the skills tested in the Verbal Section should not be unfamiliar
to you, the challenge on the GMAT is to correctly answer questions which have been
designed to confuse you within the limited amount of time you are given.
When you begin the Verbal Section of the GMAT CAT, the computer will give you a
question (either Critical Reasoning or Sentence Correction) of medium difficulty. A medium
difficulty question is one that roughly half of all test takers get right and roughly half get
wrong. If you answer the first question correctly the computer will give you a harder
question. Likewise, if you answer the first question incorrectly the computer will give you
an easier question. This process is repeated for the rest of the section. Every time you answer
a question correctly the computer gives you a more difficult question. Similarly, each time
you answer a question incorrectly, the computer gives you an easier question. As you
progress through the section each successive jump gets smaller and smaller as the
computer focuses in on your level. In theory, you will eventually arrive at a point where
every question will be at your level. The score you receive for the section depends not on
the number, but on the difficulty level of the questions you answer correctly. The idea is to
award more points for difficult questions than for easy ones. Therefore, correct answers to
difficult questions increase your score more than do correct answers to easy questions.
CAT Strategy
In order to maximize your score on the Verbal Section of the GMAT it is important to
keep in mind how the CAT arrives at a score. Remember, the computer tries to find your
level of ability and assign questions to you accordingly. Early in the section, the computer
makes large jumps in level of difficulty in order to find your general level of ability. As the
section progresses the jumps get smaller and smaller as the computer focuses in on your
level. Because your final score depends on the level of difficulty of the questions you answer
correctly, it is important that you correctly answer the early questions in order to get
quickly to the harder, more valuable questions. Also worth noting is that not all questions
in the Verbal Section require the same amount of time to answer. For example, general
questions in Reading comprehension take less time to answer than do detail questions.
Because of the incredible time pressure on the CAT, it is important that you have a
strategy for managing time. Use the chart below to help pace yourself on the Verbal
Section of the CAT. Note that test takers who are weaker in verbal skills may want to spend
a bit more time on the first nine questions in order to be sure to answer them correctly.
Likewise, test takers who are stronger in verbal skills should move a bit more quickly
through the early questions in order to conserve time for the difficult questions later in the
section.
Time
9 27 41
1) You can’t skip questions on the CAT. Until you answer the question you are
currently on, the computer will not let you move on to the next question. So if you don’t
know the answer to a question, go ahead and guess. Don’t worry, there isn’t a guessing
penalty on the CAT.
2) Because the computer adapts to your level, you should find that nearly every
question on the test is difficult. For this reason you will have to guess more often than you
would on the pencil-and-paper test.
Because guessing is necessary on the CAT, it is important that you become good at it.
By using the techniques and strategies described in the Critical Reasoning, Sentence
Correction, and Reading Comprehension lessons, you will be able to eliminate several
wrong answer choices and improve your chances of guessing the correct answer.
When time expires, every question left unanswered in the section is considered wrong.
For this reason you should answer every question in the section, even if you have to take
random guesses at the end. Remember: there is no penalty for getting a question wrong.
Even if you take a random guess on a question, you have at least a 20 percent chance of
getting it right. So make sure to allow enough time at the end to guess on the final
questions if you have to. You should of course try to eliminate any wrong answers you can,
but if you can’t, taking a guess is better than not answering a question at all.
GENERAL OUTLINE
Sentence Structure
Subject-Verb Agreement
Noun Number
Verb Tense
Pronouns
Modifiers
Comparisons
Parallelism
Idioms
Style
About the great majority of rules there is no dissent. There are people who
say “I knows” or “he be,” but they generally know not to write that way.
About some rules, however, there are disputes. And these disputes can
become surprisingly heated in some circles. In one corner, there are the rigid
traditionalists who learned grammar from pedants and who cannot abide a
split infinitive or a preposition at the end of a sentence. In the other corner,
there are the radicals eager to abandon all rules and to accept the demise of
“whom” or the use of “they” as a singular pronoun.
Learn the 100 rules on the following pages, and you will be ready to find
and correct just about any mistake in a Sentence Correction question and
to avoid the most common pitfalls in writing AWA essays.
1. SENTENCE STRUCTURE
The first issue to consider in proofing a sentence is its structure. Is it a
sentence? SWAE has quite strict notions about what constitutes a sentence.
Beware the sentence fragment — that is, an incomplete sentence, a string
of words that does not have all it takes to make a sentence. Beware also the
run-on sentence — an overcomplete sentence, a string of words that should
actually be written as two sentences.
Rule 1 Every sentence must have a subject and a conjugated verb.
In speech and casual writing it may be acceptable to produce sentences
without verbs, but it is not acceptable in SWAE.
INCORRECT:Violence on television. That is what makes today’s young
people so indifferent to human suffering.
CORRECT: Violence on television is what makes today’s young people so
indifferent to human suffering.
1. The secretary arrived too late, the meeting had already begun.
3. The reasons for the price adjustment: increasing costs and decreasing
demand.
5. Martinez and Johnson were commended for the new layout. But Chung
deserves some credit as well.
7. Because the head writer was in the hospital — appendicitis — and the
artist was on vacation — honeymoon — progress ceased.
10. Test scores across the state have risen sharply under this
administration. However, there is still room for improvement.
2. SUBJECT-VERB AGREEMENT
Once you have verified that the sentence has a subject and a verb, the next
step is to make sure the subject and verb agree.
Singular subjects and plural subjects take different verb forms. No native
speaker has difficulty with agreement in the typical sentence in which the
verb immediately follows the subject. You would never mistakenly say “he
are” or “they is.” But when the sentence is more complicated — when the
subject and verb are separated, or when the subject comes after the verb —
subject-verb agreement becomes more complicated.
Rule 6 The subject and verb must agree no matter what comes
between them.
No matter how many words and what kind of words come between them,
the subject and verb must agree. Do not let extra information clauses
distract you.
INCORRECT:The rate at which falling objects accelerate are unrelated to
their mass.
CORRECT: The rate at which falling objects accelerate is unrelated to
their mass.
Rule 7 For most subjects in the form “X of Y,” the verb agrees
with X.
Usually the subject form “X of Y” consists of the subject X followed by a
prepositional phrase “of Y” that provides extra information about X. As
with any extra information clause that separates the subject and verb, the
“of Y” clause should have no effect on the agreement of the verb with the
true subject.
INCORRECT:The original intention of the tax cut measures were to jump-
start a sluggish economy.
CORRECT: The original intention of the tax cut measures was to jump-
start a sluggish economy.
Rule 10 Only the word “and” can make a plural subject out of two
or more singulars.
Such phrases as “together with,” “combined with,” “along with,” and “as
well as,” do not create plural subjects.
INCORRECT:The Senator, along with her husband and children, were
expected to attend.
CORRECT: The Senator, along with her husband and children, was
expected to attend.
INCORRECT:The Times, the Post, as well as the Daily News have called for
the judge’s resignation.
CORRECT: The Times, the Post, and the Daily News have called for the
judge’s resignation.
When one part of an “or” or “nor” subject is singular and the other part is
plural, the verb agrees with the part that is closer to the verb — usually the
part after “or” or “nor.”
INCORRECT:Neither her sons nor her daughter have been seen publicly in
recent weeks.
CORRECT: Neither her sons nor her daughter has been seen publicly in
recent weeks.
Rule 12 The verb “be” agrees with the subject, not the complement.
Even when the complement is plural, if the subject is singular, then the verb
must be singular.
INCORRECT: The only furniture were a lamp and a mattress.
CORRECT: The only furniture was a lamp and a mattress.
INCORRECT: There is not enough people in the department to get the job
done.
CORRECT: There are not enough people in the department to get the job
done.
INCORRECT: Each year there was more and more of what the
administration euphemistically termed “inoperative
statements.”
CORRECT: Each year there were more and more of what the
administration euphemistically termed “inoperative
statements.”
1. The only thing he values more than his career are his wife and children.
3. In the last ten years, the number of professional sports teams have
doubled.
4. The only person who knows where the keys are is Wilson.
6. Not in several days have the mother or the children been seen.
7. Nuclei that are too large or ones in which the neutron-to-proton ratio
is unfavorable are radioactive.
10. Never before in the history of the state has Montana’s vote-counting
procedures received more attention.
3. NOUN NUMBER
It can be a challenge to verify that the verb agrees with the subject when it
is not clear whether the subject is singular or plural.
Rule 16 There are some plural nouns that do not end in -s.
Some words borrowed directly from Greek or Latin have plural forms that
do not end in -s.
singular plural
criterion criteria
phenomenon phenomena
datum data
medium media
curriculum curricula
memorandum memoranda
bacterium bacteria
nucleus nuclei
radius radii
stimulus stimuli
alumnus alumni
Do not use plural forms such as “criteria,” “phenomena,” “bacteria,” or
“alumni” as singular nouns.
INCORRECT: The first criteria in the selection was experience.
CORRECT: The first criterion in the selection was experience.
“media”
This word is still used as the plural of “medium.” Oil painting is one
“medium,” pastel is another “medium,” and oil painting and pastel are two
“media.” Do not use “media” as a singular this way:
INCORRECT: Television is the preferred media for political advertising.
CORRECT: Television is the preferred medium for political advertising.
However, “media” is today very often used as a singular noun to refer to all
the agencies of mass communication as an entity. This usage is so
widespread that it can no longer be considered incorrect.
CORRECT: Everywhere the princess goes, the media follow.
CORRECT: Everywhere the princess goes, the media follows.
Remember, however, that someone may object if you use “data” or “media”
as a singular noun. To be on the safe side, treat them as plurals, just like
“criteria” and “phenomena.”
CORRECT: Some doctors believe that red wine, in moderation, is good for
heart.
CORRECT: The wines of California have an excellent reputation.
Rule 19 There are some nouns that look plural but are in fact
singular.
Here are some nouns that end in -s in the singular form and are unchanged
in the plural:
means series species
INCORRECT: The two specimens look different but are actually members of
the same specie.
CORRECT: The two specimens look different but are actually members of
the same species.
Here are some nouns that look like plurals but generally act like
uncountable singulars:
news mathematics physics
measles statistics economics
INCORRECT: The news are bad.
CORRECT: The news is bad.
It should be noted that, in British English, collective nouns are often treated
as plurals. The three “incorrect” versions above will sound just fine to most
British ears.
INCORRECT: Two hundred dollars are not too much to spend for a business
suit.
CORRECT: Two hundred dollars is not too much to spend for a business
suit.
Directions: Rewrite the following sentences to correct any noun number errors.
(Note that some sentences may be correct as written.)
6. This year’s promotional event attracted less people than last year’s did.
9. For the first time there were less species on the endangered list than in
the previous year.
10. None of students was able to complete the assignment in the allotted
time.
4. VERB TENSE
Rule 29 Use the past perfect (“had” + past participle) if one clause
takes place at an earlier time than another clause that is in
the past.
INCORRECT:The Civil War forced the United States to decide issues that the
framers of the Constitution raised but left unresolved.
CORRECT: The Civil War forced the United States to decide issues that the
framers of the Constitution had raised but left unresolved.
Do not use the past perfect unnecessarily.
INCORRECT:From 1920 to 1930, the number of automobiles in the state
had more than tripled.
CORRECT: From 1920 to 1930, the number of automobiles in the state
[...] more than tripled.
Rule 30 Use the future perfect (“will have” + past participle) if one
clause takes place at an earlier time than another clause
that is in the future.
Rule 31 Use the infinitive perfect (“to have” + past participle) if the
infinitive takes place at an earlier time than the rest of the
clause.
INCORRECT: When the sun will come out, the temperature will rise.
CORRECT: When the sun comes out, the temperature will rise.
INCORRECT: If the value of the dollar be higher this summer than last, more
Americans will vacation abroad.
CORRECT: If the value of the dollar is higher this summer than last, more
Americans will vacation abroad.
CORRECT: If a triangle has two equal sides, it also has two equal angles.
CORRECT: When water is heated to 100 degrees Celsius, it boils.
CORRECT: Whenever it rains more than an inch in one week, the river
floods.
(Technically, it’s not the past tense, but the contrary-to-fact conditional. But
the form is the same as the past tense for every verb except “to be.”)
INCORRECT: If Young earns a bigger salary, the family would travel more.
CORRECT: If Young earned a bigger salary, the family would travel more.
Rule 36 In the case of the verb “be,” use “were” in the “if” clause
even for the singular.
INCORRECT: If the department head were on vacation last week, then she
will be relaxed for today’s meeting.
CORRECT: If the department head was on vacation last week, then she
will be relaxed for today’s meeting.
INCORRECT: If Martha were able to get a ticket to the opera, she probably
got home late last night.
CORRECT: If Martha was able to get a ticket to the opera, she probably
got home late last night.
INCORRECT: If the rain continued another hour, the river would have
overflowed its banks.
CORRECT: If the rain had continued another hour, the river would
have overflowed its banks.
INCORRECT: If writers would refer to the dictionary more often, there would
be fewer misspellings.
CORRECT: If writers referred to the dictionary more often, there would
be fewer misspellings.
The subjunctive form is the same for all subjects. There is no -s suffix in the
third person singular.
INCORRECT: The advisor recommended that the student repeats the test.
CORRECT: The advisor recommended that the student repeat the test.
INCORRECT: Next time the associates will take seriously our insistence that
everyone is on time for a meeting.
CORRECT: Next time the associates will take seriously our insistence that
everyone be on time for a meeting.
Directions: Rewrite the following sentences to correct any verb tense errors.
(Note that some sentences may be correct as written.)
1. If two objects are dropped simultaneously from the same height, they
reach the ground at the same time.
2. If the stationery store was open yesterday, the office manager probably
bought some paper and pens.
3. If the team would have started the project a month earlier, they would
be finished by now.
4. If Americans would eat less red meat, they would have lower
cholesterol levels.
8. The lecturer began with a quick plot synopsis for the benefit of those
who did not read the novel.
10. Once the student will pass the comprehensive oral examination, she
has satisfied all the requirements for the degree.
5. PRONOUNS
Rule 43 Pronoun reference must be logical and unambiguous.
A pronoun must generally have an antecedent.
INCORRECT:The President objected to several provisions and vetoed the
bill; however, Congress overrode it.
CORRECT: The President objected to several provisions and vetoed the
bill; however, Congress overrode the veto.
And it must be absolutely clear what the antecedent is. It is better to repeat
the noun than to make the reader figure out what you mean.
INCORRECT:It is not surprising that Jackson produced a more incisive
analysis that Jones did, because he has less firsthand
experience.
CORRECT: It is not surprising that Jackson produced a more incisive
analysis that Jones did, because Jones has less firsthand
experience.
Rule 46 Use subject pronouns after “it is” and “it was.”
“Be” is not a transitive verb, but a linking verb. A pronoun after “is” or
“was” is not a direct object, but a complement. Use the subject pronouns
after “is” and “was.”
INCORRECT: It is him who must decide.
CORRECT: It is he who must decide.
Rule 47 Use the relative pronoun “which” for things only. Use “who”
or “whom” for people.
Do not use “which” for people.
INCORRECT: The film director which this reviewer most admires is
Hitchcock.
CORRECT: The film director whom this reviewer most admires is
Hitchcock.
The same rule applies to the relative pronouns “whoever” and “whomever.”
It is the clauses they introduce that tell you which form to use.
INCORRECT: This letter is addressed to whoever you think it may concern.
CORRECT: This letter is addressed to whomever you think it may
concern.
Here the pronoun is the object of “may concern.” You would say “you think
it may concern him,” and so “whomever” is correct.
INCORRECT: This letter is addressed to whomever you think may be
interested.
CORRECT: This letter is addressed to whoever you think may be
interested.
This time the pronoun is the subject of “may be interested.” You would say
“you think he may be interested,” and so “whoever” is correct.
EXERCISE 5 (PRONOUNS)
Directions: Rewrite the following sentences to correct any pronoun errors. (Note
that some sentences may be correct as written.)
1. My partner invited my wife and me to join him and his wife for dinner.
2. No one will buy such an expensive product unless they really need it.
3. The directors are looking for someone who they can trust to abide by
the rules.
4. When one considers the candidate’s youth and inexperience, you have
to say that the victory was unexpected.
5. If the television viewer loses interest for just a few seconds, they will
switch channels.
6. It is sunny and hot today, but they say it will rain tomorrow.
7. If one invests early and wisely, one will be able to enjoy his or her
retirement.
8. Because the parties have been unable to resolve the dispute, a judge
will have to do it.
10. The judges will award the scholarship to whoever they feel will benefit
the most.
6. MODIFIERS
Rule 56 Use adjectives to modify nouns, and adverbs to modify
anything else.
Adverbs are words that answer the questions “how?” “when?” and “where?”
Most adverbs of manner (adverbs that answer the question “how?”) are
formed by adding the suffix “-ly” to an adjective. There are, however, some
adverbs of manner that do not take the “-ly” suffix. The most important
ones are “fast,” “hard,” and “late.” There is no such word as “fastly,” and
the words “hardly” and “lately” have completely different meanings from
“hard” and “late.”
INCORRECT: The day went fastly.
CORRECT: The day went fast.
INCORRECT:The student worked hardly on the essay and got the good grade
she deserved.
CORRECT: The student worked hard on the essay and got the good grade
she deserved.
Do not use an adjective to modify a verb.
INCORRECT: He takes his career serious.
CORRECT: He takes his career seriously.
The adjective “good” must never be used as an adverb. The adverb is “well.”
INCORRECT: The soprano sang good.
CORRECT: The soprano sang well.
EXERCISE 6 (MODIFIERS)
Directions: Rewrite the following sentences to correct any modifier errors. (Note
that some sentences may be correct as written.)
3. Born and raised near the Mexican border, Spanish came easily to her.
6. Having decided to get the story at any cost, nothing could stop the
reporter.
7. Straight out of the oven and still piping hot, the family devoured the
whole pie.
8. Even after providing explicit instructions, the new employee did not
know what to do.
10. No longer sworn enemies, relations between the United States and
Russia have improved considerably since the end of the Cold War.
7. COMPARISONS
Rule 64 Items that are compared must be logically comparable.
A carefully written sentence will compare a quality to a quality, a quantity
to a quantity, or a thing to thing. Make sure the sentence does not, when
taken literally, actually compare a quality to a thing or a quantity to a thing.
INCORRECT: The taste of the artificial substitute is indistinguishable from
the real thing.
CORRECT: The taste of the artificial substitute is indistinguishable from
that of the real thing.
INCORRECT: The ink cartridges for the new printer cost twice much as the
old printer.
CORRECT: The ink cartridges for the new printer cost twice much as
those for the old printer.
INCORRECT: The mother envies her son because he has had more
opportunities than her.
CORRECT: The mother envies her son because he has had more
opportunities than she.
INCORRECT: Tanya earns a bigger salary than anyone in her family does.
CORRECT: Tanya earns a bigger salary than anyone else in her family
does.
Rule 68 Use the comparative form of the adjective with two items.
Use the superlative form with three or more items.
INCORRECT:Her children are both in college, the oldest at Harvard and the
youngest at Yale.
CORRECT: Her children are both in college, the older at Harvard and the
younger at Yale.
INCORRECT:Of all the films this reviewer has seen in the past year, this one
is the more memorable.
CORRECT: Of all the films this reviewer has seen in the past year, this one
is the most memorable.
Rule 69 Use the “-er” and “-est” suffixes to form the comparative
and superlative of one-syllable adjectives and some two-
syllable adjectives. Use “more” and “most” for longer
adjectives.
For adjectives of one syllable, the comparative/superlative is formed with
the “-er/-est” suffixes.
tall taller tallest
big bigger biggest
For adjectives of three or more syllables, the comparative/superlative form
is “more/most” + adjective.
beautiful more beautiful most beautiful
expensive more expensive most expensive
Most two-syllable adjectives also take the “more/most” form, but some take
the “-er/-est” form.
cheerful more cheerful most cheerful
happy happier happiest
A few adjectives have irregular comparative and superlative forms.
good better best
bad worse worst
far farther farthest
many more most
much more most
little less least
EXERCISE 7 (COMPARISONS)
Directions: Rewrite the following sentences to correct any comparison errors. (Note
that some sentences may be correct as written.)
3. The critic maintained that it was the worse film she ever saw.
5. Every year, more foreign tourists visit Paris than any European city.
6. The United States is the most rich and wasteful country in the world.
7. Alice may be younger than her husband, but she is more experienced
than he.
8. His job title is director of marketing, but his salary is still less than a
secretary.
9. Abraham Lincoln was perhaps one of the most wisest men ever to serve
as President.
10. Choose either regular or express service: the former is least expensive
and the latter is fastest.
8. PARALLELISM
Rule 72 Items in a list must be parallel.
If the first item in a list is a noun or a noun phrase, all items must be nouns
or noun phrases.
INCORRECT: Last month’s drop in sales was due to increased competition,
poor publicity, and because many clients were away for the
holidays.
CORRECT: Last month’s drop in sales was due to increased competition,
poor publicity, and the fact that many clients were away for
the holidays.
If the first item in a list is a conjugated verb or verb phrase, all items must
be similarly conjugated verbs or verb phrases.
INCORRECT: Our team is successful because we communicate effectively,
work well together, and we respect one another.
CORRECT: Our team is successful because we communicate effectively,
work well together, and [...] respect one another.
If the first item in a list is a gerund construction, all items must be gerund
constructions.
INCORRECT: Air travel means sitting in the same position for hours,
watching a bad print of a tiresome film, eating food that has
no flavor, and you have to refrain from smoking.
CORRECT: Air travel means sitting in the same position for hours,
watching a bad print of a tiresome film, eating food that has
no flavor, and refraining from smoking.
If the first item in a list is a prepositional phrase, all items must be
prepositional phrases.
INCORRECT: He searched for the lost item everywhere: in the house, car, and at
the office.
CORRECT: He searched for the lost item everywhere: in the house, in the car,
and at the office.
Rule 75 In the structures “not X but Y” and “not only X but also Y,”
X and Y must be parallel.
Rule 76 When you use “be” to equate or compare two elements, the
elements must be parallel.
A noun can be likened to a noun:
CORRECT: Vanilla is more popular than chocolate.
A gerund can be compared to a gerund:
CORRECT: Seeing is believing.
An infinitive can be compared to an infinitive:
CORRECT: It is better to give than to receive.
Avoid mixing grammatical forms in a comparison:
INCORRECT:Having a spouse with whom one can openly discuss failure
and self-doubt is to be happily married.
CORRECT: To have a spouse with whom one can openly discuss failure
and self-doubt is to be happily married.
EXERCISE 8 (PARALLELISM)
Directions: Rewrite the following sentences to correct any parallelism errors. (Note
that some sentences may be correct as written.)
3. The dieter resolved neither to eat too much nor too little.
4. He is not only responsible for the design, but also the execution.
8. The two biggest events in his life were when he got married and when
his first child was born.
9. By the time Baldwin arrived to help, his colleagues had already laid out
the site, cleared the land, and began to excavate.
10. The changeover to the metric system did not succeed because people
could not become accustomed to using meters instead of feet, grams
instead of ounces, or to using liters instead of quarts.
9. IDIOMS
Rule 77 “From” goes with “to,” and “between” goes with “and.”
Do not use “between” with “to.”
INCORRECT: Between 1980 to 1990, the population of Centerville grew by
50 percent.
CORRECT: From 1980 to 1990, the population of Centerville grew by
50 percent.
CORRECT: Between 1980 and 1990, the population of Centerville grew
by 50 percent.
No preposition is needed with a hyphen to indicate a range of dates.
INCORRECT: The symposium will take place in the nation’s capital between
August 11–16.
CORRECT: The symposium will take place in the nation’s capital [...]
August 11–16.
Rule 78 “Either” goes with “or,” and “neither” goes with “nor.”
Do not use “neither” with “or.”
INCORRECT: Neither profit warnings or gloomy unemployment news
deterred investors.
CORRECT: Neither profit warnings nor gloomy unemployment news
deterred investors.
Do not use “either” with “nor.”
INCORRECT: The young scholar did not intend either to contradict his
mentor’s theses nor even to question them.
CORRECT: The young scholar did not intend either to contradict his
mentor’s theses or even to question them.
Rule 86 The correct expressions are: “with regard to,” “in regard
to,” and “as regards.”
In the expressions “with regard to” and “in regard to,” the word “regard” is
a noun. In “as regards,” the word “regards” is a verb. In SWAE, “with regards
to” and “in regards to” are unidiomatic.
INCORRECT:The architectural firm has filed several complaints with
regards to city zoning laws.
CORRECT: The architectural firm has filed several complaints with
regard to city zoning laws.
All of these expressions are stuffy and wordy. Usually a simple “concerning”
or “about” is enough.
CORRECT: The architectural firm has filed several complaints about city
zoning laws.
Rule 87 Use “between” with two items. Use “among” with three or
more.
You can get away with the expression in speech, but do not write “could
care less” unless that is really what you mean.
CORRECT: I do not care enormously about the Academy Awards, but I
could care less.
“due to”
Use “due to” only after the verb “be.”
CORRECT: This morning’s departure delays are due to inclement weather.
Do not use “due to” at the beginning of a sentence or anywhere else to
mean “because of.”
INCORRECT:Due to circumstances beyond our control, the event has been
canceled.
CORRECT: Because of circumstances beyond our control, the event has
been canceled.
“epitome”
The “epitome” of something is the most ordinary, typical example.
CORRECT: The epitome of the suburban commuter, he spends four hours
a day in heavy traffic.
It is a common mistake to use “epitome” to mean “extreme example.”
INCORRECT: He is the epitome of a baseball fan: nobody knows more about
the game than he.
CORRECT: He is the extreme example of a baseball fan: nobody
knows more about the game than he.
“ironic”
An event that is the opposite of what one would expect is “ironic.”
CORRECT: It is ironic that such a sinner would become such an
accomplished religious painter.
Do not use “ironic” to mean “a curious coincidence.”
INCORRECT: It is ironic that Verdi and Wagner, the antipodes of nineteenth-
century opera composers, were born in the same year.
CORRECT: It is a curious coincidence that Verdi and Wagner, the
antipodes of nineteenth-century opera composers, were born in
the same year.
“literally”
Taken literally, “literally” means “actually,” or “exactly as the words say.”
CORRECT: He took the boss’s advice literally and jumped in a lake.
Do not use “literally” in a weak attempt at emphasis. In particular, do not
use “literally” when you really mean “figuratively.” The best solution is
usually just to delete it.
INCORRECT: Congressional leaders literally held a gun to the President’s
head.
CORRECT: Congressional leaders [...] held a gun to the President’s head.
“peruse”
Contrary to popular usage, “peruse” means “read thoroughly.” Do not use
“peruse” to mean “glance over, skim, read superficially.”
INCORRECT: The department head did not have time to read the report
thoroughly, so she just perused it.
CORRECT: The department head did not have time to peruse the report,
so she just skimmed it.
EXERCISE 9 (IDIOMS)
Directions: Rewrite the following sentences to correct any idiom errors. (Note that
some sentences may be correct as written.)
2. The candidate is not inclined either to debate his opponent face to face
nor even to respond to questions about the accusations.
3. Fletcher is not only the youngest member of the team, but, with three
university degrees, he is the most educated.
4. The world is a totally different place now than it was before the advent
of the personal computer.
5. The children were anxious to start eating, but they knew they had to
wait until everyone was served.
7. Just like a child does, he uses his finger to point at the words as he
reads them.
8. Her elocution coach taught her to pronounce her r’s like they are
pronounced in Britain.
10. The jury must first decide if the defendant is telling the truth.
10. STYLE
Rule 91 Avoid redundancy.
It is bad form to repeat ideas unnecessarily.
INCORRECT: We are ready for any unforeseen event that may or may not
occur.
CORRECT: We are ready for any unforeseen event [...].
INCORRECT: In spite of the fact that the director is more than eighty years
of age, the film which he recently directed can been said to be
fresh as well as fast, and it is funny also.
CORRECT: Although the director is more than eighty years old, his film is
fresh, fast, and funny.
INCORRECT: This year’s event should be as big if not bigger than last year’s.
CORRECT: This year’s event should be as big as, if not bigger than, last
year’s.
BETTER: This year’s event should be at least as big as last year’s.
INCORRECT: This team has not yet and never will surrender.
CORRECT: This team has not yet surrendered and never will surrender.
EXERCISE 10
Directions: Rewrite the following sentences to correct any style errors. (Note that
some sentences may be correct as written.)
2. When he goes to his country house for the weekend, he hardly never
returns back before Monday afternoon.
3. Due to the fact that it sold more than a million copies, the book was
considered to be a success.
5. He says that he has not, does not, and never will eat broccoli.
8. The 1969 World Series will never be forgotten by the old baseball fan.
9. The judges, who were five in number, could not reach a consensus of
opinion on a winner.
ANSWERS TO EXERCISES
EXERCISE 9 (IDIOMS)
1. There were something between twenty and thirty
thousand people in attendance.
2. The candidate is not inclined either to debate his
opponent face to face or even to respond to questions
about the accusations.
3. Fletcher is not only the youngest member of the team,
but, with three university degrees, he is also the most
educated.
4. The world is a totally different place now from what it
was before the advent of the personal computer.
5. The children were eager to start eating, but they knew
they had to wait until everyone was served.
6. The director of human resources uses quaint Southern
colloquialisms such as “fixin’ to.”
7. Just like a child, he uses his finger to point at the words
as he reads them.
8. Her elocution coach taught her to pronounce her r’s as
they are pronounced in Britain.
9. The experience of war in the trenches had a profound
effect on the young English poets.
10. The jury must first decide whether the defendant is
telling the truth.
EXERCISE 10 (STYLE)
1. Our nation must come together.
2. When he goes to his country house for the weekend,
he hardly ever returns before Monday afternoon.
3. Because it sold more than a million copies, the book
was considered a success.
4. The experiences cannot be compared.
5. He says that he has not eaten, does not eat, and never
will eat broccoli.
6. According to her itinerary, the consultant will fly to
New York and from there go by train to Boston.
7. The price of the possible new office is a bargain, but
the location is a gamble.
8. The old baseball fan will never forget the 1969 World
Series.
9. The five judges could not reach a consensus on a
winner.
10. The employee complained that the supervisor showed
him disrespect.
HOMEWORK/PRACTICE TEST
GRAMMAR REVIEW
ANSWER GRID
A B C D E
1 ! ! ! ! !
2 ! ! ! ! !
3 ! ! ! ! !
4 ! ! ! ! !
5 ! ! ! ! !
6 ! ! ! ! !
7 ! ! ! ! !
8 ! ! ! ! !
9 ! ! ! ! !
10 ! ! ! ! !
11 ! ! ! ! !
12 ! ! ! ! !
13 ! ! ! ! !
14 ! ! ! ! !
15 ! ! ! ! !
✄
End
➩
When finished
Directions: In the following ques- reading
tions, each sentence has four underlined directions
words or phrases. The four underlined click on the
parts of the sentence are marked (A), icon below
(B), (C), and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrase that must be
changed in order for the sentence to be
correct. Dismiss
Directions
1. The Organization of American States, stretching 6. Because of the severe hailstorms and the repeated
A A B
from the North Pole to the Southern tip of flash floods that have struck the area, the police
C
Patagonia and including virtually every nation in demand that everyone should stay indoors.
B D
the Western Hemisphere, display a surprising ability
C
to confront important issues facing the Americas.
D 7. Although he was always an excellent student, he
A B
did not deserve getting the highest grade on the
C D
2. Dorothy, in addition to Jill and Craig, who also biology exam.
A
ran for office in the State Senate, were defeated in
B C D
the primaries. 8. Joe explained that if he arrives on time, and
A B
everything goes according to plan, he wants to
C
3. The Federal Government recently judged that go to the movies.
D
many than 10,000 Eskimos is sufficient to sustain
A B C D
their ancient culture and traditions.
9. The Acme Car Rental Company became world-
A
famous thanks to its slogan: "Our cars break
4. After finishing the grueling, six-hour ironman race, B C
A down less than do our competitors!”
Hercules was so thirsty that he ran up to the first D
B C
unsuspecting soul - who happened to be Apollo - to
investigation.
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
254 © The MBA Center
Grammar Review
1. C
2. C 1. (C) Subject/verb agreement error
3. A The subject is ”The Organization,” a singular
4. D collective noun which takes the plural verb, ”displays”
5. C instead of ”display.”
6. D
7. C
8. C 2. (C) Subject/verb agreement error
9. D The main subject is ”Dorothy,” which is singular
10. D and therefore requires the singular verb, ”was” instead
11. C of ”were.”
12. C
13. D
14. B 3. (A) Noun number error
15. C The correct expression for this noun number error
is ”more than”; ”many than” is not a correct
expression of a countable quantity in English.
End
➩
When finished
Directions: In the following ques- reading
tions, each sentence has four underlined directions
words or phrases. The four underlined click on the
parts of the sentence are marked (A), icon below
(B), (C), and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrase that must be
changed in order for the sentence to be
correct. Dismiss
Directions
I have.
D 9. Since I never take sugar in my coffee, a habit I
A
have maintained since I was 20, I don’t think that
B
5. When living abroad and are looking for work, when I will go to Greece and am offered strong
A C
there is often a discrepancy between one’s abilities tea I will be tempted to sweeten the drink.
B C D
and the kind of job one must accept due to
D
competition and a reluctance to hire foreigners;
compromise”.
10. The operation, although newer and more 14. My new neighbor, who reminds me of James, an
A
experimental than it of traditional techniques, to old English friend living in Los Angeles, has a
B
remove the tumor from the philosopher’s head kind heart, a patient ear, and an easy laugh very
A B
was unsuccessful and no more useful than the similar as those of James.
C C D
radiation which caused his hair to fall out.
D
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
260 © The MBA Center
Grammar Review
4. All the women including the child was considered located in Portland, Oregon, the city where
A B C D
part of the demonstration which shook the it began.
C
foundation of Bender Hall and created a precedent
for all future demonstrations against war. 10. Unless Anne will put in the time to research her
D A B C
science project independently, her teacher will
5. When Virginia looked at the study on environmental never give her the grade she needs for her parents
A
problems in the Russian sector, she learned that to give her permission to go to the dance.
B D
there wasn’t many information to be collected from
C D
the old documents and asked her assistant to begin
a new analysis.
11. Eddie and Susan will walk forever tonight should 16. Plato’s theories of justice, the forms, and his
A A B
they not to find a warm dry place to put the new theories of the political structure of the state are
B B C
baby; even a tree with thick branches would still studied today while some ideas of more
D
suffice for shelter from the driving rain. modern thinkers have already been forgotten.
C D
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
262 © The MBA Center
Grammar Review
GENERAL OUTLINE
KEY TERMS
Statement: This is the original sentence located above the five answer
choices. It is either completely or partially underlined.
Answer choices: The five choices lettered (A) through (E) located below the
numbered sentence. They often appear in patterns such as the “3-2” and the
“2-2-1,” which are explained later in this lesson.
Same Error Answers: Answer choices that contain the same error as that in
the original sentence and change something else in the sentence to tempt
those who don’t identify the original mistake. There is rarely a set of answer
choices without at least one of these.
Almost Right Answers: Answer choices that correct the error in the original
sentence but introduce new errors elsewhere. There is rarely a set of answer
choices without at least two of these.
The Best Answer: The answer choice that is not only error-free, but is also
stylistically preferable. This is the one true answer to the question. There is
never a set of answer choices without one of these.
READY…
DIRECTIONS
On the CAT, you can click on the HELP button, and the directions for the
current question type will appear on the screen. Since you will need every
available minute to work on the questions, it is important that you become
familiar with the directions now so you will not waste time reading them
on test day. Below are the directions for the Sentence Correction questions.
Learn them now. They are always the same.
End
When finished
Directions: For each question below, part or reading
all of the sentence is underlined. Following the directions
sentences are five versions of the underlined part.
The first version repeats the original; the other
click on the
responses change the underlined part. Choose icon below
the best version of the sentence. If you think the
original is best, choose the first version.
Otherwise select one of the other responses.
These questions test your ability to identify
correct and effective writing. Select your response
Dismiss
based on the rules of standard written English. Directions
You should consider grammar, choice of words,
and sentence construction. Select the response
which most clearly and effectively expresses the
meaning intended in the original sentence. This
choice should avoid awkwardness, ambiguity,
redundancy, and grammatical error.
To review these directions for subsequent
questions of this type, click on HELP.
The directions that the test makers give you do not offer much guidance
for answering Sentence Correction questions. You know that each sentence
will be completely or partially underlined, and that the first answer choice
(choice (A)) will always be the same as the original sentence. Certainly, you
are supposed to choose the best answer, but what the test makers mean by
this is not entirely clear. Note that the directions do not say “choose the
right answer.” This is because there may be more than one answer choice
that is grammatically correct. The second paragraph of the instructions
explains what the test makers believe the “best answer” to be, but there is
no mention of spelling, punctuation, or the range of grammar rules tested.
As it turns out, you don’t need to know how to spell, you don’t need to
know much about punctuation, and you will see later in this section that
the number of grammar rules tested is quite small.
AIM…
STATEMENT
Note that the un-underlined part is indisputable. You should use the un-
underlined part to help you figure out how the underlined part should be
corrected.
ANSWER CHOICES
In Step 1 of this manual we saw that Phineas has an agenda. His goal in
giving the GMAT is to tell business schools which candidates have average
abilities, less than average, more than average, unusually high, etc. He must
therefore create wrong answer choices that tempt test takers. Specifically,
there must be some choices that are not completely wrong and yet have
something attractive to tempt some test takers. There are some questions
that are almost right, so that competent test takers will get them right half
the time and get them wrong the other half. Only the most competent test
takers get all, or nearly all, the questions right. We call the technique of
producing wrong answers according to the principles of standardization the
Looking in vain
Wrong Answer Factory.
Sometimes there is no error in
the statement. In fact, you
should expect (A) to be There are generally three types of answer choices for Sentence
correct as often as any other Correction questions:
choice – about once in five
questions.
Same Error Answers: Answer choices that repeat the error from the
initial statement, but change something else in the answer choice. Most of
the time, you will see at least one same error answer choice. This is apparent
in choice (B).
Almost Right Answers: Answer choices (in this case (C) and (D)) that fix
the error from the original sentence, but introduce new errors.
“2-2-1” - Sometimes you see a “2-2-1” pattern, in which two choices have
one expression, another two choices have a different expression, and a fifth
choice is completely different from all the others. These questions tend to
be a little harder, but after recognizing the “2-2-1” pattern you can begin to
eliminate any answer choices that contain the same mistake.
Knowing that the number of question types is limited and that all the
questions are written according to the Wrong Answer Factory principles, we
have designed an approach to Sentence Correction appropriate for each of
the question types.
Step 1: Read the initial statement and identify the type of problem
DRILL 1
DIRECTIONS:
FOR EACH SENTENCE BELOW IDENTIFY THE TYPE OF ERROR (IF ANY):
3. The French are renowned for their eating habits, not only for the
quality and preparation of their food, but also for the refined
manner in which they eat it.
What is the difference between the underlined part and answer choice (A)?
Answer choice (A): emerge the twin problems of unemployment and large
income gaps.
Notice that the first answer choice, (A), is always the same as the
underlined part in the initial statement. Keep in mind as you go through
this lesson that you always have choice (A) as an option for best answer. To
gain time, if you’re not satisfied with the initial statement, move directly
down to answer choice (B) and begin comparing all the answer choices.
Identifying Same Error Answer choices is the first step in the Process of
Error Identification. Same Error Answer choices are the easiest to spot, so
they’re a natural place to start. To spot Same Error Answers, find the answer
choices that repeat the error from the initial statement.
DRILL 2
DIRECTIONS: FOR THE QUESTIONS BELOW, DETERMINE THE SAME
ERROR ANSWERS IN EACH SET OF ANSWER CHOICES.
➩
Unlike previous hypotheses concerning climate changes,
paleontological circles have introduced a new theory for the
extinction of the dinosaurs in the form of a lethal comet.
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
The French are renowned for their eating habits, not only for
the quality and preparation of their food, but also for the refined
manner in which they eat it.
! (A) the quality and preparation of their food, but also for the
refined manner in which they eat it
! (B) the quality and preparation of their food, but by the refined
manner in which they eat it
! (C) the quality and preparation of their food, but also the refined
manner in which they eat it
! (D) their food’s quality and preparation, but for the refined manner
in which they go about eating it
! (E) the quality and preparation of their food, and the refined
manner in which they eat it
➩
➩
While some of the blood samples were contaminated today,
rendering them useless for further experiments, the scientists
already finished their research.
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
➩
Whereas warriors in centuries past counted among their
nations’ heroes, so too do today’s sports stars, such as Michael
Jordan and Ronaldo, embody the physical and competitive aspi-
rations of their countrymen.
Once you have identified and eliminated all the Same Error Answers,
only Almost Right Answers and the best answer remain. Because they are
more difficult to spot, look for Almost Right Answers only after you’ve
located and eliminated all the Same Error Answers. At this point, compare
slight differences in wording between the remaining answer choices and
look for Almost Right Answers, which correct the original problem and add
an error to another part of the sentence to distract you. Spotting and
eliminating Almost Right Answer choices requires a bit more attention and
skill than for Same Error Answers. This stage of error identification is critical
and is where most mistakes are made.
DRILL 3
DIRECTIONS: IDENTIFY
THE ALMOST RIGHT ANSWERS AMONG THE
FOLLOWING ANSWER CHOICES.
Score Value: 550
➩
Some popular music lyrics written during the late 1960’s and
early 1970’s, including those of Bob Dylan and Creedence
Clearwater Revival, were revolutionary for their time, as it
eschewed romantic musings for declarations of political protest.
! (A) as it eschewed
! (B) as they eschewed
! (C) in its eschewance of
! (D) in that they eschewed
! (E) as they had eschewed
➩
➩
Before the introduction of the Miranda Rights, persons
suspected of having committed a crime was subject to search
and interrogation without the benefit of legal counsel.
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
➩
The committee investigating the charges have found no
evidence of wrongdoing on the senator’s part, and will announce
their report next week.
➩
Having survived public disgrace and subsequent resignation
as President of the United States in the wake of the notorious
Watergate scandal, Richard Nixon’s image managed to alter from
political pariah to senior statesman in the latter years of his life.
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
After completing all four steps, only the best answer should remain.
However, when you cannot determine the type of problem, the four-step
approach is not of much use.
If you cannot identify the type of problem, compare the answer choices
for differences and similarities. Identify a key word or clause that appears in
all the sentences, and compare it with key words or clauses in the answer
choices. From this work you’ll be in a position to identify both the Same Error
Answers, in which the main error is the same as that of the original sentence;
and the Almost Right Answers, which correct the original error but introduce
new mistakes. Following these steps, and using the Process of Error
Identification, you can find the best answer, even if you cannot identify the
type of problem.
➩
Before he wrote his masterpiece Notre-Dame de Paris,
otherwise known as The Hunchback of Notre Dame, Victor Hugo
saw a small sculpture along the northern wall of the Notre Dame
cathedral in Paris that inspired the character Quasimodo.
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
STRATEGY AT WORK
Read the statement and answer choices below then turn the page for
practice with our five-step approach to find the best answer for Sentence
Correction questions. Score Value: 650
➩
A recent study from the Center for Disease Control has
concluded that much of the currently uncontrolled carcinogens
to which residents of northeastern states are exposed has not
been the major cause of increased breast cancer in the region.
If you are not satisfied with the initial statement, go directly to the
second answer choice.
On the grid below, cross out the Same Error Answer choices.
1 2 3 4 5 6
A
B
C
D
E
➩
A recent study from the Center for Disease Control has
concluded that much of the currently uncontrolled carcinogens
to which residents of northeastern states are exposed has not
been the major cause of increased breast cancer in the region.
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
On the grid below, cross out the Almost Right Answer choices.
1 2 3 4 5 6
A
B
C
D
E
FIRE!
Let’s look at the specific errors tested on Sentence Correction. Remember, Rule: The subject of a verb
there are many, many grammar points that could be tested. In this section must agree in number and
we are going to look at the ten most common errors on Sentence Correction. person with that verb.
It is a simple rule, but leave it
to Phineas to find compli-
cations.
A. SUBJECT-VERB AGREEMENT ERROR
Rule: The main subject of the sentence must always agree in number
with the main verb of the sentence. Be careful: Phineas is fond of
using collective nouns as subjects that, though describing a plural
group, use a singular verb. (See the Grammar Review for a complete
explanation of this rule.)
DRILL 4
DIRECTIONS: FROM THE TWO CHOICES SELECT THE ONE THAT IS
BETTER.
1.
A) The National Rifle Association, seeking to defend the rights of law-
abiding citizens and sportsmen, are lobbying to preserve free access
to armor-piercing bullets.
or,
B) The National Rifle Association, seeking to defend the rights of law-
abiding citizens and sportsmen, is lobbying to preserve free access to
armor-piercing bullets.
2.
A) After working on the computers for what seemed like days, the group
decided that the project was finished and that the members could
go home for the day.
or,
B) After working on the computers for what seemed like days, the group
decided that the project were finished and that the members could
go home for the day.
What is the subject? “Group” or “project”? Both are subjects with verbs
(group - decided) (project - was). The mistake is simple, despite the long and
difficult sentence. “Project” is a count noun, and, since it is singular, we must
use the verb “was.”
3.
A) The publisher is given to arguing with his writers, but in this case the
agreement, although 25 pages in length, has no room for negotiation.
or,
B) The publisher is given to arguing with his writers, but in this case the
agreement, although 25 pages in length, have no room for
negotiation.
The subject in question is “agreement.” Again, don’t let the extra infor-
mation clause (despite … long) confuse you. “Agreement” can be a count or
non-count noun; in this sentence it is count because of the article “the” and
must therefore take a singular verb, “has.”
4.
A) The legislative wing of the government, the group of politicians and
staff members charged with the writing and prosecution of all the
national laws, is prone to controversy.
or,
B) The legislative wing of the government, the group of politicians and
staff members charged with the writing and prosecution of all the
national laws, are prone to controversy.
5.
A) From all walks of life, students, teachers, professionals, and
performers alike must wait in line because employment, although
available through the government agency, is given based not on
experience, but on the applicant’s willingness to try new things.
or,
B) From all walks of life, students, teachers, professionals, and
performers alike must wait in line because employment, although
available through the government agency, are given based not on
experience, but on the applicant’s willingness to try new things.
What is the subject here? Phineas will always try to confuse you. It is
your job to break down the sentence into its critical parts. The subject here
is “employment,” a noncount noun that takes the singular verb, “is.”
6.
A) Even though he had driven around town all afternoon to get the
right papers, neither his passport nor the statements from his bank
were sufficient to prove his residency.
or,
B) Even though he had driven around town all afternoon to get the
right papers, neither the statements from his bank nor his passport
was sufficient to prove his residency.
➩
Out of America’s fascination with all products low in fat have
grown a market for diet brands of foods and soft drinks that are
forcing marketing specialists to change the way they advertise
and package their food and beverage products.
! (A) products low in fat have grown a market for diet brands of
foods and soft drinks that are forcing
! (B) products low in fat has grown a market for diet brands of
foods and soft drinks that is forcing
! (C) products that are low in fat has grown a market for diet brands
of foods and soft drinks that force
! (D) low-fat products have grown a market for diet brands of foods
and soft drinks that are forcing
! (E) low-fat products has grown a market for diet brands of foods
and soft drinks that force
If you can, determine the mistake in the original statement. When you
move down to the answer choices, remember always to skip over answer
(A). The original mistake concerns the correct subject, in this case the
inverted subject “market.” “Market” is a singular non-count noun and must
therefore have the singular verb, “has.” Therefore you can eliminate choices
(A) and (D), which both contain the plural verb “have.” What is the next
mistake? Notice the second verb in the underlined section changes with
each answer choice. Should it be “that is forcing,” “that force,” or “that are
forcing”? Again, establish the subject of this verb: who or what is performing
the action? “Market,” again. Since “market” is singular, you need a singular
verb. Eliminate answers (C) and (E).
Using the Wrong Answer Factory, you can easily eliminate answer
choices once you have determined the original mistake. If you can’t find a
mistake in the original statement, look directly at the answer choices. By
comparing what Phineas has or has not changed in the answer choices, you
can often find the mistake from the initial statement even if you don’t
know what type of problem it is.
B. MODIFIER PROBLEMS
Rule: A modifier will always describe the closest noun. Words or phrases
that modify should be as close as possible to the noun they
Modification Breakdown modify. Be careful: if the subject of the modifier is wrong, the
Rule: Words or phrases that sentence usually needs to be completely restructured.
modify another word should
be as close as possible to the
word they modify. DRILL 5
This is one of the hardest DIRECTIONS: FROM THE TWO CHOICES, SELECT THE ONE THAT IS
grammar rules tested on the BETTER.
GMAT.
1.
A) Having located the correct place where the digging and excavation
was going to occur, the shovels and rakes were put to work by the
laborers hired for the job.
or,
B) Having located the correct place where the digging and excavation
was going to occur, the laborers who were hired for the job put the
shovels and rakes to work.
Introductory verbal modifiers are difficult at first, but once you un-
derstand how to identify them, they are quite easy. In this sentence we have
an introductory modifier “Having located the place where the digging was going
to occur” with no subject. It will therefore modify the closest noun. Ask
yourself who or what is performing the action (who or what “has located”),
“shovels and rakes”? No, the “laborers.”
2.
A) Thinking about the project, although in a very thorough and
organized manner, Jack would have seen the problem sooner had he
just started working.
or,
B) Thinking about the project, although in a very thorough and
organized manner, the problem would have been seen sooner had
Jack just started working.
3.
A) Agile and keen-witted, the introduction of the domestic cat to the
Australian continent has threatened the survival of a number of
usually predator-free small mammal species.
or,
B) Agile and keen-witted, the domestic cat, recently introduced to the
Australian continent, has threatened the survival of a number of
usually predator-free small mammal species.
4.
A) Bread and Wine is a fictionalized account of a small Italian village
at the beginning of the Fascist movement, which many literary
critics consider Silone’s greatest work.
or,
B) Bread and Wine, which many literary critics consider Silone’s
greatest work, is a fictionalized account of a small Italian village at
the beginning of the Fascist movement.
Who, that, and which are modifiers and must be as close to the words they
modify as possible. Did many “literary critics” consider the “Fascist movement”
to be “Silone’s greatest work,” or is it the book, “Bread and Wine”?
Identify the original mistake. A modifier will describe the closest noun.
What is “important because of the skeletal material discovered there”?
Archaeologists? No, it must be some place, not some person. Eliminate any
choices with the wrong subject, (A) and (B). What’s the next mistake?
Again, refer back to the original modifier. What is “important”? The “caves,”
not the “excavations.” Eliminate answer (D). We are left with answers (C)
and (E). (C) looks good, because it corrects the original mistake, but we can
eliminate it because it is ambiguous what was “found by archaeologists”
(information or inhabitants?). Also, we can eliminate choice (C) because
it uses the singular pronoun “its” to refer to the plural “caves”.
DRILL 6
DIRECTIONS: FROM THE TWO CHOICES, SELECT THE ONE THAT IS
BETTER.
1.
A) The position of the Earth in relation to the Sun is always changing,
as its axis tilt is not rigidly constant.
or,
B) The position of the Earth in relation to the Sun is always changing,
as the Earth’s axis tilt is not rigidly constant.
In the second clause, what does the possessive pronoun “its” refer to?
Each pronoun must have a clear antecedent; “position” is not the subject
that is “not rigidly constant”; therefore we must add the correct subject in the
second sentence.
2.
A) Peyton enjoys the company of many friends, especially Jim and
Jason, but he is especially careful not to consider any one friend
more important than another.
or,
B) Peyton enjoys the company of many friends, especially Jim and
Jason, but Peyton is especially careful not to consider any one friend
more important than another.
➩
One result of the National Education Council’s recent study
of undergraduate life is the realization that in a student’s last
academic year, their concerns for job prospects often interfere
with their academic careers.
DRILL 7
DIRECTIONS: OF THE TWO CHOICES, SELECT THE ONE THAT IS BETTER.
1.
A) On his vacations, Phil always enjoys looking at the museums and
the small streets, finding out-of-the-way cafes and restaurants,
although he sometimes gets lost, and buys original paintings.
or,
B) On his vacations, Phil always enjoys looking at the museums and
the small streets, finding out-of-the-way cafes and restaurants,
although he sometimes gets lost, and buying original paintings.
2.
A) William Blake is renowned not only for writing works of poetry, but
also for the drawings and paintings that accompanied them.
or,
B) William Blake is renowned not only for his works of poetry, but also
for the drawings and paintings that accompanied them.
The idiomatic expression “not only … but also” requires that the two
items listed maintain a parallel construction. In the first sentence above,
“writing works of poetry” is incorrectly paired with “the drawings and
paintings.”
3.
A) Thomas Jefferson’s interests ranged from the study of paleontology
to reading classical literature.
or,
B) Thomas Jefferson’s interests ranged from studying paleontology to
reading classical literature.
Here, the idiomatic phrase is “ranged from … to.” Again, verify parallel
construction between the two items.
4.
A) To say that the Middle Ages was a period of chaos and loss of
culture is to do a great disservice to the many great artists and
thinkers of the period.
or,
B) To say that the Middle Ages was a period of chaos and loss of
culture is doing a great disservice to the many great artists and
thinkers of the period.
What is the comparison here? Noticing the words “to say” ought to be a
big hint for you. In order to maintain parallel structure, we must repeat the
infinitive “to do” and avoid the gerund “doing”.
DRILL 8
DIRECTIONS: FROM THE TWO CHOICES, SELECT THE ONE THAT IS
BETTER.
1.
A) Even after the defeat of the Spanish Armada in 1588, Spain’s fleet
remained greater in size and mobility than England.
or,
B) Even after the defeat of the Spanish Armada in 1588, Spain’s fleet
remained greater in size and mobility than England’s.
2.
A) The rooms of the Louvre, without exception, are more ornate than
the MBA Center.
or,
B) The rooms of the Louvre, without exception, are more ornate than
those of the MBA Center.
3.
A) Publishing journal articles and participating in the many lecture
circuits can be as important to a professor’s success as teaching
classes.
or,
B) Publishing journal articles and participating in the many lecture
circuits can be as important to a professor’s success as class.
4.
A) When I think of the French teacher, she pales in comparison to the
Spanish teacher’s beautiful spontaneity and passion for the small
things in life.
or,
B) When I think of the French teacher’s attitude, it pales in
comparison to the Spanish teacher’s beautiful spontaneity and
passion for the small things in life.
➩
Safety belts, although known occasionally to cause injuries in
automobile accidents, pose less danger to drivers and
passengers than airbags.
This sentence may sound right at first because people talk this way all
the time. (Phineas relies on the fact that you will think this sentence is
correct for that reason.) But, in fact, this sentence is ambiguous. It could be
interpreted to mean that safety belts pose less danger to drivers and
passengers than they do to airbags. Eliminate (A). All of the other answer
choices try to correct the faulty comparison, but only (C) manages it
directly and correctly, by inserting the “do” in the sentence as a verb to
accompany airbags. (C) should leap off the page for Correct. What is wrong
with the other choices? (B) compares the risks, rather than the safety belts,
to the airbags. (D) is wordy and includes a pronoun error (“that” instead of
“those”). (E) makes a quantitative error (“less” instead of “smaller” or “lesser”
– more on these soon), is wordy, and places the modifying phrase too far
from the subject.
approve/disapprove of ashamed of
based on between… .and
composed by/of concerned with
corrected by/about contrast to/with
credit with debate over
defined as different from
discourage from depend on
from… to further from
modeled after much as
not only… but also prefer… .to… .
refer to related to
regard as responsible for (something)
responsible to (a person) result in
result from composed of
consider
DRILL 9
DIRECTIONS: OF THE TWO CHOICES, SELECT THE ONE THAT IS BETTER.
1.
A) Research in astrophysics based on Einstein’s general theory of
relativity has yielded the concept of the black hole.
or,
B) Research in astrophysics based with Einstein’s general theory of
relativity has yielded the concept of the black hole.
2.
A) Regarded as priceless, the Crown Jewels are some of Britain’s most
heavily guarded treasures.
or,
B) Regarded for priceless, the Crown Jewels are some of Britain’s most
heavily guarded treasures.
3.
A) Visitors to California often prefer the compact, picturesque
cityscape of San Francisco over the sprawling, asphalt maze of
freeways that is Los Angeles.
or,
B) Visitors to California often prefer the compact, picturesque
cityscape of San Francisco to the sprawling, asphalt maze of
freeways that is Los Angeles.
➩
A great rivalry existed between the New York Yankees, who
represented professionalism and success, in contrast with the
Brooklyn Dodgers, perennial underdogs who appealed to
diehard fans and working-class New Yorkers.
Rule: The verb tenses in English are relatively easy to use; however,
there are some simple tricks. Unless a sentence emphasizes
the sequential nature of events, tenses rely on either the verbs that
come before them or a changing time signal.
DRILL 10
DIRECTIONS: FROM THE TWO CHOICES, SELECT THE ONE THAT IS
BETTER.
1.
A) The long beginning phase of the Quaternary ice age has not been
closely subdivided, but it is given the general name Villafranchian
in Europe or Blancan in North America.
or,
B) The long beginning phase of the Quaternary ice age has not been
closely subdivided, but it has been given the general name
Villafranchian in Europe or Blancan in North America.
This is another example of parallel structure. The same verb form must
be used throughout the statement, in this case the present perfect tense. It
is not clear which action occurred first, therefore we use the present perfect
to refer to any action that occurred in the past but that is connected to the
moment of speaking.
2.
A) Before Hubert set up the wildly successful publishing branch of his
new company, he launched an independent software venture that
sought to introduce new material through the Internet.
or,
B) Before Hubert set up the wildly successful publishing branch of his
new company, he is launching an independent software venture
that sought to introduce new material through the Internet.
There are two events here: the one that occurred first must be put further
in the past than the more recent event. According to GMAT rules, the
“Before” in the sentence clarifies the chronology of events, so “launched”
does not need to be changed to “had launched.”
3.
A) The teacher, although given to expressing his beliefs, had to control
himself when he told Jack that it was imperative that he wrote more
clearly on his final paper.
or,
B) The teacher, although given to expressing his beliefs, had to control
himself when he told Jack that it was imperative that he write more
clearly on his final paper.
The phrase “it was imperative that” calls for the subjunctive, which is the
dictionary form “write.”
➩
Some doctors who were faulted last week by health officials
for improperly prescribing drugs not fully tested by the FDA were
improperly briefed by their hospitals on new medications.
! (A) Some doctors who were faulted last week by health officials for
improperly prescribing drugs not fully tested by the FDA were
! (B) Some doctors who were faulted last week by health officials for
prescribing drugs not fully tested by the FDA had been
! (C) Some doctors that health officials faulted last week for
prescribing improper drugs not fully tested by the FDA have
been
! (D) Last week health officials faulted some doctors for improperly
prescribing drugs not fully tested by the FDA but have been In this sentence, you can
! (E) Last week some of the doctors who were faulted for deduce that the improper
prescribing improperly drugs not fully tested by the FDA but prescriptions came after the
improper briefing; hence, the
➩
had been
briefing occurred before the
prescriptions, and the action
should be further in the past.
Test Section Answer
Notice that among the
Time Help Confirm Next answer choices, only two of
Time
Quit Exit
them employ the past perfect
“had been”. Between those
two, which one is better?
The best answer is (B).
Is the order of events clear in the original sentence? Is it possible to
determine when the doctors were “improperly briefed”? No. Be suspicious of
the verbs immediately, since the last word in the underlined section is a
verb. Scan the answer choices quickly (just the last words) and you can
quickly eliminate answers because of verb problems. We need a certain
order of events, which means we need the past perfect tense. Answer choice
(B) has the past perfect, as does choice (E). (Eliminate (A), (C), and (D).) Of
the two, which one is better? Answer (E) has seriously altered the word order
so that the sentence has no meaning.
DRILL 11
DIRECTIONS: OF THE TWO CHOICES, SELECT THE ONE THAT IS BETTER.
1.
The two expressions “at least” A) At least three hundred thousand people or more gathered in front of
and “or more” both indicate the White House in Washington, D.C., in 1968 to protest U.S.
minimum amount; the choice involvement in the Vietnam War.
of which one to remove is or,
the test makers', not yours.
B) At least three hundred thousand people gathered in front of the
White House in Washington, D.C., in 1968 to protest U.S.
involvement in the Vietnam War.
The expression “at least” has the same meaning as the expression “or
more”. Therefore one of them is redundant. Be careful. Taking either expres-
sion out will correct the sentence.
2.
A) While it is possible that the Trojan War depicted in Homer’s epic
poems might have actually occurred, it is unlikely that such a large,
well-coordinated expedition was motivated by a love triangle.
or,
B) While it is possible that the Trojan War depicted in Homer’s epic
poems actually occurred, it is unlikely that such a large, well-
coordinated expedition was motivated by a love triangle.
➩
The Napoleonic code requires that all voting citizens must
have a fixed address and at least three different kinds of
identification.
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
Can you spot the redundancy? The phrase “requires that” calls for the
subjunctive. It is redundant and ungrammatical to include the modal
“must” or “should” with the subjunctive “have.” Eliminate (A) and (B).
Choice (C) adds an extra “that they.” Eliminate (C). Both (D) and (E) fix the
original mistake, but look what a mess (E) is.
DRILL 12
DIRECTIONS: OF THE TWO CHOICES, SELECT THE ONE THAT IS BETTER.
1.
A) Despite increased funds for political campaigning and voter
In comparisons between only
two items, only the expres-
registration reforms, fewer voters than ever before turned out for the
sions “less” and “more” can recent election.
be used. or,
In comparisons between three B) Despite increased funds for political campaigning and voter
or more items, only the
superlatives “least” and “most”
registration reforms, less voters than ever before turned out for the
can be used. recent election.
2.
A) Of all the possible disasters that face the Indian elephant, the
possibility of continued decline in habitat size is perhaps the more
difficult to prevent.
or,
B) Of all the possible disasters that face the Indian elephant, the
possibility of continued decline in habitat size is perhaps the most
difficult to prevent.
What is being compared in this sentence? Two things or more than two
things? “Habitat size” is being compared to “all the possible disasters,” a
plural term. We must use the superlative, “most,” because we are comparing
three or more items.
Again, here is a question where glancing at the first word of each answer
choice can lead you right to the question type. Should it be “much” or
“many”? That depends on whether the noun “carcinogens” is count or
noncount. In fact it is a count noun. (There are only a few noncount nouns
that end with “s”). Since it is a count noun, we can eliminate any answer
choice with noncount quantity words (choices (A), (B), and (C)). Now we
must decide between (D) and (E). (D) has changed the word order in the
sentence so drastically that the sentence no longer makes sense.
Rule: The GMAT prefers a concise writing style that avoids the use of
unnecessary or ambiguous phrases. Beyond your own under-
standing of proper writing style, it is helpful to recognize certain
style errors that appear repeatedly and render an answer
choice incorrect.
DRILL 13
DIRECTIONS: OF THE TWO CHOICES, SELECT THE ONE THAT IS BETTER
1.
A) Often the most difficult question for employees working in a
company undergoing being merged with a larger corporation is
whether or not they renegotiate a collective bargaining agreement
with the new company directors.
or,
B) Often the most difficult question for employees working in a
company undergoing a merger with a larger corporation is whether
to renegotiate a collective bargaining agreement with the new
directors.
There are two style problems here. The first is “undergoing being merged”:
whenever possible (and it is always possible), avoid the inclusion of the
word “being.” Second, when given the choice between “whether” and
“whether or not,” go with the former, which carries the same meaning, but
fewer words.
2.
A) After the First World War, the Conference of Paris was working hard
to make a settlement to bring lasting peace to Europe.
or,
B) After the First World War, the Conference of Paris worked hard to
make a settlement to bring lasting peace to Europe.
➩
resulting in convicted felons serving short sentences or none at
all.
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
The first words of the underlined section are terrible; they “sound”
wrong. Eliminate them, this is a style problem. Notice that answer (C) is
using the same words although in a different order; sound any better? Nope,
eliminate it. Could we say “have as the result” in a simpler way? We think so;
eliminate answer (B). Only answers (D) and (E) are left. (D) has a simple
modifier problem because it separates “short sentences” and “none at all.”
DRILL 2 DRILL 8
1. B 1. B
2. D 2. B
3. A 3. A
4. D 4. B
5. D
DRILL 3 DRILL 9
1. D 1. A
2. C 2. A
3. E 3. B
4. E 4. B
5. C
DRILL 4 DRILL 10
1. B 1. B
2. A 2. A
3. A 3. B
4. A
5. A
6. A, B
DRILL 5 DRILL 11
1. B 1. B
2. A 2. B
3. B
4. B
DRILL 6 DRILL 12
1. B 1. A
2. B 2. B
DRILL 7 DRILL 13
1. B 1. B
2. B 2. B
3. B
4. A
HOMEWORK/PRACTICE TEST
SENTENCE CORRECTION
ANSWER GRID
A B C D E
1 ! ! ! ! !
2 ! ! ! ! !
3 ! ! ! ! !
4 ! ! ! ! !
5 ! ! ! ! !
6 ! ! ! ! !
7 ! ! ! ! !
8 ! ! ! ! !
9 ! ! ! ! !
10 ! ! ! ! !
11 ! ! ! ! !
12 ! ! ! ! !
13 ! ! ! ! !
14 ! ! ! ! !
15 ! ! ! ! !
16 ! ! ! ! !
17 ! ! ! ! !
18 ! ! ! ! !
19 ! ! ! ! !
20 ! ! ! ! !
21 ! ! ! ! !
22 ! ! ! ! !
✄
End
➩
When finished
TIME - 25 MINUTES
reading
22 QUESTIONS
directions
Directions: For each question below, a part click on the
or all of the sentence is underlined. Following icon below
the sentence are five versions of the underlined
part. Response (A) repeats the original; the
other responses change the underlined part.
Choose the best version of the sentence. If you Dismiss
think the original is best, choose (A). Otherwise
select one of the other responses. Directions
These questions test your ability to identity
correct and effective writing. Select your
response based on the rules of standard
written English. You should consider grammar,
choice of words, and sentence construction.
Select the response which most clearly and
effectively expresses the meaning intended in
the original sentence. This choice should avoid
awkwardness, ambiguity, redundancy, and
grammatical error.
➩
1. In their research, distinguishing between Total (A) a danger that kills or wounds
Factor Productivity growth and capital investment is (B) as a danger killing or wounding
one of the most difficult tasks for economists. (C) killing or wounding
(D) as the deaths or wounds of
(A) is one of the most difficult tasks for economists (E) to kill or wound
(B) are the most difficult tasks for an economist
(C) is a most difficult task for the economist
(D) are the most difficult tasks for economists
(E) are economists’ most difficult tasks
5. While there is hardly unanimous agreement in
the field, some developmental psychologists have
found that much of the determinants of one’s future
2. Since last August, the pound has soared by 18% success in life is traced to the formative years of early
in trade-weighted terms at its highest level since childhood.
leaving Europe’s exchange-rate mechanism in
September 1992. (A) much of the determinants of one’s future
success in life is traced
(A) at (B) much of the many determinants of one’s future
(B) by success in life is traced
(C) for (C) much of the determinants of one’s future
(D) reached success are traced
(E) to (D) many of the determinants of one’s future
success in life can be traced
(E) many of the determinants of one’s future
success in life are to be traced
3. Huddie Leadbetter’s legendary performances on
the twelve-string guitar, Vincent Van Gogh’s landscape
paintings done in small rural towns in France, and
John Kennedy O’Toole’s A Confederacy of Dunces are 6. In the twelfth century students and masters
all examples of talented artists who only came into full migrated to the portion of the Left Bank known as the
recognition after their deaths. Latin Quarter, of which the name, though being
derived from Roman times, nevertheless continued to
(A) examples of talented artists who only came into be appropriate, because of all medieval scholarship
full recognition after their deaths being in Latin.
(B) examples of artistic works that came into full
recognition only after the deaths of the artists (A) though being derived from Roman times,
(C) examples of artistic works not fully recognized nevertheless continued to be appropriate,
when the artists were dead because of all medieval scholarship being in
(D) examples of artistic works that came into full Latin
recognition only after their deaths (B) though having derived from Roman times,
(E) artistic works which exemplify when artists do nevertheless had still been aptly named, for all
not come into full recognition until after their medieval scholarship was in Latin
deaths (C) having nonetheless derived from Roman times,
continued appropriately, for all medieval
scholarship had been in Latin
(D) derived from Roman times, nevertheless was
4. For residents of nations that have been involved still appropriate, as all medieval scholarship was
in wars in recent decades, the 110 million land mines in Latin
planted that have not yet been detonated remain a (E) having nonetheless derived from Roman times,
deadly menace, a danger that kills or wounds 30,000 had been named appropriately, as all medieval
people every year. scholarship was in Latin
7. In 1965 gold mining in Nevada accounted for (C) suggests that government efforts toward
forty-five percent of the gold produced in the United expanding wildlife preserves and stiffen
States; and sixty percent in 1995. penalties against poachers have been
successful, but that
(A) United States; and sixty percent in 1995 (D) suggests that government efforts to expand
(B) United States; in 1995 the figure was sixty wildlife preserves and stiffen penalties against
percent poachers were successful, but that
(C) United States; and in 1995 sixty percent (E) suggests that government efforts to expand
(D) United States; and sixty percent in 1995 was wildlife preserves and stiffen penalties against
the figure poachers have been successful, but
(E) United States that rose to sixty percent in 1995
12. Eisuke Sakakibara’s recent book, “Beyond (B) Unlike physics or other sciences, which they
Capitalism,“ which extols the successes of the Japanese admit require a rigorous study of basic rules,
economy, has allowed him to advocate almost any many people are disinclined to recognize that
economic policy without fear of charges that he is fields in the humanities, such as literary criticism
acting contrary to Japan’s interests. and philosophy, also require a rigorous study of
basic rules.
(A) Eisuke Sakakibara’s recent book, “Beyond (C) Unlike physics or other sciences, fields in the
Capitalism,“ which extols the successes of the humanities, such as literary criticism and
Japanese economy, has allowed him philosophy, bring out a disinclination on the
(B) Eisuke Sakakibara’s recent book, “Beyond part of many people to recognize that they
Capitalism,“ because of its extolling of the require a rigorous study of basic rules.
successes of the Japanese economy, has made (D) Many people, willing to admit that physics and
him able other sciences require a rigorous study of basic
(C) Eisuke Sakakibara’s “Beyond Capitalism,“ the rules, are disinclined to recognize that fields in
recent book which extols the successes of the the humanities, such as literary criticism and
Japanese economy, makes it possible philosophy, require the same kind of rigorous
(D) Eisuke Sakakibara, whose recent book “Beyond study.
Capitalism“ extols the successes of the Japanese (E) Many people have a disinclination to recognize
economy, has allowed him that fields in the humanities, such as literary
(E) By extolling the successes of the Japanese criticism and philosophy, require a rigorous
economy in his recent book, “Beyond study of basic rules while willing to admit that
Capitalism,“ Eisuke Sakakibara has been able they need them for physics and other sciences.
13. Recent research in geophysics indicates that the 15. Lasers, widely used today in such diverse
severity of the destruction caused by an earthquake technologies as medical endoscopes and compact disc
depends to a great extent on if the crustal movement players, were originally considered by many people to
that leads to shaking unfolds quickly. be a scientific curiosity of little practical value.
(A) if the crustal movement that leads to shaking (A) to be a scientific curiosity of little practical value
unfolds quickly (B) as being a scientific curiosity and of little
(B) whether the crustal movement that leads to practical value
shaking unfolds quickly (C) as scientifically curious and of little practical
(C) whether or not the crustal movement that can value
lead to shaking will unfold quickly (D) scientific curiosities of little practical value
(D) its speed for moving the crust leading to (E) scientific curiosities and to be of little practical
shaking value
(E) the speed of its crustal movement leading to
shaking
16. Just as merchants in ancient Rome relied on 19. Spacecraft that fail to break out of the Earth’s
naval patrols to keep trade routes free of pirates, so do gravitational field either burn up completely in the
producers of intellectual property today depend on atmosphere, which poses no danger of colliding into
international trade organizations to prevent illegal the Earth, and break up into large components
reproduction of copyrighted material. capable of withstanding the intense heat and pressure
of their fall back to the Earth.
(A) Just as merchants in ancient Rome relied on na-
val patrols to keep trade routes free of pirates, so (A) which poses no danger of colliding into the
(B) Like merchants in ancient Rome relied on naval Earth, and break up
patrols to keep trade routes free of pirates, so (B) posing no danger of colliding into the Earth, or
(C) Merchants in ancient Rome relied on naval breaking up
patrols to keep trade routes free of pirates, and (C) without the posing of any danger of colliding
in a similar way into the Earth, or breaking up
(D) As with the reliance of merchants in ancient (D) posing no danger of colliding into the Earth, or
Rome on naval patrols to keep trade routes free break up
of pirates, so too (E) with the posing of no danger of colliding into
(E) Similar to ancient Rome where merchants relied the Earth, and break up
on naval patrols to keep trade routes free of
pirates, just so
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
SENTENCE CORRECTION
HOMEWORK/PRACTICE TEST
ANSWER KEY
1. A
2. E
3. B
4. C
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. E
10. C
11. A
12. E
13. B
14. D
15. D
16. A
17. E
18. D
19. D
20. B
21. C
22. A
8. (D)
4. (C) Choices (A), (B), and (C) all incorrectly use the
Choice (A) is wrong because it illogically implies plural “numbers.” In (A), the clause “grew by more
that the danger, and not the mines, kills or wounds than a twenty percent increase“ is redundant. In (E),
people. (B) makes the same error and unnecessarily “was raised by more than a twenty percent increase“ is
includes the word “as.” The present participles also redundant. (D) is the only choice that correctly
“killing“ and “wounding“ correctly modify the noun uses the singular “number“ and avoids redundancy.
phrase “land mines that... detonated.” (D) leaves a sen-
tence fragment, as the conjunction “as“ requires a
finite verb in the clause that follows. The infinitive 9. (E)
construction in (E) implies that the purpose of the A quick scan here reveals a 3-2 split between
mines is to “kill or wound 30,000 people every year“ “suggest“ and “suggests.” Which is correct? The
and, grammatically, should not follow the comma subject is “decline,” a singular noun, and so the
after “menace.” singular “suggests“ is required. Eliminate (A) and (B).
(C) makes a parallelism error; “expanding“ and “Eisuke Sakakibara… has allowed him,” where it should
“stiffen“ are not parallel. (D) does not make this error, say “… the book has… allowed him.” (E) begins with a
as it correctly uses the parallel “expand“ and “stiffen,” modifying clause, followed by the correct subject of
but it incorrectly includes the word “that“ at the end. the modifier, Eisuke Sakakibara.
Rereading the sentence just for the grammatical
skeleton results in “the decline… suggests…. that the
continued decline… indicates that…“ There seems to 13. (B)
be one too many “thats.” This is a question of Notice that (A) begins with “if,” (B) and (C) begin
parallelism. The parallel structure is: “The decline in the with “whether,” and (D) and (E) use neither, but
EPA's index suggests that… but the continued decline of rather begin with “its speed“ and “the speed.” “If“
old-growth forest indicates that…” (E) correctly uses should never begin an indirect question. “If“ is only
parallel structure and has a verb (suggests) that agrees used for conditional statements. (B) and (C) are
with the subject (decline). similar, though (C) is longer and more awkward. The
“or not“ is redundant after “whether“ and the future
“will“ is also redundant. It is unclear in (D) and (E)
10. (C) what is “leading to shaking“ – is it the crust, the
Choices (A) and (B) do not have parallel tenses; moving, or the speed? “Speed for“ in (D) is also
they both use the past “was“ while the ununderlined unidiomatic. (B) correctly uses the word “whether“
part uses the present perfect “have been.” (D) and unambiguously indicates that crustal movement
incorrectly uses “none the less remarkable than“; the leads to shaking.
correct usage of the idiom for comparisons is “no less
remarkable than.” (E) makes the error of using “less…
as.” Only (C) avoids a tense error and uses the correct 14. (D)
idiom for the comparison. This looks like a nightmare question. The sentence
is long and completely underlined. Nevertheless, the
word “unlike“ at the beginning of the sentence tells us
11. (A) that there is a comparison involved, giving us a clue of
A quick look should reveal a 3-2 breakdown in where to begin. In (A), “Unlike physics or other sciences“
terms of verb number; (A), (C), and (D) use the plural should be compared to other academic fields. It
“emerge,” and (B) and (E) use the singular “emerges.” cannot be followed by “there is a disinclination…” In
What is the subject? It is a bit tricky here, as the (B), “physics or other sciences“ are erroneously
subject follows the verb. The subject is “twin prob- compared to “many people.” (C) corrects the faulty
lems.” Since it is plural, eliminate (B) and (E). (C) and comparison, but it uses the awkward phrase “brings
(D), besides being stylistically weak, are ambiguous. In out a disinclination on the part of many people“ and
(C), it is unclear whether the problems are 1) an ambiguously uses the pronoun “they.” (Does “they“
increasing income gap and 2) unemployment, or 1) refer to “fields in the humanities“ or “many people“?
an increasing income gap and 2) increasing un- Does it matter?) (D) is clear and idiomatic, avoiding
employment. In (D), does “large” modify only ambiguous pronouns and faulty comparisons. (E) has
“income gaps,” or “unemployment” as well. (B) is the many flaws, including the ambiguous uses of “they“
only choice with the correct verb number, a lack of and “them.” In the phrase “they need them,” who
ambiguity, and a clear style. needs what? “Many people have a disinclination“ is also
Note that the ambiguity in (C) and (D) is quite minor. unidiomatic; “many people are disinclined“ is better.
Phineas likes to give you choices in which the main error is
style, but to avoid being accused of giving subjective
questions (for, after all, style generally is a subjective 15. (D)
issue), they (or should we say “it“?) include very minor (D) is the only choice that uses the correct idiom of
grammatical faults as well. consider + adjective. Incorrect are “consider as“ and
“consider to be“ used in (A), (B), (C), and (E).The other
choices include other errors, too. (E), for example, is
12. (E) inconsistent. It uses “to be“ in front of “of little practical
This is a question of modifiers and pronouns. (A) value“ but not in front of “scientific curiosities.” (A) and
uses the pronoun “him.” What does “him“ replace? (B) use the singular “a scientific curiosity“ to describe
“Eisuke Sakakibara“ has not been mentioned, except in the plural “lasers.”
the possessive form, which doesn't count, as it is really
“Eisuke Sakakibara's recent book“ that has been
mentioned. (B) makes the same error and uses the 16. (A)
awkward phrase “because of its extolling of the This is a question of idiom. For comparisons, “just
successes.” (C) is unclear because it doesn't specify who as“ must be complemented by “so.” (B) is wrong
can advocate economic policy. (D) illogically states because “like” is a preposition and cannot introduce
End
When finished
TIME: 50 MINUTES reading
30 QUESTIONS
directions
Directions: In each problem below, either
click on the
part or all of the sentence is underlined. icon below
Following the sentence are five versions of
the underlined part. Answer choice (A)
repeats the original; the other answer choices
vary. If you think that the original phrasing is Dismiss
best, choose (A). If you think one of the other
answer choices is best, select that choice.
Directions
EASY
4. Of all the efforts to prevent Napoleon's 1812
campaign into Russia, the destruction of crops, stores
1. The decline in levels of educational achievement of grain, and livestock by the retreating Russian army
among grade-school students, whether the result of was perhaps the more effective.
decreasing emphasis on homework or of inadequate
public school systems, have been a disturbing national (A) the destruction of crops, stores of grain, and
trend. livestock by the retreating Russian army was
perhaps the more effective
(A) have been a disturbing national trend (B) the destruction of crops, stores of grain, and
(B) have caused a national disturbance livestock by the retreating Russian army was
(C) has been a cause of national disturbance perhaps the most effective
(D) has been a disturbing national trend (C) in the destruction of crops, stores of grain and
(E) has been disturbing the national trend livestock by the retreating Russian army was
perhaps the most effective
(D) destroying crops, stores of grain and livestock
by the retreating Russian army was perhaps the
2. While some vacationers prefer destinations more effective
offering luxury and convenience, others choose more (E) the most effective on the part of the Russian
remote locations where little news or services exist. army being perhaps the destruction of crops,
stores of grain and livestock
(A) little news or services exist
(B) little news or services exists
(C) few services and little news exists
(D) there is little news or services available 5. We know less about prehistoric peoples that left
(E) there are few services and little available news their legacy only in stones, bones, and pottery, than we
do about the Sumerians, who were the world's first
writers and historians.
3. In a surprising turnaround, the City Council (A) prehistoric peoples that left their
announced that it would overturn the decision to (B) prehistoric peoples, who left their
impose a weekday curfew of 10:00 p.m. on minors. (C) prehistoric peoples and their
(D) prehistoric peoples leaving its
(A) it would overturn the decision to impose a (E) prehistoric peoples leaving their
weekday curfew
(B) it would overturn the impose of a weekday
curfew
(C) it would overturn to impose a weekday curfew 6. In industrialized nations, recent generations of
(D) they would overturn the imposition of a curfew parents tend to have less children than did their
on the weekdays ancestors.
(E) they would overturn the decision to impose a
weekday curfew (A) tend to have less children
(B) have a tendency to have fewer children
(C) tend to have a few less children
(D) tend to have fewer children
(E) not so many children
MEDIUM
9. The challenges faced by many developing
African nations include the establishment of a stable,
democratic government, fighting the spread of AIDS,
7. Mastering both the technical complexities and and nurturing their domestic industries.
physical demands of the sport, Dan Gable’s wrestling
career, which culminated in an Olympic gold medal, (A) the establishment of a stable, democratic
has distinguished him as one of America’s all-time government, fighting the spread of AIDS, and
greatest wrestlers. nurturing their domestic industries
(B) establishing a stable, democratic government,
(A) Dan Gable’s wrestling career, which culminated fighting the spread of AIDS, and nurturing their
in an Olympic gold medal, has distinguished domestic industries
him as one of America’s all-time greatest (C) the establishment of a stable, democratic
wrestlers government, the fight against the spread of
(B) Dan Gable’s wrestling career, which has AIDS, and nurturing their domestic industries
distinguished him as one of America’s all-time (D) to establish a stable, democratic government,
greatest wrestlers, culminated in an Olympic fight the spread of AIDS, and nurture their
gold medal domestic industries
(C) Dan Gable, one of America’s all-time greatest (E) the establishment of a government which is
wrestlers, culminated his career by winning an both stable and democratic, the fight against
Olympic gold medal the spread of AIDS, and to nurture their
(D) Dan Gable culminated his career with an domestic industries
Olympic gold medal, one of America’s all-time
greatest wrestlers
(E) the Olympic gold medal won by Dan Gable
distinguished him as one of America’s all-time 10. In an attempt to wage its war on drugs at all
greatest wrestlers levels, the Drug Enforcement Agency has focused its
efforts both on the small-time dealer, who is subject to
mandatory prison sentences for drug-related offenses,
and on the leaders of international trafficking rings,
8. The hospital planning commission has begun to who are now pursued even in their own countries.
institute new guidelines that require of health care
employees the wearing of face masks and gloves. (A) both on the small-time dealer, who is subject to
mandatory prison sentences for drug-related
(A) that require of health care employees the offenses, and on the leaders of international
wearing of face masks and gloves trafficking rings, who are now pursued even
(B) that require health care employees wearing (B) both on the small-time dealer, who is subject to
face masks and gloves mandatory prison sentences for drug-related
(C) that require health care employees to wear face offenses, and pursuing the leaders of
masks and gloves international trafficking rings
(D) requiring face masks and gloves being worn by (C) both on the small-time dealer, who is subject to
health care employees mandatory prison sentences for drug-related
(E) to require of health care employees that they offenses, and on the leaders of international
wear face masks and gloves trafficking rings, the pursuit taking place even
(D) both on the small-time dealer, being subject to
mandatory prison sentences for drug-related
offenses, and on the leaders of international
trafficking rings, being now pursued even
(E) both on the small-time dealer, who is subjected
to mandatory prison sentences for drug-related
offenses, and on trafficking by leaders of
international trafficking rings, who are now
pursued even
11. What was as extraordinary as Beethoven’s 13. Medical researchers, alarmed by the
musical development and impressive productivity has appearance of a lethal new strain of influenza, are
been his influence on successive generations of devoting their efforts to understanding and to develop
classical composers such as Robert Schumann, Anton a vaccine against it.
Bruckner, and Gustav Mahler.
(A) are devoting their efforts to understanding and
(A) What was as extraordinary as Beethoven’s to develop
musical development and impressive produc- (B) are devoting their efforts in order to understand
tivity and develop
(B) The thing that was as extraordinary as (C) are devoting their efforts first to understanding
Beethoven’s musical development and impres- it, then to developing
sive productivity (D) are devoting their efforts to the understanding
(C) No less extraordinary than Beethoven’s musical of and the development of
development and impressive productivity (E) is devoting their efforts to understand it, then
(D) Extraordinary musical development, for develop
Beethoven, and impressive productivity
(E) Development of Beethoven’s extraordinary
music has been no less impressive as his pro-
ductivity 14. According to studies by the Commerce
Department, families, which are richer than ever
before, is holding much less in cash than they were
only ten years ago.
12. Stephen Hawking's theories concerning the
concept of the black hole suggest that the universe (A) which are richer than ever before, is holding
began from a singular point, and that it will continue much less in cash than they were
to expand. (B) which are richer than ever before, are holding
much less in cash than they were
(A) suggest that the universe began from a singular (C) which are richer than ever before, are holding
point, and that it will continue to expand much less in cash than
(B) suggests that the universe began from a (D) which are richer than ever before, are holding
singular point, and that it will continue to much fewer in cash than
expand (E) which are richer than ever before, are holding
(C) suggests that the universe began from a fewer cash than they were
singular point, and that expansion has occurred
and will continue
(D) suggest that the universe began from a singular
point, but that it has and will continue to
expand
(E) suggest a singular point as having started the
universe, but expansion will continue
DIFFICULT
15. The Rosetta Stone, one of archeology's most
significant and valuable finds, are on display in the
British Museum.
17. Less expensive than a long-distance telephone
(A) are on display in the British Museum call and swifter and more convenient than a letter, an
(B) are displayed in the British Museum e-mail recipient may send and receive messages
(C) is on display in the British Museum virtually instantly from around the world.
(D) is in the British Museum, on display
(E) is a display in the British Museum (A) an e-mail recipient may send and receive
messages virtually instantly from around the
world
(B) an e-mail recipient may send and receive
16. To create a fantastic new invention and messages around the world at a fraction of the
successfully marketing it are two very different tasks. cost and with infinitely greater speed than was
previously possible
(A) successfully marketing it are two very different (C) an e-mail address allows its owner to send
tasks messages and receive them as well virtually
(B) to market it successfully are two very different instantaneously from around the world
tasks (D) e-mail enables messages to be sent and
(C) the successful marketing of it is two very received virtually instantly around the world
different tasks (E) e-mail allows the sending and receiving of
(D) to market it with success is a very different task written messages to be achieved instantly
(E) having marketed it successfully are different around the world
tasks
19. The defenders against foreign invaders, the 21. Unlike previous hypotheses concerning climate
bone marrow creates white blood cells, also known as changes, paleontological circles have introduced a
lymphocytes. new theory for the extinction of the dinosaurs in the
form of a lethal comet.
(A) The defenders against foreign invaders, the
bone marrow creates white blood cells, also (A) paleontological circles have introduced a new
known as lymphocytes. theory for the extinction of the dinosaurs in the
(B) Defending the body against foreign invaders, form of a lethal comet
white blood cells are created in the bone (B) paleontologists are examining a new theory for
marrow, also known as lymphocytes. the extinction of the dinosaurs, one involving a
(C) Created in the bone marrow, defense against lethal comet
foreign invaders is provided by white blood (C) a new theory for the extinction of the dinosaurs
cells, also known as lymphocytes. has made its way into paleontological circles,
(D) Created in the bone marrow, white blood cells, this time citing a lethal comet as the cause of
also known as lymphocytes, defend the body extinction
against foreign invaders. (D) a new theory citing a lethal comet as the cause
(E) The bone marrow creates white blood cells, the of extinction of the dinosaurs has made its way
defenders against foreign invaders, also known into paleontological circles
as lymphocytes. (E) the introduction of a new theory, citing a lethal
comet as the cause of dinosaur extinction, has
made its way into paleontological circles
23. Although their marriage was a tumultuous one, 25. Depending on the source, the legend of King
F. Scott Fitzgerald and Zelda maintained a regular Arthur and the Knights of the Round Table take place
correspondence in which they confided their most either in the French region of Brittany or in parts of
intimate thoughts only to one another. England.
(A) to one another (A) take place either in the French region of
(B) one with the other Brittany or in
(C) one with another (B) take place in either the French region of
(D) each other Brittany or in
(E) to each other (C) takes place in either the French region of
Brittany or in
(D) takes place either in the French region of
Brittany or in
24. While some of the blood samples were (E) either take place in the French region of
contaminated today, rendering them useless for Brittany or
further experiments, the scientists already finished
their research.
(A) While some of the blood samples were 26. While some environmental litigators believe
contaminated today, rendering them useless for that environmental law should be a requirement in
further experiments, the scientists every law school curriculum, others maintain that
(B) While some of the blood samples had been students should study environmental law only if it
contaminated today, rendering them useless for would be offered as a separately elective course.
further experiments, the scientists
(C) Some of the blood samples had been (A) only if it would be offered as a separately
contaminated today, rendering them useless for elective course
further experiments; fortunately, the scientists (B) if it would only be offered as an elective course,
had separately
(D) Though some of the blood samples were (C) if it was offered only as a course elected
contaminated today, rendering them useless for separately
further experiments, the scientists had (D) if it would be offered only as a course separated
(E) Today some of the blood samples were and elective
contaminated, rendering them useless for (E) only if it is offered as a separate, elective course
further experiments, but the scientists
27. Director Martin Scorsese and actor Robert De 29. While it is probable that a single mother
Niro have worked together on numerous films, from language may very well have spawned all the world's
Taxi Driver, a disturbing portrait of one man's languages, determining its specific origins has proven
alienation and insanity, and Raging Bull, a difficult for linguists.
biographical account of boxer Jake La Motta.
(A) may very well have spawned all
(A) and Raging Bull, a biographical account of (B) may very well to have spawned all
boxer Jake La Motta (C) is a valid possibility for having spawned all
(B) up to Raging Bull, a biographical account of (D) was spawning all
boxer Jake La Motta (E) spawned all
(C) in addition to Raging Bull, boxer Jake La Motta
biographical account
(D) to Raging Bull, a biographical account of boxer
Jake La Motta 30. While opinions vary, William Shakespeare is
(E) to Raging Bull, a biographical account considered by many literary scholars the greatest
recounting the life of boxer Jake La Motta English writer of all time.
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
1. D
2. E
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. C
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. C
12. A
13. C
14. B
15. C
16. B
17. D
18. B
19. D
20. C
21. D
22. D
23. E
24. D
25. D
26. E
27. D
28. C
29. E
30. A
GENERAL OUTLINE
KEY TERMS
READY…
Critical Reasoning questions test your ability to use basic logic to analyze
and critique arguments made up of premises and conclusions. While they
are a large part of your Verbal score, the approximately 14 Critical
Reasoning questions in the Verbal Section test grammatical and verbal
abilities much less than do the Reading Comprehension or the Sentence
Correction questions. Rational thinking, or common sense, plus a
competent display of the basic rules of logic are what these questions test.
Indeed these types of questions are also part of the Analytical Section in the
Graduate Record Examination (GRE), which is notoriously abstract and
difficult. Critical Reasoning and Sentence Correction questions are the most
important types of questions to learn and understand for the Verbal part of
the GMAT. Critical Reasoning questions do not outnumber Reading
Comprehension questions, but they do have a greater influence on your
score. Remember too that your Verbal score depends heavily on the
accuracy of your answers to the first five questions or so. (See “What Is This
Thing Called the GMAT?” to review adaptive scoring.) Also, you are more
likely to find Critical Reasoning questions at the beginning of the Verbal
Section than the longer, more-involved Reading Comprehension passages.
So, stay alert in this section, practice, and get to know these unique
question types, which count for so much (you’ll soon see) on the GMAT. To
begin the exam informed and with confidence is an excellent strategy.
One more note: official test directions for this section state that no
knowledge of the terminology and conventions of formal logic is
presupposed. That may be true, but Critical Reasoning questions are not
simple or familiar to most students and do require some introductory
knowledge of logic in order to understand the structure of formal
arguments and the question types.
DIRECTIONS
End
When finished
Directions: Choose the best response for reading
each question in this section. directions
click on the
To review these directions for subsequent icon below
questions of this type, click on HELP.
Dismiss
Directions
➩
In years past, professional baseball players lifted weights less but
were also injured less often during games. Obviously, the more an
athlete lifts weights, the higher the likelihood of injury.
The Argument
In years past, professional baseball players lifted weights less but were
also injured less often during games. Obviously, the more an athlete
lifts weights, the higher the likelihood of injury.
The Question
The conclusion above presupposes which of the following?
One more note: though questions that test your ability to understand
and recognize an assumption are not rare in this section, they’re not to be
feared either. Once you’ve devoted the time to know them well, in class and
in practice on your own, you’ll see assumptions for what they are:
standardized, or uniform, and therefore knowable.
DRILL 1
Directions: In the exercise below there are six statements containing
assumptions. Your job is to identify and write down the assumption
contained in each statement. When you are finished, compare your answers
with those in the key below.
4- Professor Sully only gives good grades to European students. After all,
last semester he gave good grades to Hubert and Elio who are both
Europeans.
Assumptions:
1- All people that visit the local real estate agent’s office want to buy
new houses.
2- Applying early to graduate school makes admission easier.
3- Diminishing legal work duration increases economic activity.
4- Hubert and Elio were the only students that received good grades.
5- All who apply to Wharton want to become strategy consultants.
6- To be a painter by profession one must have painting as one’s main
source of income.
AIM…
A) ANALOGY
➩
When we hired Marizonian immigrants 10 years ago, the project
was a failure. They had problems speaking English and had
difficulties adjusting to American life, both of which made them
unreliable workers. For all these reasons, we should not have
Marizonian immigrants in our factory.
In this argument, the logical gap is a bit subtle. Note that the
conclusion is in the present tense, and is a statement about the
present: that we should not hire Marizonian workers today. On the
basis of what evidence? Ten years ago it didn't work. But how can
we draw a conclusion about what is the current situation based on
evidence from 10 years ago? Only if we believe that the conditions
are approximately the same today as 10 years ago, and that
therefore what happened 10 years ago will repeat itself again in the
present day. To strengthen this argument, give evidence to show
that the conditions are approximately the same today as 10 years
ago, and that therefore the past will accurately predict the present;
to weaken this argument, give evidence to show that today the
conditions are different, and that therefore the past may not
accurately predict the present or future.
C) CAUSAL ARGUMENTS
➩
The number of crimes committed in Los Angeles is highest during
school hours (between 8:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. on weekdays). On
any one given day, over 10,000 teenagers fail to attend school, and
are unaccounted for during these hours. Therefore, it is these
teenagers who are responsible for the high crime rate.
➩
The number of crimes committed by adolescents in Los Angeles
is highest during those hours when they should be in school
(between 8:00 a.m. and 3:00 p.m. on weekdays). If we want to stop
teenage crime, we should take action to ensure that teenagers do not
skip school.
Premise: Teenage crime is highest during school hours, when Some Critical Reasoning
teenagers are absent from school. arguments look eerily similar
Conclusion: Teenage crime will be stopped by making sure that to Problem Solving word
teenagers attend their classes. problems. Historically, GMATs
averaged 2 to 3 math-heavy
➩
➩
Because of a recent crackdown on school absences, the number
of crimes committed by teenagers during school hours (8:00 a.m.-
3:00 p.m. on weekdays) has dropped dramatically. It follows that a
higher percentage of teenage crime is committed outside of school
hours than during school hours.
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
F) PARTICULAR TO GENERAL
The test taker's dilemma: Most people choose wrong answers for one of
two reasons:
Thus, we are looking for an assumption that must be true for the
argument to work.
In years past, professional baseball players lifted weights less but were
also injured less often during games. Obviously, the more an athlete
lifts weights, the higher the likelihood of injury.
Answering these two questions before going to the answer choices can
help you to predict the answer (or something close to the answer).
Occasionally an argument will not be flawed, in which case you should go
directly from the argument to the answer choices.
(A) The increase in baseball injuries is due to a factor other than weightlifting.
(B) The activities of baseball players represent those of athletes as a group.
(C) Most baseball injuries result from too much weightlifting.
(D) There is no proven correlation between how much athletes lift weights and
how likely they are to be affected by injury.
(E) Weightlifting has always been common practice for professional athletes.
Translation: Find the answer that supports the logic of the conclusion.
Each time you read an argument you should identify the premise(s), the
conclusion, and the flaw (the assumption).
Example:
DRILL 2
DIRECTIONS: PARAPHRASE THE STATEMENTS BELOW.
Paraphrase: ______________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
Paraphrase:
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
Paraphrase:
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
Paraphrase:
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
Paraphrase:
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
Making a prediction before going to the answer choices saves you from
confusion once you do start to compare answer choices. Remember, four
answer choices are designed to test your concentration in the face of
temptation. Take a moment between understanding the argument and
evaluating the answer choices to form an idea of what you think the best
answer choice should look like: it should be well-reasoned and strictly
relevant to the text.
Example:
1. ______________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
or
2. ______________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
or
3. ______________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
Now take a look at the answer choices and compare them with your pre-
dictions. Did you guess right? If not, how close to the right answer were you?
(A) Airport regulations had previously required passengers to show only one
form of identification.
(B) New government regulations state that all airport personnel must undergo
a thorough screening process before they start work.
(C) The rate of terrorist incidents has increased dramatically over the past
several years.
(D) Several recent terrorist incidents have resulted from explosives hidden in
luggage stored underneath the plane.
(E) The airport has never been victimized by a terrorist incident.
FIRE!
We have seen that the answer choices and the arguments are written
according to standardized types. In this part of the lesson, we will show you
that each question type is standardized too and that there are 8 types of
questions for GMAT Critical Reasoning arguments. Each question type has
its own traps, and a specific strategy is required to ace each one of them.
A) DRAW A CONCLUSION
(A) The airlines benefited from deregulation more than did the
consumers.
(B) Some airlines will soon go out of business because of
decreased revenue from lower ticket prices.
(C) The government will deregulate more industries following
the success of airline deregulation.
(D) Deregulation of airlines was financially successful both for
the airlines and for the consumers.
(E) Further decreases in ticket prices will start to erode the
Be wary of unjustified,
illogical, or incorrect compari- profits gained by airlines through deregulation.
sons in the answer choices
and choices that make
predictions about the future.
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
B) ASSUMPTION QUESTIONS
Understanding assumptions is crucial to doing well on Critical
Reasoning. Assumptions are unstated premises that are
necessarily true for the argument to work. Questionable
assumptions tend to make arguments weak, so finding the flaw in
an argument is often the same thing as finding a questionable
assumption.
Score Value: 650
➩
Shortly before the elections in City C, many eligible voters polled
stated they objected to the mayor's plans for the police force. Yet the
mayor was elected by a 60 percent majority. So, at least 60 percent
of the voters supported the mayor's plans for the police force.
! (A) People who object to a politician's position will not vote for
that politician.
! (B) Some of the people in the poll have some involvement with
the police force.
! (C) Everyone who voted for the mayor did so primarily because
they didn’t agree with his plans for the police force.
! (D) Sixty percent of the voters elected the mayor because of his
plans for the health care system.
It is especially useful on
! (E) Most of the people polled did not vote in the election.
assumption questions to try
to predict the answer before
➩
➩
Students at a certain university must take the equivalent of two
semesters of foreign language which can be done in a one-semester
intensive class or two semesters paced normally. An academic
investigative committee found that the students who take the
intensive class tend to achieve a higher level of proficiency than do
those in the two-semester class and therefore recommended that the
university eliminate the two-semester class.
! (A) The textbooks used in the intensive courses are not the
same as those used in the two-semester courses.
! (B) Students who chose the intensive courses generally did so
because they had some prior knowledge of the foreign
language.
! (C) There are no significant differences in the quality of students
taking the intensive courses versus those taking the two-
semester courses.
! (D) An intensive course in a foreign language makes it more
difficult for a student to learn vocabulary and practice
speaking.
Necessary vs. Sufficient ! (E) Students who take intensive mathematics courses tend to
The best answer to an get better grades than do those who take regular-paced
assumption question doesn’t mathematics courses. ➩
have to be sufficient to justify
the conclusion. It only has to
be necessary for the Test Section Answer
conclusion to work. Quit Exit Time
Time
Help Confirm Next
E) INFERENCE QUESTIONS
Inference questions ask you to infer something from the passage
other than an assumption or the conclusion. The correct answer
will contain an inference that can be logically and safely drawn
from the original argument. The best answer paraphrases words
and ideas from the text and contains an inference just one step in
logic away from the message of the text.
➩
Being in debt does not necessarily restrict one's spending power.
If it did, people in debt would be unable to make large purchases and
would spend less money than people not in debt. In fact, when the
spending habits of people in debt are compared with those of people
who are not in debt, no such pattern emerges.
➩
Conclusion ≠ inference. An
inference is always true
whereas a conclusion is not
Test Section Answer
necessarily true.
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
Note that this argument does not claim that people in debt spend more
money or make larger purchases than those not in debt. It claims only that
they don't spend less. Phineas will try to trick you into making hasty
assumptions or distortions. Can you identify which choices do this?
Studies show that more and more Americans are removing meat
from their diets. Yet sales of meat increased in the United States last
year.
(A) Last year, Americans imported more meat than they had in
the previous year.
(B) Those Americans who ate meat consumed more per person
than they had the previous year.
(C) The number of Americans who had stopped eating meat
during the previous year was smaller than the number of
Americans who started eating meat last year.
(D) The global meat industry grew in the previous year.
(E) The studies all used large samples that were representative If you find the answer you
of the general population. predicted, quickly scan the
rest of the choices to make
sure there is not something
better (this is not necessary
on math sections, but it is
useful for all the verbal
sections). All the answer
Test Section Answer
choices are in competition for
Time Help Confirm Next your attention.
Time
Quit Exit
H) "EXCEPT" QUESTIONS.
➩
Books put on prominent display in bookstores, either in the store
windows or near the cashiers, generally outsell the books on other
shelves. A publishing company, disappointed by the poor sales of a
new novel by a famous author, complained to a leading chain of
bookstores that the novel would have been a bestseller had it been
prominently displayed.
.
All of the following, if true, would support the publisher's
claim EXCEPT:
SUMMARY
-There are about 14 Critical Reasoning items on the GMAT CAT.
- An argument
- A premise or premises
- A conclusion
- An inference (not always)
- An assumption
- A question
- Five answer choices
- The wrong answer choices are not written randomly. Therefore the
Process of Error Identification is the best way to find the “best answer.”
HOMEWORK/PRACTICE TEST
CRITICAL REASONING
ANSWER GRID
A B C D E
1 ! ! ! ! !
2 ! ! ! ! !
3 ! ! ! ! !
4 ! ! ! ! !
5 ! ! ! ! !
6 ! ! ! ! !
7 ! ! ! ! !
8 ! ! ! ! !
9 ! ! ! ! !
10 ! ! ! ! !
11 ! ! ! ! !
12 ! ! ! ! !
13 ! ! ! ! !
14 ! ! ! ! !
15 ! ! ! ! !
16 ! ! ! ! !
✄
End
➩
When finished
TIME — 25 MINUTES reading
directions
16 QUESTIONS click on the
icon below
Directions: In this section, each
question follows a brief passage. Select
the best answer of the choices given.
Dismiss
Directions
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
1. A very popular, though relatively recent, theory 3. A beverage company recently hired a celebrity to
postulates that the extinction of the dinosaurs resulted introduce a new soft drink in radio and television
from climate changes caused by three large meteors advertisements. Sales of the new soft drink have exceeded
entering the Earth’s atmosphere near the end of the all expectations, and the beverage company has
Mesozoic Age. therefore decided to hire celebrities to endorse all its older,
well-known beverages. The company should therefore
Which of the following statements, if true, could be expect to see greatly increased profits in the future.
used in an argument against the theory?
The passage, in arguing that the company’s profits
(A) The dinosaurs were cold-blooded, meaning will rise greatly, assumes all of the following EXCEPT:
their body temperature was regulated by
external temperature. (A) The costs involved in the media campaigns will
(B) Archaeologists have located several large be significantly less than the increase in sales
craters, probably caused by falling meteors, that due to celebrity endorsements.
they have estimated were formed during the (B) Most of the customers buying the new soft
Mesozoic Age. drink did not stop buying other brands from the
(C) Comparisons between fossils found in different same company to do so.
areas of the planet indicate that the dinosaurs all (C) Celebrity endorsements will be more effective
became extinct within a short time frame. than the advertising methods currently
(D) Scientists have estimated that numerous species employed for the company’s better known
of flora intrinsic to the biosystem in which the beverages.
dinosaurs participated became extinct shortly (D) The sales of a well-known product can be
before the time at which the meteors are increased by a celebrity’s endorsement.
supposed to have struck the Earth. (E) All the older beverages sold by the company will
(E) In existence throughout the Mesozoic age, and be at least as popular as the new beverage once
long beyond it, were prehistoric mammals, who they are endorsed by celebrities.
were warm-blooded, meaning their body
temperature remained constant regardless of
external factors.
4. An athlete, in order to excel in a sport, must have Questions 6-7 refer to the following:
a natural ability for that sport or spend a great deal of
time practicing. Thus if you are a college student and Senator #1: By taking people off welfare you are
your first priority is getting good grades, you should not cutting off their only means to support themselves.
do a sport unless you have a natural ability for that sport.
Senator #2: By taking people off welfare, we are both
The argument above assumes all of the following providing them with incentive to get jobs and change
EXCEPT: their lives, and saving money for the federal government,
enabling us to cut the deficit and improve the economy.
(A) College students should not do sports unless This will reduce poverty overall.
they want to excel in their sport.
(B) Time spent practicing a sport limits a college
student’s ability to get good grades.
(C) A college student cannot succeed in sports and 6. Which of the following, if true, best supports the
get good grades. second senator’s argument?
(D) Only college students who have a natural ability
for a sport can get good grades and do well in (A) There is a high unemployment rate.
their sport. (B) The majority of families on welfare include
(E) College students who spend a lot of time families with children too young to work.
practicing a sport will not get good grades. (C) Most recipients only receive welfare for brief
periods while they are between jobs.
(D) Welfare amounts to a relatively small per-
centage of the federal budget.
5. In an effort to combat sinking reading scores in its (E) Senator #2's plan is modeled on the welfare
public schools, Harville decided to fund the hiring of after- reduction plans of certain states that suc-
school tutors. However, in order to do this and stay cessfully reduced poverty in those states.
within its budget, the town will not be able to begin a
long-needed renovation of its park system, which the
students use for their physical education classes and
after-school sports leagues. 7. Which result of a serious reduction in welfare
expenditures would best indicate that the second
Which of the following best expresses the senator's reasoning was correct?
conclusion of the passage?
(A) A sudden lowering of the unemployment rate
(A) Because of budgetary constraints, Harville will (B) The initiation of programs by the federal
have to find a means of raising reading scores in government spurring businesses to hire former
its public schools that is less expensive than the welfare recipients
hiring of after school tutors. (C) A rise in the average salary for low-level,
(B) The quality of physical education in Harville will unskilled workers
decline as a result of the new after-school (D) A reduction in the number of public high school
tutoring system. students earning their diplomas
(C) Harville considers good reading scores in its (E) A sharp rise in inflation
public schools a greater priority than the
success of its school sports teams.
(D) Harville will not be able to fund the hiring of
after-school tutors and the renovation of its park
system and keep within its budget.
(E) Some students who used to participate in after-
school sports leagues in Harville will now take
part in after-school tutoring.
8. Excavations on the Island of Crete have revealed a (E) Most airline passengers, unless informed in
palace, built in a labyrinthine style, dating back almost advance of what do to in case of an emergency,
3,000 years. Many point to this as evidence that there is are likely to panic should there be an actual
an element of truth behind the Greek myth in which a emergency.
warrior from Athens named Theseus goes to Crete and
wanders a labyrinth until he kills the half-man, half-bull
called the Minotaur.
10. In a recent survey, Travel Company X found that
Which of the following, if true, most strongly 30% of its customers were not satisfied with the quality
supports the theory that there is an element of truth of service. Company X has lost many of its customers to
behind the myth? Company Y recently and has therefore decided to
increase its number of service representatives by 25
(A) Archaeologists have uncovered ruins from percent in an effort to regain customers lost to Company
Athens that date back to roughly the same Y.
period.
(B) The Minoan civilization, centered on Crete, is Which of the following, if it were discovered, would
universally agreed to have been extremely make Company X’s plan most likely to fail to regain
advanced; excavations of the palace dem- customers lost to Company Y?
onstrate that it may have had running water.
(C) Archaeologists theorize that the palace was (A) The poor quality of service at Company X is due
leveled by a natural disaster around 3,400 years to the fact that its customer service repre-
ago. sentatives are poorly trained and lack
(D) Documents indicate that people from kingdoms experience.
outside Crete, including Athens, often had (B) Company X has always charged less for the
reason to go to Crete, which was the center of same services than has Company Y.
power in the region at that time. (C) Not all of Company X’s customers responded to
(E) In most versions of the myth, Theseus is said to the survey.
have used a ball of thread to find his way (D) Company X has many loyal customers who are
through the labyrinth. satisfied with its services.
(E) Company X does most of its sales in package
deals, including airfare and hotels, while
Company Y does mostly “airfare only” sales.
9. Most airline passengers don’t pay attention when
flight attendants give safety instructions before takeoff.
Unless airlines find a more effective means of
communicating to their passengers, most passengers will
not know what to do in case of an onboard emergency.
11. From 1950 to 1975, the average number of (D) Lawn mower users generally find that they have
students graduating per year at a group of five the fewest accidents using older models all of
associated universities increased by 40 percent. During whose safety features they are already familiar
the same period, the number of students graduating with.
from these universities with honors degrees grew by only (E) A recent study on lawn mowers published in a
20 percent. consumers’ guide magazine reported that
many accidents caused by lawn mowers are
Which of the following statements about the period due to faulty safety equipment.
from 1950 to 1975 in these five universities is best
supported by the statements above?
(A) The criteria for selecting honors students 13. The introduction of plant or animal species to a
became more rigorous. region where the species do not exist naturally
(B) The faculty-to-student ratio declined, allowing sometimes has disastrous effects on the environment of
less time for advisors to encourage students to the region. Since countries X and Y are planning to
pursue honors degrees. eliminate all border controls for visitors traveling between
(C) The increase in enrollment resulted from lower the two countries, ecologists are worried that the
admissions standards. environments of the two countries will be at great risk.
(D) Students at the end of the period were more
career-oriented than those at the beginning. Which of the following points, if true, provides the
(E) The number of students graduating without strongest evidence that the ecologists’ fear concerning
honors increased by more than 40 percent. the environments of countries X and Y is unfounded?
14. A sporting goods company found that the water- (D) The less heavily-used ports are as convenient as
proof material it uses for manufacturing backpacks, ski ports that are centers of international trade for
bags, and tents has consistently resulted in low sales most private boat operators
when used to manufacture rain jackets. Tests, however, (E) Commercial boats are more likely to be involved
have revealed that the material is not only waterproof, in accidents than private boats.
but also lighter and less expensive than the material used
in more popular rain jackets.
Which of the following statements, if true, would 16. Television news programs often announce the
best reconcile the test results above with the poor sales results of medical studies indicating that a certain type of
of the rain jackets? food has been shown to be beneficial or harmful. Because
the news programs generally focus on one finding
(A) The company sells most of its products to out- relating to only one type of food, it is impossible for
of-state residents through mail-order catalogs. viewers not in the health profession to develop a coherent
(B) The company’s sales of backpacks and ski bags nutritional plan.
have increased by an average annual rate of 15
percent over the last three years. If all of the above statements are true, which of the
(C) People who buy rain jackets most often choose following can be properly inferred?
a jacket based on its fashion appeal.
(D) Some mountain climbers and hikers prefer (A) Nutritional experts focus their research primarily
material that is even lighter than that used by on the effects of a small number of foods.
the company in its rain jackets. (B) Television journalists are unable to relate specific
(E) The company has traditionally been more new medical findings to broad health issues.
successful in selling footwear than rain jackets. (C) Viewers of television news programs rely on the
programs for nutritional information.
(D) Information relating to only one type of food is
not useful to people who are not in the health
15. If the harbors around ports that are centers of profession.
international trade were restricted to commercial boats (E) Television news programs often distort scientific
and only those private boats equipped with advanced findings reported by nutritionists.
communication devices, most private boats would be
forced to use other ports that are less heavily used. Such
a reduction in the amount of private boat traffic would
lower the chances of collisions around the ports which are
centers of international trade.
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED YOU MAY
CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION ONLY
© The MBA Center 363
Total PrepKit for the GMAT® Step 11.2 Homework
1. D
2. D
3. E
4. C
5. D
6. E
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. E
12. D
13. B
14. C
15. A
16. C
5. (D) that at least part of his plan was working. (B) is a trap;
Conclusion: in order to fund after-school tutors and stay it can be interpreted as a positive result of cutting back
within its budget, Harville will not be able to on welfare, but it is not a sign that the senator's
begin a long-needed renovation of its park reasoning is correct. Unskilled workers and their
system. salaries, high school diplomas, and inflation,
Premises: everything else mentioned in (C), (D) and (E), respectively, are all
outside the scope.
Here you are looking for the conclusion. Remember
that "find the conclusion" questions are not necessarily
based on flawed arguments. Don’t waste your time 8. (D)
looking for flaws or assumptions. Premise: A labyrinthine palace from 3000 years ago was
(A) contradicts the premises – we expect that found on Crete
Harville will fund the tutors. (B) is a trap – it sounds Conclusion: There is some truth to the myth of the
good, but isn't necessarily true. Maybe Harville will Athenian Theseus going to Crete and killing the
find an inexpensive way to continue its physical Minotaur after wandering the labyrinth.
educational classes and maintain the quality. (C) is the
same – tempting, but goes too far. We don't know The conclusion asserts a link between the myth and
what the priorities of the town are, and, what's more, the discovered palace. All we really know, though, is
we don't know that the success of the sports teams is that the myth exists and the palace exists. We don't
related to renovating the parks. (E) is wrong because know whether they're related, i.e., whether the palace
there is no connection between the tutoring and found was actually the palace used by Theseus, or
sports teams in terms of participants. (D) is a good, even whether Theseus actually existed and went to
clean paraphrase of the conclusion. Crete. Notice the conclusion says there is "some" truth
behind the myth. We only need a choice that
strengthens the relationship between the conclusion
and the premise. (D) does this by pointing out that it
6 – 7. was common for Athenians to travel to Crete, thereby
Premise: Taking people off welfare provides incentive to supporting the possibility that someone went to Crete
find jobs and change their lives. at this time from Athens, perhaps finding his way
Premise: The federal government will save money through the labyrinth in the palace. None of the other
Premise: The deficit will be cut and the economy choices specifically relate to the myth.
improved.
Conclusion: Poverty will be reduced overall.
9. (B)
6. (E) Premise: Most airline passengers don't pay attention
Remember to read the question first. It tells you to during safety instructions.
focus on senator #2's argument, a "Does the proposed Conclusion: Most passengers will not know what to do
solution solve the problem?" argument. The premises in case of an emergency unless airlines find a
are really a series of predictions, and the conclusion is better way to communicate safety instructions.
just a broader prediction. Something could go wrong
in any of the steps, but keep in mind that the overall This argument suggests a solution (better means of
point of the plan is to reduce poverty. communication) for a supposed problem (most airline
In (A), a high unemployment rate doesn't show passengers don't pay attention during safety
that poverty will be reduced. In (B), the concept of instructions). The premise, though, says nothing
children too young to work is outside the argument's about emergencies. Maybe there's no problem at all
scope. (C) and (D) weakens senator #2's argument. and people already know what to do in case of an
(E), the right answer, shows that the plan is based on emergency. (B) asserts this and therefore weakens the
similar plans that have worked, therefore adding argument. (A) does not weaken the argument,
credibility to the plan. because the argument concerns what would happen if
there were an emergency; the likelihood of there
actually being an emergency is irrelevant. (C) is
7. (A) outside the scope; the people who write those
Again, we're trying to show that senator #2's annoying speeches are not part of the argument. (D)
proposed plan will solve the problem. We can do this may sound good, but it's definitely not as good as (B).
by showing that any one his predictions is valid. One The argument says a more effective means of
of the premises was that people would have more communication is necessary. The cards may not be
incentive to find jobs. Therefore a sudden lowering of effective at all (who reads them anyway)? (E)
the unemployment rate, or (A), would demonstrate strengthens instead of weakens the argument.
End
➩
When finished
TIME: 40 MINUTES reading
23 QUESTIONS directions
click on the
Directions: Choose the best response for icon below
each question in this section.
Dismiss
Directions
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
5. A popular Internet service provider changed its 7. In an effort to alleviate the problem of traffic
billing system, charging customers per each congestion in City R, the municipal authorities
connection to the system rather than per total authorized roadwork which would increase the
hours connected. According to company number of lanes on several major highways.
representatives, under the new system, customers However, when the new highways were opened,
will spend more time connected to the Internet the level of congestion actually increased.
while being billed the same or smaller amounts.
Which of the following, if true, best explains why
Which of the following statements, if true, would the level of congestion did not decrease when the new
most strengthen the conclusion of the company highways were opened?
representatives?
(A) People drive faster on highways than on other
(A) Customers will connect to the service less types of roads.
frequently and spend more time connected to (B) Highways do not have traffic lights as other
the service each time they do. types of roads do.
(B) The change in the billing system will attract (C) The highway patrol police increased their
new customers resulting in increased profits for efforts to catch drivers who were speeding.
the company. (D) A person's inclination to drive depends in part
(C) By spending more time connected to the on his or her perception of space.
Internet customers will be able to take (E) The new lanes enabled journey times for many
advantage of services that previously would trips to be substantially reduced.
have been too expensive.
(D) The popularity of other Internet service
providers relies on their having billing systems
similar to the one this compay is adopting.
(E) The company's employees, all of whom have
free unlimited Internet access, support the
change in billing.
12. It has often been hypothesized that global oil 14. In the past, companies in the paper production
consumption, which increases every year, will industry have always opposed restrictions on
deplete the supply of oil, with catastrophic results cutting down trees in forests because they
for the global economy. However, these claims perceived that this would impede their ability to
never stand up to scrutiny, as the volume of oil in earn profits. The government recently proposed to
reserves around the world has remained constant. ban the cutting of trees in all national forests. The
paper production companies were in favor of this
Which of the following, if true, best resolves the ban. Many industry observers subsequently
apparent paradox? concluded that the paper production industry was
no longer interested in protecting its ability to
(A) The actual annual consumption of oil is below earn profits.
that which many experts estimate.
(B) The cost of operating oil refineries has steadily Which one of the following is an assumption made
decreased over time. by the industry observers?
(C) The consumption of oil has greatly increased in
the past 50 years. (A) The profits of paper production companies will
(D) It is the policy of all major oil producers to not decrease after the ban comes into
locate new reserves at a rate consistent with effect.
that at which old reserves are depleted. (B) The companies concerned only manufacture
(E) The number of oil-producing countries has paper products.
been steadily declining. (C) Maximizing profits is the only objective of the
paper production companies.
(D) The legislation will take effect immediately.
13. Kobayashi coffee has more caffeine than Marlowe (E) Paper production companies always act in their
Select coffee. But since Chula Vista coffee has interest.
more caffeine than Valentino coffee, it follows that
Kobayashi coffee has more caffeine than Valentino
coffee.
15. Japan has the highest rate of savings in the (D) The hospital, under private ownership, will
developed world. Research indicates that the charge low-income residents more for health
average family savings of the middle 40 percent of care than it did when it was publicly run.
the population declined by 9.9 percent from 1989 (E) The staff of the hospital will remain unchanged
to 1996. At the same time, the average family after the transition of the hospital to private
savings of the richest 15 percent of the country ownership.
increased by 12.7 percent. Statistics imply that
this decline in savings is due to recession and
inflation in the early 1990's and that there has DIFFICULT
been a significant redistribution of wealth from
middle-class families to affluent families. 17. Which of the following best completes the
passage?
Which of the conclusions below can be properly
drawn from the information above? Critics of Country A's trade policy with Country Z
contend that Country A's low tariffs are
(A) Affluent families are less susceptible to responsible for its large trade deficit with Country
economic downturns than are middle-class Z. Government officials, however, argue that
families, and maintain a high rate of savings there is a trade deficit with Country Z because low
under such conditions. labor costs in Country Z allow its companies to
(B) Average savings in Japan have declined by 9.9 manufacture goods cheaply. The officials also
percent from 1989 to 1996. claim that economic competition from Country Z
(C) Middle-class families can sustain customary is responsible for better prices for Country A's
rates of saving even when prices rise and consumers. Therefore, they say, the most logical
economic momentum slows. way to lower the trade deficit without hurting
(D) A return to normal economic conditions will Country A's consumers is to ________.
reverse the redistribution of wealth from
affluent families to middle-class families.
(E) Spending levels for affluent families declined (A) raise the tariffs on goods imported from
from 1989 to 1996. Country Z
(B) encourage businesses in Country A to reduce
their labor costs
16. A town plans to turn the public hospital over to a (C) increase taxes on all goods not manufactured in
private organization in order to maintain its Country A
financial viability. While no one questions the (D) improve the products manufactured by
ability of the private organization to provide Country A's companies and market them
quality health care, such a change will make the heavily in Country A
hospital unaffordable for the town's low-income (E) subsidize all of Country A's companies that
residents. manage to maintain their prices at the level of
the goods produced by Country Z
If the above statements are all true, which of the
following inferences can most reasonably be drawn?
18. As the popularity of American professional sports (C) Some motorcyclists have fought the law using
and sports merchandise grows worldwide, the the argument that not wearing a helmet is a
demand for paraphernalia - caps, jackets, etc. - tenet of their religious beliefs.
marketed with the logos of American sports teams (D) Automobile owners have had to pay higher
will continue to grow as well. By necessity an insurance rates because of the need to pay for
increasing quantity of this merchandise will be the injuries or deaths of motorcycle riders who
manufactured. However, it is doubtful that this were not wearing helmets.
increase will provide new jobs for American factory (E) Many automobile drivers and passengers have
workers. suffered injuries in collisions with motorcycles,
the drivers of which were not wearing helmets.
Which of the following, if true, would most
strengthen the conclusion drawn above?
Questions 20 and 21:
(A) Competition among various U.S. manufacturers
of sports team–related equipment insures that Scientist A: If carbon dioxide emissions continue to
retail prices of this merchandise will stay low. rise, this will lead to an increase in the
(B) Professional sports teams in other countries are concentration of carbon dioxide in the
starting to model their marketing plans and atmosphere. If there is an increase in the
production of merchandise on those of concentration of carbon dioxide in the
American sports teams. atmosphere, more heat from the Sun will be
(C) Companies that manufacture merchandise trapped, and the temperature of the atmosphere
relating to American sports teams recently will rise.
established production plants in foreign
countries in preparation for a popularity boom Scientist B: That theory is incorrect because if the
of their product on the foreign market. concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(D) Increased attendance at American professional increases, the metabolism of plants which
sporting events has led to an increase in sales of consume carbon dioxide and convert it into
sports merchandise at those events. oxygen will increase.
(E) Past increases in demand for products related
to American sports teams have led to increased
popularity of sports retail equipment overall. 20. Scientist B responds to Scientist A's argument by
21. If Scientist B's objections are true, Scientist A's 23. What could the government do to lower
argument could still be valid if it could be shown that demand and solve the problem of shortages in the
health care system?
(A) plants can consume other atmosphere-
warming chemicals (A) Reduce the amount of health care services
(B) the erosion of the Earth's ozone layer will have offered to the population
a warming effect on the Earth's atmosphere (B) Increase the number of new doctors trained
(C) scientist B lacks formal scientific qualifications each year
(D) scientist A is an acknowledged expert in the (C) Impose a charge on citizens every time they use
field of global-warming research the health care system
(E) the rate of increase of the amount of carbon (D) Consolidate the provision of health care
dioxide in the atmosphere is greater than the services into large medical centers rather than
rate of increase of carbon dioxide absorption by a greater number of small ones
plants (E) Expand the range of treatments available under
the national health care system
Questions 22 and 23
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
1. C
2. A
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. E
8. D
9. B
10. E
11. B
12. D
13. E
14. E
15. A
16. D
17. B
18. C
19. D
20. C
21. E
22. D
23. C
GENERAL OUTLINE
READY…
The Analytical Writing Assessment was added to the GMAT in October
1994, about 40 years after the first GMAT was given. It is scored
independently of the multiple choice section, and a photocopy of the essays
is sent to all the business schools that receive your score reports. The AWA
consists of two 30-minute essays (not necessarily in this order):
1. ANALYSIS OF AN ISSUE
2. ANALYSIS OF AN ARGUMENT
The major challenges of this exercise are timing, typing (for the CAT),
and staying focused on the relatively short passages you read before the
essay.
Why would the GMAC introduce the AWA? The GMAC, remember,
is made up of an assembly and a board consisting mostly of MBA admission
officers. The admission officers requested the essays. Since the number of
non-native English speakers applying to MBA programs has increased
significantly in the last several years, the essays give the admission officers
an extra opportunity to assess the verbal skills of their applicants. Some
observers, more cynical than we might think, suggest that the admission
officers suspect that some applicants pay their friends (or teachers) to write
their application essays for them. The AWA provides a writing sample that
the officers can be sure was actually written by the applicant. Do the schools
really read these essays? Sometimes, yes. But no one expects them to be as
clearly written as your application essays (which are undoubtedly prepared
months in advance, leaving ample time to proofread and reflect), though a
reasonably lucid and well-written response to the AWA questions can help
your admission chances.
What does the AWA test? It tests your ability to write a clear, well-
organized essay, with good grammar and relevant examples, on a vague,
boring topic, early in the morning, in a short period of time.
Your essay will be scored from 0 to 6. Your AWA score has nothing to do
with your overall GMAT score. You could, in fact, get every multiple-choice
question right and practically ignore the AWA, and score 800 on the GMAT
and 0 on the AWA. Note, however, that you must write something on the
AWA. Faliure to write essays will result in no reportable scores.
6: Outstanding
5: Strong
4: Adequate
3: Limited
2: Seriously flawed
1: Fundamentally deficient
0: Completely illegible, on a topic obviously unrelated to the
question, or non-verbal response
Of course the essays are not graded by computers, even on the CAT. They
are graded by official graders, who read piles of essays in intense grading
sessions, devoting, on average, about two minutes per question. For a more
detailed explanation of grading criteria, consult the Official Guide to GMAT
Review or The GMAT Bulletin.
Analysis of an Issue:
Analysis of an Issue questions Which do you find more convincing, the argument that space
often cover some of these
exploration should not be funded by the government or the
subjects and topics: Personal
achievement/Personal suc- response to it? Explain your point of view using relevant
cess; General business, United examples, based on your experience, observations, or readings.
States; Issues of ethics and
leadership in business and
management; Topical issues
involving Government and
Business, United States. Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
➩
Analysis of an Argument:
➩
spokespersons/government
officials; Newspapers, News-
Answer
letters, Memorandums, Busi-
Test Section
ness proposals, and Trade
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
publications.
AIM…
To prepare for the AWA, it is important to develop an organizational
plan and to review some grammar rules and style techniques that can
improve your score.
A) ANALYSIS OF AN ISSUE
The graders are looking for several key elements in your essay:
Step one: Identify the issue. Properly identifying the issue is, of
course, imperative. Pay close attention to the wording used
You have 30 minutes for each
essay. Try allocating your time in the question.
this way:
10 minutes (8-10) Step two: Consider at least one reason for each side of the issue. The
Brainstorm and organize
graders want to see that you understand the complexity of
15 minutes (15 - 18)
Write the argument.
5 minutes (2 - 5)
Proofread for large errors Step three: Choose a position and list several supporting reasons.
Analysis of an Issue:
Because the instructions are always the same (even though the
topics themselves change), you can develop a model essay in
advance. Here is a model for Analysis of an Issue:
B) ANALYSIS OF AN ARGUMENT
The planning stage of the Argument essay differs from that of the Issue
essay. There is less brainstorming and more analysis.
In planning your essay before you begin writing, you should follow two
key steps:
Step two: Compare the conclusion with the evidence, listing any
questionable assumptions.
➩
“It has become almost impossible to eat a balanced, healthy diet.
Television news programs are constantly providing new, sometimes
contradictory information about what is healthy and what is not. The
average consumer cannot make informed decisions from this kind of
scanty information and is generally overwhelmed upon entering
increasingly larger supermarkets with more and more brands to
choose from.”
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
Step one: The conclusion is the author's main point. If you aren't
sure, try paraphrasing the argument: the author believes
"X" because of "Y." "X" is the conclusion. Here, the author
believes "it's impossible to eat a good diet" (conclusion)
because "TV news programs keep announcing different
things" (evidence) and "supermarkets have lots of different
brands" (more evidence).
Step two: What must be true for this argument to work? That is,
what does the author assume?
The author assumes…
most people watch TV news programs
most people rely on TV news programs for diet information
most people shop in supermarkets
the wide selection of brands makes it very difficult to find
healthy food
(You might have found some other assumptions or
expressed these differently)
The guidelines which follow are intended to help you improve your AWA
essay but are by no means a comprehensive review of the rules for effective
essay-writing.
PUNCTUATION
Here are a couple of important points to remember.
– Colons can also be somewhat tricky. If you insist on using them, remem-
ber this: colons are abbreviated equal signs. What is on one side of them must
be roughly equal to what is one the other side of them (within the sentence).
Logical links
– Giving examples:
… is demonstrated by…
… is illustrated by …
… is typified by …
For example …
One instance of this …
… as in the case of …
– Emphasis
In fact …
Obviously …
It is clear that …
Definitely …
Pertinently …
– Contrast
Conversely …
Regardless …
On the contrary …
While … is true, it can also be argued …
Although … another viewpoint is that …
Despite this situation …
In contrast to …
… is in opposition to … Good ideas can easily be lost
without logical links. Graders
like ‘em because they make
– Causal relationships explicit the relationships
Therefore … among your ideas. So, link it
Thus … up.
Consequently …
SENTENCE VARIETY
Don't: Jake ran to the post office to mail his letter. Jake arrived at
the post office at 5:05. Jake found the post office closed. Jake
went to another post office not far away. Jake tried again to
mail his letter. Jake found that post office closed too.
Do: Jake ran to the post office to mail his letter. At 5:05 he
arrived, found the post office closed, and decided to try
again at a different post office. Jake went to another post
office. It too was closed.
VOCABULARY
While use of formal language (specialized vocabulary used more
in writing than in speech; such as specific business terms used in
business documents) can improve your essay, it is more important
to use language you know how to use. Try to strike a balance
between sophisticated and showy.
Here are some verbs that are generally overused and vague:
– To do
It is rare that the verb "to do" is necessary. In formal writing you can
almost always replace it with a more specific verb. Instead of:
"Governments need to do something about this problem," try
"Governments need to remedy this problem." Instead of "College
graduates do great work for the world," try "College graduates
perform important actions in society."
– To have
"To have," of course, means "to possess, to own". Avoid phrases such
as "The argument has three parts." There might be three parts in the
argument, but does the argument possess those parts, the way you
possess, for example, the new Madonna CD? Would you write "The
argument owns three parts"? or "Three parts belong to the argu-
ment"? No, not unless you are writing metaphorically, and metaphorical
writing should be avoided on the AWA. Try, "The argument is
composed of three parts," or "The argument can be divided into
three parts."
VAGUE SPECIFIC
give provide
show, point out demonstrate, depict, illustrate
get receive, become
– Avoid colloquial words such as: really, pretty (as in “The example is
pretty important”), and lots of.
– Avoid contractions.
– Never state in many words what you could just as effectively state in
a few.
FIRE!
ANALYSIS OF AN ISSUE
Content:
Notice that the writer of this essay misses the point that the
issue is government funding of space travel rather than space
travel itself. The author makes basically one point: that space
exploration will benefit humanity if it is judged possible for people
to live in space, thus relieving the earth of its population problem.
This point is valid, and the references to the world's over-
population problem and the biosphere experiments would support
it well if their relevance had been explained. A good essay would
include at least one other benefit and also address some of the
opposing arguments.
Organization:
There seems to be a vague attempt here to fit this essay into a
introduction-body-conclusion format, but it crumbles. There is also
no development of the author's main point: it is rather a stream-of-
consciousness ramble of somewhat related facts and ideas.
Grammar:
The essay is littered with mistakes. The problem is that not only
are there grammatical errors, but also the errors interfere with the
essay's intended (one guesses) meaning. For example, the sentence
fragment that concludes the passage might actually contain a valid
argument (that space research could produce benefits in various
fields). Its unintelligibility, however, prevents its contributing to
the essay.
Style:
Note that this essay does contain an admirable variety of
sentence lengths. Stylistic problems, though, pervade. The
vocabulary is limited. Changing a few words to strengthen the
transitions between the ideas (the "but" in line 6 would be more
effective as a "however"; the "and" in line 7 could be a "furthermore";
etc.) would improve the style of the essay. Furthermore, too much
colloquial language is used: "lots of," "we really should," etc.
Content:
This essay manages to focus on the issue of government
funding and presents two sides of the argument, clearly choosing
one side and acknowledging the other. The author's main point
here, the quasi-mystical belief that space, as a final frontier,
represents some sort of metaphysical barrier to be breached, is
Organization:
This essay is fairly well-organized. The first paragraph states the
author's position while referring to the main flaw in his or her
position. A more detailed description of the opposing position
would have strengthened this paragraph. Each ensuing paragraph
has a clear individual focus, although the “knowledge” tirade
somehow manages to show up everywhere (it shouldn't).
Grammar:
There are numerous minor grammatical mistakes in this essay,
none of which interferes with its meaning. The “we,” for example,
in line 3 does not have a grammatically correct antecedent,
although it is obviously meant to refer to “humanity.”
Style:
The essay contains well-crafted transitions between ideas: Flaubert did it, maybe you can
"moreso," "however," "although," etc. The rhetoric, unfortunately, is a too... but not on the AWA:
tad overblown. It is advisable to shy away from phrases such as "the Resist dramatic flourishes and
nether regions of knowledge." The word choice is also occasionally focus on specifics – it is very
easy to lose sight of the facts
suspect ("cleaning the environment"? Really.) Furthermore, the when you try to write
phrase "I know what you are going to say," is a poor attempt at a dramatically.
rhetorical device.
Content:
Both sides of the issues are addressed. One is chosen. The
author supports his or her position with three reasons: that space
research has practical technological advances, that it encourages
scientific thought, and that there are no other available methods
by which this information will become available. The counter-
argument is acknowledged and, not dismissed, but refuted. Notice
that the grounds for this refutation are perhaps not perfectly
sound, but they are elucidated as thoroughly as possible
considering the time constraints.
Organization:
First of all, note the structure of the first paragraph. The issue
and its complexities are clearly identified. The author then
presents the stance to be taken in the ensuing paragraphs.
Grammar:
The essay contains exactly one grammatical error. (Can you
spot it?) Obviously, it doesn't affect the essay.
Style:
Note the preponderance of transitional or emphatic phrases em-
ployed: “however,” “For example,” “Secondly,” “not only … but also,”
“furthermore,” “naturally,” etc. The essay thus reads fluidly and easi-
ly. Note also that the essay is not stylistically flawless – the phrase,
“weather satellites and communications technology would not have
ANALYSIS OF AN ARGUMENT
The following is an example of an essay that was scored a “2.”
Look for problems of content, organization, grammar, and style.
Think about how it could be improved and compare your own
analysis to the comments that follow.
Content:
The essay fails to stay focused on dissecting the argument. The
issue of exercise is not presented in the argument; neither is the
issue of whose fault it is for the misleading health information on
television news programs. They are therefore irrelevant. Another
salient error is the author's inclusion of his or her opinion of the
argument. This is never appropriate.
There are some positive points in this essay. Note the
references, incoherent though they are, to flaws in the argument –
specifically, the assumption that all consumers receive
information from television, and the assumption that everyone
purchases food from supermarkets. Another positive point is the
author's inclusion, in the final paragraph, of a proposal to
strengthen this argument.
Organization:
As in the case of the previous “2” essay, here there are hints of
a introduction-body-conclusion format, but hints just aren't good
enough. The individual paragraphs show no coherence.
Grammar:
There are many grammatical errors. Among the most salient are
the conflation of “their,” “they're” and “there,” and repeated
pronoun errors.
Style:
The essay is a mess stylistically. The preponderance of rhetorical
questions lends this piece an absurdist quality. Notice the
parentheses. (You shouldn't use parentheses.) The use of the first-
person pronoun should be avoided. In this instance what could
have been a sound critique of the argument, the observation that
not everyone watches television, is obscured by the style. The
word choice is poor. Note that the phrase “give so much
information,” should be “provide enough information.” There are also
a strange set of unnecessary quotations marks around the word
“author.”
Content:
This essay successfully identifies the flaws in the argument and
offers solutions which could strengthen the argument. The
proposed solutions in the main body of the essay, however, are not
the most direct methods to strengthen the argument. Only in the
concluding passage does the author include the clearest remedy,
re-focusing the argument on those who actually receive their
nutrition information from television and shop only in
supermarkets.
Organization:
The essay presents an overall view of the argument in the
introductory paragraph, and then proceeds to break down the
features of the argument paragraph by paragraph.
Grammar:
There are several minor grammatical or spelling errors, none of
which interfere with the author's intended meaning.
Style:
There are numerous stylistic problems here. First of all, the
author's prejudices repeatedly color his or her analysis. The phrase
“the television news media don't know what they're talking about half
the time,” could contribute more effectively to the essay were it to
read “the television news media indiscriminately disseminate the latest
health findings,” or was written in another way with less opinion,
and more objectivity. The word choice is occasionally poor.
Instead of “biggest” (line 9), use “most important” or “major” (the
points are all the same size). Also, note the semicolon in line 14. It
is actually used correctly, but is unnecessary since there is no need
to connect those two sentences, which would be fine independent
of one another.
Content:
The essay analyzes the argument fairly thoroughly, pinpointing
the premises and the conclusion, and the flawed logic. It offers
several options by which the author could strengthen the
argument, including the most direct method – limiting the
conclusion to consumers who only shop in supermarkets and base
their purchasing decisions on information provided by the
television news.
Organization:
Notice the systematic analysis of the argument. Each paragraph
focuses on a specific aspect of the argument, and each contains an
individual introduction and conclusion.
Grammar:
There are several small grammatical errors. For instance note
that line 28 needs an “and” between “doctors” and “literature.”
Style:
The style is acceptable, but not flawless. There are some
awkward phrases, such as “A validation of the stated conclusion
necessitates evidence…” (line 59). Notice the effectiveness of the
transitional and emphatic phrases, such as “consequently,”
“however,” “therefore,” “clearly,” “furthermore,” etc.
When you take your exam, spend a few moments preparing some
notes or an outline. Don't indulge in stream of consciousness
writing. Abstract poetry might be a hit in Lit. classes and at
cocktail parties, but on the GMAT it won't fly.
End
➩
When finished
ANALYSIS OF AN ISSUE
reading
TIME - 30 MINUTES
directions
Directions: Analyze the issue presented click on the
below and develop your position. There is no icon below
“correct” point of view. In presenting your posi-
tion, you should consider different perspectives.
Read the issue stated below and the
instructions that follow. You may make any Dismiss
notes in the empty space on the page that will
help you plan your essay. Directions
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
ESSAY 1
Some educators argue that children who demonstrate particular aptitude for learning when they are young
should be placed in special programs where they are given the opportunity to advance more rapidly than they
might in normal classes. Many child psychologists, however, have publicly stated they do not support special
programs for gifted children. They claim that separating children by aptitude at an early age is unfair to those in
the slower classes, some of whom might also thrive in a more challenging environment.
Which do you find more convincing, the argument of the educators or that of the child psychologists? Explain
your point of view using relevant examples, based on your experience, observations, or readings.
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
© The MBA Center 401
Total PrepKit for the GMAT® Step 13.2 Homework
End
When finished
ANALYSIS OF AN ARGUMENT
reading
TIME - 30 MINUTES
directions
Directions: Analyze the argument click on the
presented below. You should not develop your icon below
own position on the issue. Rather, you may
consider any assumptions made in the
argument, the ways in which the evidence is
used, how the argument’s conclusion might be Dismiss
strengthened, or any logical flaws you observe.
Read the argument and instructions that Directions
follow. You may make any notes in the empty
space on the page that will help you plan your
essay.
ESSAY 2
Over the last five years, newspaper sales in Region X have declined by over 10%, while sales of weekly news
periodicals have increased slightly. This demonstrates that more and more people in the region have less time to
read a newspaper every day, and prefer to read a once-weekly summation of world events.
Discuss how logically convincing you find this argument. In explaining your point of view, be sure to analyze the
line of reasoning and the use of evidence in the argument. Also discuss what, if anything, would make this argument
more sound and persuasive or would help you better evaluate its conclusion.
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
402 © The MBA Center
Step 14
Analytical Writing
Assessment
Workshop
End
➩
When finished
ANALYSIS OF AN ISSUE reading
TIME-30 MINUTES directions
click on the
Directions: Analyze the issue presented icon below
below and develop your position. There is no
“correct” point of view. In presenting your
position, you should consider different
perspectives.
Read the issue stated below and the Dismiss
instructions that follow. Directions
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
ESSAY 1
“ I don’t think being well-rounded is particularly important; I would rather see people with a cutting edge on them.”
Discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the opinion expressed above. Support your point of view
with reasons and/or examples from your own experience, observations, or reading.
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
End
When finished
ANALYSIS OF AN ARGUMENT reading
TIME - 30 MINUTES directions
click on the
Directions: Analyze the argument icon below
presented below. You should not develop
your own position on the issue. Rather, you
may consider any assumptions made in the
argument, the ways in which the evidence is
used, how the argument’s conclusion might Dismiss
be strengthened, or any logical flaws you Directions
observe.
Read the argument and instructions that
follow.
ESSAY 2
“ The country of Aviar could best solve its current trade deficit problem by lowering the price of parrots, its primary
export. If Aviar pursued this course of action, it would be able to compete more successfully for markets with other parrot-
exporting countries. Sales of Aviar’s parrots abroad would increase- an increase which would dramatically reduce Aviar’s
trade deficit.”
Discuss how logically convincing you find this argument. In explaining your point of view, be sure to analyze
the line of reasoning and the use of evidence in the argument. Also discuss what, if anything, would make this
argument more sound and persuasive, or would help you better evaluate its conclusion.
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
GENERAL OUTLINE
KEY TERMS
READY…
The Reading Comprehension passages and questions are part of the
Verbal Section of the GMAT CAT. The questions appear randomly during
the Verbal Section in groups of 5 to 7. There are between 14 and 18 Reading
Comprehension questions in the section divided among 4 passages (one of
which is experimental) of varying lengths. The Reading Comprehension
questions are the only ones on the CAT that are not adaptive. This means
that once you are given a passage to read you can expect a set of 5 to 7
questions that will not vary in score value. Because the questions on the
Reading Comprehension passages are not adaptive, you will not see them at
the beginning of the Verbal Section, since the first 7 questions or so of either
section determine your testing level. In short, because this section is not
scored adaptively, lower and higher numerical score values are not assigned
to each question, although there is still a range of difficulty from easy to
difficult for any set of questions.
The types of passages you will find address business, science, or social
science topics. In the interest of test-fairness, so that one student will not
have an advantage over another, the 4 passages you see should each cover
one of the three subject areas listed above. The length of the passages ranges
from 250 to 450 words written according to a dense, academic style, what
we call GMAT-style. Reading the passages and answering the questions on
the CAT test is no easy task: staring at the monitor, not making notations
on the monitor, and using the mouse to scroll up and down are all
disadvantages of computerization.
DIRECTIONS
If you click on the Help Button on your screen the day of the test, the
following directions will appear. Learn them now and save yourself the time
and trouble on the day of the exam.
End
When finished
Directions: This set of questions are reading
based on your understanding of a passage. directions
Select the best answer following the passage click on the
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the icon below
passage.
Dismiss
Directions
THE CHALLENGE
AIM…
- A theme by paragraph
- 1 to 2 key concepts
Don’t try to remember every
single detail. You do need to
remember the location of - Some examples and details
details in the passage (in
roughly the middle third of a - Some quotations from authorities on a given subject
passage) for quick reference
when asked a detail question.
- A few undefined phrases, terms, or concepts
With such a model, Phineas will use his standard question types and set
some traps in the answer choices.
Imagine that you’re playing a memory game and someone shows you a
satellite photo of Southern California, taken from space. You have a short
time to look at the photo and then it is removed from view. You are then
asked to make a list of the identifiable objects which you were able to
recognize before the photo was removed. What will you remember? The
largest objects which stand out in the photo, like baseball diamonds, the
Pacific coast line, or perhaps a large government building will stick in your
memory. You wouldn’t try to list the houses, cars, or trees (the little details)
because they are less significant. There is little chance that you would have
the memory to list every single object in the image.
The same technique applies to Reading Comprehension passages, which
are full of details, examples, facts, secondary ideas, and varieties of tone and
style – but should be reduced to one main idea. The reason is simple: if you
try to remember every single detail, you will not understand the main idea
or purpose of the passage. You’ll remember specifics but miss the general
sense of the passage, which is what counts.
In these passages, the key sentences which carry the main idea from one
location to another, are usually at the beginning of each paragraph. The first
few sentences of the first paragraph usually give you the main idea of the
passage, and the first few sentences of the following paragraphs restate the
idea as it was developed in the passage. An exception is the last two or three
sentences of the final paragraph which contain the conclusion of the
passage. Do not skip these last sentences: they state the results of the line of
reasoning which has been developed throughout the passage, the line of
reasoning you should follow from beginning to end, tracing the progression
of just the main idea.
Once you have a good, but less than complete, idea of the content of the
passage, it’s time to identify trigger words which give you clues to shifts in
points of view and take you directly to the overall meaning, or
primary purpose, of the passage.
In fact But
Similarly Although
For example However
Besides Not only...but also
Still Some...others
Therefore Yet
For instance Conversely
In contrast to
Either...or/Neither...nor
DRILL 1
The passage which follows the original below has been condensed to
approximately one-third of its complete length to highlight only key
sentences. After reading the condensed passage, answer the questions which
follow.
ORIGINAL PASSAGE
CONDENSED PASSAGE
➩
1. The passage is primarily concerned with
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
➩
2. According to the passage, the erection of the "Dog Fence"
has contributed to all the following developments EXCEPT
➩
4. According to the passage, the Australian government has
had to keep the kangaroo population in check because
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
DRILL 2
For the passage below you have between two and three minutes to get an
overview. Then determine the main idea, the main terms and concepts, the
contrasts or new ideas through trigger words, and identify the location of
details.
At this point, you must be familiar with our techniques and the famous
Wrong Answer Factory, the production line of seemingly right answer
choices that trick the average test taker. Does the Wrong Answer Factory
apply here?
If you look closely at the answer choices, you’ll notice that there are
three types:
The answers to primary
purpose/main idea questions
– Totally wrong answers. This type of answer introduces new are often found in the
information that is neither stated nor implied in the passage. This type of opening sentence. Ask your-
answer choice is easy to spot and eliminate because its contents don’t relate self, “Is this the topic that
remains the focus for the
to what you’ve read in the passage. This is the case with answers (B) and (D), entire passage?”, and double-
which are completely unrelated to the passage. check the passage to make
sure.
– Almost right answers. This type of answer has some information
directly from the passage and some information which is completely
irrelevant. The elements of truth it does have are greatly distorted. Read
every word of every answer choice carefully checking for zero-distortion.
Distortion is apparent in choices (A) and (C) which are related in some way
to the passage, and mentioned as potential dangers of the “Dog Fence” but
do not constitute the main concern of this passage.
-The Best Answer. Here (E) is the best answer because it is not out of
scope, does not distort the meaning, and does include the main concern of
the passage: evaluating the advantages (1st paragraph) and the disadvantages
(2nd paragraph) of the “Dog Fence.”
If you look at the last sentence of the first paragraph, you can infer that
the event in 1992 indicates that the “Dog Fence” protects sheep from
dingoes and is therefore necessary to the wool industry, which needs sheep
alive and kicking. Let’s go to the answer choices:
Phineas is PC. Avoid any Choice (B) is completely out of the scope. The author tries to convince
answer choices that are us of the necessity of the sheep to the wool industry, not the necessity of
politically incorrect or could
be perceived as offensive to the wool industry to the economy. This is certainly true, but not directly
any minority group. relevant to the example.
Choice (C) seems very close to the truth and is a trick. You should
wonder, “Do they really give an example? Where is the example?” Of course
there is no example. Choice (C) should be avoided.
Choice (E) is certainly true in the absolute, but is not relevant to the
primary purpose of the passage.
Choice (D) is definitely the best answer to the question. The author
mentions the 1992 flood example to show that without the Dog Fence,
sheep would be lost, which means fewer resources for the wool industry.
4. QUESTION TYPES
A) GENERAL QUESTIONS
These questions ask you for general information on the passage. They are
written in a number of ways. The four most common look like these:
B) SPECIFIC QUESTIONS
C) INFERENCE QUESTIONS
This type of question asks you to make logical deductions based on the
information or argument in the passage. Inference questions are difficult
because they require a precise and thoughtful understanding of the passage.
They are often phrased like these:
Step 1: Analyze and understand the logic of the question before going back to
the passage.
Step 2: Return to the passage to search for information, such as author’s point
of view.
Step 3: Eliminate answers that violate logic or common sense.
Step 4: Eliminate answers that distort logic or common sense.
Step 5: Use scope to eliminate remaining answer choices.
D) LOGIC-BASED QUESTIONS
In recent years, the test makers have introduced new question types
which come directly from the Critical Reasoning section. These are
logic-based questions, and you can now find strengthen, weaken, except, or
assumption questions mixed in with the other more common types of
questions in the Reading Comprehension section. Logic-based questions ask
you to evaluate a short argument based on something in the passage in
terms of the rules of logic, not in terms of your reading skills. To ace this
type of question, use the strategies in the Critical Reasoning lesson in this
book. Look closely at the AIM section for specific approaches to answering
logic-based questions. These are some of the most common forms of
logic-based questions:
FIRE!
Now you are ready for some practice questions…
DRILL 3
DIRECTIONS: This exercise contains one passage followed by questions
on its content. Select the best response to each question based on your
understanding of the content of the passage.
➩
Americans killed in World War I in order to
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
! (A) censorship laws during wartime did not affect the country of
Spain which suffered greatly from the influenza pandemic
! (B) influenza afflicted Spanish citizens before it afflicted citizens
of other countries
! (C) the origin of influenza was discovered in 1919 to be from a
small region in Spain
! (D) a prominent immunological researcher from Spain was the
first to classify the properties of the disease
! (E) morbidity figures for Spain during 1918 - 1919 were higher
than anywhere else in the world
➩
➩
Which of the following can be properly inferred from the
passage?
➩
incubation period of influenza.
➩
In the last paragraph, the author is primarily concerned with
DRILL 4
DIRECTIONS: This exercise contains one passage followed by questions
on its content. Select the best response to each question based on your
understanding of the content of the passage.
➩
It can be inferred from the passage that cosmological
measurements taken from galaxy and cosmic microwave
background maps would be more useful to scientists if which of the
following were true?
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
➩
It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following
would be one major difference in behavior between Manager X,
who uses intuition to reach his decisions, and Manager Y, who
uses only formal decision analysis?
! (A) Manager X analyzes first and then acts; Manager Y does not.
! (B) Manager X checks possible solutions to a problem by
systematic analysis; Manager Y does not.
! (C) Manager X takes action in order to arrive at the solution to a
problem; Manager Y does not.
! (D) Manager Y draws on years of hands-on experience in
creating a solution to a problem; Manager X does not.
! (E) Manager Y depends on day-to-day tactical maneuvering;
Manager X does not.
➩
SUMMARY
- The Reading Comprehension questions are all worth the same number
of points, and this section is not adaptive.
- The most efficient tool you have to select the “best answer” is scope.
Understanding the scope of the passage will help you decide if an
answer choice adds information not originally in passage or if an
answer choice distorts information using a trick.
- General
- Specific
- Inference
- Logic-based
ANSWER KEYS
DRILL 1
1. E
2. D
3. D
4. E
5. B
6. A
DRILL 2
7. E
8. D
DRILL 3
9. E
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. E
DRILL 4
15. E
16. D
17. B
18. C
19. D
20. D
HOMEWORK/PRACTICE TEST
READING COMPREHENSION
ANSWER GRID
A B C D E
1 ! ! ! ! !
2 ! ! ! ! !
3 ! ! ! ! !
4 ! ! ! ! !
5 ! ! ! ! !
6 ! ! ! ! !
7 ! ! ! ! !
8 ! ! ! ! !
9 ! ! ! ! !
10 ! ! ! ! !
11 ! ! ! ! !
12 ! ! ! ! !
13 ! ! ! ! !
14 ! ! ! ! !
15 ! ! ! ! !
16 ! ! ! ! !
17 ! ! ! ! !
18 ! ! ! ! !
✄
End
➩
When finished
18 QUESTIONS reading
25 MINUTES directions
click on the
Directions: This section consists of icon below
passages followed by questions on their
content. Select the best response to each
question based on your understanding of the
content of the passage.
Dismiss
Directions
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
Many of New York City’s post-1890 laws 1. Which of the following best represents the main
governing tenement houses passed as a direct theme of the passage?
result of the campaign of Jacob Riis, a Danish-born
writer and photographer. Riis’ work, published in (A) Housing conditions in New York in the 1890’s
5 the New York Tribune and the Evening Sun, spurred reforms governing the construction of
affected the way the entire populace of New York new buildings.
City, at least the literate populace, viewed victims (B) Until Jacob Riis, no journalist had made an
of poverty. Previously, many newspaper readers attempt to adequately capture slum life for a
had assumed that the poor were so by choice and newspaper’s readership.
10 the unhygienic conditions in which they lived (C) Jacob Riis was a tireless social reformer and
resulted from moral failure rather than champion of the rights of the downtrodden.
economic reality. Slums had been viewed as (D) Jacob Riis was among the first to postulate that
either places to be shunned or, patronizingly, as “double-decker” housing was exponentially
exotic locales where intellectuals and tourists could more hazardous than single-building dwellings.
15 “slum” for the day before returning to their high- (E) The activities of Jacob Riis awakened many New
rent neighborhoods and rhapsodizing on the Yorkers to the horrendous living conditions of
enviable happiness of the simple lives of the the city’s poor.
poverty-stricken.
Riis changed the popular outlook by
20 sympathetically portraying the urban poor in his 2. The passage suggests which of the following
writings and photographs, and, furthermore, about the “intellectuals and tourists” mentioned in line
calling attention to the squalor and danger of 14?
tenement habitation. Among the hazards Riis
depicted were structural deficiencies, which (A) Their appreciation of the slums was based on
25 regularly caused the actual collapse of parts of the contentment of its denizens.
buildings, and conducivity to fires. Both of these (B) Their attitude toward the poor was not
problems resulted from construction with an predicated on a thorough examination of
emphasis on haste and using cheap materials. The factual or empirical evidence.
subjects of Riis’ work were also subject to disease, (C) Regular visits produced in them an intense
30 often produced by a negligible water supply and familiarity with the poor sections of New York.
close proximity to unsanitary activities such as (D) They envied the living conditions of the poor.
animal slaughtering and bone-boiling, and easily (E) They were fully aware of the hazardous
spread by the incredibly overcrowded conditions. circumstances in which poor people lived and
Riis was also responsible for exposing the considered these conditions reasons for the
35 differences between single tenements and what happiness of those living in the slums.
were known as “double-deckers,” which were
tenements consisting of two dwellings, front and
rear, in which all the problems afflicting tenement
life were greatly multiplied. A survey of an
40 area in lower Manhattan Riis cited in the 1890’s
gave the mortality rate at nearly 30 per thousand
for those living in single buildings and over 60 for
those in tenements with two structures, and an
equally drastic divergence in the infant mortality
45 rate: about 100 for the former, double that for the
latter.
Eventually, Riis took a more active role, arguing
for and actually supervising the demolition of
many of the culpable tenement houses, and
50 publicly supporting the licensing and rent control
of all lower-class housing.
3. From the information given in the passage, 5. Which of the following best describes the
which of the following can most likely be inferred structure of the second paragraph of the passage?
about Jacob Riis?
(A) A description of the methods used to promote
(A) His photographs of New York’s poor are of social reform, and some reasons those changes
particular historical interest. were necessary
(B) He was responsible for the prosecution of (B) A close analysis of a political problem and its
landlords caught violating laws concerning development
tenement ownership. (C) A tribute to a social reformer, followed by a
(C) His campaign to open the eyes of New Yorkers systematic appraisal of a social phenomenon
to the horrors of slum life was spurred by his (D) A portrayal of the use of popular media for
immigrant background. political purposes, followed by the results of
(D) He developed a close relationship with many such actions
New Yorkers who lived in squalid conditions. (E) A depiction of contrasting views of a social
(E) After establishing a foundation of support problem, one held by the general populace, the
among newspaper readers, he began to other by an individual crusader
become active politically, furthering the cause
of housing reform.
6. The author’s claim that Jacob Riis was directly
responsible for the reformation of New York’s housing
4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the laws would be most effectively strengthened if the
passage as a hazard of tenement houses of which Riis author
made the general populace aware?
(A) related the dates and provisions of the laws to
(A) The likelihood of fires Riis’ campaign
(B) The possibility of disease being spread due to (B) described the arguments for and against the
residents’ inability to maintain normal levels of passing of each law
hygienic care, resulting from the small amount (C) provided more statistics concerning the hazards
of water available of tenement living
(C) The unsanitary proximity to disease-ridden (D) explained in greater detail how readers of Riis’
animal carcasses work responded to their newfound sense of the
(D) The high rate of crime resulting from incredible dangers of tenement dwelling
overcrowding (E) gave specific examples of poor people living in
(E) The high rate of accidents caused by buildings New York tenements in the 1890s who were
constructed from inappropriate materials unable to relocate due to financial or social
constraints
Primatologists did not know of the existence of 55 societal rules are unusual among primates and
the bonobo, a species of great ape, until 1928, unique among great apes.
when researchers noticed that the primate long
known as the pygmy chimp was actually its own
5 species. The discovery of this close relative to man
and the ensuing study of its behavior have forced 7. The primary purpose of this passage is to
scientists to rethink some of their traditional beliefs
about male-female relationships in great ape (A) present two conflicting theories about male-
species. Violent acts committed by males have female relations in great apes
10 been witnessed in many ape species, such as (B) dispute early evidence that male great apes
infanticide by male gorillas, rape by male often engage in violent behavior
orangutans if their courtship is rebuffed by (C) explain the origin of bonobo behavior
females, and bloody territorial wars among rival (D) discuss the unusual nature of male-female
chimpanzee populations. Recent research, relations in bonobo society
15 however, shows that males do not partake in any (E) portray bonobo group behavior as more socially
of these types of behavior in bonobo society. advanced than that of other great apes
The reason for the relative tranquillity in
bonobo populations, according to scientists, is
that the punishment of transgressors, the keeping 8. The author implies that male-male violent
20 of peace, and the setting of behavioral limits are contests are limited in bonobo society because
enforced by females. Females will sound a distress
signal if, for example, a male tries to hoard fruit at (A) alpha males can sometimes be dominated by
a feeding site and prevent others from females in non-sexual settings
approaching. Males can sometimes dominate (B) female alliances ensure that transgressors are
25 females, but only those who rank lower than them punished
and a female just as easily dominates a lower- (C) female distress signals will alert other members
ranked male. This is in contrast to chimpanzee of the population
populations in which all females are subordinate (D) there is a plentiful food supply allowing for
to even the lowest ranked males. Bonobo females, stable group living
30 who are powerful enough to resist even the (E) the winner would be unable to secure breeding
strongest alpha male, are thus able to ensure that rights and thus has no motivation
aggressive misbehavior, either in sexual or non-
sexual settings, is not permitted. Even male-male
aggression is limited, though only indirectly due to 9. According to the passage, chimpanzees differ
35 the vigilance of females. Violent contests between from bonobos in that
males secure breeding rights in most ape species,
but as a dominant male bonobo cannot force an (A) female chimpanzees are always subordinate to
unwilling female to become a mating partner, males while male bonobos are always
there is little to be gained by such contests. subordinate to females
40 Scientists are uncertain how such female- (B) male chimpanzees forage in small groups and
enforced pacifism evolved, but the key may lie in bonobos forage individually
the bonobo food supply. Bonobos are adapted to (C) chimpanzees compete violently for both
both a diet of leaves and stems, plentiful on jungle territorial and mating rights, while bonobos
floors, and meat and ripe fruit, not always easily compete only for territorial rights
45 come by. Unlike chimpanzee communities, for (D) bonobo females use distress signals whereas
example, which split up into foraging parties of chimpanzee females do not
varying sizes to find meat and fruit, bonobo (E) females can outrank males among bonobos but
societies are able to form more or less permanent not among chimpanzees
groups, providing the chance for females to build
50 alliances, ensuring that males don’t abuse their
greater size. While female alliances were not
unknown in primate species before behavioral
studies of the bonobo, the absence of male
domination and the female enforcement of
13. The passage is primarily concerned with 16. It can be inferred from the passage that the
author believes which of the following statements?
(A) the difficulties of changing from one currency to
another (A) The three-year transition period currently
(B) the three-year process of conversion to the euro scheduled for the conversion to the euro should
(C) the importance of a national currency for be considerably lengthened.
consumer confidence (B) The conversion to a single currency will have
(D) why the euro will be good for European some effect on competitive pressures on the
business European common market.
(E) the advantages and problems of the conversion (C) Many companies for whom the commission on
to the euro currency transactions is a substantial part of
their income will no longer be profitable after
the introduction of the euro.
14. The word "boon" used in line 21 is most accurately (D) If people educated themselves about the euro
described by which of the following? before its introduction in 1999, the transition
period would be made substantially easier.
(A) help (E) The number of new businesses that will be
(B) challenge created after the introduction of the euro will be
(C) mild difficulty greater than the number of businesses that will
(D) advantage be forced to cease their operations because of
(E) necessity the introduction of the euro.
15. It can be inferred from the second paragraph 17. Which of the following is NOT cited as a
that drawback to the conversion to the euro?
(A) having a currency controlled by a national bank (A) The need for businesses to substantially modify
gives some consumers a sense of security their accounting systems
(B) consumers often prefer paying with bank cards (B) The difficulties that European consumers may
than with cash have in adapting to the new currency
(C) many consumers do not yet know about the (C) The cost of printing and minting new euro bills
conversion to the euro in 1999 and coins
(D) The euro should not be introduced without a (D) The fact that bank cards will have to be adapted
concurrent public information campaign to operate with the new currency
(E) The introduction of the euro will entail less (E) The fact that many companies may have
national sovereignty for the member states of trouble surviving greater international compe-
the European Union tition
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
READING COMPREHENSION
HOMEWORK/PRACTICE TEST
ANSWER KEY
1. E
2. B
3. E
4. D
5. A
6. A
7. D
8. E
9. E
10. A
11. D
12. D
13. E
14. D
15. A
16. B
17. D
18. B
EXPLANATIONS FOR that the intellectuals' opinions that the lives of the
READING COMPREHENSION poor were “enviable” is probably inaccurate,
HOMEWORK/PRACTICE TEST according to the author. Thus the closest answer is
(B), which basically says that their attitudes were not
based on fact. (A) and (D) look at the intellectuals'
point of view, not the author's (remember, the
PASSAGE 1 question asks about what the passage suggests). (C)
misses the point that the intellectuals' visits were
The first sentence gives you an idea that this social superficial. (E), besides not being suggested by the
science passage is about the campaign of Jacob passage, could be considered offensive to the poor
Riis and its effect on government tenement and would never be credited by the GMAC.
housing laws. The rest of the first paragraph then
discusses how Riis' work affected people's views on
the poor.
Paragraph 2: Remember to pay attention to first and 3. (E)
last sentences. What did Riis do? He “changed the It is possible to infer (E) from the first sentence of
popular outlook.” How? “By sympathetically the passage and the last paragraph, which mention
portraying the urban poor in his writings and Riis's effect on the cause of housing reform. (B) is a
photographs.” The rest of the paragraph is details detail that we cannot infer – it is mere speculation;
on the poor conditions of tenements. landlords violating laws are not mentioned (if you
The last, short paragraph briefly alludes to Riis' later search the passage for “landlord” you come up empty).
activities. (C) is also pure speculation. The fact that Riis himself
That's enough to get out of a first read in 2 minutes. On was an immigrant does not tell us that his background
to the questions. provided his motivation. (D) is also a wild guess. Just
because the passage says that his photographs and
newspaper articles sympathetically portrayed the poor
doesn't mean he was close friends with those people.
1. (E) (A) is pretty close, but his photographs are just
The first question is a general one. The key word is mentioned briefly as, together with his writings,
“main” theme. The whole passage talks about Riis, so having “changed the popular outlook.” It goes too far to
(A), which doesn't even mention Riis, is out. (B) is a then infer that they are of particular historical interest.
sweeping generalization about the entire history of
journalism – there's no support in the passage for such
a strong statement. (C) might sound pretty good, but
it's too general – GMAT passages never have such 4. (D)
broad themes, and what's more, who's to say that Riis Crime is never mentioned in the passage.
was tireless? (D) on the other hand, is far too specific. Remember to go back to paragraph 2, which focused
While Riis did expose the dangers of “double decker” on the details of housing conditions.
housing, this choice is a detail mentioned in only one
paragraph. (E) covers all the paragraphs. The word
“activities” is broad enough to refer to his
photographs, journalism, and political or social 5. (A)
activities, while “the horrendous living conditions of the For an organization question like this, go back to
city's poor” is specific enough to stay in the scope of the paragraph, read the first sentence, then quickly
the passage. (Compare that to the broad language in skim the details. Predict an answer before looking at
(C): “the rights of the downtrodden.”) the choices. In this paragraph, we see that “Riis
changed the popular outlook” by doing some things.
Then there are details about housing conditions. So
the right answer should say something about bringing
2. (B) about change and why this was necessary. (A) is the
A question that gives you a line number is great, closest. (B) is wrong because there is not a political
but make sure you read a couple lines below and problem or a “development.” (C) is wrong because this
above the line cited to find the answer. Then try to is not a “tribute.” Watch out for making judgments
predict the answer before going to the choices. The about the author or the subject – you may admire Riis,
word “patronizingly,” a distinctly negative word, tells but that doesn't make this passage a tribute to him.
us that the author probably doesn't approve of the (D) is wrong because the paragraph doesn't talk about
intellectuals' attitudes. And because most of the results. (E) is wrong because there are no contrasting
passage is about how Riis opened people's eyes to the views.
terrible living conditions of the poor, we can conclude
14. (D)
12. (D) You don't have to know the meaning of the word
The first sentence of the paragraph gives it away: “boon” – you can figure out the answer from the
“the key may lie in…” The “may” indicates a proposed passage. “This openness… will be a boon… for
explanation. It is definitely not a discussion of the consumers, who will benefit…” Before looking at the
consequences of ideas from the second paragraph, so answer choices, you should have your own word in
eliminate (B); rather, it is a possible explanation, or a mind (based on the idea of benefiting). The closest
discussion of the causes. There is no “theoretical choice to the words “who will benefit” is (D),
model” in paragraph 3, nor is there any “data” in “advantage.” (A) is perhaps tempting, but “help” and
paragraph 2. These terms are too precise: out goes “advantage” are not the same. The consumers will
(C). (E) might sound tempting, but remember that benefit, but we don't know whether the euro will help
the question asks how the paragraph could “most them do anything. None of the other choices are
accurately” be described. A reiteration is not enough, positive, and so they cannot be right.
because there is an attempt to explain bonobo
behavior, even if the explanation isn't very thorough
or clear.
15. (A)
Note that the word “some” makes the choice more
attractive, as it is generally easier to defend or infer a
PASSAGE 3 statement about “some” things than about “most”
things or “all” things. The right answer refers
specifically to the line in the passage “the potential
As usual, you can quickly identify the broad topic: the mistrust of a currency not controlled by their own
“euro.” Also as usual, the passage has a more national bank…” Choice (B) is a distortion of the last
specific focus, though in this passage it is a bit sentence. People preferred bank cards in this case
difficult to spot. Look for key words and phrases to because they were confused by the new currency, not
make some order out of the passage, such as, in because they don't like cash. (C) is an exaggeration, or
paragraph 1, “transition period,” “afterwards,” distortion. People may not fully understand the euro,
“difficult one, not only due to … but also but that doesn't mean they don't know about it. The
because,” “however,” “additionally.” This shows “concurrent public information campaign” in (D) might
the structure and content. The paragraph is about sound like a good idea, but that doesn't mean it can
the introduction of the euro, the transition period, be inferred that the author deems it necessary. This
some possible results, why the introduction of the choice is a typical trap. Generally, in Reading
euro will be difficult, and why it might also be Comprehension stay away from choices that make an
beneficial (“however”). inference about what policy the author thinks should
be followed. (E) just isn't mentioned in the paragraph.
In paragraph 2, some key words are “one factor,”
“largely ignored,” “resistant… for several reasons,” and
“an experiment.” These indicate more problems with
the euro and a critical attitude on the part of the
author.
16. (B)
This is a hard question because it provides no clue
of where to find the answer in the passage. The word
“some” in (B) makes it a more attractive choice (cf.
explanation quest. 15). In the first paragraph, the
author writes “many businesses will find that they
cannot compete in the new, more open European
market.” This is quite similar to (B). (A) is a distortion.
We cannot guess whether or not the author thinks
that the conversion period should be lengthened (at
least not on the GMAT, which is very picky about
staying within the scope). (C) is a prediction that isn't
justified – companies might become less profitable;
nowhere in the passage is it asserted that they won't
be profitable at all. (D) is a statement that sounds true,
but it is uncertain whether the author believes the
transition would be made “substantially” easier.
Moreover, the author seems to be sympathetic with
the consumer, and this choice sounds judgmental,
and many of the reasons the author cites for
difficulties people will face probably wouldn't change
even if people educated themselves about the euro.
(E) is too specific. Who would make such a precise
prediction about the future? Not a GMAT author.
17. (D)
Problems with bank cards are just not mentioned –
the only thing said about bank cards is that some
people used them instead of paying with cash
because they were confused by the euro. There is no
indication that bank cards will have to be adapted.
18. (B)
The author certainly does not have an attitude of
“wholehearted support,” as most of the passage
addresses problems with the transition to the euro.
(C), “Objective analysis,” might sound tempting, but
the second paragraph is clearly negative, as is part of
the first. The choice of words, such as “imposed on
them largely without their input” indicate that the
author is critical. “Indifference,” in (D), is wrong for the
same reason. “Mild distaste” is negative, but what
does “distaste” mean?
End
➩
When finished
TIME – 25 MINUTES reading
18 QUESTIONS directions
click on the
Directions: This section consists of icon below
passages followed by questions on their
content. Select the best response to each
question based on your understanding of the
content of the passage.
Dismiss
Directions
➩
Test Section Answer
Time Help Confirm Next
Time
Quit Exit
EASY
the Beat movement influenced the writings of
Baraka
The avant-garde movement of the 1950’s,
including the generation of poets and writers that
came to be known as the "Beats," was a 2. According to the passage, a contradiction of
movement that, in general, avoided specific Beat poetry is that
5 political commentary in favor of an emphasis on
intense self-expression. So it would seem ironic (A) while it attempted to maintain a distance from
that from this movement emerged one of the politics, its experimental form and content
most uncompromising and strident nationalistic expressed a dissatisfaction with the norms of
voices of African-American literature. Yet this American society
10 contradiction and others are precisely what (B) although it was a mainstream movement, it
contributed to the development of the original enabled African-American writers to find a
vision of Afrocentric radicalism expressed in suitable voice
the work of Amiri Baraka. (C) it influenced writers of diverse ethnic origins
That the Beats influenced Baraka is although its practitioners were mostly white
15 indisputable. Baraka recognized that their (D) it strove to re-create poetic form while adhering
experiments in form and structure and their to literary tradition
deviations from what had been the widely (E) it managed a widespread appeal despite
accepted subjects for poems placed them outside content that had been previously considered
the cultural mainstream and denoted a critique of unsuitable for poetry
20 the traditional depictions of American society as
inherently humanitarian and just. He saw in their
technique the possibility of creating a new rhetoric 3. The passage provides information to answer
that helped enable him to reject the common which of the following questions?
course of African-American poets who, in
25 attempts to chronicle the experience of an (A) How did Baraka’s poetic technique diverge
oppressed group, had nonetheless utilized from traditional approaches?
traditional poetic expression. Using the technical (B) How did Baraka reconcile his Afrocentric
model of the Beats, Baraka established his own inclinations with his immersion in a movement
poetic dialectic, one which allowed him to dominated by white poets?
30 demonstrate his repudiation of the notion that (C) How can an outspoken voice such as Amiri
African-American writing can express the main Baraka be considered, if only tangentially,
concerns of the African-American experience while associated with an ostensibly apolitical
simultaneously attempting to establish a movement?
complicity between a marginalized poet and a (D) What forces contributed to Amiri Baraka’s
35 mainstream readership. decision to eschew the traditions of African-
American poetry?
(E) How did the writings of Amiri Baraka differ from
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to those of contemporaries in the Beat movement
of the 1950’s?
(A) explain how Baraka manipulated the traditions
of western poetry in order to create a new form
that would express his revolutionary ideas
(B) demonstrate that, despite his ambivalent
relationship toward his literary forebears,
Baraka was firmly enmeshed in a tradition
(C) depict the influence of the Beat movement on
mainstream American culture and how that, in
turn, affected African-American poetry
(D) discuss the inherent contradictions in the
position of an African-American poet
(E) underline how, despite superficial dissimilarities,
MEDIUM
4. The tone of the passage suggests that the author
most likely has what attitude toward Baraka’s For the past five years, the United States
predecessors in African-American poetry? government has spent over $2 billion per year to
fund the Human Genome Project (HGP), whose
(A) Their failure to establish a literary form distinct goal is to create a comprehensive "map" of every
from that of mainstream American poetry 5 human gene. The supporters of the HGP justify this
limited their ability to create an idiom relevant expenditure by pointing out the numerous
to revolutionary African-American politics successes that genetic research has had in
(B) They successfully documented the African- detecting and curing many serious diseases.
American experience in a poetic form accessible Martingale’s Syndrome is, in their view, a case in
to readers of various backgrounds. 10 point. Genetic researchers have discovered that this
(C) They wanted to impose the standards of debilitating disease is caused by a point mutation
traditional poetic forms on all practitioners of of a gene on the X chromosome, which leads to the
poetry. deformation of nerve cells in the brain. Since the
(D) They were marginalized by a mainstream early 1990’s those who might be carriers of the
literary public that failed to accept experiments 15 defective gene, but who do not suffer from the
in poetic content. disease, could have themselves tested in order to
(E) They altered the course of American poetry. avoid unknowingly passing the bad gene to a child
and risking that the child will contract the disease.
Recently, scientists have even been able to cure
5. It can be inferred from the passage that Baraka 20 Martingale’s Syndrome by injecting a "good" copy
of the gene into the fetus while it is still in the
(A) believed African-Americans should assimilate womb. Bolstered by their success against such
with American society diseases, scientists speculate that a substantial
(B) considered poetry the most effective vehicle for number of human illnesses have a genetic basis,
self-expression 25 and that once a complete genetic map is created,
(C) rejected the influence of his white counterparts they will be able to cure most of them by this same
in the avant-garde method of genetic manipulation.
(D) desired to create a poetic form with appeal to Certain critics, however, have appropriately begun
all readers regardless of their ethnic to question whether committing such a large
background 30 percentage of the U.S. research budget to the HGP
(E) thought traditional Western literary forms is the best thing to do. While admitting the
inadequate for expressing radical African- usefulness of mapping the human genome in
American attitudes order to detect and correct genetic anomalies,
these critics have pointed out that there are many
35 other factors involved in genetically-based diseases
6. The author uses the word "complicity" (line # 34) aside from the defective genes themselves, and that
in order to too much focus on mapping genes could prevent us
from finding potentially more useful ways of
(A) question African-American poets’ commitment treating such diseases. Often, the most significant
to their community 40 factor in contracting a genetically-based disease is
(B) emphasize the revolutionary aspect of Baraka’s not the defective gene, but the other factors that
work control whether the gene is active or inactive.
(C) demonstrate the direct correlation between If the gene is activated by any of a number of
Baraka and the Beats factors, ranging from hormonal to environmental
(D) critique the ability of traditional poetic form to 45 factors, the disease will manifest itself; if the gene
represent the African-American experience remains inactive, the disease will not. There may
(E) suggest that African-American poets conspired even be some genes which are defective in all
to appeal to the mainstream literary public humans, but which have been only activated in
certain people. In such a case, the discovery of the
50 factors which control the activation of this gene
would be a much more promising avenue of
research than the investigation of the gene itself.
7. This passage is primarily concerned with 10. Which of the following can be inferred from the
passage?
(A) the value of genetic research
(B) the potential benefits of the HGP relative to the (A) Most diseases will one day be curable by
money and time that it requires genetic manipulation.
(C) the number of diseases that might potentially (B) The effects of a defective gene can be
be cured by genetic manipulation counteracted by a good copy of the same
(D) what kinds of factors determine whether genes gene.
are active or inactive (C) With half of its current budget, the HGP could
(E) the soundness of the theoretical basis of the HGP still be completed in 5 years.
(D) The reasons that the budget for the HGP is so
high are essentially political and not scientific.
8. The critics of the HGP call into question (E) A complete genetic map is the most useful tool
we can create to help detect and cure
(A) whether the U.S. government should fund the genetically based diseases.
HGP
(B) whether or not the scientists who advocate
funding the HGP are acting in the best interests 11. According to the passage, which of the
of scientific research following is true of Martingale’s Syndrome?
(C) whether a cure for Martingale’s Syndrome
would have been found without genetic (A) Scientists have known about the disease only
research since the early 1990’s.
(D) whether the HGP is important enough to justify (B) Scientists have known that the disease was due
increased taxes to a point mutation on the X chromosome only
(E) whether some of the money and research effort since the early 1990’s.
spent on the HGP would be better spent on (C) Some people who carry the defective gene
other kinds of research which causes this disease do not suffer from
any of its symptoms.
(D) The discovery of the cause of Martingale’s
9. It can be inferred that the critics of the HGP Syndrome was one of the results of the HGP.
believe which of the following? (E) Martingale’s Syndrome is usually fatal.
DIFFICULT
13. It can be inferred from the passage that the
author
Linguists currently classify the more than 5000 (A) disagrees with the analogy between linguistics
different languages of the world into 11 great and biology
language "families," for each of which, it is (B) thinks that there is no single mother language
supposed, there was at one time an original (C) is one of the linguists of the 1970’s who helped
5 language which gave birth to the other languages create the 11-family classification
in the family. This classification system, with its 11 (D) thinks that a single mother language is possible
original languages, was decided upon only in the (E) doubts the validity of the 11-family classification
1970’s, by using methods drawn from the scheme
biological sciences. Biologists can determine the
10 familial relationships among animals by analyzing
the similarities in their genetic structures; the more 14. If the analogy between the biological method
similar the genetic structures, the more closely cited in the passage and the method used in linguistics
related are the species, and the more recently they is a valid one, it can be inferred that
"branched off" from their common ancestor.
15 Similarly, by comparing the structures of several (A) any two languages in the same family will
languages, linguists have been able to determine sound more similar than any two languages not
the familial relationships between them. Of in the same family
particular importance to linguists in the 70’s were (B) the languages that split off more recently from
analyses of the grammatical structures of these the mother language will be more similar to it
20 languages, for phonetic similarities alone were than those which split off earlier
considered to be too unreliable to count as proof of (C) just as new species are created from time to
a common origin. time, so are new languages
In the last few years we have been witness to a (D) since biologists have discovered that all plant and
new effort to find a single original mother animal life came from a common origin, all
25 language. This ambitious project aims to push the human languages must have a common origin
analysis back one step further, and to show that as well
the basic tongues of the "great families" are all (E) linguists, just like biologists, often neglect
derived from one most original language. Since the the impact of their own observation on their
information about the grammatical structures of object of study
30 these ancient languages is scarce and vague, the
attempt to show their interrelations is being
carried out mostly on the basis of phonetic 15. The advocates of the single mother language
similarities between certain very basic words, such hypothesis assume which of the following?
as "mother," father," "water," and "eye". While the
35 single mother language may well have existed, this (A) Languages develop and change according to
scientific methodology leaves many unanswered the same fundamental principles as do animal
questions, particularly as to the reliability of these species.
data. First, because of the mixing of peoples and (B) The basic languages of all of the “great families”
cultures, one group of people can easily adopt a branched off of the single mother language at
40 foreign word for use in their own language. Thus a approximately the same time.
similar word might appear in two languages, (C) Phonetic similarities alone can, in some cases,
without being the result of any familial relation. be sufficient to determine the existence of a
Secondly, given the limited range of human relationship between two languages.
sounds, and the evolution of sound patterns in (D) It is impossible to analyze the grammar of the
45 human speech, by random chance alone a original languages of the “great families.”
substantial number of words will sound identical in (E) Linguistics is not as similar to biology as earlier
different languages. linguists believed.
STOP
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS EXPIRED
YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK
1. E
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. E
6. E
7. B
8. E
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. A
17. E
18. B
You're counting down to the GMAT. Before panicking or canceling your test appointment, or deciding that this
test is just too hard and you're going to try professional sports instead of business school, step back and get a little
perspective.
Before taking the GMAT, you should be thoroughly familiar with the test. You should know the timing and the
structure of the test, including the six multiple-choice question types and the two essay types. DO NOT CRAM! The
GMAT is not suited to intense, last-minute study sessions. There is not a great deal to memorize for the test; while
it is (arguably) inadvisable to cram for any test, you are more likely to succeed on a university history test, for
example, than on the GMAT, after staying up all night studying. You can do well on the history test by memorizing
all the facts in the appropriate chapters of the appropriate books. You cannot know in advance exactly what
questions you will see on the GMAT. The only way to be make significant progress is to learn techniques and to
use the practice examples, with some time lapse between the lessons and the practice tests. You must build your
GMAT instincts, so that by test-day you react quickly when you see, for example, a faulty comparison in a Sentence
Correction question.
If you have followed the suggested study plan in Chapter 2, your GMAT instincts are probably pretty sharp by
now. With one week to go, you should do a little self-assessment. Ask yourself which parts of the test are hardest
for you. Do some light review. Go back through the lessons, skimming the text, focusing on the key concepts (the
margin notes and chapter summaries should make this easy). Review some questions you worked through already.
As you re-do questions and check the answers, ask yourself certain questions:
If you got the question right, did you get it right for the right reason?
If you got the question wrong, was there a simple mistake that you can avoid the next time? Was there a clue
in the question indicating that there might be traps in the choices?
For Problem Solving questions, did you look for answers to eliminate before calculating?
For Data Sufficiency questions, did you look for shortcuts, such as setting up equations and comparing the
number of variables and the number of equations?
For Critical Reasoning, did you try to identify flaws in the argument and predict the answer?
For Sentence Correction, did you compare the choices, looking for patterns, instead of treating each choice like
an individual problem?
For Reading Comprehension, did you get a quick overview of the passage instead of trying to memorize every
detail?
For any question type, did you look for traps and use Process of Error Identification?
If the answer to any of these questions is "no," you need to review some basic techniques. But don't solve a ton
of new questions. Answering a large number of questions without analyzing your work will not help a great deal.
Don't feel that you have to have memorized every word in this book. You can work a little on bringing your
weaknesses up to par in the last week, but don't forget about your strengths. Remember that solid approaches to
every question type are more valuable than highly specific strategies that may only apply to one or two questions
(or none at all) on the day of the test.
With two days left before the GMAT, it is more important to get into a good mind-frame than to learn test-taking
techniques. Stop taking tests. Try to get at least two consecutive nights of good sleep. Minimize stress, especially
from non-GMAT-related activities. Avoid scheduling important meetings or business-related deadlines just before or
just after the exam. If you are able to take a half-day or even a full day off from work or school, do so. The actual
GMAT testing time for the CAT is three and a half hours, and including the tutorial, the paperwork, etc. you will
likely be at the test center for four and a half hours or more. The test is tiring and stressful, especially when you know
that this time, the score actually counts. What you do the two days before the exam can affect your endurance and
performance.
You might continue doing a few practice examples, but don't spend more than about twenty minutes at a time
on questions. The best last-minute preparation is relaxation. You might want to see a movie, go out for dinner, or
just watch TV the night before the exam.
Make sure you know exactly where your testing center is. Do not wait until the morning of the test to get
directions. Remember to bring at least two forms of identification, including a recent photograph, and your
admission ticket (there will not be any scalpers outside the test-site selling extra tickets). Bring several pens or pencils
(even for the CAT). Bring a watch. You have the option of seeing the time remaining on the computer screen, but
some people feel more comfortable using an old-fashioned wristwatch. Do not bring a calculator; the proctor will
just tell you to put it away. Bring a bottle of water or juice and a snack, and a newspaper or some light reading in
case you have to sit around before the exam begins.
Wake up with plenty of time before you are supposed to arrive at the test center. Eat a reasonable breakfast. Try
to do some activity that gets your brain into gear, such as reading the newspaper. Do a few GMAT problems (not
to learn new tricks, just to get warmed up). Do a short mental review. Think through some of the main techniques
that you've practiced, focusing on what you're good at. At this point, forget completely about the question types
that give you headaches. Think about some kind of celebratory or relaxing activity for when the exam is over. ("Boy,
when this is over I'm going to buy myself that Harley I've been eyeing!") Do not think about your score or interviews
with business school admission officers--you can worry about these things later.
Most of all, stay calm. Remember that you are prepared! A lot of other test takers are in a panic because they
don't know what they're getting into. You have seen all major question types. You know how the test writer thinks.
You will surprise yourself during the test by remembering how to solve problems that in the beginning of your
preparation which might have seemed nearly impossible.
On the CAT, the first few questions count more than the others. Go a little slower on these questions. Overall,
you have nearly two minutes per question--just over two minutes for each math question, a little bit under two
minutes for each verbal question.
The questions always start out at medium difficulty. The difficulty level will change throughout the test. It is pretty
difficult to guess the difficulty level of questions during the test, especially for verbal questions. Whether you think
you're looking at an easy or a hard question, look out for traps. If you're convinced that you've seen several very
difficult questions in a row, and then you think you have a very easy question, you probably missed one of Phineas's
traps, i.e., the "easy" question only appears easy. The difficulty level doesn't jump a great deal from question to
question, though the change is more significant at the beginning and becomes gradually less significant as the test
progresses.
Don't obsess about time. You don't need to advance exactly every 2.02 minutes on math questions or every 1.82
minutes on verbal questions. You do, however, sometimes have to guess and count your losses. Don't get stubborn!
Never take more than three minutes or more to answer one question. Any extra time devoted to one question
means less time available for later questions.
If you find the clock on the screen distracting, you can turn it off by clicking on the clock icon. You can bring it
back and hide it again as often as you like. (Whee!)
Take the test actively. Try to predict answers on Critical Reasoning and Reading Comprehension questions. Look
for shortcuts on math questions. Scan and compare on Sentence Correction questions. Remember that you are in
control.
You can get an unofficial score immediately after the exam. You can also cancel your score immediately after the
test. The catch is that if you want to cancel your score, you must do so before seeing your score. In fact, if you cancel
your score, you (and the MBA programs) will never have any idea how you performed. Of course, once you find out
your score, you will never have the option to cancel it. You will not be able to retake the exam during the same
calendar month, whether you cancel or accept your score.
Good Luck!
MBA ADMISSIONS
The MBA has never been more popular. Applications to business schools
worldwide are up over 50 percent from twenty years ago. Americans pioneered
the degree in the 1920’s, but today MBA programs are as global as Coca-Cola,
and almost as well marketed. Over 160,000 students (130,000 from the U.S.,
20,000 from Europe, and 10,000 from Asia) on three continents sought MBAs
in 1998. Popularity, however, is only part of the MBA story. As a mark of
distinction in the intensely competitive world of business, the MBA is coming
into its own. The blue-chips, the best of the best, employers like Hewlett-
Packard, Coca-Cola, and Merill Lynch, have a special fondness for the MBA.
Every year their recruiters sweep MBA graduates off their feet and into lucrative
positions in marketing, finance, consulting, and technical management. No
other business degree can set you apart or take you farther than the MBA.
MBA programs continue to evolve and adapt to the demands of employers.
Global business, in fact, has a very strong influence on what you’ll learn and
what you’ll do in business school. No matter how many billions employers have
sitting in the bank, they feel they pay a lot for their MBA recruits and aren’t shy
about telling schools what they like, what they don’t, and what they need. As
businesses everywhere and of every size strive to be the next Dell or Disney,
scooping up profits and making markets the world over, they want people to
help them do it: MBA people with international skills, experiences, languages,
and perspectives. So, when businesses talk, business schools listen, and what’s
being talked about now is wanting more and more from MBA graduates: more
experience (3 to 5 years), more specialized training (information technology),
more international exposure (an enormous competitive advantage), and more
dynamism (the entrepreneurial model is the plat du jour).
Between MBA programs and MBA employers is an understanding that
curricula must be continuously improved to stay relevant and competitive.
Competition improves the breed, and no one takes this more seriously than
business schools and businesses do. Quality schools make curriculum changes
yearly now which mirror the changes in the business world at large that we all
read about in the Wall Street Journal – like the shift from heavy manufacturing
to marketing and entertainment services.
So, business schools and employers have a nice cozy relationship but where
does that leave you? The more applications schools receive each year, the more
choices they have to fill each year’s MBA class, their pride and joy. Your research
then must be thorough and discriminating; your thinking, clear and long-term;
and your decisions prudent and well-informed. The competition for MBAs is
fierce – Stanford accepts less then one-fifth of those who apply – and
expectations run high, but you have more choices than ever before too.
The two-year MBA program used to be the only game in town, particularly
in the United States, but things have changed. At many of the over 1,500 MBA
programs worldwide, one-year and eighteen-month programs are springing up None of these guys did
like Burger King franchises to better serve an increasingly diverse student body; badly after getting their MBA:
a student body made up of more international students, students in their 30’s Donald Trump (Wharton)
and 40’s, female students, and executives. Warren Buffet (Columbia)
Alan Greenspan
(New York University)
Tatsuro Toyoda
1. THE DECISION TO PURSUE AN MBA (New York University)
Robert Lutz (Berkeley)
It’s a big decision to pursue an MBA and not an easy one to make. The
potential rewards are fantastic, but before you get there you’ve got to think
about things like interrupting your present career, a substantial debt load, loss
of salary, relocation, and significant commitments of both time and energy, to
not only getting in but also to staying in the school you covet. It’s no secret that
higher pay (between 60- and 90-thousand U.S. for graduates from quality
Average job offers before schools) and job placement (quality schools place between 85 percent and 95
graduation
Stanford: 3.28 percent of their graduates within three months of graduation, and graduates
Harvard: 3.11 from the top Business Schools get an average of three job offers before
Wharton: 2.97 graduation) are universal advantages to an MBA, but the motives for pursuing
Columbia: 2.66 the degree are as diverse as the applicant pool. See if you recognize yourself in
Indiana: 2.37
Darden: 2.07 one of the profiles below.
If you’re here you’ve had several years of work experience and are thinking
about bettering your chances in your present company for promotion and
salary hikes in the future by going back now for an MBA. You’ll improve your
specialized business and technical skills in a year or two, widen the range of
opportunities, and increase the level of responsibilities offered you in your
company when you return. No doubt you’re ambitious too, and though you
want to elevate your level of career achievement, pursuing an MBA is a personal
objective as well as a professional one.
If you’re here, chances are you want to make a break from your current
employer. Engineers, for instance, often find themselves trapped by work which
is purely technical and want to make a career change. In many cases their
company won’t sponsor them for an MBA – because they like engineers just the
way they are – so these engineers, and many others from different fields like
them, choose to go for an MBA both to quit their present job and enlarge their
possibilities for future jobs. How will MBA programs go about their business of
broadening you? By sharing with you a general management education, with
opportunities for specialization, and valuable hard skills, such as quantitative
analysis, in keeping with the most recent methodologies, employer demands,
and requests from general business. The MBA is a worthy tool for positioning –
placing yourself in the best path for the best job possible after graduation. If you
read The Economist and watch Business Today on CNN but feel generally out of
touch with the prevailing environment in management, then you’ve stumbled
upon the MBA at the right time in your life – a quality, contemporary MBA will
diversify, indeed enrich, your prospects far better than TV can.
Three other types of MBA applicants we’ll roll into one here. What all three
of them have in common is only that they’re going for an MBA for none of the
reasons outlined above. They’re miscellaneous but they consistently show up in
the statistics derived from the applicant pool. Who are these citizens and what
do they want? Let’s take a look. A very small number of actual MBA students
pursue the degree principally as an academic challenge. These are the perpetual
students – if you’ve been around any college or university campus for long,
you’ve seen or heard of them. To these students, the immediate professional
reasons or benefits of the diploma are lost, but the test of one’s higher
intellectual capabilities is not – yep, you guessed it, they want the degree for the
degree itself. If this is your path in life, all the best....but, remember that the
MBA is a dedicated (and expensive) professional degree, and is rigorous enough
to make it difficult for even the hardiest professional student to justify.
The small piece of advice above applies to this next group as well. If you’re
here, you belong to an even smaller, even more rare type than the perpetual
student above – but some characteristics are shared. Who are we talking about
now? The younger student with little or no professional experience but with
excellent academic credentials who applies for business school admission.
Admissions officers advise all those in this category to think very carefully – and
to research very thoroughly – before applying for an MBA program. Further,
business schools and employers know precisely who they want in their program
or their organization, so in all except rare cases does the talented student or
intellectual who is not a professional, or who has no definite plans to be one,
gain admission or remain commited to an MBA program.
The third type of applicant is growing in number every year. If you’re here
you’ve had between seven and ten years of work experience and want an MBA
to take a break from, or quit entirely, your present career. You not only want the
academic challenge and environment of business school, you also have personal
motives – often to reevaluate what you’re doing and to make a change. There
are quite a few reasons admissions officers cite for why applicants in this
category become excellent MBA students: they’re self-sufficient and believe in
change; they have strong clear ideas about who they are and what they want
What are your motivations? to change in their life, education, and career the next time around; their
According to the Association maturity and unique perspective are appreciated in the classroom; they’ve taken
of MBAs, people pursue an a huge step toward what is expected of top executives and managers today,
MBA for the following continuous learning.
reasons:
-Learning
-Internationalizing
their career 2. CHOOSING THE RIGHT SCHOOL
-Changing jobs
-Wanting a higher salary
Rankings are not the only method for choosing a business school. Using
rankings to choose your MBA school isn’t even recommended – if that’s all you’re
doing for research. Use rankings as a guide only, to what’s out there, to how
different schools are judged relative to the the national market, and to how
different schools are judged relative to regional markets. (United States only)
Magazines are only one small factor in a decision which is an important and highly
personal one. Choosing the right school for you should be an individual decision
which follows from close, thoughtful evaluation, and from thorough investigation.
To do it right means expense of time, of energy, of motivation, of frustration – of
searching your soul – to arrive at the first basic requirement of admissions:
knowing what you want. After thinking it through personally, think about it
methodically – it is a life-changing decision and an enormous financial investment.
Business schools expect, and implicitly require, investigation from their applicants;
they realize, they have lots of experience realizing, that it’s a difficult decision to
make. So ask all the questions you want of any school you’re considering – by
phone, by fax, by e-mail – and don’t hesitate, they expect you to. Consult any
sources of information you feel will help you but give yourself time to thoroughly
evaluate all the factors involved, such as reputation, location, job placement,
curriculum, and networking. Only you know: neither rankings, nor advice from
colleagues, friends, professors, or mentors can choose the right school for you.
Rankings
If you want to know more
about ranking, the following
magazines publish rankings. REPUTATION
They are: U.S. News and
World report (U.S. MBAs),
Business Week (U.S. MBAs), The reputation of a school is determined both by word of mouth and by
Capital (U.S. and European official rankings put together by independent researchers. There are a variety of
MBAs) sources for rankings in American and European publications. The rankings can
tell you one thing for sure about reputation: there’s a strong correlation
between the reputation of a school and the average starting salaries of that
school’s graduates. However, the rankings offer a perspective but not the whole
picture of what’s really going on and thought about in the world of business
schools – so use them as a guide, not for answers.
Everybody wants to go to the big schools, because they’re the best, right?
and because everybody – any employer on Earth – knows their reputation.
While this may be true, a school should suit the applicant well, especially at the
graduate level, in all ways, not only reputation. Reputation can be used, true,
but you must decide where you’re headed and in what field and where before
you consider how a school’s reputation might of benefit to you. Not every
reputation, for example, need be global for it to be good. Excellent schools exist
both in America and in Europe with solid, local reputations; these are regional
schools, like Babson in the U.S., which are not well-known nationally or
internationally yet have unquestionable reputations within their scope and close
ties to businesses in their area. So ask yourself the hard questions and keep in
mind what industry and in what location you’d prefer to end up in – many,
many lesser-known schools can provide quality and specialization. Two more
things to bear in mind. One, the quality and the reputation of a school are
judged by its facilities, its faculty, and its student body. Two, as the correlation
mentioned above implies, reputation is of considerable interest to employers
when recruiting, so remember that your MBA and the reputation of the school
it came from will follow you wherever you go in your career.
LOCATION
With the exception of the top, brand-name, Platinum American Express card
programs, the location of a school can make difference both to you personally
and to your potential employers somewhere down the line after graduation.
Smaller programs don’t carry much weight far from their regions, but they often
have valuable ties to local industries. Ask yourself: will the location affect the
quality of my business school experience? and will it affect my employability
after graduation? (Get yourself the answers too.) Think about long-term plans
as well – where do you want to settle, and is the school there or will it allow you
to get there? Take into consideration personal as well as practical concerns.
Urban, rural, or suburban enviroment? Do you like snow, rain, heat, the colors
of the fall? Keep in mind pragmatic issues like the time and costs involved in
commuting and travel – do you want to commute?, do you want to travel? This
is the time to consider your personal preferences in things like geography,
population, weather, economy (regular or extra-lucrative?) – you’ll spend time
and a lot of money wherever you go, so make sure it’s where you want to be.
PLACEMENT
An MBA program’s job placement record and practices should be of concern
to you. More than likely you’re not going to business school to be left
unemployed and drifting after you’re done. Statistics on placement are easily
available either from the schools themselves or from the shelf-loads of MBA
information guides. See the bookstore or library nearest you, but call, fax, or e-
mail the schools first for as much free information as you can get. Looking over
these figures, wherever they are from, keep in mind that not just statistics are
important; it is whether they tell you what you want to know. Average starting
salary statistics, for instance, are only a place to start: you’ll want to find out
whether recruiters prefer school experience or previous work experience when
determining your salary. Look for placement services such as a career library,
career counseling, career fairs, a job bank, off-site recruiting, and referrral
services for résumés to employers. Read closely for the kinds of jobs found by a
given school – jobs are usually listed by type of employer (manufacturing,
services, banking, etc.) and by functional area (finance, marketing, consulting,
etc.). Pay attention also to alumni accomplishments, they speak to the
reputation and soundness of the school. Your career is a long-term project, so
consider not just your first job offer but also where it might lead you.
CURRICULUM
The curriculum is the heart of the program. You’ll sit over coffee talking
management theory you learned by it, and the prestigious faculty earn their
bread and butter by teaching it. In American schools the curriculum is under
constant supervision and change, constantly responding to the needs of general
business and the marketplace. In this endeavor, the most advanced schools are
tightly linked to businesses and employers trying to hone their curriculum to its
best, most cutting edge. This link between schools, businesses, and recruiters is
something you should be very aware of, for the results of it are found in nearly
every quality-school curriculum. Simply put, MBA directors now work to supply
what their business connections tell them they need – schools no longer are, or
want to be, insulated from the active and very real global business environment.
Schools feed businesses their polished graduates, and businesses give schools
their always-evolving assessment and their suggestions for improvement of the
strengths and weaknesses of a particular curriculum. Information-sharing, it is
sometimes called.
Teaching methods have changed in innovative programs. Their focus has
switched from a teaching model (you learn what we know) to a learning model
(you learn how to learn) after feedback from everyone involved – students,
teachers, and employers. Satisfaction among all three has been very high. The
learning environment is relevant for you in two ways. First, recruiting officers
from potential employers are very opinionated about – they know exactly
which – environments they prefer, so know that your learning environment can af-
fect how you’re employed in the end. In addition, the learning environment of
the school you choose should be suitable for your own personal needs, ends, and
personality; it should be in character both with you and what type of job you
want.
In programs that interest you, learn all you can about recent or on-going
curriculum improvements. Quality schools have made the student and how the
student learns their number 1 objective, so you should realize that advertised
faculty-to-student ratios don’t tell the complete and unabridged story of a
school’s learning environment. Look for curricula which highlight student-
teacher relationships, this is one of the improvements schools pride themselves
on – closing the gap between teachers and students. For example, there are
some two-year programs in which students see the same teachers for an entire
year. You may not want to get that close, but be aware of this changing
emphasis. Last, ask your target schools for the results of student exit-surveys
from the previous year’s graduating class. These can tell you a great deal if you
go through the trouble to get them and they are often published in some form
by the school.
NETWORKING
QUALITY OF LIFE
How do you want to live once at the school of your choice? Quality of life is
part of this picture too, though right now 10,000 other things probably seem
more important. Classroom experience is not the only one of importance in
school; your personal experience has its place too – particularly for full-time
students. So, quality of life or personal experience should be meditated upon
before choosing any of your target schools. The question is, what else does the
school and/or its surrounding area have that interests you personally? Activities,
community or cultural involvement, accomodations, sports, weather, cost of
living, and city size are all features to keep in mind. Whatever emphasis or
importance you place on quality of life, consider that business school is one to
two years of your life, is more than likely in a new city if not a new country, and
affects yourself, your family, friends, and others of significance to you.
INTELLECTUAL ABILITY
We’ve mentioned this before, but it is important and applies here as well: the
MBA is a professional degree, and a difficult and demanding task, which
requires high intellectual stamina and acuity. The way admissions officers see
this demonstrated is by looking at your transcripts and so forth to see if you
have a solid history of accomplishment in the classroom. This is the part where
your grades and scores come into play. Business schools want leaders, yes, but
they also want students who can keep up in the classroom – and you’ll have
some tough classrooms. Your undergraduate records help them to gauge your
intellectual aptitudes, your ability to study well at the graduate level. Some of you
already have graduate degrees of one sort or another, okay, this part isn’t a
challenge for you. But the scores, your GMAT, TOEFL, or both, are important for
everybody.
Of course the GMAT is the one they chiefly care about, and it is used to
appraise your basic academic skills and to allow comparison – a nice, neat
quantitative comparison – between competing applicants. The basic skills
judged are: math skills, primarily quantitative problem solving abilities; and
verbal skills, understanding and interpreting written material and basic writing
skills. Schools report a definite correlation between GMAT scores and class
performance during the first year of courses. Your test scores are used to some
extent by nearly every school and they’re not the only criteria looked at, but
they do give schools a sense of: can you study at the graduate level?
PROFESSIONAL POTENTIAL
You might ask yourself this question: who knew Donald Trump would end
up owning some casinos in Atlantic City? If you hazarded the guess, Wharton,
his business school, well maybe you’re right. What admissions officers would
love to do is to encourage the next Trump or Warren Buffet: what they’re
looking for from you is evidence of leadership – leadership is the stuff MBA
gradautes are made of. In this area, professional work experience – the quality
of it, what miracles you’ve performed while doing it, how much of it you’ve had
– are the most important of three factors; the other two are letters of
recommendation and personal essays. For quality, or the most selective schools,
full-time professional work experience is essential – they have plenty of
applicants with part-time experience, but very few of them become candidates.
Admissions officers say there is no more effective way of demonstrating your
leadership potential as a manager than by the fact of career success – it gets
them very excited about you. Show them your good side. For the most
favorable sketch of yourself, demonstrate clearly the successes you’ve had in
your career – don’t be shy. Also, tell them what contributions you’ll make to
your MBA class because of your success, and how you’ll make them. It comes
down to clearly presenting both your record of resposibility and leadership from
the past and your plan for resposibility and leadership in the future.
PERSONAL QUALITIES
Everyone knows that personality can take you a long, long way in life – look
how far it has taken Lee Iacocca. You just can’t keep a guy like that down. That’s
what these competitive schools want to see: something to show them that you
can take the blows, learn a lesson or two, and come back for more. We’re talking
about leadership, and business schools prize it as traders do bonus checks, that
is, highly – and very seriously. Why? Schools want MBA candidates who are fit
for responsibility, the sworn responsibilty of managing people and entire
organizations. They know from educating legions of CEO’s, COO’s, CFO’s, and
risk-takers like Trump and Lawrence Ellison that leadership is fundamental for
success in business.
In addition to a personality worthy of command, schools like to find in you
such personal qualities as communication skills, initiative, and motivation.
These are individual qualities, and they take their forms in each applicant in very
different ways. In presenting your own personal variety of ingenuity, leadership,
initiative, motivation, determination, creativity, and the like, it’s solely up to you
to think of examples which show you at your best and demonstrate the
principle involved. Individual qualities are what set you apart from your
competitors (nothing you can do about them anyway). Therefore, your
presentation of self – who you are, what you’ve done and why, and what you
want – makes as much difference in distinguishing you from another applicant
as your actual qualities do. Admissions officers don’t know you any better than
they know the other thousand like you who apply. They’ll work to surmise what
they can of you from letters of recommendation, your current professional
position, and any evidence of your personal interests – but in this case those are
the sketches, not the finished self-portrait. So use the tools you’re given, the
personal essays and the interview, to showcase your character and yourself. In
the application process, presentation is king.
Did someone say they were handing out free MBA’s here? Not this year, pal,
you must not be from around here. Here, wherever you are and wherever you’re
going, an MBA will set you back a tidy sum. The amount varies from school to
school, country to country of course, but expect to pay from $10,000 to
$35,000 per year. What the MBA really is, at these prices, is an investment with
expected returns somewhere off in the long-term future. It may grieve you, but
probably won’t surprise you, to learn that the bill for tuition isn’t everything
you’ll be putting on your tab once in school. Think about accomodations,
transportation, personal expenses, and the odd textbook here and there to keep
the bookstores happy and prosperous. These non-tuition (indirect) costs are
typicaly just over one-half of the tuition (direct) costs; Harvard, for example, has
tuition costs of around $21,000 and non-tuition costs of about $13,500. If you
add up those two figures (you’re the MBA-hopefuls, you’ve probably already
done it), you can see the wisdom in figuring the total cost per year for each
school under consideration: tuition, room and board, books, computer, travel...
Any, or a combination of all of the following four methods could be used to
pay for your MBA.
FINANCIAL AID
Financial aid in one form or another is by far the most common way of
financing an MBA in the United States. If you’re an international student
planning to study in the U.S., however, very little financial aid is available to you;
on top of that, you must prove you have sufficient funds to cover the entire cost
of the program before you can be admitted to the program in question.
International students find their MBA money from: their government
(scholarships, grants, subsidies, etc.), their personal funds saved or borrowed for
the purpose, or from their families.
As a graduate student, you are considered independent: only your financial
status and resources are relevant, not those of your family. Further, financial aid
for graduate students in the form of grants or scholarships is very rare in the U.S.
Which means that most candidates take on sizeable debts in their pursuit of an
MBA, mainly in the form of loans, and count on high future earnings to pay
them off. It’s a vicious cycle, but other choices are few. If your loans are arranged
by your target school’s financial aid office, then they are very likely need-based –
by far the most common type of loan – though a very small percentage are
unsubsidized, or non-need-based which carry higher interest rates in any case.
The financial aid office of your intended school is the best resource for specific
and current information on what money is available, to whom, and how.
BANK LOANS
Are you getting the idea that there’s no free money? If there is, there sure
isn’t enough of it. Which might explain why over 55 percent of all MBA
candidates finance their degree with bank loans. Many banks have loan
programs already set up for MBA students – you didn’t think you were the first
to need money for an MBA, did you? Ask your bank if they have something like
an MBA Loan or a Business Access Loan, or ask what they can do specifically for
MBA students. If you have a good relationship with a bank now, your path to
funds is going to be that much smoother. If you don’t, and you do think you’ll
have to borrow, make sure your credit history is accurate and up to date. Banks
are willing to loan money to MBA candidates who demonstrate a responsible
past and a high probablity for success in the future, they naturally want those
with the highest likelihood of paying off their loans. The future Wall Streeters,
the potential lions of the Bourse, the tigers of the Nikkei...
PERSONAL FINANCING
N° d’impression : NA-986/2007
Dépôt légal à parution
Written by:
Dr. Hubert Silly
Desktop Publisher:
Ilya Krupin
e-Learning:
Alex Nagorov
Albert Panyukov
ISBN: 978-2-916729-02-2