Mechanism of action for each class of  Ciliary Muscles of eye to produce Antiarrythmics Used to Treat ventricular

anti-Arrythmic drugs? aqueus humor arrythmias

Use the Mnemonic: NBKC  SA Node to increase HR and Class I antiarrythmics
I - Sodium Channel Blockers Contractility
II - Beta Blockers  Alpha cells of pancreas to increase Antiarrythmics Used to
III – K+ channel Blockers Glucagon Treat Atrial Arrythmias
IV - Calcium Channel Blockers Class IV antiarrythmics
 JG cells of kidney to increase Renin
release
Class IA Antiarrythmics Antiarrythmics that causes blue skin
Quinidine (Smurf syndrome)
Procainamide MC location & function of 2 receptors? Amiodarone
Dispyrimide  Ciliary muscles of eye to produce
aqueus humor Antiarrythmics causing Bad GI upset
Class IB Antiarrythmics  Bronchial Smooth muscle to Mexiletine
Lidoicaine bronchodilate
Tocainide  Ventricles to Increase Contractility Antiarrythmic that causes Hyper/hypo-
Mexiletine  Beta Cells of Pancreas to cause Insulin thyroidism
Phenytoin Release Amiodarone
 Uterus and bladder to cause relaxation
Class IC Antiarrythmics Antiarrythmics Used to decrease
Ecainide Selective –vs- Non-selective beta vasospasms after subarrachnoid
Flecanide blockers? hemorrhage.
Propophenone A-M (-LC)  Selective  Nimodipine
N-Z(+LC)  Nonselective
10 Class II antiarrythmics Symptoms of cinchinism?
PPEST-BLAAC Tinnitus
Pindalol Antiarrythmic causing hemolysis & Hearing loss
Propranolol thrombocytopenia Thrombocytopenia
Esmolol Quinidine
Sotalol Two action of Digitalis?
Fastest acting Na+ channel blocker
Timolol  Blocks potassium arm of NA-K
Butoxolol Lidocaine
ATPase causing increased contraction
Labetalol  Stimulates vagus, slowing HR.
Atenolol 3 antiarrythmics that block 95% of
Acebutalol sodium channels
Ecainide Pulmonary fibrosis Rx
Carvedilol Busulfan
Flecanide
Propophenone Bleomycin
Longest acting Beta blocker: Tocainide
Propranolol Amiodarone
Antiarrythmic that Causes Cinchinism
Shortest acting Beta blocker: Phenytoin
What is the most common SVT in
Esmolol teenagers?
Antiarrythmics that cause pulmonary
fibrosis Wolf-Parkinson White
Beta blocker that is also K+ channel
blocker: Tocainide
Amiodarone Pathology of WPW?
Sotolol There is an accessory pathway from SA
Antiarrythmics that cause Gingival node bypassing AV node to ventricle called
Beta blockers used to treat glaucoma the Bundle of Kent.
Timolol Hyperplasia
Carvadalol Phenytoin
Why are 3 Na+ blocker used to treat
Antiarrythmic that causes hersutism WPW?
Beta blocker that is also an alpha blocker They are both Na+ and Ca2+ channel
Labatalol, Carvetalol Phenytoin
blockers.
Beta blocker that is also an agonist Antiarrythmics used to treat WPW
Quinidine EKG finding of WPW?
Pindalol Delta waves.
Atenolol Procainamide
Acebutalol Phenytoin
Antiarrythmic made from iodine?
Antiarrythmic that is contraindicated in Amiodarone
MC location and function for Beta1
receptors? WPW
Digitalis Name the class IV antiarrythmics
 CNS Increased activity Verapamil

Pharmacology 1 of 11
Ditiazem How does hydroxyurea work?
Nifedipine 3 drugs used to treat steroid resistant It inhibits Ribonucleotide Reductase
Nicardipine disease
Nimodipine Methotrexate Which two alkylating agents form free
Amlodipine Azothioprine radicals
Femlodipine Cyclosporin Cyclophosphamide
Adriamycin
Cardioselective class IV antiarrythmics? 5-FU mechanism of action Inhibits
Verapamil Thymidilate synthetase Rescue for patient on Adriamycin
Diltiazem Desroxazine Rescue
Methoterxate mechanism of action
Most potent Class IV antiarrythmic? Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase Rescue for patient on Cyclophosphamide
Verapamil MESNA Rescue
To what substance is 6-Mercaptopurine
4 K+ Channel Blockers: metabolized Rescue for patient on Methotrexate
Amiodarone Uric acid Leucovorin Rescue
Bretylium
NAPA NAcetyl-Procainamide) How do alkylating agents work? Three alkylating agents used to treat
Sotalol They bind dsDNA and prevent it from Hodgkins Lymphoma
unwinding for replication Mechlorethamine
How do you determine when to use Dacarbazine
Dopamine –vs-Dobutamine? Name 13 alkylating agent Procarbazine
DoButamine  Low HR Chemotherapy drugs
DoPamine  Elevated HR Adriamycin Name 7 microtubule Inhibitor
Acridine chemotherapy drugs
Receptor Dopamine affect 1st, 2nd, at high Bleomycin Vincristine
doses Busulfan Vinblastine
D2- Dilate Kidney & GI  TPR Chlorambacil Paclitaxel
Beta 1  HR & Contractility Cyclophosphamide
Cisplatin Name 1 nutrient depleater chemotherapy
Alpha 1  Vasoconstrict
Dacarbazine drugs
Hydroxyurea L-Aparaginase
What conditions give you Shock &
Isophosphamide
Bradycardia?
Mitomycin Name 1 immune modulator
Cholinergic crisis
Mechlorethamine Levamisole
Heart Block
Procarbazine
How does Levamisole work?
Clues for Cinchonism
Drugs that cause pulmonary fibrosis It enhances NK cells
Tinitis
Bleomycin
Hearing Loss
Busulfan Which Microtubule inhibitor causes
Thrombocytopenia
Amiodarone neuropathies?
Tocainide Vincristine
Name 7 Antimetabolite Chemotherapy
drugs
Favorite Alkylating agent Which Microtubule inhibitor causes
ARA-A
Clorambucil aplastic anemia?
ARA-C
Vinblastine
Azothiprine
Favorite Antimetabolite
5-FU
Methotrexate Which Microtubule inhibitor inhibits
6-Mercaptopurine
microtubules after they are made?
Methotrexate
Drug that causes cardiac fibrosis Paclitaxil
Thioguanadine
Adriamycin (Doxarubicin)
For what cancer is Paclitaxil used?
Which cancer are treated with
Chemo drug that causes hemorrhagic Breast
antimetabolites?
cystitis
Fast growing cancers
Cyclophosphamide What is the main side effect of L-
arginase?
Which cancers are treated with
Chemo drug that causes renal failure Anaphylaxis
alkylating agents?
Cisplatin
A slow growing cancer
Chemo drug used to treat sickle Cell
5-FU is use to treat which cancer?
Hydroxyurea
Duke stage C Colon Cancer in combination
with levamisole
Pharmacology 2 of 11
Symptoms of Cholinergic crisis Which AchE inhibitor is used to diagnose Dipyridamole
SLUD Myesthenia Gravis?
Salivation Edrophonium
Lacrimation Which are the side effects of Ticlopidine?
Urination Which AchE inhibitor is used to Treat Seizures
Defication Myesthenia Gravis? Agranulocytosis
Neostigmine
Symptoms of Anticholinergic crisis Pyridostygmine Clue for Dipyridamole
Hot Vasodilator used after MI to dilate
Dry Why is physostigmine not used to treat coronaries
Red Myethenia Gravis?
Crazy Too much CNS penetration causing Clue for Clopidogrel
drowsiness Decreaset mortality in combination with
Give the location of Alpha 1 receptors ASA in those with risk factors
 Radial muscles of the eye to cause Anticholinergic used to treat
Mydriasis without cyclopledgia organophosphate poisoning RX for PCP
 All sphincters Atropine Trimethaprim/Sulfamethoxazole
 Arteries to constrict
What is the mechanism of action of Rx For Patients Allergic to TMP/SULFA
Give the location of Alpha 2 receptors Roloxafen and Tomoxafen? Pentamidine
 All Presynaptic sympathetic fibers to  INH estrogen receptor at pituitary and
Breast RX for Leishmania
inhibit NE
 Pro-estrogen at bone Stybogluconate
 Beta cell of the pancreas to IHN Insulin
 Pro-estrogen at liver
Treat MAI with
Which estrogen receptor blocker Clarithromycin.
What drugs are used to treat HTN in
pregnancy? promotes enometrial cancer? How?
Best Rx for C.dif colitis
Alpha-methyl Dopa  Tomoxafen
Vancomycin
Hydralizine  Because it stimulates the Endometrium
Current Rx for C.Dif colitis
Name 3 alpha 2 agonists List 2 alpha blockers used to treat BPH Metronidazole
Alpha-Methyl Dopa Terazocin
Guanabenz Doxazocin Pregnant woman’s rectum culture
Clonidine returns (+) for Group B Strep. Rx with?
What is the MOA of Finesteride? Ampicillin
Side effect of Clonidine It is a 5-Alpha-reductase inhibitor
Rebound HTN Treatment for Hookworms
What are the treatment options for BPH? Mabendazole
Side effect of alpha-methyl Dopa #1- Terazocin, Doxazocin Stongyloides
Hemolytic anemia #2_ Finesteride Thiabendazole
#3 – TURP
Anticholinergic drugs What is the treatment for flatworms?
Atropine MOA of Heparin Hyclosamine &Niclosamine
Scopalomine Cofactor for ATIII with allow inhibition of
Glycopyrrolate Thrombine and factors 9-12 How do Hyclosamine & Niclosamine
Bentropine work?
Trihexyphenadyl MOA of Warfarin They paralyze the worm's nervous system
IHN Vitamin K and thereby factors 10, 9, 7,
Which anticholinergic is the drug of 2, Protein C, and Protein S
choice for heart block? What drugs are used to treat Malaria?
Atropine For what is Vitamin K needed? Chloroquine
Gama-carboxylation in the liver Mefloroquine
Which anticholinergic is used to treat Primaquine
dystonia? What drug can be used acutely to inhibit Quinine
Benztropine GPIIb:IIIa?
Abscixamab One dose treatment for candidiasis?
2 Anticholinergics used dry up secretions Fluconazole
pre-OP? Name three drugs that can be used to
Atropine inhibit ADP production in the clotting Imidazole that crosses (BBB)?
Scopalomine cascade Fluconazole
Ticlopidine
Clopidogrel
Pharmacology 3 of 11
Imidazole inhibits P450? Through the sweat Phenylpropophenolamine
Ketoconazole Phenturamine
How do the IV/Oral antifungal work?
How is it treated? By inhibiting the synthesis of Ergosterol What sideeffect is seen with 1st generation
Tinea Capitis - Griseofulvin anti-histamines?
The Infection (Staph Aureus) - Antibiotics Topical(creams) antifungal work by? Strong Anti-Cholinergic effects
The Inflammatory infection – Steroids They bind to Ergosterol and destroy it
(Poke holes in the membrane) Anti-histamine to Rx motion sickness
Rx for LYME'S disease? Dramamine
Penicillin – First Line What topical antifungal is parenteral?
Tetracylcinis Amphotericin B Anti-histamine that is part of Phen-Phen
Pheturamine
4 drugs you can use to treat Herpes? Hyperkalemia + Amphotericin mean?
Pencyclovir - TID Systemic Toxicity due to destruction of Anti-histamine pulled off market due to
Acyclovir - Five (5) times a day cholesterol in the cell membrane leading to arrythmias
Demcycovir - TID leaking of K+ into cytoplasm. Phenylpropanolamine
Vancyclovir – BID
Hypokalemia + Amphotericin mean? MC over-the-counter anti-histamine
Rx for CMV Nephotoxicity due to destruction of the Diphenhydramine (Benedryl)
Gancyclovir cholesterol in the kidney cells and K+ leaks
out in urine. Anti-histamine used to Rx Vertigo
Rx for Shingles Hydroxazine (Aderax)
Famcyclovir Side Effects of Amphotericin?
Hypokalemia Disease where person passes out with
Rx for RSV Hyperkalemia positional change
Ribavarin Renal Failure Benign Positional Vertigo

Rx used to sop viral uncoating 2 fungal infections Rx by Griseofulvin? Clues for Miner’s disease
Ramantidine Tinea Capitis and Tinea Versicolor  Vertigo from Middle Ear
Amantidine  Hearing Loss
What four drugs are used to treat  Too much Endolymph
Rx used to sop viral uncoating anaphylaxis?  Tinitis
Ramantidine  Epinepherine
Amantidine  Steroids 2nd generation Anti-Histamines
 Cromoly/Nadacromyl Ephedrine
How soon must Ramantidine &
 Anti-Histamines Pseudephedrine
Amantadine must be given?
Phenylephrine
Within seventy-two (72) hours of exposure

What is a side effect of Cromoly and Over the counter 2nd generation Anti-
Why do you profiles contacts of people
Nadacromyl? Histamines
with Influenza with Amantadine for two
GI Upset Ephedrine
(2) weeks?
Because IgM takes two (2) weeks to show
MOA of Cromoly and Nadacromyl? 2nd generation Anti-Histamine used to
up.
Stabilize Mast Cell membranes treat Neurogenic Shock
Phenylephrine
SE of Ramantadine & Amantadine
Anticholinergic Side effects Which has a higher affinity for Alpha
receptors Epinepherine of Which 2nd generation Anti-Histamines
Norepinepherine? Can be used to tighten sphincters
Anticholinergic -vs- Sympathetic drugs?
Norepinepherine Pseudephedrine
Anticholinergic drugs will not allow you to
sweat, but Sympathetic drugs will.
What receptors does epinephrine have a Only class of drugs that give Mydriasis
higer affinity for? without cycloplegia?
Why is Amantadine used in Parkinson
Beta Receptors Alpha agonists
disease?
Amantadine promotes Dopamine release
What receptors do first generation Name 4 H2 blockers
antihistamines block? Cimetidine
How does griseofulvin work?
H1 Rinitidine
It inhibits microtubules leading to inhibition
Famotidine
of fungal replication.
Name 5 class I antihistamines Nizatidine
How is Griseofulvin delivered to the Diphenhydramine
Hydroxazine Which H2 blocker revs up the P450
infected site?
Dramamine system?
Pharmacology 4 of 11
Cimetidine Fentanyl
What 2 drugs are used for post-op
List (5) 3rd Generation Anti-Histamine urinary retention? Longest acting Opiate
Terfenadine Carbachol Methadone
Loratadine Bethanichol
Citrerizine MC used Opiate in hospitals for severe
Fesofenodine Which inhaled anesthetic does not pain?
Astemazol sensitize the heart to NE? Morphine
Isoflurane
3rd Generation Anti-Histamine can treat MC abused Opiate by physicians
both indoor and outdoor allergies Inhaled anesthetic which causes hepatic Meperidine  does not constrict pupils
Fexofenidine (Allegra) necrosis?
Halothane b.c. it contains Bromine Most Potent Opiate
Benefit of 3rd Generation Anti-Histamine Fentanyl
Once a day dosing Only depolarizing anesthetic used
Succinyl-Choline Opiate used for Mild/Moderate pain
What is a side effect of ACE-Inhibitors Codeine
and ARBs? Clues for Ketamine
Angioedema Dissociative Anesthesia MC over-the-counter Opiate
Patient is awake Dextromethorphan
9 Live Vaccines Vivid dreams on waking
MMR Opiates that can be used as Antitussives
BCG How do all anesthetics work? Codeine
RSV They are sodium Channel blockers Dextromethorphan
Smallpox
Rotavirus Rule for AMIDE –vs- ESTER anesthetics Opiate that comes in a patch form
Polio I before “CAINE”  Amide  Fat soluble Fentanyl
Yellow Fever No I before “CAINE”  Ester  water sol
Opiate that does not constrict the
Vaccines contraindicated with egg allergy sphincter of Odi
MMR What anesthetics cause Malignant Meperidine
Influenza Hyperthermia?
Succinyl-Choloine Opiate that causes Histamine release
What changes are made in vaccination at Halothane Morphine
age 6yo?
DPT  dT What is the treatment for Malignant Opiate that causes Catecholamine release
Drop Hib Hyperthermia? Meperidine
Dantroline
If a child has any reaction to DPT what Opiate that should not be used in head
should you do? Name 11 most common Opiates injuries b.c. it causes cerebral edema
Give acellular Pertuus (aP) Heroine Morphine
Methadone
Which live vaccine cas still be given to Morphine Opiate used to weak patient off Heroine
AIDS patients? Meperidine Methadone
MMR Fentanyl
Codeine Opiate used for moderate pain
5 actions of Anesthetics Dextromethorphan Hydrocodone
Anesthesia – Total block of sensory info Hydrocodone Codeine
Analgesia – Blocks pain Loperimide
Muscle Relaxation Diphenoxylate Opiates used to treat diarrhea
CNS depressant Pentazosin Loperimide (Lomotil)
Sensitize heart to NE Diphenoxilate (Imodium)
What are three effects of Opiates
What complication of surgery is due to CNS Depressants – Mu-Receptors Opiate that is also a blocker
the muscle relaxation ability of Analgesics – Kappa-Receptors in S.C. Pentazosin
anesthetics? Muscle Relaxants
Aspiration 5 Anti-Inflammatory effect of steroids
Uninary retention Most abused Opiate  Kill T-Cells and Macrophages
Decrease GI motility Heroine  Inhibit Macrophage Migration
Relaxed diaphram  Atelectasis  Inhibit Phospholipase A2
DVT Opiate used for Neurolep Anesthesia with  Inhibit Mast Cell degranulation
Pneumonia Resperidone
 Stabilize Endothelium
Pharmacology 5 of 11
 Miglitol
Drugs to treat parkinsonism Indication for NSAID’s
B - Bromocriptine Mild to Moderate Inflammatory pain Name the 1st generation Sulfonylureas
A - Amantadine Chlorprpamide
L – Levodopa/Carbidopa Side Effects of NSAID’s Tolbutamide
S - Selegeline GI Bleed Tolezalide
A – Anti-Cholinergics Renal Failure
Interstitial Nephritis Name the 2nd generation Sulfonylureas
Name the Steroid used PO Glipizide
Prednisone Main Over the counter NSAID Glyburide
Ibuprophen
Name the Steroid used Topically Which sulfonylurea causes SIADH?
Hydrocortisone NSAID used to close PDA Chlorpropamide
Indomethacin
Name the Steroid used IV Side effects of 1st generation
Methylprenisalone NSAID used for dysmenorrhea sulfonylureas
Naproxyn  Sulfur Allergy
Name the Steroid used as and inhaler  Interstitial Nephritis
Triamcinalone NSAID as strong as Morphine  Hemolytic Anemia
Ketoralac
 Methhemoglobinemia
Steroid with the best CNS penetration
Dexamethasone NSAID with Anti-Cholinergic SE
How does Metformin work?
Cyclobenzaprine
Inhibits gluconeogenesis in the liver
Steroid with best mineralocorticoid
action NSAID with GABA effects for back pain
Side effect of Metformin
Fludrocortisone Baclophen
Reacts with IV contrast damages kidney
Severe Metabolic Acidosis
Steroid used for nasal allergies Most potent NSAID
Futicasone #1 Indomethacin
(4) Hopoglycemic drugs that upregulate
Nematosone #2 Phenybutazone
insulin receptors
Steroid used to stimulate surfactant NSAID used 2nd line for Gout  Pyoglitazone
production is premature babies Indomethacin  Troglitazone
Betamethasone  Repaglinide
Beclmetasone  Roglitazone
What two drugs block Leucotriene
In what population is Cromalyn and receptors? What blood gases will you see with
Nadacramyl used? Zirfurlekast Immediate (early) ASA toxicity?
Any asthmatic that uses a beta-agonist more Montelekast Resp Alkalosis -  PCO2 pH
than once a day.
What drug inhibits Lipoxygenase? MC gases seen with ASA toxicity?
MOA for aspirin’s (ASA) anti- Zilutin Mixed - PCO2 pH HCO3-
inflammatory action
Irriversibly inhibts cyclo-oxygenase Name 3 COX inhibitors What blood gases will you see with late
Celecoxib (obtunded/comatose) ASA toxicity?
MOA for NSAID’s Rofecoxib Combined - PCO2 pH  HCO3-
Reversibly inhibts cyclo-oxygenase Valdecoxib
Treatment of ASA overdose
Uses for ASA Which COX Inhibitor contains Sulfer?
HCO3-
2nd Strokes Celecoxib
ALL MI’s
List the Atypicals
MOA for sulfonylureas
 Mycoplasma
Side Effects of Asprin Cause K+ influx into the Islet cells and
GI Bleeding cause release of preformed Insulin  Chlamydia
Tinitus  Legionella
Thrombocytopenia Which sulfonylureas enhance glucose  Ureoplasma
transport into peripheral tissue?
When should you stop ASA in a patient Glipizide Simple Gm(-)
Pre-OP? Glyburide E.Coli
Two Weeks Pre-OP Hyperglycemic drugs that Inhibit H. Influenza
Glucoase absorption in GI track
MOA for ASA’s Anti-Coagulation effects Ascarbos MOA of Quinalones

Pharmacology 6 of 11
Inhibit Topoisomerase Antibiotic treatment for Mycobacterium  Fanconi syndrome
Aviun Intracellulare  Binds Ca2+ in GI
Coverage of Quinalones Azithromycin  Incr. P450
All GM(+) + Staph aureus Clarithromycin
 Turns teeth Gray
Simple Gm(-)
ALL Atypicals Macrolide with the most dysgusia
MOA of Pyramycin
Clarithromycin
Inhibits the A site of the 50s subunit
Name the quinaolones
 Ciprofloxacin Macrolide with the most GI Upset
MOA of Chloramphenicol
 Gatifloxacin Erythromycin
Inbibits the 50s subunit by inhibiting
 Ofloxacin Peptidyl-Transferace
One dose treatment for GC
 Norfloxacin
 Ceftriaxone – 250mg IM
 Trovofloxacin Coverage of Chloramphenicol
 Cefixime Gm(+) + Staph Aureus
Which quinalone caused liver failure  Cefoxetin Ricketsial Infections
Trovofloxacin  Ciprofloxacin – 500mg PO
 Gatifloxacin – 400mg PO Side Effects of Chloramphenicol
Which quinalone is the most acidic  Ofloxacin – 400 mg PO Gray baby Syndrome
Norfloxacin Aplastic Anemia
MOA of Clindamycin
MOA of Rifampin Inhibit 50s subunit by inhibiting How does Chloramphenicol Cause gray
Inhibits Beta subunit of RNA Polymerase translocation baby syndrome?
They Inhibit ETC Complex IV
Coverage of Rifampin Coverage of Clindamycin
Treatment for TB All GM(+) + Staph aureus
Prophylax contacts of H. Influenze Simple Gm(-) MOA of Aminoglycosides
Prophylax contacts of Neissaria Anaerobes Inhibits the 30s subunit by inhibiting EF2

Side effects of Rifampin MCC pseudomembranous colitis Coverage for Aminoglycosides

 Incr. P450 Clindamycin ALL Gram negatives
 Myositis
MOA of Tetracyclines How do Aminoglycosides cause
 Hepatitis
Inhibit 30s subunit by inhibiting t-RNA neurotoxicity?
 Orange Secretions They Inhibit the presynaptic influx of
Name the Tetracyclines Calcium
How soon must you prophylax contact
with Rifampin?  T(4)
Name the Aminoglycosides
Within 72 hours  Oxytetracycline
GASS Toll No Kash
 Minocycline G – Gentamycin
MOA of Macrolides  Doxycycline A – Amikacin
Inhibit 50s subunit by inhibiting  Damecocycline S – Streptomycin
translocation S - Spectinomycin
Coverage of Tetracyclines T – Tobramycin
Coverage of Macrolides All GM(+) minus Staph aureus N – Neomycin
All GM(+) + Staph aureus Simple Gm(-) K – Kentamycin
Simple Gm(-) ALL Atypicals
ALL Atypicals Ricketsial Infections Aminoglycoside that is hepaticaaly
excreted
Side effects of Macrolides Tetracycline used to treat Acne Amikacin
Inhibit P450 Minocycline
Gi Upset Aminoglycosides used in triple antibiotic
Dysgusia Tetracycline that is Hepatically excreted  Neomycin
Doxycycline  Polymixin B
Name the macrolides
 Erythromycin  Bacitracin
Tetracycline that blocks ADA receptors
 Clarithromycin in kidney and causes nephrogenic DI
Aminoglycoside with the most side effects
 Azithromycin Domicocycline
Gentamycin
Macrolide with the longest ½ life Side Effects of Tetracyclines
Aminoglycoside used to treat TB
Azithromycin  GI Upset Streptomycin
 Pill Esophagitis
 Photosensitivity Side effects of Aminoglycosides
Pharmacology 7 of 11
Ototoxicity How do sulfa drugs work? What coverage do the extended spectrum
Nephrotoxicity They inhibit PABA PCN’s add?
Neurotoxicity Simple Gm(-) coverage
5 Sulfa drugs
How do Aminoglycosides cause  Sulfamethoxazole What is added to the simple PCN’s to
neurotoxicity?  Sulfadiazine cover Staph Aureus?
They Inhibit the presynaptic influx of  Sulfapyrizone Amoxacillin/Clauvulinic Acid
Calcium Ampicillin/Sulbactam
 Sulfaqsalazine
Causes of dysgusia  Sulfacetmide Extended spectrum Penecillins which
Zn2+ deficiency causes Jarisch-Herxeheimer reaction?
Metronidazole (2) drug used with Sulfa drugs that Ampicillin
Macrolides block Dihydrofolate reductase?
Trimethaprim What infections are the most common
Which drugs cause Nephrogenic DI Pyrimethamine causes of Jarisch-Herxeheimer reaction?
Lithium  EBV
Damicocycline Coverage of sulfadrugs
 CMV
Gm(+) + Staph aureus
Simple Gm(-)  Syphilis
Which part of the triple anti-biotic
ointment is responsible for a rash? Drug of choice for UTI inpregnant
Neomycin Treatment for PCP and UTI’s
Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim women
Ampicillin/sulbactam
MOA of Vancomycin
Inhibits cell wall synthesis by inhibiting the Sulfa drugs used to treat burn patients
Sulfadiazine (silvadine) MC used in pediactrics
Phospholipid carrier Amoxacillin (pink stuff)
Coverage for Vancomycin Sulfa drugs used to treat Toxoplasmosis
Sulfadiazine/Pyrimethamine 5 Anti-Staph PCN’s (Beta Lactamase
GM(+) + Staph Aureus resistant)
Enterococcus
Sulfa drug that comes in an eye drop  Metahcillin
Staph epidermidis
Sulfacetamide  Nafcillin
Side Effects of Vancomycin  Oxacillin
 Ototoxic 3 Sulfa drug used to treat ulcerative  Cloxacillin
colitis  Dicloxacillin
 Nephrotoxic
 Sulfapyrizone
 Red man Syndrome
 Sulfasalazine MCC of Interstitial Nephritis
Why does Vancomycin cause Redman  Silfacetamide #1 Methacillin
syndrome? #2 Ampicillin
Infusion is too fast and causes histamine MOA of Penecillins
release Cell Wall inhibitors by inhibiting 3 PO Anti-Staph PCN’s
transpeptidation  Oxacillin
MOA of Metronidazole (Flagyl)  Cloxacillin
Causes release of free radicals Coverae for ALL Penecillins  Dicloxacillin
Gm(+) not Staph Aureus
Coverage for Metronidazole ALL Simple Anaerobes IV Anti-Staph PCN
All Anaerobes Nafcillin
Gardnerella Side effects of Penecillins
Protozoa  Anaphylaxis Anti-Staph PCN with a high Sodium load
 Drug rash Nafcillin
Side effects of Metronidazole  Interstitial Nephritis
 Dysgusia  Hemolytic Anemia 5 Anti-Pseudomonal PCN’s
 Disulfram Reaction  Pipercillin
 G6PD Differentiate between the 2 simple  Ticarcillin
 Methemoglobinemia Penecillins  Azocillin
 Hemolytic Anemia PEN V - PO  Mezocillin
PENG - IV
 Carbenicillin
Big mama drugs for anaerobes
Two Extended spectrum Penecillins
 Metronidazole Anti-Pseudomonal PCN with a high
Amoxacillin
 Clindamycin sodium load
Ampicillin
 Cefoxatin Carbenicillin

Pharmacology 8 of 11
What drug are added to the Anti- First line for Meningitis > 2 month old
Pseudomonal PCN’s to cover staph Ceftriaxone Longest Acting Benzo
Pipercillin/Tazobactam Zolpidem
Ticarcillin/Clauvulnic Acid First line for Meningitis < 2 month old
Cefotaxime Medium duration Benzo
MOA of Cefalosporins Oxazepam
Cell Wall inhibitors by inhibiting First line for Pseudomonas Triazelam
transpeptidation Ceftazidine
Benzo used for elderly who have trouble
Coverage of Cefalosporins Four Cefalosporins with MTT side initiating sleep
Gm(+) + Staph Aureus chains Triazelam
Simple Gm(-)  Cefotetan
 Cefomandol Benzo used with 20 minutes antegrade
1st generation Cephalosporin that is  Cefaperazone amnesia
parenteral Triazelam
 Moxalactam
Cefazolin
Benzo used for people who have difficulty
What does the MTT chain do?
1st generation Cephalosporin that is the maintaining sleep
Inhibits Vitamin K
#1 cause of Interstitial Nephritis Tomazepam
Cephalotin
Only oral 3rd generation Cefalosporin
(4) Benzos MC used for Seizures
Cefixeme
Name 5 1st generation Cephalospoirins  Diazepam
 Cefazolin  Lorazepam
Drugs that cause a disulfram reaction
 Cefalotin Cefotetan  Clonazepam
 Cefalexin Cefomandol  Chlordiazepoxide
 Cefadoxil Metronidazole
 Cefadroxil (2) Benzos MC used for Status
Cefalosporin with the highest allergic Epilepticus
Name 5 2nd generation Cephalospoirins reaction in Pediatrics  Diazepam
 Cefaclor Cefaclor  Lorazepam
 Cefotetan
MOA Of Benzodiazapines Benzo MC used for Absance Seizures in
 Cefomandol
Increase GABA channel Frequency children
 Cefuroxime
Clonazepam
 Cefoxatin Indication for Benzodiazepines
Anxiety Benzo MC used for restless leg syndrome
Name 6 3rd generation Cephalospoirins Insomnia Clonazepam
 Ceftriaxone Seizure
 Cefixime Muscle Cramps Benzo that comes in sopository
 Cefotaxime Diazepam
 Ceftazidine What is the cause of death for Benzo’s
 Cefperazome and Barbituates? Benzo that is best for anxiety in middle
Respiratory Failure aged females
 Maxalactam
Lorazepam
Which Anxiolytinc is used for people who
Most commonly used Cefalosporin in cannot be sedated?
children Benzo MC used for Alcoholic withdrawal
Bupropion Chlordiazepoxide
Cefaclor
Name (10) Benzodiazepines Benzo used for short procedures
Cefalosporin used to treat H. Influenza B Floureapam
Cefuroxime Midazelam
Zolpiden
Oxazepam Benzo with 45min antegrade amnesia
Cefalosporin used to treat Anaerobes Triazelam
Cefoxatin Midazelam
Tomazepam
Diazepam Antedote for Benzo Overdose
Cefalosporin with the best CNS Lorazepam
penetration Flumazenil
Clonezapam
Ceftriaxone Chlordiazepoxide MOA of Barbituates
Midazelam Increase GABA channel Duration
Hepatically excreted Cefalosporin
Ceftriaxone Shortest Acting Benzo Indication for Barbituates
Florezepam Insomnia
Pharmacology 9 of 11
Seizure P - Paroxatine
Muscle Cramps Indication for Carbamazepine S – Sertraline
 Temporal Lobe Seizures Side effects of SSRI’s
Why are Barbituates not indicated for  3rd Line for Bipolar Disorber Anorgasmia
Anxiety  Shooting Neuropthy
Because they are too sedating Name (4) MAOI’s
Longest acting barbituate How does Carbamazapine cause SIADH P - Phenylzine
Phenobarbital It stimulates the ADH receptors in kidney I - Isocarboxazid
T - Tranylcypramine
Shortest acting Barbituate MOA of Valproic Acid S - Selegeline
Thiopental
Foods avoided when on MAOI’s
Barbituate most commonly abused on the Indication for Valproic Acid Wine and Cheese
street
 2nd Line for Bipolar
Secobarbital Wine & cheese contraindicated with
 1st Line for Myotonic Seizures MAOI’s because
Treatment for Barbituate Overdose  1st Line for Mixed Seizures The interaction can cause Seratonin
HCO3- + Doxapram Syndrome
Side Effects of Valproic Acid
Barbituate most commonly used for BM Suppression When switching from SSRI to MAOI,
generalized seizures on children how long is the washout period?
Phenobarbital What is the main cause of depression One Month
 Serotonin
3 drugs used to treat Bipolar  Norepinepherine Name the MAOBI
#1 Lithium Selegeline
#2 Valproic Acid MOA of Tri-Cyclic Anti-depressants
#3 Carbamazapine Blocks reuptake of ALL Catecholamines MOA of Bupropion
Strong Anti-Cholinergic affects Blocks reuptake of Seratonin
MOA of lithium Block 1 receptors by accident
Looks like Sodium and stabilizes cell Block A-V conduction in heart Indication for Bupropion
membranes  Used if sexual dysfunction occurs with
Clue for Anti-Cholinergic effects other antidepressants
Side effects of Lithium Sympathetic with Hot Dry Skin  Help stop smoking
 Hyponatremia
 Hypothyroidism Name (5) TCA’s Side effects of Bupropion
 Hyperthyroidism C - Clomipramine Decreased Seizure threshold
 Hypercalcemia A - Amitryptaline
 Hypophosphatemia N - Nortryptaline Indications for Electroconvulsive
D - Desipramine Therapy
 Nephrogenic DI
I - Imipramine Person who is actively suicidal or with
 Epsteins Anomoly intractable depression
TCA used for bedwetting in children
How does Lithium cause Nephrogenic Imipramine #1 Side effect of ECT
DI? Amnesia
It inhibits ADH receptors are the kidney TCA used for Chronic Pain or
neuropathy Treatment for Methemoglobinemia
How does Lithium cause Hyponatremia? Amitryptaline Methyline Blue
Because it looks like Sodium, the kidney
hold onto it instead of Sodium TCA used for OCD Rx for Acute intermittent Porphorya
Clomipramine  Sugar
How does Lithium cause
 Fluids
hypothyroidism? Shortest acting TAC’s
How does Lithium cause  Hematin
Nortryptaline
Desipramine
How does Lithium cause hypercalcemia? How does Hematin Work?
It binds to PTH receptors It inhibits D-ALA Synthase
MOA of SSRI’s
Inhibit the reuptake of Serotonin
MOA of Carbamazapine Treatment for Cyanide Poisoning
Sodium Channel Blocker  Amylnitrate
Name (4) SSRI’s
F - Fluoxetine  Sodium Thiosulphate
Side effects of Carbamazepine L – Luvoxatine  Methyline Blue
Agranulocytosis i  Transfusion
SIADH
Pharmacology 10 of 11
Rx for Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
Hyperbaric Oxygen

Rx used for the Used for the Cystic

Fibrosis sweat test & to Treat glaucoma
Pilocarpine

For what was Methacholine Previously

used?
To diagnose Asthma because is Causes
Broncho spasm

How do Amphetamines work?

They cause the release of preformed
catecholamines.

Pharmacology 11 of 11