CROP PROTECTION

Review Questions

1. It is a science that deals with the nature, causes, and control plant diseases:
a. entomology
b. agronomy
c. plant pathology
d. horticulture

2. The art of plant pathology which determines the severity and prevalence of diseases.
a. disease monitoring
b. disease forecasting
c. disease assessment
d. disease diagnosis
3. The ultimate objective of plant pathology.
a. minimize or reduce plant disease
b. identify plant disease
c. survey plant disease
d. measure plant disease
4. Moldy grains that are discolored and carry off-odors suffer a reduction in one of the
following.
a. quantity
b. quality
c. loss mutants
d. disease
5. This is a mycotoxin produced by Apergillus flavus attacking stored grains
a. ochratoxin
b. yellow rice toxin
c. aflatoxin
d. penicillic acid
6. One adverse effect of applying pesticides which can effect the beneficial organisms,
water sources, and plants.
a. ecological imbalance
b. pest resurgence
c. pest resistance
d. environmental contamination
7. The Greeks, Hebrews and Romans considered plant diseases as a by God
for wrongs and sins committed.
a. payment
b. curse or punishment
c. sacrifice
d. admonition
8. The invention of the in 1590 triggered the beginning of scientific studies in
plant pathology.
a. compound microscope
b. electron microscope
c. lenses
d. fungicides
9. Heinrich Anton de Bary the father of the plant pathology, showed that a fungus,
was the cause of leaf blight of potato
a. Phytophthora infestans
b. Plasmopara viticola
c. Sclerotium rolfsii

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 d. none of the above
10. The Koch’s Postulates is a set of 4 rules that must be satisfied to prove the
of a microorganism
a. disease
b. pathogenicity
c. survival
d. severity
11. , the first fungicide, is a mixture of copper sulfate and lime.
a. saline solution
b. Bordeaux mixture
c. borax solution
d. benomyl
12. The cause of diseases which Burill and Smith worked on
a. fungi
b. viruses
c. bacteria
d. nematodes
13. Bacteria were first shown to be able to incite plant disease in
a. potato leaf blight
b. rice bacterial blight
c. fire blight of apple and pears
d. taro blight
14. In 1971, Diener determined that potato spindle tuber disease was caused by a
a. virus
b. fungus
c. bacteria
d. viroid
15. Mycoplasma like organisms were first reported to cause in Japan.
a. peach yellows
b. aster yellows
c. cadang-cadang
d. corn stunt
16. is a harmful alteration of the normal physiological and biochemical
development of a plant
a. injury
b. disease
c. pathogenesis
d. colonization
17. is a sharply defined variegated color pattern
a. mottle
b. chlorosis
c. mosaic
d. etiolation
18. refer to the structures of the pathogen that are found associated with the
infected host
a. symptoms
b. spores
c. mycelia
d. signs
19. symptoms involve the death of protoplast, cells or tissues
a. necrotic
b. hyperplastic

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 c. hypertophic
d. histological
20. is characterized by perforations in leaf as lesions drop out
a. shot-hole
b. leaf spot
c. blight
d. scab
21. Sign of a pathogen include
a. ooze
b. yellowing
c. etiolation
d. galls
22. The identification of specific plant diseases through their characteristic symptoms
and signs is
a. detection
b. diagnosis
c. control
d. assessment
23. Yellowing due to lack of light is
a. etiolation
b. chlorosis
c. sunscalding
d. scorch
24. A disease caused by too much bright light along with high temperatures is
a. etiolation
b. sunscalding
c. water logging
d. chlorosis
25. An example of air pollutant is
a. fog
b. smoke
c. ozone
d. smog
26. nematodes feed only on root hairs and root tips
a. endoparasitic
b. ectoparasitic
c. sedentary
d. migratory
27. are pleomorphic microorganisms without cell walls
a. bacteria
b. mycoplasma
c. viroids
d. fungi
28. Citrus exocortis and cadang-cadang are believed to be caused by
a. viroids
b. mycoplasma
c. viruses
d. fastidious vascular bacteria
29. Agrobactrium tumefaciens causes disease of many plants
a. root rot
b. crown gall
c. stunting

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 d. scab
30. Viruses are usually spread by in the field
a. fungi
b. insects
c. nematodes
d. bacteria
31. are wide-scale appraisal of the severity and prevalence of diseases in
the country, a region or a continent.
a. disease survey
b. disease diagnosis
c. disease monitoring
d. disease incidence
32.Fungi are spore-forming, achlorophyllous microorganisms with a filamentous
vegetative body called
a. spores
b. hyphae
c. sclerotia
d. chlamydospore
33. are the most common infectious agent of plant disease
a. fungi
b. viruses
c. bacteria
d. nematodes
34. An example of phanerogams is
a. witchweed
b. downy mildew
c. soft rot of cabbage
d. mango anthracnose
35. Rice tungro is caused by a virus transmitted by
a. green leafhopper
b. brown leafhopper
c. aphids
d. mealybugs
36. The ability of the parasites/pathogen to cause disease is
a. pathogenesis
b. pathogenicity
c. pathogenic
d. aggressiveness
37. Parasites that could grow and reproduce only in living hosts
a. facultative saprophyte
b. saprophyte
c. obligate parasite
d. facultative parasite
38. The following are events occurring in pathogenesis except
a. survival phase
b. inoculation
c. penetration
d. infection
39. The following are possible sources of inoculum of except
a. plant debris
b. propagative organs
c. nearby plants

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 d. tissue cultured plants
40. The following are stages in pathogen dissemination except
a. penetration
b. liberation
c. light deposition
41. Biotic factor that may affect pathogen penetration
a. RH
b. temperature
c. tension
d. antagonistic microorganisms
42. Not a mechanism of bacterial penetration to host
a. direct penetration
b. through stomata
c. through hydathodes
d. through wounds
43.A soil that contains a variety of antagonistic microorganism that produce toxic
metabolites and cause pathogen starvation
a. acidic soil
b. basic soil
c. suppressive soil
d. favorable soil
44. The incapability of spores of soil-borne fungi to germinate in some soil due to the
existence of a variety of antagonistic microorganism
a. cross protection
b. fungistasis
c. fungistatic
d. suppressive
45. The time interval between inoculation and the appearance of disease symptoms
a. incubation period
b. latent period
c. sporulation
d. half-life
46. Type of disease cycle where the pathogen completes only one or even part of one
disease cycle in one growing season
a. macrocyclic
b. polycyclic
c. monocyclic
d. microcyclic
47. The usual effect of root rotting fungi in plants is on the
a. translocation of organic compounds through the phloem
b. increase transpiration
c. change in production of host
d. interference with uptake of water and inorganic elements from the soil
48. Leaf-infecting plants pathogens usually
a. interfere with the translocation of organic compounds
b. reduce the photosynthetic activity
c. cause hyperplastic symptoms such as galls
d. affect host reproduction
49.The following are mechanical weapons used by pathogens to penetrate tissue
except:
a. toxins
b. stylet

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 c. penetration peg
d. appressorium
50.Chemical substance produce by the pathogen that act directly on living host
protoplasts seriously damaging or killing the cells of the plant
a. enzymes
b. toxins
c. hormones
d. phytoalexin
51. The following pathogen enzymes degrade plant cell wall substance except
a. pectinases
b. hemicellulases
c. cellulases
d. isozymes
52. The following substances usually affect growth of cells except:
a. auxins
b. gibberellins
c. cutinases
d. cytokinins
53. The following are mechanism of variability in fungi except
a. transduction
b. parasexualism
c. heterokaryosis
d. heteroploidy
54. The following is a sexual like process in bacteria
a. heteroploidy
b. transduction
c. heterokaryosis
d. parasexualism
55.The concept that say” for each gene that confers virulence/avirulence to the
pathogen there is a corresponding gene in the host that confer resistant to the host
and vice-versa
a. Koch’s postulates
b. gene-for-gene concept
c. the law of relativity
d. Malthuslan concept
56. The following are pre-existing host defenses except:
a. phytoalexin production
b. presence of thick cuticle
c. small stomatal openings
d. presence of phenolic compounds near the point of attack
57. The following are induced defenses of the host in response to pathogen attack
except:
a. formation of abscission layers
b. hypersensitive reaction
c. thick cuticle
d. systemic acquired resistance
58.The rapid death of cells immediately surrounding the point of infection thereby
walling off the pathogen and the activation of a cascade of biological reactions in the
attacked and the surrounding plant cells
a. systemic acquired resistance (SAR)
b. hypertensive response (HR)
c. oxidative burst

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 d. susceptibility
59. Toxic antimicrobial substances produced in appreciable amounts in plants only after
stimulation by various types of phytopathogens or by chemical or mechanical injury
a. elicitors
b. antibiotics
c. phytoalexins
d. toxins
60. Antibodies that are encoded by animal genes but produced in transgenic plants that
makes the plant resistant to the virus where the antibody was derived
a. antigenic determinant
b. plantibodies
c. golgi bodies
d. immunoglobulins
61. Resistance that spread systemically and develop in distal untreated parts of the plant
which is not non-specific or generalized resistance
a. systemic acquired resistance (SAR)
b. local acquired resistance (LAR)
c. hypertensive resistance (HR)
d. induced resistance (IR)
62.The study of the increase of the disease on a population and the factors that
influence them
a. epidemic
b. epidemiology
c. demography
d. geology
63. The following are components of an epidemic except
a. susceptible host
b. favorable environment
c. avirulent pathogen
d. man as a manager of the system
64. An epidemic would more likely develop in
a. perennial woody plant
b. widespread planting of a single variety
c. planting multilines
d. mature plants
65. Epidemic would less likely develop in this condition
a. prolonged or repeated high moisture
b. dense planting
c. high O2 tension
d. aerially dispersed fungal spores
66. Roguing virus-infected plants in the field falls under what principle of plant disease
control?
a. exclusion
b. eradication
c. protection
d. immunization
67. Control of disease through crop rotation is what method of control measure?
a. sanitation
b. physical method
c. cultural method
d. biological method
68. Irradication of fruits with gamma rays falls under what method of plant disease control

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 a. sanitation
b. physical
c. chemical
d. biological
69. Soil fumigation to control Moko disease of banana falls under method of control?
a. physical
b. biological
c. sanitation
d. chemical
70. You were required to leaves at the airport the planting material you carried from
abroad. What principle of plant disease control was applied?
a. exclusion
b. immunization
c. eradication
d. protection
71. The following are considered infrasubspecific taxa of pathogen except:
a. race
b. biotype
c. formae speciales
d. family
72. Proper fertilization of soils falls under what method of control?
a. chemical
b. cultural
c. sanitation
d. host resistance
73. The following are the basis of classifying weeds except
a. gross morphology
b. habit life cycle
c. growth habit
d. anatomy
74. Itchgrass is the English name of
a. Echinochloa colona
b. Eleusine indica
c. Echinochloa glabrescens
d. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
75. The following are the vegetative structure of weeds except
a. flowers
b. branches
c. tillers
d. leaves
76. Competition only occurs when there is
a. limited amount of light and nutrients
b. inadequate water supply
c. limited amount of C2O and space
d. all of the above
77. Allelophatic substance are equated to
a. allelochemicals
b. secondary metabolites
c. allosomes
d. all of the above
78. The most popular herbicide we have today which was discovered in 1944 is
a. gramoxone

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 b. 2,4-D
c. atrazine
d. glyphosate
79. Weeds occupies the
a. 1st tropic level
b. 2nd tropic level
c. 3rd tropic level
d. 4th tropic level
80. The suspended growth of the embryo is due to
a. dormancy
b. germination
c. respiration
d. photosynthesis
81. The technical term for weed establishment is
a. ecstasy
b. ecases
c. ecesis
d. evasis
82. The physical form of dormancy is brought about the presence of
a. inhibitors in the seed coat
b. inhibitors in the embryo
c. immature embryo
d. thick hull
e. all of the above
83. The density of weed above which significant yield reduction will occur is called
a. critical period
b. critical time duration
c. critical threshold
d. critical stage
84. The following are the growth habit of a weed except
a. tree
b. vine or herb
c. shrub or tree
d. herbaceous and woody
85. Classification of weeds based on gross morphology includes except
a. epiphytic
b. sedge
c. grass
d. broadleaf
86. The following are the characteristic of a sedges except
a. triangular stem
b. parallel leaf venation
c. monocot
d. hollow stem
87. The following are considered allelopathic substances except
a. icoline
b. marasmin
c. phytoncide
d. meristem
88. These structure are found in grass weed except
a. ligule

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 b. node
c. internode
d. tubers
89. purple nutsedge is
a. perennial
b. terrestrial
c. monocot
d. all of the above
90. Physiological dormancy may be overcome by
a. after ripening process
b. stratification
c. exposure to light
d. all of the above
91. The following are the steps involves in germination except
a. shoot emergence
b. root emergence
c. inhibition
d. rapid metabolism
92. Example of germination promoters are the following except
a. auxin
b. KNO3
c. ABA
d. all of the above
93. The following are the example of underground vegetative structures that may be
used for weed propagation
a. rhizomes
b. tubers
c. stolons
d. all of the above
94. The asexual reproduction of weed is greatly affected by the following factors except
a. light
b. soil
c. mineral
d. temperature
95. Dispersal unit of weed includes
a. rhizomes
b. seed
c. tuber
d. all of the above
96. An example of aquatic weed is
a. E. crassipes
b. E. indica
c. E. sonchifolia
d. E. hirta
97. The weed structure facilitating dispersal include
a. burs
b. spines
c. hooks
d. all of the above
98. Efficient plants possess the following traits except
a. KRANTZ structure
b. low water requirement

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 c. photorespiration
d. high light intensity saturation point
99. The C3 plants are characterized by the following except
a. high CO2 compensation point
b. low CO2 compensation point
c. low light intensity saturation point
d. absence of KRANTZ structure
100. The oldest form of weed control is
a. biological
b. mechanical
c. chemical
d. manual
101. Mycoherbicides are made up of
a. bacterial spores
b. egg of nematodes
c. virus particles
d. fungal particles
102. Collego is made up of spores of
a. Cercospora
b. Curvularia
c. Colletotrichum
d. Helminthosporium
103. Good biological weed control agents possess the following traits except
a. ability to search for the host
b. specific
c. ability to adapt to the environment
d. slow pace of reproduction
104. The following are considered cultural methods of weed control except
a. use of mulching materials
b. use of rotary weeder
c. flooding
d. choice of variety
105. Considered as the most efficient agent of weed dissemination is
a. wind
b. water
c. carabao
d. Mang Juan
106. The most limiting factor for competition in tropical countries especially during dry
season is
a. soil pH
b. soil moisture
c. sunlight
d. nitrogen
107. Intraspecific type of competition is exhibited by
a. rice vs. jungle rice
b. E. colona vs. E. glabrescus
c. itchgrass vs. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
d. all of the above
108. What is the branch of science which deals with the study of insects?
a. zoology
b. ornithology
c. acarology

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 d. entomology
109. In what year entomological study first started in the Philippines?
a. 1816
b. 1618
c. 1718
d. 1810
110. Which nationality did a lot of insect collections in the Philippines?
a. French
b. American
c. German
d. Swedish
111. Hemitera Insularum Philippinarum and Dle Schmetterlings der philippinischen
Inseln are both milestones in:
a. Philippine entomology
b. Philippine acarology
c. Philippine botany
d. Philippine zoology
112. All but one describes the importance of insects to man and agriculture:
a. production of many agricultural crops
b. provide food and other products of commercial values
c. cause enormous losses to agricultural crops
d. all acts as vectors of disease-causing organisms to plants, animals and
human beings
113. All the following are distinguishing features of insects except:
a. three body regions
b. three pairs of legs
c. two pairs of antennae
d. one to two pairs of wings
114. Considered as locomotory region of the insect body
a. head
b. thorax
c. abdomen
d. all of the above
115. Which one is not an organ/structure in the head
a. antennae
b. compound eyes
c. spiracles
d. simple eye
116. Basic unit structure of the compound eye
a. ocelllus
b. ommatidium
c. tympanum
d. labium
117. Appendages found in the thorax except:
a. wings
b. legs
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
118. All of the following are insect mouthparts except
a. labium
b. mandible
c. maxillae

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 d. tibia
119. All the following are types of insect antennae except
a. aristate
b. plumose
c. moniliform
d. hamuli
120. All are modifications of clubbed type of antennae
a. clavate
b. capitate
c. flabellate
d. geniculate
121. All are modifications of clubbed type of antennae
a. clavate
b. capitate
c. flabellate
d. genicullate
122. All are external processes of the body wall except
a. scales
b. quinones
c. setae
d. spurs
123. Type of mouthparts of which the cranium is turned upward on the neck so that
the mouthparts are directed forward
a. hypognathus
b. opisthognathous
c. prognathus
d. hypergnathus
124. All are haustellate type of mouthparts except
a. mouthparts of thrips
b. mouthparts of bugs
c. mouthparts of fleas
d. mouthparts of grasshopper
125. Which one is not a part of the insect leg
a. femur
b. trochanter
c. tibia
d. cerci
126. Saltatorial type of legs is modified for
a. grasping
b. clinging
c. swimming
d. cutting
127. All are coupling devices in insect wing except
a. frenulum
b. hamuli
c. arolium
d. jugum
128. Type of wing which the 2/3 or ¼ of the forewing is parchment-like while the
remaining distal part is membranous
a. elytron
b. hemyletron
c. tegmina

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 d. humeral
129. Type of metamorphosis with three stage of development-egg, nymph and adult
a. ametabolous
b. hemimetabolous
c. holometabolous
d. none of the above
130. Type of metamorphosis with four stages of development-egg, larva, pupa and
adult
a. ametabolous
b. hemimetabolous
c. holometabolous
d. none of the above
131. Aquatic immature stage of hemimetabolous insect
a. nalad
b. nymph
c. pupa
d. larva
132. Quiescent or inactive stage of holometabolous insect
a. larva
b. pupa
c. nymph
d. adult
133. Destructive stages of insect development except
a. nymph
b. larva
c. adult
d. pupa
134. Science of classification
a. lobotomy
b. taxonomy
c. dichotomy
d. none of the above
135. Branch of science which deals how organisms are related to each other and
attempt to describe the underlying reasons for that relationship
a. taxonomy
b. systematics
c. nomenclature
d. none of the above
136. The fundamental unit of classification. It is also defined as the smallest group
capable of reproduction and production of fertile offsprings.
a. genus
b. family
c. species
d. order
137. A tool that unlock the door to identification of an unknown organism
a. nomenclature
b. key
c. systematics
d. taxonomy
138. All are morphological characteristic used to distinguish insect orders except
a. wings
b. mouthparts

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 c. antennae
d. body wall
139. Which insect order do butterflies, moths and skippers belong?
a. hymenoptera
b. homoptera
c. Lepidoptera
d. coleoptera
140. Which insect order do beetles and weevils belong?
a. hymenoptera
b. homoptera
c. Lepidoptera
d. coleoptera
141. Which insect order do bugs, aphids, mealybugs, leafhoppers and planthoppers
belong?
a. hymenoptera
b. homoptera
c. Lepidoptera
d. coleoptera
142. Which insect order do flies, mosquitoes and gnats belong?
a. hymenoptera
b. diptera
c. isoptera
d. odonata
143. Which order do dragonflies and damselflies belong?
a. ephemeroptera
b. odonata
c. phtiraptera
d. thysanoptera
144. All the following insect orders are beneficial except
a. hymenoptera
b. mantodea
c. odonata
d. isoptera
145. All of the following orders are destructive to plant except
a. lepidoptera
b. coleoptera
c. homoptera
d. neuroptera
146. Which insect order do grasshopper, locusts and katy belong?
a. phasmatodea
b. orthoptera
c. blattodea
d. mantodea
147. Which insect order do earwigs belong?
a. mantodea
b. thysanura
c. dermaptera
d. coleopteran
148. All of the following are pest except
a. weeds
b. insects
c. plant pathogens

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 d. spider
149. An insect which interferes with the production of crops and animals either directly
or indirectly
a. insect pest
b. insect pollinator
c. insect decomposer
d. none of the above
150. The level of pests which will cause economic damage is defined as
a. economic threshold level
b. economic injury level
c. economic inhibition level
d. all of the above
151. The level or number pests at which control must be applied to prevent an
increasing pest population from causing economic losses
a. economic threshold level
b. economic injury level
c. economic inhibition level
d. all of the above
152. All of the following are damage produced by chewing insect except
a. distinct portion of leaf missing
b. leaf mines
c. leaf curling
d. entire leaf blade missing
153. All of the following are damage produced by sucking insects
a. stipplings
b. galls
c. puckering
d. skeletonized leaf
154. Insect pests of rice which are vectors of virus disease except
a. rice stem borer
b. green leafhopper
c. brown plant hopper
d. zigzag leaf hopper
155. Important pests of corn except
a. corn stem borer
b. army worm
c. corn seedling maggot
d. black bug
156. Important insect pests of beans
a. podborer
b. Nezara viridula
c. Aphis craccivora
d. budworm
157. The most important pest of sweetpotato
a. sweetpotato weevil
b. sweetpotato stemborer
c. grasshopper
d. leaf miners
158. Which of the following is not a synonym/description of ecological resistance
a. false or fake
b. pseudo resistance
c. genetically controlled

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 d. all of the above
159. The following are mechanism of resistance except
a. tolerance
b. antixenosis
c. diagnosis
d. antibiosis
160. Vertical resistance is called :
a. monogenic
b. partial
c. polygenic
d. all of the above
161. The following are example of pathogens except:
a. virus
b. bacteria
c. arachnida
d. fungi
162. Which of the following is not an advantage of biological control
a. safe
b. self perpetuating
c. environment-friendly
d. none of the above
163. The point of entry of a fumigant insecticides is
a. insect integument
b. spiracles
c. mouth
d. none of the above
164. Organochlorine insecticides include
a. chlordane
b. tannate
c. DDT
d. a & b
165. What is defined as any action/activity that is designed to hold pest population
below the economic threshold level
a. resistance
b. pest control
c. tolerance
d. antibiosis
166. The following are the characteristics of a parasitoid except
a. kills its host gradually
b. lives inside or outside its host
c. needs only one host to complete its development
d. all of the above
167. Predators includes the following arthropods except
a. dragonfly
b. most coccinellid beetles
c. antlion
d. black bug
168. Horizontal resistance is also called
a. minor gene resistance
b. polygenic resistance
c. filed resistance
d. all of the above

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 169. The following are examples of cultural methods except
a. crop rotation
b. crop complementation
c. sanitation
d. none of the above
170. A mechanism of insect resistance that is described as refractory to guest is
a. tolerance
b. antibiosis
c. antixenosis
d. all of the above
171. Based on the mode of entry, insecticides can be classified as:
a. contact poison
b. stomach poison
c. none of the above
d. all of the above
172. The following are examples of organophosphate insecticides except:
a. Malathion
b. parathion
c. baygon
d. azodrin
173. An ecological based strategy that relies heavily on natural mortality factors is:
a. cultural control
b. biological control
c. chemical control]
d. integrated pest management
174. The following are disadvantages of chemical control except:
a. development of resistance pest species
b. hazards of pesticides residues
c. resurgence or outbreak of secondary pests
d. none of the above
175. A pesticides that is used to kill insect pest is:
a. herbicide
b. insecticide
c. acaricide
d. fungicide
176. A control action/method that prevents the introduction of potential pests to
another area or prevent further dissemination of those already present in the locality
is:
a. resistance
b. biological control
c. quarantine
d. chemical control
177. Which is not example of botanical insecticide
a. pyrethroids
b. nicotinoids
c. juvenoids
d. rotenoids
178. Golden snail is under the phylum:
a. arthropoda
b. gasthropoda
c. mollusca
d. chordata

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 179. The native kuhol is
a. Achatina fulica
b. Pomacea canaliculata
c. Pila luzonica
d. none of the above
180. A pesticide group that is used against anail pest is :
a. fungicide
b. nematicide
c. molluscicide
d. insecticide
181. An adult golden snail lays an average of
a. 400
b. 200
c. 300
d. 500 eggs/egg mass
182. Maturity of golden snail ranges from
a. 2 to 3 months
b. 1 to 2 months
c. 3-4 months
d. 4-5 months
183. Birds are under the Class
a. mammalia
b. aves
c. arachnida
d. insecta
184. Also known as gnawing mammals include members of the order:
a. chiroptera
b. rodentia
c. primates
d. none of the above
185. The scientific name of the house or tree sparrow is:
a. Lonchura Malacca
b. Passer muntamus
c. Padda oryzivora
d. Oryza sativa
186. The biggest among the 5 species of rodents destructive to agricultural crops and
in households.
a. common rice field rat
b. bush rat
c. Norway rat
d. asia rice field rat
187. The following are factors affecting population dynamics of rodents except:
a. immigration
b. emigration
c. birth rate
d. fumigation
188. The average weight of the Rattus rattus mindanensis is:
a. 180g
b. 130g
c. 30g
d. 12g
189. The following are signs of rat infestation except:

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 a. damaged crops
b. scattered food
c. food prints
d. none of the above
190. The insect that transmitted the bubonic plague bacteria that affected 41M victims
in the 14th century is:
a. louse
b. flea
c. mosquito
d. bed bug
191. The following are examples of chronic rodenticide except
a. warfarin
b. zinc phosphide
c. racumin
d. dora
You wish to apply 300 liters of spray solution/ha to a 0.5 ha area. The recommended spray
concentration of the 45% EC pesticide is 0.04%.

192. The spray volume needed for the treated area is:
a. 160 li
b. 100 li
c. 125 li
d. 150 li
193. The amount of commercial formulation required for the treatment is
a. 0.142 li
b. 0.133 li
c. 0.165 li
d. 0.111 li
194. Using 16-li capacity sprayer, how many sprayerloads will be done?
a. 15
b. 10
c. 5
d. 20
195. The amount of commercial formulation needed per sprayerload is:
a. 0.0133 li
b. 0.0142 li
c. 0.007 li
d. 0.0166 li
A farmer obtained the following data during calibration of his 16 li knapsack sprayer

distance traveled = 40m

spray swath = 4m
volume sprayed = 5 li/min

196. The application rate/ha is

a. 312.5 li/ha
b. 250.5 li/ha
c. 333.33 li/ha
d. 277.77 li/ha
197. The time required to spray 1 ha is
a. 65.5 min
b. 62.5 min

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 c. 60.5 min
d. 66.2 min
You wish to apply 320 li/ha of spray solution to a 1.5- ha area. The recommendation rate of the
70% wettable powder pesticide is 0.75kg a.i/ha

198. How many kilograms of the commercial formulation are required to treat the 1.5
ha area?
a. 1.45
b. 2.15
c. 1.61
d. 1.12
199. What is the volume of spray needed for the treated area?
a. 400 li
b. 480 li
c. 320 li
d. 300 li

A certain fungicide containing 50% a.i in WP is recommended to control leaf spotting fungus at
the rate of 20g per 20 liters of water.

200. What is the strength of the diluted spray?

a. 0.05%
b. 0.1%
c. 0.15%
d. 0.5%
201. To prepare 100 li of the fungicidal spray, how much of the fungicide should be
prepared?
a. 160g
b. 100g
c. 200g
d. 175g
1 c 31 a 61 a 91 c 121 d 151 a
2 c 32 b 62 b 92 d 122 d 152 c
3 a 33 a 63 c 93 d 123 c 153 c
4 b 34 a 64 b 94 d 124 d 154 a
5 c 35 a 65 c 95 d 125 d 155 d
6 d 36 b 66 b 96 a 126 e 156 d
7 b 37 c 67 c 97 d 127 c 157 a
8 a 38 a 68 b 98 a 128 b 158 c
9 a 39 c 69 d 99 b 129 b 159 c
10 a 40 a 70 a 100 d 130 c 160 a
11 b 41 d 71 d 101 d 131 b 161 c
12 c 42 a 72 b 102 c 132 b 162 d
13 c 43 c 73 d 103 d 133 d 163 b
14 d 44 b 74 d 104 b 134 b 164 d
15 b 45 a 75 a 105 b 135 b 165 b
16 b 46 c 76 d 106 b 136 c 166 d
17 c 47 d 77 a 107 a 137 b 167 a
18 d 48 b 78 b 108 d 138 d 168 b
19 a 49 a 79 a 109 a 139 c 169 b

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 20 a 50 b 80 a 110 c 140 d 170 c
21 a 51 d 81 c 111 a 141 b 171 d
22 b 52 c 82 d 112 d 142 b 172 c
23 a 53 a 83 c 113 c 143 b 173 b
24 b 54 b 84 a 114 b 144 d 174 d
25 d 55 b 85 a 115 c 145 d 175 b
26 b 56 c 86 d 116 a 146 b 176 c
27 c 57 c 87 d 117 d 147 c 177 c
28 a 58 b 88 d 118 d 148 d 178 c
29 b 59 c 89 d 119 d 149 a 179 b
30 b 60 b 90 a 120 d 150 b 180 c
202. Answers key 201 crop protection questions

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