EXERCISE #1: CELL

Questions:
1. What is protoplasm?
 Protoplasm is a living substance that is composed of water, carbohydrate,
protein, lipid, and electrolytes.

2. What are organelles and inclusions? Enumeration

 - ORGANELLES are metabolically active structure that perform distinctive function, which usually are limited by a
membrane such as plasmalemma, ribosome, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, mitochondria, annulate lamellae,
peroxisome, lysosome, coat vesicles, and centriole.

- INCLUSION are lifeless accumulate of material that are not metabolically active and usually are present in cytosol only
temporarily, for example glycogen, lipid proplets and lipofuscin.

3. What type of cell division is seen in the oocyte?

 Meiosis

4. Differentiate mitosis from meiosis.

 Mitosis:
- Diploio
- Occurs in somatic cells
- Results in two daughter cells
- Genetic mixing do not occur
Meiosis:
- Haploio
- Occurs in sex cells
- Results in four daughter cells
- genetic mixing ocuur

EXERCISE #2: EPITHELIUM

Questions:
1. Which type of epithelium lack a basal lamina?
 Transitional epithelium.

2. Differentiate keratinized from non-keratinizes type of epithelium.

 Keratinized:
- Without nuclei
- Protective surface cover
coverage for the body
- Superficial layer
- Found in skin
Non-keratinized:
- Nucleated cell
- Do not serve as a protective
- Found in lining of esophagus

3. Why is the epithetium called pseudostratified?

 Because it gives the false impression to being stratified though they are singled layer. In their epithelium cells rest on
basal laminar, but not all reach the inner thus epithelium appear falsely stratified.

EXERCISE #3: GLANDS

Questions:
1. What is the secretion of a globlet cell?
 Mucus

2. Differentiate serous from mucous gland morphologically.

 Mucous gland is the glands that produce a viscous secretion that lubricates and/or protect the inner lining of organs.

 Serous gland is the glands that produce watery secretions, which are often rich in enzyme.

3. What are serous demilunes of Glanuzzi?

 The serous demilunes of Glanuzzi are crescent shaped patches
of serous cells surrounding cells surrounding the mucous tubules in seromucous glands.

EXERCISE #4: CONNECTIVE TISSUE

Questions:
1. Differentiate loose from dense connective tissues.
 Loose connective tissue:
- more prevalent
- loose, irregular arrangement
- abundant ground substance
- mostly found in its matrix
- collagen fibers, fibroblast,
adipose cells, mast cells, and
macrophage predominant
- with fibroblasts being the most
common cells type
Dense connective tissue:
- more densely packed collagen fibers
- fewer cell type
- less ground substance
- fibroblasts are the most abundant
cells
- dense irregular connective tissue
exhibit a random and irregular
- dense regular connective tissue
contains densely packed collagen
fibers that exhibit a regular and
arrangement
 2. What are the different connective tissues?
 - Collagen fibers are tough, fibrous proteins that are thick and do not branch.
They are the most abundant fibers, and they are found in
almost all connective tissue of all organ.

- Elastic fibers are thin, small, branching fibers and have less tensile strength
than collagen fibers. when stretched, elastic fibers return to
their original size (recoil) without deformation. Elastic fibers
are abundant in the lungs, bladder, and skin.

- Reticular fibers are thin and form a delicate, net-like frame work in the liver,
lymph, hemopoietic organs and other organs where they
filter blood and lymph. Reticular fibers also support
capillaries, nerves, and muscle cells. These fibers are visible
when stained with silver.

3. What is ground substance?

 Ground substance is primarily of amorephous, transparent, and colorless extracellular matrix, which has the properties of
a semifluid gel and high water content. It supports and surroundd the connective tissue and all its cell and fiber type. It
contains different type of mixed, unbranched polysaccharide chain of glycosaminoglycans and adhesive glycoproteins.
Hyaluronic acid constitutes the principal glycosaminoglycan of connective tissue.

EXERCISE #5: CARTILAGE

Questions:
1. Which type of cartilage lack of perichondrium?
 Fibrocartilage, unlike hyaline and elastic cartilage, does not possess a perichondrium. Fribrocartilage posses a dense,
coarse type I collagen fiber is its matrix, allowing it to withstand strong tensile forces present in intervertebral disks, pubic
symphyses, articulate disks and attached to bone.

2. What are the two ways by which a cartilage grows?

 - Continued growth of cartilage occurs by two methods young chondrocytes
which retain the ability to divide, proliferate and by down new matrix. This
expansion of cartilage from within, called interstitial or endogenous
growth, occur only in relatively young cartilage which malleable enough to
allow expansion. In addition, the cell of an isogenous group manufactures
matrix and they push away from each other thus forming within the cell
group or cell nests seen in mature cartilage are indication of the condition
that exist when interstitial growth.
- The second method by which cartilage increase in size known as
appositional or esogenous growth, is the new layer of cartilage are added to
one surface. It results from activity within the inner layer by the
perichondrium. When the chondrogenic cells undergo division and
differentiate into chondoblasts which begin to elabolate matrix so that the
cartilage grows by adding to its periphery.

EXERCISE #6: BONE

Questions:
1. What is an osteon?
 The lamellae of bone matrix, the cells and the central canal constitute the Haversian system or osteon, the unit of structure
of compact bone.

2. What are the ways by which bone develop?

 According to the embryonic origin, there are two types of bone development,
intramembrane and endochondral. In the former bone develops directly on or
with membrane. In the latter, it develops cartilage which must be removed
before ossification can occur, the actual process of bone deposition is the same
in both.

3. What are the different bone cells?

 a) Osteoprogenitor cells which are spindle-shaped cells, derived from
embryonic mesenchyme that are located in the periosteum and
endosteum.
b) Osteoblasts which are derived from osteoprogenitor cells.
c) Osteocytes are mature bone cells houses in their own lacunae.
d) Osteoclasts are large, motile, multinucleated cells (up to 50 nuclei) that are
derived from fusions of monocyte.

4. What are the zones in endochondral bone ossification? Enumerate.

 a) zone of reserve is located at the epiphyseal side of the plate and passes
small, randomly arranged, inactive chondrocytes.
 b) zone of proliferation is region of rapid mitotic division, giving rise to row
of isogenous cell group.
c) zone of cell hypertrophy and maturation is the region where the
chondrocyte are greatly enlarged.
d) zone of calcification is the region where remnant of cartilage become
calcifical and chondrocyte die.
e) zone of ossification is where bone is elaborate upon the calcified cartilage
follow by the reabsorption of the calcified bone – calcified cartilage
complex.

EXERCISE #7: PERIPHERAL BLOOD SMEAR

Questions:
1. Give the normal and differential count of the different blood cells seen.

Normal count Concentration

Hematocrit :
 Male  41.5-50.4%
 Female  35.9-44.6%
Hemoglobin :
 Male  14.0-17.5 g/dl
 Female  12.3-15.3 g/dl
Red cell count:
 Male  4.5-5.9 x 10 /uL
 Female  4.1-5.1 x 10 /uL
 White blood cell count  4.4-11.0 x 10 /uL

 WBC differential count (adult)  Concentration

 Band (stab)  0-5 %
 Segmented neutrophil  40-70 %
 Segmented basophil  0-1 %
 Segmented eosinophil  1-5 %
 Monocyte  0-8 %
 Lymphocyte  20riv-40 %
 Platelet count  150,000-450,000 /ul

2. What is crenation? Hemolysis? Rouleaux formation?

 Crenation  the red blood cells exposed to a hypertonic saline solution acquire a notched, shrived surface as a result of
osmotic effect of the solution.

Hemolysis  alteration, dissolution, or destruction of the red blood cells in

such a manner that hemoglobin is liberated into the medium in which the
cells are suspended.

Rouleaux formation  the arrangement of red blood cells in fluid blood with
their biconcave surface in apposition, there by forming groups that resembles
stacks of coins.

EXERCISE #8: BONE MARROW

Questions:
1. What is hemopoiesis?
 Hemopoiesis is the process by which new blood cells are formed, this take place since elements of the blood are short
lived and are being destroyed continuously, so the new replenishment of new cell is needed. The formed element of blood
are divided into two groups according to the major site of their development and differentiation in their adult.
Lymphocytes and monocytes are developed chiefly in the lymphoid tissue and are termed lymphoid element. Erythrocytes
and granulocytes are normally produced within the bone marrow (myeloid tissue) and are referred to as myeloid element.
This process of blood cell replacement is known as hemopoiesis. It occurs successively in yolk sac, liver, spleen & bone
marrow.

2. Enumerate the neutrophil precursor cells.

Myeloblasts

Promyelocyte

Neutrophil myelocyte

Neutrophil metamyelocyte

Neutrophil stab cell

Neutrophil
EXERCISE #9: MUSCULAR TISSUE
Questions:
1. Differentiate the three types of muscles. Tabulate

Property Skeletal Cardiac muscle Smooth muscle

muscle
1.shape and size of cells  Long,  Blunt-ended  Short
cylindrical
2.number and location of nucleus  Many,  One/two central  One central
peripheral
3.striation  Striated
 Striated  Non-striated
4.contraction  Involuntary
 Voluntary  Involuntary
5.distinctive characteristic  Intercalated
 Peripheral disks  Lack of striation
6.T-tubules and sacroplasmic nuclei
reticulum  Has diads at Z  Has caveolae
 Has triad at A- disks (but no T-
I junctions tubules) some
7.regeneration SER
 none  Is extensive
 Is restricted

2. What is the sarcoplasmic triad? Where is it found?

 - Sacroplasmic triad are specialized complex consisting of narrow central T-
tubule flanked on each side by terminal cisternae of the sacroplasmic
reticulum.
- It is located at the A-I junction in mammalian skeleton muscle cells.
- Function to help provide uniform contraction throughout muscle fibers.

3. What is an intercalated disc?

 Intercalated disks are complex step-like junction forming end to end
attachments between adjacent cardiac muscle cells

EXERCISE #10: NERVOUS TISSUE

Questions:
1. What are the neuroglial cells?
 Neuroglial cells comprise several cell types located only in the CNS. These are embedded in a web of tissue composed of
modified ectodermal elements; the entire supporting structure is termed the “Neunoglia”. They have various functions; to
support and protect neurons, they do not conduct impulse or form synapses with other cells.

2. Differentiate an axon from a dendrite.

Basis Axon Dendrite

Number of processes  One to a neuron  Several or none

Length  Generally longer  Shorter (terminate in the vicinity
of the cell body)
Size and shape  Small, cylindrical and uniform in  Broad base open off as it
diameter branches
Presence/absence of nissl bodies  Absent  Present
Number of branching  Give off branches at right angles  Give off branches of acitic angle
(perpendicular)
Control or outline  smooth  Rough due to the present of fine
protoplasmic process at spring

3. What are the other nerve endings? Give their modalities.

Nerve ending Location Sensory modality

1.Free nerve ending  Epidermis, dermis, bone,  Pain(fast), pain(slow),

ligament, gut, cornea, dental pulp touch(crude), pressure

2. Merkel’s disc  Hairless skin  Touch

3. Hair follicle receptor  Hair skin  Touch
4. Meissner’s corpuscles  Dermal papillae of skin of palm  Touch
and sole of feet
5. Pacinian corpuscle  Dermis, ligament, peritonium  Vibration
6. Ruffini’s corpuscle  Dermis of hairy skin  Stretch

EXERCISE #11: SKIN

Questions:
1. Differentiate thin from thick skin.
Thick skin Thin skin

1. Epidermis is 400-600 um thick  Epidermis is 75-150 um thick

2. Prominent stratum corneum, well-developed  Less prominent stratum corneum than thick skin,
3. Lines the palms of the hands and soles of feet  Present over most of the body surface
4. Lacks hair follicles, sebaceous glands and arrector pili muscle  Contain hair follicle, sebaceous glands and arrector pili
muscle

2. Enumerate the different skin appendage.

 Nails are keratinized plates on the dorsal surface of the tip of the fingers and toes.
The proximal edge of the plate is the root of the nail. The distal edge of the
plate, the nail is surrounded and overlapped by fold of skin known as “nail
fold”. The surface of skin covered by the nail is the nail bed.

Hair follicle is hairs grown out from the follicle. It is an invaginative of the
Epidermis extending deep into the dermis comprises the following
Structure: hair shaft, hair bulb, internal root sheath, external root
Sheath.

Sebaceous glands secret the sebum onto the shaft of the hairs as they pass through
the neck of follicles. Sebum is an oily material help to preserve
the flexibility.

Sweat gland is divided into 2 types:

a) Eccrine sweat glands are coiled, simple tubule glands consisting
of secretory unit and duct. It is present in skin throughout the body
and in by cholinergic fibers.

b) Apocrine sweat glands include the large specialized sweat glands located in various area of the body and the
ceruminus (wax) glands of the external auditory canal. It do not begin to function unitpuberty and are response
to hormone influence. It is innervated by adrenergic fiber, enveloped by scattered myoepithelial cell. It is empty
their viscous secretion into hair follicles at a location superficial portion of the cytoplasm become part of the
secretion, electron micrographs have shown that this does not occur.

EXERCISE #12: CIRCULATORY SYSTEM

Questions:
1. What are vasa vasorum? Where are they found?

 Vasa vasorum is the tissue of the walls of large vessels cannot be sustained by
diffusion of nutrients from their lamina and this supplied by small arteries.
The vasa vasorum give rise to a capillary network within the tunica adventitia
which may extend to the tunica media.

2. Tabulate the different between an artery and a vein.

Artery Vein

1. conduct blood away from the heart to the organ 1.conduct blood toward the heart from the organ.
2. tunica media is thickest 2. almost 70% of total blood volume is in the vessel
3. walls are yellow in fresh state because abundant in clastin 3. walls are usually collapsed because they are thinner
4. more elastic than veins 4. less elastic
5. smaller lumen 5. venous return: low pressure system
6. decrease in luminal diameter 6. larger luminal diameter
7. more oriented layers of smooth muscle cells 7. have little/ no smooth in their walls

EXERCISE #13: LYMPHATIC SYSTEM

A. Specimen: LYMPH NODE
Questions:
1. What are reaction center?
 under certain pathological conditions some of the pale germinal center
numerous, true macrophages. This area have been called reaction centers.

2. What is the paracortex? What types of cells populate this area?

  a) Paracortex is region where circulation lymphocytes gain access to lymph noder via postcapillary (high endothelial)
venules recognized by their lining of cuboidal endothelium. It is located between the cortex (with nodules) and the
medulla.

b) Paracortex is composed of a non-nodular arrangement of mostly

T-lymphocytes (the thymus-dependent area of the lymp node)

B. Specimen: THYMUS
Questions:
1. What constitute the blood-thymus barrier?
 The blood-thymus barrier consist of following layers:
a) Endothelium of the thymic capillaries and the associated basal lamina
b) Perivascular connective tissue and cells (eg. Pericytes and macrophages)
c) Epithelial reticular cells and their basal laminae.

It exists in the cortex only, making it an immunologically protected region.

2. What are the thymus dependent area?

 The lymphocytes of the central portion of the PALS (periatrial lymphatic sheath) are thymus-dependent where as the
muroinal zone and the nodular- the peripheral white pulp are populated by B lymphocytes.

C. Specimen: SPLEEN
Questions:
1. Differentiate the open circulation from the close circulation theory.
 Open circulation theory:
a) believe that the terminal arterial capillaries terminate prior to reaching the
sinusoid and blood from these vessels percolated through the red pulp into
the sinuses.
b) the circulation would open into the parenchyma of the red pulp and the
blood pass through the sinusoids.

Close circulation theory:

a) believe that the endothelia lining of the terminal arterial capillaries
b) blood always remains inside the vessels

Current evidence suggests that blood circulation in the lumen of spleen is the
open type

2. What are three segments of the penicilli vessels?

 The penicilli vessels enter the red pulp and process three segments:
c) pulp arterioles
d) macrophage-sheaths arterioles
e) terminal arterial capillaries

D. Specimen: TONSIL
Questions:
1. Differentiate the three different type of tonsils.
 Tonsil are aggregates of lymphoid tissue, located in the upper section of digestive tract, lying beneath.
a) Palatine tonsils
- consist of two tonsillar structures located between the
palatopharyngeal and palatoglossal arches.
- posses crypts deep invaginations of stratified squamous epithelium
covering of tonsils; the crypts frequently contain debris.
- are separated from adjacent structures by connective tissue capsule.

b) Pharyngeal tonsil
- is a single tonsil located in the posterior of the nasopharynx.
- is covered by a ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
- contain several folds. Seromucous secretion enter the fold from
glands, located in the connective tissue deep to the tonsillar capsule.

c) Lingual tonsils
- are located on the dorsum of the posterior one third of the tongue.
- are covered by a stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
- posses deep crypts, which frequently contain cellular debris. Ducts of
mucous glands often open into the base of these crypts.
- are smaller and more numerous than the palatine and pharyngeal
tonsils.

2. What are tubal tonsils?

 Tubal tonsils are considered tonsillar group. Each tubal tonsil lies around the
pharyngeal orifice of the pharyngotympanic (auditory) tube and constitutes a
lateral extension of the pharyngeal tonsil. The tubal tonsil is covered with
 ciliated columnar epithelium.

EXERCISE #14: RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

A. Specimens: TRACHEA
BRONCHUS (extrapulmonaty)
Questions:
1. What are the components of the conducting portion of the respiratory tract?
 The conducting portion are the followings:
a) nose
b) nasopharynx
c) larynx
d) trachea
e) bronchi
f) bronchioles
g) terminal bronchioles

2. Differentiate the extrapulmonary from the intrapulmonary bronchi.

 a) The extrapulmonary bronchi closely resemble the trachea in structure and
differ from if only in being of smaller diameter. In the main bronchi,
cartillage ring still are incomplete, the posterior deficiency being occupied
by smooth muscle.

b) The intrapulmonary bronchi, however differ from extrapulmonary bronchi

in several basic features.
- the intrapulmonary bronchi are rounded in outline and do not show

B. Specimen: LUNGS
Questions:
1. What are the components of the respiratory portion of the respiratory system?
 a) respiratory bronchioles
b) alveolar duct
c) alveolar sac
d) alveoli

2. What composes the blood-air barrier?

 Blood-air barrier is the thinnest regions of the barrier are 0.2 mm or less
Thickness and consist of the following layers:
a) type I pneumocytes & layers of surfactant lining the alveolar air space.
b) fused, basal laminae at type one pneumocyte and capillary endothelial cells.
c) endothelium of continuous capillaries within the intraalveolar septum
thicker region of the barrier measure 0.5 um across and have interstitial
space

EXERCISE #15: DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

A. Oral cavity
Questions:
1. What is neuroepithelium?
 Neuro epithelium can referred as taste buds. The taste bud are intraepithelial
structures located on the lateral surface of circumvallate papillae and the
walls of the surrounding furrow. It functions in perceiving salt, sour, bitter,
and sweet taste.

2. What structures keep the tooth fixed in placed?

 Periodontal and alveolar ligament keep the tooth stable in the tooth socket.
Periodontal ligament is a dense, irregular collagenous connective tissue.

B. Esophagus
Questions:
1. Classify the esophageal glands as to nature of secretion.
 a) Mucous-secreting esophageal cardiac glands found in lamina propia.
b) Mucous-secreting esophageal glands proper found in the submucosa.

2. Describe the distribution of skeletal and smooth muscles in the different

segments of the esophagus.
 a) Esophagus has a muscilaris mucosae consisting of a single longitudinal
layer of smooth muscles.
b) Esophagus contains skeletal muscle in the upper third of the muscularis
externa, a combination of smooth and skeletal muscle in the middle third
and the lower third for smooth muscle.

3. What are the esophageal sphincters?

  Esophageal sphincters is the muscularis externa assure that a lobar is transported in one direction only, toward the
stomach (Two physiologic sphincters, the pharyngeoesophageal and gastroesophageal).

C. STOMACH
Questions:
1. Tabulate the layers of the stomach and their components (as was done for the
esophagus).

Region Epithelium Lamina propia Muscularis mucosa Submucosa Muscularis externa

Stomach Simple columnar with Gastric glands 2 (or 3) layers; inner Collagenous connective tissue, 3 layers; inner oblique, middle
gastric pits circular, outer no glands circular and outer longitudinal
longitudinal and
outermost circular is
placed.

2. What are the different cell that make up the gastric glands? Give their
secretions.
 Gastric glands are composed of parietal, chief, mucous neck and
enteroendocrine cells.
a) Parietal (oxyntic cells) – secret Hydrochloric acid (HCl) and gastric intrinsic factors.
b) Chief (zynogenic) cells – secret pepsinogen (a precursor of the enzyme pepsin) and the precursors of 2 others
enzymes, rennin and lipase.
c) Mucous neck cells – located in the neck of gastric glands, posses short microvilli, apical mucous granules, a
prominent golgi complex, numerous mitochondria and some basaly located rough endoplasmic reticulum.
d) Enteroendocrine cells – belong to the population of diffuse endocrine cells(DES) and are referred to as amine
precursor uptake and decarboxylation cells (APUD). Include more than a dozen different type of cells that
contain many small hormone containing granules, usually concentrated in the basal cytoplasm. A given
enteroendocrine cell secret only one hormone.

D. SMALL INTESTINE
Questions:
1. Tabulate the layers of the duodenum and ileum (separately), and their
components.

Organ Epithelium Cell type of Lamina propia Cells of glands Muscular Submucosae Muscular Serous Or
epithelium mucosae Externa adventitia
Duodenum Simple columnar (goblet Surface absorptive Crypts of Surface absorptive Inner circular, Brunner’s glands Inner circular, Serous
cells) cells, goblet cells, liberkuhn cells, goblet cells, outer longitude- and outer And
DNES cells regenerative cells, nal longitude-nal Adventiti
DNES cells, paneth a
cells
Ileum Simple columnar (goblet Surface absorptive Crypts of Surface absorptive Inner circular and No glands; Inner circular serosa
cells) cells, goblet cells, liberkuhn, cells, goblet cells, Outer peyer’s patches and
DNES cells peyer’s patches regenera-tive cells, longitude- may extend into Outer
DNES cells, paneth nal their layer longitud
cells e-nal

2. What are the luminal surface modifications of the small intestine.

 a) plicae circulares (valves of kerckring) are permanent spiral fold of the
mucosa and submucosa, present in the distal half of the duodenum, jejunum
and proximal half of the ileum. It increases the surface area two-fold to
three-fold.
b) intestinal villi are permanent evagination that possess, in their lamina propia
core, numerous plasma cells and lymphocytes, fibroblasts, must cells,
smooth muscle cells, capillary loops, and a single lacteal (blinds ended
lymphatic channel). It increases the surface area 10-fold.
c) microvilli (brush border/striated border) of the apical surface of the
epithelium cells of each villus, possess actin filaments that interact with
myosin filaments in the terminal web. It increases the surface are about
twentyfold.

E. LARGE INTESTINE
Questions:
1. Tabulate the layers and its components.

Organ Epithelium Cells type Lamina propria Cells of glands Muscularis mucosae Submucisa Muscularis Serosae Or
epithelium externae adventitia
Colon Simple Surface Crypts of Surface absorptive Inner circular and No glands Inner circular, outer Serosa and
columnar with absorptive cells, Liberkuhn cells, goblet cells, outer longitudinal longitudinal modified adventitia
goblet cells goblet cells, and regenerative cells, to form teniae coli
DNES cells and DNES cells.

2. Differentiate the large intestine from a small intestine, histologically. Tabulate

Region Epithelium Lamina propia Muscularis Submucosa Muscularis

mucosae externa
 Small Simple Villi – crypts Two layers; Fibroclastic Two layers;
Intestine columnar of liberkuhn; inner circular connective inter circular
epithelium peyer’s and outer tissue, and outer
with goblet patches in Longitudinal Brunner’s longitudinal
cells ileum (external glands in
into duodenum
submucosa);
lymphoid
nodules

Large Simple crypts of Two layers; Fibroclastic Two layers;

intestine: columnar liberkuhn (lack inner circular connective inter circular
Cecum epithelium paneth cells) and outer tissue, and outer
and with goblet lymphoid Longitudinal No glands longitudinal
Colon cells nodules which
modified to
form teniae
coli

Rectum Simple crypts of Two layers; Fibroclastic Two layers;

columnar liberkuhn inner and outer connective inter circular
epithelium (fewer but longitudinal tissue, and outer
with goblet deeper than in No glands longitudinal
cells colon);
lymphoid
nodules

Anal Simple Sebaceous Two layers; Fibroclastic Two layers;

canal columnar glands; inner circular connective inter circular
cuboidal circumanal and outer tissue, with (which forms
(proximally), glands; Longitudinal large veins; internal and
Stratified lymphoid No glands sphincter)
squamous non- nodules; rectal and outer
keratinized column of longitudinal
(distal to anal moigagm
valves), (involve entire
Stratified mucosa); hair
squamous follicles (anus)
keratinized
(anus)

APPENDIX
Questions:
1. Tabulate the layers and its components.

Organ Epithelium Cells type Lamina Cells of glands Muscularis mucosae Submucisa Muscularis Serosae
epithelium propria externae Or
adventitia
Appendix Simple Surface Shallow Surface Inner circular and No glands, Inner circular, Serosa
columnar with goblet cells absorptive cells, Crypts of absorptive cells, outer longitudinal occasiona- lly outer longitudinal
goblet cells, and Liberkuhn goblet cells, lymphoid nodules
DNES cells regenera-tive possible fatty
cells, and DNES infiltration
cells

2. Is the appendix a miniature colon? Explain.

 a) The wall is very thick when compared to lumen
b) The lumen is often angular in shape
c) Intestine glands are numerous
d) Abundance of lymphoid nodules

F. MAJOR SALIVARY GLANDS

Questions:
1. Classify the three glands as to nature of secretion.
 a) Parotid glands – consist of serous acini are classified as serous
b) Sublingual glands – consist mostly of mucous acini capped with serous
demilunes. They are classified as mixed
c) Submandibular glnads – consist of both mucous and serous acini. They are
classified as mixed.

2. What are the components of the ductal system of the glands?

  a) Intercalated duct – lined by squamous or low cuboidal epithelium with
myoepithelial cells.
- originating from the acini and drain to the interlobular /
striated ducts.
b) Striated (interlobular) – lined by simple columnar (contains basal striations
representing vertically oriented mitochondria in the
basal compartments for rapid ion and H2O trans-
port)
c) Interlobular/excretory duct – initially lined by stratified cuboidal epithelium
but distally lined with stratified columnar
epithelium.

G. GLANDS : Accessory Glands

Questions:
1. Differentiate from each other the three different liver lobules.

Classic liver lobule Portal lobule Hepatic acinus of Rappaport

- structure unit of the liver
- polygonal mass
composed of plates or
cords of hepatocytes
radiating like spoke from
a central vein toward the
periphery with the portal
canal’s at its corner
- triangular area whose 3
apices are neighboring
central veins and whose
whose center is portal
area or canal
- consists of the tissue-
draining bile into the bile
duct of their portal area
- functional unit of the liver
- diamond-shaped region
encompassing triangular
secretions of 2 adjacent liver
lobules (whose apices are the
central veins)
- divided by the portal canal
branches coursing transversely
between them

2. What is the space of Disse?

 Space of Disse or perisinusoidal space is subendothelial space between
hepatocytes and endothelial cell of the liver sinusoids space of Disse contains
reticular fibers which maintain the architecture of sinusoids and short
microvilli of hepatocyte which provides a large surface area for absorption
and secretion. It also contains fat storing cells which preferentially store
vitamin A; called pericytes lipocytes, extravascular reticular cells or Ito’s
cells. The space of Disse functions in the exchange of material between the
blood stream and hepatocytes which are not indirect contact with the blood-
stream.

H. GLANDS: PANCREAS
Questions:
1. What are the hormones secreted by the Islet of Langerhans? Give their actions.
 a) Glucagon is produced by alpha cells and act to elevate the blood glucose
level.
b) Insulin is produced by beta cells and act to decrease the blood glucose level.
c) Somatostatin is produced by delta cells and inhibits release of hormone by
nearby secretory cells.
d) Gastrin is produced by G cells and stimulates gastric HCl secretion.
e) Pancreatic polypeptide is produced by PP cells and inhibits release of
exocrine pancreatic secretions.

2. What constitute the secretion of the exocrine pancreas?

 Exocrine pancreatic secretions are controlled by cholecystokinin (CCK; or
Pancreozymin) and secretin, two hormones produced by enteroendocrine cells
of the small intestine, it constitutes:

a) energy-poor alkaline fluid which is released in large qualities by

intercalated duct cells stimulated by secretions. This is probably
neutralize the acidic chime as it enters the duodenum.

b) digestive enzymes that are synthesized and stored in the pancreatic

acinar cells. Their release is stimulated by cholecystokinin. The
digestive enzymes are secreted as enzymes or proenzyme that must be
activated in the intestinal lumen. The enzymes include the following
with those that are released as proenzymes (PE):
- trypsin (PE)
- chymotrypsin (PE)
- carboxypeptidases(PE)
- pancreatic amylase
- pancreatic lipases
- ribonucleases
- deoxyribonuclease
- elastase (PE)
 I. Glands: GALL BLADDER
Questions:
1. What are Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses?
 Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses is small outpouchings of gall bladder mucosa that
extend through the muscularis layer. It may be congenital.

2. Trace the passage of bile.

 Bile secretion is from the hepatocytes  bile canaliculi  bile ductule  bile
duct  left and right hepatic ducts  cystic duct  GALL BLADDER.

3. Tabulate the layer and their components.

Organ Epithelium Lamina Muscularis Submu- Connective tissue Serosae

propria mucosae cosa layer
Gall Simple Richy Smooth absent Dense irregular Covers most of
bladder columnar vascularized muscle cells in collagenous the gall bladder
epithelium oblique connective tissue, but adventitia is
fashion nervous anal present where the
blood vessels organ is in attach
to the liver

EXERCISE #16: GENITO-URINARY SYSTEM

A. KIDNEY
Questions:

1. Why is the nephron considered separately from the collecting tubules?

 Collecting tubules are not part of the nephron. They have different embryological origin and it is only later in development that
they meet the nephron and join it to form a continuous structure. The distal convoluted tubules of several nephron join to form
a short connecting tubule that leads into the collecting tubules.

2. Differentiate the proximal from the convoluted tubule.

 - The proximal convoluted tubules are numerous in the cortex, exhibit a small,
unseen lumen, and contain a single layer of large cuboidal cells with intensely eosinophilic, granular cytoplasm. The well-
developed brush-borders are present but are not always preserved in sections.
- Distal convoluted tubules are fewer in number and exhibit a layer lumen with
smaller cuboidal cells. The cytoplasm stains less intensely and the brush border are not present.

C. Specimen; URETHRA
Questions:

1. What are the differences between male and female urethra?

 Female urethra – stratify squamous epithelium
Male urethra – pseudostratify columnar epithelium

2. What do you call the most superficial cells in the transitional epithelium?
 The most superficial cells in the transitional epithelium are low cuboidal or columnar epithelium. But if in the urinary bladder
when it is stretch, the epithelium will change from cuboidal to the squamous epithelium. The most superficial cells in the
transitional epithelium are also called an umbrella or facet cells.

EXERCISE #17: MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

A. Specimen: TESTIS
Questions:
1. Different spermatogenesis from spermiogenesis.
 Spermatogenesis
– does not occur simultaneously or synchronously in all seminiferous tubules
but rather in wave-like sequences of maturation, referred to as cycles of the
seminiferous epithelium.
- is characterized by the daughter cells remaining connected to each other via
intercellular bridges. The resultant syncytium may be responsible for the
synchronous development of germ cells along any one seminiferous tubule.
- is divided into three phases: spermatogenesis, meiosis, and spermiogenesis.

Spermiogenesis
- is a unique process of cytodifferentiation whereby spermatids are
transformed into spermatozoa which are released into the lumen of the
seminiferous tubule.
- is divided into 4 phases: golgi phase, cap phase, acrosomal phase, maturation
phase.

2. What are the 3 phrases of spermiogenesis?

 Spermatogenesis is divided into 3 phases which are:
 a) Golgi phase
- is characterized by the formation of an acrosomal granule enclosed
within an acrosomal vesicle, which becomes attached to the anterior
end of the nuclear envelop of the spermatid.
- is associated with migration of the centrioles away from the nucleus
to form the flagellar axoneme. The centrioles then migrate back
toward the nucleus to assist to forming the connecting piece
associated with the tail.

b) Acrosomal phase
- the nucleus become condensed, flattened and located in the head
region.
- mitochondria aggregate around the proximal portion of the flagellum,
which develops into the middle piece of the tail.
- the spermatid enlongates a process that is aided by a temporary
cylinder of microtubules called the manchette.
- by the end of the acrosomal phase, the spermatid is oriented with its
acrosome pointing towards the base of the seminiferous tubule.

c) Maturation phase
- is characterized by the loss of excess cytoplasm and of the
intercellular bridges connecting spermatids into a syncytum. The
discarded material is phagozytosed by sertolio cells.
- is completed when the nonmotile spermatozoa are released (tail first)
into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule.

B. Specimen: testis, ductus epididymis, vas deferens

Questions:
1. Enumerate the intratesticular and extratesticular ducts and their corresponding epithelial.
 a) Intratesticular ducts:
* tubuli recti
- are short straight tubules lined by a simple cuboidal epithelium.
* rete testis
- is a labyrinthine plexus of anastomosing channels lined by simple
cuboidal epithelium; many of the cells possess a single luminal
flagellum.

b) extratesticular ducts:
* ductuli efferents
- are a collection of 10-20 tubules leading from the rete testis to the
ductus epididymis.
- have a thin circular layer of smooth muscle underlaying the basal
lamina of the epithelium.
- are lined by a simple epithelium composed of alternating clusters of
non-ciliatd cuboidal cells and ciliated columnar cells.
- reabsorb fluid from semen.
* ductus epididymis
- together with the ductuli efferentes constitutes the epididymis.
- is surrounded by circular layers of smooth muscle which undergo
peristaltic contractions that convey the sperm toward the ductus
deferens.
- is lined by a pseudostratified columnar epithelium, which is supported
by a basal lamina and contains basal cells and principle cells.
* ductus (vas) deferens
- has a thick muscular wall with inner and outer layer of longitudinally
oriented smooth muscle, which are separated from one another by
middle circular layer.
- has a narrow, irregular lumen lined by a pseudostratified columnar
epithelium similar to that of the ductus epididymis.
* ejaculatory duct
- is the straight continuation of the ductus deferens beyond where it
receives the duct of the seminal vesicle.
- lack a muscular wall
- enters the prostate gland and terminate in a slit on the colliculus
seminalis in the prostatic urethra.
* ampullar of ductus deferens

Accessory glands
C. Specimen: PROSTATE GLAND
Questions:
1. Classify the prostate gland morphologically.
 surrounds the urethra, and consists of 30-50 discrete branched tubuloalveolar
glands, and is covered by a fibroelastic capsule and divided it into lobes;
 2. What is corpora amylacea?
 corpora amylacea are concertions, composed of glycoprotein, which may
become calcified; their numbers increase with age.

EXERCISE #18: FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

A. Specimen: OVARY
Questions:
1. What is ovulation? What hormone triggers it?
 - Ovulation occur in response to a surge of LH as the secondary oocyte and its
attendant cumulus cells (corona radiate) leave the ruptures follicle at the
ovarian surface to enter the fimbriated end of oviduct.
- Surge of LH triggers the primary oocytes of the graffian follicle to complete
meiosis I and to enter meiosis II, where it become block at metaphase.
a) initiates ovulation of the secondary oocyte from the graffian follicle.
b) Promotes formation of the corpus luteum by the theca cells and granulose cells (which now have LH receptor)

2. What is fertilization?
 Fertilization is the fusion of a spermatozoon and an ovum, usually take place
within the ampulla of the oviduct and occurs when a spermatozoon penetrates the corona radiate, zona pellucida and the
plasma membrane of a secondary
oocyte. Fertilization triggers the resumption and completion of the secondary meiotic division with the subsequent
formation of an ovum and secondary polar body and is completed when the male pronucleus (from the spermatozoon) and
the female nucleus (from the oocyte) fuse, forming a diploid (2n) cell known as a zygote.

B. Specimen: FALLOPIAN TUBES

Questions:
1. What are peg cells?
 Peg cells – secrete a nutrient rich medium that nourishes the spermatozoa (and
preimplantation embryo).
- have a cytoplasm that contains abundant Rough Endoplasmic
Reticulum, a well-developed golgi complex and many apically
located, electron-dense secretory granules.

2. What are the segments of the oviduct?

 The oviduct or fallopian tubes can subdivided into 4 regions are:
a) Infundibulum, which has fimbriated at the end
b) ampulla, which is the most common site for fertilization
c) ismuth and
d) intramural portion which transverse the wall of uretus.

The oviducts have a wall consisting of mucosa, muscularis and serosa.

C. Specimen: UTERUS
Questions:
1. What is menstruation?
 Menstruation is the term given to the periodic discharge of blood, tissue fluid and mucus from the reproductive organs of
sexually mature female. The flow usually last from 3-6 days each month and is caused by a sudden reduction the
hormones estrogen and progesterone.

2. What are the different phases of the menstrual cycle?

 During every menstrual cycle, the endometrium in the functionalis layer is sloughed off during the menstrual phase. The
endometrium that is shed contains fragments of disintegrated stroma, blood clots, and uterine glands. Some of the
intact uterine glands are filled with blood. In the deeper laters of the endometrium, the basalis layer, the bases of the
uterine glands remain intact during the menstrual flow.

The endometrial stroma of most of the functionlis layer contains aggregations

of erythrocytes; these have been extruded from the torn and disintegrating
blood vessels. In addition, endometrium stroma exhibits moderate infiltration
of lymphocytes and neutrophils.

The basalis layer of the endometrium remains generally unaffected during this
phase. The distal (superficial) portion s of the coiled arteries become necrotic
and the deeper parts of vessels remain intact. Note the smooth muscle fiber is
the fifth phase (layer).

D. Specimen: PLACENTA
Questions:
1. What are the two components of the placenta?
 a) fetal portion of the placenta
- arises from the chorion which envelops the embryo
- consist of the chorionic plate from which primary, secondary, and tertiary
 chorionic villi will develop
b) maternal portion of the placenta
- consist of the deciduas basalis which provide an arterial supple and
venous drainage for the lucena
- baths the tertiary chorionic villi in maternal blood
- contain stromal cells in the deciduas basalis. Some of these cells enlarge
and are transformed into decidual cells during the first half of pregnancy.
Decidual cells produce prolactin and prostaglandins.

2. What hormones are produces by the placenta?

 - Progesterone, human chronic gonadotrophin (hCG) and human chorionic
Somatomammotrophin (hCS) , which is a lactogenic and growth promoting hormone.
- Estrogen with the associated of the liver and adrenal cortex of the fetus.

3. What compose the placenta barrier?

 a) cytotrophoblast
b) syncytiotrophoblast
c) basal lumina of trophoblast
d) connective tissue
e) basal lamina of capillary
f) capillary endothelial cell

EXERCISE #19: ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

A. Specimen: PITUITARY GLAND
Questions:
1. Enumerate the different cells in the pituitary gland and the respective hormones they produce.
 Pars distalis
a) somatotrophs – produce somatotrophin (growth hormone).
b) mammatrophs – produce prolactin.
c) corticotrophs – produce adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and
lipotropic hormone (LPH).
d) thyrotrophs – produce thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
e) gonadotrophs – produce follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and
luteinizing hormone (LH).

Pars intermedia
- melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

Pars tuberalis
- follicle-stimulating hormone(FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

Pars nervosa
- oxytocin
- vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

2. What are Herring bodies?

 The site in Pars nervosa where the neurosecretory granules in these axons are
stored in accumulation is known as Herring bodies.

B. Specimen: ADRENAL GLAND

Questions:
1. What hormones are produced by the different zones of the adrenal gland?
 a) adrenal cortex
- zona glanulosa  synthesizes and secretes mineralocorticoids, mostly
aldosterone and some deoxycorticosterone.
- zona fasciculate  synthesizes and secretes glucocorticoid, namely
cortisol and corticosterone.
- zona reticularis  synthesizes and secrets androgens (mostly
dehydroepiandrosterone and some androstenedione)
and perhaps small amounts of glucocorticoids.

b) adrenal medulla
- synthesizes, store and secretes the catecholamine, epinephrine, and
norepinephrine.

2. Give their functions?

 a) mineralocorticoids – regulate electrolyte and water balance via their effect
on epithelial cell of renal tubes.
b) glucocorticoid – primarily regulate carbohydreate metabolism by promoting
gluconeogenesis, deposit of glycogen and elevation of
blood glucose.
 c) dehydroepiandrosterone – has typical androgenic effects, promoting
masculine characteristics.
d) catecholamines – constitute the “fight-or-flight” response, include increased
blood pressure, faster heart rate, faster breathing rate, and
elevated blood glucose level.

C. Specimen: THYROID GLAND

Questions:
1. Differentiate the active from the inactive gland.
 During thyroid gland is an active stab, the thyroid follicle is lined by simple
cuboidal epithelium (also called follicular cells); which produce colloids representing a reserve of secretion. The follicular
cell become a high cuboidal cell that is stimulated by thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) but when thyroid gland is
inactive state, the follicular cell become a low cuboidal cells.

2. What hormones are produces by the follicular and parafollicular cells?

 The thyroid tissue is made up of 2 types of cells follicular cells and
parafollicular cells. Most of thyroid tissue consists of the follicular cells, which secret iodine-containing hormones called
thyroxine (T4) and triodothyromine (T3). The parafollicular cells secret the hormone calcitonin.

D. Specimen: PARATHYROID GLAND

Questions:
1. Which cells produced the parathormone?
 The parathyroids consist of four small, oval glands on the posterior aspect of the thyroid gland and parathyroid tissue
comprises 2 major cell types:
a) Oxyphil cells which its function is unknown
b) Principle (chief) cells, which produce a small protein hormone as parathyroid hormone and parathormone. The
cell is divided into 2 types which are dark chief and clear chief cells. Dark cell is invisible for the parathyroid
hormone.

2. What is the reaction of the parathormone?

 When there is a low amount of calcium in the blood, the parathormone will be
Secreted for the purpose
- release of calcium by bones into the bloodstream
- absorption of food by intestine
- conservation of calcium by the kidneys

E. Specimen: PINEAL GLAND

Questions:
1. What are corpora arenacea?
 corpora arenacea or brain sand are calcified concretion in the interstitium of pineal gland.
Their function is unknown.

2. What substances are produced by pinealocytes?

 Pinealocytes = synthesize and secrete serotonin (during the day) and melatonin (at night).
= may produce arginine vasotocin, a peptide that may be an antagonist of LH
and FSH.