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The Latin words in Mark have sometimes been used to argue for
a Roman provenance of the gospel.
Cadbury 1958, 88–89, argues that when these specific words are
considered, using them to argue for Rome appears to be
unjustified since these “are precisely those [Latin words] which
would be adopted outside of Italy in any of the Greek-speaking
provinces of the Roman Empire.” His evidence for this claim is
that these words all occur in Aramaic or late Hebrew, citing
Krauss, Griechische und lateinische Lehnwörter [loanwords] in
Talmud, Midrash und Targum (1899).
I just found some earlier notes that I had made from Gundry, 1044, along
this same line, so these may be added to the above. (He cites a few
others concerning which I am less confident.)
Bibliography
http://ntresources.com/blog/?p=1205