CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION & PREVENTION

1. What is the upper section of an extension ladder?

A. top C. fly

B. butt D. extension

2. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing organic compound which releases

oxygen readily?

A. organic peroxide C. corrosive liquid

B. blasting agent D. combustible fiber

3. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as
from the base to the top of the building?

A. vertical shaft C. standpipe

B. sprinkler system D. flash point

4. What is known as the Fire Code of the Philippines?

A. Presidential Decree No 448

B. Presidential Decree No 1184

C. Presidential decree No 421

D. Presidential Decree No 1185

5. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened when in use in order to:

A. reduce vibration of the hydrant

B. ensure that the drip valve is all the way closed

C. prevent water hammer

D. close the coupling

6. This phase of fire operations is equivalent to the “reconnaissance” phase of military

operations.
 A. salvage C. protection of exposure

B. overhaul D. size- up

7. What is a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in

an electrical system?

A. magnet C. brace

B. jumper D. wire

8. Conduction is heat transfer through:

A. solid materials C. electromagnetic waves

B. smoke D. air motion

9. The most common motive for arson is

A. jealousy C. profit

B. spite D. revenge

10. What would smoke emanating from a building indicate?

A. presence of humid substance

B. Flying ash

C. presence of phosphorus

D. presence of nitrates

11. Heat is transferred by light rays through the method of:

A. conduction C. oxidation

B. convection D. radiation

12. What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the non- volatile from the
less volatile parts and then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to
produce a nearly purified substance?

A. combustion C. evaporation

B. distillation D. condensation

13. What is the minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in
sufficient concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air?

A. evaporating point C. boiling point

B. ignition point D. flash point

14. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?

A. inflammable substance found in the premises

B. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building

C. building insurance

D. any of these

15. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers through electromagnetic
waves. This heat transfer is:

A. conduction C. combustion

B. radiation D. convection

16. What is the material which produces and liberates its own oxygen when heated?

A. radiation C. conductor

B. oxidizing agent D. vapor

17. What is a vertical panel of non- combustible or fire resistant materials attached to
and extending below the bottom chord of roof trusses to divide the underside of the
roof into separate compartments so that heat and smoke will be directed upwards to a
roof vent?

A. fire door C. fire trap

B. electric arc D. curtain board

18. What is referred to as partial distillation and electrolysis?

A. fulminating C. smelting

B. refining D. oxidizing

19. What kind of toxicological analysis are routinely carried out for fire deaths?

A. Drug test
 B. Body organ fluids

C. Carbon monoxide and alcohol

D. Neuro- psychiatric exam

20. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?

A. hydrant key C. key board

B. fire hose D. jumper

21. If fire occurs in a flow of lique fied petroleum gas storage tank and the flow cannot
be checked, the safest practice is to

A. use foam to put off the fire

B. permit the fire to burn itself

C. use fog to extinguish the fire

D. use sand to smother the flame

22. How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion?

A. 20 C. 30

B. 10 D. 15

23. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where rungs are connected
horizontally to the beam forming ascent or descent?

A. rope C. hydrant

B. ladder D. nozzle

24. What are the cross numbers between the beam and used in climbing the ladder
called?

A. hangar C. beams

B. rungs D. braces

25. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is equal
to the atmospheric pressure?

A. vapor density C. fire point

 B. boiling point D. vapor pressure

26. What is an act which removes or neutralizes a fire hazard?

A. distillation C. allotment

B. abatement D. combustion

27. The ratio of the weight of a solid or liquid substance to the weight of an equal
volume of water.

A. vapor density C. specific gravity

B. molecular weight D. vapor pressure

28. During a conflagration, the smoke emitted is grayish, what does it indicate?

A. presence of nitrate

B. indicate humid substance

C. loosely packed substance such as straw and hay

D. presence of phosphorus

29. It is the heat transfer through solid materials such as steel beams, metal conduits
and ducts.

A. conduction C. radiation

B. combustion D. convection

30. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct contact is called
_______________.

A. oxidation C. convection

B. conduction D. radiation

31. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases in our midst, which of the
following facilities should you check?

A. Electric switch system B. Gift-wrapped packages

B. All of these D. Telephones

32. What should the firefighter do when ventilating a peaked roof?

 A. Make openings at right angles to ridge pole

B. Make openings on ridge pole on windward side of the roof

C. Rip off roof covering on lee side and cut sheathing

D. Make opening on windward side of the roof peak

33. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules?

A. Ignition point C. Temperature

B. Flash point D. Boiling point

34. To cut a hole in the concrete floor for a cellar type, the cutting operation should
start ____________.

A. At the thickest point of the concrete flooring

B. In the center of the concrete flooring between the floor beams

C. Close to the floor beams

D. None of these

35. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities suf ficient to stimulate or
support combustion?

A. Smoke C. carbon

B. oxidizing material D. ember

36. The cause of the majority of fire deaths is ________.

A. Infection C. shock

B. burns D. asphyxiation

37. In a combustion process, which event comes first?

A. fire point C. none of these

B. ignition temperature D. flash point

38. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state under pressure and at normal
atmospheric temperature inside its container?

A. cryogenic gas C. liquefied gas

B. compressed gas D. nuclear gas

39. What moves rapidly by convection and can spread laterally along the ceiling?

A. heat C. smoke

B. fire D. temperature

40. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:

A. heel C. butt

B. bed ladder D. fly ladder

41. Which of the following restrict the spread of fire to the point of origin or atleast to
the area involved?

A. extinguishments C. suppression

B. confinement D. control

42. The technique used in clearing a building of smoke and with the use of smoke
ejector is called as what?

A. smoke ejector C. forced ventilation

B. horizontal ventilation D. vertical

43. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the roof is referred
to as:

A. vertical ventilation C. cross ventilation

B. forced ventilation D. horizontal ventilation

44. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over
the entire surface?

A. oxidation C. flash over

B. back draft D. combustion

45. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consumes
electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.

A. self- closing door C. jumper

B. overloading D. oxidizing material

46. One of the following is exempted from paying 0.01% of the assessed value of a
building.

A. single family dwellings C. department store

B. hospitals D. schools

47. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as
from the base to the top of the building.

A. sprinkler system C. vertical shaft

B. flash point D. standpipe system

48. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire resistance rating of not
less than four hours with suf ficient structural stability to remain standing even if
construction on either side collapses under fire condition:

A. firewood C. post wall

B. fire wall D. fire trap

49. Passage way from one building to another or through or around a wall in
appropriately the same floor level.

A. smelting C. fulminate

B. vestibule D. horizontal exit

50. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most probable extinguishing
method is:

A. smothering C. fuel removal

B. cooling D. dilution

51. In cutting a roof to ventilate, the fire fighter should avoid _______.

A. cutting a very large hole

 B. cutting several small holes

C. cutting roof boards near the beam

D. making openings over the fire

52. Which of these statements is TRUE?

A. Radiation is heat transfer through combustion

B. Radiation is heat transfer through solid materials

C. Radiation is heat transfer through air motion

D. Radiation is heat transfer by electromagnetic waves

53. Which causes the greatest number of fire?

A. spontaneous combustion C. electrical wiring

B. leaking gas pipes D. smoking and matches

54. When heat is transmitted in circulating medium, the method is called___________.

A. radiation C. oxidation

B. convection D. conduction

55. Which of the following doe s NOT fall under class A fires?

A. none of these C. burning nipa hut

B. exploding gas depot D. forest fire

56. Which of the following best illustrate arson?

A. simultaneous fire C. faulty electric wiring

B. unexplained explosion D. thick reddish smoke

57. There is an increased quantity of carbon monoxide produced when fuel is burned in
limited supply of oxygen because ________.

A. carbon reacts with carbon monoxide

B. carbon reacts with carbon dioxide

 C. carbon monoxide is an effective reducing agent

D. greater oxidation takes place

58. Why water is prohibited to quench Class D fires?

A. burning metals are too hot

B. water is not capable of extinguishing the fire

C. there is the danger of electrocution

D. explosion may occur

59. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or street where fire hose is
connected so that water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.

A. fire hose box C. fire truck

B. hose reel D. fire hydrant

60. Which of the following is considered as the most effective fixed installation for
controlling fire which will discharge water into incipient fire from heads located near the
ceiling?

A. fire hydrant C. standpipe

B. automatic water sprinkler D. fire extinguisher

61. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids like kerosene, gasoline,
alcohol, etc.

A. Class D C. Class A

B. Class C D. Class B

62. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on the
hose. What is the most likely reason for taking this position?

A. The stream is projected farther

B. The surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable

C. A backward force is developed which must be counter acted

D. The firemen can see better where the stream strikes

63. What is the most common excuse by a fire prober when no evidence is found?

A. lack of witnesses C. electrical wiring

B. no evidence D. no determination

64. What is the most common motive in burning cars?

A. household grabbles C. financial difficulties

B. political ideology D. concealment of crime

65. The vehicle is the “extension” of the owner’s house. Is the intentional burning of a
car by another constitute arson?

A. no C. it depends

B. yes D. sometimes

66. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that you have to file is:

A. arson with murder C. murder

B. arson D. murder with arson

67. Is the existence of two fires involving the same building with insurance and with the
same owner constitute arson?

A. yes C. no

B. sometimes D. it depends

68. After the fire fighting operation and fire out has been declared, what is the first thing
that a fire prober must determine?

A. look for survivors C. established corpus delicti

B. locate the point of origin D. search for debris

69. What is the most effective cooling agent for fire fighting operation?

A. CO2 C. dry powder

B. H20 D. NaCl

70. What is the most important element of fire?

 A. heat C. oxygen

B. fuel D. none of these

71. If the cause of fire is accidental in nature, does it constitute prima facie of arson?

A. no C. it depends

B. maybe D. sometimes

72. What is the process of thermal decomposition of solid materials through the action
of heat?

A. sublimation C. flashover

B. pyrolosis D. kindling temperature

73. Why water should be avoided to quench Class C fires?

A. Water is not capable of extinguishing the fire

B. Water will spread the fire

C. Explosion may occur

D. Danger of electrocution

74. In structural fire fighting, what is the method used for clearing the building of smoke
and gases to facilitate the operation?

A. ventilation C. salvage

B. exposures D. overhaul

75. What do you call to the part of an extension ladder that touches the ground?

A. rung C. bed ladder

B. butt D. heel

76. What is a portable metal device used to put out fires of limited size?

A. fire hose C. fire extinguisher

B. fire hydrant D. fire truck

77. Unrelated fire in different places of the same structure is an indication of:
 A. accidental fire C. arson

B. consummated fire D. explosion

78. What type of ladder is best suited for fire fighting operation involving high-rise
building?

A. attic C. extension

B. aerial D. hook

79. In order for arson to be deemed committed by a syndicate, how many person must
be involved?

A. 1 C. 2

B. 3 D. 4

80. Carbon dioxide is hazardous because it:

A. is poisonous

B. explodes when ignited by spark

C. does not support life

D. supports combustion

81. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system which
automatically closes to restrict the passage of smoke or fire?

A. fire exit C. fire trap

B. damper D. fire alarm

82. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it is necessary to determine whether

ventilating is necessary and if so, the method to ventilate. Which is of LEAST value in
making such decision?

A. Observing density of smoke through windows

B. Observing the points at which smoke may be oozing out from the building

C. Feeling walls and roofs for hot spots

D. Observing the color of the flame

83. If amphetamines are known as “uppers”, what drugs are known as “downers”?

A. hallucinogens C. barbiturates

B. solvents D. cocaine

84. Who has committed an act which is punishable under RA 9165, with a penalty range
of life imprisonment to death and a fine of Php 500,000 to Php 10,000,000?

A. Pedro who is caught cultivating marijuana plants in a Plantation in the

Cordillera

B. Julio who was caught for illegal possession of opium Pipes and other
paraphernalia

C. Dr. Peter Allay who issued an unlawful medical prescriptions

D. Pablo who is an employee of a den for the illegal use of volatile substance

85. Pedro cannot function without drugs in his system and if he does not take drugs, he
develops withdrawal signs such as restlessness, pain, or convulsions. Pedro is

A. physically dependent on drugs

B. mentally dependent on drugs

C. psychologically dependent on drugs

D. socially dependent on drugs

86. Stimulant is known as “mood elevators” while heroin and opiates are known as:

A. “the poor man’s cocaine C. “the superman”

B. “the enslavers D. “the assassin of the youth”

87. What is referred to as the “Green Triangle Area”?

A. Mindoro- Palawan- Masbate

B. Benguet- Kalinga Apayao- Mt Province

C. Ilocos Sur- Benguet- Mt Province

D. Zamboanga- Cotabato- Davao

88. These are drugs capable of provoking changes of sensation, thinking, self-
awareness and emotion.

A. narcotics C. depressants

B. hallucinogens D. stimulants

89. What technique is useful for establishing the probable identity of a drug?

A. Chromatography

B. UV Spectrophotometry

C. Infrared Spectrophotometry

D. None of these

90. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous system and are
commonly referred to as “uppers”?

A. Amphetamines C. Naptha

B. barbiturates D. Diazepam

91. What group of drugs are used medically as pain killers?

A. opiates C. shabu

B. track D. coke

92. The source of most analgesic narcotic is _________.

A. all of these C. heroine

B. morphine D. Opium

93. What drugs produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color
and other bizarre effects?

A. opiates C. heroine

B. narcotics D. hallucinogens

94. What drug acts on the central nervous system, producing excitement, alertness and
wakefulness?

A. barbiturates C. opiates
 B. depressant D. stimulant

95. The proliferation of marijuana abuse is dif ficult to contain because _________.

A. it can easily be cultivated in hilly places of the country

B. it can be smoked easily and anywhere

C. it can be easily smuggled into the country

D. there is a big demand for it

96. Which of the factors below is perceived to be the major cause of initial drug abuse?

A. poor environment C. domestic violence

B. experimental thrill D. peer pressure

97. What drugs are commonly referred as “downers” because they relax, create a
feeling of well being and produced sleep to the user?

A. opium C. LSD

B. barbiturates D. marijuana

98. Which of the following is NOT a reason for taking drugs?

A. high self esteemed and ego

B. accessibility of sources such as drug stores, medicine cabinets, etc.

C. personal reasons such as family problems and social pressure

D. influenced by friends and peers

99. Marijuana treated cubes are known as what?

A. jutes C. snow

B. stuff D. coke

100. If cocaine is a stimulant, what is LSD?

A. solvent C. hallucinogen

B. narcotic D. depressant

101. Statistics among youths show that the use of “gateway drugs” such as cigarettes,
alcohol and marijuana takes place within which of the following teenage group
categories?

A. 14-15 C. 10-15

B. 11-15 D. 10-12

102. What classification would solvents, paints and gasoline which are examples of
substances that are sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?

A. Depressants C. energizers

B. Inhalants D. Tranquillizers

103. Street level pushing/ peddling is a problem addressed by which of the following
police operational strategy?

A. demand reduction

B. community oriented policing system

C. all of these

D. supply reduction

104. What is street name for morphine?

A. crystal C. lahar

B. monkey D. bata

105. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?

A. loss of appetite, alertness and wakefulness

B. sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color

C. false perception of objects and experiences

D. all of these

106. Cannabis Sativa is commonly known as:

A. opium poppy C. coca bush

B. marijuana D. peyote

107. Which among the following reagents would turn red color in the chloroform layer
indicating positive marijuana intake?

A. Marquis C. Dillie- Kappani

B. Duquenois- Levine D. Van urk

108. Can a high school student be compelled to undergo drug test?

A. yes C. it depends

B. maybe D. no

109. What is the world’s oldest cultivated plant as source of a prohibited drug?

A. Marijuana C. Opium

B. Coca bush D. Peyote

110. What is the prosecuting arm of the Dangerous Drug Board?

A. DILG C. DND

B. PDEA D. DOH

111. The lead agency in policy making for anti- drug programs and campaign in the
Philippines.

A. DND C. DOJ

B. DILG D. DSWD

112. Who shall be primarily responsible for the education and awareness on the ill
effects of dangerous drugs?

A. teacher C. police

B. social worker D. family

113. Within how many hours does a police of ficer require a person caught with
possession of drugs to submit the result of drug test?

A. 12 C. 24

B. 18 D. 36
114. What test is used to determine the presence of shabu?

A. benzedine test C. takayama test

B. symon’s test D. marquis test

115. There are how many users of dangerous drugs in the Philippines?

A. 1 million C. 3 million

B. 2 million D. 5 million

116. After the filing of criminal case in court, within how many hours the court must
conduct inspection of the seized dangerous drugs?

A. 24 C. 12

B. 36 D. 72

117. Who shall designate special prosecutors that will handle cases in violation of RA
9165?

A. Supreme court C. Court of Appeals

B. DILG D. DOJ

118. SPO1 Marquez intentionally failed to appear as a prosecution witness during trial
of the case against the alleged drug dealer caught in buy- bust operation. What will be
his penalty?

A. 6 years imprisonment C. life imprisonment

B. 20 years imprisonment D. 12 years imprisonment

119. What is termed by the United Nations as the “Drug of the 21st Century”?

A. morphine C. amphetamines

B. marijuana D. LSD

120. What is the designation of the head of PDEA?

A. director general C. secretary

B. director D. commissioner

121. Which of the following is called as “designer drugs”?

 A. LSD C. MDMA

B. marijuana D. shabu

122. The suspect was arrested in a buy- bust operation conducted by the PDEA and
found in his possession are eight (8) grams of shabu. What is the penalty provided
under RA 9165?

A. 20 years imprisonment C. 12 years imprisonment

B. 20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment D. death penalty

123. What chemical must be added to morphine to produce heroin?

A. hydrochloric solution C. sodium chloride

B. muriatic acid D. acetic anhydride

124. Any facility used for the illegal manufacture of any dangerous drugs and/ or
controlled precursor and essential chemical.

A. drug syndicate C. manufacture

B. laboratory D. clandestine laboratory

125. In the Philippines, what is the most popular drug of choice being abused?

A. marijuana C. cocaine

B. ecstasy D. shabu

126. Is a violator of RA 9165 allowed to plea guilty to a lesser offense?

A. yes C. no

B. it depends D. maybe

127. PO1 Cruz planted 0.5 grams of shabu to their suspect and PO3 Reyes planted 1
gram of shabu. Is their penalty the same?

A. no C. yes

B. maybe D. it depends

128. How many years were given to personnel absorbed and or detail service to finally
decide to join the PDEA?
 A. 6 C. 7

B. 5 D. 4

130. In a survey conducted by the DDB, in 1999, there are how many regular users of
dangerous drugs in the country?

A. 1 million C. 2 million

B. 1.6 million D. 1.8 million

131. What country is the number 1 supplier of shabu in the South East Asian Region?

A. Cambodia C. china

B. Thailand D. Philippines

132. In 2004 statistics from different government rehabilitation centers, it shows that
majority of patients are in what age group?

A. 30- 39 C. 40- 49

B. 10- 19 D. 20- 29

133. Can PDEA operate anti- drug operation in Subic Bay Free Port?

A. no C. yes

B. it depends D. maybe

134. What is the objective of traffic control?

A. to arrest traffic violators

B. to increase safety level

C. to prevent scalawags

D. to solve crimes

135. What is the combination of verbal warning and citations called?

A. Traffic consultation

B. Citation warnings

C. Written warnings
 D. Traffic rules implementation

136. What is the occurrence in a sequence of or a chain of events which usually

produce unintended injury, death, or damage to property?

A. Calamity C. Accident

B. crime D. Assault

137. What is that movement of persons, good, and vehicles either powered by an
animal or an animal- drawn vehicle on by combustion system from one place to
another?

A. Engineering C. Traffic

B. Traffic management D. Construction

138. How are violators informed of violation of the law and thereafter, explain the
hazards to such action?

A. Verbal warning

B. Traffic accost

C. Traffic regulation explain

D. Traffic advice

139. What enforcement action consists of taking a person into custody for purpose of
holding or detaining him to answer a charge of violation before a court?

A. Traffic enforcement C. Traffic patrol

B. Traffic investigation D. Traffic arrest

140. Where do we report collision between train and bus?

A. General investigation C. Auxiliary service

B. Traffic investigation D. Homicide division

141. What is the proof that one is given permission by the Land Transportation Of fice
(LTO) to operate a vehicle on public highways?

A. driver’s ID C. driver’s license

 B. franchise D. operator’s license

142. To whom do we report an accident or collision bus and person?

A. Intelligence and investigation

B. Administrative

C. General investigation

D. Traffic investigation

143. Which of the following is the basic objective of police traf fic control?

A. prevention of traffic accidents

B. planning for safe roads

C. movement of traffic with safety

D. economized transport of goods and services

144. What kind of driver is one who shows a complete disregard for others, aggressive,
impatient, demanding and thoroughly sel fish in his actions affecting other drivers?

A. vociferous C. defensive

B. egotists D. emotional

145. How should a driver approach an intersection?

A. Be at the right of way C. Be at the full stop

B. Give a signal D. Overtake other vehicles

146. Safe use of the streets by drivers and pedestrians is a matter of

A. adequate utilization of traffic resources

B. effective traffic enforcement

C. correct attitude and habit

D. sustained information campaign

147. Which of the following evidence is important to gather from fatal motor crash?
 A. all of these

B. footwear of driver and skid mark of vehicle

C. spare tire

D. unusual odor

148. What is the first and most important step in enforcing traf fic rules?

A. none of these C. enforcement

B. planning and enforcement D. planning

149. What is the general rule for the movement of vehicular traf fic in the Philippines?

A. “keep to the left” C. none of these

B. “keep to the right” D. “watch out”

150. What should drivers do when an emergency vehicle approaches displaying legally
authorized red light and sounding a siren?

A. pull aside and stop the car abruptly

B. continue driving slowly without regard of the emerging vehicle

C. yield the right of way and wait for the passage of the vehicle

D. disregard the red light and siren

151. Who is any licensed operator of a motor vehicle?

A. pedestrian C. pilot

B. driver D. cruiser

152. What is that event where harm is done, either injury to a person or damage to
property, that is attributed to the movement of motor vehicles on the road?

A. road accident C. emergency

B. fortuitous event D. hazard

153. What traffic formation facilitates safe movement of vehicles and pedestrian in
traffic?
 A. Traffic control C. supervision

B. Management D. enforcement

154. What is the modern procedure for coping with streets and highway traf fic by
improving road efficiency?

A. Traffic engineering C. Traffic education

B. Traffic management D. Traffic direction

155. When there is a collision between a train and bus, which unit of the police takes
charge?

A. Homicide division

B. Traffic investigation unit

C. General investigation unit

D. Traffic management group

156. Who built in 1885 the first vehicle propelled by a high speed internal combustion
engine?

A. Walter Ladd C. Henry Ford

B. Joseph Cugnot D. Gottlieb Daimler

157. What is the most common cause of road accident in the Philippines?

A. road condition C. pedestrian

B. whether condition D. reckless driving

158. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the following evidence will
show how the accident happened?

A. hole on the road pavement

B. point of impact

C. the driver under the influence of liquor

D. vehicle has break failure

159. What term refers to the distance traveled before applying the brakes?
 A. braking distance C. reaction distance

B. reaction time D. braking reaction

160. The marks left on the road surface left by metal parts of the vehicle and may serve
as a clue in traffic investigation is referred to as:

A. scuff marks C. scratches and gouges

B. skid marks D. flat tire marks

161. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision course or otherwise
avoid hazard.

A. state of evasive action

B. point of possible perception

C. point of no escape

D. final position

162. Prohibitive signs and restrictive signs shall have _______.

A. blue background and white symbol

B. red background with white symbol and black border

C. white background with black symbols and red border

D. green background with white and black symbols

163. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officer should be guided
foremost by the consideration that _________.

A. some traffic violations are intended

B. the aim is to discourage violation

C. some traffic violations are caused by negligence

D. violations must be punished

164. The effectiveness of traffic law enforcement is best measured by:

A. reduction of traffic accidents and delays

B. increase in traffic law enforcement actions

C. decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement action

D. smooth flow of traffic

165. A general principle of traffic accident investigation is:

A. look for the key event that caused the accident

B. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to the accident as the cause

C. consider violations as primary cause and any factor as secondary cause

D. consider road condition

166. A systematic examination of all facts relating to conditions, actions and physical
features associated with motor collision is called:

A. traffic engineering

B. hit and run investigation

C. traffic collision

D. traffic accident investigation

167. Driving without due regard for the consequences likely to occur, ignoring the right
and safety of another is:

A. hit and run C. over speeding

B. none of these D. reckless driving

168. A device mounted on a portable support where a message is conveyed by means

of words or symbols.

A. traffic light C. traffic island

B. traffic signs D. pavement marking

169. A power operated traffic control/ device by which traffic is warned or directed to
take some specific action is called _________.

A. object markings C. traffic light signal

B. reflectorized markings D. club markings

170.In the Philippines, which of the following agencies must be accountable for an
effective driver control program?

A. Courts C. All of these

B. LTO D. Police

171. In the Philippines, what is the first rule in traffic?

A. safety first C. keep right

B. don’t overtake D. be at full stop

172. What country first used traffic signs and symbols?

A. germany C. America

B. France D. England

173. What is the traffic rule which is applicable to all motorists worldwide?

A. keep right C. safety first

B. don’t over take D. be at full stop

174. Is it correct to say that the world’s first traffic light came into being before the
automobile was in use?

A. no C. it depends

B. sometimes D. yes

175. Cars with worn out tire threads have the tendency to:

A. bungle the tire rods

B. prolong the sked time

C. accelerate the speed

D. swerve

176. What is the scientific tool that is indispensable in toxicology and in the
determination of cosmetic grease, lubricants, petrols, gums like lipstick mark of a rape
victim?

A. LEMAC
 B. Chromatographic analysis

C. Spectrophotometric analysis

D. None of these

177. What kind of question suggests to the witness the answer which the examiner
wants?

A. Relevant C. Pertinent

B. All of these D. Leading

178. A laboratory test to determine whether a blood sample is of animal or human

origin.

A. precipitin test C. rigor mortis

B. res gestae D. post mortem lividity

179. Which of the following body system coincide the stopping of a mental organ
function of a person to medically “dead”?

A. cardiac C. central nervous

B. all of these D. respiratory

180. When a crime remains unsolved, we can most accurately conclude __.

A. the crime will be solved by hard work and perseverance

B. there was some deficiency in the investigation

C. the investigation may or may not have been a success

D. all available information has been uncovered

181. On police officer may find report writing to be easy but another police of ficer may
take it as a problem. This is because report writing is a/an:

A. art C. talent

B. science D. habit

182. Official records and other documentary materials are _______ sources of data.

A. basic C. tertiary
 B. primary D. secondary

183. Modus operandi files would normally be most valuable if the crime was ______.

A. a first time offender C. an old offender

B. a female offender D. a juvenile offender

184. The Latin abbreviation “supra” means:

A. below C. above

B. bottom D. middle

185. In introducing physical evidence at a trial, three important factors must be

constructed: First, the evidence must be material and relevant, second the article must
be properly identified and _______.

A. it must be part of the modus operandi

B. there must be a knowledge of laboratory procedures

C. the object must have been use in the commission of the crime

D. the chain of custody must be established

186. What should be highlighted for publicity in a kidnap for ransom case?

A. Victim’s identity

B. None of these

C. Police investigator fine performance

D. Details of ransom rate

187. Police records are now being computerized and computers are used in police
stations. What do you call the physical machine that is seen, touched and used in the
computer system?

A. hardware C. software

B. procedure D. network

188. The Latin abbreviation “loc. Cit.” means:

A. same reference C. note well

 B. the place cited D. for example

189. Police usually come in contact with acts of sodomy when it involves_____.

A. violence and murders C. male and female

B. animals and people D. stomasexuals

190. What is the most powerful low explosive consisting of micro- cellulose mixed with
nitroglycerine? If ignited, it will result in simultaneous combustion?

A. PETN C. Tetryl

B. initiating explosives D. smokeless powder

191. There are three tools of the police investigator: information, interrogation and
instrumentation. One of these three, information is deemed the most important simply
because it answers the questions ______.

A. “what is malicious?” C. “was a weapon used?”

B. “why did it happen?” D. “who did it?”

192. It seeks to reconstruct the past objectively and accurately.

A. experimental method C. historical method

B. correlation method D. case and field method

193. What should the police officer do to make other think while he is on the witness
stand?

A. making the streets a safer place

B. defending the victim

C. trying to convict the criminal

D. merely presenting facts

194. Which of the following evidence referred to the body of the crime?

A. training C. corpus delicti

B. associative D. circumstantial

195. Under what category can the execution of a criminal act be classi fied?
 A. attempted, frustrated, consummated

B. attempted, consummated, frustrated

C. frustrated, attempted, consummated

D. frustrated, consummated, attempted

196. The Latin abbreviation “et. al.” means:

A. for example C. same reference

B. and others D. that is

197. The correct relationship of subject to the verb with respect to their number, gender,
person or case refers to:

A. parallelism C. agreement

B. conjunction D. interjection

198. The first to take cognizance of a case has ______ over the case.

A. delegated jurisdiction C. general jurisdiction

B. appellate jurisdiction D. original jurisdiction

199. Police departments are encouraging people to engrave a number on their

valuables to serve as means of identi fication as it will facilitate the recovery of lost and
stolen property. Which of the following number can be recommended for individual
identification?

A. Social security number C. Date of birth

B. Age D. Home address

200. In what order would the steps be done by the investigator upon the finding of an
evidential cigarette butt?

1. making sketch

2. photographing

3. recording

A. 2, 1 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 1
 B. 3, 2 and 1 D. 1, 2 and 3

201. What is that of physical evidence which linked the suspect to crime scene or
offense?

A. associative C. tracing evidence

B. circumstantial evidence D. corpus delicti

202. This type of police report is submitted immediately after the conduct of an
investigation.

A. closing report C. progress report

B. development report D. initial report

203. The part of speech which modifies a noun.

A. adverb C. adjective

B. verb D. pronoun

204. What is the first action of an investigator upon arriving at a homicide scene?

A. Bring the dying victim in the hospital

B. Crime scene search

C. Witness interviewing

D. Identification of witness

205. Which among the following is an accurate way of determining the firing distance?

A. Walkeirs test

B. Firing a series of test shots from various distances

C. The amount of concentration and powder residue or metal traces

D. Visual observation

206. What is a word that sounds the same but has a different meaning?

A. acronym C. homonym

B. synonym D. antonym
207. SPO4 Cruz has prepared a rough sketch of a homicide scene and is now at his
district. At this point it is most important that _____________.

A. the proper scale be used

B. a high grade of paper and ink be used

C. no changes be made on the sketch

D. this sketch be refined and improved

208. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing took place, police find
what to be bloodstains on the front door. Since the unknown perpetrator and the victim
who may die were both cut their identities need to be established through the
bloodstains. How will the police collect the stains?

A. moisten a piece of clean cotton with a saline solution and rub gently

B. remove the door and submit it to the crime lab

C. scrap the stain into white paper using a clean razor blade

D. blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol

209. What is the most popular legal form of gambling in the Philippines?

A. casino C. jueteng

B. illegal horse racing D. lotto

210. What mental condition is characterized by agitation or inactivity and sad,

remorseful or brooding mood?

A. depression C. psychosis

B. neurosis D. epilepsy

211. The most common use of moving camera or motion picture by the police is on
cases involving ___________.

A. an auto theft C. potential bribes

B. drunken drivers D. a narcotic buy

212. The majority of mistakes committed relative to evidence take place:

1. during periods of transportation

2. in the collection of samples

3. a contaminated sampling

4. the wrong type material

A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 4

B. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 3

213. What is the purpose of cross-examination?

A. To test witness accuracy and truthfulness

B. To explain the witness answers

C. To prevent relevant facts

D. To test witness credibility

214. Which among the following items are to be gathered as evidence in a crime scene
of criminal abortion?

A. Syringe and catheter C. All of these

B. Prohibited drugs D. Blood on the panties

215. A seminal stain was found at the crime scene, as a crime scene prober, it is but
proper to collect and placed it in a plastic bag sealed and air- tight container, for sure
it’s correct.

A. no C. maybe

B. sometimes D. yes

216. Which of the following areas must a police investigator consider important as he
stands to testify as witness?

A. Court procedure c. human nature

B. Rule of evidence D. Court jurisdiction

217. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch is for
_____________.
A. scale and proportion C. future use

B. accuracy and clarity D. courtroom presentation

218. Why must a party to a case, file a motion before the Supreme Court for a change
of venue?

A. to avoid miscarriage of justice

B. all of these

C. When public sentiment of the accused is hostile

D. So the witness can free to reveal what they know about the case

219. The best photograph of a bullet to be used for presentation would be where the
object photograph is ___________.

A. indicated by chalk marks

B. untouched

C. delineated by arrows

D. in approximately enlarged

220. What is that means of identifying physical evidence in which the investigator
inscribe initial, date and time directly?

A. marking C. labeling

B. tagging D. none of these

221. Who among the following is a target subject of police interrogation?

A. All of these C. Ready witness

B. Complainant D. Hostile witness

222. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and locations of evidence
was noted, the collection process begins and will usually starts with:

A. point of exit C. fragile evidence

B. large objects D. removal of cadaver

223. A writer deliberately tried to alter his usual writing habit from hopes of hiding his
identity. His writing is called

A. plain writing C. regular writing

B. cursive writing D. disguised writing

224. A patient who have lost contact with reality is suffering from ______.

A. neurosis C. schizophrenia

B. psychoneurosis D. psychosis

225. What kind of bail bond would you secure if your client is poor or financially not
capable?

A. property bond C. recognizance

B. corporate security bond D. cash bond

226. What is the court process requiring a person to bring documents in his possession
to the courts?

A. summon C. subpoena

B. subpoena duces tecum D. bill of particulars

227. What is the final phase of crime scene investigation?

A. preliminary survey C. documentation of scene

B. collection of evidence D. release of crime scene

228. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of COLLUSION?

A. decision C. connivance

B. continuation D. insinuation

229. How can plaster cast and photograph be marked for identi fication?

A. Affixing a seal on the front

B. Marking at the back

C. No mark at all
 D. Tagging

230. Which of the following is considered the most scienti fic approach of noticing that
there is loss of public funds?

A. By inspection and audit

B. By information

C. By accident

D. Disappearance of the embezzler

231. If the crime committed was homicide, search for physical evidence will be
centered on which of the following?

A. undercarriage and hood of car tool marks

B. fingerprints nail and clothing

C. weapon and other types of evidence left as a result of

D. contact between victim and assailant

232. In hostage survival, how do we increase the odds for hostage takers?

A. stay alert, collect and store information

B. all of these

C. control instinctive behavior and get small or non- threatening

D. analyze route of travel and don’t volunteer information

233. What is called of that self- incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of
an acknowledgement of guilt?

A. admission C. confession

B. informant D. deposition

234. How can a wound by bomb explosion be identi fied?

A. All of these

B. Sharpnels all inner the body

 C. Presence of powder burns in the body

D. Severe tearing of clothing

235. What is best applied to a clumsy and nervous person, where the investigators
choosing propitious moments shout out a pertinent question and appears as though
they themselves are in rage?

A. Pretense C. Bluff

B. Bolt D. Jolt

236. What is frequently being used as a disguise by bank robbers?

A. Hoods C. Sunglass

B. Hats D. Wigs

237. Which of the following traffic concepts instructs drivers and pedestrian when, how
pedestrians move, not to move or stand ready at a particular time?

A. Traffic direction

B. Traffic direction and control

C. None of these

D. Traffic control

238. Which of the following is a characteristic of COMPLEX EMERGENCIES?

A. Politically driven resources war

B. All of these

C. Cultures, ethics, minority groups at risk of extinction

D. High levels of violence

239. Marijuana is called damo, grass, hashish or Indian hemp. What is called snow, C,
the leaf, or dust?

A. cocaine C. heroin

B. barbiturates D. hallucinogen
240. Which is the most effective approach in report writing?

A. Make it objective and impartial

B. Make it brief

C. Improve qualities of expository style

D. Make the reports clear

241. Which among the five human senses is considered the most objective?

A. Hearing C. Tasting

B. Smelling D. Seeing

242. Upon what does the amount of force used in arrest depends?

A. the severity of crime committed

B. The level of threat applied

C. Degree of resistance offered by the person being arrested

D. The threat being posed to the public

243. In a crime of rape, its most likely place of commission cannot be speci fied unless
the victim or witness pinpoints the same. What is considered critical observation to be
done by the investigator?

A. evidence to prove unconsciousness of the victim

B. all of these

C. evidence to show sexual intercourse

D. look for evidence of struggle

244. Which of the following is NOT part of preliminary investigation?

A. weighing the evidence

B. securing the crime scene

C. documenting the crime scene

D. arresting the suspect

245. Which of the following is considered endangering police report writing under
Philippine setting?

A. poor English construction

B. missing notebook

C. absence of the investigator

D. poor memory

246. What are the “right questions” to ask a police interviewee in any police
investigation?

A. Ask hypothetical questions that would put interviewee at ease

B. Ask open- ended questions that would make him relate in his own words what he
saw

C. Check at all times whether questions are easy to comprehend

D. Ask close- ended questions, as they are simple, direct and answerable by yes or no

247. On the basis of Philippine experience, which of the following is a CRITICAL

weakness in our response to terrorism during the YEAR 2001?

A. Poor intelligence C. lack of unity

B. light sentence D. extradition problems

248. Generally, if black soot and smoke particles are found around the bullet hole, what
do these indicate?

A. none of these

B. discharge occurred close to target

C. discharge occurred far from target

D. discharge occurred at medium range from target

249. The Latin abbreviation “infra” means:

A. middle C. below

B. above D. bottom
250. PO1 Cruz is preparing a rough sketch of a homicide scene. What should be given
merit and importance?

A. proper scale to be used

B. high grade of paper

C. no changes

D. sketch be reprinted and improved

251. Which among the following is one of the characteristics of an organized crime?

A. identified godfather C. corporate structure

B. bureaucratic structure D. chain of command

252. Contemporary complex social problems challenge police action. If a street

policeman takes a preventive measure in law enforcement, how would he approach a
barangay, once a lair for the abu sayyafs?

A. negotiating panel

B. regular dialogue

C. conduct of heavy patrol

D. establishment of heavy patrol

253. What is the first thing that an investigator must do before interviewing witnesses,
citizens and victims?

A. place interviewee at ease

B. conduct interview in private

C. develop a plan of action

D. ask the right questions

254. When may an accused move to quash the complaint or information against him?

A. after he enters his plea

B. before he moves to dismiss the case

C. before he enters his plea

D. before judgment

255. How do you treat a “kidnap for ransom gang”, if you are an investigator?

A. all of these

B. a slightest mistake on the part of the law enforcement would C. mean death of the
victim

C. as witty, experienced and dangerous armed criminal

D. news black out

256. What is the stage in report writing where the investigator assesses his report and
interprets some facts if needed?

A. gathering facts C. documentation

B. evaluation D. organization

257. The _________ of the report should be natural and straight forward, without
exaggerated rhetoric.

A. outline C. style

B. format D. synopsis

258. The Revised Penal Code refers to the breaking and entering into house or building
with felonious intent as ___________.

A. burglary C. robbery

B. theft D. larceny

259. Under the principle of ____________, the writer should avoid “empty words” which
carry no essential ideas.

A. plain words C. pattering

B. dilution D. emphasis

260. When a police officer arrives in a crime scene, what is his fundamental duty?

A. preserve human life

B. cordon the area

 C. summon emergency personnel

D. apprehend the criminal

261. If your are the officer in charge of PACER, what significant requirement would you
consider critical of police of ficers being utilized in the campaign against kidnap for
ransom syndicates?

A. well connected

B. trusted

C. experienced field officer

D. FBI trained

262. Which of the following types of behavior or individuals are most often NOT
associated together?

A. tribalism and men

B. transvestites and homosexual

C. sadism and masochism

D. fritters’ and women

263. From whom should written statement be taken by an investigator?

A. reluctant witnesses C. subjects and suspects

B. any of these D. key witnesses

264. Which word nearly expresses the meaning of PROHIBITED?

A. ordered C. promised

B. forbidden D. emerged

265. Which of the following steps is part of the method of investigating robbery by use
of force upon thing?

A. description of the stolen articles

B. written testimony of the complainant

C. each of these
D. determining the points of entry and exit by the perpetrator

266

267. Which comes last in the conduct of criminal investigation?

A. Crime scene search & crime sketch

B. Removal of the victim’s body

C. Photographs, fingerprint lift and other evidence taken

D. Notes properly taken and witnesses identified

268. The narrative account of the investigation report should be _________.

A. arranged logically with an eye to reader comprehension

B. arranged chronologically and numbered

C. arranged logically

D. supported by annexes

269. When police ascertain all of the circumstances of a crime and then bring these
factors into focus they are, in effect __________.

A. Reproducing C. Reconstructing

B. Reiterating D. Reenacting

270. Which method is considered appropriate in crime scene search involving big
space or area?

A. perpendicular C. double strip

B. quadrant zone D. circular wheel type

271. Anything that is real, has substance, and helps to establish the facts of the case
______________.

A. direct evidence C. corroborative evidence

B. circumstantial evidence D. physical evidence

272. Which among the following data concerning photographs as evidence is LEAST
essential?
A. proof of ownership of the camera

B. date and hour when each photograph was taken

C. focal length of the lens

D. identification of the police photographer

273. Each person handling an item of evidence from the time of discovery until
presentation in court must take certain safeguards. What is the total processed called?

A. integrity of evidence C. standards of comparison

B. physical disposition D. chain of custody

274. What kind of photographs is carried on clockwise until at least four general view
photographs have been taken?

A. none of these C. over- all

B. articles of evidence D. environmental

275. How can identification be made on a decomposed cadaver?

A. study his bones C. study his dentures

B. study his skull D. all of these

276. In documenting the crime scene, what is the primary advantage of using video
camera recorder compared to still photography?

A. provides colorful image

B. shows perspective of the scene

C. sound can easily be heard

D. nothing its too expensive

277. Which of the following ought to be avoided by an investigator while securing a

dying declaration?

A. advising the dying person of the importance of making such

B. memorizing the victim’s statement

C. manifest an atmosphere of an impending death

D. Observe the mental condition of the victim

278. A bloodstain was noted by the prober at the exit door of the crime scene, how
should the specimen be collected?

A. removed the portion containing the point of interest

B. apply first saline solutions then placed in a test tube

C. scraped off using clean razor and placed in a clean paper

D. just let it stay there and take photograph

279. Evidence to be presented in court must be presented in the same substantial

condition as it is at the time the crime was committed. Thus, protection must be made
from ____________.

A. accidental alteration C. all of these

B. natural alteration D. intentional alteration

280. After completion of the crime search, what is that effect made by the investigator
to determine from the appearance of the place and it`s objects what actually occurred
and what are the circumstances of the crime?

A. Crime reconstruction C. All of these

B. Crime scene stripping D. Crime sketch

281. In suicide cases, the underlying emotion is always hopelessness, What is the best
investigative technique when you respond?

A. ask questions

B. show willingness to help

C. emphatize, build and establish rapport

D. all of these

282. What would be the best mark for clothing as evidence?

A. marking lining of ballpen

B. attaching a metal label

C. photograph taken from several angles

D. serving a cloth tag to part of learning

283. In what crime would the matter of preserving the crime scene LEAST dealt with?

A. Robbery C. traffic accident

B. Arson D. homicide

284. A police officer searching a crime scene should look upon evidence as serving to
establish one or all of the following _____________.

A. identity of the victim

B. identity of the guilty person

C. perpetrator’s modus operandi

D. corpus delicti

285. What method promotes anxiety by placing the accused on the line up and he is
identified by several fictitious witnesses or victims who got associated with him in
different offenses until subject becomes desperate and confesses in order to escape
accusations.

A. greater or lesser guilt C. reverse line up

B. line-up D. stern approach

286. The taking of blood samples against the will of the defendant is considered
_______________.

A. proper, but only when a warrant is obtained

B. improper unless the defendant dies

C. a violation of the individual’s right against self-incrimination

D. permissible if taken under proper conditions

287. What is that imposition of restriction on physical behavior such as prolonged

interrogation, deprivation of water, food or sleep.

A. duress C. contempt
B. third degree D. coercion