Exam Question

CGSES – 2015 1-16

CGHB-AE-2015 17-31
a. 11.25 KN towards left
b. 15KN towards left
CGHB- JE- 2015 32-38 c. 15 KN towards right
d. 7 KN towards right
e. 0 KN
CGSES – 2016 39-58

4 If the strain energy of a deformed

elastic body is represented as a
1 The zero function of the displacement
force d1,d2,…. dn a partial derivative of
members in that function with respect to any
the truss choosen displacement gives the
shown are corresponding force. This statement
/ principle is called as
a. 1,9 a. Principle of strain energy
b. 2,8 b. Maxwell’s reciprocal theorem
c. 3,7 c. Conjugate beam method
d. 5,6 d. Betti’s law
e. No members have zero forces e. First theorem of castigliano’s

2 The adjacent 5 Which of the following does not

frame is apply to statically determinate
indeterminate to structures
the degree of a. Stresses are caused due to
temperature variations
a. 1 b. No stresses are caused due to lack of
b. 5 fit
c. 0 c. Bending moment at a section is
d. 3 independent of cross sectional area
e. 4 of the component
d. Force in a component is
3 For a pin jointed frame at points independent of the material
A,B,C (point B is pin jointed )the e. Conditions of the equilibrium are
horizontal component of reaction at sufficient to fully analyze the
A is structure

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6 A 2D structure in general is classified 10 The slope deflection equation at B
as a statically inderterminacy of elements BC in the following
structure if it cannot be analysed by frame is BC = 6m, AB=CD=8m
which of the following equations of
equilibrium
a. ΣFx = 0
b. ΣFy = 0
c. ΣM = 0
d. a,b
e. ab,c a. Mbc = 0.5 EI(2θc – θb)
b. Mbc = 0.5 EI(2θb – θc)
7 The moment distribution method is c. Mbc = 0.5 EI(2θb+ θc)
best suited for d. Mbc = 0.5 EI(θc – θb)
a. Pin jointed truss e. Mbc = 3.0 EI(2θc – θb)
b. Space truss 11 The no. of unknowns to be
c. Eccentric column determined in the stiffness method
d. Rigid frames is equal to
e. Trussed beams a. Ds
b. Dk
8 The ratio of the stiffness of a c. Dk + Ds
member to the total stiffness of all d. Dk –Ds
the members meeting at a joint is e. Dk or Ds
called as
a. Relative stiffness 12 A cable of span 100m and a dip of
b. Distribution factor for that member 5m is subjected to a temperature
c. End correction rise of 15°. The increase in dip (in
d. Stiffness for that member mm) due to rise in temperature is
e. None of the above a. 27.5
b. 57.5
c. 62.5
9 Two wheel loads 80 KN and 200 KN, d. 67.5
spaced 2m. apart moves on a girder e. 52.5
of span 16m. if any wheel load can
lead the other, the maximum 13 In column analogy method the area
positive and negative SF at a section of an analogous column for a fixed
4m. from the left end respectively beam of length L and flexural
will be (in KN) rigidity EI is
a. 120,-60 a. 0.25 EI / L
b. 120,-120 b. 0.75 EI / L
c. 200, -60 c. L / EI
d. 60, -200 d. 0.25 L/ EI
e. 200, -200 e. 0.75 L/EI

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14 A 8m long live load of intensity c. BM at support of simple beam /
50KN/m moves on a s/s girder of Rise at centre
span length 10m. find the maximum d. Half of the BM at centre of s/s beam
BM in KN-m which can occur at a
section 4m. from left end 19 The degree of static indeterminacy
a. 276 of the following pin joined truss is
b. 576
c. 226 a. 0
d. 426 b. 1
e. 536 c. 3
15 A cable resists external load by d. 4
virtue of
a. Bending 20 The analysis of a continuous beam
b. Compression using ‘ theorem of three moment’ is
c. Tension classified as which method of
d. Torsion analysis
e. Compression and bending a. Force method
b. Displacement method
16 The flexibility coefficient for a c. No such classification exists
propped cantilever beam loaded d. None of the above
with a udl w/m run is given by
3
a. L / 3EI 21 The maximum positive SF at a
3
b. L / EI section, under a moving udl shorter
3
c. L / 6EI than span occurs when
3
d. L / 4EI a. The load just reaches the section
3
e. L / 2EI b. The tail just leaves the section
c. Load occupies centre of span
17 The ILD for horizontal thrust ‘N’ in a d. Section divides the span and the
two hinged arch is load in same ratio
a. Parabola
b. Triangle 22 the area of ILD for the reaction of a
c. Curve of 3 degree s/s beam of span ‘L’ is equal to
d. Curve of 2 degree a. L/8
b. L/6
18 Horizontal thrust in a 2 hinged arch c. L/4
parabolic carrying udl over whole d. L/2
span is equal to
a. BM at centre of simple beam / rise 23 A skeletal structure is having its
at centre static indeterminacy as 3 and
b. BM at centre of fixed beam / Rise at kinematic indeterminacy as 6, for
centre the ease point of view, which

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 method of analysis should be used a. Statically determinate beam
a. Strain energy method b. Statically indeterminate beam
b. Slope deflection method c. a,b both
c. Any of the above d. Neither a nor b
d. Unable to conclude because of
insufficient data 29 The no. of compatibility equations
to be considered in statically
24 The reactions in a statically indeterminate structure are equal
determinate structure can be to
obtained by a. No. of equilibrium equations
a. Equilibrium equations only b. No such relationship exists
b. Compatibility equations only c. Dk
c. a,b both d. Ds
d. None of the above
30 The principle of superposition holds
25 The moment required to rotate the good in elastic structural analysis
near end of a prismatic beam because of
through a unit angle, without a. The elastic property of material
translation, the far end being freely b. The linear stress strain relation
supported is given by c. The deformation, related to force
a. 3EI / L acting on the structures
b. 4 EI/L d. None of these
c. 6 EI/L
d. 8 EI/L 31 The minimization of potential
energy of structural analysis results
26 The stiffness of a prismatic beam of in
length ; and flexural rigidity EI is a. Equilibrium forces
a. EI / L b. Compatible strains
b. 2 EI / L c. Exact stress strain relation
c. 3 EI / L d. Compatible defrormations
d. 4 EI / L
32 The fixed beam is having span 4m. it
27 In the pin jointed truss shown is subjected to a udl of 6KN/m,
below, the force in member AB is throughout the span and a point
a. 100 KN(T) load of 8 KN at midspan. The fixed
b. 100 KN(C) end moment shall be
c. Zero a. -12 KNm
d. 200 KN(C) b. -20 KNm
c. -8 KNm
28 Muller Breslau principle is d. -16 KNm
applicable for

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33 Three moment method is applied 38 Diagram which shows variation of
for analysis of a BM at any section x of a beam, as
a. Simply supported beam unit load move across the beam
b. Continuous beam from its one end to another is called
c. Multi storeyed beam a. BM diagram
d. Truss b. SF diagram
c. ILD for BM at x
34 A simply supported beam has two d. Unit load diagram
end P and Q, the beam is deflected
in the direction of reaction at P the 39 Bar is a structural member which is
deflected shape of the beam shows generally subjected to
to some scale a. Axial pull
a. ILD for Rp b. Axial compression
b. ILD for RQ c. Eccentric Pull
c. ILD for BMp d. Both a. and b.
d. ILD for BMQ e. None of the above

35 Flexural stiffness of a member at 40 The force

any of its ends is in the
a. Rotation produced by applying unit member
moment DE of the
b. Moment required at the same end truss
to produce unit rotation at the end shown
c. Moment required at same end to below is
produce unit rotation at other end a. 100 KN
d. None of these b. 50 KN
c. 35.5 KN
36 In moment distribution method, d. 25 KN
moment is carried over e. None of the above
a. From rigid to fixed joint
b. From fixed to rigid joint 41 For a fixed beam with span ‘L'
c. Rigid to hinged joint having plastic moment capacity
d. Hinged to rigid joint ‘Mp’, the ultimate central
concentrated load will be
a.
/8
37 A pin jointed truss consists of 10 b. 4
⁄
joints and 20 members it is a c. 6
⁄
a. Perfect truss d. 8
/
b. Redundant truss e. None of these
c. Deficient truss
d. None of these

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42 The slope of the elastic curve at the a. The bar AC will be subject to a
free end of a cantilever beam of compressive force
span ‘L’ and with flexural rigidity b. The bar BC will be subjected to a
‘EI’, subjected to uniformly tensile force
distributed load of intensity ‘W’ is c. The bar BD will be subjected to a
a. 
⁄8 tensile force
b.  ⁄6 d. No reaction will develop at support
c.  ⁄3 A
d.  ⁄2 e. No reaction will develop at support
D
43 A frame ABCD is supported by a
roller at ‘A’ and is on a hinge at ‘C’ 45 A curved member
as shown. The reaction at the roller with a straight
end ‘A’ is given by vertical leg is
carrying a vertical
load at Z, as
shown in the fig.
the stress
resultants in the
X-Y segment are
a. BM, SF and Axial force
b. BM and Axial force
c. BM and SF only
a. Zero d. Axial force only
b. P/2 e. None of the above
c. P
d. 2P 46 Castigliano’s theorem fall under the
e. None of the above category of
a. Displacement method
b. Force method
44 Identify the false statement from c. Equilibrium method
the following, pertaining to the d. Stiffness method
effects due to a temperature rise e. None of the above
‘δT’ in the bar BD alone in the
plane truss shown in fig. 47 A three hinged parabolic arch ABC
has a span of 20m and a central rise
of 4m. the arch has hinges at the
ends and at the centre. A train of
two point loads of 20 KN and 10 KN,
5m apart, crosses this arch from left
to right, with 20 KN load leading.
The maximum thrust induced at the
supports is

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a. 25.00 KN a. 64 8 b. 64 8
b. 28.15 KN −
3  3 
c. 31.25 KN 8 64 8 64
d. 32.81 KN  3  3
e. None of the above c. 64 8 d. 64 8
−
3  3 
8 64 4 64
48 Carry over factor CAB for the beam −
 3  3
shown below is
e. None of these

51 In a linear structural element

a. Stiffness is directly proportional to
a. ¼ flexibility
b. ½ b. Stiffness is inversely proportional to
c. ¾ flexibility
d. 1 c. Stiffness is equal to flexibility
e. None of the above d. Stiffness and flexibility are not
related
e. None of these
49 The strain energy stored by a simply
supported beam with a
concentrated load at its mid point 52 Muller Breslau principle in
as shown in the fig. will be structural analysis is used for
a. Drawing influence line diagram for
any force function
b. Writing virtual work equation
c. Super imposition of load effects
a. 5   d. Drawing BM and SF diagrams
384 e. None of these
b. 5  
192
c. ² 
192 53 Fixed end of a fixed beam of span L
d. ²  settles by an amount δ. The ratio of
96
e. None of these the slope and deflection at the
centre of the beam will be
a. 3L / 2
50 The flexibility matrix of the beam b. 3 / 2L
shown below is given by c. 3L / 4
d. 2 / 3L
e. 5  
384

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54 The carry over factor for a prismatic 58 A simply supported beam with an
beam element is overhang is traversed by a unit
a. 1 concentrated moment from the left
b. 1/2 to the right as shown below. the
c. 1/3 influence line for reaction at B is
d. 1/4 given by
e. None of the above

55 The moment of inertial of

analogous column of a fixed beam a.
of length L and constant EI is equal
to b.
3
a. L / 3EI
3
b. L / 4EI
3 c.
c. L / 12EI
3
d. L / 48EI d. Zero everywhere
e. None of the above e. None of the above

56 A uniform propped cantilever has

span L and flexural rigidity EI. The
stiffness coefficient corresponding
to rotation of propped end is
a. EI / L
b. 2EI / L
c. 3EI / L
d. 4EI / L
e. None of the above

57 The area of the influence line

diagram for the fixed end moment
of a fixed beam of span L is
2
a. L /8
2
b. L / 12
2
c. L / 16
2
d. L / 24
e. None of the above

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 3 In working stress method, the
modular ratio, m has a value of
Exam Question (280/3 x permissible compressive
stress) the expression for m is
CGSES – 2015 1-35
a. Partially takes into account the long
term effects such as creep
CGHB-AE-2015 36-42 b. Fully takes into account the long
term effects such as creep
c. Does not take into account the long
CGHB- JE- 2015 43-56
term effects such as creep
d. Is the same as the modular ratio
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 57-64 based on the value of the elastic
modulus of structural member
e. Takes into account twice the long
CGSES – 2016 65-77
term effect like creep

4 According to IS456, when high

1 A purely compression member(with strength deformed bars are used,
negligible eccentricity) having its the reinforcement shall not be less
effective length equal to 9 times its than p percent of the total cross
radius of gyration should be treated sectional area of the slab, when p is
as a. 0.12
a. Pedestal b. 0.15
b. Long column c. 0.10
c. Strut d. 0.13
d. Short column e. 0.04
e. Member subjected to bending and
shear 5 Splices shall not be used without
additional precautions beyond bar
2 The maximum compressive strain diameter of
according to limit state design as per a. 28mm
IS456-2000 at the highly compressed b. 30mm
extreme fibre in concrete subjected c. 32mm
to axial compression and bending d. 36mm
when there is no tension on the e. 40mm
section will be
a. 0.002 6 The redistribution of moments in a
b. 0.0035 statically indeterminate beams is
c. 0.002 ext-0.75 restricted to ‘q’ percent as per IS 456
d. 0.0035 ext -0.75 limit state design method where q is
e. None of these

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a. 10% b. 16-24 hrs
b. 70% c. 7 days
c. 30% d. 14 days
d. 50% e. 21 days
e. 40%
11 A ready mix concrete suppliers
7 As per IS456, the minimum cement supplied 101 cum of concrete for a
content for the respective durability slab. As per the minimum sampling
classes can be reduced by R kg/cm frequency, the number of cube
while changing the maximum size of samples required are
aggregate from 20mm to 40mm a. 5
where R is b. 4
a. 10 c. 7
b. 15 d. 3
c. 20 e. 6
d. 30
e. 25 12 For a low cost housing project of G
_+ 2 story, it was decided to ignore
8 As per IS 456 nominal mix concrete the effects due to temperature
may be used for concrete of grades fluctuations, shrinkage and creep.
upto For this to be satisfied, the lateral
a. 10 Mpa dimension of the building should be
b. 15 Mpa less than
c. 20 Mpa a. 30m
d. 200 Mpa b. 45m
e. 25 Mpa c. 25m
d. 50m
9 As per IS 456 the weighing or e.
batching accuracy of cement ,
aggregate , water and admixture 13 In a simply supported 9m long
shall respectively be beam, the effective depth should be
a. 2,2,2,2 a minimum of approximately dmm is
b. 2,3,3,3 required for assuming the vertical
c. 2,3,2,3 deflection to be satisfactory
d. 2,2,3,3 a. 1286
e. 3,2,2,2 b. 346
c. 450
10 The minimum period before striking d. 600
the props to a beam spanning 7.5m e. 360
is
a. 3days

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14 The nominal cover requirements for where side face reinforcement shall
meeting durability requirements of be provided as per IS456 in mm is
mild, very severe, severe, moderate, a. 500
extreme types of exposure are b. 450
respectively c. 350
a. 20,30,45,50,75 d. 700
b. 20,45,30,50,75 e. 750
c. 20,50,45,30,75
d. 20,75,50,30,45 19 As per IS 456, using limit state
e. 20,50,60,75,90 design method, in members where
cracking in tensile zone is harmful
15 The maximum theoretical diameter because they are continuously
in mm of steel reinforcement in a exposed to ground water, the
slap 180mm thick shall be limiting crack width suggested is
a. 30.0 a. 0.3mm
b. 36.0 b. 0.15mm
c. 22.5 c. 0.25mm
d. 45.0 d. 0.2mm
e. 18.0 e. 0.02mm

16 According to IS 3414, the 20 If the estimated modulus of

recommended spacing of expansion elasticity is 30GPa, then the
joint for thin unprotected slabs is probable value (according to IS 456)
a. 30m of the actual values in (GPa) could
b. 45m be between
c. 6m a. 27-33
d. 12m b. 24-36
e. 15m c. 25.5 – 34.5
d. 28.5 – 31.5
17 In case of a non cellular non ribbed e.
flat slab, the spacing of the steel
reinforcing bars shall not exceed m 21 Shear failure at sections of beams
times the thickness of the slab, and cantilever without shear
where m is reinforcement will normally occur
a. 1.5 on lane inclined at an angle
b. 1.2 a. 30° to the horizontal
c. 1.9 b. 30° to the vertical
d. 3.0 c. 45° to the horizontal
e. 2.0 d. 45° to the vertical
e. 90° to the horizontal
18 The minimum depth of a beam,

P a g e | 11
22 The minimum number of 26 Which of the following loads need
longitudinal bars are provided as not be considered to be acting
per IS 456 in a circular column shall simultaneously
be a. WL, EL
a. 4 b. WL, DL
b. 6 c. WL, Shrinkage
c. 8 d. EL, Shrinkage
d. 9 e. Temperature, Shrinkage
e. 3
27 Subject to a maximum of 450mm
23 The main reinforcement of RC slab the maximum vertical
consists of 10mm bar spaced at reinforcement used in reinforced
100mm c/c. if 10mm bars are walls shall not exceed X times the
replaced by 12mm bars, then the wall thickness , where X is
spacing w.r.t. current spacing would a. 1.0
be increased by b. 1.5
a. 2cm c. 2.0
b. 4cm d. 2.5
c. 4.4cm e. 3.0
d. 6cm
e. 14.4cm 28 While designing the footing
according to the limit state method
24 In limit state desin, permissible of design, the permissible bearing
bond stress in the case of deformed stress is taken as K times the
bars is more than in the plain bars characteristic strength of concrete,
by what percentage where K is
a. 25 a. 0.25
b. 35 b. 0.35
c. 40 c. 0.45
d. 50 d. 0.55
e. 60 e. 0.65

25 In limit state design, the spacing of 29 If d is the effective depth, b is width

main reinforcement primarily takes and D is the overall depth, then the
care of maximum area of compression
a. Durability reinforcement in a beam is given by
b. Corrosion a. 0.12 bd
c. Deflection b. 0.04 bd
d. Cracking c. 0.04 bD
e. Spalling d. 0.12 bD
e. 0.85 bd

P a g e | 12
30 In a reinforced concrete retaining d. 5.00
wall, shear key is provided if e. 1.05
a. Shear stress in the vertical
component in excess 34 According to IS456 the
b. Shear force in the toe slab is less recommended slump (mm) range
than that in the heel slab for in situ piling using concrete is
c. Retaining wall is not safe against a. 25-75
sliding b. 100-150
d. Shear force in the toe slab is more c. 50-100
than that in the heel slab d. 75-100
e. Retaining wall is not safe against e. 200+
overturning

35 The minimum period before striking

31 Minimum cement content (in the props to a slab spanning 6m is
kg/m3) for a plain cement concrete a. 3 days
required for severe exposure b. 16-24 hrs
condition as per IS 456 c. 7 days
a. 220 d. 14 days
b. 240 e. 21 days
c. 250
d. 260
e. 280 36 The minimum depth of a beam,
where side face reinforcement shall
be provided as per IS 456 in mm is
32 ACCORDING TO is 456, when a. 500
assessing the strength of a structure b. 450
or structural member for the limit c. 350
state of collapse, the value of partial d. 750
safety factor for concrete should be
a. 1.15
b. 1.05 37 As per IS 456 , the final deflection
c. 1.5 due to all loads including the effects
d. 15.0 of temperature, shrinkage and
e. 2.5 measured from at cast level of the
supports of floors, roofs and all
other horizontal members should
33 According to IS 456 the not be exceed than
characteristic strength below which a. Span / 300
not more than X percent of test b. Span / 350
results are expected to fall, the c. Span / 250
value of X is d. Span / 200
a. 0.75
b. 0.05
c. 0.50

P a g e | 13
38 Which of the following options gives a. 0.12
the partial safety factors for dead b. 0.15
load, wind load for limit state of c. 0.10
collapse when stability against d. 0.13
overturning or stress reversal is
critical 42 The maximum pressure on the
a. 1.5 DL + 1.5 WL concrete foundation must not
b. 1.2 DL + 1.2 WL exceed the following
c. 0.9 DL + 1.5 WL a. Shear strength of the concrete
d. 1.4 DL + 1.6 WL b. Axial strength of the concrete
c. Compressive strength of concrete
39 As per IS 456 , positive bending d. Bearing strength of concrete
moment at the middle at the middle
of the end span of a continuous one 43 In RCC beams, shear reinforcement
way slab having Wd and Wl as the generally provided in form of
dead load intensity and imoposed a. Vertical stiffups
load intensity respectively and span b. Inclined stirrups
equal to L c. Bent up tensile reinforcement
a.   ² +   ² d. All of the above
10 12
b.   ² +   ²
12 10
c.   ² +   ² 44 6mm diameter 2 legged stirrups
10 10 have been provided at an spacing of
d.   ² +   ²
12 16 140mm c/c, if mild steel grade 1 has
been used and effective depth of
40 As per IS 456 for limit state of the beam section is 500mm, then
collapse under flexure, the strength of shear reinforcement
maximum strain in the tension shall be
reinforcement in the section at a. 28.3 KN
failure should be (where fy = yield b. 14.15 KN
strength, E=modulus of elasticity) c. 56.6 KN
a. More than 0.002 + fy/1.15E d. None of the above
b. Equal to 0.0035
c. More than 0.0035 + fy/1.15E 45 The value of slump for building
d. Less than 0.002 + fy/1.15E column is taken as
a. 2.5 – 5.0 cm
41 According to IS 456, when high b. 10.0 – 15.0 cm
strength deformed bars in one slab c. 5.0 – 10.0 cm
is used, the reinforcement shall not d. None of these
be less than p percent of the total
cross sectional area of the slab,
when p is

P a g e | 14
46 In limit state design in the case of 50 The approximate ratio between the
deformed bars minimum strength of cement concrete at 7
percentage of reinforcement days and 28 days
required for slab a. 3/4
a. 0.10 % of Ag b. 2/3
b. 0.12 % of Ag c. 1/2
c. 0.14 % of Ag d. 1/3
d. 0.15 % of Ag
51 Cross section of columns, beams
47 The nominal shear stress τv in and slabs shall be measured to the
beams or slabs of uniform depth nearest of
shall be calculated by a. 1m
a. Τv = V/3bd b. 0.005m
b. Τv = 2V/bd c. 0.01m
c. Τv = V/bd d. 0.001m
d. Τv = 3V/bd
52 If Ø is the diameter of reinforcing
48 Moment of resistance for an over bar, then weight per meter of rod
reinforced concrete beam is will be
obtained by (where σst = a. Ø / 162
3
permissible stress in steel, σcbc = b. Ø / 162
2
permissible stress in concrete, c. Ø / 164
2
Nj=design parameters, b=width, d. Ø / 162
d=depth, Ast = area of tensile
reinforcement) 53 As per IS 456 the modular ratio has
a.
 =  . ". . # been given by expression
b.
 =  . ". $. # (notations’s have their usual
c.
 = 1⁄2 . %$%. &. ". . $ ' meaning)
d.
 = 1⁄2 . %$%. &. ". $.  ' a. ( = 280/%$%
b. ( = 280/3%$%
49 M20 concrete and F415 steel has c. ( = 28/3%$%
been used in a RCC section of d. ( = 3/280%$%
effective depth 500mm, if depth of
neutral axis is 180mm, then the 54 If diameter of bar in tension is
section is 16mm & grade of concrete is M 20,
a. Balanced then development length of the bar
b. Under reinforced of mild steel grade1, to develop
c. Over reinforced stress eaqual to permissible stress
d. Neutral section shall be
a. 567mm
b. 767mm

P a g e | 15
c. 467mm 60 The formwork from the underside
d. 667mm of slabs, can be removed only after
a. 1 day
55 The maximum area of tension b. 4days
reinforcement in a beam section c. 7 days
should not exceed the following, if d. 21 days
bxD is the section of beam
a. 0.12 bd 61 Mat is a shallow foundation
b. 0.04 bd supporting
c. 0.04 bD a. Only one column
d. 0.12 bD b. No. of columns in one row
c. No. of columns in more than one
56 In a one way slab of effective depth row
110mm, the spacing of main bars d. None of these
shall be not more than
a. 550mm 62 What is the minimum grade of
b. 450mm concrete for major bridge under
c. 305mm severe exposure condition and what
d. 330mm is the maximum cement content of
RCC members
3
57 The concrete slump recommended a. M-35, 540 Kg/m
3
for beam and slab is b. M-30, 425 Kg/m
3
a. 25-50mm c. M-30, 510 Kg/m
3
b. 25-75mm d. M-30, 360 Kg/m
c. 30-125mm
d. None of these 63 In simply supported slab the
minimum spacing of distribution of
58 Modulus of elasticity of concrete as reinforcement should be four times
per IS 456 is the effective thickness of slab or
a. 5700 √fck a. 200mm
b. 4700√fck b. 150mm
c. 5000√fck c. Based on design or 600mm
d. 50000√fck d. None of these
64 The maximum area of tension
59 The approximate ratio between the reinforcement in a beam section
strength of cement concrete at 7 should not exceed the following, if
days and 28 days bxD is the section of beam
a. 3/4 a. 0.12 bd
b. 2/3 b. 0.04 bd
c. 1/2 c. 0.04 bD
d. 1/ 3 d. 0.12 bD

P a g e | 16
65 The effective length of a column in span
a reinforced concrete building c. Independent of the span , long or
frame, as per IS-456 – 2000, is short
independent of the d. Mostly long span but sometimes
a. Frame type i.e. braced (no sway) or short span
unbraced (with Sway) e. None of the above
b. Span of the beam
c. Height of the column 70 The structural elements can be
d. Loads acting on the frames designed by the methods of
e. None of the above a. Experimentation
b. Limit state
66 As per the provision of IS 456 – c. Working stress
2000 the short term modulus of d. All of the above
elasticity of M25 grade concrete e. None of the above
2
(N/mm ) can be assumed to be
a. 25,000 71 Maximum strains in an extreme
b. 28,500 fibre in concrete and in the tension
c. 30,000 reinforcement (Fe415 grade and Ex
d. 36,000 2
= 200 KN/mm ) in a balanced
e. None of the above section at limit state of flexure are
respectively
67 In cold weather region, cement a. 0.0035 & 0.0038
preferred is b. 0.002 & 0.0018
a. Ordinary Portland cement c. 0.0035 & 0.0041
b. Pozzolonic cement d. 0.002 & 0.0031
c. Low hear cement e. None of the above
d. Calcium chloride cement
e. None of the above 72 For avoiding the limit state of
collapse, the safety of RCC
68 The flexural strength of M30 grade structures is checked for
concrete as per IS456-2000 is appropriate combination of dead
a. 30.0 MPa load DL imposed load or live load IL,
b. 21.23 MPa wind load WL and earthquake load
c. 5.47 MPa EL, which of the following load
d. 3.83 MPa combination is not considered
e. None of the above a. 0.9 DL + 1.5 WL
b. 1.5 DL + 1.5 WL
69 In case of RCC two way slab, the c. 1.5 DL + 1.5 WL + 1.5 EL
deflection of the slab is d. 1.2 DL + 1.2 IL + 1.2 WL
a. Primarily a function of the long span e. None of the above
b. Primarily a function of the short

P a g e | 17
73 In the limit state design method of 76 Stress strain curve of concrete is
concrete structures, the a. A perfect straight line upto failure
recommended partial material b. Straight line upto 0002% strain
safety factor (ɣm) for steel value and then parabolic upto
according to IS 456-2000 is failure
a. 1.5 c. Parabolic upto 0.002% strain value
b. 1.15 an dthen a straight line upto failure
c. 1.0 d. Hyperbolic upto 0.002% strain value
d. 0.87 and then a straight line upto failure
e. None of the above e. None of the above

74 An RCC short column with 300mm x 77 The span ‘l’ and depth ‘d’ ratio l/d
300mm square cross section is for a simply supported beam to be
made of M20 grade concrete and considered deep is
has 4 numbers, 20mm diameter a. Less than 5
longitudinal bars of Fe 415steel. It b. More than 5
under the action of a concentric c. Less than 2
axial compressive load. Ignoring the d. More than 10
reduction in the area of concrete e. None of the above
due to steel bars, the ultimate axial
load carrying capacity of the column
is
a. 1659 KN
b. 1548 KN
c. 1198 KN
d. 1069 KN
e. None of the above

75 A renforced concrete beam of 10m

effective span and 1m effective
depth, is supported on 500mm x
500mm columns at both ends. If the
distributed load on the beam is
10MN/m, the design shear force for
the beam is
a. 37.5 KN
b. 43 KN
c. 47.5 KN
d. 50 KN
e. None of the above

P a g e | 18
 percent of the ultimate tensile
strength of tgeh wire, where p is
Exam Question a. 85
CGSES – 2015 1-5 b. 50
c. 67
d. 70
CGHB-AE-2015 6 e. 80

CGHB- JE- 2015 7-8 4 According to IS 1343, the flexural

strength of a concrete member
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 9-11 having a measured compressive
strength of 50 MPa, will
approximately equal to
CGSES – 2016 12-14 a. 5 Mpa
b. 7 Mpa
c. 7.5 Mpa
d. 10 Mpa
1 Which of the following prestressing e. 4.5 Mpa
system is employed in
manufacturing concrete sleepers for
5 In the post tensioning the elastic loss
railway
in a stressed tendon resulting from
a. Post tensioning
the shortening of the member when
b. Pre tensioning
additional tendons are stressed is
c. Pre tensioning followed by post
called as
tensioning
a. Loss of pre stress
d. b, c both
b. Bond loss
e. None of these
c. Sequence stressing loss
d. Anchorage loss
2 According IS 1343, the limit state of e. Shrinkage loss
serviceability of pre stressed
concrete sections shall satisfy
6 The method of pre stressing in which
a. Deflection and cracking
prestressing is done against
b. Deflection and corrosion
hardened concrete is called
c. Deflection, cracking and maximum
a. Partial tensioning
compression
b. Post tensioning
d. b, c, both
c. Pre tensioning
e. None of these
d. Partial pre stressing

3 As per IS 1343, at the time of initial

7 As per IS 1343, at the time of initial
tensioning, the maximum tensile
tensioning, the maximum tensile
stress immediately behind the
stress immediately behind the
anchorages shall be limited to p

P a g e | 19
 anchorages shall be limited to c. Having concrete of high brittleness
a. 80% of ultimate tensile strength d. Having low creep
b. 90% of ultimate tensile strength e. None of the above
c. 67% of ultimate tensile strength
d. 83% of ultimate tensile strength 13. A concrete beam of rectangular
cross section of 200mm x 400mm is
8 Minimum grade of concrete used for prestressed with a force 400 KN at
post tensioning pre stressed eccentricity of 100mm. the
concrete construction is maximum compressive stress in the
a. M25 concrete is
2
b. M30 a. 12.5 N/mm
2
c. M40 b. 7.5 N/mm
2
d. M45 c. 5.0 N/mm
2
d. 2.5 N/mm
9 Post tensioning system used e. None of the above
generally in
a. Low rise buildings 14. Minimum concrete cover of
b. Bridges prestressing steel for a
c. Government offices pretensioned member, exposed to
d. None of these weather should be at least
a. 20mm
10 The minimum cube strength of b. 25 mm
concrete for a pre stressed member c. 32mm
is d. Size of the cable
a. 50 Kg/cm
2 e. None of the above
2
b. 150 Kg/cm
2
c. 250 Kg/cm
2
d. 350 Kg/cm

11 The advantage of precast

construction are because of
a. Design, safety, performance
b. Design & safety
c. Design , Safety , Performance,
Quality
d. None of these

12. In prestressed concrete, high grade

concrete is used for
a. Concreting prestress loss
b. Having concrete of low ductility

P a g e | 20
 a. Cutoff strength
b. Yield strength
Exam Question c. Fatigue strength
CGSES – 2015 1-24 d. Plastic strength
e. Fire strength

CGHB-AE-2015 25-37
4 In a roof truss over an industrial
buildings, purlins are provided to
CGHB- JE- 2015 38-51 carry dead load, live loads and wind
loads. As per IS 800, the support
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 52-60 conditions assumed for these would
be
a. Continuous
CGSES – 2016 61-77 b. Cantilever
c. Fixed
d. Simply supported
e. Propped cantilever
1 In a simply supported beam of span ;
and carrying a point load at the mid
5 In order to account for the shear
length at the stage of collapse, what
deformations and associated effects
part of the beam is fully elastic
the effective slenderness ratio of
a. L/3 from each end
laced column shall be taken as ‘k’
b. L/4 from each end
times, the actual maximum
c. L/5 from each end
slenderness ratio. The value of K
d. L/6 from each end
specified in IS 800 is
e. None of the above
a. 0.95
b. 0.85
2 As per limit state design of steel c. 1.15
structures, the IS800 stipulates the d. 1.10
partial safety factor for resistance of e. 1.05
member to buckling as
a. 1.10
6 For a 10mm thinner plate the
b. 1.25
distance between the centre of any
c. 1.50
two fasteners shall not be more than
d. 1.00
a. 320mm
e. 1.75
b. 300mm
c. 250mm
3 According to IS 800, the stress range d. 280mm
for a category of detail, depending e. 150mm
upon the number of cycle, it is
required to withstand during design
7 In steel design as per IS 800
life is called

P a g e | 21
 following are the limit state of 11 For member subjected to bending.
serviceability except The stiffener provided to provide
a. Fire local reinforcement to a web under
b. Corrosion shear and bearing is called as
c. Crack due to fatigue a. Intermediate transverse web
d. Snow load stiffener
e. Vibration in the structure b. Load carrying stiffener
c. Bearing stiffener
8 According to IS 800, while using d. Torsion stiffener
plastic method of analysis, unless e. Diagonal stiffener
adequate ductility and plastic
rotation capacity are established for 12 Which of the following load
design loading conditions, the yield combinations are not mentioned in
stress of the grade of the steel used IS 800
shall not exceed a. DL + EL
a. 415 MPa b. DL + IL
b. 550 MPa c. DL + IL + WL
c. 500 Mpa d. DL + EL
d. 450 MPa e. DL + EL + WL
e. 380 MPa
13 According to IS 800, the modulus of
9 In the design of steel columns the elasticity of steel
shear resistance at the proper a. 200 GPa
contact surface between steel base b. 20000000 MPa
and concrete/grout may be c. 250 GPa
calculated using a friction coefficient d. 175 GPa
of e. 20 GPa
a. 0.25
b. 0.35 14 Rivets and bolts subjected to both
c. 0.45 shear stress (*+,, %.) and axial
d. 0.55 tensile(0 ,, %.) stress shall be so
e. 1.05 proportioned that the stresses do
not exceed the respective allowable
10 The shape factor of a rectangular stresses *+, .1 0 , then the
beam of width b and depth d is utilization ratio
a. 1.00 *+,, %. 0 ,, %.
+ ≤
b. 1.05 *+, 0,
c. 1.50 a. 1.0
d. 1.25 b. 0.9
e. 2.34 c. 1.8
d. 1.4
e. 1.2

P a g e | 22
15 When a steel exhibits linear load 19 The standard clearance (for holes)
displacement until fracture occurs in diameter and width of slot for a
suddenly with very little plastic fastener 18mm in diameter is
deformation, then the behavior is a. 1mm
called as b. 2mm
a. Ductile behavior c. 3mm
b. Newtonian behavior d. 2.5mm
c. Brittle behavior e. 3.5mm
d. Plastic behavior
e. Elasto plastic behavior 20 In an unloaded structures as
erected the tolerance limit of
16 As per IS 875 PART 2 the uniformly deviation of distance between
distributed load in KN/m2 for adjacent columns after erection is
balconies is taken as a. 5mm
a. 2.0 b. 10mm
b. 3.0 c. 0.0035mm
c. 3.5 d. 0.010 x h
d. 4.0 e. 0.002 x h, h is height of column
e. 7.5
21 In plate girder, the web plate is
17 The coefficient of thermal connected to the flange plates by
expansion in (/°C) of structural fillet welding, the size of the welds
steel, irrespective of its grade can is designated to safely resists
be assumed as a. Bending stresses in the flange
-6
a. 10 x 10 b. Vertical shear force at the section
-6
b. 12 x 10 c. Horizontal shear force between the
-6
c. 1.8 x 10 flanges and the web plate
-6
d. 10.75 x 10 d. Forces causing buckling in the web
-6
e. 13 x 10 e. Warping in the flange plates

18 According to IS 800, the maximum 22 Two plates of Fe – 410 grade and

effective slenderness ratio for thickness 14mm and 12mm are to
members always under tension be shop welded by a single V groove
(other than pre tensioned weld joint. The joint is subjected to
members) is a factored tensile force of 350 KN.
a. 180 Assuming effective length of
b. 250 150mm, the strength of weld is
c. 300 a. 350 KN
d. 400 b. 410 KN
e. 350 c. 225 KN
d. 250 KN
e. 125 KN

P a g e | 23
23 Suppose the drilling holes are used, d. 450
then the net area for the tension
member shown in the fig. would be 26 In case of single angle connected on
the same side of the gusset the
number of bolts required are ….. ,
then the one required for angle on
opposite sides
a. Same
a. 760 sq-mm b. Double
b. 750 sq-mm c. Triple
c. 780 sq-mm d. No bolts required
d. 1000 sq-mm
e. 880 sq-mm
27 The general criteria for design of
tower is based on
24 The shear force induced in the rivet a. Earthquake load
R when a moment of 50 KNm is b. Wind load
transmitted to a column flange c. Imposed load
through a bracket using 4nos, d. Gravity load
20mm diameter rivets is
approximately, if the horizontal and
28 In case of industrial structures, bay
vertical distance between adjacent
size generally controlled by
rivets is 100mm
a. Earthquake load
b. Wind load
c. Dead load
d. Snow load

29 in reality , all connections in steel

structures are
a. Simple
a. 176 KN b. Rigid
b. 125 KN c. Semi rigid
c. 100 KN d. Flexible
d. 250 KN
e. 88 KN
30 The compression stress of a
structural compression nmembers is
25 Maximum slenderness ratio mainly influenced by
specified by the code for tension a. Net area
member is b. Yield strength
a. 300 c. Slenderness ratio
b. 350 d. Failure stress
c. 400

P a g e | 24
31 Normally spacing of roof trusses 36 Partial safety factor for resistance
should be in range of the following governed by ultimate stress ɣm1 is
a. 1⁄10 3 1/6 a. 1.20
b. 1⁄15 3 1/9 b. 1.10
c. 1⁄5 3 1/3 c. 1.25
d. 1⁄3 3 1/2 d. 1.05

32 The main disadvantage of steel 37 Parpet in the bridges are designed

water tank is for
a. Abrasion a. No force
b. Erosion b. Vertical force
c. Corrosion c. Lateral horizontal force
d. Diversion d. Both b,c

33 In plastic analysis the shape factor 38 The centre to centre distance

for rectangular, circular and between rivets should not be less
triangular section is than the following
a. 1.7 , 1.5, 2.34 a. 2d
b. 1.5, 1.7,2.04 b. 2.5d
c. 1.5, 1.7, 2.34 c. 3d
d. 2.34, 1.7, 1.5 d. 5d
Where d is the diameter of rivets
34 The bending moment at any section
of the structure should not be more 39 Purlins are defined as
than the a. Compression members carrying roof
a. Elastic moment of the section sheeting and supported by truss
b. Fully yield moment of the section b. Beam members carrying roof
c. Fully plastic moment of the section sheeting and supported by truss
d. None of the above c. Tension members carrying roof
e. sheeting and supported by truss
d. Torsional members carrying roof
35 The load combination factors for sheeting and supported by truss
dead load + live load + accidental
load for limit state of strength as 40 The maximum slenderness ratio for
per IS 800-2007 is considering live a member carrying compressive
load as only accompanying load load resulting from DL and IL
a. 1.5DL + 1.5LL + 1.05 AL a. 180
b. 1.5DL + 1.5LL + 1.2 AL b. 250
c. 1.2DL + 1.2LL + 1.2 AL c. 300
d. 1.0DL + 0.35LL + 1.0 AL d. 400

P a g e | 25
41 The steel structures, generally the weather shall not be less than
maximum deflection should not following
exceed ……. Of span a. 4mm
a. L/125 b. 6mm
b. L/225 c. 8mm
c. L/325 d. 10mm
d. L/625
47 When stresses due to wind or
42 For field rivets, the permissible earthquake temperature and
stresses are reduced by shrinkage effects are combined with
a. 5% those due to dead live and impact
b. 10% load. The permissible stresses may
c. 15% be exceeded upto a limit of
d. 20% a. 25 15 %
b. 33 13 %
43 The modulus of elasticity of steel is
3 2 c. 30 13 %
a. 2 x 10 N/mm
b.
4
2 x 10 N/mm
2 d. 40 14 %
5 2
c. 2 x 10 N/mm
6 2
d. 2 x 10 N/mm 48 If d is the distance between angles,
the maximum spacing of vertical
44 When the effect of wind and stiffeners in plate girder is
earthquake loads are taken into a. 0.3d
account the permissible stresses b. 0.33d
specified for rivets and bolts may be c. 0.85d
exceeded by d. 1.5d
a. 25%
b. 33.33% 49 A beam splice is used to
c. 23% a. Increase the strength of beam
d. 35% b. Increase the length of beam
c. Decrease the weight of beam
45 Which of the following type of d. Decrease the depth of beam
rolled section is more suitable to be
used as a compression member 50 Net sectional area of a riveted
a. ISLB tension member is equal to
b. ISHB a. Gross area – area of rivet holes
c. ISMB b. Gross area – ½ x area of rivet holes
d. ISMC c. Gross area – 2 x area of rivet holes
d. Equal to gross area
46 The thickness of steel in main
member not directly exposed to

P a g e | 26
51 The maximum permissible bending 56 The slope or pitch of stair should be
stress in tension or in compression between
in beam bent about the axis of a. 10° - 25°
minimum strength is equal to b. 25° - 40°
a. 0.40 fy c. 40°- 55°
b. 0.60 fy d. 55° - 70°
c. 0.45 fy
d. 0.66 fy 57 Steels that are treated as high
a. Weathering steels
52 If the windwards are to consider the b. High strength micro alloyed steel
normal span bridges with individual c. High strength quenched and
maximum span length is up to ……m tempered steels
and bridges with a pier height upto d. High strength carbon steel
…..m e.
a. 30,60
b. 150,100 58 Which of the following can classified
c. 100,150 as sloping roof
d. 60,30 a. Dome
b. Shell roof
53 The member which is placed c. Lean to roof
horizontally to support common d. Folded slabs
rafter of a sloping roof is
a. Purlin 59 The opening provided in sloped roof
b. Cleat with its top parallel to the roof
c. Batten surface is
d. Strut a. Dormer window
b. Skylight window
54 Identify the part of sub structure of c. Latern window
bridge d. Louvered window
a. Cross girder
b. Girder 60 Identify the name of load test
c. Roadway decking slab adopted for monitoring the
d. None behavior of a component of bridge
either to establish the cause of
55 In the rolled steel beams, shear damage or its share in transfer of
force is mostly resisted by loads
a. Web only a. Behavior test
b. Flange b. Diagnostic test
c. Web and flange together c. Stress history
d. None d. Ultimate load test

P a g e | 27
61 In a plate girder, the web plate is 65 Which of the following is not a
connected to the flange plates by design criterion of a lattice column
fillet welding. The size of the fillet as per IS800 – 2007
welds is designed to safely resist a. Buckling of the column as a whole
a. The bending stresses in the flanges b. Buckling of the component column
b. The vertical shear at the section c. Buckling of the individual rolled
c. The horizontal shear force between sections constituting column
the flanges and the web plate d. Buckling of lattice member
d. The forces causing buckling in the e. None of the above
web
e. None of the above 66 An electric pole 5m high is fixed into
the foundation. It carries a wire at
62 Tubular steel sections form the the top and is free to move
most economical compression sideways. The effective length of
members because tubes pole is
a. Have hign local buckling strength a. 3.25m
b. Have more torsional resistance b. 4.0m
c. Are subjected to less wind force c. 5.0m
than any other section d. 10.0m
d. All the above a., b. , c. e. None of the above
e. None of the above
67 A steel column in a multi storeyed
63 The best tension member section building carries an axial load of 125
will be N. it is built up of 2 ISMC 350
a. Bolted single angle section channels connected by lacing. The
b. Welded single angle section lacing carries a load of
c. Double angle section on opposite a. 125 N
side of gusset plate b. 12.5 N
d. Channel section c. 3.125 N
e. None of the above d. Zero
e. None of the above
64 A steel column, pinned at both
ends, has a buckling load of 200 KN. 68 Longitudinal bracing in industrial
If the column is restrained against buildings is provided to brace the
lateral movement at its mid height, building
its buckling load will be a. In longitudinal direction
a. 200 KN b. In the plane of top or bottom
b. 283 KN chords of roof truss
c. 400 KN c. In the vertical plane of the
d. 800 KN longitudinal bent
e. None of the above d. All of the above a., b, c
e. None of the above

P a g e | 28
 e. None of these
69 The tension member splice is
designed for 74 Buckling of top flange in plate girder
a. Net strength of the member is prevented by
b. Maximum of compressive tensile a. Lateral stifferner
force in the member b. Longitudinal stiffener
c. Load on the member c. Shear stiffener
d. Maximum factored force d. All of the above
e. None of these e. None of these

70 Splices for compression members in 75 Number of web plate employed in

steel structures are designed as box type plate girder may be
a. Short column a. Only 1
b. Long column b. Zero
c. Intermediate column c. 2 or more
d. Depending upon the thickness of d. Only 2
compression members e. None of these
e. None of these
76 Principal rafter of a steel roof truss
71 Gantry girders are designed to resist generally has the section of
a. Transverse loads a. Angle section
b. Lateral loads b. T section
c. Lateral and longitudinal loads c. I section
d. Transverse, longitudinal and lateral d. Z section
loads e. None of these
e. None of these
77 Purlins in a roof truss are designed
72 Intermediate vertical stiffners are as
provided in plate girders to a. Cantilever beams
a. Transfer concentrated loads b. Simply supported beams
b. Eliminate web buckling c. Laterally unsupported beams
c. Eliminate loacal buckling d. Continuous beams
d. Prevent excessive deflection e. None of these
e. None of these

73 The strength of a riveted joint is

equal to
a. Shearing strength of the rivets
b. Bearing strength of the rivets
c. Tearing strength of the plates
d. Minimum of a, b, c

P a g e | 29
 d. iv-iii-ii-v-i
e. i-iii-ii-iv-v
Exam Question
CGSES – 2015 1-32 3 When a material is axially loaded for
a long time it develops certain type
CGHB-AE-2015 33-35 of additional strain called as
a. Secondary strain
b. Axial strain
CGHB- JE- 2015 36-45 c. Radial strain
d. Creep strain
e. Shrinkage
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 46-69

4 A rod of aluminum alloy (E=72GPa)

CGSES – 2016 70-78 has a length 0.5m and diameter
10mm. the tensile stiffness (N/m) of
this rod is
a. 18. 5. 106
b. 36. 5. 106
1 While calculating the elastic c. 9. 5. 106
modulus the stress difference d. 8. 5. 106
between two points under e. 12. 5. 106
consideration is 40MPa and the
-6
strain difference is 2000 x 10 . The
5 A circular silicon carbide rod
elastic modulus of material in GPa is
exhibiting an elastic modulus of 450
a. 20000
GPa is under a uniaxial load of 450
b. 0.02
MPa. The strain energy density
c. 2000000
stored in this specimen is
d. 20 3
a. 225 Nmm / mm
e. 2000 3
b. 0.225 Nmm / mm
3
c. 22.5 Nmm / mm
3
2 In a stress stain plot the following d. 2250 Nmm / mm
3
points appear e. 2.25 Nmm / mm
1. Limit of proportionality
2. Elastic limit
6 For the state of stress shown in the
3. Yield point
following figure, if Mohr’s circle is to
4. Ultimate strength
be plotted. If the diameter of Mohr’s
5. Point of rupture
circle is d and the principal stresses
The correct sequence of occurrence
are p and q (magnitudes only), the
of these points is
value of d,p,q (in MPa) will be
a. i-ii-iii-iv-v
b. i-ii-iv-iii-v
c. ii-iv-i-iii-v

P a g e | 30
 length, find the maximum bending
moment

a. 50,70,30
2
b. 100,70,30 a. ax / 2
2
c. 90,70,30 b. 3ax / 2
2
d. 80,20,70 c. ax / 8
2
e. None of these d. 2ax
2
e. 4ax
7 The effective length for a fixed free
(on end fixed and other is free or 11 In the adjacent beam subjected to
supporting a load) type of column of uniformly distributed load of a/unit
length L, is used in calculating the length, find the maximum shear
Euler’s crippling load is force
a. L
b. 0.5L
c. 0.67L
d. 0.85L
e. 2L a. ax
b. 2ax
c. ax/2
8 If the crushing load of a column is d. 2ax/3
3000KN and Euler load is 2000KN, e. 4ax
then the Rankines load is (in KN)
a. 12000
b. 1200 12 In the adjacent beam, find shear
c. 200 stress at point A
d. 2000
e. 1000

9 In bending of beam, the point where

a. 12 KN
no bending moment occurs is known
b. 8 KN
as
c. 5 KN
a. Point of zero shear
d. 20 KN
b. Point of maximum shear
e. 7 KN
c. Point of contra flexure
d. Point of buckling
e. Yield point 13 In the adjacent beam, the point of
contraflexure is at a distance of
10 In the adjacent beam subjected to
uniformly distributed load of a/unit
P a g e | 31
 bar is 2mm. the tensile stress and %
strain in the bar are

a. 2.4 m towards right of B

a. 80 MPa, 0.1%
b. At B
b. 0.80 GPa, 1%
c. At C
c. 80 N/mm2, 1%
d. At 2.4m from A
d. 800 MPa, 0.01%
e. At the mid point of AD
e. 8KN/mm2, 0.001%

14 A glass rod having an elastic

17 A metal bar of variable cross section
modulus of 90 GPa and poisson’s
and length as shown is subjected to
ratio of 0.2 will have its bulk
1000KN of force. The area of 1m
modulus in GPa
long section is 10000 sqmm and
a. 50
that of 500mm long section is
b. 108
5000sq.mm. assuming the elastic
c. 270
modulus of 200 GPa, the total
d. 91
elongation of the bar will be
e. 100
a. 2.5mm
b. 0.025mm
15 The cross section of the beam has c. 0.25mm
6 4
Ixx = 3x10 mm and it is subjected d. 25mm
to the loading shown in the figure. e. 1.5mm
The neutral axis is situated at 70mm
from the extreme fibre. The
18 For the given figure find out the
maximum tensile stress in the beam
moment of inertia about xx asix, if
would be
the outer dimension is 4x4cm and
inner dimension is 2x2cm

a. 70Mpa
b. 7 GPa
c. 170 GPa a. 21.33 cm
4

d. 70 GPa b. 256 cm
4

e. 10 GPa c. 1.33 cm
4
4
d. 20 cm
4
16 A prismatic bar has a cross section e. 2.0 cm
of 25mm by 50mm and a length of
2000mm. under an axial load of 100
KN, the measured elongation of the

P a g e | 32
19 A solid circular shaft of diameter 23 A steel plate width 120mm and of
8mm is exposed to a maximum thickness 20mm is bent into a
torque of 64 N-m, what is the shear circular arc of radius 10m. if elastic
stress in the shaft modulus of the section is 200 GPa,
a. 2000 π then the stress induced in the beam
b. 2000 / π is
c. 2/π a. 200 MPa
d. 20 / π b. 20 GPa
e. 2π c. 2 GPa
d. 180 GPa
20 Young’s modulus of a perfectly rigid e. 110 GPa
body is
a. Unity 24 A 6.4m long simply supported
b. Negative wrought iron beam carries a point
c. Zero load of 48KN at its midpoint. The
6 4
d. Infinity moment of inertia is 80 x 10 mm .
e. A non-zero, finite constant If the elastic modulus is 192 GPa,
then the deflection at the mid point
21 A thin walled cylindrical pressure of the beam is
vessel having radius 0.6m and wall a. 15.06
thickness 24mm is subjected to an b. 16.26
internal pressure of 1000KPa. The c. 17.3
hoop stress (MPa) developed is d. 17.8
a. 2.5 e. 17.06
b. 0.25
c. 25 25 The differential equation of the
d. 0.025 deflection curve due to
e. 22.5 temperature difference between
bottom and top of the beam shown
22 Isotropy of a material means will be (α is the thermal expansion
a. Behavior of the material having coefficient)
same properties in all directions
b. The enthalpy of the material
remains same over time
c. The material remain homogenous
when heated
d. The temperature within the
material remains constant when a. α(T1 – T2.T1) / h
hearted b. α (T1 – T2 )/ h
e. None of these c. α (T1. T2. - T1) / h
d. α (T2 – T1) / h
e. α (T1 .T2 - T1) / T1h

P a g e | 33
26 The beam is loaded as shown in the deflection at the centre of the
figure. The magnitude of bending beam w.r.t. the original deflection
moment at fixed end A is (KN-m) will be
a. 50%
b. 25%
c. 75%
d. 12.5%
e. 6.25%

a. 120 30 In the continuous beam shown in

b. 600 the following figure, the support
c. 240 moment in KNm is
d. 180
e. 60

27 When maximum bending moment

occurs in a beam the shear force at
that location is
a. Zero a. 93.8
b. Maximum b. 46.9
c. Acts vertically downward c. 62.5
d. Acts vertically upward d. -93.5
e. Has a non-zero, non negative value e. 0.0

28 The slope and deflection of the free 31 Find the value of slopes and
end of a cantilever beam as shown deflections at the free end of the
in the figure respectively are cantilever beam subjected to
moment M
a.
 ⁄ ,
' ⁄2
b.
 ⁄3 ,
' ⁄2
a. 7' ⁄2 , 7 ⁄3 c. 3
 ⁄ ,
' ⁄2
b. 3 7' ⁄2 , 7 ⁄
d.
 ⁄ ,
' ⁄3
c. 5 7' ⁄2 , 2 7 ⁄3
d. 7 ⁄2 , 7
⁄8
e. 7 ⁄2 , 7 ⁄3 32 Bending moment at any section in a
conjugate beam gives in actual
beam
29 A simply supported beam with
a. Slope
rectangular cross section is
b. Curvature
subjected to a central concentrated
c. Deflection
load . if the width and depth of the
d. Bending moment
beam are doubled, while retaining
e. Shear force
the same elastic properties, then

P a g e | 34
33 The slope and deflection at the free 38 According to Euler’s formula if E is
end of the cantilever beam loaded young’s modulus and K is
by concentrated point load slenderness ratio, crippling stress σ
a. 7' ⁄2 , 7 ⁄3 of the column is
37' ⁄2 , 7 ⁄
2
b. a. π E/ k
5 7' ⁄2 , 27 ⁄3
2 2
c. b. π E /k
7 ⁄2 , 7
⁄8
2 2
d. c. π E/ k
2
e. 7 ⁄2 , 7 ⁄3 d. π Ek

34 The linear force deformation 39 Both the ends of a compression

relation is obtained in materials member are completely restrained
having against rotation, but only one end is
a. Elastic stress strain property effectively held in position. The
b. Plastic stress strain property effective length is
c. Material follows hooks law a. 0.8L
d. Rigid elastic material b. 1.0L
c. 1.2 L
d. 1.5L
35 The variation of bending moment in
the segment of a beam when there
is no external load present is 40 Radius of gyration of a circular cross
a. Zero section of diameter 400mm shall be
b. Linear (about any of its diameter)
c. Parabolic a. 400 mm
d. cubic b. 300 mm
c. 200 mm
36 When a compressive force F is
d. 100 mm
applied suddenly on a member
having an area of cross section A
then the instantaneous stress will 41 The ratio of shear stress to shear
be strain is known as
a. F/A a. Poisson’s ratio
b. 2F / A b. Modulus of elasticity
c. F/A c. Bulk modulus
d. 2A / F d. Modulus of Rigidity

37 The moment of inertia is related to 42 The modulus of elasticity of steel is

5
the effective section area A and a. 2 x 10 MPa
3
radius of gyration r as b. 2 x 10 MPa
6
a. I = r.A c. 2 x 10 MPa
2 5
b. I = r .A d. 0.2 x 10 MPa
c. I = r/A
2 2
d. I=r xA

P a g e | 35
43 A point load W is acting at mid span 47 The temperature stress is a function
of a simply supported beam. Span of
of beam is L and moment of inertia 1. Coefficient of linear
is I. if the modulus of elasticity of expansion
the material is E, then the strain 2. Temperature rise
energy shall be 3. Modulus of elasticity
2 2
a. W L / 96EI a. 1, 2
2 2
b. W L / 48EI b. 2, 3
2 3
c. W L / 48EI c. 1, 3
2 3
d. W L / 96EI d. 1, 2, 3

44 A compressive force is applied on a 48 Principle stresses at a point in a

2
body and stress developed is p, if plane are σx and σy = 10000N / cm ,
the material of the body is elastic normal stress on a plane inclined at
having modulus of elasticity E, the 45° to x axis will be
strain energy per unit volume shall a. Zero
2
be b. 5000 N/cm
2 2
a. PE c. 10000 N/cm
2 2
b. 2P /E d. 20000 N/cm
2
c. P /E
2
d. P /2E 49 The maximum deflection of a simply
supported bema at zero --------
45 A cantilever beam of length L is a. Bending moment location
subjected to a point load W at its b. Shear force location
free end. The maximum deflection c. Slope location
shall be d. a, b both
3
a. WL / 3EI at fixed end e.
3
b. WL / 3EI at free end
3 50 The maximum deflection of a fixed
c. WL / 2EI at fixed end
3 beam carrying a central load W is
d. WL / 2EI at free end
equal to
3
a. WL / 48 EI
3
46 For a circular column having its ends b. WL / 96 EI
3
hinged, the slenderness ratio is 160, c. WL / 192 EI
3
the L/d ratio of the column is d. 5WL / 384 EI
a. 80
b. 57
51 A beam of triangular cross section is
c. 40
subjected to shear force of 100 KN,
d. 20
the base width of section is 250mm
and height of 200mm. the beam is
placed with its base horizontal. The
maximum shear stress would be

P a g e | 36
 2
a. 3 N/mm restrained at one end in position
2
b. 6 N/mm and direction and imperfectly
2
c. 9 N/mm restrained in both position and
2
d. 10 N/mm direction at other end
a. 0.751
52 A cylindrical strut of length 1.2m b. 0.641
and dia 30mm is hinged at both c. Between 0.751 to 1
ends, it is subjected to axial thrust d. Between 1 to 21
of 20 KN at its ends and a transverse
point load of 1.8 KN at the centre, if 50 The maximum deflection of a fixed
2
E=208 GN/m for the material, the beam carrying a central load W is
maximum stress induced would be equal to
2 3
a. 223 MN / m a. WL / 48 EI
2 3
b. 253 MN / m b. WL / 96 EI
2 3
c. 323 MN / m c. WL / 192 EI
2 3
d. 353 MN / m d. 5WL / 384 EI

53 A bar of diameter 30mm is 57 A simply supported beam AB of

subjected to a tensile load such that span L carries two concentrated
the measured extension on a gauge loads W each at a point L/3 from A
length of 200mm is 0.09mm and the and B. what is the shear force in the
change in diameter is 0.0045mm, middle one third portion of the
the poisson’s ratio will be beam
a. 1/ 4 a. W/2
b. 1/ 3 b. 2W
c. 1/ 5 c. W
d. 1/ 6 d. Zero
e.
58 For the beam shown in figure
5 8 4
54 What is the radius of Mohr’s circle E=2x10 MPa, I = 2 x 10 mm then
in case of biaxial state of stress the deflection at point c of beam
a. Half of the sum of the two principle will be (if span AC = 4m, CB=2m)
stresses
b. Half of the difference of the two
principle stresses
c. Difference of the two principle a. 3.33 mm upward
stresses b. 3.33 mm downward
d. b, c both c. 6.66 mm downward
d. 6.66 mm upward
55 What is the effective column length
if the type of column is properly

P a g e | 37
59 Given E as the young’s of elasticity d. All of the above
of a material, what can be the
minimum value of its bulk modulus 63 A fixed beam AB of length 6m, is
of elasticity carrying a point load of 50 KN at
a. E /2 centre. The moment of Inertia of
b. E/3 6 4
beam is 78 x 10 mm and E=2.1 x
c. E/4 5
10 Mpa. Then the deflection under
d. E/5 load would be
a. 0.43mm
60 What is the b. 1.43mm
bending c. 2.43mm
moment at A for d. 3.43mm
the bent column
shown in figure 64 A rectangular beam of width
below 100mm is subjected to maximum
a. 40 KNm shear force of 60 KN. The
b. 20 KNm corresponding maximum shear
c. 10 KNm stress in the cross section is
d. Zero 2
4N/mm . The depth of beam is
a. 150mm
61 Choose the correct statement b. 225mm
a. Euler’s formula hold good only for c. 243mm
short column d. 200mm
b. A short column is one which has e.
ratio of length to least radius of
gyration more than 100 65 A cantilever of length L carries a
c. A column with both end fixed has load whose intensity varies
minimum equivalent length uniformly from zero at free end to
d. The equivalent length of column W per unit length at fixed end, the
with one end fixed and other end bending moment diagram would be
hinged is half that of its actual a. Triangular
length b. Parabolic Curve
c. Cubic curve
62 When the stress and the young’s d. a,b both
modulus of elasticity remains
constant, the energy absorbing 66 The BMD draw on tension side for a
capacity of a part of structure beam is shown below.
subjected to dynamic force is
function of its
a. Length L
b. Cross section A
c. Volume V

P a g e | 38
 The shear force diagram for the and shear stress would be
beam will be a. Half
a. b. One
c. Two
d. Four
b.
70 A bar of diameter 30mm is
subjected to a tensile load such that
c. the measured extension on a gauge
length of 200mm is 0-.09mm and
the change in diameter is 0.0045
d. mm. The poisson’s ratio will be
a. 0.25
b. 0.33
c. 0.222
d. 0.5
67 A simply supported beam of span L e. None of the above
is subjected to a uniformly
distributed load w per unit length
throughout span and a point load P 71 Poisson’s ratio of an isotropic
at the centre of span, maximum material cannot be more than
bending occurs a. 1.0
a.
2
(PL/8 + wL /8 ) at support b. 0.5
b.
2
(PL/8 + wL /8 ) at mid span c. 0.4
c.
2
(PL/4 + wL /8 ) at support d. 0.33
d.
2
(PL/4 + wL /8 ) at mid span e. None of the above
72 In a rectangular shaft subjected to
68 A ratio of moment carrying capacity torsion, the maximum stress occurs
a circular beam of diameter D and at
square beam of size D is a. Centre
a. π /4 b. Corner
b. 3π /4 c. Middle of the smaller side
c. π /3 d. Middle of the longer side
d. 3π /16 e. None of the above
e.
73 Euler’s formula for a mild steel long
column hinged at both ends is not
69 A shaft was initially subjected to
valid for slenderness ratio
bending moment and then
a. Greater than 80
subjected to torsion. If the
b. Less than 80
magnitude of bending moment is
c. Greater than 180
found to be same as that of torque,
d. Greater than 120
then ratio maximum bending stress
e. None of the above

P a g e | 39
 78 If the principal stresses in a two
74 The problem of lateral buckiling can dimensional case are 10 MPa and
arise only in those steel beams 20 MPa respectively, then
which have maximum shear stress at the point
a. Moment of inertial about the is
bending axis smaller than the other a. 10 MPa
b. Moment of inertia about the b. 15 MPa
bending axis larger than the other c. 20 MPa
c. Moment of inertial about the d. 25 MPa
bending axis equal e. None of the above
d. Fully supported compression flange
e. None of the above.

75 A solid circular shaft is subjected to

a bending moment M and torque T.
the ratio of maximum bending
stress to the maximum shear stress
is given by
a. MT / 2
b. 2M / T
c. M / 2T
d. M/T
e. None of the above

76 For ductile materials, the most

appropriate failure theory is
a. Maximum shear stress theory
b. Maximum principle stress theory
c. Maximum principal strain theory
d. Shear strain energy theory
e. None of these

77 The maximum shear stress in a

rectangular beam is
a. 1.25 times the average shear stress
b. 1.50 times the average shear stress
c. 1.75 times the average shear stress
d. 2.0 times the average shear stress
e. None of these

P a g e | 40
 c. 100
d. 120
e. 20
Exam Question
CGSES – 2015 1-27
3 The length of a sedimentation tank
7
for treating 6 x 10 l/d of water and
CGHB-AE-2015 28-50
having a detention period of 5hr and
flow velocity of 15 cm/sec will be
CGHB- JE- 2015 51-59 a. 45m
b. 72m
c. 65m
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 60-69 d. 75m
e. 40m
CGSES – 2016 70-83
4 The area requirement in sq.m. of a
rapid sand filter bed (rate of
filtration is 5 cum/hr) for a town
having a population of 50000 with
1 The census records indicates the an average water demand of 200
current population of a town as l/day/head will be, assume that the
50000, while for the 3 consecutive filter bed is utilized for 24h/day
decades it was 47100(one decade a. 125
before), 43500 (two decades back), b. 25
41000(three decades back). Using c. 10000
the Arithmetic increase method, the d. 2083
probable population after one e. 50
decade should be
a. 53000 5 On comparing slow sand filter and
b. 53500 rapid sand filter, which of the
c. 53200 following is an incorrect statement
d. 53100 a. SSF requires larger area for its
e. 52000 installation
b. Cost of operation of RSF is lower
2 If the total hardness of a water c. Depreciation of SSF is lower
sample from complete analysis is d. SSF cannot meet variations in the
found to be 120 mg/l and the non- demand
carbonate hardness is 50 mg/l. then e. SSF requires cleaning at a frequency
the carbonate hardness shall be of one month
a. 170
b. 70

P a g e | 41
6 If the chlorination dose required for not for domestic purpose
disinfection is 0.25mg/l and a plant c. Is not contaminated
6
disinfects 10 x 10 l/d, then the per d. Can be used for concrete making
day requirement of bleaching e. Contains undesirable matters,
powder containing 25% useful making it unfit
chlorine
a. 10 kg 11 Which one of the following unit
b. 0.625 kg works in anaerobic condition
c. 25 kg a. Sludge digestion tank
d. 2.5 kg b. Sedimentation tank
e. 62.5 kg c. Activated sludge treatment
d. Trickling filter
7 For a given discharge, efficiency of e. Flocculation tank
sedimentation tank can be increased
by 12 The minimum dissolved oxygen
a. Increasing depth required for preserving the aquatic
b. Increasing surface area life in water is
c. Decreasing surface area a. 1 ppm
d. Both a & b b. 2ppm
e. None of these c. 4ppm
d. 8ppm
8 The most common cause of acidity e. 5ppm
in water is
a. Carbon di oxide 13 A sewage treatment plant mainly
b. Oxygen consists of
c. Nitrogen 1. Screening
d. Chlorine 2. Grit removal
e. Hydrogen 3. Secondary sedimentation
4. Aeration
9 Which one of the following is not a 5. Primary sedimentation
method of layout of distribution The correct sequence of operation
pipes for water distribution systems is
a. Tree system a. 1-2-3-4-5
b. Radial system b. 2-1-4-5-3
c. Ring system c. 3-4-1-2-5
d. Satellite system d. 1-2-5-4-3
e. Interlaced system e. 2-1-4-3-5

10 The polluted water is one which 14 The biochemical treatment of

a. Contains only pathogenic bacteria sewage effluent is essentially be a
b. Is safe and healthy for drinking but process of

P a g e | 42
a. Oxidation 19 Sewage may be disposed off
b. Dehydration without treatment into the water
c. Reduction body if the available dilution is
d. Alkalization a. < 150
e. Neutralization b. > 150
c. > 300
15 Write the correct sequence d. > 700
a. TOD>BOD>COD e. > 500
b. COD>TOD>BOD
c. BOD>COD>TOD 20 The BOD removal efficiency of
d. TOD>COD>BOD primary treatment unit under
e. COD>TOD>BOD normal conditions are
a. 65%
16 The two main gasses that evolve b. 55%
from an anaerobic sludge digestion c. 85%
tank include d. 30%
a. CH4 & CO2 e. 10%
b. CH4 & H2S
c. CH4 & NH3 21 Sewage sickness relates to
d. CH4 & H2O a. Toxicity of sewage
e. CO2 & NH3 b. Destruction of flora and fauna due
to gross water pollution
17 Aerosols are defined as c. Reduction of waste purifying
a. Finely divided liquid droplets or potential of soil
solid particle capable of remaining d. Sickness caused to animals due to
suspended in air non potable water
b. Toxic gases e. Clogging of pores in soil due to
c. Non toxic gases excessive application of sewage of
d. Finely divided liquid droplets land, obstructing aeration and
e. None of these leading to septic condition

18 Which of the following pollutant is 22 For a waste, the 5Day BOD at 20°C
responsible for ozone layer is 180 mg/l. for the same waste, the
depletion 5 day BOD at 32°C will be
a. Unburnt hydrocarbons a. = 180 mg/l
b. UV rays b. < 180 mg/l
c. CFC’s c. > 180 mg/l
d. Oxides of nitrogen d. 0 mg/l
e. Drinking water e. Negligible as the bacteria cannot
survive

P a g e | 43
23 A combined sewer is the one which d. Presence of free chlorine
carries domestic sewage and e. Ambient temperature (20 - 35° C)
a. Storm sewage
b. Industrial sewage 28 Arrange the following sequence
c. Overhead flow during chlorination of water in
d. Runoff water which ammonia is present
e. b & c both 1. NCl3
2. NH2Cl
24 The pain threshold of human ear is 3. NHCl2
a. 0db a. 1,2,3
b. 250db b. 2,3,1
c. 190 db c. 3,2,1
d. 180 db d. 2,1,3
e. 120db
29 If the total hardness of water is
25 The major source of CO in the urban greater than its total alkalinity than
atmosphere is due to its carbonate hardness will be equal
a. Decomposition of organics to
b. Chemical reaction between VOC a. Total alkalinity
and NOx b. Non carbonate
c. Human respiration c. Total hardness
d. Incomplete combustion of fuel d. None of these
e. Use of LPG for domestic purpose
30 Match the following
26 Cement manufacturing contributes
to manmade pollution by releasing a. 1,3,4,2
the following major pollutants b. 1,2,3,4
a. NOx c. 1,4,3,2
b. CO2 d. 2,1,4,3
c. H2O
d. CO 31 In activated sludge process, 1 MLD
e. Consumption of trees during its (by volume) of secondary sludege
production has to be returned to keep the
required MLSS concentration in the
27 Which of the following factor does aeration tank. This sludge has a
not contribute to internal corrosion water content of 99%, if sludge
of a water carrying pipe water content reduced to 98%,what
a. Water with low Ph volume of the sludge will be needed
b. Water containing high quantity of to recycle in (MLD)
calcium bicarbonate a. 0.25
c. Presence of oxygen b. 0.50

P a g e | 44
c. 0.75 d. 2X
d. 5.00 e.
e.
36 Write the correct sequence of
32 Write down the correct sequence as various growth phases in microbial
per the graph shown below- point C growth in batch cultures are
denotes break point
a. B,C,D,A A. Log growth phase
b. C,D,A,B B. Endogenous phase
c. D,C,B,A C. Stationary phase
d. A,B,C,D D. Decreasing rate of growth
phase
33 The flavor threshold number (FTN) E. Lag phase
and threshold Odour number (TON) a. D,C, B,A,E
for the drinking water should not b. E,A,D,C,B
exceed c. E,D,C,B,A
a. 3 d. B,D,C,A,E
b. 5
c. 4 37 For drinking water the amount of
d. 6 free ammonia should not exceed (in
ppm)
34 Which of the following parameters a. 0.15
are employed in the design of b. 0.30
Trickling Filter c. 0.45
A. Hydraulic loading rate d. 0.60
B. Organic loading rate
C. Detention time 38 Match the following
D. Weir loading rate a. 2,1,4,3
a. A,B b. 2,1,3,4
b. A,B,C,D c. 1,3,2,4
c. A,B,C d. 1,3,4,2
d. B,C
39 The following is not a primary
35 For the same solid content, if the pollutant
quantity of sludge with moisture a. SOx
content of 98% is X, then the b. NOx
quantity of sludge with moisture c. HC
content of 96% will be d. Ozone
a. X/4
b. X/2 40 In a public water supply scheme
c. X unaccounted for losses water

P a g e | 45
 should be limited to b. NHCL2 > NH2CL > OCL > HOCL
a. 10% c. OCL> HOCL> NH2CL > NHCL2
b. 15% d. NH2CL > OCL > NHCL2> HOCL
c. 5%
d. 12% 45 Rapid sand filter
1. Should be preceded by
41 A drain carrying sewage of BOD 200 coagulation & sedimentation
3
mg/l and flow rate of 50 m /s joins 2. Uses rapid sand as filter media
a river whose upstream BOD is 8 3. Is used after slow sand filtering
mg/l & complete miximng of drain has been done
with river. What is estimated 4. Should combine with
downstream BOD of the river flow disinfection also
in mg/l a. 1,2
a. 20.4 b. 3,4
b. 25.4 c. 1,4
c. 104.4 d. 2,3
d. 70.4
46 5ml of domestic wastewater sample
42 The following pollutants is missing was incubated at 27°C for 3 days.
from the National Ambient Air The initial DO was mg/l and final DO
Quality Standards (2009) was 2 mg/l. what was the 3 day
a. Total suspended particulate matters 27°C BOD of wastewater in (mg/l)
b. SO2 a. 60
c. NO2 b. 300
d. CO c. 250
d. 200
43 When coefficient of rugosity is
increased from 0.01 and 0.02, then 47 In ambient air CO was reported to
the gradient of a pipe of a given be 9ppm at 0°C & 1 atm pressure.
3
diameter to carry the same flow at The CO concentration in mg/m will
the same velocity will be be
a. Increased by 4 times a. 12.25
b. Increased by 2 times b. 15.25
c. Decreased by 2 times c. 14.75
d. Decreased by 4 tmes d. 16.5
48 The following zones are formed in a
44 The correct sequence of polluted river
effectiveness of chlorine 1 zone of clear water
compounds for the same contact 2. zone of active decomposition
time should be 3. zone of recovery
a. HOCL > OCL > NH2CL > NHCL2 4. zone of pollution

P a g e | 46
a. 4,2,1,3 54 No. of water closets used in office
b. 4,2,3,1 for male is
c. 2,4,3,1 a. 1 for 15 persons
d. 2,4,1,3 b. 2 for 20 persons
c. 1 for 5 persons
49 Which of the following treatment d. All of these
reduce salinity of water
1 flash mixing and sedimentation 55 Quantity of arsenic permissible in
2. electrodylasis drinking water must not be more
3. electrodylasis than
4. freezing a. 0.05 ppm
5. filtration b. 0.5 ppm
a. 1,2,3,4,5 c. 0.005 ppm
b. 2,3,4 d. 5ppm
c. 1,3,5
d. 1,2,4 56 The percentage ratio of the oxygen
available in sewage to the oxygen
51 If you want to prevent the bursting required to satisfy one stage of bio
& damage of the rising mains, the chemical oxygen demand is termed
most suitable valve provided is as
a. Relief valve a. Chemical oxygen demand
b. Gate valve b. Oxygen demand
c. Air vent valve c. Relative stability
d. None of these d. Bio chemical oxygen demand

52 In high rate activated sludge 57 Suspended impurities consists of

treatment unit bacterial removal a. Bacteria
efficiency is b. Iron
a. 20 – 40 % c. Chlorine
b. 40 – 60 % d. All of these
c. 60 – 80 % e.
d. 80 – 90 %
58 A reflux valve is also know as
53 The type of sewer to be laid by a. Safety valve
municipal corporation having b. Air valve
limited fund c. Scour valve
a. Brick made sewer d. Check valve
b. AC sewer
c. Cast iron sewer 59 The self cleaning velocity as
d. None of these recommended for Indian conditions
in order to prevent settling down of

P a g e | 47
 sewage at the bottom or onsides of 63 Find the population at the end of
a large sewer is (in m/s) 2021 by arithmetical increase
a. 0.25 method
b. 0.75 Year 1971 1981 1991 2001
poplation 100000 109000 116000 128000
c. 0.5
a. 140000
d. 5.25
b. 145000
c. 150000
60 What is required plan area of d. 155000
square sedimentation tank, given
that its effective depth is 3m & the
64 Total kjeldahl Nitrogen (TKN)
flow rate is 40 mld with admissible
2 concentration (mg/l as N) in
surface loading of 100000 l/m /day
2 domestic sewage is sum of the
( in m )
concentration of
a. 25 x 25
a. Organic & inorganic Nitrogen in
b. 30 x 30
sewage
c. 20 x 20
b. Organic Nitrogen & Nitrite in
d. 15 x 15
sewage
e.
c. Organic Nitrogen & Ammonia in
sewage
61 A drain carrying sewage of BOD d. Ammonia & Nitrate in sewage
3
200mg/l & flow rate of 50m /s joins
a river whose upstream BOD is
3 65 A city supply of 15000 cum of water
8mg/l and flow rate is 500 m /s.
per day is treated with a chlorine
assume immediate & complete
dose of 0.5ppm, for this purpose
mixing of drain with river. What is
the requirement of 25% bleaching
estimated downstream BOD of the
powder per day would be (in kg)
river flow (in mg/l)
a. 300
a. 20.4
b. 75
b. 25.4
c. 30
c. 104.4
d. 7.5
d. 70.4

66 Match the following

62 By sanitation in the planning of
a. 3,4,1,2
building means
b. 3,4,2,1
a. Proper drainage of sewage &
c. 4,3,2,1
disposal
d. 4,3,1,2
b. Proper lighting of rooms by natural
means
c. Cleanliness of wall using proper
texture & proper ventilation of 67 Arrange the following in water
rooms supply system begins with the
d. All of the above municipal waste mains

P a g e | 48
 1. Stop cock 100mm, the gradient required for
2. Goose cock generating self cleansing velocity is
3. Ferrule a. 1 in 60
4. Water meter b. 1 in 100
a. 1,2,3,4 c. 1 in 120
b. 3,1,2,4 d. 1 in 150
c. 3,2,1,4 e. None of these
d. 1,2,4,3
72 The per capita water demand
68 An aeration basin with a volume of include
3
400 m contains mixed liquor a. Domestic water demand only
suspended solid concentration of b. Domestic as well as commercial
1000 mg/l. the amount of mixed water demand
liquor suspended solids (MLSS) in c. Domestic, commercial as well as
the tank is ( in kg) industrial water demand
a. 500 d. Domestic as well as industrial water
b. 250 demand
c. 6600 e. None of these
d. 400
73 For a grit chamber, if the
69 A certain amount of water needs recommended velocity of flow is
alum treatment to the extent of 10 0.2m/sec, and detention period is
ppm. How much alum in quintals 2min, the length of the tank is
per day would be needed to treat a. 30m
20 MLD of water b. 24m
a. 20 c. 20m
b. 2 d. 16m
c. 200 e. None of these
d. 2000
74 Sewage treatment units are
70 In urban air pollution, the most generally designed for
poisonous gas is supposed to be a. Maximum flow only
carbon monoxide it is hazardous b. Minimum flow only
because c. Average flow only
a. It affects our sense of smell d. Maximum and minimum flow both
b. It is carcinogenic in nature e. None of these
c. It combines with haemoglobin
d. It causes blindness 75 Ventilation of house drainage is
e. None of these required to
a. Dilute the foul air in the drain
71 If the diameter of a sewer is b. Reduce the obnoxious effects of

P a g e | 49
 foul air in a separate sewerage system is
c. Relieve the pressure of foul gasses a. Rectangular
d. All of the above a, b, c b. Circular
e. None of these c. New egg-shaped
d. Parabolic
76 The coagulant which is generally not e. None of these
used for treating the sewage is
a. Alum
b. Ferric chloride 81 Disinfection of water with ozone is
c. Ferric sulphate not good because
d. Chlorinated copperas a. It removes the colour, taste and
e. None of these odour from water as bacterias
b. It vanishes before water reaches the
77 The device, which can be used to consumers
control gaseous as well as c. It is more active than chlorine in
particulate pollutants in the killing bacterias
industrial emission, is called d. It adds peculiar taste to the water
a. Cyclone e. None of these
b. Spray tower
c. Dynamic precipitator
d. Fabric filter
e. None of these 82 Waters are considered spft if their
hardness does not exceed
a. 75 ppm
b. 300 ppm
78 For plain chlorination of water, the c. 400 ppm
quantity of chorine, used is d. 500 ppm
a. 0.5 mg/ltr e. None of these
b. 0.4 mg/ltr
c. 0.3 mg/ltr 83 Safe water is the one which does
d. 0.2 mg/ltr not contain
e. None of these a. Pathogenic bacteria
b. Turbidity
79 The sewage in oxidation ponds, is c. Any taste
treated by d. Any colour
a. Aerobic bacteria action e. Any odour
b. Sedimentation
c. Action of algae
d. Oxidation
e. Both a and c

80 The most suitable section of a sewer

P a g e | 50
 served with canal irrigation
b. Tube wells can be privately owned
c. Tubewell construction is faster and
Exam Question requires less funds
d. Land acquisition is less
CGSES – 2015 1-24 e. Tube well water is much cheaper to
canal water
CGHB-AE-2015 25-43
4 Specific capacity of a well
CGHB- JE- 2015 a. Decrease with the diameter
b. Increase with discharge rate
c. Varies linearly with the drawdown
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 44-45 d. Decrease with time from the start of
pumping
CGSES – 2016 46-57 e. Is same as well irrespective of their
design

5 If a paddy crop requires 12cm depth

1 Permeable spur’s are best suited for of water at an average interval of 10
rivers which days and the crop period of 120
a. Carry heavy suspended load days, the total depth of water
b. Carry large bed load, but light (Delta) required for the crop to
suspended load achieve its maturity is
c. Need permanent protection of Dikes a. 120cm
d. Need attracting the river current b. 12cm
e. Flow in upper hilly reaches c. 144cm
d. 100cm
2 The diameter of an open well in e. 90cm
coarse sand of yield of 0.0033
cumec, when operated under a 6 Bed load is a term used to describe
depression head of 3m. in a medium a. Contact load + wash load
of specific capacity (C/A) in b. Contact + saltation load
cumec/hr/sqm/m is c. Contact load + suspended load near
0.5
a. 2/ π the bed
0.5
b. 4/ π d. Bed material load
c. 4/ π e. Wash load only
d. 2/ π
0.5
e. 6/ π
7 Following are the advantages of
canal lining except
3 Tube well irrigation has the a. Control of seepage
following advantage except b. Prevention of water logging
a. Serves isolated land that cannot be
P a g e | 51
c. Reduction in maintenance cost masonry gravity dam is
d. Decrease in command area a. Water seeping below foundation of
e. Increase in channel capacity and dam
command area b. Generation of waves by high winds
c. Deposition of silt in high storage
8 Meander ratio in an alluvial zone of the reservoir
meandering river is given by d. Water standing against d/s face of
a. ( M L / MB ) the dam
b. ( MB / ML ) X 100 e. Water standing against u/s face of
c. ( M B / ML ) the dam
d. (MB / (ML - MB )
e. None of these 13 Leakage through the transverse
joint in a gravity dam is prevented
9 A geological formation which not by
yield freely water to the well is a. Shear keys
called as b. Water props
a. Aquifer c. Key ways
b. Aquiclude d. Joint sealants
c. Aquifuse e. Proper instumentations
d. Aquitard
e. Perched aquifer 14 Coordination between the field and
design engineer to ensure
10 Granite rock, which is negligibly continuous field observations and
porous and highly impermeable and modifications in design during
hence neither contains nor yields construction, is more importantly
ground water is an example of required in case of
a. Aquifer a. Concrete gravity dams
b. Aquicllude b. Masonry dams
c. Aquifuse c. Arch dams
d. Aquitard d. Rockfill dams
e. Perched aquifer e. Earthern dams

11 Earthern dams are 15 Which of the following spill ways is

a. Rigid dams least suited for earthen dams
b. Overflow dams a. Ogee
c. Non rigid dams b. Chute
d. Diversion dams c. Side channel
e. Reinforced with steel d. Shaft
e. Bell mouth

12 The factor among the following

which does not try to destabilize a

P a g e | 52
16 The discharge passing over an ogee 20 An irrigation project is classified as a
spill way, per unit length of its apex major project, when the culturable
line, is proportional to command( in hectares) involved in
2
a. H the project is more than
0.5
b. H a. 2000
1.5
c. H b. 5000
2.5
d. H c. 7500
3.0
e. H d. 10000
e. 15000
17 Khosla’s theory of dependent
variables is used in the design of 21 The appropriate value of estimated
a. Weir and barrages average life(yr) of a dam reservoir is
b. Modules a. 25
c. Cross regulators and head b. 50
regulators c. 75
d. a,c both d. 100
e. a, b, c all e. 150

18 A land is said to be water logged

when 22 The height of a proposed dam is
a. The land is submerged under increased, usually the cost per unit
standing water of storage
b. The Ph of soil becomes > 8.5 a. Increases
c. There is a flowing water over the b. Decreases
land c. Initially increases then decreases
d. The pH of soil becomes <6 d. Initially decreases than increases
e. The soil pores in the root zone get e. Remains unaffected
saturated with water, either by the
actual water table or by its capillary
fringe 23 A fish ladder is provided in a canal
project is
a. Catch the fish for commercial
19 An irrigation canal, freely flowing purposes
under a drainage channel is called b. Serve the same purpose as canal
as ladder
a. Aquaduct c. Enable the fish to move freely and
b. Syphone aquaduct safety in the river
c. Super passage d. Catch the fish in bulk for breeding
d. Canal crossing purpose
e. Canal junction e. Stop pollution

P a g e | 53
24 The minimum depth (m) of water 29 In the ogee shaped spillway, the
required for safe and economical discharge is proportional to
navigation is a. H
1/2
a. 1 b. H
3/2
b. 1.5 c. H
5/2
c. 2 d. H
d. 2.7
e. 3.5 30 When the levels are such that FSL of
canal is much above the bed level of
25 Which of the following method has drain trough, so that the canal runs
not been used to cut off ground under symphonic action under the
water trough, the structure provided is
a. Diaphragm well a. Syphon aquaduct
b. Slurry trench b. Super passage
c. Tremie seals c. Canal siphon
d. Well point system d. Aquaduct

26 Superstructure of a bridge includes 31 Due to topography, if the space is

a. Bearings not available, the most suitable
b. Bed block spillway is
c. Pier a. Ogee spillway
d. Girder b. Shaft spillways
c. Chute spillway
27 If the HFL of drain is much below d. Straight drop spillway
the bottom of the canal trough,
which type of cross drainage work is 32 The depth of water at the canal
suitable outlet is 30cm, while conveyance
a. Aquaduct losses are 20% and actual depth of
b. Siphon aquaduct water is 16cm then the irrigation
c. Siphon efficiency is the following
d. Super passage a. 60%
b. 70%
28 A d/s slope of homogenous earth c. 80%
dam is affected by seepage to a d. 90%
height of roughly the following, the
depth of the reservoir pool
rd
a. 1/3 33 If the field capacity of soil is 27%,
th
b. 1/4 optimum moisture content is 16.6%,
th
c. 1/5 depth of root zone is 75cm, density
th
d. 1/6 3
of soil is 1.5 gm/cm . Calculate the
depth of irrigation

P a g e | 54
a. 11.7 cm 39 The width, length of meander as
b. 10.0 cm well as width of the river, vary
c. 12.1 cm approximately with
d. 9.0 cm a. Q
1/2
b. Q
3/2
34 The most important parameter for c. Q
2
irrigation water quality is d. Q
a. Hardness
b. Salinity 40 Rivers on alluvial plains may be
c. Alkalinity a. Aggrading type
d. DO b. Degrading type
c. Meandering type
35 The measure adopted to reclaim the d. All of them
water logged areas is
a. Installation of lift irrigation schemes 41 A d/s slope of homogenous earth
b. Lining of canals dam is affected by seepage to a
c. Lowering the fully supply level height of roughly the following, the
d. All of these depth of the reservoir pool
rd
a. 1/3
th
36 Natural silt transporting channels b. 1/4
th
have a tendency to assume a c. 1/5
th
section d. 1/6
a. Semi elliptical
b. Elliptical 42 Which of the following sets is used
c. Circular to control the seepage through the
d. Trapezoidal foundation of an earthern dam
a. Chimney drain, u/s blanket, cut off
37 A canal which is aligned at right trench
angles to the contour is called b. Cut off sheet piles, u/s blanket, cut
a. Contour canal of trench
b. Branch canal c. u/s blanket, chimney drains, cutoff
c. Side slope canal sheet piles
d. None of these d. Relief well only

38 When a river flows in a plain 43 Canal bed level (thickness of culvert

country, its stage is known as + depth of culvert) = level of floor of
a. Delta a. Super passage
b. Boulder b. Aquaduct
c. Rocky c. Syphone aquaduct
d. Trough d. Spillway

P a g e | 55
44 The water way between the aligned along
extreme edges of water surface at a. Ridge line
the highest flood level measured at b. Contour line
right angles to the abutment faces is c. Valley line
a. Linear waterway d. Straight line
b. Effective waterway e. None of these
c. Minimum vertical clearance
d. Restricted waterways 49 Water logging is eliminated by
a. Deep ploughing
45 Identify the correct expression for b. Shallow ploughing
estimating mean scour depth in c. Irrigation
meters d. Providing tile drains
2 1/4
a. Dm = 1.43 (Db / Ksf ) e. None of these
2 1/3
b. Dm = 1.32 (Db / Ksf )
2 1/3
c. Dm = 1.34 (Db / Ksf ) 50 A core wall is provided in
2 1/3
d. Dm = 1.39 (Db / Ksf ) a. An earth dam
b. A canal regulator
c. An aqueduct
46 The depth of water table at a place d. A gravity dam
is 45m below the general ground e. None of these
level. To lift water from a deep tube
well in such a locality, the type of 51 If Vo is the critical velocity of a
pump to be installed is channel, then according to
a. Reciprocating pump kennedy’s theory, its silt
b. Centrifugal pump transportation power is
c. Deep well turbine pump proportional to
1/2
d. Both a & b a. Vo
3/2
e. None of these b. Vo
5/2
c. Vo
7/2
47 If the irrigation efficiency is 80%, d. Vo
conveyance losses are 20% and the e. None of these
actual depth of watering is 16 cm,
the depth of the water required at 52 A structure for dropping the flow
the canal outlet, is into the conduit to a lower level for
a. 10 cm dissipating surplus energy it is called
b. 15 cm a. Drift
c. 20 cm b. Barrage
d. 25 cm c. Drop
e. None of these d. Sluice
e. None of these
48 Irrigation canals are generally

P a g e | 56
53 BLIGH’S theory of seepage assumes b. Pathogenic bacteria
a. Equal weightage to the horizontal c. Colour
and vertical creep d. Odour
b. More weightage to the horizontal e. None of these
creep than vertical creep
c. Less weightage to horizontal creep
than vertical creep
d. Loss of head follows the sine curve
e. None of these

54 The trap efficiency of a reservoir is a

function of
a. Inflow into the reservoir
b. Ratio of inflow to storage capacity
c. Ratio of reservoir capacity to inflow
d. Reservoir capacity
e. None of these

55 Specific capacity of a well is the

a. Discharge per unit draw down of
the well
b. Drawdown per unit discharge of the
well
c. Volume of water that can be
extracted by the force of gravity
d. Rate of flow through a unit width
and entire thickness of aquifer
e. None of these

56 In sarda type fall, the following crest

may be used for discharge upto 20
cumecs.
a. Ogee
b. Bell mouth
c. Trapezoidal
d. Rectangular
e. None of these

57 Filtration of water is done to

remove
a. Turbidity

P a g e | 57
 e. Decrease in the surface slope of the
river above the leveed reach

Exam Question 4 A catchment area has 25% each of

CGSES – 2015 1-12 water tight roofs (K=0.9), areas with
many buildings (K=0.8), gardens
(K=0.1), forest land (K=0.05). what is
CGHB-AE-2015 13-17 the average impermeability factor
for the area ? (K=impermeability
CGHB- JE- 2015 factor)
a. 0.050
b. 0.090
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 c. 0.080
d. 0.463
CGSES – 2016 18-21 e. 0.450

5 Dicken’s formula for high flood

discharge is useful for catchments in
1 For a flood control reservoir, the a. Southern india
effective storage is equal to b. Northern india
a. Useful storage + valley storage c. Western india
b. Useful + valley - surcharge storage d. Eastern india
c. Useful – valley + surcharge storage
d. Valley + surcharge storage
6 The isohyets for annual rainfall over
e. Useful – valley storage
a catchment basin indicate the
following
2 Evaporation is measured by using Isohyets : Area
a. Raingauge 45-55 cm, 500 sq.km
b. An open pan 55-65 cm, 1000 sq.km
c. Lysimeter 65-75 cm, 2000 sq.km
d. Infiltrometer The approximate average annual
e. Neuron tube precipitation depth (in cm) over the
basin is
3 Which of the following effects a. 52.25
cannot be attributed to have been b. 65.25
caused by the construction of dikes c. 69.29
along a river course d. 59.29
a. Faster travel of a flood wave e. 64.28
b. Higher flood levels along the river
c. Increased peak discharges all along
the d/s points
d. Decrease in meander belt

P a g e | 58
7 Which of the following factor 11 In india, average annual rainfall is
doesn’t effect the water infiltration the mean of the annual rainfalls
of a formation measured over a period of how
a. Thickness of a saturated layer many years
b. Wind velocity a. 14
c. Temperature b. 10
d. Vegetation cover c. 20
e. Washing of fines d. 30
e. 35
8 During a storm, the rates of rainfall
observed at a frequency of 15 min 12 A laser Doppler anemometer is
for one hour are 12.5, 17.5, 22.5, 7.5 device used to measure
cm/hr, if the Ø index is 7.5 cm/hr, a. Turbulent velocity fluctuations in a
then the total runoff will be flow
a. 22.50 b. Wind direction
b. 15.00 c. Shear stress
c. 30.00 d. Drag force
d. 7.50 e. Surface tension of fluid
e. 3.75
13 A plot between rainfall intensity
9 A flood of magnitude has a period of versus time is called
30 yrs. The permeability of its a. Hydrograph
exceedance is b. Hyetograph
a. 30.0000 c. Mass curve
b. 0.0330 d. Isohyets
c. 0.0660
d. 0.0990 14 The capacity of a storage reservoir
e. 0.1200 can be decided by using the
following
10 A hydrograph represents a. The mass curve of inflow
a. Variation of snow fall over time b. The mass curve of outflow
b. Variation of hydraulic jump c. a, b both
c. Variation of water temperature d. None of these
against discharge
d. Variation of sediment concentration 15 Muskingham’s method of flood
against river discharge routing is a
e. Variation of river discharge over a. Hydraulic channel routing method
time b. Hydrologic channel routing method
c. Hydrologic reservoir routing
method
d. a, b both

P a g e | 59
16 Lysimeter is used to measure 21 The run off is affected by
a. Infiltration a. The size of basin
b. Evaporation b. Shape of basin
c. Evapotranspiration c. Elevation of water shed
d. Vapour pressure d. All the above a, b, c
e. None of these
17 If actual rainfall in a particular year
is 50cm and the average annual
rainfall in that area is 75cm, then
the index of wetness is
a. 150%
b. 66.7%
c. 33.33 %
d. 100.0%
e. 50.0%

18 Precipitation caused due to upward

movement of warmer air as
compared to surrounding air, is
called
a. Cyclonic precipitation
b. Convective precipitation
c. Orographic precipitation
d. a. and b. both
e. None of these

19 Evaporation is maximum
a. When the temperature is very low
b. When its raining
c. When the temperature is high
d. During night
e. None of these

20 Hydrograph is a graphical
representation of
a. Surface run off
b. Rainfall
c. Ground water flow
d. Discharge flowing in the river
e. None of these

P a g e | 60
 Supposing a maximum value of ade
ompensation gradient in % , for this
road would be
a. 5.00
Exam Question
b. 1.25
CGSES – 2015 1-4 c. 4.75
d. 3.75
CGHB-AE-2015 5-9 e. 3.00

CGHB- JE- 2015 10-15 4 On a level stretch designed for

design speed of 54 kmph, if the
reaction time of the driver is 2.5s
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 16-25 and the braking distance is 30m,
then the safe stopping sight distance
is
CGSES – 2016 25-32
a. 61.5m
b. 21.6m
c. 51.6m
1 According to IS 73, the paving d. 67.5m
bitumen should be homogeneous e. 12m
and shall not foam when heated to -
-- degree centigrade 5 Alligator cracking is mainly due to
a. 160 a. Fatigue
b. 170 b. Foundation failure
c. 180 c. Excessive bitumen
d. 200 d. Bitumen deficiency
e. 175 e. None of these

2 While aligning a highway in a built 6 Determine the optimum cycle length

up area, it was necessary to prode a if the sum of the ratio’s of normal
horizontal circular curve of radius flows to saturation flow of two
375m. The design speed is 75 kmph. directional flow is 0.75 and the total
What is the super elevation rate lost time per cycle is 8 sec.
a. 0.200 a. 68 sec
b. 0.0667 b. 60 sec
c. 0.1600 c. 80 sec
d. 0.0600 d. 90 sec
e. 0.0750
7 Determine the no. of potential
3 While aligning a hill road with a conflicts having two way traffic
ruling gradient of 5%, a horizontal operation if road A consists of 2
urve f dius 60m is encountered.
P a g e | 61
 lanes and road B consists of 4 lanes 2. Kerbs
a. 24 3. Head light sight distance
b. 32 4. Radius of horizontal curve
c. 16 a. Only 1
d. 11 b. 1,2,3,4
c. 1,2
8 Match the following d. 2,4

a. 4,3,2,1 12 Determine the total extra widening

b. 2,3,4,1 required for a four lane divided
c. 1,2,3,4 carriageway, having a longest wheel
d. 1,3,2,4 base of vehicle is 7.0m and
psychological widening of 0.450m
9 Depression of flexible pavement a. 0.590m
along the wheel path due to b. 0.520m
repetitive traffic load applications is c. 0.440m
known as d. 0.575m
a. Faulting
b. Distortion 13 Softening point test is performed to
c. Raveling identify following property
d. Rutting a. Durability
b. Volatile temperature
c. Temperature susceptibility
d. Solubility
10 Pickup the incorrect statements
Improper alignment of highway
would result in:
1. Increase in construction 14 The critical stress concentration in
cost rigid pavement design at corner
2. Decrease in accident rate region is the following
3. Increase in vehicle 1 Load stress + warping stress +
operation cost frictional stress
4. Decease in maintenance 2 Load stress + warping stress -
cost frictional stress
a. 1,4 3 Load stress + warping stress
b. 1,3 4 Load stress - warping stress +
c. 2,4 frictional stress
d. 2,3 a. 1,3
b. 4
11 Identify the highway cross section c. 3
elements from the following d. 2,3
1. Camber

P a g e | 62
15 Interface treatments for bituminous a. 413 veh/hr/lane
pavement construction are b. 697 veh/hr/lane
a. Prime coat and tack coat c. 145 veh/hr/lane
b. Penetration macadam and built up d. 86 veh/hr/lane
spray grout
c. Surface dressing and seal coat 20 The surface dressing over an
d. Bituminous concrete and mastic existing worn-out flexible pavement
asphalt is known as
a. Prime coat
16 Bull dozers are mainly used for b. Seal coat
a. Spreading earth fill and clearing c. Tack coat
work d. Grout coat
b. Removing wet soil
c. Excavation work 21 Maximum number of vehicles can
d. Clearing rock soil be parked with
a. 60° parking
17 The length of a transition curve is b. 90° parking
given by the relation L = c. 45° parking
Notations have their usual meaning d. 75° parking
3
a. V / CR
3
b. 3V / CR 22 Identify the suitable non destructive
3
c. V / 2CR in situ dynamic test for assessing
d. V / CR the structural performance and
18 Calculate the length of transition integrity of pavements
curve if shift of transition curve is a. Dynamic cone penetration test
0.75mm and radius of transition b. Skid resistance test
curve is 350m. radius of circular c. Bump integrator
curve is 175m for a design speed of d. Falling weight deflectometer
70 kmph
a. 76.38 m 23 Most suitable material for highway
b. 75.6 m embankment is
c. 37.8 m a. Silt
d. 56.12 m b. Granular soil
c. Organic soil
19 Estimate the capacity of a PMGSY d. clay
road having a design speed of 60 e.
kmph. The average length of truck is
9.0m. the reaction time is 2.5 24 Calculate the subgrade modulus of
seconds and coefficient of lateral pavement in N/m2 , if a maximum
friction is 0.15 and coefficient of wheel load of 4 ton is applied on a
longitudinal friction is 0.40 rigid plate which undergoes a

P a g e | 63
 deflection value of 22mm. (Assume c. Equivalent single axle load
a tire pressure of 0.7 MN/m2) d. Equivalent standard axle loads
6
a. 5.06 x 10 e. None of these
6
b. 6.01 x 10
6
c. 4.29 x 10 29 One of the probable causes of
6
d. 5.25 x 10 rutting on flexible pavements is
a. Use of flaky aggregates in the
25 Minimum width of the pavement on wearing course
a national highway should be b. Excessive stripping of binder
a. 4.7m material from the wearing course
b. 5.7m c. Inadequate compaction of
c. 6.7m pavement layers
d. 7.7m d. High wind speeds
e. None of these
26 The design speed of a highway is
80KM/hr and the radius of circular
curve is 150m in plain topography. 30 Grade compensation on curves in
Which one of the following is the Indian railways for broad gauge is
minimum length of transition curve a. 0.02% per degree of curve
a. 115m b. 0.04% per degree of curve
b. 85m c. 0.06% per degree of curve
c. 64m d. 0.4% per degree of curve
d. 43m e. None of these
e. None of these 31 The super elevation needed for a
vehicle travelling at a speed of
27 Bitumen grade 80/100 indicates 60kmph on a curve of radius 128m
that under the standard test on a surface with a coefficient of
conditions, penetration value of friction of 0.15 is
bitumen would vary from a. 0.71
a. 8mm to 10mm b. 0.15
b. 8cm to 10cm c. 0.22
c. 0.8mm to 1.0mm d. 0.0
d. 0.08mm to 0.1mm e. None of these
e. None of these
32 The reaction time for calculation of
28 As per IRC guidelines for designing stopping distance may be assumed
flexible pavement by CBR method, as
the load parameter required a. 5 sec
depends on b. 2.5 sec
a. Number of vehicles (all types) c. 0.22 sec
during design life d. Zero
b. Number of commercial vehicles only e. None of these
per day

P a g e | 64
 c. Excessive creep, jammed joints and
sun kinks in welded tracks
d. No frequent lubrication to SEJ’s
e. None
Exam Question
CGSES – 2015 1-8
4 The density of sleepers mainly
depends upon all except one of the
CGHB-AE-2015 9-14 following
a. Axle load the rail track is designed to
CGHB- JE- 2015 carry
b. The nature of sleeper and the
materials used
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 15-23 c. Lateral thrust of locomotives
d. Speed of the train
e. Climatic variations
CGSES – 2016 24-28
5 The top width of a rail track
embankment or bottom width of
cutting, excluding the side drains is
1 Creep in rails causes the following called as
except a. Shoulder width
a. The ballast is forced out of place b. Gauge offset
b. Rail joints get jammed and prevent c. Formation width
expansion of rails d. Safe signal distance
c. The ride becomes bumpy and e. Track width
uncomfortable
d. The gauge length remains the same
6 On Indian railways, the maximum
e. It becomes difficult to operate
gradient permitted in station yards is
switches and interlocking system
1 in
a. 150
2 The standard gauge width for board b. 100
gauge is c. 200
a. 1.2m d. 250
b. 1.767m e. 400
c. 1.752m
d. 1.676m
7 Maximum cant deficiency prescribed
e. 1.525m
on Indian board gauge railways is
a. 40mm
3 Which of the following is not a major b. 50mm
cause of buckling of rail tracks c. 60mm
a. Installation beyond specified rail d. 150mm
temperature range e. 100mm
b. Water logging of rails
P a g e | 65
 12 Identify the correct sequence of
8 The maximum degree of curvature signals when a train passes through
for broad gauge as permissible by a station without stopping
the Indian railways in degrees and a. Warner- starter – advance starter –
arc length are home – outer
a. 10°, 175m b. Warner – outer – home – starter –
b. 16°, 109m advance starter
c. 6°, 44m c. Warner – advance starter – home –
d. 20°, 275m outer – starter
e. 11°, 195m d. Warner – home – outer – starter –
advance starter

9 In double cross overs, the crossing

provided are 13 The distance between the last stop
1. 6 acute angle crossings signal of one block and the first stop
2. 2 obtuse angle crossings signal of the block next in advance is
3. 4 acute angle crossings defined as the following in space
4. 4 obtuse angle crossings interval controlling system
a. 1,3 a. Station section
b. 1,2 b. Centralized section
c. 2,4 c. Track section
d. 1,4 d. Block section

10 Determine the super elevation of 14 Temporary staging for casting PSC

broad gauge track, if the box girder for a ROB over the
equilibrium speed of the track in railway span shall be removed
80kmph and having a chord length a. After stressing the cables
of 675m with versine of curve 137m b. Before stressing the cables
a. 206mm c. Before hardening of concrete
b. 203mm d. After hardening of concrete
c. 210mm
d. 200mm
15 The distance between the adjacent
faces of the stock rail and the check
11 The load transferring device at a rail rail is known as
joint from one rail to other rail is a. Heel clearance
a. Ties b. Flange way clearance
b. Ballast c. Flange way depth
c. Fish plate d. Throw of switch
d. Fish bolt

P a g e | 66
16 The composite vertical support 21 The distance between theoretical
stuffness of the rails consisting of nose crossing and toe of switch is
fasteners, ties, ballast, sub ballast known as
and sub grade is known as a. Curve lead
a. Track stiffness b. Crossing lead
b. Track modulus c. Switch lead
c. Lateral track stability d. None of these
d. Creep modulus
22 If the shift curve is 0.795m and
17 The device which ensures the length of transition curve is 85m.
mechanical relationship for the determine the extra width required
lateral movement of tongue rails on BG track having a wheel base of
simultaneously locomotive is 6.0m and wheel
a. Detector diameter of 1.5m along a flange
b. Point lock depth of 3.17cm
c. Lock bar a. 1.420 cm
d. Stretcher bar b. 0.87 cm
c. 3.38 cm
18 The portion of main platform on d. None of these
branch line is known as
a. Passenger platform 23 The distance between the running
b. Goods platform falls of the stock rail and gauge fall
c. Wayside station of the tongue rail at heel of the
d. Dock platform switch is
a. Flange way clearance
19 The maximum speed based on track b. Flange way depth
conditions, type of traction, c. Heel divergence
standards of signaling and d. Throw of switch
interlocking etc. is known as
a. Maximum sectional speed
b. Maximum sanctioned speed 24 Various surveys conducted to lay a
c. Maximum operational new railway line are
d. Safe speed a. Location survey
b. Reconnaissance survey
20 The aggregate layer placed between c. Preliminary survey
tier is known as d. All of the above
a. Top ballast e. None of these
b. Bottom ballast
c. Crib ballast
d. Sub ballast
e.

P a g e | 67
25 A railway yard in which wagons are
received, sorted and new trains are
formed is called a
a. Goods yard
b. Marshalling yard
c. Station yard
d. Shunting yard
e. None of these

26 Number of bolts in fish plate is

generally
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 8
e. None of these

27 The negative super elevation is

provided on a
a. Branch line
b. Main line
c. Transition curve
d. Both b and c
e. None of these

28 Apron is the area meant for

a. Loading of cargo
b. Parking of aircrafts
c. Unloading of passengers
d. All of the above
e. None of these

P a g e | 68
 this pipe reduces to 1.5m diameter,
what is the ratio of the velocities in
these pipes
Exam Question a. 0.25
b. 0.03
CGSES – 2015 1-32 c. 0.05
d. 0.30
CGHB-AE-2015 e. None

CGHB- JE- 2015 4 Which of the following is not a

method of drawing flownets
a. Analytical method
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 b. Helle shaw method
c. Relaxation method
CGSES – 2016 33-44 d. Electrical analogy method
e. Chezy’s method

5 Which of the following is not true

1 If the surface tension of a soap air regarding frictional resistance in a
interface is 0.09N/m, the difference laminar flow in pipes
between the internal and external a. Depends on the velocity of flow
pressure in the soap bubble of 3 cm b. Dependent on pressure
diameter is c. Proportional to the area of surface
a. 22 in contact
b. 20 d. Is independent of the nature of the
c. 24 contact surface
d. 30 e. Is affected by the temperature of
e. 36 the following fluid

2 Aneroid barometer measures 6 In a horizontal rectangular channel,

a. Local atmospheric pressure if the Froude number of an incoming
b. Standard atmospheric pressure supercritical flow is 6, then the jump
c. Difference between standard and so formed will be
local atm. Pressure a. Undular
d. Absolute pressure b. Weak
e. Vaccum pressure c. Steady
d. Strong
3 If 60000cum of water flows per min e. Oscillating
through a pipe of diameter 3m and if

P a g e | 69
7 The hydraulic radius (in m) of a d. Always the planform area
rectangular channel 2.5m wide e. Lateral area
carrying water to a depth of 1.25m is
a. 2.0 12 Stokes law is valid upto a maximum
b. 5.0 Reynolds number of
c. 0.50 a. 0.1
d. 0.625 b. 1
e. 1.20 c. 2000
d. 20
8 The bernoullis equation is written e. 500000
2
with usual notation (p/ɣ + V /2g + Z)
= constant. In this equation , each of 13 In a turbulent flow in a pipe, the
the terms represent energy in shear stress is
a. Kg-m/kg mass of fluid a. Maximum at centre and decreases
b. N-m/kg mass of fluid linearly towards the wall
c. N-m/N weight of fluid b. Maximum at centre and decreases
d. kW/kg mass of fluid logarithmically towards wall
e. Unit less quantities c. Maximum midway between the
centerline and wall
9 The dimension of surface tension are d. Maximum at wall and deceases
-2
a. MT logarithmically towards centre
2
b. MT e. Maximum at wall and decreases
-2
c. MLT linearly to zero value at the centre
-1
d. MLT
2 -2
e. ML T 14 Minor losses in a pipe flow are
those losses
10 The equations of motion for laminar a. Which are insignificantly small
flow of a real fluid are known as b. Which can always be neglected
a. Euler’s equation c. Caused by local disturbance due to
b. Navier – stokes equation pipe fittings
c. Bernoullis equation d. Caused by frictional resistance
d. Froude’s equation e. Caused by the temperature of the
e. None of these fluid being conducted at room
temperature
11 In calculating the drag force using
Cd the area used is 15 In a pipe network
a. Always the frontal area a. The algebraic sum of discharges
b. The planform area when body is flat around each elementary circuit
like an airfoil must be zero
c. The planform area when the body is b. The head at each node must be the
bluff like a sphere same

P a g e | 70
c. The algebraic sum of the a. Strengthen the penstocks
piezometric head drops around b. Reduce water hammer pressure
each elementary circuit is zero c. Reduce frictional losses in the
d. The piezometric head loss in each system
line of a circuit is the same d. Increase net load
e. The algebraic sum of the e. Increase efficiency of power
piezometric head drops around generation
each elementary circuit is negative
20 In all reaction turbines, for
16 A laser Doppler anemometer is a maximum efficiency
device used to measure a. The velocity of swirl at the entrance
a. The turbulent velocity fluctuations must be zero
in a flow b. The velocity of flow at outlet must
b. Shear stress at a boundary be zero
c. Drag force on an airfoil c. The velocity of swirl at the outlet
d. Surface tension of a fluid must be zero
e. Wind direction d. Temperature of fluid must remain
constant
17 To measure static pressure in a e. None of the above
pipe, one uses a pressure gauge
connected to a 21 The unit power Pu of a turbine
a. Pitot tube developing power P under head H is
b. Orificemeter equal to
0.5
c. Piezometer tapping a. P/H
2.5
d. Bend b. P/H
1.5
e. Mouthpiece c. P/H
1.25
d. P/H
1.5
18 In any venturimeter carrying a fluid e. PH
at sufficiently high discharges,
cavitaiton condition due to pressure 22 The viscosity of
at the throat reaching a critical a. Liquid increases with temperature
value controlled by b. Liquid decreases with temperature
a. Viscosity of fluid c. Gasses decreases with temperature
b. Room temperature d. Gasses increases with temperature
c. Volumetric bulk modulus of the e. Constant for gasses and liquids both
fluid
d. Eddy viscosity of the flow 23 When a block of ice floating on
e. Surface tension of the fluid water in a container melts, the level
of water in the container
19 A surge tank is provided in a. Rises
hydropower schemes to b. Falls

P a g e | 71
c. Remains same
d. First rises then falls 28 When a liquid flow in along pipeline
e. First falls then rises is reduced suddenly, due to
compressibility of the liquid, the
24 A streamline is a line sudden change in the momentum
a. Which is normal to the velocity would cause a pressure surge to
vector at every point develop. This pressure moves
b. Which represents lines of constant through the pipe at high speed and
velocity potential undergoes reflections at the ends.
c. Which is tangential to the velocity This phenomenon is called as
vector everywhere at a given a. Hydraulic jump
instant b. Flow constriction
d. Which represents lines of constant c. Pitting
temperature d. Caviation
e. None of the above e. Water hammer

25 An isentropic process is
a. Adaiabatic and irreversible 29 The flow exerted by the flowing
b. Adiabatic and frictionless water on the sediment particles to
c. Reversible and isothermal cause their motion is called as
d. Any adiabatic process a. Buoyancy
e. Any frictionless process b. Traction
c. Kinematic flow
26 While carrying water through a d. Thermal
circular pipeline for supply to a city, e. Eddy
laminar flow is assumed. The darcy
weisbach friction factor will be
given by
a. 64 / Re 30 If the peak load on a power plant
b. 24 / Re having a capacity of 100MW is 70
c. 16 / Re MW during a given week (7days
d. 64 Re ) and the energy produced is
e. 3 / Re 5880000 kWh, the capacity factor
(in %) for the plant for the said
week is
27 Cavitation in turbines affects a. 35
turbine in following ways except b. 50
a. Irregular collapse of vapour cavities c. 65
b. Vibration of turbine parts d. 30
c. Loss of turbine material e. 70
d. Reduction in efficiency of turbine
e. Excessive heating of water

P a g e | 72
31 The hydraulic jump ensures d. The pipe material is elastic
a. Change of subcritical to supercritical e. None of these
flow
b. Change of supercritical to subcritical 36 Uniform flow is said to occur when
flow a. Size and shape of the cross section
c. Change of supercritical to gradual in a particular length remains
jump constant
d. Change of subcritical to critical flow b. Size and shape of the cross section
e. No change change along a length
c. Frictional loss in the particular
32 The most commonly used vertical length of the channel will be more
lift gates in modern days is than the drop in its elevation
a. Sliding gates d. Frictional loss in the particular
b. Free roller gates length of the channel, will be less
c. Stoney gates than the drop in elevation
d. Fixed wheel gates e. None of these
e. Slotted gates
37 Bernoulli’s equation assumes that
33 Differential manometers are sued a. Fluid is non viscous
to measure b. Fluid is homogeneous
a. Atmospheric pressure c. Flow is steady
b. Pressure in water channels, pipes. d. All the above a,b,c are true
c. Differences in pressure at two e. None of these
points
d. Very low pressure 38 A trapezoidal channel with bottom
e. None of these width of 3m and side slope 1V :
1.5H carries a discharge of 8.0
34 The boundary layer exists in m3/sec. with the flow depth of
a. Flow of ideal fluids 1.5m. the Froude number of the
b. Flow of real fluids flow is
c. Only pipe flow a. 0.066
d. Only flow over flat surfaces b. 0.132
e. None of these c. 0.265
d. 0.528
35 Water hammer is a phenomenon e. None of these
which is caused by
a. Sudden opening of a valve in a
pipeline 39 The pressure drop per unit length of
b. Sudden closure (partial or pipe δP/L in laminar flow is
complete) of a valve in pipe flow dependent on the velocity, viscosity
c. Incompressibility of fluid and the diameter. It is equal to

P a g e | 73
a. ²⁄328+ d. Discharge
b. 328+ ⁄² e. None of these
c. 328+ ⁄²
d. 88+ ⁄² 44 An orifice meter is used to measure
e. None of these a. Discharge
b. Velocity
40 In a centrifugal pump casing, the c. Average speed
flow of water leaving the impeller is d. Pressure at the point
a. Free vortex motion e. None of these
b. Forced vortex
c. Rectilinear flow
d. Radial flow
e. None of these

41 The specific speed of a turbine is

expressed as-------.Where
n = speed of turbine
P = power output
H=effective head
a. 1√7 ⁄:6/

b. 1:6/
⁄√7
c. 1√7 ;:6/

d. 1√7(<:)6/

e. None of these

42 The length of hydraulic jump is

roughly
a. 2 to 3 times its height
b. 3 to 5 times its height
c. 5 to 7 times its height
d. 8 to 10 times its height
e. None of these

43 The prandtl type pitot tube is used

to measure
a. Stagnation head
b. Velocity head
c. Static pressure head

P a g e | 74
 d. Simple vernier
e. Non linear vernier

3 Well condition triangle is having

Exam Question angle
a. 30 and 120 degree
CGSES – 2015 1-8 b. 20 an 110 degree
c. 15 and 95 degree
CGHB-AE-2015 9 d. 90 and 120 degree
e. 30 and 90 degree

CGHB- JE- 2015 10-25

4 A steel tape weighing 6N is
suspended between two supports
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 26-34 and has three spans. If the pull on
the tape is 100 N and each span is of
CGSES – 2016 35-40 10m length, then the sag correction
in m in the tape will be
a. 0.0045
b. 0.0135
c. 0.4500
d. 1.350
1 A forest land is to be surveyed e. 0.0090
without accumulating errors, the
approach to be taken should be
a. Established minor control points 5 A magnetic declination of -5 degree
with low precision first indicates the meridian to the
b. Locate the details first and then the a. Easter side of the true meridian
major control point b. Western side of true meridian
c. Fix the major points with great c. Northern side of true meridian
precision and do detailing d. Southern side of true meridian
d. Locate the animals and mark these e. North eastern side of the true
as control points meridian
e. Fix the minor points and then start
detailing 6 If the correction for curvature for a
measured distance of 1200m is
2 A vernier scale in which the smallest 0.14m, the correction for refraction
division of vernier is longer than the in m will be
smallest division on the main scale, a. 0.020
this vernier is called b. 0.202
a. Retrograde vernier c. 8.517
b. Direct vernier d. 0.117
c. Double vernier e. 0.017

P a g e | 75
7 A series of closely spaced contour 30°. The horizontal distance
lines represent a between instrument station and
a. Gentle slope tower is 50 meter. If the reduced
b. Uniform slope level of line of sight is 100m when it
c. Horizontal surface is horizontal. Then reduced level of
d. Vertical stiff top of tower will be
e. Steep slope a. 150m
b. 25 m
8 A curve of varying radius introduced c. 50m
between two branches of a d. 125 m
compound curve is called as
a. Mean curve 12 The line of collimation is the
b. Transition curve imaginary line joining
c. Base curve a. Intersection of cross hairs and
d. Common curve optical centre of object glass
e. Retrograde curve b. Centre of eye piece and optical
centre of object glass
9 The correct prismoidal formula for c. Centre of eye piece and intersection
volume is of cross hairs
a. d/3 (first Area + last Area + Σeven d. None of these
area + 2.Σ.odd area )
b. d/3 (first Area + last Area + 4Σeven 13 If the true bearing of a line AB is
area + 2.Σ.odd area ) 269°30’ then the azimuth of the line
c. d/3 (first Area + last Area + 2Σeven AB is
area + 4.Σ.odd area ) a. 0°30’
d. d/3 (first Area + last Area + 2Σeven b. 89°30’
area + 2.Σ.odd area ) c. 90°30’
d. 269°30’
10 In a closed traverse, the sum of
south latitudes exceeds the sum of 14 The combined correction for
north latitudes and the sum of east curvature and refraction for a
departures exceeds the sum of west distance of 1400m is
departures. The closing line will lie a. 0.153 m
in the b. 0.132 m
a. NW quadrant c. 0.094 m
b. NE quadrant d. 0.021 m
c. SE quadrant
d. SW quadrant 15 For computation of earth work the
correct prismoidal formula for
11 The angle of elevation of top of volume is
tower measured by theodolite is a. d/3 . (A1+ An + 4(A2 + A4 +..) +2(A3 +

P a g e | 76
 A5 +….) of swinging the telescope from A to
b. d/2 . (A1+ An + 4(A2 + A4 +..) +2(A3 + B
A5 +….) a. Upper clamp and lower clamp
c. d/3 . (A1+ An + 2(A2 + A4 +..) +2(A3 + should be tight
A5 +….) b. Upper clamp and lower clamp
d. d/3 . (A1+ An + 3(A2 + A4 +..) +2(A3 + should be loose
A5 +….) c. Upper clamp should be loose and
lower clamp should be tight
16 Which of the following errors can be d. None of these
eliminated by setting the level
midway between the two stations 20 If the reduced bearing of a line AB is
a. Error due to curvature only N 60° W and length is 100m, then
b. Error due to refraction only the latitude and departure
c. Error due to both curvature and respectively of the line AB will be
refraction only a. + 50m, +86.6m
d. Error due to both curvature and b. -50m, +86.6m
refraction and also the line of c. +50m, -86.6m
collimation error if any d. +70.7 m, -50m

17 The principle of working from whole 21 A and B are two traverse stations
to part is used in surveying because free from local attraction errors. If
a. Plotting is easier the true bearing of a line AB is 89°
b. Survey work is complete fast and the magnetic declination at
c. Accumulation of errors is prevented point A is 1° west, then the
d. All of the above magnetic bearing of the line BA
would be
18 The staff readings of points A,B,C a. 88°
and D situated in a line are 1.25 m , b. 90°
1.40m , 1.68m, 1.93 m respectively. c. 268°
Which of the following statement is d. 270°
not true
a. Elevation of B is greater than C and 22 The RL of the point A which is on
D the floor is 100m and back sight
b. Elevation of C is lesser than A and B reading on A is 2.455m, if the
c. Elevation of D is greater than A and foresight reading on the point B
C which is on ceiling is 2.745m the RL
d. Elevation nof A is greater than B and of point B will be
D a. 94.80m
b. 99.71m
19 During measurement of horizontal c. 100.29m
angle AOB by theodolite at the time d. 105.20m

P a g e | 77
23 Which of the following instruments vertical.
is used for taking perpendicular The tachometer constant K and C
offset are 100 and 0.3 respectively. The
a. Ceylone ghat tracer horizontal distance between the
b. Pentagraph staff and instrument is
c. Hand level Reading on staff
d. Cross staff Top hair 1.726
Middle hair 2.278
24 A Tellurometer works on the Bottom 2.830
principle of a. 110.70 m
a. Propagation of illuminated light b. 228.10 m
waves c. 110.10 m
b. High frequency radio waves d. 100.40 m
c. Refraction of light
d. Electromagnetic waves 28 The latitude and departure of a line
AB are + 78 m and – 45.1 m
25 The object of running a tie-line is respectively. The whole circle
a. To check the accuracy of the field bearing of the line AB is
work a. 30°
b. To locate the interior details which b. 150°
are far away from the main chain c. 210°
line d. 330°
c. To take offset for detailed surveying
d. None of the above 29 A chain was tested before starting a
survey and was found to be exactly
26 Which of the following instruments 20m long. At the end of survey it
have both horizon glass and index was found to measure 20m 20cm.
glass the area of plan drawn to scale 8m :
1. Optical square 1cm was 220 sq.cm. find the true
2. Line ranger area of the field (in hectares)
3. Box sextant a. 1.6222
4. Pedometer b. 1.7333
a. 2,3,4 c. 1.4221
b. 1,3,4 d. 1.3222
c. 1,3 only
d. 2,4 only 30 The magnetic bearing of a line at a
station point is found to be 187°,
27 The following observation were the magnetic declination is 4° E and
taken with a transit theodolite fitted local attraction was -2°. Calculate
with stadia wire. The line of sight the magnetic bearing and true
was horizontal and staff was held bearing of the line
a. 189°, 201°

P a g e | 78
b. 183°, 201° a. Along the contour
c. 187°, 189° b. At 90° to the contour
d. 189°, 185° c. At 45° to the contour
d. At 30° to the contour
31 An instrument was setup at point
200m away from a transmission 35 The curvature correction in leveling
tower. The angle of elevation to the is always
top of the tower was 30° whereas a. Negative
the angle of depression to the b. Positive
bottom was 2°. Calculate the total c. Zero
height of the transmission tower d. Avoided
a. 122.454 m e. None of these
b. 115.470 m
c. 108.486 m
d. 129.438 m
36 Characteristics of contours are
a. Contour line must close itself
32 A survey line PQ intersects a hillock. b. These have no sharp turnings
In order to extend the line beyond c. Closer drawn contours show steep
the obstacle, a perpendicular QR, slope
100m long, is set out at Q. from R d. All of the above
two lines RS and RT are set out at e. None of these
angles of 45° and 60° with RQ
respectively. The lengths RS and RT,
such that points S and T lie on line 37 Base line in the layout of a chain
PQ are survey is
a. 188, 160.32 a. Longest main survey line
b. 200, 160.32 b. Check line
c. 141.42, 200 c. Tie line
d. 160.32, 188 d. All of the above
e. e. None of these

33 True bearing of line is 11° and

magnetic declination is 2° W, its 38 Triangulation station selected close
magnetic bearing is to the main station for avoiding
a. 2° intervening constructions is called
b. 9° a. Pivot station
c. 13° b. Tie station
d. 22° c. Satellite station
d. Eccentric station
34 The direction of steepest slope on a e. None of these
contour is

P a g e | 79
39 Two objects may be visualized
simultaneously by a
a. Pantograph
b. Sonometer
c. Sextant
d. Planimeter
e. None of these

40 The method of orienting a plane

table with two inaccessible points is
known as
a. Resection
b. Intersection
c. Back sighting
d. Two point problem
e. None of these

P a g e | 80
 the liquidity index of this soil is
a. 0.6
b. 1.1
Exam Question c. 1.0
d. 0
CGSES – 2015 1-24 e. 1.15

CGHB-AE-2015 25-38 4 Which of the following tests is not

used for measuring the insitu
CGHB- JE- 2015 39-49 density of compacted soil
a. Sand patch method
b. Rubber balloon method
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 50-62 c. Nuclear density gauge
d. Sand replacement method
CGSES – 2016 63-77 e. Electrical density gauges

5 Based on the rock mass rating

(RMR), a rock having a value ranging
1 The looseness or denseness of sandy between 41-60 will be rated as
soils is numerically expressed in a. Very poor
terms of b. Poor
a. Maximum voids content c. Fair
b. Minimum voids content d. Good
c. Compaction moisture content e. Very good
d. Relative density
e. Consistency
6 In a core drilled for 100m, the
following fragments were obtained
2 A soil with sand fraction = 14%, silt 24,12,11,9,22,8,12 and loose rock.
and clay content = 86%, liquid limit The RQD of the rock is
of 55% and plasticity index of 28%. a. 17%
According to the USCS (unified soil b. 81%
classification system) this soil is of c. 2%
type d. 25%
a. CL – Clay of low plasticity e. 4%
b. MH – silt of high plasticity, elastic silt
c. OH – organic clay, organic silt 7 In constant head permeability test
d. SC – clayey sand observations were made L = 30cm,
e. CH – clay of high plasticity , fat clay area of the specimen = 175 sq.cm,
constant head difference h = 50cm
and water collected in a period of
3 The plastic limit of a sensitive clay is 5min is 350 cu.m the hydraulic
30%, the plasticity index is 30% and conductivity in cm/s
the natural moisture content is 63%,

P a g e | 81
a. 0.004 a. 0.33
b. 0.000 b. 3.00
c. 0.040 c. 1.50
d. 0.240 d. 0.50
e. 0.024 e. 1.00

8 The correct order of capillary rise in 12 A cut is to be made in clay for which
increasing order in different types of the cohesion is 30 KN/sq.m and
soils is negligible friction angle. If the
a. Fine sands – silt – clay – colloids density of the soil is 20 KN/cu.m and
b. Silt – fine sand – colloids – clay the factor of safety for the design is
c. Clay – fine sands – colloids – silt 1.5, the maximum depth for a
d. Silt – fine sands – clays – colloids cutting of side slope 1.5 : 1 is
e. Silt – clay – fine sands – colloids (assume stability number as 0.17)
a. 6.28
9 Sheep foot rollers used for soil b. 3.36
compaction are most suitable for c. 5.88
a. Clean coarse grained soil with 4-8% d. 4.88
passing 75μ sieve e. 5.3
b. Coarse grained soil less than with 4-
8% passing 75μ sieve 13 An embankment of 100 cum volume
c. Clean coarse grained soil with 12% is to be constructed. A borrow area
passing 75μ sieve has a dry density of 16 KN/cum. If
d. Pavement sub grades the embankment is to be
e. Fine grained soils with more than constructed with a dry density of 17
20% passing 200μ sieve KN/cum, then the volume (cum) of
soil required will be
10 The effective stress (KN/sq.m) at a. 94
point B shown in the following soil b. 106
strata is c. 100
a. 0 d. 90
b. 99 e. 96
c. 349
d. 127 14 The ultimate bearing capacity of a
e. 221 sandy soil when tested with 750mm
diameter plate as determined from
11 The undrained strength and a field load test is 300 kN/sq.m
remoulded strength of clay sample Estimate the ultimate bearing
are 4.8 kg/cm2 and 1.6 kg/cm2 capacity of circular footing with a
respectively, then the sensitivity of diameter of 1.5m
the clay is a. 600
b. 150

P a g e | 82
c. 450 19 If plasticity index and percentage of
d. 750 grain size finer than 2μ of a clay are
e. 300 25 and 15 respectively, then the
activity ratio is
15 The two criteria for the a. 1.67
determination of allowable bearing b. 10.00
capacity of a foundation are c. 5.00
a. Tensile failure and compression d. 7.50
failure e. 3.00
b. Tensile failure and settlement
c. Bond failure and shear failure 20 The collapsible soil is associated
d. Shear failure and settlement with
e. Tensile failure and shear failure a. Marine sands
b. Loess
16 In a triaxial test carried out on a c. Black cotton soils
sand sample with cell pressure 20 d. River boulder material
KPa, the observed value of applied e. Gap graded sands
stress at the point of failure is 4 KPa.
the angle of internal friction on the 21 Ultimate bearing capacity (in KN /
soil is sq.mt) of a square footing on
a. 10° surface of a saturated clay having
b. 15° unconfined compressive strength of
c. 20° 60 KN/sq.m, using skemption
d. 30° equation will be
e. 45° a. 150
b. 120
17 In an undrained tri axial test on a c. 100
saturated clay the poisson’s ratio is d. 125
a. σ3 / ( σ3 + σ1) e. 180
b. σ3 / σ1
c. σ3 / ( σ1 - σ3) 22 If the load carrying capacity of an
d. σ3 / ( 2σ3 + σ1) individual friction pile is 250 KN.
e. σ3 / ( 2σ3 + 2σ1) What is the total load carrying
capacity of a group (in KN) of 8 piles
18 Plate load test is useful to estimate with group efficiency factor of 0.75
a. Bearing capacity of foundation a. 2000
b. Settlement of foundation b. 1600
c. Bearing capacity and settlement of c. 2400
foundation d. 1875
d. Depth of foundation e. 1500
e. Width of foundation

P a g e | 83
23 A clay layer 3m deep is sandwiched structure is known as
by a pervious material, the soil a. Net foundation pressure
reaches 90% consolidation in 3 b. Total bearing pressure
years, at another site, the same clay c. Allowable bearing pressure
layer is bounded by impervious d. Effective overburden pressure
boundary at the bottom and sand at
the top. The time (in years) taken by 27 The shear strength of a cohesionless
this layer to reach 90% settlement soil is
would be a. Proportional to the angle of
a. 9 shearing resistance
b. 21 b. Inversely proportional to the angle
c. 18 of shearing resistance
d. 12 c. Proportional to the tangent of the
e. 6 angle of shearing resistance
d. None of the above
24 Saturated unit weight of a soil is 20
KN/cum and the unit weight of 28 In a saturated layer consolidating
water is 12 KN/cum. If the with single drainage, the initial
groundwater table is at the surface isochrones is a
of soil and lateral earth pressure a. Triangle
coefficient of soil is 0.4. effective b. Square
lateral stress (KPa) at 10m depth c. Rectangle
will be d. Parabola
a. 20
b. 32
c. 40 29 Which of the following is not a
d. 18 metamorphic rock
e. 32 a. Gneiss
b. Basalt
c. Schist
25 When a structural load comes on a d. Marble
soil strata which soil will be having
minimum settlement
a. Over consolidated clay
b. Normally consolidated clay 30 According to vesic and NGI with
c. Clayey silt stratum increase in size of footing the value
d. Sandy clay stratum of Nr
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain constant
26 The net increase in pressure at d. None of the above
foundation level due to dead load e.
and live loads applied by the

P a g e | 84
31 Which of the following rocks have 36 Which of the following is not a part
least porosity of soil improvement
a. Sand stone a. Reduction in permeability
b. Schist b. Improvement in shear strength
c. Shale c. Improvement of compressibility
d. Dolerite d. Reduction of frost susceptibility
e.
32 According to proctor the
compaction is a function of 37 In well foundation, a reinforced
a. Moisture content concrete (Ring ) beam with a steel
b. Compaction effort cutting edge at bottom is known as
c. Types of soil a. Steining
d. All the above b. Curb
c. Bottom plug
33 Barton etal introduced the concept d. Wall cap
of Rock Mass Quality Index, for
classification of rocks. For very good 38 Unconfined compressive strength of
category of rock mass the Q value a purely clay soil is 15 KN/m2. What
ranges will be its cohesion
a. 10-4 a. 7.5 KN/m2
b. 40-10 b. 15 KN/m2
c. 100-40 c. 30 KN/m2
d. 400-100 d. 10 KN/m2

34 In RQD determination, during core 39 Rollers suited for the compaction of

drilling, the minimum lengthof the clayey soils
core pieces should be a. Pneumatic tyred roller
a. >10 cm b. Smooth wheeled roller
b. >5 cm c. Vibratory roller
c. >12 cm d. Sheep foot roller
d. >20 cm
40 The minimum water content at
th
35 In a wet soil mass, air occupies 1/6 which soil just begins to crumble
of its volume and water occupies when rolled into a thread of approx
rd
1/3 of its volume. The void ratio of 3mm diameter is called
the soil is a. Plasticity index
a. 0.25 b. Shrinkage limit
b. 0.50 c. Plastic limit
c. 1.50 d. Liquid limit
d. 1.00
41 When drainage is permitted

P a g e | 85
 throughout the triaxial test, the test d. Seepage and uplift pressure only
is known as
a. Quick test 46 Arrange the following soils in
b. Drained test increasing order of their grain size
c. Consolidated drained test 1. Silt
d. None of the above 2. Gravel
3. Clay
42 The stress developed at a point in 4. Sand
the soil exactly below a point load a. 1,2,3,4
at the surface is b. 4,3,1,2
a. Proportional to the depth of the c. 2,4,3,1
point d. 3,1,4,2
b. Proportional to the square of depth
of the point 47 In plate load test the width of test
c. Inversely proportional to the depth pit is kept larger than the width of
of the point plate by
d. Inversely proportional to the square a. 5 times
of depth of the point b. 6 times
c. 4 times
43 Sheep foot rollers are suitable for d. 3 times
compacting
a. All types of soil 48 A soil sample has a specific gravity
b. Clayey soil of 2.60 and a void ratio of 0.78. the
c. Sandy soil water content required to fully
d. None of the above saturate the soil at that void ratio
e. will be
a. 20%
44 Which method is not used for field b. 30%
compaction control c. 40%
a. Sand replacement d. 60%
b. Core cutter
c. Proctor’s plasticity needle 49 The coefficient of compressibility is
d. Proctor’s compaction test the ratio of followings
a. Change in void ratio to change in
45 A flow net can be used to determine effective stress
a. Seepage, coefficient of permeability b. Volumetric strain to change in
and effective stress effective stress
b. Seepage, coefficient of permeability c. Change in thickness to change in
and uplift pressure effective stress
c. Seepage, exit gradient and uplift d. Stress to strain
pressure

P a g e | 86
50 The relation between dry density , 55 In plate load test the width of test
bulk density and water content pit is kept larger than the width of
=
a. = = 1 + > plate by
b. = a. 5 times
== 1+> b. 6 times
c. =
= = 1 − > c. 4 times
=> d. 3 times
d. = = 1 + >
e.
56 Method more suitable for
51 The water content of soil can be determining the permeability of
accurately determined by clayey soil is
a. Calcium carbide method a. Constant head permeameter
b. Sand bath method b. Falling head permeameter
c. Alcohol method c. Horizontal permeability test
d. Oven drying method d. None of the above

52 A combined footing is generally 57 Pick out the principle criteria for the
used when number of column is selection and design of type of
a. Two and they are spaced close to foundation for bridge structures
each other a. Traffic loadings
b. Two and they are spaced far apart b. Discharge
c. Only one c. Soil strata
d. None of the above d. None of the above
e.
58 Sensitivity of a natural soil deposit is
53 Mat is a shallow foundation a. Equal to zero
supporting b. Less than zero
a. Only one column c. Always more than zero
b. No. of column’s in one row d. None of the above
c. No. of column’s in more than one
row 59 The void ratio of soil is the ratio of
d. None of these a. +3?(@ 3, +3A ⁄+3?(@ 3, 3A
b. +3?(@ 3, 3A ⁄+3?(@ 3, +3A
54 Black cotton soil is unsuitable for c. +3?(@ 3, 3A ⁄ 3 . +3?(@
foundation because its d. None of the above
a. Particles are cohesive
b. Permeability is uncertain 60 An unconfined compression test is a
c. Bearing capacity is low special case of
d. Property to undergo a volumetric a. Triaxial test
change b. Direct shear test
c. Vane shear test

P a g e | 87
d. None of the above c. The total head is constant but not
e. zero
d. The pressure head is constant but
61 A wall adjacent to abutment with its not zero
top upto road top level near e. None of these
abutment and sloping plane down
upto ground level or little above at 66 Piping in soil occurs when
the other end is termed as a. The soil is highly porous
a. Wing wall b. Sudden change in permeability
b. Toe wall occurs
c. Return wall c. Effective pressure becomes zero
d. Retaining wall d. The soil is highly fissured
e. e. None of these

62 The plasticity index is 67 The appropriate field test to

a. Liquid limit – shrinkage limit determine the undrained shear
b. Liquid limit – plastic limit strength of soft clay is
c. Plastic limit – shrinkage limit a. Plate load test
d. Plastic limit – liquid limit b. Static cone penetration test
c. Standard penetration test
63 Fundamental relationship between d. Vane shear test
dry density, specific gravity, water e. None of these
content and percentage air voids is
a. 68 Cohesionless soil is formed from
b. a. Clay and silt
c. b. Silt
d. c. Sand
e. None of these d. Clay
e. None of these
64 The soil sample has a void ratio of
0.5 and its porosity will be close to 69 A negative skin friction occurs when
a. 33 % a. An upward drag exists in the pile
b. 50 % b. The surrounding soil settles more
c. 66 % than the pile
d. 100 % c. The pile passes continuously
e. None of these through a firm soil
d. The driving operation begins
65 Along a phreatic line in a earth dam e. None of these
a. The total head is everywhere zero
b. The pressure head is everywhere 70 An unconfined compression test
zero yielded a strength of 0.1 N/mm2. If

P a g e | 88
 the failure plane is inclined at 50° c. Raft foundation is unsuitable
to horizontal, what are the values d. Piles are not possible
of shear strength parameters e. None of these
2 2
a. σ = 0.05 N/mm ; τ = 0.05 N/mm
2
b. σ = 0.0413 N/mm ; τ = 0.049 75 Under reamed piles are the
2
N/mm following type of piles
2
c. σ = 0.0417 N/mm ; τ = 0.046 a. Precast
2
N/mm b. Bored
2 2
d. σ = 0.5 N/mm ; τ = 0.5 N/mm c. Driven
e. None of these d. Sunken
e. None of these
71 Liquid and plastic limit exists in the
following soils 76 The width and depth of a footing
a. Gravel are 2m and 1.5m respectively. The
b. Clay water table at the site is at a depth
c. Silty of 3m below the ground level. The
d. Sandy water table correction factor for the
e. None of these calculation of the bearing capacity
of soil is
72 The swelling nature of black cotton a. 0.5
soil is primarily due to the presence b. 0.875
of c. 0.925
a. Vermiculite d. 1.00
b. Kaolinite e. None of these
c. Illite
d. Montmorillonite 77 Saturated clay tests for shear
e. None of these strength can be performed by
a. Tri-axial compression test
73 Most suitable and simple method of b. Direct Shear test
soil exploration for shallow c. Unconfined compression test
foundation is by means of d. Both a and b
a. Rods e. None of these
b. Auger
c. Sounding
d. Extendable rods
e. None of these

74 Grillage foundation is provided

when
a. Heavy isolated load exist
b. Soil is hard

P a g e | 89
 a. 1,2,3
b. 1 only
c. 2 and 3
Exam Question d. 3 only
e. None of these
CGSES – 2015

4 The use of super plasticizers as

CGHB-AE-2015 admixture
a. Increases compressive strength of
CGHB- JE- 2015 concrete
b. Permits lower water cement ratio,
thereby strength is increased
PWD-NRDA-JE-2015 c. Reduces the setting time of concrete
d. Permits lower cement content
CGSES – 2016 1-8 thereby strength is increased
e. None of these

5 The type of bond in a brick masonry

1 In the manufacture of cement, containing alternate courses of
gypsum is added to stretchers and headers, is called
a. Increase the strength of cement a. Flemish bond
b. Reduce the strength of cement b. English bond
c. Control the setting time of cement c. Stretcher bond
d. Provide colour to the cement d. Header bond
e. None of these e. None of these

2 Which of the following is a PERT 6 Which of the following cement has

event the lowest fineness
a. Transport of sand a. Low heat cement
b. Transport of cement b. Pozzolana cement
c. Concreting of roof completed c. Ordinary Portland cement
d. Making of framework continues d. All of the above have same fineness
e. None of these e. None of these

3 Bricks are soaked in water before 7 PERT network time is based on

use in masonry work mainly a. Poisson distribution
1. To remove dust b. Exponential distribution
2. To remove air voids c. Beta distribution
3. So that they do not absorb d. Normal distribution
water from cement mortar e. None of these
Which of these statements is/are
correct
P a g e | 90
8 Which of the following is a limitation
of Bar Chart
a. Interdependencies of activities
b. Project progress
c. Uncertainties
d. All of the above
e. None of these

P a g e | 91
STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
b d a e a e d b c c b d c e c
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
c c a a a b d a a a a c d b
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
a a b a b b b c a e d b a c d
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
b c d d e b a b b c d b c
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

REINFORCED CEMENT CONCRETE DESIGN

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
d d a a d c d c b e a b c c c
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
e e e d b a b c e d a e c c c
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
c c e b d d c c a a a d d a d
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
b c d b b b d b c c d b c b b
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
c a c b a d d b d a c b d d
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
c c
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

P a g e | 92
PRESTRESSED CONCRETE
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
b c e a c b a b b d a d a e
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a a c a e b d d c c e e a d c
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b b d b a c c c a c b b d c c
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
c c c c d c d b b a c c c a b
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
b b d b a d a d a b c c b b
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
c d c d c b c d a a d b d a c
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
b d
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

P a g e | 93
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
d a d b b b e b c a a d a a
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
a a d b d c a a e d b a a e e
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
a c a c b b b c c d d a d d b
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
c d c c c b b b b d c d d b d
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
c c d b c c d d c b b d b a b
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
a b e
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a b a b a b a d e a c d a d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
a a c e d e c a,b c d a a b a a
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
b b a a b b a d d b b a a a c
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
b b b b a d a a a c a d d c
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
b d c c c d d d b c a c b c d
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
a b a e b b a a
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

P a g e | 94
IRRIGATION ENGINEERING
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
a c e d c b d c d c c d b e a
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
c d e c d c d c d d d a a c c
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
b c a b d a c d b d a c c a c
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
c d a d a c c a c a c a
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

HYDROLOGY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
c b e d b e b d b e e a b c b
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
c b b c d d
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

P a g e | 95
HIGHWAY ENGINEERING
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
e b d d a a b b d c c c c a
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
a a d b b b d b a b a a d c b
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
e b
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

RAILWAY ENGINEERING
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
d d b e c e b a b b c b d a b
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b d d b c a a C d b c a d
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

P a g e | 96
FLUID MECHANICS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
c a b e b c d c a b b b e c c
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
a c e b c c b,d c c b a e e b a
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
b d c b b a d e c a a c b a
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

SURVEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
c a a a b a e b b c d a d b a
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
d c b c c d d d b b c a d c c
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
a c c b a d a c c d
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

P a g e | 97
SOIL MECHANICS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
d e b a c b a a e b b b b a d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
d c c a b e e d e a a c b b
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
d d c a d c b a d c b d b d c
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
d a b a a d a c b a b c c a a
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
a b e a b c d c b b b d b a b
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
b c
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

PERT/CPM – CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
c c d b b c c d
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

P a g e | 98