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(0000CMA303117003) *0000CMA303117003*
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2017 - 2018)
8. Please do not fold the Answer Sheet and do not make any stray marks on it.
9. The candidate will not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.
10. CHANGING AN ANSWER IS NOT ALLOWED.
11. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited
Ensure that your OMR Answer Sheet has been signed by the Invigilator and the candidate himself/ herself.
OMR
(4) 28 G J (4) 28 GJ
4. A glass tube of 1.0 m length is filled with water, 4. 1.0 m
the water can be drained out slowly at the bottom
of the tube. If a vibrating tuning fork of frequency 500 Hz
500 Hz is brought at the upper end of the tube
330 m/s
and the velocity of sound is 330 m/s, then the total :-
number of resonances obtained will be :- (1) 4 (2) 3
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 2 (4) 1
5. Two parallel rail tracks run north-south. On one track 5.
train A moves north with a speed of 54 km h–1 and A
on the other track train B moves south with a speed 54 km h–1
B
of 90 km h–1. The velocity of train A with respect 90 km h–1
B
to train B is.
A
(1) 10 m s–1 (2) 15 m s–1 (1) 10 m s–1 (2) 15 m s–1
(3) 25 m s–1 (4) 40 m s–1 (3) 25 m s–1 (4) 40 m s–1
0000CMA303117003 LTS-1/35
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/Pre-Medical /AIIMS/29-04-2018
6. Two bulbs rated 25 W, 220 V and 100 W, 220 V 6. 25
220
100
, 220
are connected in series to a 440 V supply pick 440
the correct choice :-
(1) 25 W bulb will fuse due to current supply (1) 25
more than allowed
(2) 100 W bulb will fuse due to current supply (2) 100
more than allowed
(3) Both the bulbs fuse simultaneously due to (3)
current supply more than allowed
(4) neither of the two bulbs will fuse due to current (4)
supply less than the allowed
7. A horizontal platform is rotating with uniform 7.
angular velocity around the vertical axis passing
through its centre. At some instant of time a
"m" (viscous)
viscous fluid of mass ‘‘m’’ is dropped at the
centre and is allowed to spread out and finally
fall on ground. The angular velocity during this
period :–
:
(1) Initially first decreases then increases & then
remain constant (1)
(2) continously decreases (2)
(3) remains unaltered (3)
(4) Increases continously (4)
8. A whistle revolves in a circle with angular speed 8.
50 cm
= 20 rad/sec using a string of length 50 cm. If = 20 rad/sec
the frequency of sound from the whistle is
385 Hz
385 Hz, then what is the minimum frequency
heard by an observer which is standing far away
from the centre: (sound = 340 m/s)
: ( = 340 m/s)
(1) 385 Hz (2) 374 Hz (1) 385 Hz (2) 374 Hz
(3) 394 Hz (4) 333 Hz (3) 394 Hz (4) 333 Hz
9. The position time graph of a body of mass 2 kg 9. 2
is as shown in figure. What is the impulse on the
t = 4
body at t = 4 s ?
x x
2 (m) (m)
(1) kg m s–1 3
3 3
2 2
2 1 1
(2) kg m s–1
3 O 1 2 3 4 O 1 2 3 4 t(s)
t(s)
3 2 2
(3) kg m s–1 (1)
(2)
2 3 3
3 3 3
(4) kg m s–1 (3) (4)
2 2 2
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10. A 100 W bulb B1 and two 60 W bulbs B2 and B3, 10. 100 W B1
60W
B2 B3
are connected to a 220 V source, as shown in
220 V
B1,
Figure. Now P1, P2 and P3 are the output powers B2 B3
P1,P2 P3
:
of the bulbs B1, B2 and B3 respectively. Then:
B1 B2
B1 B2
B3
B3
220V
220V
(1) P1 > P2 = P3 (2) P1 > P2 > P3 (1) P1 > P2 = P3 (2) P1 > P2 > P3
(3) P1 < P2 = P3 (4) P1 < P2 < P3 (3) P1 < P2 = P3 (4) P1 < P2 < P3
11. Two wires of length , radius r and length 2. 11.
r
2,
2r
radius 2r respectively having same young's
Y
mg
modulus Y are hung with a weight mg net
:-
elongation is :-
3mg 2mg 3mg 2mg
(1) (2)
(1) (2) r2Y 3r 2Y
r2Y 3r 2Y
3mg 3mg 3mg 3mg
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2r2Y 4r2Y 2r2Y 4r2Y
12. A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation 12.
P
in an equilateral prism P. Additional prisms Q and
R of identical shape and material are now added Q R, P
:-
to P as shown in the figure. The ray will suffer:-
Q
Q
P R
P R
g 5g g 5g
(1) (2) (1) (2)
3 7 3 7
2g 5g 2g 5g
(3) (4) (3) (4)
3 14 3 14
16. Two convex lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are 16.
f1
f2
mounted coaxially separated by a distance. If the
(power)
power of the combination is zero, the distance
between the lenses is
(1) |f1 - f2|
(1) |f1 - f2|
(2) f1 + f2
(2) f1 + f2
f1f2 f1f2
(3) (3)
f1 - f2 f1 - f2
f1f 2 f1f 2
(4) (4)
f1 f 2 f1 f 2
17. A particle is acted upon by by a force F which 17. F
x
varies with position x as shown in figure. If the
x = 0
particle at x = 0 has kinetic energy of 25 J, then 25 J
x = 16 m
the kinetic energy of the particle at x = 16 m is.
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18. An uncharged capacitor having capacitance C is 18.
C
V
connected across a battery of emf V. Now the
capacitor is disconnected and then reconnected
across the same battery but with reversed polarity.
Then which of the statements is incorrect ?
(1) After reconnecting, charge delivered by the
:-
battery is 2CV. (1)
2CV
18 6 18 6
(1) K (2) K (1) K K (2)
11 11 11 11
11 11 11 11
(3) K (4) K (3) K (4) K
6 18 6 18
20. InYoung's double slit experiment, a mica sheet 20.
t
of thickness t and refractive index is introduced
S1
in the path of ray from the first source S1. By how
much distance the fringe pattern will be displaced:
d D d D
(1) 1 t (2) 1 t (1) 1 t (2) 1 t
D d D d
d D d D
(3) 1 D
(4)
d
1 (3) 1 D (4) 1
d
21. Two particles of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position 21. 1
3
vectors 2iˆ 3jˆ 4kˆ and 2iˆ 3jˆ 4kˆ (position vectors) 2iˆ 3jˆ 4kˆ
2iˆ 3jˆ 4kˆ
respectively. The centre of mass has a position
vector.
(1) ˆi 3jˆ 2kˆ (2) ˆi 3jˆ 2kˆ (1) ˆi 3jˆ 2kˆ (2) iˆ 3jˆ 2kˆ
(3) ˆi 3jˆ 2kˆ (4) ˆi 3jˆ 2kˆ (3) ˆi 3jˆ 2kˆ (4) ˆi 3jˆ 2kˆ
22. A bar magnet is held at right angle to a uniform 22.
magnetic field. The couple acting on the magnet
is to be halved by rotating it from this position.
The angle of rotation is :-
:-
(1) 60° (2) 45° (3) 30° (4) 75° (1) 60° (2) 45° (3) 30° (4) 75°
Key
Filling
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23. In an imaginary temperature scale, MP and BP are 23.
30°A and 180°A respectively, then the temperature 30°A 180°A
60°A
in celcius scale corresponding to 60°A is :-
:-
(1) 20°C (2) 40°C (3) 15°C (4) 60°C (1) 20°C (2) 40°C (3) 15°C (4) 60°C
24. In young's double-slit experiment one of the slits 24.
is wider than other, so that amplitude of the light
from one slit is double of that from other slit. If
I m be the maximum intensity, the resultant Im
intensity when they interfere at phase difference
is given by :-
:-
Im Im
(1) (5 4 cos ) (1) (5 4 cos )
9 9
Im Im
(2) (1 2cos 2 ) (2) (1 2cos 2 )
3 2 3 2
Im Im
(3) (1 4cos 2 ) (3) (1 4cos 2 )
5 2 5 2
Im Im
(4) (1 8cos 2 ) (4) (1 8cos 2 )
9 2 9 2
25. If F is the force
acting
on a particle having 25. F r
postion vector r and be the torque of this force
about the origin, then.
(1) r . 0 and F . 0 (1) r . 0 and F . 0
(2) r . 0 and F . 0 (2) r . 0 and F . 0
(3) r . 0 and F . 0 (3) r . 0 and F . 0
(4) r . 0 and F . 0 (4) r . 0 and F . 0
26. When a bar magnet is freely suspended for 26.
oscillation then time period is T. If it cuts in 3 equal 'T'
3
parts perpendicular to its length then time period
of oscillation for each part will be :-
:-
T T
(1) 3T (2) (1) 3T (2)
3 3
(3) T (4) 3 T (3) T (4) 3 T
27. An ideal gas is taken through a path AB as shown 27.
AB
in fig. then the ratio of work done and heat given
to the system is :-
:-
V B V B
A A
T T
(1) : –1 (2) –1 : (3) : 1 (4) 1 : (1) : –1 (2) –1 : (3) : 1 (4) 1 :
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28. When radiation of wavelength is incident on 28.
a metalic surface, the stopping potential is 4.8
4.8
volts. If the same surface is illuminated with 1.6
radiation of double the wavlength, then the
:-
stopping potential becomes 1.6 volts. Then the
(1) 2 (2) 4
threshold wavlength for the surface is :-
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (3) 6 (4) 8
29. Assuming the earth, to be a sphere of radius R 29.
R
of uniform density the dependence of acceleration
r
(g)
due to gravity (g) on the distance r from the centre
(Dependence)
of is as shown figure below.
g g
(1) E increases (2) I increases (1) E (2) I
(3) Q does not change (4) Q increases (3) Q (4) Q
31. A cylinder of 200 ltr. capacity contains H2 gas. Its 31. 200 ltr.
H2
translational kinetic energy is 1.52 × 105 Joule then 1.52
× 105 Joule
the pressure of the gas in atm is approximately :- atm
:-
(1) 10 atm (2) 5 atm (1) 10 atm (2) 5 atm
(3) 8 atm (4) 15 atm (3) 8 atm (4) 15 atm
32. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen 32.
atom is –13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the –13.6 eV
Li++
electron from the first excited state of Li++ is :-
:-
(1) 122.4 eV (2) 30.6 eV (1) 122.4 eV (2) 30.6 eV
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 3.4 eV (3) 13.6 eV (4) 3.4 eV
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33. Mass of the earth has been determined through 33.
T2 T2
(1) use of Kepler's constancy law (1) 3
R3 R
(2) sampling the density of earth's crust and using (2)
(Crust)
earth's radius
(3) Cavendish's determination of G and using (3)
G
earth's radius and g at its surface g
(4) use of periods of satellites at different heights (4)
above earth's surface.
34. A coil of copper wire is connected in series with 34.
a bulb, a battery and a switch. When the circuit
is completed the bulb lights up immediately. The
circuit is switched off and a rod of soft iron is
placed inside the coil. On completing the circuit
again. It is observed that :- (1)
(1) Bulb is not so bright
(2)
(2) There is a slight delay before bulb lights to
its normal brightness
(3) The bulb is initially bright but gradually
becomes dim
(4) The bulb is brighter than before (4)
35. Displacement time graph of a particle executing 35.
SHM is as shown in the Fig. Corresponding force
:-
time graph of the particle is :- x
x
t
t
F F
F F
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
t t
t t
F F F F
36. Energy released in the fission of a single 92U235 36. U235
92
nucleus is 200 MeV. The fission rate of a 92U235 200 MeV92U
235
5W
fuelled reactor operating at a power level of
:-
5W is :-
(1) 1.56 × 1010 s–1 (2) 1.56 × 1011 s–1
10 –1 11 –1
(1) 1.56 × 10 s (2) 1.56 × 10 s
16 –1
(3) 1.56 × 1016 s–1 (4) 1.56 × 1017 s–1
(3) 1.56 × 10 s (4) 1.56 × 1017 s–1
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37. Two small spherical balls each carrying a charge 37.
Q = 20C
Q = 20C are suspended by two insulating threads
1
of equal lengths 1m each, from a point fixed in the
ceiling. It is found that in equilibrium threads are 60º
-
separated by an angle 60º between them, as shown
in the figure. What is the tension in the threads 1
(
: (4 ) = 9 × 109 Nm/C2) :-
1 0
(Given : (4 ) = 9 × 109 Nm/C2) :-
0
(1) 18 N
(1) 18 N 60°
60° (2) 1.8 N
(2) 1.8 N
(3) 0.18 N Q Q
(3) 0.18 N Q Q
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/2
C(V12 V22 ) C(V1 V2 )2 C(V12 V22 ) C(V1 V2 )2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
L L L L
39. The velocities of sound in an ideal gas at temperature 39.
T1K T2K
T1K and T2K are 1 and 2 respectively. If the root 1
2
mean square velocities of the same gas at same
c1
c2
:-
temperatures are c1 and c2, then :-
(1) c2 = c1(2/1) (2) c 2 c1 2
(1) c2 = c1(2/1) (2) c 2 c1 2 1
1
(3) c2 = c1(1/2) (4) c 2 c1 1 (3) c2 = c1(1/2) (4) c 2 c1 1
2 2
40. Serious draw back of the semiconductor 40.
:-
device is :- (1)
(1) They cannot be used with high voltage
(2) The pollute the environment (2)
(3) They are costly (3)
(4) They do not last for long time (4)
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41. a b c and 90º represents 41. a b c
90º
(1) Orthohombic (2) Monoclinic (1) (2)
(3) Triclinic (4) Tetragonal (3) (4)
42. Specific conductance of 5 N solution is 42. 5 N
0.01287 ohm–1cm–1. What would be its equivalent 0.01287 ohm–1cm–1
conductance :- :-
(1) 257.4 (2) 2.574 (1) 257.4 (2) 2.574
(3) 25.74 (4) 0.2574 (3) 25.74 (4) 0.2574
43. When MgCl 2.6H2O is strongly heated, then it 43. MgCl2.6H2O
forms :- :-
(1) MgO (2) Mg(OH)2 (1) MgO (2) Mg(OH)2
(3) Mg(OH)Cl (4) MgCl2 (3) Mg(OH)Cl (4) MgCl2
44. Which of the following does not have aldehyde 44.
as a product ?
O3 O3 O3 O3
(1)
Zn, H2O
(2)
H 2O
(1)
Zn, H 2O
(2)
H 2O
(3)
O3
Zn, H2O
(4) None (3)
O3
Zn, H 2O
(4)
45. Which of the following exist as covalent crystal 45.
in solid state ?
(1) Iodine (1)
(2) Silicon (2)
(3) sulphur (3)
(4) Phosphorus (4)
46. The ratio of velocity of the electron in the third 46. Li2+
and fifth orbit of Li2+ would be :- :-
(1) 3 : 5 (2) 5 : 3 (3) 25 : 8 (4) 8 : 25 (1) 3 : 5 (2) 5 : 3 (3) 25 : 8 (4) 8 : 25
47. Acidified chromic acid +H2O2 47. +H2O2
Organic solvent
X+Y X+Y
Blue
X and Y are :- X
Y
:-
(1) CrO5 and H2O (2) Cr2O3 and H2O (1) CrO5 and H2O (2) Cr2O3 and H2O
(3) CrO2 and H2O (4) CrO and H2O (3) CrO2 and H2O (4) CrO and H2O
48. pH of water during acid rain may be :- 48.
pH :-
(1) 5.5 (2) 6.6 (3) 6.4 (4) 6.8 (1) 5.5 (2) 6.6 (3) 6.4 (4) 6.8
49. The number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by one 49. Sn
2+
K2Cr2O7
mole of Sn2+ ions is :-
(1) 1/3 (2) 1/6 (3) 2/3 (4) 3/4 (1) 1/3 (2) 1/6 (3) 2/3 (4) 3/4
50. Which of the colloidal property is/are dependent 50.
on charge of colloidal particles.
(1) Electro-osmosis (2) Coagulation (1) (2)
(3) Electrophoresis (4) All of these (3) (4)
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
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51. Which of the following statement is incorrect. On 51.
the basis of following structure.
+ve +ve
0 0
G M' xO y G M' xO y
M xO y M xO y
–ve –ve
T 1 T2 T3 T 1 T2 T3
Temp. Temp.
(1) T1 & T2 are M.P. & B.P. of MxOy respectively (1) T1 & T2 MxOy
(2) Above T3 M' is more reducing than M (2) T3 M'
M
(3) MxOy & M'xOy are unstable at G > O (3) G > O MxOy M'xOy
(4) Below T3 M is less reducing than M' (4) T3
M M'
52. In which reaction product is correct :- 52.
:-
OsO4 OsO4
(1) (1)
H 2O H 2O
OH OH OH OH
OH OH
HBr HBr
(2) (2)
Br Br
Cl Cl
(3) CH3–CH–CH–CH 3 HCl CH3–C–CH2–CH3 HCl
(3) CH3–CH–CH–CH 3 CH3–C–CH2–CH3
CH3 OH CH3 CH3 OH CH3
(4) All products are correct (4)
53. The heat of combustion of ethylene at 17°C and 53. 17°C
at constant volume is –332.19 Kcal calculate –332.19 Kcal
the heat of combustion at constant pressure
(R = 2 cal degree–1 mol–1) :-
considerin g water to be in li quid state
(R = 2 cal degree–1 mol–1) :- (1) –333.3 Kcal (2) –331.03 Kcal
(1) –333.3 Kcal (2) –331.03 Kcal
(3) 0 Kcal (4) +331.03 Kcal
(3) 0 Kcal (4) +331.03 Kcal
54. Match column I & II & select correct relation :- 54.
I II
Column-I Column-II LraHk
-I LraHk
-II
Estimation of
(A) (i)
(A) hardness of (i) Cis-Platin
water
Detection of (B) (ii) EDTA
(B) (ii) EDTA
nickel
(C) (iii)
(C) Electro plating (iii) DMG (DMG)
Treatment of Potasium
(D) (iv) (D) (iv)
cancer Dicynoargantate
(1) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii) (1) (A)-(i), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i) (2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
(3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii) (3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i) (4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
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55. Formation of metallic copper from the sulphide 55.
ore in the normal thermo-metallurgical process
essentially involves which one of the following
reaction. (1) Cu2S + O2 Cu2O + SO2;
(1) Cu2S + O2 Cu2O + SO2; Cu2O + C Cu + CO
Cu2O + C Cu + CO (2) Cu2S + O2 Cu2S + Cu2O + SO2;
(2) Cu2S + O2 Cu2S + Cu2O + SO2;
2Cu2O + Cu2S 6Cu + SO2
2Cu2O + Cu2S 6Cu + SO2
(3) Cu2S + 2O2 CuSO4;
(3) Cu2S + 2O2 CuSO4;
Cu2SO4 + CuS CuSO4;
Cu2SO4 + CuS CuSO4;
(4) Cu2S + O2 CuO + SO2; (4) Cu2S + O2 CuO + SO2;
Cu2O + CO Cu + CO2 Cu2O + CO Cu + CO2
O
Et
56. O 56.
Product
D
What will be product of reaction.
64. 64.
Product is :-
:-
69. If the amount of a non-electrolyte solute is 69.
doubled and that of solvent is quadrupled, the
elevation in boiling point will be :-
:-
(1) doubled (1)
(2) halved (2)
(3) four times (3)
(4) unchanged (4)
70. Match the column :- 70. :-
(1) A – P, B – R, C – Q, D – S (1) A – P, B – R, C – Q, D – S
(2) A – R, B – Q, C – S, D – P (2) A – R, B – Q, C – S, D – P
(3) A – R, B – Q, C – P, D – S (3) A – R, B – Q, C – P, D – S
(4) A – R, B – P, C – S, D – Q (4) A – R, B – P, C – S, D – Q
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NH 2 NaNO2 H2O Zn CH3Cl NH 2 NaNO2 H2O Zn CH3Cl
71. A B C D. 71. A B C D.
HCl AlCl3 HCl AlCl3
(0º-5ºC) (0º-5ºC)
Product D is :-
D
:-
Cl CH3 Cl CH3
(1) (2) (1) (2)
OH CH2Cl OH CH2Cl
(3) (4) (3) (4)
Cl Cl
72. Alc. KOH 72. Alc. KOH
Which of following will not product of reaction ?
?
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
73. Rate of reaction increases 5.64 times with rise in 73.
5.64
temperature. If initial temperature is 25ºC and 25ºC
=
temperature coefficient of reaction = 2, find the
2,
final temperature.
(1) 38ºC (2) 40ºC (3) 50ºC (4) 55ºC (1) 38ºC (2) 40ºC (3) 50ºC (4) 55ºC
74. 3
In a ABxLy (sp d-hybridisation of A) have 'T' 74. ABxLy (A sp3d )
shape geometry. What will shape of molecule if 'T'
A, AByLx
A forms AByLx type molecule ?
(1) T-shape (1) T-
(2) Sea-saw (2)
(3) TBP (3)
(4) Linear (4)
75. Gabriel phthalimide synthesis can be used to 75.
prepare :-
:-
(1) (CH3–CH2)2NH (1) (CH3–CH2)2NH
CH2–OH CH2–OH
OH OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)
CH2 CH2
OH OH
(3) (4) (3) (4)
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81. Alternate type of phyllotaxy is not found in :- 81.
:-
(1) Mustard (2) Guava (1) (2)
(3) Sunflower (4) China rose (3) (4)
82. Meiosis division involves :- 82.
:-
(1) Two nuclear division and one chromosomal division (1)
(2) One nuclear division and one chromosomal division (2)
(3) One nuclear division and two chromosomal division (3)
(4) Two nuclear division and two chromosomal division (4)
83. Transmission of nerve impulse is unidirectional 83.
:-
due to :- (1)
(1) Opening of Na+–K+ pump (2)
(2) Neurotransmitter released only at axon ending
(3) Receptors are present only on dendrons (3)
(4) 2 & 3 both (4) 2 3
84. The figure below show three steps (A, B, C) of 84.
(A, B, C)
central dogma
A A
DNA DNA
B B
RNA RNA
C C
Protein Protein
Select the A, B and C step with their respective
A, B
C
statement :
(1) A Replication In this process RNA
dependent RNA (1) A
RNA
polymerase enzyme is RNA
used
(2) C Translation In this process reverse
transcriptase enzyme (2) C
is used
(3) B Transcription In this process RNA (3) B
RNA
dependent DNA
polymerase enzyme is DNA
used
(4) A Replication In this process DNA (4) A
DNA
dependent DNA
DNA
polymerase enzyme is
used
85. How many plants belongs to family Liliaceae in 85.
the list given below :-
:-
Tomato, Radish, Onion, Garlic, Mustard, Brinjal,
Asparagus, Wheat, Tulip, Lily, Petunia, Aloe
(1) Seven (2) Eight (3) Five (4) Six (1) (2) (3) (4)
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86. Auxin causes apical dominance which suppress 86.
the lateral buds, what is the possible reason for
that :- (1)
(1) Less available water (2)
(2) Less available mineral nutrients to axillary buds
(3) Polar movement of auxin (3)
(4) Only apical growth is important for plant (4)
87. Select incorrect statements :- 87.
:-
(A) A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed with (A)
each lobe having two theca
(B) Chalaza represents the basal part of ovule (B)
(C) Polar nuclei are situated below the egg (C)
apparatus in the large central cell
(D) Male gametes of angiosperm are non-motile (D)
(1) A, B, & C (2) Only C (1) A, B, & C (2) Only C
(3) Only B & C (4) All are correct (3) Only B & C (4) All are correct
88. Consider the table given below 88.
Crop Variety Insect pests
(A) Pusa Gaurav Aphids (A)
Flat bean (B) Jassids (B)
Okra Pusa sawani (C) (C)
Which one of the following option, gives the
(A C)
correct fill ups for the respective blank (A to C)
A B C A B C
(1) Wheat Pusa Shubhra Boll worms (1)
(2) Brassica Pusa Komal Fruit borer (2)
(3) Wheat Pusa Komal Boll worms (3)
(4) Brassica Pusa Sem 2 Shoot borer (4)
2
89. Read the statement-I and II and choose right 89. -I II
option regarding them :- :-
(I) The presence of vessels is a characterstic (I)
feature of angiosperms
(II)
(II) Phloem in gymnosperms is composed of sieve
tube element, companion cells, phloem
paranchyma and phloem fibres. :
Options : (1) -I II
(1) Both statement-I and II are correct
(2) -I II
(2) Statement-I incorrect and II correct
(3) Both statement-I and II are incorrect (3) -I II
(4) Statement-I correct and II incorrect (4) -I II
90. RuBisCO is the main enzyme for photosynthesis, 90. RuBisCO
main physical & physiological activator for that
is respectively :- :-
(1) Blue light & Zn (1) Zn
(2) Red light & Mg (2) Mg
(3) Infrared light & Mg (3) Mg
(4) ATP and No light (4) ATP
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91. Arrange the following terms in the correct 91.
development sequence :- :-
(A) Pollen grain (B) Pollen mother cell (A) (B)
(C) Microspore tetrad (D) Male gametes (C) (D)
(E) Sporogenous tissue (E)
(1) B, D, C, E, A (2) E, B, C, D, A (1) B, D, C, E, A (2) E, B, C, D, A
(3) E, B, C, A, D (4) E, B, A, C, D (3) E, B, C, A, D (4) E, B, A, C, D
92. Here are some observations made by darwin and 92.
wallace, select the incorrect one :- :-
(1) All the existing life forms share similarities (1)
and share common ancestors
(2) The geological history of earth closely (2)
correlates with the biological history of earth
(3) A common permissible conclusion is that earth (3)
is not very old
(4) All the ancestors of modern day organisms
were present in different periods in history of (4)
earth
93. Which of the following is not included in any of 93.
the kingdoms of Whittaker ?
(1) Bacteria (2) Virus (1) (2)
(3) Slime moulds (4) Protozoa (3) (4)
94. Serine, glycine and cystein amino acids are 94.
synthesized from :-
(1) pyruvic acid (1)
(2) 3-phosphoglycereldehyde (2) 3-
(3) 3-phosphoglyceric acid (3) 3-
(4) Succinyl Co-A (4) Co-A
95. In citrus and mango polyembryony is due to :- 95.
:-
(1) Production of additional embryos by nucellus (1)
(2) Production of more than one female gametes (2)
in one ovule
(3) Production of more than one archegonia in (3)
one ovule
(4) Production of additional embryos by (4)
synergids
96. Which organisms probably evolved into first 96.
amphibians :- :-
(1) Ichthyosaurs (1)
(2) Coelacanth (2)
(3) Sauropsids (3)
(4) Synapsids (4)
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97. Which of the following character is similar in 97.
cyanobacteria and green plants ?
(1) Nitrogen fixation (2) 80S ribosome (1) (2) 80S
(3) Chlorophyll 'a' (4) Nature of cell wall (3)
'a' (4)
98. Phaeophytin derived from :- 98.
(1) chlorophyll a with additional 2H (1) a 2H
(2) chlorophyll b by loss of C2H5 (2) C2H5b
(3) chlorophyll a by loss of Mg and addition of 2H (3) a Mg
2H
(4) Carotenoid by addition of Mg (4)
Mg
99. Which of the following group of hormones are 99.
produced in women only during pregnency :-
(1) hCG, HPL, Relaxin (1) hCG, HPL,
(2) Estrogen, Progesterone. hCG (2)
,
, hCG
(3) Cortisol, Prolactin, Thyroxine (3)
,
,
(4) Prolactin, Progesterone, hCG (4)
,
, hCG
100. Cancer is caused by 100.
(1) Uncontrolled meiosis (1)
(2) Uncontrolled mitosis (2)
(3) Uncontrolled amitosis (3)
(4) Uncontrolled binary fission (4)
101. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme 101.
environmental conditions because of :
(1) Thick cuticle (1)
(2) Presence of vessels (2)
(3) Broad hard leaves (3)
(4) Superficial stomata (4)
102. How much amount of carbondioxide is 102.
RBC
transported through RBC ?
?
(1) 5% to 7% (2) 20% to 25% (1) 5% 7% (2) 20% 25%
(3) 90% (4) 75% to 77% (3) 90% (4) 75% 77%
103. Which of the following STD's is not caused by 103.
STD's
a bacterium :-
:-
(1) Chlamydia (2) Gonorrhoea (1) (2)
(3) Syphilis (4) Genital herpes (3) (4)
104. In composite culture two or more species of fishes 104.
are reared in single pond. Selection of fish species
is based on :- (1)
(1) Time of spawing (2)
`
(2) Body size
(3)
(3) Feeding stages in pond
(4) Life span (4)
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105. Select the taxon mentioned that represents both 105.
marine and fresh water species :-
:-
(1) Echinoderms (2) Ctenophora
(1) (2)
(3) Cephalochordata (4) Cnidaria (3) (4)
106. Blind sac which hosts some symbiotic 106.
:-
micro-organism that is :- (1) (2)
(1) Colon (2) Caecum
(3) Rectum (4) Duodenum (3) (4)
D D
C C
B B
A A
A B C D A B C D
Stroma
1 Stroma Thylakoid Granum 1
lamellae
Stroma
2 Stroma Granum Thylakoid 2
lamellae
Stroma
3 Granum Stroma Thylakoid 3
lamellae
Granum
Stroma
Thylakoid Stroma 4
4
lamellae
114. Correct sequence of arrangment of bones in 114.
human body. (1)
(1) Sternum-Scapula-Humerus
(2)
(2) Acetabulum-Femur-Fibula
(3)
(3) Radius-Carpals-Phalanges
(4) Tarsals-Metatarsals-Phalanges (4)
115. If genes are present on same chromosome 115.
undergoing more than one crossovers in every
meiosis. Choose correct statement based on above
:-
statement :-
(1) Two genes showing 50% recombination (1)
50%
frequency (2)
(2) Two genes are tightly linked
(3)
(3) Two genes showing pleiotropism
(4) Two genes can show >50% recombination (4) >50%
frequency
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116. The climax communities of lithosere are :- 116.
:-
(1) Xerophytic (1)
(2) Mesophytic (2)
(3) Epiphytic (3)
(4) Halophytic (4)
117. Read the following statement carefully- 117.
-
(A) Many molecules can move briefly across the (A)
membrane without any requirement of energy
and this is called the passive transport.
(B)
(B) Cytoplasm is the main arena (zone) of cellular
activities in both the plant and animal cell.
(C)
(C) In prokaryotic cell an outgrowth of plasma
membrane in to cell is called polysome.
(D)
(D) Membrane bound vesicles having hydrolytic
enzyme can digest carbohydrate
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127. Assertion :- Friction opposes relative motion and 127. :-
thereby dissipates power in the form of heat.
Reason :- Friction is always an undesirable force. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
128. Assertion :- Two bodies at different temperatures 128. :-
if brought in contact don't necessary settle to mean
temperature.
:-
Reason :- The two bodies may have different
thermal capacities.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
129. The electrostatic potential on the surface of a 129.
uniformly charged solid conducting sphere is
100
100V. Two statements are made in this regard.
Assertion :- At any point inside the sphere electric :-
potential is 100 V. 100
Reason :- At any point inside the sphere electric :-
field is zero.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. Assertion :- Vibration of polyatomic molecules 130. :-
is not simple harmonic motion.
Reason :- The vibrations are superposition of :-
SHMs of different frequency.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
131. Assertion :- A metallic shield in the form of a 131. :-
(shield)
hollow shell may be built to block an electric field.
Reason :- In a hollow spherical shield, the electric :-
field inside it is zero at every point.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
132. Assertion :- When intensity of a wave doubles, 132. :-
the intensity level changes by 3 dB. 3 dB
Reason :- Intensity level is measured in terms of decibel. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
133. Assertion :- The e.m.f of the driver cell in the 133. :-
potentiometer experiment should be greater than
the e.m.f of the cell to be determined.
Reason :- The fall of potential across the :-
potentiometer wire should not be less than the
e.m.f of the cell to be determined.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
134. Assertion :- If optical density of a substance is 134. :-
more than that of water than the mass density of
substance can be less than water.
Reason :- Optical density and mass density are :-
related.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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135. Assertion :- A charged capacitor is disconnected from 135. :-
a battery. Now if the plates of this capacitor are
separated farther, the potential energy will decrease.
Reason :- Energy stored in a capacitor is equal :-
to the work done in charging it.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
136. Assertion :- When light ray is incident at 136.
:-
polarising angle on glass, reflected light is partially
polarised.
Reason :- The intensity of light decreases in
polarisation. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. Assertion :- Choke coil is prefered over a resistor 137. : A.C.
to adjust current in an A.C. circuit.
Reason :- Power factor for inductance is zero, so :
power loss is also zero.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
138. Assertion :- If the temperature of a semiconductor 138. :-
is increased then it's resistance decreases.
Reason :- The energy gap between conduction :-
band and valence band is small.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. Assertion :- Average of sinusoidal A.C. can never 139. :
A.C.
be zero for half cycle.
Reason :- Impedance given by inductance does :
not depends on frequency.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
140. Assertion :- The temperature coefficient of 140. :-
resistance is positive for metals and negative for P-
P-type semiconductor.
Reason :- The effective charge carriers in metals
:-
are negatively charged whereas in P-type
semiconductor they are positively charged. P–
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
141. Assertion :- A 6 : 6 co-ordination at normal 141. :-
6 : 6
temperature and pressure changes to 8 : 8 8 : 8
co-ordination at high pressure.
Reason :- Pressure influences the structure of solids. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
142. Assertion :- Dipole moment of CH3Cl > CH3F 142. :-
CH3Cl > CH3F
and CHF3 > CHCl3 CHF3 > CHCl3
Reason :- Dipole moment is given by q × d :-
q × d
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143. Assertion :- In the reaction I2 + I– I–3, I2 acts 143. :-
I2 + I– I–3, I2
as Lewis base.
Reason :- In this reaction I– donates an electron :-
I2
I–1,
pair for sharing with iodine.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
144. Assertion :- Order of ionisation potential O2 < O 144. :- O2 < O
Reason :- In O2 electron are present in 2px :-O2
2px 2py
and 2py
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
145. Assertion :- Addition of NH4OH to an aqueous 145. :- NH 4 Cl BaCl
2
solution of BaCl2 in the presence of excess NH4Cl
NH4OH Ba(OH)2
precipitates Ba(OH)2
Reason :- Ba(OH)2 is soluble in water :- Ba(OH) 2
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C
(4) D
146. Assertion :- Sodium bicarbonate is least soluble 146. :-
NaHCO3
in comparison to bicarbonate of alkali metals.
Reason :- It forms polymer with the help of :- H-
H-bonding which requires more time to be soluble.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
147. Assertion :- Reversible process and a cyclic 147. :-
process are the same type of processes.
Reason :- Hcyclic and Ecyclic are zero. :- H E
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
148. Assertion :- Maleic acid is more acidic than 148. :-
fumaric acid.
Reason :- Maleate ion is stabilised by chelation :-
H–
due to hydrogen bonding.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
149. Assertion :- 0.1 M solution of NaCl has greater 149. :- NaCl 0.1 M
osmotic pressure than 0.1 M solution of glucose
0.1 M
at same temperature.
Reason :- In solution, NaCl dissociates to produce :-
, NaCl
more number of particles.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
150. Assertion :- Fructose does not contain an 150. :-
aldehyde group but still reduces Tollen's reagent
Reason :- In presence of dil. solution of alkali,
:-
fructose undergoes epimerization to form glucose
and manose.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. Assertion :– The rate of reaction increases 151. :- 10°C
generally by 2 to 3 times for every 10°C rise in
temperature.
:-
Reason :– Increase in temp increase collision
frequency.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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152. Assertion :- CF3 is more stable than CCl3 152. :- CF3
CCl3
Reason :- –F has more –I effect then –Cl :- –F –I
–Cl
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. Assertion :- For the reaction at certain temperature 153. :-
A(g) + B(g) C(g) there will be no effect by A(g) + B(g) C(g)
addition of inert gas at constant volume.
Reason :- In above process molar concentration
of all gases remains constant. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
154. Assertion :- CH3 CH2 – CH2 – CH3and 154. :- CH3 CH2 – CH2 – CH3
CH3 – CH2 CH2 – CH3 are metamers of CH3 – CH2 CH2 – CH3
MoO3
Reason :- Stability of Mo+6 is more than Cr+6 :- Mo+6, Cr+6
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
156. Assertion :- 2-Bromobutane gives trans-2-butene 156. :- 2-
alc. KOH
predominantly when heated with alc. KOH.
-2-
Reason :- This is example of E2 elimination, :- E2
which proceed in only one step, so more stable ,
product is major product in general.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
157. Assertion :- NaNO3 and MgCO3 are isomorphous 157. :- NaNO3
MgCO3
ionic compounds.
Reason :- Cations, anions are isoelectronic in both :-
the compounds.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
158. Assertion :- Formation of urotropin from 158. :-
acetaldehyde and ammonia is example of repeated
addition elimination. : -
Reason :- In this reaction first ammonia molecule
adds on aldehyde then eliminate water.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
159. Assertion :- Except CCl4 other tetrahalides of 159. :- CCl 4
carbon family are easily hydrolysed.
Reason :- The central atom can accomodate the :-
d-
lone pair of electron from oxygen atom of water
H2O
molecule in the d-orbital in other tetrahalides.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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160. Assertion :- Hydrolysis of ester in alkaline 160. :-
medium is irreversible in nature.
Reason :- Product of reaction is carboxylic acid, :-
which react with base and convert in to salt, which
can not undergo esterification.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
161. Assertion :- Concentric vascular bundles are 161.
:-
always closed. :-
Reason :- Concentric vascular bundles lack cambium.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
162. Assertion :- In flowering plants male gametes are 162. :-
formed by generative cell.
Reason :- The generative cell divides and forms :-
the two motile gametes during the growth of
pollen tube in the stigma.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
163. Assertion :- Family has a group of related orders 163.
:-
and classes :-
Reason :- Families are characterised on the basis of only
vegetative characters not by reproductive characters.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
164. Assertion :- Embryo sac formation from a single 164. :-
megaspore is termed monosporic development.
Reason :- In a majority of flowering plants. One
:-
of the megaspore is functional while the other
three degenerate.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
165. Assertion :- Hydra has a nerve net but no brain. 165.
:-
Reason :- All its neurons are polar :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
166. Assertion :- The scrotum acts as temperature 166. :-
regulator for testes.
Reason :- Wall of scrotum is supported by dartos
:-
muscles which help in positioning of testes.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
167. Assertion :- Origin wise hair are epithelial tissue, 167.
:-
(Hair)
which are of ectodermal origin.
Reason :- Epithelial tissue can be formed from :-
mesoderm and endoderm also.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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168. Assertion :- Alleles are slightly different forms 168. :-
of the same gene.
Reason :- Alleles code for a pair of contrasting :-
traits.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
169. Assertion :- Meiosis may occur during the life 169. :-
cycle of both haploid and diploid organisms.
Reason :- In all the organisms gamete formation :-
occur through meiosis only.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
170. Assertion :- At isoelectric point, amino acids do 170. :- Isoelectric point
not move in electric field.
Reason :- Amino acids present in form of zwitter :-
ion.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
171. Assertion :- Water potential of a solution which is 171.
:-
under certain external pressure may be equal to the
water potential of pure water which is not under any
pressure.
Reason :- A pressure greater than atmospheric
:-
pressure increases the water potential of a solution.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
172. Assertion :- New mutation may arise in an 172. :-
individual either in somatic cells or in germ cells.
Reason :- If a germ cell mutation does not
:-
seriously impair indivuduals' ability to have
offsprings, can spread mutation to other members
of population.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
173. Assertion :- Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, 173. :-
a proton pump, a proton gradient and ATPase.
ATPase
Reason :- It is used for the production of :- NADPH+H+
NADPH+H+.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
174. Assertion :- Similarities in proteins and genes 174. :-
performing a given function among diverse
organisms give clues to common ancestory..
Reason :- These biochemical similarities point to :-
the same shared ancestory as structural similarities
among diverse organisms.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
175. Assertion :- Adrenal medullary hormones 175. :-
decrease the cardiac output.
Reason :- Medulla oblongata can moderate the :-
cardiac function.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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185. Which Indian sportsman has clinched the men’s 185.
singles title at the 2018 Austrian Open
?
International Challenge badminton tournament?
(1)
(1) Kidambi Srikanth
(2) H. S. Prannoy (2)
37 92 37 92
1 5 3 8 1 5 3 8
2 2 5 ? 2 2 5 ?
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192. A, B, C, D, E and F are six cities which are 192. A, B, C, D, E
F
collinear in the same order. The distance between
any two adjacent cities is equal. A bus starts at A A F
for city F. It takes 25 minutes for the bus to travel
from one city to another and stops for 5 minutes 25
5
at each place. If the bus reaches E at 8:55, then at E
8:55
what time did it reach station B?
B
?
(1) 7:25 (2) 7:30
(1) 7:25 (2) 7:30 (3) 7:35 (4) 7:40
(3) 7:35 (4) 7:40
193. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful 193.
sequence.
1. Post-box 2. Letter 1.
- 2.
3. Envelope 4. Delivery 3. 4.
5. Clearance 5.
(1) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 (2) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5 (1) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 (2) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
(3) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 (4) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 (3) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4 (4) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1
194. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 194.
7 : 8
7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 km in 4 hours,
4
400
then the speed of the first train is:
(1) 70 km/hr (2) 75 km/hr (1) 70 (2) 75
(3) 84 km/hr (4) 87.5 km/hr (3) 84 (4) 87.5
195. A number consists of two digits whose sum is 11. 195.
11
If 27 is added to the number, then the digits change 27
their places. What is the number ?
?
(1) 47 (2) 65 (3) 83 (4) 92 (1) 47 (2) 65 (3) 83 (4) 92
196. Find the odd word from the given alternatives. 196.
(1) Swimming (2) Sailing (1) (2)
(3) Diving (4) Driving (3) (4)
197. Choose the set of figures which follows the given 197.
rule.
Rule : Any figure can be traced by a single :
unbroken line without retracting.
(a) (a)
(b) (b)
(c) (c)
(d) (d)
0000CMA303117003 LTS-33/35
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/Pre-Medical /AIIMS/29-04-2018
198. Identify the figure that completes the pattern. 198.
? ?
(x) (a) (b) (c) (d) (x) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code
and Your Form No.
Correction
Paper code Form No.
dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in
mail
LTS-34/35 0000CMA303117003
ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/Pre-Medical /AIIMS/29-04-2018
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