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 A 65 year old man who experiences urinary retention or difficult y in voiding his bladder most likely has benign

gn prostatic hyperplasia
o BPH very common in older men; formation of nodules in prostatic tissue surrounding the prostatic urethra  urinary obstruction
 A benign neoplasm of the myometrium of the uterus is a leiomyoma
o Leiomyoma-fibroid tumors; benign smooth muscle neoplasms of the uterus
o Myeloma-plasma cell dyscrasias with multiple plasma cell tumors scattered throughout the body
o Fibromas-tumors of connective tissue often found in the ovaries
o Myoblastomas-benign circumscribed lesions of soft tissue often found in the tongue but not of muscular origin
o Rhabdomyoma-benign cardiac muscle tumors usually seen in children
 A can of disinfectant spray states that it kills HIV virus. This statement is not a good indication of disinfectant effectiveness
o HIV is notoriously easy to kill on most environmental surfaces
 A common oral manifestation of Addison’s Disease is melanosis
o Addison’s disease-adrenal insufficiency
 A complication of peptic ulcer disease that accounts for the majority of deaths is perforation
 A deficiency in T-lymphocytes is most associated with the development of oral candidiasis
 A fungus that causes systemic disease, most commonly of the lungs, and is characterized by its production of turbercolate chlamydospores in
culture is Histoplasma capsulatum
o Mycoplasma hominis is a STD and major source of infection in postpartum women
 A grayish pseudomembrane is found in an infection caused by a species of Corynebacteria
 A mother states that when she feeds or bathes her newborn, the infant becomes cyanotic; however, the baby appears normal the rest of the
time. The most likely cause of the infants signs and symptoms is patent ductus arteriosus
o Incomplete closure of the ductus arteriosus results in the bypassing of the lungs and the recirculation of blood into the systemic circuit;
since normal oxygenation of the blood doesn’t continually occur, the infant can become cyanotic during stress
 A patient with facial erythema, fever, Raynaud’s phenomenon, joint pain and photophobia probably has systemic lupus erythematosus
o The most specific marker of SLE is antibody directed against double stranded DNA
 A person with anti-A and anti-B isoagglutinins in the serum belongs to the blood group O
 A summer illness that produces vesicular lesions of the uvula, anterior pillars and the posterior pharynx is coxsackievirus
o Herpangina—fever, sore throat and pharyngitis with discrete vesicles on the anterior pillars of the fauces, palate, uvula, tonsils and
tongue; disease is common in summer and is usually self-limiting
 A woman just received a kidney transplant and pathological effect on the body would be is currently taking a medication to prevent organ
rejection. The most likely mechanism of action for this medication is reversible inhibition of helper T lymphocytes
 Addison’s Disease, a disorder of adrenal insufficiency, can lead to the development of oral lesions in any area of the mouth; however, these oral
lesions are most commonly found on the buccal mucosa
 Adenocarcinomas of the large intestine are most common in the rectosigmoid colon
 Administration of tetanus toxoid provides artificial active immunity
o Active immunity-the patient develops his/her own antibodies
o Passive immunity-antibodies are formed in another person or organism
o Example of natural passive—antibodies transferred from mother to child
o Example of artificial passive—tetanus antitoxin
 After a hamstring injury, an individual has difficulty flexing and medially rotating her thigh. The semimembranosus of the hamstring group was
most likely injured
 Hypotension is NOT associated with Cushing syndrome
o Cushing syndrome—effects of excess cortisol and sometimes on associated excess aldosterone
 Abnormal fat deposition, “moon face”, diabetes and muscle wasting
 Hyperkalemia is NOT associated with primary aldosteronism
o Primary aldosteronism—hypernatremia (caused by excess sodium retention), hypertension, polyuria (excretion of large volumes of
water), polydipsia (large amounts of water are taken in)
o Aldosterone—causes nephron to resorb more sodium and excrete a watery hypotonic urine
o In normal kidney physiology, retention of sodium is accompanied by loss of potassium (hypokalemia)
 Blood being present is NOT a characteristic of the stools seen in patients with Giardia infections
o Giardia infections—blood and mucous is not present, diarrhea is malodorous, stool is greasy and tends to float, the diarrhea caused
can be acute or chronic in nature
 Fibroid tumors of the uterus are NOT also known as leiomyosarcomas
o Fibroid tumors—malignant transformation is rare; they may require removal due to bleeding tendency; they are composed of smooth
muscle; they are the most common tumor in women
 Carcinoma of the prostate is the second most common cancer in American males
o Carcinoma of the prostate—is usually an adenocarcinoma, symptoms may mimic BPH, it can be detected by digital rectal exam, it can
be detected through specific antigen
 Streptococcus is not a typical inhabitant of damaged tissue in Vincent’s stomatitis
o Vincent’s stomatitis—Peptostreptococcus, Bacteroides, Fusobacteria and Borrelia
 Allergens that are usually responsible for contact hypersensitivity are haptens
 Amyloidosis is NOT characterized by cells notable for basophilic stain reaction
o Amyloidosis—proteinuria, glomerular damage, hepatomegaly, cardiac arrhythmias
 An increased serum acid phosphatase level is clinically significant and aids in the diagnosis of prostatic carcinoma with bone metastasis
o Paget’s Disease-serum alkaline phosphatase increased
 An individual that presents with keratoconjunctivitis, parotid gland enlargement and a positive Rh factor is most likely to be diagnosed with
Sjogren’s syndrome
o Sjogren’s syndrome—autoimmune disorder characterized by a chronic dysfunction of exocrine glands + dry mouth
 An individual with Addison’s disease is most likely to experience hypoglycemia
o Due to destruction of the zona fasiculata by an autoimmune response of the body
 An individual with mitral regurgitation will most likely suffer from fluid congestion in the lungs
 An oral lesion that may appear as an ulcer, a nodule or a vegetative process and is often mistaken for squamous cell carcinoma is a
manifestation of histoplasmosis
 Anemia found in iron deficiency is microcytic
 Antiseptics differ from disinfectants in that antiseptics are applied to viable tissues
 Bacille Calmette Guerin (BCG) is best described as a vaccine
o BCG—attenuated-related mycobacterium
 Bacteroides is NOT a bacteria with high lipid content in their cell walls
o high lipid content in cell wall—Corynebacteria, Mycobacteria, Nocardia
 Bacterial endotoxins may play a role in development of periodontal disease due to the ability of endotoxins to incite an inflammatory
response
 Bacterial flagella are composed entirely of protein
 Bence-Jones proteins are tumor markers for myeloma
o Hepatocellular carcinoma—alpha fetoprotein
o Ovarian cancer—CA 125
o Pancreatic, colorectal and gastric carcinoma—CA 19-9
o Prostate cancer—PSA (prostate specific antigen)
 Beta-thalassemia results in microcytic cells with insufficient beta hemoglobin
 Blood in the sputum is NOT characteristic of emphysema
o Blood in the sputum—tuberculosis, lobar pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, bronchogenic carcinoma
 By definition, clarithromycin specifically retards the growth of organisms eventually leading to the death of the organism
 Cervicofacial actinomycosis is usually due to contamination of a trauma or surgical site with endogenous organisms
 Chronic passive congestion of the lung is characterized by edema of alveolar walls and “heart failure” cells
 Classic hemophilia is due to a deficiency of normal Factor VIII which in turn is due to a genetic deficiency that is sex-linked recessive
 Corynebacterium diptheriae—gram positive rod
 Crohn disease most commonly involves the ileum and colon
 Detergents kill bacteria by interfering with the function of the cell membrane
 Development of pseudomembranous colitis is a major adverse effect of prolonged therapy with clindamycin
 Difficulties in controlling mycobacterial growth with antibiotics are NOT due to mycobacteria being quick growing and dividing
o Mycobacteria are notoriously difficult to kill with antibiotics
o Difficulties in controlling mycobacteria due to—mycolic acid present in cell walls, mycobacteria are intracellular parasites,
mycobacteria may be found in Ghon complexes
 Disseminated miliary tuberculosis results from spread of the tubercle bacillus by way of the bloodstream
 Chlamydial infection is NOT characterized by the ability of the organism to survive in the host extracellularly
o Chlamydial infection—large numbers of asymptomatic carriers, frequent co-infection with gonorrhea, the greater likelihood that
younger women will acquire salpingitis
 Alcoholism is NOT a risk factor for atherosclerosis
o risk factors for atherosclerosis—heredity, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipoproteinemia
 Ectopic Cushing syndrome is usually caused by secretion of bronchogenic carcinomas and pancreatic neoplasms
 Ethylene oxide sterilization procedures usually require exposure times of 8-10 hours
 Sickle cell disease is caused by one amino acid mutation (valine substitution for glutamine) in the hemoglobin chain
 Fat embolism is most often a sequela of fracture
 Following the treatment of an oral infection with clindamycin, a patient develops antibiotic associated colitis. This infection is most commonly
caused by Clostridium difficilie
 For the majority of individuals, the initial infection with herpes simplex virus results in a subclinical disease
 Generally, the antibiotic of choice for prophylactic therapy covering dental procedures in a patient with a heart valve abnormality who is allergic
to penicillin is erythromycin
 Gout results from a metabolic defect in purine
 Hashimoto thyroiditis is NOT associated with nervousness and heat sensitivity
o Hashimoto thyroiditis—goiter, plasma cell infiltrate, increased TSH, association with autoimmune diseases
 Hemophilia B is an X-linked recessive disorder where there is a deficiency of Factor IX coagulant
o von Willebrand disease—deficiency in Factor VIII antigen, Factor VIII coagulation is normal
o Hemophilia A (classic type of hemophilia)—factor VIII coagulant levels are decreased and factor VIII antigen levels are normal
 Hypersensitivity to M. tuberculosis is manifested by necrosis
 Neisseria meningitides—gram negative diplococcic
 In a patient diagnosed with mononucleosis, one would NOT expect to see normal liver function tests
o Mononucleosis—atypical lymphocytes on the differential, lymphadenopathy, normal renal function tests, splenic enlargement
 If an individual has a tumor that is secreting excess amounts of ADH, the pathological effect on the body would be hypertension
o ADH typically released when there is a fall in BP or a rise in blood concentration of electrolytes
 In an individual diagnosed with emphysema, one would NOT expect to see cyanosis
o Emphysema—decreased diffusing capacity of the lungs, increased anterioposterior diameter, increased total lung capacity, minimal
sputum production
 If clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic used in the treatment of oral infections commonly caused by anaerobic bacteria, it would most likely be
used in the treatment of an infection caused by Bacteroides fragilis
 Impetigo is a superficial infection of the skin most commonly caused by Group A streptococci
 In a patient with parathyroid adenoma, you would expect to find high serum calcium
 In addition to Neisseria meningitides, Streptococcus pneumonia is a significant cause of meningitis
 In Goodpasture syndrome, antibodies are directed against the basement membranes of both the kidney and lung
 In order for a virus to infect a host cell, it must first absorb to the cell surface. This involves a specific interaction between a viral surface
component and a specific receptor on the cell membrane
 Inadequate mobilization after a bone fracture is likely to result in pseudoarthrosis
 Insufficient intake of protein, despite sufficient caloric intake, results in the condition kwashiorkor
o Kwashiorkor—insufficient protein intake  edema, anemia, dermatoses, hepatomegaly, anergy
o Marasmus—insufficient caloric intake  cachexia, muscle wasting, loss of subcutaneous fat, failure to thrive
 Insufficient numbers of circulating polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs) is best described as leukopenia
 Jaundice does NOT result from vitamin K deficiency
o Jaundice—gallstones, Hepatitis A, hemolytic anemia, carcinoma of the common bile duct
 Keloids are composed predominately of collagen fibers
 Lecithinases are produced by Clostridium perfringens
 Left-sided heart failure or shock may be associated with pulmonary edema
 Lysozyme can attack bacterial cells by breaking the bond between NAG and NAM
 Malignant epithelial cells have an increased number and wider distribution of laminin
 MRSA—common causes of nocosomial infections
 Microcytic hypochromic anemia is most often due to chronic blood loss
 Most rickettsial diseases produce severe illness in humans because rickettsiae are destructive for endothelial cells
 Multiple drug resistance is related most closely to plasmids
 Multiple myeloma signs and symptoms do NOT include lower than normal blood viscosity
o Multiple myeloma—increased susceptibility to infection, accumulation of Bence-Jones proteins, proteinuria, “punched out” lesions on
xray
 Myasthenia gravis is caused by dysfunction of the myoneural junction
 Neoplasms of the prostate have been shown to be hormonally dependent
 Nephrolithiasis is most likely to result from hyperparathyroidism
 Of the following STDs, the least common is lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
 Opsonization may occur as a component of the humoral immune response to virulent Streptococcus pneumonia
o Opsonization—coating of microorganisms by antibody and/or complement to enhance phagocytosis
 Osteomyelitis is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus
o Osteomyelitis—various strains of Streptococci, Pneumococci, and Neisseria
o Pseudomonas aeruginosa—common pathogen among drug abusers
 Patients with Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia principally suffer from infections caused by pyogenic bacteria
o Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia—X-linked trait which results in failure of maturation of B cells
o T-cells—ability to defend against fungi, viruses and parasites
 Progressive massive fibrosis of the lung is characteristic of silicosis
 Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to the auditory nerve
o Streptomycin binds to the 30S bacterial ribosomal unit
o Streptomycin commonly used against Enterococci and Streptococci
 Recurrent herpes labialis occurs in people who have been infected with herpesvirus and who have antibodies against the virus
 RSV infection differs from influenza infections in that RSV causes disease primarily in infants
 Rheumatic fever may leave the heart seriously damaged because of damage to the heart valves thought to be a result of hypersensitivity
to Group A streptococci
 Shock during infection with gram negative bacteria is most likely caused by an endotoxin
 Sjogren’s syndrome is NOT characterized by atrophied parotid glands
o Sjogren’s syndrome—xerostomia, dry burning eyes, peripheral neuropathy, sicca syndrome
 Soap acts as a disease prevention chemical primarily by removal of microbes
o Soaps act as emulsifying agents which dissolves grease and oil which hold microorganisms to the skin
 Staphylococcus—gram + aerobe
 Sterilization is best defined as absence of all life forms
 Striated muscle, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle have in common the fact that they have a limited capacity to regenerate
 Supparation is mainly the result of the combined action of four factors. Presence of lymphocytes is NOT one of these factors.
o Supparation—necrosis, collection of neutrophils, accumulation of tissue fluid, autolysis by proteolytic enzymes
 Ten days after hospitalization for a large, incapacitating myocardial infarct, a 50 yo man suddenly develops paralysis of the right side of his
body. The best explanation for his brain damage is detachment of a mural thrombus from the left ventricle
o it is not uncommon for myocardial infarction to lead to a thrombus formation on the walls of the heart
o emboli travelling to the brain must come from the left side of the heart or systemic side
o emboli from the right side either the right ventricle or pulmonic valve would travel to the lungs and remain there
 Tetanus or lockjaw is a disease caused by Clostridium
 Tetany may result from hypofunction of the parathyroid gland
 The aerosol produced during operative dental procedures is likely to contain a predominance of gram positive microorganisms
 The alteration of Corynebacterium diphtheria to a virulent strain by the transfer of DNA temperate bacteriophage is lysogenic conversion
o Lysogenic conversion—process in which phages known as temperate phages infect a bacterial cell and can convert the bacterium
from one type to another
 The alum adjuvant employed, in many vaccines acts biologically in tissues to serve as a local inflammatory stimulus AND prolong antigen
release to immunocompetent cells in the region
 The characteristic finding in Actinomyces infections is tangled masses of filaments with “clubs”
o Actinomyces infection—follow oral surgery procedures, often accompanied by draining fistulas and material described as “sulfur
granules” but not composed of sulfur
 The characteristic lesion of primary syphilis is the hard chancre
 The earliest changes in rheumatoid arthritis occur in the synovia
 The etiologic basis of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is autoimmune
 The etiology of megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) is absence of ganglion cells
 The first human cancer that has been strongly linked to a virus is Burkitt’s Lymphoma
 The immediate type of hypersensitivity in which histamine does NOT play a major role is Arthus reaction
o Urticaria-rash or hives which accompanies IgE mediated hypersensitivity
 The majority of cases of pharyngitis are caused by a variety of viruses
 The most characteristic finding in intestinal malabsorption syndrome is steatorrhea
o Steatorrhea means fatty stool…fat which is not absorbed gets passed in the feces and it floats and has a greasy appearance
o Melena-passage of black stool due to the presence of digested blood, it is the marker of upper GI bleeding
 Esophageal varices—large swollen veins in the esophagus which are easily and often ruptured
 The most common clinical consequence of benign prostatic hyperplasia is urinary tract obstruction
 The most common malignant neoplasm of the stomach is carcinoma
o Leiomyoma (smooth muscle) and gastric polyps—benign
o Gastric carcinoma—composed of gastric and intestinal mucus-secreting cells; spreads through the lymphatics
o Krukenberg tumor—in the ovary, metastasizes from the stomach
 The MOST important viral cause of gastroenteritis in children less than 2 years old is rotavirus
 The most likely diagnosis for a patient with dysphonia, dysphagia, weight loss and a history of heavy cigarette smoking is carcinoma of the
larynx
o Dysphonia—difficulty in producing sounds and indicates involvement of the vocal cords or larynx
 The primary sources of pathogenic microorganisms in the dental operatory are the mouths of patients
 The principal antibacterial action of the tetracycline is inhibition of protein synthesis
o Inhibit cell wall synthesis—penicillin, cephalosporins
o Interfere with protein synthesis—tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin, lincomycin
o Interfere with bacterial cell membranes and destroy active transport—polymxins
 The renal lesion most commonly associated with benign hypertension is arteriolonephrosclerosis
o Arteriolonephrosclerosis—thickening or hyalinization of renal arterioles caused by mild hypertension and does not normally impair
renal function
o Renal atresia—congenital absence or closure of arteries to kidney
o Pyelonephritis—infection of renal pelvis, tubules or interstitium often from gram negative bacteria from patient’s fecal flora
 The rickettsial disease that may have oral manifestations is rickettsiapox
o Rickettsia are gram negative coccobacilli and are most famous for causing rocky mountain spotted fever and typhus
o Rickettsialpox—spread by mites on house mice; involves a vesicular popular rash which may spread to the lips and buccal mucosa +
lymphadenopathy
o Brills disease—disease found in patients that formerly had epidemic typhus; milder without skin rash and no oral symptoms
o Epidemic typhus—spread by human body lice and signs and symptoms include fever, chills, myalgia and headache followed by
cutaneous erythema but it does not spread orally
 The term “biofilm” as it applies in dentistry is most often used to describe the surface of dental waterlines
 Two important factors for initiation of caries by oral streptococci are synthesis of insoluble dextran and production of glucosyltransferase
 Vancomycin—gram positive bacteria
 Lactobacillus is the acidogenic bacteria that often causes significant dental decay in deep established dental caries
 Catecholamines are usually secreted by pheochromocytomas
 Hepatitis A does NOT have a carrier state
 Weight loss, jaundice, hepatomegaly and myalgia are all clinical signs/symptoms of hepatitis
 Multiple cutaneous abscesses with sinuses are most characteristic of cervicofacial actinomycosis
 Mycobacterium tuberculosis has the highest lipid content in the cell wall
 Eosinophils are increased in number in the bloodstream in allergy or parasitic infection
o Eosinophil levels elevated in neoplasm, allergy, atopy, collagen vascular disorders and parasitic infection
o Basophil levels elevated in polycythemia vera, myelofibrosis, and chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
 Plasma cells are responsible for secreting antibodies during an infectious process
o Lymphocytes—immature cells that become plasma cells; aka B cells are responsible for humoral immunity
o Megakaryocytes—immature cells that become platelets which clump together and stick to vessel walls following a traumatic event
o Neutrophils (PMN) and macrophages—cells of the immune system that “ingest” foreign particles by flowing their cytoplasm around the
foreign object
o Prostaglandins—produced in most tissues in the body and are responsible for coordinating local cellular activities
 Cherry red blood characterizes victims of fatal, acute carbon monoxide poisoning
 Osteitis deformans increases the risk of developing osteosarcoma
o Osteitis deformans = Paget’s disease
o Osteomalacia—condition of soft bones subsequent to vitamin D deficiency
o Osteoporosis—weakening of bones due to loss of bone mass
o Osteoblastoma—benign tumor of bone that occurs at the diaphysis of long bones
o Osteogenesis imperfect—inherited condition of collagen synthesis
 Chronic bronchitis predisposes to lung cancer by causing squamous metaplasia of bronchial epithelium
 Acute blood loss results in the development of a normocytic, normochromic anemia
 The function of adjuvants is to enhance antibody response
 Hepatitis B associated with the “Dane Particle”
o Dane Particle is the name for the entire Hepatitis B virion
o Presence of HBeAg is associated with increased viral replication and infectivity of the patient
 Recurrent varicella is characterized by painful vesicles that occur on the skin or a mucosal surface along the distribution of a sensory nerve
 Traveller’s diarrhea is NOT associated with a species of Clostridium
o Clostridium—pseudomembranous colitis, antibiotic associated colitis, botulism, tetanus
 Interferon production distinguishes a viral infection from other microbial assaults
 Depth of invasion has the greatest impact on prognosis of a skin melanoma
 Behcet’s are forms of oral ulcerations that involves oral, ocular and genital lesions
o Behcet’s—form of vasculitis or disease of blood vessels; affects venules and causes ulcers of the oral cavity, eyes, genitals and
sometimes skin
o Herpetiform ulcerations-caused by forms of herpesvirus, found in oral or genital, no ocular ulcerations
o Recurrent apthous lesions in oral cavity, painful spherical ulcers with a possible autoimmune or psychosomatic connection
 Coccidiodes is NOT a dermatophyte
o Dermatophyte—Trichophyton, Microsporum and Epidermophyton
 Shigella is MOST likely involved in bacillary dysentery
 Staphylococcus most frequently develops resistance to penicillin
 Aschoff bodies in the heart muscle during necropsy suggests that the person died of, or at least had rheumatic fever
 Lymphangioma is a benign lesion, most commonly found on the buccal mucosa and the dorsal surface of the tongue, and has a surface
appearance of numerous small closely packed nodular structures filled with fluid and may resemble a blister
o Oral hemangioma—benign lesions that occur most frequently on the buccal and labial mucosa, vermilion of the lip and tongue and
typically present as red, smooth, protruding lesion at the tip of the tongue
o Malignant melanomas—can occur anywhere in the oral cavity, raised purplish dark brown patches, ill defined
o Nevi—benign lesions that may occur anywhere in the oral cavity; discrete, localized, brown black pigmented lesions
o Pleomorphic adenomas—commonly found in the salivary glands, palate, lip and buccal glands
 White spongy nevus is a congenital condition that alters the texture of the oral and/or vaginal mucosa causing painless white lesions
o Hairy tongue—disorder that results in the elongation of filiform papillae of the tongue leading to the characteristic brown-black color of
the dorsum of the tongue
o Fordyce’s disease—causes either buccal and/or labial mucosal lesions; causes aggregation of numerous small yellowish spots
beneath the mucosal surface
o Lichen planus—affects both the skin and oral mucus membranes; characteristic violaceous lesions usually appear on buccal mucosa,
tongue, gingiva and/or lips
o Nicotinic stomatitis—typically found on the hard palate of pipe smokers and is characterized by several white elevations with a central
red area
 Multiple sclerosis is a demyelinating disease of the central nervous system
o Alzheimers disease—form of dementia; atrophy of cerebral cortex occurs with loss of neurons and neurofibrillary tangles
o Parkinsons disease—degeneration of neurons in the nucleus basalis and dopamine depletion
o Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease—disease of the cortex and basal ganglia caused by slow acting virus-like agents
 Hepatitis B is a DNA virus
 Histoplasma capsulatum is a fungus that is known to produce small ulcerative lesions in the mouth, primarily on the tongue and gingiva
 Hypertension is a significant effect of pheochromocytoma
 Placental transfer of anti body is an example of naturally-acquired passive immunity in humans
 Single chromosome is characteristic of a prokaryotic cell
 Atelectasis is characterized by collapse of alveoli
o Atelectasis—often found in cases of asthma of the allergic type
o Empyema—pleura are filled with purulent exudate
o Emphysema—alveolar septa are destroyed
o Bronchiectasis—bronchi and bronchioles dilate abnormally
 Chlorhexidine gluconate is characterized by a cumulative antimicrobial effect
o When chlorhexidine is used repeatedly on skin, the chemical accumulates to produce an enhanced microbial effect
o Iodine—unknown mechanism; effective against live bacteria and spores
o Alcohol—precipitates protein; not effective against spores
o Cationic detergents—silver and mercury compounds; silver—precipitating proteins and interfering with bacterial
metabolism…mercury—precipitate proteins but have added effect of self-hydro-enzyme inhibition
o Acid glutaraldehyde—kills microorganisms by precipitating proteins; effective against spores only when applied for several hours
 For obligate anaerobic microorganisms in the oral cavity they are normal flora and opportunistic
 Turner’s syndrome diagnosed by karyotyping
o Karyotyping—involves counting and typing of chromosomes
 Acid phosphatase elevated in the serum of patients with prostate cancer
 M. bovis is MOST closely related to Mycobacterium tuberculosis
 Villous adenoma most commonly associated with development of gastrointestinal cancer
 Cardiac tamponade is MOST likely to cause a sudden arrest of heart function
o Cardiac tamponade—fluid fills the pericardial space, produces pressure on the ventricles during diastole
o Mitral stenosis—limited motion of mitral valve and causes chronic heart dysfunction
o Angina pectoris—heart pain caused by poor blood flow in the coronary arteries
o Constrictive pericarditis—growth of fibrous tissue in the pericardium causing decreased ventricular filling
o Subacute bacterial endocarditis—infection of heart valves by bacteria  valve damage, myocardial abscess, septic emboli
 Hepatitis A is NOT linked to fulminant hepatitis
o Fulminant hepatitis—massive liver necrosis; progressive loss of liver function and shrinking due to hepatocyte death
o Isoniazid used in treating tuberculosis can have side effect of fulminant hepatitis
o Carbon tetrachloride—fulminant hepatitis
 BPH does NOT commonly lead to carcinoma of the prostate
 Paget’s disease—high serum alkaline phosphatase
 Lymphadenopathy is the most common initial sign or symptom in patients with malignant lymphoma
 Facultative streptococci is the single MOST numerous group of microorganisms in the oral cavity
 Elevated serum lipase—lab result diagnostic of acute pancreatitis
 Nystatin is effective in treating oral candidiasis
 Candida is most likely to be cultured from chronic, bilateral ulcerations at the corners of the mouth
 Penicillin—inhibits the terminal step in peptidoglycan synthesis
 Neuroblastoma appears the MOST often in children
 Pneumocystis carinii causes pneumonia exclusively in immunocompromised individuals
 Cryptococcus is encapsulated yeast and is most common cause of fungal meningitis
 Liver is the most uncommon site for infarcts
o Liver is highly vascularized
o Infarcts—brain (stroke), heart (heart attack), kidney, adrenals
o Infarctions—regions of tissue necrosis resulting from acute decrease in blood supply; occur primarily when arterial flow is disrupted
 The Delta particle does NOT contain HbsAg
o Delta particle—Hepatitis D
o Dane particle—Hepatitis B
 Asbestosis is the pneumoconiosis most often associated with bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma in man
 Thrombophlebitis is the MOST common source of pulmonary embolism
 Orchitis is the chief complication of mumps in adult male
 Fibrocystic disease represents the MOST frequent cause of a clinically palpable breast mass in an adult woman
 Benzpyrene represents the MOST potent carcinogen
 Chronic passive congestion of the lungs represents the MOST reliable postmortem indicator of left ventricular cardiac failure
 Reverse transcriptase is a viral-associated enzyme unique to RNA tumor viruses
 Varicella virus causes two distinct diseases in different age groups
 Clostridium and Bacillus produce spores

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