SBI4U1 EXAM

SECTION 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE

KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING [50 MARKS]

BIOCHEMISTRY:

1. Nutella goes well with each of the following except:

a) bananas
b) pickles
c) bread
d) liver

2. Vacuoles do not:
a) Transport proteins
b) Store and release wastes
c) Transport wastes
d) Keep cells rigid

3. An example of a monomer is a (n):

a) Maltose
b) Amino acid
c) Proteins
d) Nucleic acid

hint: _______ _____ are monomers that bond together to form protein
molecules.

4. Which of the following statements best describes olive oil?

a) Contains double bonds between carbon atoms
b) Saturated fat
c) Unsaturated fat
d) Both a & c
e) None of the above

Questions 5 & 6 questions refer to the diagram below:

5. Identify the molecule shown above:
a) Disaccharide
b) Polysaccharide
c) Monosaccharide
d) Glucose

6. Classify the molecule above:

a) Protein
b) Lipid
c) Carbohydrate
d) Nucleic acid

7. Purine bases include:

a) Guanine & Adenine
b) Cytosine & Thymine
c) Cytosine & Guanine
d) Adenine & Thymine

8. Without enzymes biological reactions:

a) Stop
b) Slow down
c) Speed up
d) Experience no change in speed

9. A (n) _____________ stabilizes the inactive form of an enzyme:

a) Competitive inhibitor
b) Allosteric regulator
c) Allosteric inhibitor
d) Competitive regulator

10. A cell is placed in an unknown solution. After some time the cell begins to shrink.
Which of the following is true of the solution?
a) It had a lower [water] than the cell
b) It had a higher [water] than the cell
c) It is hypotonic
d) It is isotonic
METABOLIC PROCESSES:

11. Pyruvate oxidation releases one ___________ molecule and a ____________

enzyme is added to make ___________.
a) H2O, CoA, acetyl-CoA
b) CO2, PFK, pyruvate
c) H2O, CoA, oxaloacetate
d) CO2, CoA, acetyl-CoA

12. Which of the following about lactic acid fermentation is false?

a) Lactic acid fermentation occurs when there is a lack of oxygen in a local area
(i.e. during exercise).
b) The process produces 2 ATP molecules via SLP.
c) The process produces lactic acid which is toxic (the “burn” of exercising).
d) 2 FAD molecules become 2 FADH2 molecules.
e) Both d and b

13. What is the correct order of intermediates in glycolysis?

a) Glucose-6-phosphate, fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-1,6-biphosphate,
BPG, G3P, 3PG, 2PG, PEP, pyruvate
b) Glucose-6-phosphate, fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-1,6-biphosphate, 3PG,
2PG, BPG, G3P, PEP, pyruvate
c) Glucose-6-phosphate, fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-1,6-biphosphate, G3P,
BPG, 3PG, 2PG, PEP, pyruvate
d) Fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-1,6-biphosphate, glucose-6-phosphate, G3P,
BPG, 3PG, 2PG, PEP, pyruvate

14. The Krebs cycle occurs in the __________ and produces ___________ ATP
molecules via ___________. (1 cycle)
a) Mitochondrial membrane, 1, SLP
b) Mitochondrial matrix, 2, OLP
c) Mitochondrial matrix, 1, SLP
d) Cytoplasm, 1, SLP
e) Cytoplasm, 1, OLP

15. ___________ acts as the final _____________ in the ETC.

a) H2O, electron acceptor
b) Oxygen, electron acceptor
c) ATP Synthase, protein complex
d) Oxygen, protein complex
 16. Which of the following orders of protein complexes in the ETC are correct?
a) Ubiquinone, cytochrome bc complex, cytochrome c, NADH dehydrogenase,
cytochrome oxidase complex
b) NADH dehydrogenase, ubiquinone, cytochrome bc complex, cytochrome c,
cytochrome oxidase complex
c) Cytochrome c, ubiquinone, cytochrome bc complex, NADH dehydrogenase,
cytochrome oxidase complex
d) None of the above

17. Mr. Dvorsky is such a great teacher because?

a) He is so funny
b) He marks faster than Poppe
c) He is so tall
d) Mr. Dvorsky is a great teacher?

-b, c, and d are also acceptable. Special shout out to 3rd period.

18. A competitive inhibitor:

a) Binds to the active site and blocks the substrate from being able to bind to
the active site.
b) Binds to the allosteric site and causes a conformation change that prevents
the substrate from binding.
c) Binds to the active site and causes a conformation change that prevents the
substrate from binding.
d) Binds to the allosteric site and blocks the substrate from being able to bind to
the active site.

POPULATIONS:

19. Population density is:

a) The total number of one species in a given area.
b) The number of individuals per each unit of area or volume.
c) The number of individuals of a species divided by the total area of the
location the species is found in.
d) The number of individuals of a species divided by the area they actually use
(their habitat).

20. Crude density is:

a) The total number of one species in a given area.
b) The number of individuals per each unit of area or volume.
c) The number of individuals of a species divided by the total area of the
location the species is found in.
 d) The number of individuals of a species divided by the area they actually use
(their habitat).

21. Ecological density is:

a) The total number of one species in a given area.
b) The number of individuals per each unit of area or volume.
c) The number of individuals of a species divided by the total area of the
location the species is found in.
d) The number of individuals of a species divided by the area they actually use
(their habitat).

22. Density dependent factors are:

a) Factors whose effects on the size of population vary with the population
size.
b) Factors that affect the size of the population regardless of what the
population density is.
c) Factors whose effects on the growth of the population vary with the
population size.
d) Both a and c

23. When species are equally spaced throughout a habitat, what kind of dispersion is
this? (See page 586)
a) Random
b) Clumped
c) Uniform
d) None of the above

24. In a survey of northern mountain ash seedlings in northern Ontario, Dvorsky

randomly placed eight quadrats (1.0 m x 2.0 m) in a field that measured 100 m by
150 m. Estimate the population density and size if Dvorsky found 2, 0, 0 , 8, 6, 1,
1, and 3 seedlings in the eight quadrats?
a) 2.3 m2 and 40 000
b) 1.3 m2 and 25 000
c) 1.3 m2 and 20 000
d) 2.3 m2 and 20 000

25. A frog that feeds on an insect is called a

a) Decomposer
b) Shawn
c) Primary Consumer
d) Secondary Consumer
 26. A stick insect, Carausius morosusi, is sitting on the stump of a tree. This is an
example of what type of mimicry?
a) Concealing
b) Aggressive
c) Mullerian
d) Batesian

-technically speaking, this is mimesis, a type of mimicry related to

camouflage where one organism takes on the properties of the organism it
is hiding on.

MOLECULAR GENETICS:

27. Which scientist is responsible for discovering the “nuclein” after analyzing white
blood cells in the pus of surgical band-aids?
a) Joachim Hammerling
b) Frederick Griffith
c) Friedrich Miescher
d) Philip Ernesto Poppe

28. The following are the steps of DNA replication in the incorrect order:
1. DNA helicase disrupts hydrogen bonds and unwinds the helix.
2. DNA gyrase relieves the tension from the unwinding DNA.
3. Replication bubble is formed.
4. Proteins bind to the origin of replication.
5. Single-stranded binding proteins bind to exposed bases.
6. Primase makes RNA primers that bind to the 3’ end of the parental strand.
7. DNA ligase joins the Okazaki fragments.
8. DNA polymerase I remove RNA primers and replaces with the appropriate
nucleotides.
9. DNA polymerase III used the RNA primer as a starting point.

The correct order of the steps of DNA replication is:

a) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 9, 8, 7
b) 7, 8, 9, 6, 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
c) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 9, 8, 7
d) 7, 8, 9, 6, 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
29. What is the mutation caused by a single substitution of one base that causes in a
premature start codon?
a) Frameshift Mutation
b) Silent Mutation
c) Nonsense Mutation
d) Missense Mutation

30. What is the enzyme involved in the initiation of transcription?

a) DNA ligase
b) DNA polymerase III
c) RNA ligase
d) RNA polymerase

31. If the promoter region of a gene in a DNA molecule is removed, how will the
corresponding amino acid sequence be affected?
a) The sequence will be no longer than usual.
b) The sequence will be longer than usual.
c) The sequence will not be affected.
d) The sequence will not be produced.

32. Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules at recognition sites with to create sticky
ends. Which of the following DNA sequences is a complimentary palindromic
sequence?
a) 5’GAATTC 3’ and 3’CTTAAG 5’
b) 5’AATTCG 3’ and 3’GCGTAA 5’
c) 3’GAATTG 5’ and 5’ CCATTG 3’
d) 3’GATCGT 5’ and 5’TCGTAG 5’

33. What is the correct order for the three stages that make up transcription and/or
translation?
a) Elongation, Initiation, Termination
b) Initiation, Elongation, Termination
c) Initiation, Elongation, Translation
d) Transcription, Translation, Termination

34. With regards to the lac operon, what happens when lactose is absent?
a) The shape of the repressor protein changes and no longer binds to the
operator.
b) The repressor protein binds to the operator and partially blocks the
promoter.
c) There is no effect on the operon.
 d) None of the above

HOMEOSTASIS:

35. The renal cortex:

a) Produces the hormone cortisol and aldosterone
b) Produces testosterone
c) Produces adrenaline and noradrenaline
d) None of the above
e) Both a and b

36. Blood is pumped in through the ____________ arteriole and pumped out
through the ___________ arteriole.
a) Efferent, efferent
b) Afferent, efferent
c) Efferent, afferent
d) Afferent, afferent
e) None of the above

37. The descending loop of Henley is permeable to ___________ and the ascending
loop of Henley is permeable to ____________.
a) K+, NaCl
b) H2O, NaCl
c) NaCl, H2O
d) H2O, H2O and NaCl

38. The movement of wastes from the blood back into the nephron primarily occurs
via active transport. Which organelle is likely found in high concentration in the
cells that line the tubules involved with secretion?
a) Vesicles
b) Golgi body
c) Mitochondria
d) Ribosome
e) None of the above

39. Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) made and stored?

a) Made in anterior pituitary, stored in anterior pituitary
 b) Made in hypothalamus, stored in anterior pituitary
c) Made in anterior pituitary, made in posterior pituitary
d) Made in hypothalamus, stored in posterior pituitary

40. Steroid hormones:

a) Are made from amino acids and are fat soluble
b) Are made from cholesterol and are fat soluble
c) Are made from amino acids and are water soluble
d) Are made from cholesterol and are water soluble

41. The Myelin Sheath wraps around the ________and is made up of

_____________, which is a type of ___________cell.
a) Axon, dendrites, glial
b) Axon hillock, Schwann cells, glial
c) Axon, nodes of Ranvier, Schwann
d) Axon, Schwann cells, conducting
e) Axon, Schwann cells, glial

42. What voltage needs to be reached to reach action potential?

a) Below rest potential
b) Above rest potential
c) Usually 40 mV
d) Usually 20 mV
e) None of the above

43. What of the following about synaptic transmission is true?

a) A presynaptic neuron carries impulse toward the synapse and the
postsynaptic neuron carries impulse away from synapse
b) Synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters are found in axonal end plates
c) Excitatory NTs are more permeable to K+
d) Inhibitory NTs opens Na+ channels
e) Inhibitory NTs causes depolarization
f) Both a and b

44. Which of the following is a function of the parietal lobe?

a) Body senses (touch, pain, etc)
b) Vision
c) Hearing
d) Memory
SECTION 2: MODIFIED TRUE AND FALSE
KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING [10 MARKS]

1. In order to engulf food from the extracellular fluid, cell membranes grows
extensions called “pseudo pods” during pinocytosis.
False – Phagocytosis

2. Most proteins are functional at the tertiary structure.

True

3. During translation of a protein, the start codon is ‘read’ in the A site where a
tRNA molecule delivers methionine. The second codon is exposed in the P site.
False – ‘read’ in the P site, exposed in the A site

4. During DNA replication, DNA polymerase I works in the 5’ to 3’ direction adding

nucleotides.
False – DNA polymerase III

5. The somatic nervous system includes the sympathetic and parasympathetic

nervous systems.
False – Autonomic nervous system

6. The three symbiotic relationships are not; parasitism, mutationism and

commensalism.
True

7. Social parasites manipulate the social behaviour of another species to complete

their life cycle.
True

SECTION 3: MATCHING
KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING [10 MARKS]

Nephron The smallest functional unit of the kidneys

Diffusion The tendency of particles to move from an area of [high] to an
area of [low].
Receptor-Mediated A method used to bring in bulk quantities of a specific substance
Endocytosis into a cell.
Intraspecific A species competes against other members of its own species
Competition
Interspecific Different species compete against one another
Competition
NAD+ and FAD+ Low energy, oxidized coenzymes that act as electron acceptors
NADH Protein complex that is embedded in the ETC that acts as an
Dehydrogenase electron acceptor
Histones A stabilizing protein that DNA is coiled around

SECTION 4: SHORT ANSWER

INQUIRY & APPLICATION [39 MARKS]

1. Draw the formation of a triglyceride with four carbon monounsaturated fatty

acids [3]. On the diagram:
a) Clearly draw the individual monomers. [2]

-similar to fig 8 page 34

b) Label all functional groups on the monomers. [2]

Hydroxyl – on the glycerol
Carboxyl – on the fatty acids

c) Label and name the resulting bond. [1]

Ester linkage

d) Classify the reaction. [1]

Dehydration Synthesis – Anabolic reaction

2. Explain what is meant by the term “fluid mosaic model” of the plasma
membrane. Discuss at least three different components in the membrane that
lend it this name. [4]

The fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane refers to the fluidity and
various different components of the membrane. The fluidity of the
membrane is dependent on the following components:
- Phospholipids, integral and peripheral proteins which move laterally 
proving that the membrane is not static and thus is fluid.
- Cholesterol molecules insert themselves into spaces between the hydrophobic
tails. At high temperatures the cholesterol makes the membrane less fluid
and at low temperatures it prevents the membrane from freezing. Cholesterol
regulates fluidity.
Finally the membrane is mosaic like because it is composed of an array of
different macromolecules. For example: glycoproteins, glycolipids, and surface
proteins.
3. Clearly explain what would happen to ATP production in the following situations,
stating the exact number of ATP produced if possible. [3]
a) What if a mutation occurred in the mitochondrial matrix so that 2 NADH
and 2 FADH2 were produced in the Calvin Cycle during cellular
respiration? [1 pyruvate]
b) Photosystem I does not have a Z protein attached to it? [3]

Answer:

a) 2 NADH makes 3 ATP each in the ETC and 2 FADH2 makes 2 ATP each, making
6 + 4 = 10 ATP. Glycolysis produces 2 ATP and 1 NADH, the NADH goes
through the glycerol phosphate shuttle and is converted into FADH2= 2 ATP. 1
NADH is produced in pyruvate oxidation= 3 ATP
b) Water would not be broken down into oxygen, hydrogen, and 2 electrons,
therefore there would be no electrons to replace the electrons from
photosystem I that were exited by 2 photons. The light reactions of
photosynthesis would not be able to continue. There would also be no
protons to strengthen the concentration gradient between the thylakoid
lumen and stroma.

4. Describe any 2 of the following and give an example: [4]

-answers accidently given already, d’oh.

a) Microparasites: They are microscopic in size and reproduce fast; plasmodium

and trypanosoma.

b) Macroparasites: The can be seen by the naked eye; tapeworms and lice.

c) Endoparasites: They live and feed on the inside of a host; tapeworms and
plasmodium.

d) Ectoparasites: They live and feed on the outside of a hose; fleas, ticks and
lice.
5. What are the differences between Facultative and Obligatory Mutualism? [2]
Answer:

The interaction of facultative mutualism is beneficial to both of the series;

although they can survive without each other. Obligatory mutualism organisms
cannot grow and reproduce with each other.

6. Using the original DNA template given below, answer part (a) and (b).

Original DNA template: 3’ATCCTGAG 5’

a) State the corresponding mRNA stand and DNA coding strand. [2]

mRNA strand: 5’UAGGACUC 3’

DNA coding strand: 5’TAGGACTC 3’

b) What type of mutation is present in the strand, 3’ATCTGAG 5’ compared to

the original DNA template? Explain the effect that this mutation will have. [2]

The type of mutation present in the strand is a deletion of a base. Therefore,

this type of mutation was a frameshift mutation. This will cause all the amino
acids being coded for to change.

7. John is a marathon runner and every day after his early morning jog, he becomes
very hot. Explain in detail how his body works to maintain homeostasis with
regards to body temperature during this time. Be sure to reference all important
glands and organs. [3]

In order to lower John’s body temperature;

- The hypothalamus turns on the cooling system.
- As a result, the sweat glands initiate sweating because evaporation of sweat
causes cooling.
- Moreover, the skin’s blood vessels dilate and blood flow to the skin increases. As
a result, heat exudes from the skin.
- Finally, as the body temperature decreases, the hypothalamus will turn off the
body’s cooling system.
8. Explain briefly any 2 of the phases of the menstrual cycle. Be sure to identify all
hormones at work in each phase. [4]

(a) Flow Phase

o Beginning of menstrual cycle
o Shedding of the endometrium as a result of mass decrease in
production of estrogen and progesterone
o No fertilization has taken place
(b) Follicular Phase
o Development of follicle
o Estrogen is secreted, which triggers the thickening of the
endometrium
(c) Ovulatory Phase
o Ovulation occurs due to a spike in luteinizing hormone (LH)
o Secondary oocyte is released from ovary
(d) Luteal Phase
o Corpus Luteum develops
 Secretes estrogen and progesterone
 Endometrium continues to thicken
o Progesterone inhibits further ovulation and prevents uterine
contractions
SECTION 6: LONG ANSWER
INQUIRY & APPLICATION [31 MARKS]

1. Explain what is occurring in each of the following pictures. Use correct

terminology. [6]

All three pictures describe osmosis, where water moves from an area of high [water]
to an area of low [water]

First Picture:
- Isotonic cell and solution
- No net movement of water
- Cell’s [water] = solution’s [water]

Second Picture:
- Hypertonic cell, hypotonic solution
- Cell’s [water] is lower than solution’s [water]
- Water moves from solution to cell

Third Picture:
- Hypotonic cell, hypertonic solution
- Cell’s [water] is higher than solution’s [water]
- Water moves from cell to solution
2. Explain why feedback inhibition is important and how it relates to cellular
respiration. Provide a specific example. [4]

Feedback inhibition ensures that the body does not waste energy. It regulates the
rate of reactions. It is very important in controlling aerobic respiration. An
example of this is PFK which is an allosteric enzyme that catalyzes the third
reaction in glycolysis. It is inhibited by ATP and stimulated by ADP. Citrate also
acts as an inhibitor to PFK; when it accumulates, it will inhibit PFK and slow down
glycolysis. When citrate is used up, the concentration will decrease and the rate
of glycolysis will increase.

NADH can also act as an inhibitor for an enzyme that reduces the amount of
acetyl-CoA that is shuttled to the Krebs cycle, reducing the amount of NADH
produced. This ensures that excess energy that the body does not need is not
produced and therefore wasted.

Both of these feedback loops help to control aerobic respiration.

3. a) Which hormone(s) play a role in establishing homeostasis when the body has
low blood pressure? [2]

Renin, Aldosterone

b) Explain how the hormone(s) work(s) to increase blood pressure and re-
establish homeostasis in the body. Be sure to indicate the hormone’s
function, target organ and where it’s produced/ released. [4]

Renin;
o Released by juxtaglomerular apparatus
o Renin converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin
o Angiotensin constricts blood vessels to increase blood pressure –
angiotensin stimulates the release of aldosterone

Aldosterone;
o Released from the adrenal gland
o Carried in blood to the kidneys
o It acts on nephrons to increase sodium and water re-absorption