Pediatrics MCQs -Dr. Ranjan Singh www.drmentors.

com
– Part 2
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM respiratory difficulty and noisy
breathing. On examination X-ray
1. Treatment of bronchiolitis is-
shows thumb sign. The most
(NEET)
probable diagnosis is- (AIIMS)
a) Ribavirin
a) Recurrent papillomatosis
c) Amantadine
b) Croup
b) Vidarabine
c) Epiglottitis
d) Zidovudine
d) Laryngomalacia

2. Most common cause of

7. A 2 year old child was brought to
pneumonia in children is- (DNB)
the emergency department at 3
a) RSV
AM. The child presented with
c) Streptococcus pneumonia
fever and cough. On examination
b) Staphylococcus
respiratory rate was 36/min and
d) Klebsiella
saturation on pulse oximetry was
96%. The child had barking
3. Giant cell (Hecht’s pneumonia) is
cough and stridor only on crying.
due to (AI)
Otherwise the child was
a) CMV
hydrated, able to drink and
c) Malaria
consolable. The next step in the
b) Measles
management would be-
d) P. Carinii
(AIIMS)
a) Single dose dexamethasone
b) Nebulized racemic
4. In which disease cyanosis
epinephrine solution
improve with crying- (NEET)
c) Complete blood count and
a) Tetralogy of fallot
culture
c) Bronchial asthma
d) Nasal washings for influenza
b) Choanal atresia
virus and RSV
d) None of the above

8. A 3 month old child has

moderate fever and non
productive cough and mild
5. Child of 6 weeks with RR=48,
dyspnea. After course of the mild
false is: (AIIMS)
antibiotic the condition of child
a) Antibiotic not to be given
improved transiently but he
b) Control fever
again develops high fever,
c) Child has pneumonia
productive cough and increased
d) Child has no pneumonia
respiratory distress. Chest X-ray
shows hyperlucency and PFT
6. A 4 year old child presents to the
shows obstructive pattern. Most
emergency department with
Pediatrics MCQs -Dr. Ranjan Singh www.drmentors.com
– Part 2
probable diagnosis is-(AI-;
AIIMS-)
a) Alveolar microlithiasis
b) Post viral syndrome
c) Follicular bronchitis
d) Bronchiolitis obliterans
9. A child is brought to pediatric
OPD with fever of 24 hour
duration. History reveals
episodes of chest infection and
passage of foul smelling stools.
The most probable diagnosis is-
(AI-)
a) Maple syrup urine disease
b) Bilirubin conjugation defect
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Criggler Najar syndrome
10. A 4 year old boy presented with
recurrent chest infections. Sweat
chloride test was done, showed
values of 36 and 42. What is the
next best investigation
confirm the diagnosis? (AIIMS)
a) 72 hour fecal fat estimation
b) CT chest
c) Transepithelial
potential difference
d) DNA analysis of delta F 508
mutation
GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT
1. Most common cause of acute
intestinal obstruction in neonates is-
(NEET)
a) Jejunal atresia
c) Malrotation
b) Duodenal atresia
d) Acute intussusception
2. Commonest cause of intestinal
obstruction in children is- (NEET)
a) Intussusception
c) Hernia
b) Volvulus
d) Adhesions
3. A previously healthy infant presents
3 with recurrent episode of abdominal
pain. The mother says that the child
has been passing altered stool after
episodes of pain, but gives no
history of vomiting or bleeding per
rectum. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis- (AI-)
a) Rectal polyp
b) Intussusception
c) Meckel’s diverticulum
d) Necrotizing enterocolitis
4. Lactose intolerance in suspected
patient is diagnosed by giving an
to oral load and measuring
concentration of ? (DNB-)
CO2/ H2/
N2/ One/two carbon
nasal compound
5. Most common cause of cholestatic
jaundice in newborn is- (NEET)
a) Hypoplasia of biliary tract
b) Neonatal hepatitis
c) Choledochal cyst
d) Physiological jaundice
6. A 12 year old boy presents with
hemetemesis, malena and mild
splenomegaly. There is no obvious
jaundice or ascitis. The most likely
diagnosis is- (AI-)
Pediatrics MCQs -Dr. Ranjan Singh www.drmentors.com
– Part 2
a) EHPVO b) Cirrhosis
c) NCPF d) Malaria with
DIC
7. The most common bacterial cause
for diarrhea in children in India is-
(AI-)
a) Enterotoxigenic E.coli (ETEC)
b) Enteropathogenic E.coli (EPEC)
c) Enterohemorrhagic E.coli (EHEC)
d) Vibrio cholera
8. Profuse watery diarrhea in an
immunocompromised child is due
to- (NEET)
a) Cryptococcus
c) Amoeba
b) Giardia
d) Lactose intolerance
9. Baby normal on day 1 ; on ventilator
for 10 days with flank tenderness,
was diagnosed NEC. Gas in portal
vein on USG- is seen in stage:
(AIIMS)
a) 2A c) 2B
b) 3A d) 3B
10. A neonate is suspected to be
suffering from necrotizing
enterocolitis (NEC). On further
examination and investigation, he is
diagnosed to be Bell’s stage I NEC.
The management of choice would
be- (AIIMS-)
a) Laparatomy
b) Insertion of bilateral pelvic drains
c) Conservative management with
I.V fluid and antibiotic
d) Initial conservative management
and laparatomy after 24 hours
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
1. True about fetal circulation- (AI-)
a) Blood in SVC has more oxygen
saturation
b) Pressure in left ventricle is more
c) Brain receives blood with low
oxygen saturation
d) Heart receives blood with high
oxygen saturation
2. Congestive cardiac failure is
diagnosed in an infant by- (NEET)
a) Basal crepts
c) Elevated JVP
b) Pedal edema
d) Liver enlargement
3. Which of the following features on
X-ray chest can differentiate an Atrial
septal defect from Ventricular septal
defect (AI-)
a) Enlarged left atrium
b) Pulmonary plethora
c) Enlarged pulmonary artery
d) Enlarged aorta
4. In atrial septal defect, the aorta is-
(NEET)
Small/ Normal/
Enlarged/ Aneurysmal
5. Down syndrome is most commonly
associated with (NEET)
a) ASD with ostium secundum
c) VSD
b) ASD with ostium primum
d) TOF
Pediatrics MCQs -Dr. Ranjan Singh www.drmentors.com
– Part 2
6. All are signs of impending
Eisenmenger syndrome except
(AIIMS)
a) Increased flow murmur across
tricuspid and pulmonary valve
b) Single S2
c) Loud P2
d) Graham steel murmur
11. Ductus dependent blood flow is
required for all of these congenital
heart diseases except- (AIIMS)
a) Persistent truncus arteriosus
b) Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
c) Pulmonary stenosis
d) TGA with intact ventricular
septum

7. Eisenmenger syndrome- True are all

except (AIIMS) 12. A child is admitted on 7 days of life
a) Pulmonary veins are not with severe respiratory distress and
distended shock. He was discharged two days
b) RV and LV walls come back to back healthy. What could be the
normal size probable diagnosis-(AIIMS)
c) Dilatation of central pulmonary a) Large VSD
artery b) Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
d) Peripheral pruning of pulmonary c) Ebstein anomaly
arteries d) AP window defect

8. Which of the following is not a sign

of PDA in a preterm baby- (AIIMS) 13. All are true regarding tricuspid
a) Apnea atresia except- (NEET)
c) Tachycardia a) Split S2
b) Necrotizing enterocolitis b) Patent foramen ovale
d) Narrow pulse pressure c) Pulmonary oligemia in chest X-
ray
d) Left axis deviation in ECG
9. 2 week baby with central cyanosis,
normal S1, single S2, plethoric lung; 14. True about Ebstein anomaly is-
diagnosis is- (DNB)
a) TGA c) TAPVC a) Right ventricular dilatation
b) TOF d) Pulmonary b) Right atrial dilatation
atresia c) Left ventricular dilatation
d) Left atrial dilatation
10. In TGA, position of aorta is- (AI-)
a) Posterior and left to pulmonary
artery
b) Posterior and right to pulmonary
artery
c) Anterior and left to pulmonary
artery
d) Anterior and right to pulmonary
artery
Pediatrics MCQs -Dr. Ranjan Singh www.drmentors.com
– Part 2
HEMATOLOGY GENETICS

1. Maternal disomy of chromosome 15

1. Which of the following haemoglobin
is seen in (AIIMS)
estimation will be diagnostically
a) Prader Willi syndrome
helpful in a case of beta- thalassemia
b) Klinefelter syndrome
trait- (NEET)
c) Angelman syndrome
a) Hb-F c) Hb-
d) Turner syndrome
C
b) Hb-A2 d)
2. Down syndrome all are seen except-
Hb-H
(NEET)
a) t (14:21) c) trisomy
2. Salmonellosis is most common in-
21
(NEET)
b) t (11:14) d) t
a) Sickle cell anemia c)
(15:21)
Thalassemia
b) Hemophilia d) Cystic
3. All of the following are features of
fibrosis
Down’s syndrome except- (AIIMS)
a) Increased PAPPA
3. First change of improvement noted
b) Increased free beta HCG level
after iron therapy is initiated- (NEET)
c) Absent nasal bone
a) Reticulocytosis
d) Abnormal ductus venosus flow
c) Decreased irritability
velocity
b) Increase in serum iron level
d) Replenishment of iron stores
4. All of the following are true about
Noonan syndrome except- (DNB)
4. In thomboasthenia there is a defect
a) Equal incidence in boys and girls
in- (AI-)
b) Testosterone is always normal
a) Platelet adhesion
level
b) Platelet aggregation
c) Karyotype is normal
c) Decreased ADP release
d) Sensorineural hearing loss is
d) Platelet secretion
present

5. The coagulation profile in a 13 year

5. Edema of hands and feet in infant is
old girl with menorrhagia having
characteristic of- (NEET)
Von Willebrands disease is-
a) Noonan syndrome
a) Isolated prolonged PTT with a
b) Klinefelter syndrome
normal PT
c) Turner syndrome
b) Isolated prolonged PT with a
d) Fragile-X syndrome
normal PTT
c) Prolongation of both PT and PTT
d) Prolongation of thrombin time
Pediatrics MCQs -Dr. Ranjan Singh www.drmentors.com
– Part 2
6. Patau syndrome features include all 3. Which of the following statements
except- (NEET) about neuroblastoma is not true-
a) Cleft lip (AI-)
b) Hypotelorism a) Most common extracranial solid
c) Holoprosencephaly tumor in childhood
d) Rocker bottom foot b) > 50% present with metastasis at
the time of diagnosis
7. Common ocular manifestation in c) Lung metastasis is common
Trisomy 13 is: (AIIMS) d) Often encase aorta and its
a) Capillary hemangioma branches at the time of
b) Bilateral microphthalmus diagnosis
c) Neurofibroma
d) Dermoid cyst 4. Highest cure rate is of- (NEET)
a) Wilm’s tumor c)
Retinoblastoma
8. A Down’s child with mental b) Rhabdomyosarcoma d)
retardation; all are seen except- All
(AIIMS)
a) Trisomy 21 5. A 2 year old male child presents with
b) Deleted 21 a lump in the right side of the
c) Robertsonian translocation abdomen. Ultrasound revealed it to
d) Mosaic be a solid mass. On examination his
right arm and leg were found to be
CHILDHOOD TUMORS longer. The most likely diagnosis is-
(AIIMS)
1. Good prognostic factors of ALL are
a) Neuroblastoma
all except- (DNB)
c) Wilm’s tumor
a) Hyperdiploidy
b) Angiomyolipoma
b) WBC count < 50000
d) Nephroblastoma
c) t (12:21)
d) Age > 10 years

2. A 4 year old child having palpable

abdominal mass and hypertension
with sweating and diarrhea is due
to- (NEET)
a) Nephroblastoma
c) Neuroblastoma
b) PCKD
d) Hepatoblastoma
Pediatrics MCQs -Dr. Ranjan Singh www.drmentors.com
– Part 2
METABOLIC DISORDERS of the following condition is most
likely? (AIIMS-)
1. All are liver glycogenosis except-
a) Alkaptonuria
(NEET)
c) Hartnup disease
a) Von Girke disease
b) Phenylketonuria
c) Hers disease
d) Von Gierke’s disease
b) Type III glycogenosis
d) Pompes disease

7. A 3 year old child has

2. A child with hypoglycaemia is not
hepatosplenomegaly. On
able to utilize glucose from
examination of the bone marrow
glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis.
large cells are seen with crumpled
Which of the following enzyme is
paper appearance. Which of the
deficient in the child-(AIIMS)
following must have accumulated in
a) Fructokinase
these cells- (AIIMS)
c) Glucokinase
a) Sphingomyelin
b) Glucose-6-phosphatase
c) Ceramide
d) Transketolase
b) Glucocerebrosides
d) Sulfatides
3. A 6 month old child presents with
episode of vomiting after ingesting
fruit juice. Which of the following
8. A child presents with
enzyme deficiency is likely. (AIIMS)
hepatosplenomegaly, abdominal
a) Aldolase B
distension, jaundice, anemia and
c) Fructokinase
adrenal calcification. Which of the
b) Glucose-6-phosphatase
following is diagnosis- (AIIMS)
d) Hexokinase
a) Adrenal hemorrhage
c) Wolman disease
4. In Phenylketonuria, Ferric chloride
b) Pheochromocytoma
test with urine gives which colour
d) Addison disease
(NEET)
Green/ Blue/
9. True about Wilson disease is (DNB)
Red/ Purple
a) Increased serum ceruloplasmin
b) Decreased liver copper
5. Mousy odour urine is seen in- (NEET)
c) Increased urinary copper
a) Maple syrup urine disease
excretion
c) Isovaleric aciduria
d) Decreased urine copper
b) Phenylketonuria
excretion
d) Cystinuria

6. A child presents with pellagra like

dermatitis and aminoaciduria. Which
Pediatrics MCQs -Dr. Ranjan Singh www.drmentors.com
– Part 2
ENDOCRINOLOGY
1. Cause of female
pseudohermaphroditism- (AI-)
a) 17- alpha hydroxylase deficiency
b) 21- alpha hydroxylase deficiency
c) Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
d) All of the above
2. Most common enzyme deficiency
leading to childhood hypertension-
(DNB-)
a) 17- alpha hydroxylase
b) 21- alpha hydroxylase
c) 11- beta hydroxylase
d) 3- beta hydroxy steroid
dehydrogenase
3. 5 year old boy presents with pubic
hair development. He is tall and has
increased pigmentation of his
genitalia and phallic enlargement.
Blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg.
Measurement of which of the
following hormones would be most
likely to be diagnostic? (AIIMS-)
a) Increased 17-hydroxy
progesterone
b) Increased cortisol
c) Increased aldosterone
d) Increase in 11-deoxycortisol
4. A 7 year old child presents with
ambiguous genitalia. On
examination her height, weight and
blood pressure were recorded within
normal limit. Labia appeared bifid
with two separate perineal openings,
phallic length was 2.5 cm and no
palpable gonads were palpable in
the inguinal region. USG shows
presence of mullerian structures. The
most probable diagnosis is- (AI-)
a) Classic salt wasting 21-
hydroxylase deficiency
b) Simple virilizing congenital
adrenal hyperplasia
c) Complete Androgen insensitivity
syndrome
d) 5- alpha reductase deficiency
5. A 4 week old female child with
normal genitalia presents to the
emergency department with severe
dehydration, hyperkalemia and
hyponatremia.Blood level
measurement of which of the
following will be useful? (AIIMS-)
a) 17- hydroxyprogesterone
c) Renin
b) Cortisol
d) Aldosterone
6. The karyotype in testicular
feminising syndrome is- (DNB-)
a) XX c) XY
b) XXY d)
XXXY
7. A one year old child presents with
short stature, lethargy and
constipation. Clinical examination
shows a palpable goitre. Lab finding
reveals a low T4 and elevated TSH.
Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis- (AI)
a) Thyroid dysgenesis
b) Thyroid dyshormonogenesis
c) Central hypothyroidism
d) TSH receptor blocking antibody
Pediatrics MCQs -Dr. Ranjan Singh www.drmentors.com
– Part 2
8. Percentage of dose given as basal a) CXR c) Monteux
insulin in bolus-basal regimen in test
children is-(DNB) b) ELISA d) FNAC
a) 0-25% c)
25-50% 4. All of the following methods are
b) 50-75% d) used for diagnosis of HIV infection in
None a 2 month old child except- (DNB)
a) DNA –PCR c) Viral
culture
b) HIV ELISA d) p24 antigen
9. All of the following are side effects assay
of growth hormone therapy except-
(AIIMS) 5. Congenital Toxoplasmosis- False is-
a) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (AIIMS-)
b) Gynaecomastia a) Diagnosed by detection of IgM
c) Hypoglycemia in cord blood
d) Pseudotumor cerebri b) IgA is more sensitive than IgM
for detection
INFECTIOUS DISEASE c) Dye test is gold standard for IgG
d) Avidity testing must be done to
1. All of the following statements about
differentiate between IgA & IgM
congenital rubella are true except-
(AIIMS-)
a) IgG persists for more than 6
months
b) IgM antibody present at birth
c) Most common anomalies are
hearing and heart defects
d) Increased risk of congenital
malformation if infection occurs
after 16 weeks

2. Following are complications of

chicken pox except- (NEET)
a) Meningitis c)
Enteritis
b) Pneumonia d) Reye
syndrome

3. Which of the following has no role in

diagnosis of childhood TB? (DNB-)
Pediatrics MCQs -Dr. Ranjan Singh www.drmentors.com
– Part 2
NUTRITION
1. Waterlow classification of
malnutrition in child takes into
account- (DNB-)
a) Weight for height (Wasting)
b) Height for age (Stunting)
c) Weight for height (Wasting) and
Height for age (Stunting)
d) Weight for age
2. Not seen in Kwashiorkor- (AI-)
a) Apathy c) Flaky paint
dermatosis
b) Poor appetite d) Increased
albumin
3. True about cow’s milk are all except-
(AIIMS-)
a) Cow’s milk contain 80% whey
protein not casein
b) Cow’s milk has less carbohydrate
than mother’s milk
c) Has more Na and K than infant
formula feeds
d) Has more protein than breast
milk
4. Basic pathology in Rickets- (AI-)
a) Defective bone matrix formation
b) Defect in mineralization
c) Defect in osteoid formation
d) All of the above
5. A 2 year old boy has Vit D- resistant
rickets. His investigation revealed
serum Calcium 9mg/dl, Phosphate
2.4mg/dl, Alkaline phosphatise 1041
IU, normal parathormone level and
bicarbonate 22meq/L. Which of the
following is the most probable
diagnosis- (NEET; AIIMS)
a) Distal renal tubular acidosis
b) Hypophosphatemic rickets
c) Vit-D dependent rickets
d) Hypoparathyroidism
6. A child presented with features of
rickets and decreased serum calcium,
increased serum phosphorus and
decreased urinary calcium and
phosphorus. These are seen in which
condition? (AIIMS)
a) Renal tubular acidosis
b) Coeliac rickets
c) Nutritional rickets
d) Renal glomerular rickets
7. Primary metabolic bone disorder in
scurvy is- (AI-)
a) Decreased mineralization
b) Decreased osteoid matrix
formation
c) Increased bone resorption
d) Decreased bone mass with
normal mineralization and
osteoid formation