SYNERGY MOCK TEST TIME: 02 HOURS

SET 2

1. Look at this series: 21, 9, 21, 11, 21, 13, 21, ... What number should come next?
A. 14 B. 15 C. 21 D. 23
2. Look at this series: 8, 22, 8, 28, 8, ... What number should come next?
A. 9 B. 29 C. 32 D. 34
3. Look at this series: 31, 29, 24, 22, 17, ... What number should come next?
A. 15 B. 14 C. 13 D. 12
4. QPO, NML, KJI, _____, EDC
A. HGF B. CAB C. JKL D. GHI
5. P5QR, P4QS, P3QT, _____, P1QV (all subscript)
A. PQW B. PQV2 C. P2QU D. PQ3U
6. Tanya is older than Eric. Cliff is older than Tanya. Eric is older than Cliff.
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain
7. All the trees in the park are flowering trees. Some of the trees in the park are dogwoods.
All dogwoods in the park are flowering trees. the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain
8. Odometer is to mileage as compass is to
A. speed B. hiking C. needle D. direction
9. Yard is to inch as quart is to
A. gallon B. ounce C. milk D. liquid

SYNONYMS
10. RECKLESS
A. Courageous B. Rash C. Bold D. Daring
11. STERILE
A. Barren B. Arid C. Childless D. Dry

ANTONYMS
12. GRACEFUL
A. Rough B. Expert C. Miserable D. Awkward
13. OBSCURE
A. Implicit B. Obnoxious C. Explicit D. Pedantic

COMPREHENSION 1
Harold a professional man who had worked in an office for many years had a fearful dream. In it, he found himself in a land where
small slug-like animals with slimy tentacles lived on people's bodies. The people tolerated the loathsome creatures because after
many years they grew into elephants which then became the nation's system of transport, carrying everyone wherever he wanted
to go. Harold suddenly realised that he himself was covered with these things, and he woke up screaming. In a vivid sequence of
pictures this dream dramatised for Harold what he had never been able to put in to words; he saw himself as letting society feed
on his body in his early years so that it would carry him when he retired. He later threw off the "security bug" and took up
freelance work.
14. In his dream Harold found the loathsome creatures
A. in his village B. in his own houseC. in a different land D. in his office
15.Which one of the following phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of 'loathsome creatures'?
A. Security bug and slimy tentacles B.Fearful dream and slug-like animals
C. Slimy tentacles and slug-like animals D.slug-like animals and security bug
16. The statement that 'he later threw off the security bug' means that
A. Harold succeeded in overcoming the need for securityB. Harold stopped giving much importance to dreams
C. Harold started tolerating social victimization D. Harold killed all the bugs troubled him
17. Harold's dream was fearful because
A. it brought him face to face with reality B.it was full of vivid pictures of snakes
C. he saw huge elephant in it D.in it he saw slimy creatures feeding on people's bodies
COMPREHENSION 2
Laws of nature are not commands but statements of acts. The use of the word "law" in this context is rather unfortunate. It would
be better to speak of uniformities in nature. This would do away with the elementary fallacy that a law implies a law giver. If a
piece of matter does not obey a law of nature it is punished. On the contrary, we say that the law has been incorrectly started.
18. If a piece of matter violates nature's law, it is not punished because
A. it is not binding to obey it B. there is no superior being to enforce the law of nature
C. it cannot be punished D. it simply means that the facts have not been correctly stated by law
19. Laws of nature differ from man-made laws because
A. the former state facts of Nature B. they must be obeyed
C. they are natural D. unlike human laws, they are systematic
20. The laws of nature based on observation are
A. conclusion about the nature of the universe. B. true and unfalsifiable.
C. figments of the observer imagination. D. subject to change in the light of new facts.
21. The author is not happy with word 'law' because
A. it connotes rigidity and harshness B. it implies an agency which has made them
C. it does not convey the sense of nature's uniformity D. it gives rise to false beliefs

REARRANGE
22. When he
P: did not know Q : he was nervous and R : heard the hue and cry at midnight S : what to do
The Proper sequence should be:
A. RQPS B. QSPR C. SQPR D. PQRS
23. I read an advertisement that said
P: posh, air-conditioned Q : gentleman of taste R : are available for S : fully furnished rooms
The Proper sequence should be:00
A. PQRS B. PSRQ C. PSQR D. SRPQ
24. A train 240 m long passes a pole in 24 seconds. How long will it take to pass a platform 650 m long?
A. 65 sec B. 89 sec C. 100 sec D. 150 sec
25. Two trains of equal length are running on parallel lines in the same direction at 46 km/hr and 36 km/hr. The
fastertrain passes the slower train in 36 seconds. The length of each train is:
A. 50 m B. 72 m C. 80 m D. 82 m
26. A jogger running at 9 kmph alongside a railway track in 240 metres ,,ahead of the engine of a 120 metres long
trainrunning at 45 kmph in the same direction. In how much time will the train pass the jogger?
A. 3.6 sec B. 18 sec C. 36 sec D. 72 sec
27. If 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men
and 48 boys can do the same in 2 days, the timetaken by 15 men and 20
boys in doing the same type of work will be:
A. 4 days B. 5 days C. 6 days D. 7 days
28. A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3
hours, while A and C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone
take to do it?
A. 8 hours B. 10 hours C. 12 hours D. 24 hours
29. A can do a certain work in the same time in which B and C together
can do it. If A and B together could do it in 10 daysand C alone in 50
days, then B alone could do it in:
A. 15 days B. 20 days C. 25 days D. 30 days
30. A man is 24 yrs older than his son. In 2 years, his age will be twice
the age of his son. The present age of his son is:
A. 14 years B. 18 years C. 20 years D. 22 years
31. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 60 years. Six years ago, father's age was five times the age
ofthe son. After 6 years, son's age will be:
A. 12 years B. 14 years C. 18 years D. 20 years
32. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs. 854 in 4 years. The sum is:
A. Rs. 650 B. Rs. 690 C. Rs. 698 D. Rs. 700
33. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of simple
interest?
A. 3.5 years B. 4 years C. 4.5 years D. 5 years
34. A bank offers 5% compound interest calculated on half-yearly basis. A customer deposits Rs. 1600 each on
1stJanuary and 1st July of a year. At the end of the year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is:
A. Rs. 120 B. Rs. 121 C. Rs. 122 D. Rs. 123
35. The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum is Rs. 4347. The period (in years) is:
A. 2 B. 2.5 C. 3 D. 4
36. A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken
bythe boat to go 68 km downstream.
A. 2 hours B. 3 hours C. 4 hours D. 5 hours
37. In one hour, a boat goes 11 km/hr along the stream and 5 km/hr against the stream. The speed of the boat in
stillwater (in km/hr) is:
A. 3 km/hrB. 5 km/hr C. 8 km/hrD. 9 km/hr
38. A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the tank in the
sametime during which the tank is filled by the third pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the
first pipeand 4 hours slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe is:
A. 6 hours B. 10 hours C. 15 hours D. 30 hours
39. Three times the first of three consecutive odd integers is 3 more than twice the third. The third integer is:
A. 9 B. 11 C. 13 D. 15
40. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two-
digitnumber?
A. 69 B. 78 C. 96 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
41. Galileo was an Italian astronomer who
A. developed the telescope B. discovered four satellites of Jupiter
C. discovered that the movement of pendulum produces a regular time measurement D. All of the above
42. Gravity setting chambers are used in industries to remove
A. Sox B. NOx C. suspended particulate matter D. CO
43. Who is the only U.S. President to invent and patent something?
A. Abraham Lincoln B. Theodore Roosevelt C. Thomas Jefferson D. Rutherford B. Hayes
44. In which decade was the Internet first implemented?
A. 1940s B. 1950s C. 1960s D. 1980s
45. What Sir Isaac Newton invented?
A. Reflecting telescope B. Chronometer C. Microscope D. Spectacles
46. Which of the following is used in pencils?
A. Graphite B. Silicon C. Charcoal D. Phosphorous
47. The average salinity of sea water is
A. 3% B. 3.5% C. 2.5% D. 2%
48. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the
mirrorimage of the given combination.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
49. The humidity of the air depends upon
A. temperature B. location C. weather D. All of the above
50. Class A has a higher enrollment than Class B. Class C has a lower enrollment than Class B.
Class A has a lower enrollment than Class C. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A. true B. false C. uncertain
51. The opposition to the magnetic lines of force in magnetic is called
A. Resistance B. Reluctance C. Impedance D. inductance
52. Which of the listed devices is used to measure pressure and convert it to an electrical signal?
A. Transducer B. Reducer C. Transformer D. Rectifier
53. Brushless generators are designed to operate without the use of
A. brushes B. slip rings C. commutators D. all of the above
54. Ammeters and voltmeters used in sinusoidal AC power systems indicate which of the following values of the wave
forms measured?
A. Peak value B. Root-mean-square value C. Average value D. Maximum value
55. In a PNP transistor, the p-regions are
A. Emitter and Base B. Base and Collector C. Emitter and Collector D. Emitter, Base and Collector
56. AC circuits possess characteristics of resistance, inductance, and capacitance.The capacitive reactance of a circuit is
expressed in
A. ohms B. mhos C. henrys D. farads
57. The shunt used in an ammeter should be connected in____________.
A. series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement
B. parallel with the load and in series with the meter movement
C. parallel with the load and in parallel with the meter movement
D. series with the load and in series with the meter movement
58. When choosing a battery for a particular application, major consideration should be given to the battery's
A. amp-hour capacity B. terminal polarity C. stability under charge D. ambient temperature rise
59. A circuit breaker and a fuse have a basic similarity in that they both _______
A. can be reset to energize the circuit B. should open the circuit when overloaded
C. will burn out when an over current flow develops D. all of the above
60. The electrolyte in a lead-acid storage battery consists of distilled water and _____________.
A. hydrogen chloride B. calcium chloride C. sulphuric acid D. muriatic acid
61. Centrifugal pump will typically give you a low flow rate at a lower pressure, where a piston pump will give you
more pressure and higher flow rate. Is the statement correct?
A.True B.False C. First sentence is right. Second one is wrong D. I Don’t Know
62. Purifier is not rotating with desired rpm, reason?
A. Frequency low B. Bus bar voltage low C. Friction pads worn out d.all the above
63. The function of an accumulator on the discharge side of a reciprocating bilge pump is to:
A. Supply liquid even when the pump is not running B. Dampen out the pressure pulses and smoothen the flow
C. Increase the discharge pressure by storing liquid under pressure D. No such device is required to be fitted to modern
bilge pumps
64. The most important control measure to prevent boiler tube failure is:
A. Use of proper refractory material B. Proper maintenance of fuel burning equipment
C. Proper maintenance of boiler water condition D. All of the above
65. The gland packing of centrifugal pump should have
A.Not allow any breakage under the suction pressure. B.Should only allow drop by drop continuous leakage under
positive suction pressure. C. Should allow considerable leakage
66. Which of the following valve is liable to open or close under pressure of fluid, if not locked in position?
A. Gate valve B. Globe valve C. Plug valve D. Butterfly valve
67. Turbocharger most preferred
A. Cheap B. Boost air pressure C. Increase efficiency D. Reduce nox
68. Function of a de-superheater is to.
A. Protect superheater from overheat B. Control superheater steam outlet temperature
C. Increase the efficiency of the boiler D. Reduce steam temperature for auxiliary uses after steam superheater
69. Why should combustion blowers left running for while after firing a boiler?
A. To cool the furnace internal B. To remove the gases C. To cool tubes D. None
70. Single screw pump used as sludge pump the correct technical name.
A. Snake pump B. Screw pump C. Progressive cavity pump D. Gear pump
71. In a Sea Water cooled J.C.W. cooler, the most common cause for loss in cooling efficiency of the heater is:
A. Scale formation on J.C.W. side B. Mud/silt deposits on J.C.W. side
C. Scale formation on S.W. side D. None of the above
72. When running TWO centrifugal Pumps in parallel, Flow rate"Q" is increased.
A. TRUE B. False C. May Be D. I don’t know
73. Surface preparation of steel surfaces , prior carrying out painting is important because(choose the best alternative):
A. Any rust and contaminant inclusions may cause local paint film breakdown
B. Too much paint will be consumed if surface preparation is not carried out
C. Surface will be very rough if proper surface preparation is not carried out
D. Surface preparation deposits a chemical onto steel surface which reacts with paint film and causes strong bonding
74. Cadmium coatings provide corrosion protection . Cadmium coatings are commercially carried out using which of
the following methods :-
A. Metal Spraying B. Electro-plating C. Hot-dipping D. Metal diffusion
75. During flooding of a dry dock the following items must be verified
A. All sea valves are operational B. All overboard discharge valves are operational
C. Stern tube seal are operational D. All of the above
76. The machinery which is usually tested first once the ship reaches a dry dock is
A. Engine room crane B. Engine room lift C. Gantry crane for engine room D. All of the above
77. The most important control measure to prevent boiler tube failure is:
A. Use of proper refractory material B. Proper maintenance of fuel burning equipment
C. Proper maintenance of boiler water condition D. All of the above
78. The function of an accumulator on the discharge side of a reciprocating bilge pump is to:
A. Supply liquid even when the pump is not running B. Dampen out the pressure pulses & smoothen the flow
C. Increase the discharge pressure by storing liquid under pressure
D. No such device is required to be fitted to modern bilge pumps
79. The ballast valve of the fore peak tank is located in the duct keel and cannot be opened or shut by remote
operation. The valves of other tanks can be operated remotely without any trouble. Which of the following will be the
best practice?
A. Valve should be checked locally for troubleshooting without which it is difficult to find the exact problem
B. The actuator must be defective and should be replaced with a new one
C. The control circuit is defective and the PCB should be replaced
D. Shore assistance will be required in such cases
80. Wheel operated butterfly valves are operated through a reduction gearbox. The Gear arrangement inside of gear
box is of _________ type
A. Bevel Gear B. Rack & Pinion Gear C. Planetary Gear D. Worm & Worm Wheel
81.Supercharging an existing medium speed naturally aspirated engine will
A. Reduce weight of the engine. B. Reduce bulk of the engine. C. Increase existing power. D. Increase piston speed.
82. The main function of tie rods in the construction of large, low speed diesel engines is to
A. stiffen the bedplate in way of the main bearings to increase the engine's longitudinal strength
B. accept most of the tensile loading that results from the firing forces developed during operation
C. mount the engine frame securely to the hull to prevent shaft coupling misalignment
D. connect the crosshead solidly to the piston rod
83. The fall in speed that occurs in a diesel engine equipped with governor, on increase of load is called:
A. Offset B. Speed dropC. Speed droop D. Speed offset
84. If the tappet clearance between the rocker arm tappet and exhaust valve stem is excessive then:
A. The valve will open early and close laterB. The valve will open later and close early
C. The valve will open and close later D. The valve will open and close early
85. Which of the following types of diagrams would give an indication of effectiveness of exhaust and scavenge
processes?
A. Power card B. Draw card C. Light spring diagram D. All of the above.
86. In a 2-stroke engine a ________________ separates the under piston space from the crankcase.
A. A-frameB. CrossheadC. DiaphragmD. Scavenge space
87. Which of the following gauges are generally used to evaluate main bearing clearances? \
A. Poker gauge B. Feeler gauge C. Telescopic feeler gauge D. Dial gauge
88. Modern 4-stroke medium speed, marine diesel engine exhaust valve spindles are rotated by providing
A. Nozzle ringsB. Tappet clearanceC. Spinners or vanesD. Rotocaps
89. The purpose of economizer is to:
A. Decrease the capacity& size of the auxiliary boilerB. Cooling down the exhaust gases in order to reduce NOxemission
C. Allowing Sox to react at low temperatures with water to form acids thus reducing Sox emission
D. Increasing the overall efficiency of the main propulsion plant
90. In a VIT equipped jerk type fuel pump:
A. Raising the barrel delays beginning of injection B. Lowering the barrel delays beginning of injection
C. Raising the barrel delays end of injection D. Lowering the barrel delays end of injection
91.You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then_______.
A. use a portable foam extinguisher B. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
C. use a portable CO2 extinguisher D. determine the cause of the fire
92. Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop __________.
A. oil from flowing out of the tank vent B. air from entering the tank vent
C. vapors from leaving the tank vent D. flames on deck from entering the tank vent
93. The most common cause of engine room fires is:
A. Spontaneous combustion of oily rags B. Back fire of boilers C. Ignition sources coming in contact with stored
fuel /lubes D. Oil leakage coming in contact with hot exposed surfaces
94.What is the minimum percentage of oxygen required before making an entry into an enclosed space?
A. 20% B. 18% C. 11% D. 21%
95.Selective catalytic reduction is a secondary method for reduction of which of the following emissions?
A. SOX B. NOX C. Carbon oxides D. All of the above
96. Which of the following extinguishing medium should never be used when fighting fire involving magnesium?
A. Halon B. Dry Chemical powder C. Water D. CO2
97. The stretcher normally used for rescue of casualties from engine room spaces, holds, pump-rooms etc., is known
as_____________________
A. Williamson stretcher B. Neil Hobson stretcher C. Neil Robertson stretcher D. Stokes stretcher
98. The emergency generator should be capable of being started and be able to supply required load within a
maximum
of ________________.
A. 30 seconds B. 1 min C. 45 seconds D. 2 mins
99. EEBD service time
A. 15 min B. 10 min C. 20 min D.30 min
100. Immersion suit donning time without assistance
A. 30sec B. 1min C. 3min D0. 2min

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