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I. Multiple Choice 22. Wristdrop, or flexion of the wrist, occurs as a result of damage to
1. Salient characteristic thymus is the presence of what nerve
a. Germinal center c. Hassal’s corpuscles a. ulnar c. median
b. Peyer patches d. Central arteries b. radial d. musculocutaneous
2. Salient characteristic of lymph glands 23. “Apelike” appearance of the hand occur as a result of damage to
a. Germinal center c. Hassal’s corpuscles what nerve
b. Peyer patches d. Central arteries a. ulnar c. median
3. Which of the following is an encapsulated peripheral lymphoid organ b. radial d. musculocutaneous
that serves as a primary immunologic filter of blood? 24. “Claw-hand deformity” is common to damage of what nerve
a. Bone Marrow c. Thymus a. ulnar c. median
b. Lymph node d. Spleen b. radial d. musculocutaneous
4. Motile process with highly organized microtubules 25. Brachial artery terminates at
a. Centrioles c. Stereocilia a. middle half of the shaft of humerus c. around the cubital fossa
b. Cilia d. None of these b. neck of the radius d. lateral portion of the ulna
5. The following are characteristic features of epithelia EXCEPT 26. Anatomic standing position EXCEPT
a. Highly cellular c. Highly vascular a. upper limbs at the sides, palms facing the body
b. Presence of basement membrane d. High polarity b. upper limbs hanging easily at the sides with palms facing forward
6. The unit membrane of a cell under EM is a ________ layer c. feet slightly separated and parallel
a. Bilipid c. Phospholipid d. individual stands erect
b. Trilaminar d. Peripheral protein 27. Which of the following has a pyknotic nucleus
7. Concentration and packaging of secretory products is subserved by a. promyelocytes c. normoblasts
the b. basophilic erythroblasts d. reticulocytes
a. mitochondria c. lysosomes 28. Which of the following cells in the bone marrow has a
b. Golgi Apparatus d. microbodies multilobulated nucleus
8. Sebaceous gland is an example of what type of gland a. megakaryocytes c. myeloblasts
a. merocrine c. holocrine b. normoblast d. promyelocytes
b. apocrine d. none of these 29. Cells primarily responsible for humoral immunity
9. Which tissue type lines most of the urinary passages and bladder a. B-Lymphocytes c. plasma cells
a. nonkeratinized stratified squamous c. transitional B. T-Lymphocytes d. mast cells
b. simple ciliated columnar d. pseudostratified columnar 30. Cells primarily responsible for cell-meditated immunity
10. Plasma cells are derived from a. B-Lymphocytes c. Plasma Cells
a. monocytes c. T-Lymphocytes b. T-Lymphocytes d. metamyelocytes
b. mesenchymes d. B-Lymphocytes 31. Sideward movement away from the midline
11. The most common connective tissue cell that is responsible for a. adduction c. lateral Flexion
the synthesis of fibers and intercellular ground substance b. abduction d. hyperabduction
a. fibroblasts c. mesenchymes 32. An orderly sequence of movements which occurs in the sagittal,
b. osteoclasts d. chondroblasts frontal, and intermediate oblique planes
12. Which of the following cells synthesize antibodies a. rotation c.supination
a. plasma cells c. adipocytes b. circumduction d. hyperadduction
b. macrophages d. mast cells 33. Primary curvatures that developed during the fetal period
13. Site of hyaline cartilage in adult a. thoracic and cervical c. thoracic and sacral
a. trachea c. vertebral disks b. lumbar and sacral d. none of these
b. external ear d. epiglottis 34. The main ligamentous union between the clavicle and the
14. Characteristics of cartilage EXCEPT remainder of the upper limbs is the
a. low metabolic rate c. vascular a. coracoacromial ligament c. sternoclavicular ligament
b. grows only by interstitial growth d. contain collagenous fibers b. costoclaviular ligament d. coracoclavicular ligament
15. The major bone-forming cells are the 35. Abnormal lateral deviation of the vertebral curvature
a. osteoprogenitor cells c. osteoclasts a. lordosis c. scoliosis
b. osteoblasts d. osteocytes b. kyphosis d. none of these
16. Collection of neuron cell bodies in the central nervous system is 36. The largest carpal bone is the
referred to as: a. lunate c.scaphoid
a. ganglia c. nuclei b. capitates d. pisiform
b. nodes d. neuroglia 37. Which carpal bone lies on the floor of the “anatomical snuffbox”
17. The following are intrinsic muscles of the back EXCEPT: a. trapezium c.hamate
a. iliocostalis c. latissumis dorsi b. scaphoid d. trapezoid
b. longisimus d. spinalis 38. Anterior wall of the axilla EXCEPT
18. The following cervical vertebra are atypical EXCEPT a. pectoralis muscle c. clavipectoral fascia
a. atlas c. 6th cervical b.subclavius d. latissimus dorsi
b. axis d. 7th cervical 39. The plane that cuts the body into an anterior and posterior part is
19. The first cervical vertebrae the :
a. does not possess a body and a spinous process a. midsagittal plane c. coronal plane
b. has peglike odontoid process b. cross-section d. sagittal plane
c. has the longest spinous process 40. Movements in the sagittal plane about a frontal axis EXCEPT
d. none of these a. flexion c. hyperflexion
20. Total number of vertebral column b. extension d. abduction
a. 30 b. 33 c. 32 d.35 41. Which of the following nerves is damaged if there is loss of
21. Axillary artery becomes the brachial artery at the level of sensation and paralysis of muscles on the plantar aspect of the
a. 1st rib c. neck of the radius medial side of the foot?
b. lower board of teres major d. none of these a. common peroneal c. sural
b. tibial d.deep peroneal
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42. Ligament that prevents anterior displacement of the femur on the 62. Which of the following glands contain both mucous and serous
tibia when the knee is flexed adenomere?
a. anterior cruciate c. tibial collateral a. Liver c. Pancreas
b. fibular collateral d. posterior cruciate b. Parotid gland d. Sublingual gland
43. “Foot drop” and loss of sensation on the dorsum of the foot and 63. Which of the following structures acts primarily o promote the
lateral aspect of the leg is common in damage of what nerve? absorption of nutrients by increasing the internal surface area of
a. common peroneal c. sciatic the small intestines
b. tibial d. sural a. Goblet cells c. Peyer’s patches
44. The fusion of bony components of the hip bones occur at the b. Microvilli d. Teniae coli
a. obturator foramen c.acetabulum 64. Most numerous lingual papillae of the tongue
b. sacrum d. sacroiliac joint a. Fungiform c. Filiform
45. In proper sitting position, the bony support of the body is b. Circumvallate d. Foliate
concentrated in the 65. The hardest component of the human body
a. buttocks c.coccyx a. Enamel c. Cementum
b. sacrum d. isichial tuberosity b. Dentin d. Alveolar bone
46. The largest and strongest bone of the foot 66. Human adults normally have __________ permanent teeth
a. talus c. navicular a. 30 b. 32 c. 20 d. 33
b. calcaneus d. cuboid 67. Contents of the portal triad EXCEPT:
47. The inability to extend the leg at the knee joint indicate paralysis a. Portal vein c. Hepatic vein
of which of the following muscles? b. Hepatic artery d. Bile duct
a. semitendinosus c. gracilis 68. Glands found in the submucosa of the duodenum
b. Sartorius d. quadriceps femoris a. Gastric glands c. Brunner’s glands
48. The inability to dorsiflex the foot indicates damage to what b. Von ebner’s gland d. None of these
muscle 69. Permanent circular folds (plica circulares) are a characteristic
a. Tibialis posterior c. Tibialis anterior structural feature of the walls of which of the following organs?
b. peroneus longus d. vastus lateralis a. Anal Canal c. Colon
49. Muscle of the anterior compartment of the thigh EXCEPT b. Cecum d. Small intestines
a. Sartorius c.semimembranosus 70. Which of the following organs characteristically contains the most
b. vastus medialis d. vastus lateralis goblet cells in the mucosa coveing its villi?
50. Structures that passes the greater sciatic foramen EXCEPT a. villi c. ileum
a. piriformis muscle c. nerve to quadratus femoris b. colon d. duodenum
b. gluteal vessels and nerves d. obturator nerve?? 71. Melanin synthesis involves conversion of what amino acid?
51. Which of the following is located at the transition between the a. Lysine c. Phenylalanine
conducting and respiratory portions of the respiratory tract? b. Tyrosine d. None of these
a. bronchioles c. respiratory bronchioles 72. In humans, the first bone to calcify:
b. primary bronchi d. secondary bronchi a. Humerus c. Clavicle
52. C-shaped hyaline cartilages are characteristic features of the b. Hard palate d. 7th cervical vertebrae
walls of which of the following structures? 73. True regarding epithelial tissue EXCEPT:
a. alveolar duct c. trachea a. Epithelia rest on basal lamina
b. bronchi d. bronchioles b. Epithelia are highly vascularized
53. The “orange peel” appearance of the skin of the mammary gland c. Epithelia are capable of metaplasia
with CA is due to the pull f the d. Epithelia covers or lines body surfaces
a. lactiferous duct c. Suspensory ligament of Cooper 74. Which of the following is the approximate life span of an
b. sappeys plexus d. axillary tail of spence erythrocyte?
54. The lungs is a direct derivative of the: a. 8 days c. 5 weeks
a. pharynx c. midgut b. 20 days d. 4 months
b. foregut d. esophagus 75. Which of the following is true of gallbladder?
55. Pneumothorax is a condition when there is _______________ in a. Dilutes bile c. Secretes bile
the pleural cavity b. Absorbs bile d. Stores bile
a. Fluid c. Air 76. The fundus of the gallbladder usually lies opposite the tip of the
b. Blood d. A, B and C right costal cartilage.
56. An aspirated object by a patient would most likely be located in a. 7th b. 8th c. 9th d. 10th
the _____________ lung 77. The common bile duct terminates in the medial wall of the
a. Left upper lobe c. Right upper lobe ___________ part of the duodenum
b. Left lower lobe d. Right lower lobe a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. 4th
57. The motor innervation of the respiratory diaphragm 78. Ligament that divides the liver into left and right lobe
a. Intercostal nerve c. Vagus nerve a. Triangular ligament c. Ligamentum Teres
b. Phrenic nerve d. A,B and C b. Falciform ligament d. Coronary Ligament
58. Structure passing through the esophageal hiatus of the 79. This muscle augments the action of rectus abdominis muscle
diaphragm a. External Oblique c. Transversus abdominis
a. Vagus nerve c. Inferior vena cava b. Internal Oblique d. Pyramidalis
b. Phrenic nerve d. Azygus vein 80. Separates the duodenum from the jejunum
59. The structure passing the opening of the diaphragm at the level of a. Triangular Ligament c. Ligament of treitz
the 10th thoracic vertebrae: b. Tuber Omentale d. Round Ligament
a. Esophagus c. Aorta 81. The testis is encapsulated by dense fibrous tissue known as:
b. Phrenic nerve d. None of these a. Tunica vaginalis c. Tunica intima
60. The apex of the heart is part of the: b. Tunica albugenea d. None of these
a. Right ventricle c. Interventricular septum 82. The major site of storage of newly formed spermatozoa
b. Left ventricle d. None of these a. Seminal vesicle c. Epididymis
61. Which of the following glands lack serous acini but contains b. Prostate d. Testes
serous demilunes?
a. Liver c. Pancreas
b. Parotid gland d. Sublingual gland
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83. Which of the following is the most common site of disease in older 102. This muscle divides the neck into 2 major triangle
males? a. Sternocleidomastoid c. Trapezius
a. Penile urethra c. Prostate b. Platysma d. Omohyoid
b. Seminal vesicle d. Membranous urethra 103. This muscle divides the posterior triangle into smaller triangle
84. Which of the following hormones is a glucocorticoids? a. Omohyoid c. Sternocleidomastoid
a. Aldosterone c. Glucagon b. Platysma d. Omohyoid
c. Corticosterone d. Dehydoepiandrosterone 104. Muscles of mastication EXCEPT:
85. Hormones produced in response to decreased blood calcium level a. Buccinator c. Medial pterygoid
a. Glucagon c. Calcitonin b. Masseter d. Lateral pterygoid
b. Insulin d. Parathyroid hormones 105. The most common site of fracture of the mandible
86. Body’s basal metabolic rate is increased is increased by what type a. Angle c. Body
of hormones? b. Alveolar process d. Condylar process
a. Glucagon c. Tyroxine 106. General sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is provided by
b. Insulin d. Pancreatic polypeptides this nerve:
87. Epinephrine and Norepinephrine are hormones produced by what a. Trigeminal nerve c. Glossopharygeal nerve
part of the adrenal glands? b. Hypoglossal nerve d. Facial nerve
a. Zona glomerulosa c. Adrenal medulla 107. All intrinsic muscles of the larynx are innervated by the recurrent
b. Zona fasciculate d. Zona reticularis laryngeal nerve EXCEPT:
88. Branches of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery a. Cricothyroid c. Lateral cricoarytenoids
EXCEPT: b. Interarytenoids d. Posterior cricoarytenoids
a. Testicular artery c. Inferior vesical artery 108. The orifice of the parotid duct opens into the oral vestibule
b. Uterine artery d. Middle rectal artery opposite the:
89. Muscles that compress the vagina and act like a sphincter a. 1st molar tooth c. 2nd molar tooth
EXCEPT: b. Third molar tooth d. “wisdom tooth”
a. Pubovaginalis c. External Urethral artery 109. The only paranasal sinuses present at birth
b. Ischiocavernosus d. Bulbospongiosus a. Frontal and sphenoid c. Frontal and maxillary
90. Part of the broad ligament of the uterus forming mesentery of the b. Maxillary and ethmoid d. Ethmoid and frontal
uterine tubes 110. The largest paranasal sinus
a. Mesometrium c. Mesosalpinx a. Sphenoidal c. Ethmoidal
b. Suspensory ligament d. Mesovarium b. Frontal d. Maxillary
91. The urogenital diaphragm is formed by all of the following 111. The major arterial supply of the internal nose is:
structures EXCEPT: a. Anterior ethmoidal artery c. Sphenopalatine artery
a. Deep transverse perineal muscle c. Perineal membrane b. Posterior ethmoidal artery d. Greater palatine artery
b. Colles fascia d. Sphincter urethral muscle 112. Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for
92. Prostate lobe that can be palpated on digital rectal examination retraction of the tongue upward and backward?
a. Anterior c. Posterior a. Styloglossus c. Hyoglossus
b. Lateral d. None of these b. Palatoglossus d. Genioglossus
93. Which of the following produce both androgen-binding protein 113. The superficial fascia of the neck forms a thin layer that encloses
and inhibin? what muscle?
a. Leydig cells c. Myoepithelial cells a. Sternocleidomastoid c. Trapezius
b. Sertoli cells d. Fibroblasts b. Platysma d. All of the above
94. Which of the following is a connective tissue sheath that surround 114. Pterion is the fusion of the following bones EXCEPT:
each seminiferous tubules? a. Sphenoid bone c. Temporal bone
a. Dartos tunic c. Tunica propria b. Ethmoid bone d. Parietal bone
b. Septum d. Tunica albuginea 115. The largest muscle of the body
95. Ovulation is triggered by a surge in the release of which a. Pectoralis major c. Gluteus Maximus
substance by the hypothalamic neurons? b. Teres major d. Quadratus femoris
a. Dopamine c. Luteinizing hormone 116. All intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue are innervated by:
b. Follicle stimulating hormone d. Somatostatin a. Vagus nerve c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
96. Which of the following cell types characteristically produces b. Hypoglossal nerve d. Facial nerve
glucagon? 117. The only muscle of the soft palate which also acts as a retractor of
a. A (alpha) cells c. C (parafolicullar) cells the Eustachian tube;
b. B (beta) cells d. D (delta) cells a. Musculus uvulae c. Tensor levator palatine
97. The uterus is related anteriorly to the: b. Levator veli palatini d. Palatopharyngeus
a. Broad ligament c. Rectouterine pouch 118. This is referred to as the strongest intrinsic laryngeal muscle since
b. Vesicouterine pouch d. None of these it is the sole abductor of the vocal cords
98. Laterally, the broad ligament is prolonged superiorly as the: a. Cricothyroid c. Lateral cricoarytenoids
a. Mesometrium c. Suspensory ligament of the ovary b. Interarytenoids d. Posterior cricoarytenoids
b. Ligament of the ovary d. Cardinal ligament 119. The blood supply of the nasal cavity is from:
99. Most common site of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) a. Opthalmic artery c. Facial artery
a. Central Zone c. Transition Zone b. Maxillary artery d. All of the above
b. Peripheral Zone d. None of these 120. A fibrous band or sheet connecting two or more bones, cartilages
100. Ovarian follicle composed of primary oocyte surrounded by a or visceral structure is known as:
single layer of flattened follicular cells a. Synovial sheet c. Tendon
a. Primary follicle c. Mature follicle b. Ligament d. Fascia
b. Secondary follicle d. Primodial follicle 121. The following foramen are located in the posterior cranial fossa
101. The carotid sheath embedded the following EXCEPT: EXCEPT:
a. Common and Internal carotid arteries a. Jugular foramen c. Foramen lacerum
b. Internal jugular vein b. Hypoglossal canal d. Internal auditory meatus
c. Vagus nerve 122. The spinal fluid is secreted by the:
d. External jugular vein a. Choroids plexus c. Pia mater
b. Arachnoid granulations d. Arachnoid mater
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123. A torn meningeal artery is most likely to bleed into 139. Dural sinus formed by union of the inferior sagital sinus and great
a. Epidural space c. Subarachnoid space cerebral vein
b. Subdural space d. Dural venous sinuses a. Straight sinus c. Transverse sinus
124. Arterial supply of Broca’s speech area b. Sigmoid sinus d. Occipital sinus
a. Anterior cerebral c. Middle cerebral 140. The following structures are found in the ventral surface of the
b. Posterior cerebral d. Anterior spinal medulla EXCEPT:
125. The cerebral aqueduct is located in the a. Cranial nerve IX, X, XII c. Fasciculus cuneatus
a. Forebrain c. Midbrain b. Pyramid d. Olive
b. Diencephalon d. Medulla 141. What structure is responsible for assembling words into
126. The paracentral lobule of the cerebrum subserves the region of meaningful sentences?
the a. Area 22 c. Supplementary motor cortx
a. Face c. Upper limbs b. Wernicke’s area d. Frontal Association Cortex (Broca’s)
b. Neck d. Lower limbs 142. This refers to failure of tactile recognition
127. Decussation of the fibers of the corticospinal tract occurs in the a. Asteriognosia c. Anosognosia
a. Cerebral peduncle c. Upper medulla b. Prosogpagnosia d. Visual agnosia
b. Pons d. lower medulla 143. What type of aphasia presents with impaired repetition; intact
128. The third neuron of the lateral spinothalamic is located in the fluency, intact comprehension; and may have intact naming as
a. Dorsal root ganglion c. Thalamus well?
b. Interneurons d. Medial lemniscus a. Broca’s aphasia c. Conduction aphasia
129. The cerebrospinal fluid is contained in the b. Wernicke’s aphasia d. Global aphasia
a. Epidural space c. Subarachnoid space 144. What provides the association between the hemispheric white
b. Subdural space d. Underneath pia mater matter?
130. The primary visual cortex a. Broca’s area c. Angular gyrus
a. Area 17 c. Area 19 b. Arcuate fasciculus d. Supplementary motor cortex
b. Area 18 d. Area 20
131. The middle meningeal artery exits the skull bone via 145. What type of aphasia presents with impaired repetition; intact
a. Foramen lacerum c. Foramen spinosum fluency, intact comprehension; and may have intact naming as
b. Foramen rotundum d. Superior orbital fissure well?
132. The primary motor area of Brodmann a. Broca’s area c. Angular gyrus
a. Area 4 c. Area 2 b. Arcuate fasciculus d. Supplementary motor cortex
b. Area 6 d. Area 8 146. The largest intracerebellar nuclei
133. The following nerves are located in the mediolateral surface of the a. Fastigmial c. Dentate
pons EXCEPT b. Emboliformis d. Globose
a. Abducent c. Vestibulocochlear 147. The oldest component of the cerebellum associated with
b. Facial d. Hypoglossal vestibular system
134. These nerve/s emerges in the midline below the inferior colliculi a. Anterior lobe c. Flocullonodular lobe
of the midbrain b. Middle lobe d. None of these
a. Optic nerve c. Trochlear 148. The largest anatomic component of the cerebellum associated
b. Vestibulocochlear d. Hypoglossal with fine voluntary movements:
135. Major component of the basal ganglia nuclei EXCEPT a. Anterior lobe
a. Caudate nucleus c. Putamen b. Middle lobe
b. Substantia nigra??? d. Globus pallidus c. Flocullonodular lobe
136. Largest terminal branch of internal carotid artery d. None of these – Lateral zine of posterior lobe (correct answer)
a. Anterior cerebral c. Middle cerebral 149. Cells found in the outermost or molecular layer of the cerebellar
b. Posterior cerebral d. Posterior communicating cortex
137. The following arteries contribute to the formation of the circle of a. Golgi type I cells b. Purkinje cells
Willis EXCEPT b. Stellate cells d. Pyramidal cells
a. Posterior communicating c. Posterior cerebral 150. Important functions of the cerebellum EXCEPT
b. Anterior cerebral d. Vertebral artery a. Maintain proper posture and balance
138. Most important dural arterial supply b. Discrete, voluntary movements
a. Ascending pharyngeal c. Occipital c. Execute sequential movements for eating, dressing and writing
b. Middle pharyngeal d. Vertebral d. Participate in repetitive movements and smooth pursuit movements
*Middle Meningeal ** not to execute but plan for sequential movements