DEFINITION OF TERMS

ABSOLUTE HUMIDITY - it is the mass of water vapor per unit volume

of air

ABSOLUTE TEMPERATURE - a measure of the ability to transfer heat

to other bodies based on a reference temperature (absolute zero)
where a body has given up all the thermal energy it possibly can

ADIABATIC PROCESS - is a process whereby no heat loss, no heat

gain

ADMITTANCE - the reciprocal of impedance

AMORTIZATION - is any method of repaying a debt, the principal and

interest included, usually by a series of equal payments at equal
interval if time

AMORTIZED LOAN - a loan that is discharged or repaid by a uniform

series of payments extending over its duration

AMPLIDYNE - is a DC generator which yields a large power output

from a small power input, used in servo-mechanism

ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY - deals with the analysis and identification of

substance

ANGSTORM - a unit of length, especially used in expressing the length

of light waves equal to one-ten billionth of a meter. (1A = 1 x 10-10 m)

ANNUITY - is a series of equal payments occurring at equal period of

time

APPARENT POWER - it is the vector sum of the real power and

reactive power

ARITHMETIC PROGRESSION - is a sequence of numbers called terms,

each of which after the first, is derived from the preceding once by
adding to it a fixed number called the common difference

ASKAREL - a synthetic non-inflammable insulating liquid which when

decomposed by an electric arc, evolves only non-explosive gases
ASSETS - anything of value that is owned by an enterprise

AUTO TRANSFORMER - the primary winding is electrically connected

with the secondary winding. It is used if both primary and secondary
winding voltages are low or high

AVOGADRO’S LAW - it is a law stating that the same pressure and

temperature, equal volume of all gases contain equal number of
molecules

BATTERY - is an electro-chemical cell that is used store chemical

energy for conservation later to electrical

BENEFIT COST RATIO - it is the ratio of the difference between the

benefits and the disbenefits to the cost associated with a particular
project

BLACKBODY - a body which absorbs all the impinging radiant heat

BOILER - it is one of the basic components of a steam power plant

whereby water is converted from the liquid phase to gas to vapor
phase

BOILING POINT - it is the temperature of a liquid whereby the vapor

pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure

BOND - it is a certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a

period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on
certain assets of a corporation of its subsidiaries

BOOK VALUE - it is the worth of the property which is listed on the

book of accounts of an enterprise. It is calculated by subtracting the
total depreciation at the desired year from the original cost.

BORROWED FUNDS OR CAPITAL - are those capital supplied by others

on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and debt must be repaid
at a specified time

BOYLE’S LAW - states that if the temperature of a confined gas is

constant, the volume of the ideal gas is inversely proportional to its
absolute pressure
BRAYTON CYCLE - it is the ideal closed system gas turbine cycle. It is
characterized by constant pressure heat addition and heat rejection
and isentropic compression and expansion processes

BREAK-EVEN POINT - it is a point in economic studies whereby there

is no profit. It is also known as the point for which the value of
common variable for two alternatives when their respective cost are
equal

BTU - one over one hundred eighty the quantity of heat required to
raise the temperature of one pound pure water from 32 oF to 212oF
under standard atmospheric pressure

CALLABLE BOND - a bond that contains clauses permitting repayment

before maturity

CALORIE - the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of

one gram of water by 1oC

CANDLE POWER DISTRIBUTION CURVES - since the common light

giving sources either alone or in conjunction with the reflecting
equipment used with them do not have the same light giving power or
candle power in all directions, photometric graphs are employed in
order to indicate the candle power of the source in all directions.
Curves giving this information for a light source are called power
distribution curves

CAPITALIZED COST - the sum of the first cost and the present worth
of all costs of replacement, operation and maintenance for a long time
or forever

CARNOT CYCLE - it is a gas cycle which is in such a way that it is

reversible externally as well as being internally since heat is accepted
and rejected across vanishing small temperature differences

COMPRESSED LIQUID - is one whose pressure is higher than the

saturation pressure corresponding to its temperature

COMPRESSION RATIO - is the ratio of the volume at the bottom dead

center to the volume at the top dead center

CONDUCTION - is the process of the faster moving (“hotter”)

molecules colliding with slower ones and communicating some of their
energy
CONSTRUCTION COST - is the sum of all cost necessary to prepare a
construction project for operation

CORE TYRE TRANSFORMER - it used for any type of voltage

application. Usually its KVA rating is high

CORONA - it is a luminous discharged caused by the ionization of the

gases surrounding a high voltage conductor usually accompanied by a
hissing sound

CORPORATION - an aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose

of conducting a business and recognized by law as a fictitious person

COST ACCOUNTING - it is the determination of the cost of producing a

product or rendering a service

COUPON BOND - a type bond having a c coupon attached to the bond

for each interest payment that will come due during the life of the
bond

CRITICAL POINT - at this point, the liquid and vapor curves meet an
the vapor is indistinguishable from a liquid

CURRENT ASSETS - these consist of the cash and account receivables

during the next period or any other material which will be sold

CURRENT LIABILITY - it represents claim against owners which must

be paid in the near future

CURRENT TRANSFORMER - used in conjunction with ordinary AC

measuring instruments in order to measure high current or power a
high current or energy at high current. It is also used in relaying.

CHARLES’ LAW - if the pressure of a confined gas is constant, the

volume is directly proportional to the absolute temperature

CHEMISTRY - is the science that deals with the structure, properties

of matter and the principles governing the changes it undergo.

CLASS 1 HAZARDOUS LOCATION - those locations in which flammable

gases or vapors are or may be present in the air in quantities sufficient
to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures
CLASS 11 HAZARDOUS LOCATIONS - those locations which are
hazardous because of the presence of combustible dust

CLEAT - an assembly of two pieces of insulating material provided

with grooves for holding one or more conductors at a definite spacing
from the surface wired over from each other, and with holes for
fastening in position

COAL THERMAL POWER PLANT - a power plant which utilizes coal as

fuel

COEFFICIENT OF UTILIZATION - is the overall efficiency of the lighting

installation; ration of the useful lumens which get down to the total
lumens generated by the lamp

COLLATERAL BOND - a type of bond whose security is the stocks or

bonds of a well-established subsidiary of the corporation

COMFORTABLE ROOM TEMPERATURE - it is the temperature which is

equivalent to 72°F or 22°C

COMMON STOCK - it represents ordinary ownerships without special

guarantees of return

COMPOUND GENERATOR - a DC generator which has the series field

and shunt field windings. This generator is connected either short
shunt or long shunt

COMPOUND - is a substance with a constant composition that can be

broken down into elements by chemical process

CYCLE - it is undergone when a certain mass of fluid in a particular

state passes through a series of process and returns to its initial state

DEBENTURE BOND - a bond without any security behind it except a

promise to pay by issuing corporation

DECIBEL - unit of attenuation

DEFERRED ANNUITY - an annuity where the first payment is made

several periods after the beginning of the annuity

DEMAND FACTOR - the ration of the maximum demand to the

connected load of a system
DENDROTHERMAL POWER PLANT - a power plant which utilizes wood
as fuel

DENSITY - defined as the mass per unit volume

DEPLETION - it is the decrease in the worth or value of the property

due to the gradual extraction of its contents

DEPLETION COST - annual charge that is made for the maintenance

of investment in wasting assets such as gas wells, oil, mines and etc…

DEPRECIATION - is the decrease in value of the physical property due

to the passage of time

DEPRECIATION COST - annual charge that is made during the period

of the useful life, for the services rendered by the investment in
building, machinery and equipments in producing the products

DEVELOPMENT COST - is the sum of all cost incurred by an investor if

a project up to the time that the project is accepted by those who will
promote it

DEW POINT - the temperature to which air must be cooled at constant

pressure to produce saturation

DIELECTRIC - a medium or substance in which a potential difference

establishes an electric field which is subsequently recoverable as
electric energy

DIFFERENTIAL COST - are cost which arises due to the change in

operation or policy

DIODE - a device which has a high resistance in one direction and a

low resistance in the other direction

DIRECT LABOR - is the actual work applied directly in the process of

manufacturing a certain product.

DIRECT MATERIALS - these are materials which are included in the

finished product itself

DISCOUNT - is the difference between the present worth and the

future worth of a negotiable paper
DISTRIBUTION TRANSFORMER - from 3 to 500 KVA in rating. Usually
mounted on poles or posts

DIVERSITY FACTOR - the ratio of the sum of the individual maximum

demands of the various subdivisions of the system to the maximum
demand of the whole system

DIVIDENDS - profit earned by corporations which are periodically

distributed to the stockholders

DULONG AND PETIT’S LAW - a law stating that the specific heat of
metals is approximately equal to 6.4 divided by the atomic weight of
the metal itself

DYNAMOMETER - an instrument used to measure AC voltage or

alternating current or AC power. This instrument has two coils, one is
stationary and the other one is moving

EARNING VALUE - is the present worth of its probable future net

earnings

ECONOMICS - is the study of the wealth, its value, creation and

distribution

EDDY CURRENT - current that is circulating in the iron core of a

transformer or dynamo which causes loss called eddy current loss

EFFECTIVE RATE OF INTEREST - is the actual rate of interest on the

principal for one year

ELECTRIC POWER SUBSTATION - is an assemblage of equipment for

the purpose switching and or changing or regulating voltage of
electricity

ELECTROLYSIS - is the dissociation of the molecules of an electrolyte

due to the passage of an electric current

ELEMENT - cannot be decomposed into simpler substance by chemical

or physical means

ENDOTHERMIC REACTION - is a reaction whereby the reactance

absorb heat from the surroundings
ENERGY - is the capacity to do work

ENTHALPY - it is the sum of internal energy and the product of

pressure and volume

ENGINEERING ECONOMY - it is the analysis and evaluation of the

factors that will affect the economic success of engineering projects to
the end that a recommendation can be made which will ensure the
best use of capital

EQUIPMENT GROUND - a non-current carrying conductor is grounded

EQUITY - is the claim of anyone to ownership

EQUITY CAPITAL OR OWNERSHIP FUNDS - is the worth of what firm

owns

EXOTHERMIC REACTION - is a reaction whereby the reactance gives

off heat to the surroundings

FACE OR PAR VALUE - is the amount stated on the bond

FAIR VALUE - is the value of the property which is determined by a

disinterested third party in order to establish a price that is fair to both
seller and buyer

FARAD - a unit of capacitance that is defined by the production of one

volt across capacitor terminals when a charge of one coulomb is
stored

FIRST LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS - states that the energy can

neither be created nor destroyed but it can be transformed from one
form to another

FIXED ASSETS - these are costs which will exist unaltered whether or
not a given change in operation is adopted

FIXED COSTS - these are costs which will exist unaltered whether or
not a given change in operation is adopted

FIXED LIABILITIES - liabilities which are not due for payment until
sometime more that one year period
FLASHOVER - is a disruptive discharged around or over the surface of
a solid or liquid insulator

FLOATING CHARGE - battery or equipment normally connected to the

load at all times and charged continuously

FLOW ENERGY - also called flow work. It is the work done in pushing
a liquid across the boundary, usually into or out of the system

FOOT CANDLE - is the unit of illumination when the foot is taken as

the unit of length

FORCE CONVECTION - the fluid is said to be in forced convection

when the work is done to blow or pump the fluid

FRANCHISE - the right and privilege granted to an individual or

corporation to do business in a certain region

FRANCHISE VALUE - is an intangible item of value arising from the

exclusive right of the company to provide a specified product

FREE CONVECTION - occurs when a fluid circulates because the

differences in temperatures results in the differences of densities

FUNCTIONAL DEPRECIATION - is the decrease in value of the property

due to the lessening in the demand for the function of the property

GAANT CHART - is a chart showing the activities required in a project

and the length of time needed for each activity which are scheduled to
be finished

GAS TURBINE - is a power generating unit that uses combustion

power generator since it is compact and lightweight

GAS TURBINE POWER PLANT - a power plant, which basically operates

with centrifugal, axial or rotary compressors, which deliver the working
gas to a combustion chamber where temperature is raised and
expander which is a single or multi-stage axial flow turbine. The work
output of the expander exceeds the work input to the compressor.

GEOMETRIC PROGRESSION - is a sequence if numbers called terms,

each of which after the first, is obtained by multiplying the preceding
by a fixed number called the common ratio
GOETHERMAL POWER PLANT - a power plant which utilizes the
inherent heat coming from the earth’s crust

GROUNDING TRANSFORMER - it is a device which is used to provide a

point for connection to ground. It has no secondary binding and also
carried no load

GOING CONCERN VALUE - it is the difference between the values of a

property as it stands possessed of it going elements and the value of
the property alone as it could stand at completion of construction as a
bare assembly of physical parts

GOING VALUE - it is an intangible value, which a business has earned

through the favorable consideration and patronage of its customers
arising from its well-known and well-conducted policies.

HARMONICS - components of the current or voltage in which the

frequencies are multiple of the fundamentals

HARMONIC PROGRESSION - is a series of terms whose reciprocal

forms and arithmetic progression

HAZARDOUS LOCATION - are those locations, which contain

flammable gases and vapors, combustible dust and intangible fibers or
flying

HEAT - is energy in transit from one body or system to another solely

HEAT OF FUSION - the quality of heat required to change the phase of

the substance from solid to liquid without change in temperature

HEAT OF FUSION OF ICE - it is equal to 80 cal/g or 144 BTU/lb

HENRY - the unit of inductance; it permits current increase at the rate

of 1 ampere per second when one volt is applied across the inductor
terminals

HANRY’S LAW - a law stating that the concentration of gas in a liquid

is directly proportional to the pressure at a given temperature

HICKEY - a device used to bend small pipes

HYDRAULICS - the science dealing with mechanical properties of

liquids, as water and their application in engineering
HYDRO–ELECTRIC POWER PLANT - a power plant which converts the
inherent energy of water under pressure into electrical energy

HYDRODYNAMICS OR FLUID DYNAMICS - deals with the study of the

laws of motion of fluids

HYDROSTATICS - is that branch of physics which deals with fluids at

rest

HYSTERESIS LOOP - a graph that shows the relation between

magnetizing force and flux density for a cyclical magnetized substance

IDEAL FLUID - is often defined as a substance that cannot transmit

shearing stresses, and which if not totally confined, shows free
horizontal surface when at rest

IGNITION COIL OF AN AUTOMOBILE - a coil that causes a spark to

cause combustion

ILLUMINATION METER - an instrument used to measure the intensity

of light source

IMPEDANCE - the total opposition to the flow of alternating current

IMPULSE TEST - is an insulation test in which the voltage applied is an

impulse voltage of a specified wave shape

INCREMENT COST - are costs that arises as the result of change in

operations or policy

INDUCTION VOLTAGE REGULATOR - is primarily a step-down

transformer, but it is so constructed that the secondary voltage maybe
varied from zero to a certain maximum by merely altering the position
of the primary coil axis with respect to the secondary coil axis, this is
used to regulate the voltage at the load end of a long distribution
system

INFLATION - is the increase in the number of units of currency

necessary to buy a given unit of goods or services

INORGANIC CHEMISTRY - is the study of all the properties and

characteristics of other elements
IN-PLACE VALUE - is the value considered when the replacement of a
piece of equipment is contemplated

INTANGIBLE FACTORS - factors which are impossible or difficult to

express in terms of monetary value

INTEREST - is the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed

capital or the income produced by the money has been loaned

INTERNAL ENERGY - is the energy stored within the body or

substance by virtue of the activity and the configuration of its
molecules and the vibration of the atoms within the molecules

INTERRUPTING CAPACITY - is the maximum rms value of the current

at the rated maximum voltage and the frequency that the breaker can
safely interrupt without damage to itself

INVERSE TIME - a qualifying term indicating there is purposely

introduced a delay in the tripping action of the circuit breaker which
delay decreases as the magnitude of the current increases

ISENTROPIC PROCESS - a reversible adiabatic process. It is also

called constant entropy process

ISENTHALPIC PROCESS - is a constant enthalpy process

ISOBARIC PROCESS - an internally reversible process of a substance

during which the pressure remains constant

ISOLATING TRANSFORMER - a series transformer for use with series

incandescent street lamps at a different value of current from that of
the main series circuit or for isolation of a lamp of the same current
value as the main circuit from the main circuit, which operates at a
high voltage

ISOMETRIC PROCESS - a reversible constant volume process

ISOTHERMAL PROCESS - is a reversible constant temperature process

JOINT BOND - these are bond which are issued by two or more
corporations and are guaranteed jointly by them

JOULE’S CONSTANT - it is equivalent to 778.16 ft-lb / BTU

JOURNAL - a book whereby the original record of business
transactions are recorded

KINETIC ENERGY - possessed by a matter in motion

LATENT HEAT - is the heat that does not affect the temperature of a
substance but changes its state

LATENT HEAT OF FUSION - is the heat per unit mass required to

change a solid to liquid at its melting point

LATENT HEAT OF VAPORIZATION - the quantity of heat required to

evaporate one pound of saturated liquid

LAW OF DIMINISHING RETURNS - a law stating that one of the

factors is fixed in quantity or may be difficult to increase

LAW OF SUPPLY AND DEMAND - states that under conditions of

perfect competition, the price at which a given product will be supplied
and purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the
demand being equal

LEDGER - a secondary book of accounts, the information in which is

obtained from the journal

LIABILITIES - are those things of monetary value that the firm owns

LIGHTING ARRESTER - a device that will conduct the high surge

current harmlessly to ground and prevent excessive voltage from
appearing on equipment insulation

LOAD FACTOR - ratio of the average load over a designated period of

time to the peak load occurring in that period

LOAD OR BURDEN OF AN INSTRUMENT TRANSFORMER - any

instrument or device connected across the secondary winding of the
instrument transformer

LUXURIES - those products or services that are desired by humans

and will be purchased if money is available after the required
necessities have been obtained

MARGINAL REVENUE - the amount received from the sale of

additional unit of product
MARKET VALUE - amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing
seller for the property where each has equal advantage and is under
no compulsion to buy or sell

MAXWELL - unit of magnetic flux

MIMIC BUS - a single line diagram of the main connections of a

system constructed on the face of a control panel

MOLIER CHART - a chart in which the enthalpy is the ordinate and the
entropy is the abscissa

MONOPOLY - it exists when a unique product or service is available

from a single vendor and that can prevent the entry of all others into
the market

MORTGAGE BOND - the security behind this is a mortgage upon

certain specified assets of the corporation in the form of a trust fund

NOMINAL RATE OF INTEREST - it specifies the rate of interest and a

number of interest periods in one year

NOMINAL VOLTAGE - a nominal value assigned to a system or circuit

of a given voltage class for the purpose of convenient designation

NUCLEAR POWER PLANT - a power plant which utilizes uranium as

fuel

OBSOLESCENCE - refers to changes in connections external to the

equipment under consideration

OIL THERMAL POWER PLANT - a power plant which utilizes bunker oil
as fuel

OLIGOPOLY - a situation where there are few sellers and any action
taken by one of them may affect the action of the other seller

OPERATING COST - the sum of all costs that are incurred periodically
and continuously in order that the project in which an investment has
been made may be operated, produce a commodity or service and
distribute and sell that commodity or service
ORDINARY ANNUITY - one where the payments are made at the end
of each period

ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - study of carbon compounds

ORGANIZATION COST - the amount of money spent in organizing a

business and arranging for its financing and building

OSCILLOGRAPH - an instrument which will show the current and

voltage waves in alternating current circuits during steady conditions

OVERHEAD EXPENSE - the burden consist of those expenses which

cannot be readily included under direct materials or direct labor

OWNERSHIP - the equity of one person who normally possesses the

asset

PANTOGRAPH - a device that sites on top of electric locomotives and

picks up electricity from overhead wires to run the train

PARTNERSHIP - an association of two or more persons for the purpose

of engaging in a business for a profit

PASCAL’S LAW - states that the external pressure supplied to a

confined fluid increases the pressure at every point in the fluid by an
amount equal to the external pressure

PERCENTAGE DIFFERENTIAL RELAY - a protective device that senses

fault power flow into the line

PERPETUITY - a series of equal payments continue indefinitely

PETERSON COIL - a coil that is used as a ground fault neutralizer

PHANTOM CIRCUIT - additional circuit derived from existing circuits

without the use of additional wires

PHANTOM LOAD - a device which supplied the various test load

currents or for alternating current meter testing

PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY - concerned with the natural laws and

principles governing both physical and chemical changes
PHYSICAL INVENTORY - consists of the actual counting or
determination of the actual quantity or the materials on hand as of a
given date

PLANT FACTOR - ratio of the aggregate rating of all generating

equipments installed in the plant to the average load on the plant for
the period of time considered

POLARIZATION INDEX - obtained by taking the ratio of the 10 min. to

the 1 min. insulation resistance measurement

POTENTIAL ENERGY - energy due to position or conditioned stress

POWER - work per unit time

PRE-PAID INCOME - this arises when a business receives payment for

a service before it actually renders service

PREFERRED STOCK - the stockholders are guaranteed a definite

dividend on their stocks

POTENTIAL TRANSFORMER - used in conjunction with ordinary AC

measuring instruments in order to measure high voltage or power at
high voltage or energy at high voltage. It is also used in relaying

POTENTIOMETER - is a voltage divider

POWER TRANSFORMER - more than 500 KVA in rating. Usually found

in substations

PRIME COST - direct material cost plus direct labor cost

PRODUCTION COST - direct material cost plus labor cost plus

overhead cost minus prime cost plus overhead cost

PROPRIETORSHIP - sometimes denotes ownership

PURE SUBSTANCE - a form of matter which cannot be separated into

two or more other forms of matter except by means of a chemical
change
RADIATION - a mode of heat transfer which is dealing with thermal
energy flow via electromagnetic waves between two bodies separated
by a distance

RANKINE SCALE - a cycle whereby the heating and cooling processes

occur at constant pressure

RATE BASE VALUE - value assigned to the property for the purpose of
establishing rates

RATE OF RETURN - measure of effectiveness of an investment of

capital

REACTANCE - an opposition to the flow of alternating current based

on the reaction of energy storage either as magnetic field or as an
electric field

RELAY - is a device operated by a change in voltage or current in a

circuit which actuates other devices in the same circuit

REGISTER RATIO - the number by which the register reading is

multiply to obtain kilowatt hours

REGULATING TRANSFORMER - a transformer which is built like an

induction motor with a coil wound secondary, which is used for varying
the voltage delivered to a synchronous converter or AC feeder system

REPULSION ROTOR - wound rotor with commutator. Brushes are

short circuited creating an induced field which acts similarly to a series
field

REVERBERATION TIME - the time necessary for the sound to drop to

60 dB

ROENTGEN - is the international unit of radiation

ROSETTE - an enclosure of porcelain or other insulating material fitted

with terminals and intended for connecting the flexible cord carrying a
pendant to the permanent wiring

SALIENT POLE - shaped pole, you can count the number of poles
SCRAP VALUE - the amount of property would sell for if disposed off
as a junk

SECOND LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS - states that all energy received

as heat by a heat engine cycle cannot be converted into mechanical
work

SERVICE FACTOR (of a motor) - safety factor of a motor, usually 1.15

SHELL-TYPE TRANSFORMER - used for low voltage application. Usually

its KVA rating is law

SINKING FUND METHOD - this method assumes that a sinking fund is

established in which funds will accumulate replacement

SKIN EFFECT - is the tendency of the current to move outward the

surface of the conductor

SPARKOVER - a disruptive discharge between electrodes of measuring

gaps, such as sphere gap on oil testing gap

SPECIFIC GRAVITY - defined as the ratio of the density of a substance

to the density of a given standard substance usually water

SPECIFIC HEAT - amount of transferred heat required to change the

temperature of one unit weight of a substance usually water

SPECIFIC LATENT HEAT OF SUBLIMATION - is the heat per unit mass

required to convert it from solid to the gaseous state at a given
temperature

SPECIFIC VOLUME - the reciprocal of density

SPINNING RESERVE - is the reserve generating capacity that is

connected to the bus and ready to take load

SPLIT PHASE MOTOR - a motor which has two stator winding namely
the main winding and the auxiliary winding which produces magnetic
fields that act together that cause the motor to rotate

STEADY FLOW SYSTEM - an open system in which there is no change

of stored mass
STRAIGHT LINE METHOD - this assumes that the loss in value is
directly proportional to the age of property

STOCK AND BOND VALUE - sum of the outstanding bonus multiplied

by their current market value plus the issued stock multiplied by each
current market price

SUBCOOLED LIQUID - one whose temperature is below the saturation

temperature corresponding to its temperature

SUBLIMATION - a change of state from solid to gaseous without

passing the liquid state

SUNK COST - represents money which has been spent or capital

which has been invested and which cannot be recovered due to certain
reasons

SWITCHGEAR - a general term covering switching, interrupting,

control, metering, protective and regulating devices, also assemblies
of these devices with associated interconnections, accessories and
supporting structures, used primarily in connection with generation,
transmission, distribution and conversion of electric power

SYNCHRONOUS CONVERTER - an electromechanical device that

changes direct current into pulsating DC

SYSTEM GROUND - a current carrying conductor is grounded

TANGIBLE FACTORS - those which can be expressed in monetary

values

TELEMETER - an instrument used for measuring various quantities at

a distance

THERMAL EQUILIBRIUM - the body is said to be in thermal equilibrium

in its property ceased to change

THERMAL RADIATION - an emanation of the same nature as light and

radio waves

THERMOCOUPLE - two metals with their two ends heated at different

temperature to transform heat energy into electrical energy
THERMODYNAMICS - the science that deals with work and heat and
those properties of substances that bears a relation to heat and work
such as pressure, volume and temperature

THIRD LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS - at absolute zero, the entropy of

a pure substance in some perfect crystalline forms become zero

THROTTLING PROCESS - is a process when a fluid flows in an

uncontrolled manner from a higher pressure region to low pressure
region with no work being done. Also called constant enthalpy process.

TOTAL FAIR VALUE - consist of the cost of the physical factors and the
intangible factor

TRANSPOSITION - is the alternating of positions of each phase of a

transmission line in equal intervals so that each phase has the same
inductance

UNHEALTHY POINT - a point in the break even chart which indicate

the sales volume at which the enterprise will be able to pay the
dividends

UNIVERSAL MOTOR - a small series wound motor which can be

operated on a DC or AC source

VALUATION OF APPRAISAL - the process of determining the value of a

certain property for specific reasons

VALVE TYPE LIGHTNING ARRESTER - has a series spark gap, normally

open but closes immediately when a transient voltage appears quickly
after the transient has disappeared. Surge flow as current is passing
thru zero

VARIABLE COST - cost which vary with the output or any change in
the activities of an enterprise

VOLT - is the unit of electromotive force

CHEMISTRY

1. It is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.

a. molecular number c. mass number
b. proton number d. atomic number

2. It is the number of protons plus the number of neutrons:

a. atomic number c. molecular number
b. mass number d. proton number

3. The _____________ is calculated by adding together all the

atomic numbers:
a. molecular weight c. formula weight
b. compound weight d. none of these

4. An element may be defined as a substance, all the atoms of

which have the same:
a. number of neutrons c. atomic weight
b. radioactivity d. atomic number

5. The different types of atoms in a given element are called:

a. molecules c. isotopes
b. neutrons d. compounds

6. All isotopes of the same element have:

a. Equal no. of protons and neutrons
b. Equal no. of protons
c. The same atomic mass
d. Equal no. of neutrons

7. What is a substance that cannot be decomposed into simpler

substances during ordinary chemical reactions?
a. Atom c. Molecule
b. Element d. Compound

8. Salt, water, rubber, iron rust are called ____________.

a. mix atom c. element
b. chemical compound d. molecule

9. The particle inside the nucleus is called

a. Nucleons c. Nucleic
b. Nuclei d. Nuclide
10. If the volume of a confined gas is constant, the pressure is
directly proportional to the absolute temperature. This is
known as
a. Kelvin’s law c. Boyle’s law
b. Charles’ law d. Joule’s law

11. If the temperature of a confined gas is constant, the product

of the pressure and volume is constant. This is known as
a. Kelvin’s law c. Boyle’s law
b. Charles’ law d. Joule’s law

12. Which of the following is the Ideal Gas Law?

a. V/T =k c. PV = nRT
b. P1/T1 = P2/T2 d. V = K x 1/P

13. The temperature to which the air must be cooled at a

constant pressure to produce saturation is called:
a. boiling point c. critical point
b. dew point d. triple point

14. The changing of solid directly to vapor without passing

through the liquid state is called:
a. evaporation c. vaporization
b. sublimation d. condensation

15. Sublimation refers to:

a. the vaporization of solid without first becoming a
liquid
b. the melting of a solid
c. the vaporization of a liquid
d. maybe in any or all of the above into a liquid

16. At the same pressure and temperature, equal volumes of all

gases contain equal number of molecules. This is known as:
a. Faraday’s law c. Boyle’s law
b. Lenz’ law d. Avogadro’s law

17. The number of molecules in a mole of any substance is

constant, this number is called
a. Thompson’s constant c. Otto cycle
b. Rankine cycle d. Avogadro’s number
18. How many moles are there in one atom?
a. 1.66 x 10-23 moles c. 1.66 x 1023 moles
b. 1.66 x 10-24 moles d. 1.66 x 1024 moles

19. The atomic weight of hydrogen is 1 gram per gram-atom.

What is the mass of a hydrogen atom?
a. 1.66 x 10–24 g/atom c. 6.02 x 10–23 g/atom
b. 1.0 x 10–10 g/atom d. 1 g/atom

20. The mole is a basic unit of measurement in chemistry. Which

of the following is not equal to or the same as one mole of the
substance indicated?
a. 22.4 liters of Nitrogen (N2) gas at STP
b. 6.02 x 10²³ oxygen (O2) molecules
c. 16g of oxygen (O2) molecules
d. 1g of hydrogen (H) atoms

21. The critical point for mixture occurs for which of the following
cases?
a. the vapor and the liquid have a single form
b. the liquid has no absorbed gas
c. the vapor phase is stable
d. the liquid is completely vaporized

22. How is “molality” defined?

a. the number of moles of solute in 1000 grams of
solvent
b. the number of moles of solute in 1 liter of solution
c. the number of gram-formula weights of solute per liter
d. the number of gram-equivalent weights of solute in 1
liter of solution

23. All gases at the same temperature and pressure under the
action of a given value “g” have the same number of
molecules per unit volume from which it follows that specific
weight of a gas is proportional to its molecular weight is
known as:
a. Avogadro’s Law c. Torrecillis’s principle
b. Boyle’s Law d. Archimedes’ principle

24. Which are the electrostatic forces that exist between ions?
a. ionic bond c. chemical bond
b. covalent bond d. atomic bond
25. What are Van der Waals forces?
a. weak secondary bonds between atoms
b. primary bonds between atoms
c. forces between electrons and protons
d. forces not present in liquid

26. What are valence electrons?

a. the outer shell electrons
b. electrons with positive charge
c. the electrons with complete quantum shells
d. the K – quantum shell electrons

27. Strong bonds between hydrogen atoms is known as:

a. the ionic bond c. the metallic bond
b. ionic and metallic bond d. the covalent bond

28. Which of the following is the strongest type of bond:

a. Van Der Waals c. covalent
b. metallic d. ionic

29. In molecules of the same composition, variations of atomic

arrangements is known as:
a. polymers c. isomers
b. monomers d. crystal systems

30. In a crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom?

a. an extra atom sitting at a non-lattice point
b. an atom missing at a lattice point
c. a different element at a lattice point
d. a line defect

31. As the amount of slip increases, additional deformation

becomes more difficult and it decreases until the plastic flow
finally stops. Slip may begin again only if a larger stress is
applied. What is this phenomenon called?
a. cooling c. crowding
b. strain hardening d. twinning

32. What causes the vinyl interiors of automobiles to crack when

subjected to prolonged direct sunlight?
a. the volatilization of plasticizers
b. repetitive expansion and contraction of the plastic
c. oxidation of the plastic by sunlight and oxygen
d. all of the above
33. Low density polyethylene undergoes extensive elongation
(over 100%) prior to rupture, while polystyrene undergoes
only 1 to 2 percent elongation. What is the main reason for
this difference?
a. the polyethylene is less dense
b. the large styrene groups in the polystyrene
prevent slippage
c. more cross linking occurs in the polystyrene
d. polyethylene is less crystalline

34. How is the quality, x, of a liquid-vapor mixture defined?

a. the fraction of the total volume that is saturated vapor
b. the fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid
c. the fraction of the total mass that is saturated
vapor
d. the fraction of the total mass that is saturated liquid

35. It is defined as a measure of the amount of negative ions in

the water.
a. alkalinity c. turbidity
b. acidity d. solubility

36. The measure of acids in solutions is called:

a. alkalinity c. turbidity
b. acidity d. solubility

37. Which of the following is the standard temperature and

pressure (STP)?
a. 0°K and one atmospheric pressure
b. 0°F and zero pressure
c. 32°F and zero pressure
d. 0°C and one atmospheric pressure

38. Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in

its pure form?
a. sodium (Na) c. helium (He)
b. carbon dioxide (CO2) d. hydrochloric acid (HCl)

39. A substance is oxidized when which of the following occurs?

a. it turns red c. it becomes more negative
b. it losses electrons d. it gives off heat
40. Boiling point of water occurs when:
a. its vapor pressure equals the atmospheric
pressure
b. its vapor pressure is ½ the atmospheric pressure
c. its vapor pressure is twice the atmospheric pressure
d. none of these

41. Two major types of chemical bonds are absorbed in chemical

bonding: ionic and covalent. Which of the following has a
bond that is the least ionic in character?
a. NaCl c. CH4
b. H2 d. H2O

42. In order to assign oxidation states in polyatomic molecules,

which of the following rules is followed?
a. the oxidation of all elements in any allotropic
form is zero
b. the oxidation state of oxygen is always –2
c. the oxidation state of hydrogen is always +1
d. all of the above rules are used

43. Reactions generally proceed faster at higher temperature

because of which of the following?
a. the molecules collide more frequently
b. the activation energy is less
c. the molecules are less energetic
d. both a and b

44. It is a process of application of chlorine that results in

minimum chloramines residuals?
a. breakpoint chlorination
b. distillation
c. coliform
d. electrodialysis

45. Which of the following affects most of the electrical and

thermal properties of materials?
a. the atomic weight expressed in grams per gram-atom
b. the electrons, particularly the outermost ones
c. the magnitude of electrical charge of the protons
d. the weight of the atoms
46. Which of the following describes diffusion in a crystal
structure?
a. it is not possible
b. it occurs only in alloys, never in pure crystals
c. it often uses an exchange or vacancy mechanism
d. it occurs primarily as a result of mechanical work

47. Compare the metallic iron atom Fe and the ferric ions Fe 2+
and Fe3+. Which has the smallest atomic radius? (Assume that
all are at the same temperature.)
a. Fe c. Fe2+
3+
b. Fe d. they have the same radii

48. When Fe++ changes to Fe+++ in a reaction:

a. it losses a proton c. it gains a proton
b. it gains an electron d. it losses an electron

49. Which of the following is a line defect in a lattice crystal

structure?
a. tilt boundary c. screw dislocation
b. vacancy d. Schottky imperfection

50. Cesium (Cs) and sodium (Na) both have the same valence
(+1), yet with chlorine (Cl), cesium has a coordination of 8 in
CsCl, while sodium has a coordination number of only 6 in
NaCl. What is the main reason for this difference?
a. the atomic weight of Cs is larger than the weight of Na
b. Cs forms covalent bonds in CsCl
c. Cs contains more electrons than Na
d. Cs is too large to be coordinated by only 6
chloride ions

51. Which of the following materials is not a visco-elastic

material?
a. plastic c. metal
b. rubber d. glass

52. Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to have

which of the following:
a. an atactic configuration of side groups
b. small side groups
c. only one repeating unit
d. small chain length
53. Which crystal structure possesses the highest number of
close-packed planes and close-packed directions?
a. simple cubic c. close-packed hexagonal
b. body-centered cubic d. face-centered cubic

54. What is transformed in a eutectoid reaction?

a. one solid is transformed into two solids of
different composition
b. a solid becomes a liquid at the eutectic temperature
c. a liquid becomes a solid at the solidus temperature
d. a solid becomes a liquid at the liquidus temperature

55. On an alloy phase diagram, what is the solidus temperature?

a. the point at which all solids completely reach the liquid
stage
b. the temperature of the liquid phase at which the first
solid forms for a given overall composition
c. the temperature of the solid phase at which the
first liquid forms for a given overall composition
d. the temperature at which the solid is at equilibrium

56. What are the most common slip planes for face-centered
cubic and body-centered cubic structures, respectively?
a. face-centered: (111), body-centered: (110)
b. face-centered: (100), body-centered: (110)
c. face-centered: (110), body-centered: (111)
d. face-centered: (111), body-centered: (100)

57. Which of the following statements is false?

a. ceramics are inorganic, nonmetallic solids that are
processed or used at high temperatures.
b. metals are chemical elements that form substances that
are opaque, lustrous and good conductors of heat and
electricity.
c. most metals are strong, ductile and malleable. In
general, they are heavier than most other
substances.
d. polymers are formed from many atoms with low
molecular weight, bonded together by primary valence
bonds.
58. Comparing the face-centered cubic lattice with the hexagonal
close-packed lattice, which of the following features describes
the hexagonal close-packed structure only?
a. it has the closest packed lattice structure
b. its coordination number is 12
c. its deformation properties are more directional
d. its stacking order is ABCABC

59. Which of the following accurately describes differences

between crystalline polymers and crystals?
I. Crystalline polymers are made of folded
chains of
atoms unlike simple crystals.
II. Crystal size can be increased by raising the
crystallization temperature only in polymers.
III. White simple crystal may be totally
crystallized,
a polymer can reach only partial crystallization.
a. I only c. III only
b. II only d. I and III

60. What is the atomic packaging factor for simple cubic crystal?
a. 0.48 c. 0.52
b. 1.00 d. 1.92

61. How many atoms are in the unit cell of a body-centered cubic
structure?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

62. How many atoms are there per units cell for a face-centered
cubic structure?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

63. What is the first coordination number of a body-cubic

structure?
a. 4 c. 6
b. 8 d. 10

64. What is the first coordination number if a face-centered cubic

structure?
a. 2 c. 4
 b. 8 d. 12

65. Which of the following statement is false?

a. both copper and aluminum have a face-centered cubic
crystal structure.
b. both magnesium and zinc have a hexagonal close-
packed crystal structure.
c. all of the alkali metals have a body-centered cubic
crystal structure.
d. both lead and cadmium have a hexagonal close-
packed crystal structure.

66. How are the close-packed planes in a face-centered cubic

metal designated?
a. (100) c. (200)
b. (110) d. (111)

67. Which is Fick’s first law for one-dimensional, steady diffusion?

C, is the volume concentration of atoms; x, is the distance
along diffusion occurs; D, is the diffusion coefficient; and J is
the flux or current density.
a. J = -D ∂C/∂x c. J = C ∂D/∂x
b. J = -∂C/D∂x d. J = 2D ∂C/D∂x

68. Which of the following are true about Fick’s first law of
diffusion?
I. It is only applicable to liquids, not solids.
II. The law states that the flux moves from
high to low concentration.
III. J, the flux may be in units of cm³/cm²s.
a. I only c. III only
b. II only d. II and III

69. A substance that losses electron during redox act is:

a. oxidizing agent c. reducing agent
b. catalyst d. solvent

70. A substance which changes the speed of a chemical action

without itself being changed is called:
a. catalyst c. reactant
b. additive d. product

71. It is also called the “laughing gas”.

a. Methane c. Cyanic acid
 b. Nitrous oxide d. Ethane

72. Which of the following is not an important criterion for

forming a complete binary solid solution?
a. the difference in radii should be less than 15%.
b. the constituent elements must have the same crystal
structure.
c. the atoms should be close to one another in the periodic
table.
d. the difference in atomic number should be small.

73. How can an ordered solid solution be distinguished from a

compound?
a. In an ordered solid solution, the solute atoms occupy
interstitial position within the lattice.
b. The solute atoms in an ordered solid solution substitute
for atoms in the parent lattice.
c. The atoms in an ordered solid solution form layers in
the lattice structure.
d. When heated, an ordered solid solution becomes
disordered before melting.

74. It is a mixture of two or more non-volatile liquids in which

separation takes place very slowly.
a. suspension c. solutions
b. colloids d. emulsion

75. This type of solution contains enough solute a solvent can

hold at a given temperature and pressure.
a. unsaturated solution
b. supersaturated solution
c. saturated solution
d. dilute solution

76. It is the property of a solution that depends on the number on

solute particles present not on the nature of the particles.
a. boiling point c. vapor pressure
b. colligative d. osmotic pressure

77. It is the transfer of solvent molecules through a semi-

permeable membrane to equalize the solute concentration on
both sides of the membrane.
a. osmotic pressure c. evacuation
 b. osmosis d. transformation

78. Carrier mobility depends on:

a. resistivity
b. conductivity
c. recombination rate
d. temperature and the regularity of the crystal
structure

79. The movement of charges from an area of high carrier

concentration to an area of low carrier concentration is called:
a. gradient c. recombination
b. diffusion d. lifetime

80. The process of one substance mixing with another because of

molecular motion.
a. saturation c. adhesion
b. absorption d. diffusion

81. The freezing point of water is 0°C. Its melting point is:
a. slightly less than 0°C c. 0°C
b. slightly more than 0°C d. 32°C

82. The materials with the highest heat conductivities are the:
a. gases c. liquids
b. woods d. metals

83. The quantum number n of the lowest energy state of a

hydrogen atom is:
a. 0
b. depends on the orbit size
c. 1
d. depends on the electron speed

84. The number of quantum number needed to determine the

size and shape of the probability cloud of an atomic electron
is:
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

85. Each probability cloud in an atom can be occupied by:

a. one electron
b. two electrons with spins in the same direction
c. two electrons with spins in opposite direction
 d. any number of electrons

86. The chemical process which occurs when the water is added
to cement is:
a. hydration c. oxidation
b. Brownian movement d. plastic flow

87. Superheated vapor behaves

a. just as gas
b. just as ordinary vapor
c. just as steam
d. approximately as a gas

88. The molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 10³ N/m²
and 27°C will be
a. 41.7 m³/kg mol c. 85.3 m³/kg mol
b. 4.17 m³/kg mol d. 2.085 m³/kg mol

89. Antifreeze chemicals are

a. same as refrigerants
b. those that are added to refrigerants for better
performance
c. those that lower down the freezing point of
liquids
d. those that do not freeze at all

90. Clog point of an oil refers to

a. the point of maximum contamination of oil
b. the level of impurities beyond which oil ceases to flow
c. the temperature at which oil solidifies
d. the temperature at which paraffin and waxes in
oil start precipitating

91. Which of the following gas can be used to measure the lowest
temperature?
a. nitrogen c. oxygen
b. helium d. hydrogen

92. In actual gases, molecular collisions are

a. plastic c. inelastic
b. elastic d. inplastic

93. The opposite of alkali:

a. acid c. none of these
 b. fluid d. substance

94. A kilo mole of methane is 16 kg. compute the density of

methane at 20oC and 6 – atm pressure:
a. 2.66 kg/m3 c. 6.02 kg/m3
b. 3.33 kg/m3 d. 4.80 kg/m3

95. A tank having a capacity of 2 cu. ft. is filled with oxygen

which has a gauge pressure of 60 psi when the temp. is 47 oC.
At a later time it is found that because of the leak the
pressure has dropped to 50 psi and the pressure has
decreased to 27oC. What is the amount of oxygen that has
leak out:
a. None of these c. 0.0915
b. 0.0583 d. 0.153

96. In two molecules of Ba(OH)2 there are _______________

oxygen atoms:
a. one c. four
b. two d. seven

97. In a compound MnCl2 there are _______________ different

types of atoms:
a. five c. three
b. two d. four

98. In a compound Ba3(PO4)2 there are a total of _____________

atoms:
a. Five c. Thirteen
b. Twelve d. Ten

99. Removal of electrons from the neutral atoms increases the

positive charge resulting in a positively ion called
_____________:
a. proton c. anion
b. cation d. none of these

100. To determine the molecular formula we must know

______________:
a. weight percent composition only
b. molecular weight only
c. both molecular weight and weight percent
composition
d. weight percent composition and atomic weight
101. One isotope if the element Uranium has 143 neutrons.
Uranium has an atomic number of 92. The mass number of
this isotope is _________:
a. 143 c. 235
b. 82 d. 51

102. Covalent compounds composed of two elements are called

__________:
a. diatomic c. binary
b. polyatomic d. bielementary

103. In ionic compounds, anions and cations are mixed so that the
number of electrons lost in cation formation is ________ to
the number of electrons gained in anion formation:
a. one half c. one third
b. equal d. greater

104. Which is the most toxic?

a. O2 c. CO2
b. N2 d. CO

105. A 2-liter sample of argon gas at STP is expanded into a 5-liter

flask, with the temperature held constant. What will be the
new pressure of the gas?
a. 0.4 atm c. 1.0 atm
b. 2.4 atm d. 0.2 atm

106. Nitrogen oxides from automobiles are chiefly associated with

a pollution problem called _____________:
a. acid rain c. smog
b. green house effect d. annoying

107. Why is water a liquid, even though it has a low molecular

weight?
a. it is a hydride
b. due to dipole forces
c. oxygen is a group of elements
d. due to hydrogen bonding

108. Which of the following would you expect to have a highest

melting point?
a. mercury c. potassium
 b. sodium chloride d. toe

109. An increase in vapor pressure is accompanied by a decrease

in _________:
a. volatility c. temperature
b. boiling point d. partial pressure

110. Neoprene belongs to which class?

a. plastic c. elastic-plastic
b. elastic d. rubber-like plastic

111. What is the number of semi-conductors in periodic table?

a. 3 c. 5
b. 7 d. 13

112. The process of zinc coating used extensively for protecting

steel from atmospheric deterioration is called:
a. anodizoing c. galvanizing
b. parkerising d. colourizing

113. The properties or effects produced, not essentially in the

same order are:
a. grain refinement c. temper brittleness
b. hardenablity d. rust resistance

When the following pairs correctly represents the alloying

elements and properties or effect produced by it?
a. a – (ii) c. c – (iii)
b. b– (iv) d. c– (iv)

114. Which of the following material has density closer to that of

gold?
a. lead c. chromium
b. tungsten d. nichrome

115. Thermosetting polymers are generally:

a. injection molded c. cast molded
b. extruded d. none of the above

116. Which of the ff. method can NOT be used for thermoplastic
materials?
a. extrusion c. injection molding
b. blow molding d. all of the above
117. Ligancy is:
a. the number of atoms (or ions) surrounding and
touching a central atom
b. a covalent bond between two atoms
c. the angle between the two closest directional bonds of
an atom
d. none of the above

118. The melting point of carbon is about:

a. 800 oC c. 2150 oC
b. 3500 oC d. 6600 oC

119. Gel is:

a. a polymer having side groups distributed randomly
along s vinyl polymer chain
b. a polymer having secondary chains branching from the
molecular chains
c. particles linked together and containing a fluid is
its interstices a solid framework of colloidal
d. a polymer in which the repeating unit of each molecule
has vinyl group

120. What is the formula of the compound Carbon Diselinide

consisting of Carbon (C) and Selenium (Se)?
a. CSe2 c. (CSe)2
b. CSe d. C2Se

121. In preparing a metallographic iron specimen the grain

boundaries are made most visible by which of the following
steps?
a. grinding the sample with silicon carbide abrasive
b. polishing the sample with powdered diamond dust in oil
c. etching the sample in 2% solution of nitric acid in
alcohol
d. mounting the sample in an epoxy mold

122. The ratio of oxygen available to the oxygen required for

stabilization of sewerage is called:
a. relative stability
b. oxygen-ion concentration
c. concentration factor
d. biochemical oxygen
123. The crystalline structure of metals can be modified by several
processes. Plastic deformation of the crystalline structure
resulting in a misalignment of atoms, dislocations and large
stresses, and strains in small regions are characteristics of
which process?
a. cold forming c. tempering
b. twinning d. isostatic pressing

124. It has the highest melting point of all metals

a. tungsten c. silver
b. copper d. aluminum

125. The formula for Dinitrogen Pentoxide is

a. N2O5 c. NO5
b. (NO)5 d. none of these

126. Polymers that favor crystallization are least likely to have

which of the ff?
a. an atactic configuration
b. small sides group
c. only in repeating unit
d. small chains lengths

127. Coke may be prepared commercially by the destructive

distillation of:
a. anthracite coal c. peat
b. bituminous d. lignite

128. Reactions generally proceed faster at high temperatures

because of which of the ff:
a. the molecules are less energetic
b. the molecules collide more frequently
c. the activation energy is less
d. the molecules collide more frequently and the
activation energy is less

129. Which of the following statements regarding organic

substances is false?
a. organic substances generally dissolve in high
concentration acids
b. all organic matter contain carbon
c. organic matter is generally stable at very high
temperature
 d. organic matters generally do not dissolve in water

130. A deuteron is:

a. a neutron plus two protons
b. a nucleus containing a neutron and a proton
c. an electron with positive charge
d. a helium nucleus

131. Determine the molecular weight of the potassium

hexachloroiridate (lV) K2 lrCl6 atomic mass: K = 39.1, lr =
192.22, Cl = 35.453
a. 500 g/mole c. 458.21 g/mole
b. 483.12 g/mole d. 485.32 g/mole

132. How much 58.0 % sulfuric acid solution is needed to provide

150 g H2SO4?
a. 295 g c. 250 g
b. 259 g d. 249 g

133. How many kg of Ca3(PO4) must be treated with carbon and

sand in an electric furnace to make kg of phosphorous?
a. 4.95 kg c. 5.49 kg
b. 5.01 kg d. 4.5 kg

134. How many grams of 5% NaCl solution by weight are

necessary to yield 3.2 g NaCl?
a. 46 kg c. 45 kg
b. 64 kg d. 50 kg

135. How many grams solute are required to prepare 1 liter of 1

MPb(NO3)2? Molecular weight of Pb(NO3)2 = 331.2:
a. 330 g c. 332.1 g
b. 331.2 g d. 345 g

136. The density of 2.03 M solution acetic acid in water is 1.017

g/ml. Calculate the molality of the solution:
a. 22.7 m c. 0.27 m
b. 2.27 m d. 0.0227 m

137. An aqueous solution boils at 100.5 °C. What is the freezing

point of the solution?
a. –0.182 °C c. 1.82 °C
b. –1.82 °C d. 0.018 °C
138. A sample gas occupies 2 liters at 760 mmHg. What is its
volume at 1.25 atm at the same temperature?
a. 1.06 liters c. 0.160 liter
b. 1.60 liters d. 10.6 liters

139. The most satisfactory way to separate and identify sugars is

to use:
a. Buret reagent c. Fractional crystallization
b. Chromatography d. Benedict’s solution

140. In a crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom?

a. a different element at a lattice point
b. an extra atom setting at a non-lattice point
c. an atom is missing at a lattice point
d. a line defect

141. Which one of the following is most likely to prove that a

substance is inorganic?
a. the substance is heated together with copper
oxide and the resulting gases are found to have
no effect on limestone
b. the substance evaporates in room temperature and
pressure
c. analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen
d. the substance floats in water

142. By weight, atmospheric pressure is approximately 23.15%

oxygen and 76.85% nitrogen. What is the partial pressure of
oxygen in the air at standard temperature and pressure?
a. 3.8 psia c. 3.4 psia
b. 4.4 psia d. 3.1 psia

143. Twenty grams of oxygen gas (02) are compressed at a

constant temperature of 30 degree C to 5% of their original
volume. Find the work done on the system.
a. 944 cal c. 924 cal
b. 1124 cal d. 1114 cal

144. Water boils when

a. its saturated vapor pressure equals the
atmospheric pressure
b. its vapor pressure equals 76 cm of mercury
c. its temperature reaches 212 centigrade
 d. its vapor pressure is 1 gram per sq. cm.

145. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. Both lead and cadmium have a hexagonal close-
packed crystal structure.
b. Both magnesium and zinc have hexagonal close-packed
crystal structure.
c. Both copper and aluminum have face-centered cubic
crystal structure
d. All of the alkali metals have a body-centered cubic
crystal structure.

146. How many dependents properties are required to completely

fix the equilibrium state of a pure gaseous compound?
a. 4 c. 2
b. 3 d. 1

147. 100 grams of water are mixed with 150 g alcohol (ρ = 790
kg/m3). What is the specific volume of the resulting mixture,
assuming that the two fluids mix completely?
a. 0.63 cm3/g c. 0.82cm3/g
b. 1.20 cm3/g d. 0.88 cm3/g

148. In an ideal gas mixture of constituents i and j, what is the

mole fraction x1, equal to?
P T
i i
a. P  P c. T  T
i j i j
PV Z
i i i
b. d. Z Z
RT i j

149. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Ceramics are inorganic, non-metallic solids that are
processed or used at high temperatures
b. Most metals are strong, ductile and malleable. |In
general, they are heavier than most other substances.
c. Oxides. Carbides and nitrides are considered to be
with in the class of materials known as glasses.
d. Metals are chemical elements that from substances that
are opaque, lustrous and good conductors of heat and
the electricity.
150. Whish are the oxidizing and reducing agent in the following
reaction?
2CCl4 + K2CrO4  2Cl2CO + CrO2Cl2 + 2KCl
a. Oxidizing agent: oxygen; reducing agent: chloride
b. Oxidizing agent: chromium; reducing agent: chloride
c. Oxidizing agent: oxygen; reducing agent: chloride
d. There are no oxidizing or reducing agents in the
reaction

151. When 0.5 g of a liquid is completely evaporated and collected

in a 1 liter manometer, the pressure is 0.25 atm and the
temperature is 27 deg C. Assume ideal gas behavior, find the
molecular weight, the gas constant is
R = 0.0821 l-atm/mole K
a. 49.2 g/mole c. 2.2 g/mole
b. 12.3 g/mole d. 64.0 g/mole

152. Which of the following reactions relate to the softening

procedure in water purification?
a. 2H2O + O2  2H2O2
b. Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3 + H2O
c. CO2 + Ca (OH)2  CaCO3 + H2O
d. NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O

153. One method of removing moisture from air is to cool the air
so that the moisture condenses or freeze out. To what
temperature must air at 100 atm be cooled at constant
pressure in order to obtain in a humidity ratio of 0.0001?
a. 58 degree F c. 35 degree F
b. 47 degree F d. 22 degree F

154. A blue color obtained as a result of the borax bead test

indicates the presence of:
a. cobalt c. aluminum
b. magnesium d. nickel

155. In a crystal structure, what is an interstitial atom?

a. A different element at a lattice joint
b. An extra atom setting at a non-lattice joint
c. An atom missing at a lattice joint
d. A line defect
156. The most satisfactory way to separate and identify sugar is to
use
a. Biuret reagent c. Chromatography
b. Frantional crystallization d. Benedict’s solution

157. Which one of the following is most likely to prove that a

substance is inorganic?
a. The substance evaporates in room temperature and
pressure
b. The substance is heated together with copper
oxide and the resulting gases are found to have
no effect on limestone
c. Analysis shows that the substance contains hydrogen
d. The substance floats in water

158. Which of the following statements is TRUE for an ideal gas,

but not for a real gas?
a. PV = nRT
b. An increase in temperature causes increases in the
kinetic energy of the gas
c. The total volume of molecules in a gas is nearly
the same as the volume of the gas as a whole
d. No attractive forces exist between the molecules of a
gas

159. Which of the following statements is true for real gas, but not
for an ideal gas?
a. pV – nRT
b. an increase in temperature causes an increase in the
kinetic energy of the gas
c. the total volume of molecules in a gas is nearly
the same as the volume of the gas as a whole
d. no attractive forces exist between the molecules of a
gas

160. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. In general, as reaction products are formed, they react
with each other and reform reactants.
b. At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero
c. The differential rate low is the mathematical
expression that shows how the rate of a reaction
depends on volume
d. The net at which a reaction proceeds from the left to
right is equal to the forward rate minus the reverse rate
161. What is the first coordination number of BODY-CENTERED
cubic structure?
a. 10 c. 6
b. 4 d. 8

162. For an ideal gas, what is the specific molar entropy change
during an isothermal process in which the pressure change
from 200 kPa to 150 kPa called?
a. 2.39 J/mole-K c. 2.00 J/mole-K
b. 2.78 J/mole-K d. 3.12 J/mole-K

163. The ores from which the zinc is obtained is:

a. Sphalerite c. Pyrite
b. Magnetite d. Dolomite

164. Tin is produced from

a. Cassiterite c. Sphalerite
b. Bauxite d. Magnetite

165. Determine the volume occupied by 4 grams of oxygen at STP.

Molecular weight of oxygen is 32. Standard molar volume of
any gas 22.4 liters/mol.
a. 4.8 liters c. 2.8 liters
b. 3.6 liters d. 1.4 liters

166. Determine the formula weight of potassium hexachloroiridate

(IV), K2IrCl6. Atomic weights: K = 39.098; Ir = 1922.22;
Cl = 35.453
a. 86.089 c. 387.344
b. 285.799 d. 483.14

167. A seated tank contains oxygen at 27 deg C at a pressure of 2

atm. If the temperature increases to 100 deg C. What will be
the pressure inside the tank?
a. 4.92 atm c. 2.49 atm
b. 4.29 atm d. 9.24 atm

168. An ideal gas at 0.60 atmosphere and at 87 deg C occupies

0.450 liter. How many moles are in the sample? (R = 0.0821
1-atm/mole-K)
a. 0.0198 mole c. 0.0091 mole
b. 0.0002 mole d. 0.0378 mole
169. When 50 L of air at STP is isothermally compressed to 10 L,
how much heat must flow from the gas? (Patm = 100 lPa).
a. 8.35 kJ c. 8.05 kJ
b. 8.23 kJ d. 8.48 kJ

170. How much 58% sulfuric acid solution is needed to provide

150 gram of H2SO4?
a. 240 grams c. 180 grams
b. 215 grams d. 259 grams

171. At STP a gas occupies 0.213 liters. How many moles are there
in this sample of gas?
a. 0.9050 mole c. 0.0890 mole
b. 0.0089 mole d. 0.0095 mole

172. A liter of sample of air at 1 atm. Pressure is allowed to

expand isothermally into a 20 liters vessel. What will its new
pressure be?
a. 0.25 atm. c. 2.0 atm.
b. 1.5 atm. d. 0.5 atm.

173. In the periodic table of elements, which of the following is

NOT a transition metals?
a. copper c. silver
b. sodium d. nickel

174. In the periodic table of elements, which one of the following

elements DOES NOT belong to group IIA?
a. calcium c. radium
b. sodium d. magnesium

175. A cylinder contains oxygen (O2) at a pressure of 10 atm and a

temperature of 300°K. The volume of the cylinder is 10 liters.
What is the mass of oxygen? MW of O° is 32 g/mole.
a. 120.08 g c. 130.08 g
b. 125.08 g d. 135.08 g

176. When 10.0 g of silicon dust, Si, is exploded with 100.0 g of

oxygen, O2 , forming silicon dioxide, SiO2, how many grams of
O2 remain uncombined? The reaction of the equation is:
Si + 02  SiO2. The MW of Si = 28, MW of O2 = 32
a. 85.8 g c. 87.8 g
b. 86.5 g d. 88.5 g
177. Which of the following is NOT related to crystallization?
a. hot working c. elastic modulus
b. cold working d. melting temperature

178. What is the molarity of a solution of 600 g of H 2SO4 (which

has a specific gravity of 1.83) dissolved in 3 l of water?
a. 1.84 M c. 3.09 M
b. 2.04 M d. 4.00 M

179. 0.064 kg of octane vapor (MW = 114) is mixed with 0.91 kg

of air (MW = 29.0) in the manifold of an engine. The total
pressure in the manifold is 86.1 kPa, and the temperature is
290°K. Assume octane behaves ideally. What is the total
volume of this mixture?
a. 0.652 m3 c. 0.895 m3
b. 0.722 m3 d. 0.563 m3

180. 0.064 kg of octane vapor (MW = 114) is mixed with 0.19 kg

of air (MW = 29.0) in the manifold of an engine. The local
pressure in the manifold is 86.1 kPa, and the temperature is
290°K. Assume octane behaves ideally. What is the partial
pressure of the air in the mixture?
a. 64.8 kPa c. 48.6 kPa
b. 84.6 kPa d. 46.8 kPa

181. The RMS velocity of hydrogen gas at N.T.P. is approximately

a. 3838 m/s c. 4839 m/s
b. 1839 m/s d. 839 m/s

182. What is the RMS velocity of 275°K argon (MW = 39.9)

molecules?
a. 313.7 m/sec c. 616.7 m/sec
b. 515.7 m/sec d. 414.7 m/sec

183. What is the RMS velocity of oxygen at 700F?

a. 448 m/sec c. 479 m/sec
b. 568 m/sec d. 864 m/sec

184. What is the molarity of ethanol in 90% proof whisky? Density

of alcohol = 98g/ml.
a. 8.73 M c. 8.37 M
b. 3.78 M d. 7.83 M
185. Two liquids mixed together with densities of 500 kg/m 3 and
1500 kg/m3 until the 100liter container was full and their joint
density becomes 500 kg/m3. What are the masses of two
liquids?
a. 49 kg, 50 kg c. 32 kg, 46kg
b. 35 kg, 45 kg d. 30kg, 50 kg

186. Acid turns litmus paper into ________.

a. red c. blue
b. yellow d. green

187. A mixture of 35% ethyl alcohol, 15% sulfuric acid, and 50%
water, the molecular weight of the ethyl alcohol is 46. What is
the MOL concentration of ethyl alcohol if the total mixture
concentration is 3.724?
a. 0.314 c. 0.625
b. 0.288 d. 0.204

188. The molecular diameter of CO is 3.19 x 10 –8 mm at 300 K and

the given pressure of the 100 mm Hg. What is the mean free
path of the gas in the cm?
a. 2.86 x 10-3 c. 6.86 x 10-6
-3
b. 6.86 x 10 d. 6.86 x 10-9

189. The molecular diameter of CO is 3.19 x 10-8 at 300 K and

pressure of 100 mmHg. What is the number of biomolecular
collisions?
a. 1.02x1024 c. 2.12x1020
b. 2.12x1026 d. 1.12x1027

190. At STP, the density of chlorine is 3.22 kg/m 3. What weight of

gas is contained in a flask of 100 cm3 at 24°C and 100 kPa?
a. 0.321 gram c. 0.563 gram
b. 0.420 gram d. 0.292 gram

191. Hydrogen peroxide solution for hair bleaching is usually

prepared by mixing 5.0 g of hydrogen peroxide (H 2O2)
molecular weight = 43 g/mole) per 100 ml of solution. What
is the molarity of this solution?
a. 1.0 M c. 2.0 M
b. 1.5 M d. 2.5 M
192. The miller indices of a crystal is (2,1,0) what does (2,1,0)
mean?
a. (2,1,0) 1/5 : 1/7 : 1/40
b. (2,1,0) 1 ½ : 1/1 : 1/
c. (2,1,0) 1/9 : 1/6 : 1/10
d. (2,1,0) 1/2 : 1/6 : 1/

193. What radioactive delay is described by the capture of electron

from the inner shells?
a. Beta decay c. electron capture
b. Gamma decay d. electromagnetic radiation

194. One-half of a molecular weight of a perfect gas exists at a

pressure of 100 psia. A heat transfer of 200 BTU at constant
volume causes the temperature to change by 100°F. Find the
specific heat for constant pressure processes on a molar
basis.
a. 8 BTU/pmole-°R c. 4 BTU/p/mole-°R
b. 6 BTU/pmole-°R d. 12 BTU/pmole-°R

195. Are hydrocarbons containing one or more carbon – carbon

triple bonds?
a. acid c. alkenes
b. alkali d. alkynes

196. Determine the specific gravity of carbon dioxide (150°F, 20

psi) using STP air as a reference:
a. 1.7 c. 1.85
b. 1.8 d. 1.87

197. What is the subject which covers the retirement of pure

metals from their ores?
a. Oreic Metallurgy
b. Refinement Metallurgy
c. Extractive Metallurgy
d. Pure Metallurgy

198. The energy change that a occurs when electron is added to

gaseous atom or ion is called…
a. Electromotive force c. Electron density
b. Electron capture d. Electron affinity
199. A large Molecule with two alternating Mers is know as…
a. Monomers
b. Elastomer
c. Mers
d. Copolymer or interpolymer

200. The ore from which aluminum is obtained is

a. Bauxite c. Galena
b. Cassiterite d. Sphalerite

201. Two thirds of the atom in molecule of water (H 2O) are

hydrogen. What percentage of the weight of water molecule is
the weight of the two hydrogen atoms? The atomic weight of
hydrogen is 1.008g/mole and of oxygen is 16.00 g/mole.
a. 12.19% c. 19.00%
b. 11.19% d. 19.12%

202. The atomic weight of iron is 55,847 amu. If one has 6.02 g of
iron. How many atoms are present?
a. 6.49 x 1022 c. 6.49 x 1024
b. 6.49 x 1023 d. 6.49 x 1025

203. Is accomplished by heating raw rubber with small amounts of

sulfur?
a. Polymerization c. Sulfurization
b. Vulcanization d. Monomerization

204. If 20 ml of 0.5N salt solution is diluted to 1 liter, what is the

new concentration?
a. 0.02 N c. 0.03 N
b. 0.04 N d. 0.01 N

205. Which one of the following elements is NOT radioactive?

a. Californium c. Plutonium
b. Cobalt d. Uranium

206. The number of bonds in the mer that can be broken open for
attachment to the other mer is known as the:
a. property of the mer
b. proportionality of the mer
c. functionality of the mer
d. crystallinity of the mer
CIVIL ENGINEERING PROBLEMS

207. Which dam can only be used in narrow canyons?

a. Gravity c. buttress
b. arch d. earth

208. The sheet of water which is flowing over the crest of a dam or
weir.
a. overtop c. nappe
b. overflow d. apex

209. To which of the following is the large discrepancy between the

actual and theoretical strengths of metals mainly be
attributed?
a. heat c. dislocations
b. low density d. stress direction

210. A shaft made of good quality steel breaks in half due to

fatigue. What would the surface of the fracture site look like?
a. like a cup and cone
b. quite smooth to the unaided eye, yet ripples are
apparent under low power magnification
c. smooth over most of the surface although it
appears torn at the location of the fracture.
d. very jagged and rough

211. Low carbon steels are generally used in the “as roiled” or “as
fabricate” state. What is the reason for this?
a. they come in many different shapes and thickness
b. their strength generally cannot be increased by
heat treatment
c. they degrade severely under heat treatment
d. their chromium content is low

212. In preparing a metallographic iron specimen, the grain

boundaries are made most visible by which of the following
steps?
a. grinding the sample with silicon carbide abrasive
b. polishing the sample with Al2O3
c. mounting the sample in an epoxy resin mold
d. etching the sample in a 2% solution of nitric acid
in alcohol
213. The equilibrium cooling of steel containing 0.8% carbon
results in a product with little use because it is extremely
brittle. Which of the following is the primary reason for this
poor characteristic?
a. the material has not been cold-worked
b. the austenite grains are too small, carbide grains are
too large
c. thick layers of iron carbide surround the coarse ferrite
grains
d. the carbide forms thin plates that are brittle

214. Ductile cast iron and gray cast iron both contain 4% carbon.
Ductile cast iron however, has a higher tensile strength and is
considerably more ductile. Which of the following is the major
difference that accounts for the superior properties of the
ductile iron?
a. the gray cast iron contains iron carbide, whereas the
ductile iron contains graphite
b. the gray cast iron contains flakes of graphite,
whereas the ductile iron contains spheroids of
graphite
c. the ductile iron is tempered to give better properties
d. the ferrite grains in the gray cast iron are excessively
large

215. The simple mathematical statement of the relationship

between elastic stress and strain: stress is proportional to
strain. What is the law?
a. Boyle’s law c. Charles’ Law
b. Hooke’s law d. Gas Law

216. For elastic materials, which law relates stress and strain?
a. Poisson’s law c. Hooke’s law
b. Gauss’ law d. Dalton’s law

217. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is removed,

the strain disappears. From this information, which of the
following can be deducted about this material?
a. it has a high modulus of elasticity
b. it is elastic
c. it does not obey Hooke’s law
d. it is plastic
218. Under which type of loading does fatigue occurs?
a. static load c. plane load
b. high load d. repeated load

219. In bending of a rectangular beam under axial loading, where

is the location of the maximum shear stress?
a. at the top edge
b. at the bottom edge
c. at the natural axis
d. at a location between the top edge and the natural axis

220. What type of materials usually has a higher index of

refraction?
a. lighter materials c. heavier materials
b. denser materials d. less dense materials

221. The bulk modulus of elasticity:

a. is larger when the fluid is more compressible
b. increase with the pressure
c. has the dimensions 1/p
d. is independent of temperature

222. In general, what are the effects of a cold-working metal?

a. increased strength and ductility
b. increased strength, decreased ductility
c. decreased strength and ductility
d. decreased strength, increased ductility

223. Which of the following would most likely require a steel

containing 0.6% carbon that has been spheroidized, cold-
down, and slightly tempered?
a. a bridge beam c. a water pipe
b. a cutting tool d. a ball bearing

224. Which word combination best completes the following

sentence? “Plastic deformation of a single
crystal occurs by ______ or by ______, but ______ is the
more common method.”
a. high pressure; high temperature; high pressure
b. high temperature; high pressure; high temperature
c. slip; twinning; slip
d. twinning; slip; twinning
225. In a stress-strain diagram, what is the correct term for the
stress level at Є = 0.2% offset?
a. the elastic limit c. the plastic limit
b. the offset rupture stress d. the offset yield stress

226. Which of the following best describes the 0.2% offset yield
stress?
a. it is the elastic limit after which a measurable plastic
strain has occurred.
b. it is the stress at which the material plastically
strains 0.2%.
c. it is the stress at which the material elastically strains
0.2%.
d. it is 0.2% below the fracture point of the material.

227. Which of the following is true regarding the ductile to brittle

transition temperature?
I. It is important for structures used in cold
environments.
II. It is important at which the size of the
shear lip or
tearing rim goes to zero.
III. It is the temperature at which 20 Joules of
energy causes failure in a Charpy v-notch
specimen of standard dimensions.
a. I only c. I and II
b. II and III d. I and III

228. The ease with which dislocations are able to move through a
crystal under stress accounts for which of the following?
I. Ductility
II. Lower yield strength
III. Hardness
a. I only c. II only
b. III only d. I and III

229. Which of the following are true statements about the modulus
of elasticity, E?
a. it is the same as the rupture modulus.
b. it is the slope of the stress-strain diagram in the
linearly elastic region.
c. it is the ratio of stress to volumetric strain.
d. it is dimensionless.
230. Which one of these statements is true for twinning?
a. it occurs at a lower shear stress than slip.
b. it is the most significant form of plastic deformation.
c. it cannot be caused by impact or thermal treatment.
d. it frequently occurs in hexagonal close-packed
structures.

231. What is the proper relationship between the modulus of

elasticity, E, the Poisson ratio, v, the bulk modulus of
elasticity, K?
a. E = K (1-2v) c. E = K (1-v)
b. E = 3K (1-2v) d. E = 3K (1-v)

232. Given that d is the distance between dislocations, and b is the

Burgers vector, what is the expression for the misorientation
angle, θ, of a tilt boundary?
a. sin θ = d/b c. tan θ = b/d
b. θ = b/d d. θ = d/b

233. Which of the following does cold-working cause?

a. elongation of grains in the flow direction, an
increase in dislocation density and an overall
increase in energy of the metal.
b. elongation of grains in the flow direction, a decrease in
dislocation density and an overall decrease in energy of
the metal.
c. elongation of grains in the flow direction, a decrease in
dislocation density and an overall increase in energy of
the metal.
d. shortening of grains in the flow direction, a decrease in
dislocation density and an overall decrease in energy of
the metal.

234. Which of the following statements is false?

a. the amount or percentage of cold-work cannot be
obtained from information about change in area
or thickness of a metal.
b. the process of applying force to a metal at
temperatures below the temperature of crystallization in
order to plastically deform the metal is called cold-
working.
c. annealing eliminates most of the defects caused by the
cold-working of the metal.
 d. annealing reduces the hardness of the metal.

235. Which of the following statements is false?

a. there are considerable increase in the hardness and
strength of a cold-worked metal.
b. cold-working a metal significantly reduces its ductility.
c. cold-working causes a slight decrease in the density and
electrical conductivity of a metal.
d. cold-working decreases the yield point of the
metal.

236. Which of the following statements is false?

a. hot-working increases the density of the metal.
b. one of the primary goals of hot-working is to produced
a fine-grained product.
c. in hot-working, no noticeable changes in mechanical
properties occur.
d. hot-working causes much strain hardening of the
metal.

237. Which of the following statements is false?

a. grain size is of minor importance in considering
the properties of polycrystalline materials.
b. fine-grained materials usually exhibit greater yield
stresses than coarse-grained materials at low
temperature.
c. at high temperatures, grain boundaries become weak
and sliding occurs.
d. grain sliding can cause the formation of voids along the
boundary.

238. Which of the following correctly describes atoms located at

grain boundaries?
a. they are subjected to the same type of interatomic
forces that are present in the interior atoms of the
crystal.
b. they are located primarily in highly strained and
distorted positions.
c. they are oriented so as to attain a minimum energy
state.
d. all of the above.
239. Which of the following describe the modulus of elasticity of an
elastomer?
I. It is directly proportional to the number of
cross
links in the elastomer.
II. Its value increases with temperature.
III. It is directly proportional to the
number of
double bonds in the chemical structure.
a. I only c. II only
b. III only d. I and II

240. Two pieces of copper are brazed together using a eutectic

alloy of copper and silver. The braze material melts at 780°C.
If a second braze is attempted in order to attach another
piece of copper, which of the following is true?
a. the first will melt if the braze temperature is again
780°C.
b. the braze temperature must be lowered below 780°C.
c. the first braze will partially melt, causing the parts to
slide.
d. the first blaze will not melt at 780°C, but the
second braze will.

241. Which of the following statements is false?

a. low-alloy steels are minor group and rarely used.
b. low-alloy steels are used in the heat-treated condition.
c. low-alloy steels contain small amounts of nickel and
chromium.
d. the addition of small amounts of molybdenum to low-
alloy steels makes it possible to harden and strengthen
thick pieces of the metal by heat treatment.

242. Which of the following statements is false?

a. high-strength low-alloy steels are not as strong as non-
alloy low carbon steels.
b. small amounts of copper increase the tensile strength of
steels.
c. small amounts of silicon in steel have little influence on
toughness or fabricability.
 d. additions of small amounts of silicon to steel can
cause a marked decreased in yield strength of the
steel.

243. Which of the following statements is false?

a. stainless steel contain large amounts of chromium.
b. there are three basic types of stainless steels:
martensitic, austenitic, and ferritic.
c. the non-magnetic stainless steels contain large amounts
of nickel.
d. stabilization of the face-centered cubic crystals
structure of stainless steels imparts a non-magnetic
characteristic to the alloy.

244. For a completely corrosion-resistant stainless steel, what

minimum percentage of chromium in the alloy is required?
a. 1.1% c. 3.2%
b. 8.3% d. 11%

245. Which term describes a material whose property depends on

the direction of the stress?
a. anisotropic c. isotropic
b. symmetrical d. asymmetrical

246. The property that characterizes a material’s ability to be

drawn into a wire is its:
a. tensile stress c. ductility
b. thermal conductivity d. impact strength

247. Which of the following treatments will result in an increase in

fatigue strength of steel?
a. annealing c. shot peening
b. cold-working d. hot-working

248. Compressive strength of fully cured concrete is most directly

related to:
a. sand-gravel ratio c. fineness modulus
b. water-cement ratio d. aggregate gradation

249. In Mohr’s circle, the distance of the center of the circle from
the y-axis is given by:
 (px  py)
a. (px - py) c.
2
(px  py)
b. (px + py) d.
2

250. Fixing both ends of a simply supported beams that has only a
concentrated load at midspan will increase the allowable load
by:
a. 25% c. 100%
b. 50% d. 200%

251. The ratio of the average shear stress to the maximum shear
stress for a circular section is equal to
a. 2 c. 3/2
b. 2/3 d. 3/4

252. When a solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces of the

same type on all its faces, the ratio of the volumetric
strain/linear strain along any of the 3 axes will be equal to
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 3

253. The stress-strain curve for a glass rod during tensile stress is
a. a straight line c. a sudden break
b. a parabola d. an irregular curve

254. When shear force is zero along a section, the bending

moment at that section will be
a. zero c. maximum
b. minimum d. minimum or maximum

255. The relation between modulus of elasticity, E, modulus of

elasticity is shear, G, bulk modulus of elasticity, K, and
Poisson’s ratio is given by
a. E = Gμ c. E = 2G (μ+1)
b. E = G (μ + 1) d. E = 4G (1 + 2μ)

256. The configuration of a column so that it has a uniform

strength throughout its length, L, under its own weight (w per
unit volume of column material), and an applied stress, p, on
its top is given by
a. A2 = A1 e x ewL/p c. A2 = A1 x LeT/y
b. A2 = A1(wL/p) d. A2 = A1 x ewL/p
257. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel as compared to its
ultimate compressive stress will be
a. same c. less
b. more d. more or less

258. Percentage reduction of area while performing tensile stress

test on cast iron may be the order of
a. 50% c. 0%
b. 25% d. 15%

259. The intensity of stress that causes unit strain is known as

a. unit stress c. modulus of rigidity
b. bulk modulus d. modulus of elasticity

260. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in

tension is nearly
a. same c. one-third
b. half d. two-thirds

261. When a part is constrained to move and heated, it develops

a. principal stress c. compressive stress
b. tensile stress d. shear stress

262. The tensile stress of a material is given by

maximum load during test
a.
area at the time of fracture
average load during test
b. original cross  sectional area
average load during test
c.
area at the time of fracture
maximum load during test
d. original cross  sectional area

263. The size of hole that is drilled in plates for riveting is

a. equal to the diameter of rivet shrank
b. slightly smaller than the diameter of rivet shrank
c. 1.5 to 2 mm smaller than the diameter of rivet for
rivets of 25 mm and above size
d. 1.5 to 2 mm larger than the diameter of rivet for
rivets of 25 mm and above size
264. The horsepower that can be transmitted by a shaft 60 mm in
diameter at 180 rpm with permissible shear stress of 850
kg/cm² shall be approximately
a. 30-35 c. 50-60
b. 35-50 d. 60-85

265. If the torsional resisting moment of a section with b as the

characteristic parameter and S as stress is equal to 2/9 b³S,
then the section must be
a. octagonal c. triangular
b. hexagonal d. square

266. A column is called short column when

a. the length is more than 30 times the diameter
b. slenderness ratio is more than 120
c. the length is less than 8 times the diameter
d. the slenderness ratio is more than 32

267. Which one is the incorrect statement about true stress-strain

method?
a. it is more sensitive to change the mechanical condition
b. this method can be used for compression test as well
c. true stress is load per unit area (actual) and similarly,
true strain is determined under actual conditions
d. there is no such phenomenon like true stress or
true strain

268. The total strain energy stored in a body is called

a. impact energy c. proof resilience
b. modulus of resilience d. resilience

269. Strain energy stored in a body of volume V with stress s

because gradually applied load is given by
8E sv²
a. c.
v E
sE² 8²v
b. d.
v 2E

270. A material that is capable of absorbing a large quantity of

energy before fracture possesses the property called
a. ductility c. resilience
b. toughness d. shock proof

271. Coaxing increases the

 a. strength by reversible cycling
b. corrosion resistance by spraying
c. hardness by surface treatment
d. fatigue resistance by over-stressing the metal by
successively increasing loadings

272. For a vertical hanging bar having a length l and weighing w

kg/unit length and carrying a load W at the bottom, the
tensile force at distance y from support in the bar will be
given by
y
a. W c. (w + W)
l
b. W + wl d. W + w(l-y)

273. With a punch for which the maximum crushing stress is 4

times the maximum shearing stress of the plate, the biggest
hole that can be punched in the plate will have a diameter
given by
plate thickness
a. c. plate thickness
4
plate thickness
b. d. 2 x plate thickness
2

274. Two shafts made up of mild steel, one having a circular cross-
section and the other being hollow circular with inner
diameter half of the outer diameter. The ratio of the torque
that can be transmitted in the two cases is given by
a. 2 c. 17/16
b. 1 d. 15/16

275. The volumetric strain for a thin spherical shell is given by

pr 1 pr 1
a. |1  | c. |1  |
2t m 3t m
3pr 1 2pr 1
b. |1  | d. |1  |
2t m 3t m

276. For a thin walled cylinder, the ratio of the longitudinal strain
to volumetric strain is given by
m 1 m 1
a. c.
3m  4 5m  1
2m  1 m2
b. d.
m5 5m  4
277. For a thin walled cylinder, the ratio of the hoop strain to
volumetric strain is given by
m 1 m 1
a. c.
3m  5 5m  4
4m  5 3m  1
b. d.
3m  2 5m  4

278. For a circular shaft subjected to torque, the value of shear

stress
a. is uniform throughout
b. has a maximum value at the surface
c. varies linearly from axis to surface
d. is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a
maximum value at the surface of the shaft

279. In laminated springs, the strips are provided in different

lengths for
a. economy
b. reduction in weight
c. improved appearance
d. equal distribution of stress

280. Select the one for which diamond riveted joints can be
adopted.
a. all type of joints c. double riveted joint
b. lap joint d. butt joint

281. If b is the width of a plate joined by diamond riveting of

diameter d, the efficiency of the joint is given by
bd db
a. c.
b b
bd bd
b. d.
b d

282. Hoop stress refers to

a. longitudinal stress c. compressive stress
b. radial stress d. circumferential stress

283. A rectangular plate 8 cm long and 6 cm wide were subjected

to normal forces of 600 kg at the 6 cm side and 200 kg at the
8 cm side. The normal and tangential components of the force
on the diagonal plane are
a. 200 kg and 600 kg c. 520 kg and 360 kg
b. 800 kg and 400 kg d. unpredictable
284. For a perfect frame having N joints, the number of members
should not be less than
a. 2N-1 c. 2N-2
b. 2N-3 d. 2N-5

285. A rigid steel plate is supported by 3 concrete poles each with

a 10 cm x 10 cm square cross-section. However, the middle
post is 0.5 cm shorter than the other two before a load P is
applied. The working stress is concrete in compression is 200
kg/cm³ and the modulus of elasticity E C is equal to 12 x 106
kg/cm². The safe value of load P would be
a. 30,000 kg c. 50,000 kg
b. 40,000 kg d. 70,000 kg

286. The extension of the circular bar tapering uniformly from

diameter d1 to d2 is the same as that of uniform circular bar of
diameter
d1  d2
a. c. d1d2
2
d1  d2
b. d. d12  d22
2

287. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the ratio of

a. linear stress to longitudinal strain
b. stress to volumetric strain
c. shear stress to shear strain
d. stress to strain

288. A tapered bar of length l has diameters D and d at ends when

subjected to axial load F, then the elongation produced will be
equal to
pl pl
a. 16 c.
Dd Dd
pl pl
b. d.
Dd Dd

289. Strain energy is stored in a hollow shaft having outer

diameter D and inner diameter d when subjected to shear
stress of s. If the modulus of rigidity of the shaft material is
C, then the strain energy stored in the shaft will be given by
 s² | D  d | s² | D²  d² |
a. c.
CD 4Cd
s² | D²  d² | s²Dd
b. d. 4C | D  d |
4CD

290. The section modulus of a circular section about an axis

through its center of gravity is given by
d³ d³
a. c.
16 64
d³ πd³
b. d.
32 192

291. 1 Mega Newton per square meter is equal to:

a. 1,000,000N/mm² c. 100N/mm³
b. 10,000N/mm² d. 1 N/mm²

292. The value of shear stress change is induced in the shaft

because of the applied couple that
a. from maximum of the center to zero at the
circumference
b. from zero at the center to maximum at the
circumference
c. from maximum at the center to minimum at the
circumference
d. from minimum at the center to maximum at the
circumference

293. In the design of a pulley, key and shaft

a. all three are designed for the same strength
b. key is made the weaker link
c. pulley is made weaker
d. shaft is made weaker

294. When a member is subjected to tensile force F and its normal

cross-section perpendicular to line of force A, the resulting
normal stress in an oblique plane inclined at angle θ to
traverse plane will be given by
P cos 2θ P sin 2θ
a. c.
2A 2A
P sin² θ P cos² θ
b. d.
A A
295. Mohr’s circle can be used to find out the following stress in an
inclined surface:
a. principal stress c. maximum shear stress
b. normal stress d. all of the above

296. For a beam of length L that is supported at each end carries a

x
distributed load given by wx  sin , where x is measured
L
from A. The equation for the bending moment is equation:
x
wx  wsin
L
wcoswL wL2 x
a. c. sin
L  L
wL x wL2 x
b. cos d. sin
 L  2
L

297. The elongation of the conical bar under its own weight is
equal to
a. that of a prismatic bar of the same length
b. one third that of a prismatic bar of the same
length
c. one fourth that of a prismatic bar of the same length
d. one sixth that of a prismatic bar of the same length

298. For a material having E = 11000 tonnes t/cm² and C = 430

t/cm², the Poisson’s ratio will be
a. 43/55 c. 31/43
b. 12/43 d. 12/55

299. Section modulus of a rectangular beam is given by

a. (BH²)/12 c. (HB²)/6
b. (H²B²)/6 d. (BH²)/6

300. Section modulus of hollow circle, having an average diameter

“d” and a wall thickness “t”, is given by
a. (5/4) td² c. (4/5) t²d²
b. (4/5) dt² d. (4/5) td²

301. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick cylinder is
a. maximum at the inner and outer surfaces and minimum
at the middle
b. minimum at the inner and outer surfaces and maximum
at the middle
 c. minimum at the inner surface and increases towards
the outer surface
d. maximum at the inner surface and decreases
towards the outer surface

302. Assuming longitudinal strain to be constant at any point in the

thickness of the cylinder, the radial stress s r and hoop stress
sh are related as
a. sr/sh = constant c. (sr – sh)/ sh = constant
b. sr + sh = constant d. sr – sh = constant

303. According to Lame’s equation, hoop stress for a thick cylinder

at any point at a radius r from the center is given by
a. b/r + a c. b/r² - a
b. b/r – a d. b/r² + a

304. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and thickness t when

subjected to internal pressure p, if the Poisson’s ratio of
material is μ, the circumferential or hoop strain is
a. pd(1/2 – μ)/4tE c. pd(1 - 2μ)/4tE
b. pd(1/2 – μ)/2tE d. pd(1 - 2μ)/2tE

305. Auto frottage is the method of

a. calculating stresses in thick cylinders
b. relieving thick cylinders
c. pre-stressing thick cylinders
d. increasing life of thick cylinders

306. Maximum deflection in the cantilever because of pure bending

moment M and its end is given by
a. MI²/6EI c. MI²/3EI
b. MI²/4EI d. MI²/2EI

307. Maximum slope for a cantilever of length l with a load P at its

end is given by
a. PI²/EI c. PI²/3EI
b. PI²/2EI d. PI²/4EI

308. Ties are load carrying members that carry

a. torsional loads c. axial tension loads
b. axial compressive loads d. transverse loads
309. If D is the diameter of a coil of a close coiled helical spring
and total angle of twist is full length be θ, then deflection of
spring is given by
a. (D/2)θ c. D² θ/2
b. 2Dθ d. Dθ

310. If the areas of cross-sections of square and circular beams

are the same and both are put to equal bending moment,
then the correct statement is
a. the circular beam is more economical
b. the square beam is more economical
c. both the beams are equally strong
d. both the beams are equally economical

311. I a quantity which measure the resistance of the mass to

being revolved about the line:
a. modulus of elasticity c. strain
b. stress d. moment of inertia

312. Bicycle frame pipes are made of:

a. cast iron c. hot rolled steel
b. cold rolled steel d. carbon-chrome steel

313. Which one is the unit of retentivity?

a. Weber
b. Weber-meter
c. Weber per meter
d. Weber per square meter

314. Charpy test is associated with which property of materials?

a. Hardness c. Brittleness
b. Malleability d. wire drawing

315. Tin-cadmium-zinc solder if preferred for:

a. aluminum and its alloys
b. copper and its alloys
c. platinum and tungsten
d. steel

316. Classification f concrete with 1:2.5:5 mix proportion is:

a. class AAA c. class A
b. class AA d. class B
317. The type of testing in determining the compressive strength
of concrete is:
a. slump test c. boring test
b. cylindrical test d. geotesting

318. The elastic strain of a material based on Hooke’s law is limited

within the:
a. elastic limit c. ultimate limit
b. yield limit d. breaking limit

319. In the Philippines, the standard mass of 1 bag of cement is:

a. 40 kg c. 50 kg
b. 45 kg d. 60 kg

320. In fresh concrete mix, slump test is the appropriate method

of determining the:
a. compressive strength of concrete
b. consistency of concrete
c. tensile strength of concrete
d. all of these

321. The weight of a pile driver that depends on the gravity for its
striking power and is used to drive piles into the ground is:
a. pile dike c. pile cap
b. pile hammer d. pile bent

322. For most grade of steel, the modulus of elasticity is:

a. 200,000 Mpa c. 200 kPa
b. 200 Mpa d. 20 Gpa

323. The type of weld used for a lap joint at the end of the metal
places is:
a. groove weld c. plug weld
b. fillet weld d. slot weld

324. The twisting moment of a shaft is ______________

proportional to horsepower and ______________
proportional to speed:
a. inversely, inversely c. inversely, directly
b. directly. Directly d. directly, inversely

325. White metal is widely used for

a. soldering c. bearing
 b. brazing d. painting

326. Galvanizing is the process of coating materials with a layer of:

a. aluminum c. zinc
b. copper d. nickel

327. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break

a. by forming a bulge
b. by shearing along an oblique plane
c. into large number of pieces
d. in the direction along the direction of the load

328. Which of the following is not a cold working process?

a. swaging c. knurling
b. spinning d. wire drawing

329. The behavior of visco elastic material is:

a. time dependent c. ductile
b. independent of time d. plastic

330. The phenomenon of age hardening is associated with:

a. German silver c. duralumin
b. gin metal d. cast iron

331. It is the internal resisting moment of a beam. It is possible in

sense to the bending moment but of the same magnitude:
a. strain
b. moment of resistance
c. elastic unit
d. modulus of elasticity

332. A foundation 30 ft. long, 12 ft. wide, and 9 ft. deep is to be

composed of 1:2:4 concrete. How much gravel in cu.yds. will
be required?
a. 150 c. 110
b. 120 d. 100

333. The change in length per unit degree rise in temperature

a. volume expansibility c. ideal gas temperature
b. linear expansibility d. temperature scale

334. Is the change in shape of any materials when subjected to

the action of a force:
a. moment of inertia c. modulus of elasticity
 b. strain d. stress

335. Constantan contains:

a. copper and nickel c. tungsten and silver
b. copper and tungsten d. silver and tin

336. The process which steel is coated by a thin layer of phosphate

is called:
a. anodizing c. phosphorizing
b. parkerising d. sheradizing

337. The material which show the same elastic properties in all
direction are known as:
a. isentropic c. inelastic
b. isotropic d. visco elastic

338. What element is known to be the lightest metal:

a. aluminum c. manganese
b. magnesium d. lithium

339. A cube wood floating in water supports a 200 g mass, when

the mass is removed, the cube rises 2 cm. Determine the size
of the cube:
a. 20 cm c. 10 cm
b. 15 cm d. 25 cm

340. A gold ring set with a diamond has a mass of 4 grams and
when immersed in water, it weighs 3.72 grams. Find the
mass of diamond if specific gravity of gold is 19.3 and that of
diamond is 3.6:
a. 0.831 gram c. 0.511 gram
b. 0.311 gram d. 0.711 gram

341. According to Mohr’s scale, diamond is given hardness number

of:
a. 0 c. 1
b. 10 d. 100

342. Under very slow deformation and at high temperatures, it is

possible to have some plastic flow in a crystal at a shear
stress lower than the critical shear stress. What is the
phenomenon called:
a. bending c. twining
b. slip d. creep
343. What is the ratio of stress to strain below the proportional
limit called?
a. Poisson ratio c. Hooke’s constant
b. Young’s modulus d. Modulus of rigidity

344. For Brinell hardness test, we use:

a. a ball of 10 mm diameter
b. a diamond cone of 120 degree
c. a diamond cone of 136 degree
d. a ball of 1.5875 mm

345. In general, what are the effects of cold working a metal?

a. Decreased strength and ductility
b. Increased strength, decreased ductility
c. Increased strength and ductility
d. Decreased strength and increased ductility

346. To which of the following can the large discrepancy between

the actual and the theoretical strengths of metals mainly be
attributed?
a. stress direction c. low density
b. dislocations d. heat

347. The allowable tensile stress for ¼ - 20 bolt of a thread length

7/32 in. is 30,000 psi. The allowable shear stress of the
material is 15,000 psi. Where and how will such a bolt be
most likely to fail if placed in tension?
a. At the root diameter due to tension
b. At the root diameter due to shear
c. At the thread due to tension
d. At the thread due to shear

348. Reinforcing steel is usually shaped on the job.

a. On a bar-bending table
b. By heating in a forge
c. By hand bending
d. By cutting and welding

349. Which of the following properties of a metal is insensitive to

the microstructure?
a. modulus of elasticity c. tensile strengths
b. ductility d. hardness
350. Given a shear of τxy = 5000 psi and a shear modulus of G =
1.15 x 107 psi, find the shear strain Єxy:
a. 2.5 x 10-5 c. 4.5 x 10-4
b. 8.25 x10-4 d. 4.35 x 10-4

351. What is of the following statements is FALSE?

a. Low-alloy steels are a minor group and are rarely used.
b. Low-alloy steels are used in the heat-treated condition.
c. In the AISI and the SAE steel specifications, the last
two digits define the carbon content of the steel in
weight percent.
d. Low-ally steels contain small amounts of nickel and
chromium

352. A specimen is subjected to a load, when the load is removed,

the strain disappears. From this information, which of the
following can be deduced about this material?
a. It has a high modulus of elasticity
b. It is elastic
c. It is ductile
d. It is plastic

353. If the principal stress on a body are alpha 1 = 400 psi, alpha
2 = 700 psi and alpha 3 = 600 psi, what is the maximum
stress shear?
a. 650 psi c. 100 psi
b. 200 psi d. 550 psi

354. The ability of the material to absorb energy in its elastic

range.
a. elasticity c. ductility
b. resilience d. strain

355. A steel wire is 4.0 long and 2 mm in diameter. How much is it

elongated by a suspended body of mass 20 kg? Young’s
modulus for steel is 196000 MPa.
a. 1.123 mm c. 1.374 mm
b. 1.385 mm d. 1.273 mm

356. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break:

a. by forming a bulge
b. by shearing along oblique plane
c. into large number of pieces
 d. in a direction along the direction of the load

357. What element is largely hardened by prescription hardening?

a. Nickel c. Nobelium
b. Niobium d. Osmium

358. It is obtained as a by-product in the refining of copper and

lead:
a. none of these c. silver
b. nickel d. gold

359. Determine the outside diameter of a hollow steel tube that

will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a stress of 140 MPa.
Assume the wall thickness to be one-tenth of the outside
diameter:
a. 111.3 mm c. 113.7 mm
b. 109.7 mm d. 114.4 mm

360. Find the limiting peripheral velocity of a rotating steel ring if

the allowable stress is 140 MN/m 2 and the mass density of
steel is 7850 kg/m3:
a. 130.62 m/s c. 142.37 m/s
b. 129.58 m/s d. 133.55 m/s

361. A helical spring is made by wrapping steel wire 20 mm in

diameter around a forming cylinder 150 mm in diameter.
Compute the number of turns required to permit an
elongation of 100 mm without exceeding a shearing stress of
140 MPa. Use G = 82 GPa.
a. 14.61 c. 13.83
b. 12.14 d. 11.58
Ans. 17.9 turns

362. A flexible shaft consists of a 5-mm diameter steel wire

encased in stationary tube that fits closely enough to impose
a frictional torque of 2 N-m/m. If the shearing stress is not to
exceed 140 MPa, what will be the angular rotation of one end
relative to the other end? Use G = 83 GPa:
a. 32.06 deg c. 33.21 deg
b. 34 deg d. 31.21 deg

363. A cylinder of diameter 1.0 cm at 30 deg C is to be slid into a

hole on a steel plate. The hole has a diameter of 0.99970 cm
 at 30 deg C. To what temperature the plate must be heated?
Coefficient of the linear expansion for steel is
-5
1.2 x 10 /deg C.
a. 62 deg C c. 48 deg C
b. 65 deg C d. 55 deg C

364. What is the stress in a thin-walled spherical shell of diameter

D and wall thickness t when subjected to internal pressure P?
a. A = D/pt c. S = pD/4t
b. S = 4D/pt d. S = pD/t

365. What is the useful kW rating of a tin smelting furnace,

smelting 150 kg of tin per hour. Initial temperature of metal
18 deg C; sp. heat 0.055; latent heat of liquifaction is 13.3
kCal/kg; smelting temperature of tin is 235 deg C.
a. 3.5 kW c. 4.4 kW
b. 5.0 kW d. 6.6 kW

366. A cylindrical water tank is 8 m in diameter and 12 m high. If

the tank is to be completely filled, determine the minimum
thickness of the tank plating if the stress is limited to 40 MPa.
a. 11.77 mm c. 13.18 mm
b. 10.25 mm d. 12.6 mm

367. Two hollow rods of A to B and B to C are coupled having the

same length of 200 mm, and fixed at the wall. A 3 kN force is
applied at C. The area of rod AB is 1000 mm 2 and the area of
rod BC is 500 mm2. Find the elongation at point B? E = 210
GPa.
a. 0.0006425 mm c. 0.0002456 mm
b. 0.001805 mm d. 0.0004350 mm

368. If the maximum permissible shearing stress is 10,000 psi,

how many 3/8” bolts arranged in a 5” diameter bolt circle are
required to transmit 100 hp at 315 rpm through a flanged
coupling?
a. 6 c. 8
b. 7 d. 9

369. What do you add to compensate for the remaining high iron
oxide content of the steel?
a. Deodorizers c. Detoxifiers
b. Deorizers d. Deoxidizers
370. What is the decrease in height of 8” round by 16” high
concrete cylinder (E = 2.5 x 106 psi) when the unit
deformation is 0.0012?
a. 392 m c. 355 cm
b. 0.0192 in d. 891 mm

371. The purpose of nickel in steel alloying is to increase

a. Brittleness
b. toughness, hardness, corrosion resistance, and
reduce thermal expansion
c. high-temperature strength
d. strength

372. The effect of manganese in cast iron is to:

a. deoxidize molten cast iron
b. affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage
depending on form
c. increase fluidity and lowers melting temperature
d. reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below
0.5% and increase hardness above 0.5%

373. An elevator weighs 1000 pounds and is supported by a 5/16”

cable 1,500 feet long. When the elevator carries a 1,500
pounds load, the cable elongates 6” more. What is the
modulus of elasticity of the cable?
a. 460 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi)
b. 5.87 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi)
c. 231 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi)
d. 609 X 107 lbf/in2 (psi)

374. The purpose of phosphorus in steel alloying is to

a. Increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and
hardness
b. Reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur
c. Increase strength
d. Increase hardness and corrosion resistance

375. The purpose of vanadium in steel alloying to

a. increase strength
b. fix carbon an inert particles and reduce
martensitic hardness
c. increase brittleness
d. increase machinability
376. To what diameter does a 0.75” diameter steel punch increase
when a force of 40,000 pounds is applied during a punching
operation?
a. 0.89 in c. 0.75 in
b. 0.8 in d. 0.68 in

377. Determine the outside diameter of hollow steel tube that will
carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a stress of 140 MN/m2.
Assume the wall thickness to be one tenth of the outside
diameter.
a. 112 mm c. 412 mm
b. 714 mm d. 214 mm

378. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical spring

composed of 20 turns of 20mm diameter wire on mean radius
of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of 2 kN.
a. 140 Mpa c. 121 Mpa
b. 115 Mpa d. 160 Mpa

379. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300 mm 2 and a

length of 150m is suspended vertically from one end. It
supports a tensile load of 20 kN at the lower end, if the unit
mass of steel is 7850 kg/m3 and a stress of 200 x 10 3 MN/m3,
find the total elongation of the rod.
a. 52.48 mm c. 54.33 mm
b. 60 mm d. 56 mm

380. A flanged bolt coupling consists of six-10mm diameter steel

bolt circle 300 mm in diameter and four-10mm diameter steel
bolt concentrated bolt circle 200mm in diameter. What torque
can be applied without exceeding shearing stress of 60Mpa in
the bolts? Use  = 60 MPA.
a. 8.5 kN-m c. 6.5 kN-m
b. 7.5 kN-m d. 5.5 kN-m

381. What is the tip deflection of the cantilever beam that carries a
distributed load of 8000 pounds/foot over the first 4 feet
(from the support) of its 10-foot length? Neglect the weight of
the steel beam, which is a T-bean with a 5-inch width, 12-
inch total height, and 2-inch web thickness.
a. –3.85m c. +5.14mm
b. +6.96cm d. –0.108in
382. Steels that are used for axels, gears and similar parts
requiring medium to high hardness and high strength are
known as:
a. Low-carbon steels c. High-carbon steels
b. Medium-carbon steels d. Very high-carbon steels

383. Heating of an ore to bring its reaction with furnace

atmosphere.
a. smelting c. leaching
b. calcinations d. roasting

384. What is the mid-span deflection for the steel beam shown in
the figure below if the cross-sectional moment of inertia is
200 in4?

2000 pounds

500 pounds/foot

12' 5'
A B

a. –4.5498 in c. –0.20262 in
b. +6.3584 in d. +14.4228 in

385. The effect of aluminum in cast iron is to:

a. deoxidize molten cast iron
b. affect the machinability, ductility and shrinkage
depending on form
c. reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%
d. increase hardness above 0.5%

386. The effect of silicon in cast iron is to:

a. softens iron and increase ductility below 3.25%,
hardens iron above 3.25%, and increase acid and
corrosion resistance above 13%.
b. increase fluidity and lower melting temperature
c. reduce hardness by combining with sulfur below 0.5%
and increase hardness above 0.5%
d. deoxidize molten cast iron
387. The sum of the strains in the three coordinate directions is
known as:
a. dilation c. solution
b. dilution d. pilation

388. A hollow bronze shaft of 75 mm outer diameter and 50 mm

inner diameter is slipped over a solid steel shaft 50 mm in
diameter and of the same length as the hollow shaft. The two
shafts are then fastened rigidly together at their ends. Find
the maximum shearing stress developed in the steel by end
torque of 3 kN-m. For bronze G = 35 GPa and for steel G =
83 GPa:
a. ts = 59 Pa c. ts = 30 kPa
b. ts = 45.2 MPa d. ts = 25.5 GPa

389. Steels that are used for drills, cutting tools, and knives are
known as:
a. Low-carbon steels c. High-carbon steels
b. Medium-carbon steels d. Very high-carbon steels

390. Determine the diameter of a steel member having a tensile

load of ,7,000 lbs. Assume safety factor of 5 based on an
ultimate strength of 60,000 lb/in2:
a. 0.68 in c. 0.74 in
b. 0.86 in d. 0.84 in

391. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stresses to 60 MPa when

twisted through 4°. Using G = 83 GPa, compute the shaft
diameter.
a. 0.104 m c. 5.214 m
b. 1.174 m d. 9.432 m

392. A high strength steel band saw, 20 mm wide and 0.8 thick
ruins over a pulley 600 mm in diameter. What minimum
diameter pulleys can be used without exceeding flexural
stress of 400 MPa? Use E = 200 GPa.
a. 400 mm c. 325 m
b. 250 cm d. 150 in.

393. What stainless steel grouped with AlSl 400 series contain no
nickel and differ from ferritic stainless steels primarily in
higher carbon contents?
a. Ferritic stainless steels
 b. Austenitic stainless steels
c. Martensitic (heat-treatable)
d. Muriatic stainless steels

394. The purpose of phosphorous in steel alloying is to:

a. Increase dynamic and high-temperature strength and
hardness
b. increase hardness and corrosion resistance
c. Increase strength
d. reduce brittleness, combine with sulfur

395. A steel rod with a cross-sectional area of 150 mm 2 is

stretched between two fixed points. The tensile load at 20°C
is 500 N. What will be the stress at -20°C? Assume E = 200
Gpa:
a. 343.67 Pa c. 325 kPa
b. 126.93 MPa d. 20 GPa

396. What is the overload condition that occurs near large

concentration loads?
a. local buckling c. rotation
b. lateral buckling d. superposition

397. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300 mm2 and a

length of 150 m is suspended vertically from one end. It
supports a tensile load of 20 kN at the lower end. If the unit
mass of steel is 7850 kg/m3 and a stress of 200 x 10 3 MN/m2,
find the total elongation of the rod.
a. 95.47 m c. 54.33 mm
b. 60 mm d. 56 mm

398. A beam of length L has a defection formula of

48Ely = w(2x4 –5Lx3 +3L2x2), where does the maximum
deflection occur?
a. 0.213L c. 0.654L
b. 0.578L d. 0.890L

399. A 90°F, the stress in a steel rod is 2000 psi (C). What is the
stress at 0°F?
a. 15,500 psi (T) c. 68,000 psi (T)
b. 53,210 psi (C) d. 27,000 psi (C)

400. For normal stress, what s the constant of proportionality?

 a. modulus of plasticity
b. modulus of cavity
c. modulus of elasticity
d. modulus of varsity

401. What uniform load will cause a simple bean 10 feet long to
deflect 0.3 inch of it is supported (in addition to the end
supports) by a spring constant of 30,000 pounds per inch.
Assume the beam is steel, 10 inc deep, rectangular and with
centroidal moment of inertia of 100 inches4.
a. 5440 lbf/ft c. 6000 lbf/ft
b. 7000 lbf/ft d. 4550 lbf/ft

402. A 19-foot long beam 10 inches wide and 20 inches high

supports 1500 pounds/foot on two supports 14 feet apart.
The right end of the beam extends 2 feet past the support.
What is the bending stress midway between the supports?
a. 730.21 lbf/in2 (psi) c. 248.5 lbf/in2 (psi)
b. 573.8 lbf/in2 (psi) d. 683.0 lbf/in2 (psi)

403. A 19-foot long beam supports 1,500 pounds/foot on two

support 14 feet apart. The right end of the beam extends 2
feet past the support. If the beam is 10” wide and 20” high.
What are the bending stress and shear stress midway
between supports?
a. 574psi, 20.1psi c. 574psi, 2.01psi
b. 478psi, 20.15psi d. 458psi, 2.36psi

404. A 19-foot long beam 10 inches wide and 20 inches high

supports 1500 pounds/foot on two supports 14 feet apart.
The right end of the beam extends 2 feet past the support.
What is the bending stress midway between the supports?
a. 1 lbf/in2 (psi) c. 10 lbf/in2 (psi)
b. 0 lbf/in² (psi) d. 67 lbf/in2 (psi)

405. What is the maximum stress in the offset link show in figure
7? Neglect stress concentration factors.
a. 15,676.6 lbf.in2 (psi)
b. 20,534.9 lbf.in2 (psi)
c. 12,666.7 lbf.in2 (psi)
d. 50,984.2 lbf/in2 (psi)

406. A steel wire 2 meters long has a mass of 20 grams and is

stretched with a tension of 1000 Newton. What is the velocity
 of propagation of a transverse wave in the wire? Assume the
linear density of steel at 0.01 kg/m.
a. 422 m/sec c. 316 m/sec
b. 329 m/sec d. 300 m/sec

407. What is H1 in aluminum treatment conditions?

a. strain hardened by cold working, followed by partial
annealing
b. strain hardened by working to desired dimensions
c. annealed (casting only)
d. strain hardened and stabilized

408. What is the H2 in aluminum treatment conditions?

a. strain hardened and stabilized
b. strain hardened by cold-working, followed by
partial annealing
c. strain hardened by working to desired dimensions
d. annealed (casting only)

409. What is the H3 in aluminum treatment conditions?

a. strain hardened and stabilized
b. strain hardened by cold-working, followed by partial
annealing
c. strain hardened by working to desired dimensions
d. annealed (casting only)

410. What is the AISI-SAE Steel Designations for chromium-nickel-

manganese (non-hardenable, austenitic, nonmagnetic)
a. 2XX c. 12XX
b. 11XX d. 14XX

411. What is the AISI-SAE steel designation for Manganese 1.75

low-alloy steels?
a. 11XX c. 12XX
b. 14XX d. 13XX

412. A metal is subjected to static loading at elevated temperature

continue to elongate with time. What can you call this
process?
a. Uncontrolled elongation rate
b. Expansion rate
c. Creep rate
d. Extension rate
413. What is the actual hole diameter made by a steel (0.75 inch
diameter) that is subjected to a 40,000 lbs Hydraulic press?
a. 5.32 m c. 0.75068 in
b. 0.96 m d. 3.809 cm

414. A steel bar 50 mm in diameter and 2 m long is surrounded by

a shell cast iron 5 mm thick. Compute the load that will
compress the combined bar of 1 mm in the length of 2m. For
steel, E = 200Gpa and for cast iron, E = 100Gpa.
a. 550 N c. 745 MN
b. 240 kN d. 130 GN

415. A 4”wide, 8” deep wood beam is simply supported and loaded

as shown. What is the maximum shearing stress?

4000 pounds

3' 4' 5'

4333 6067

a. 254.2 psi c. 449.1 psi

b. 284.4 psi d. 778.7 psi

416. Which type of hardening will work to some extent in all

metals?
a. work hardening c. martempering
b. annealing d. austenitizing

417. What is the subject that encompasses the procurement and

production of metals?
a. Mining c. Geology
b. Metallurgy d. Mechanical

418. A steel member 200 inches long connects two 30,000 pound
tensile loads. The maximum allowable stress is 10,000 psi
 and the maximum allowable elongation is 0.02 inch. What is
the required area?
a. 47.1 m2 c. 65 cm2
2
b. 10 in d. 30.6 mm2

419. The refined molted steel batch is known as

a. hate of steel c. heat of steel
b. hot steel d. heater steel

420. Find the limiting peripheral velocity of a rotating steel ring if

the allowable stress is 140 MN/m² and the mass density of
steel is 7850 kg/m³.
a. 955.33 m/min c. 633 m/hr
b. 133.55 m/s d. 255 m/day

421. What is the force required to punch 0.75 inch circular hole
through a piece of 5/8 inch thick steel plate (ultimate shear
strength of 42 ksi)?
a. 43 kip c. 154 kip
b. 61.85 kip d. 732 kip

422. What is the minimum diameter of a solid steel shaft that will
not twist through more than 30 in a 6m length when
subjected to a torque of 14 kN-m? Use G= 83 GN/m2.
a. 3.211 cm c. 0.118 m
b. 2.18 mm d. 7.91 in

423. Two hollow rods of A to B and B to C are coupled having the

same length of 200 mm, and fixed at the wall. A 3 kN force is
applied at B and a 1 kN force at C. The area of rod AB is
1000mm2 and the area of rod BC is 500 mm 2. Find the
elongation at point B? E = 210 Gpa.
a. 0.0006425 mm c. 0.0002546 mm
b. 0.001905 mm d. 01.0004350 mm

424. A 14-foot long simple beam is uniformly load with 200 pounds
per foot over its entire length. It the beam is 3,625 inches
wide and 7.625 inches deep, what is the required section
modulus if the allowable stress is 24,000 lbf/in2?
a. 3.63 m3 c. 7.52 in3
b. 65.12 cm3 d. 44.80 mm3
425. Two flanges are held together by three bolts. The pipe section
is 4’” inside diameter. If the pipe is pressurized tc 900 psig,
what is the force exerted by the bolt?
a. 3487.5 lbf c. 3248.6 lbf
b. 3769.8 lbf d. 3921.4 lbf

426. A 14-foot long simple beam is uniformly load with 200 pounds
per foot over its entire length. If the beam is 3.625 inches
wide and 7.625 inches deep. What is the maximum bending
stress?
a. 6332 lbf/in2 (psi) c. 7974 lbf/in2 (psi)
b. 1674 lbf/in2 (psi) d. 8205 lbf/in2 (psi)

427. Block A in the figure weighs 100 lb. The coefficient of static
between the block and the surface on which it rests is 0.30.
The weight W is 20 lb and the system is in equilibrium. Find
the friction force exerted on block A.

45°'

a. 23 lb c. 27 lb
b. 20 lb d. 19 lb

428. The rigid bar AB is pinned at O and connected with two rods.
The distance from O to A is 3m, and from B to O is 4m. If the
bar AB is horizontal at any temperature, determine the ratio
of the areas of the two rods so that bar AB will be horizontal
at any temperature. Neglect the mass of bar AB. (The rod at
A is aluminum, = 23 m/(m0C), E= 70 GPa, L = 8m, and the
rod B steel,  = 11.7 m/ (m0C), E = 200 GPa, and L = 8 m).
a. 0.662 c. 0.455
b. 0.516 d. 0.423

429. A reinforced concrete column 250 mm in diameter is designed

to carry an axial compressive load of 400 kN. Using allowable
stresses for concrete of 6 MPa and for steel of 120 MPa, find
 the required area of stresses of reinforcing steel. Assume
Ec = 14 GPa and Es = 200 GPa
a. 1322.7 mm3 c. 242.56 m2
3
b. 5233.9 cm d. 8452.8 in2

430. Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring composed of

20 turns of 20 mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm
when the spring is supporting a load of 2 kN. Use G = 83
GPa.
a. 100 cm c. 746 in
b. 85 m d. 98.7 mm

431. The purpose of Molybdenum in steel alloying is to?

a. increase brittleness
b. increase dynamic and high temperature strength
and hardness
c. reduce brittleness combine with sulfur
d. increase corrosion and resistance

432. The greatest stress which material is capable of withstanding

without a deviation from acceptable stress to strain is called
_______.
a. Elastic limit c. Elongation
b. Yield point d. Proportional limit

433. Determine the maximum shearing stress is supporting stress

spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm diameter wire on a
mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of
2 kN.
a. 529 GPa c. 25 kPa
b. 121 MPa d. 370 Pa

434. What is the stress of an 8” round by 16” high concrete

cylinder (E =2.5 x 106 psi) when the unit deformation is
0.0012?
a. 1,500psi c. 2,500psi
b. 2,000psi d. 3,000psi

435. An elevator weighs 1,000 lbs and is supported by a 5/16”

cable. 1,500 ft. long. When the elevator carries a 1,500lb
load, the cable elongates 6” ore. What is the modulus of
elasticity of the cable?
a. 97.8 x 106 psi c. 28.7 x 106 psi
 b. 58.7 x 106 psi d. 47.8 x 106 psi

436. What kind of steel is used drilling?

a. very high carbon c. medium carbon
b. high carbon d. low carbon

437. Determine the diameter of a steel member having a tensile

load of 7,000 lbs. Assume safety factor of 5 based on an
ultimate strength of 60,000 lbm/in2.
a. 0.68 in c. 0.74 in
b. 0.86 in d. 0.84 in

438. A steel beam having a length of 14 ft is uniformly loaded with

200 lbs/foot distributed entirely through its length. The beam
is 7625 inches deep and 3.625 inches wide. Determine the
required section modulus if allowable stress is 24,000 lb/in 2.
a. 65.12 cm3 c. 44.80 mm3
3
b. 7.52 in d. 3.63 m3

439. A flanged bolt coupling consists of six-10 mm diameter steel

bolt on a bolt circle 300 mm in diameter and four-10 mm
diameter steel bolt concentrated bolt circle 200 mm in
diameter. What torque can be applied without exceeding
shearing stress of 60 MPa in the bolts? Use τ = 60 MPa.
a. 8.5 kN-m c. 6.5 kN-m
b. 7.5 kN-m d. 5.5 kN-m

440. A flanged bolt coupling consists of six – 10 mm diameter steel

bolts evenly spaced around a bolt circle 300 mm in diameter
and four – 20 mm diameter aluminum bolts on a concentric
bolt circle 20 mm diameter. What torque can be applied
without exceeding a shearing stress of 60 MN/m 2 in the steel
or 40 MN/m2 in the aluminum?
a. 9.75 N-cm c. 5.94 kN-m
b. 2.8 MN-mn d. 4.5 GN-in

441. What group of steel are air-hardened, medium-alloy cold work

tool steels?
a. Group M c. Group H
b. Group A d. Group D

442. What group of steels are water-hardened tool steels?

a. Group O c. Group T
b. Group S d. Group W
443. What group of steels are hot-work tool steels, capable of
being used in 1100°F - 2000°F (600°C - 1100°C) range?
a. Group A c. Group H
b. Group D d. Group M

444. What group of steels are tungsten high-speed tools steels that
maintain a sharp hard cutting edge at temperature in excess
of 1000F (550C)?
a. group O c. group T
b. group S d. group W

445. What group of steels are molybdenum high-speed steels?

a. Group A c. Group II
b. Group D d. Group M
ELECTRONICS AND COMMUNICATIONS ENGINEERING
PROBLEMS

446. A radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 600 kilohertz.

The corresponding wavelength is closest to which of the
following values? Assume the velocity of wave is 300 m/s and
the velocity of light is 3x108 m/s.
a. 500 meters c. 2x10-3 meters
b. 5x10-4 meters d. 2000 meters

447. All data processing systems involve the following operation

regardless of the kind of data processed or the kind of device
or equipment used. Which one of the following are these?
a. analyzing, logic determination and coding
b. input, processing and output
c. input, storage and processing
d. processing, storage and distribution

448. A mercury-arc rectifier rated 5 A peak value, from a

sinusoidal voltage is used as single phase, half-wave rectifier
to change a 6 V battery having 0.02 internal resistance. The
AC supply is a 20 V rms source. The tube breakdown and
tube drop voltages are 10 V. The value of resistor will be
needed in the circuit and output currents are ________
respectively:
a. 2.46 ohms and 1.401 A
b. 2.44 ohms and 1.041 A
c. 4.626 ohms and 4.01 A
d. 6.426 ohms AND 0.14 A

449. What causes electric current to flow in a vacuum tube?

a. repulsion of protons by the cathode
b. attraction of protons to the anode
c. space charge
d. repulsion and attraction of electron by the charge
object
450. What must be the velocity of an electron in cm/s in order to
emit from the tungsten material? Assuming work function for
tungsten is 4.52 eV:
a. 1.26 x 106 cm/s c. 2.16 x 106 cm/s
b. 1.26 c 105cm/s d. 1.26 x 108 cm/s

451. The maximum rectifier efficiency of a 1-phase, full wave

rectifier is:
a. 40.6% c. 89%
b. 50% d. 81.2%

452. The basic reason why a full wave rectifier has twice the
efficiency of a half wave rectifier is that _________”
a. it makes use of transformer
b. its ripple factor is much less
c. it utilizes both half cycle of the input
d. its output frequency is twice the line frequency

453. Which statement regarding conduction band is false?

a. it is the lowest unfilled energy band
b. it represents the energy of conduction electrons
c. it lies below the valence band
d. it may be either empty or partially filled

454. The leakage current of a P=N diode is caused by:

a. heat energy c. chemical energy
b. 1 barrier potential d. majority carriers

455. The total leakage current for a P-N junction diode is 12 μA at

20oC. Determine the current in the circuit when the applied
voltage is 0.2 V:
a. 30 Ω and 150 Ω c. 300 Ω and 1500 Ω
b. 3 Ω and 15 Ω d. 0.3 Ω and 1.5 Ω

456. A simple half-wave rectifier consists of a diode and load. If

the internal resistance of the diode is 1 Ω and the total load is
5 Ω/ What is the DC load current if the supply voltage is 12 V
AC?
a. 2.7 A c. 2.4 A
b. 2.0 A d. 3.6 A

457. If a half-wave rectifier has a ripple voltage of 20 V. What will

be its value in a full-wave rectifier?
a. 10 V c. 7.5 V
 b. 12.5 V d. 30 V

458. Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on ______:

a. collision c. doping
b. ionization d. recombination

459. A 3-phase, half wave rectifier circuit with each diode rated at
1200 A peak to peak with 700 V as peak inverse voltage.
What is the average values of current and voltage?
a. 496 A and 334 V c. 505 A and 340 V
b. 649 A and 343 V d. 764 A and 460 V

460. An unregulated power supply which consist of a transformer,

a rectifier and a filter has some characteristics which are as
follows EXCEPT one. Which is it?
a. it has a good voltage regulation
b. it is relatively inexpensive
c. the output voltage varies with the load
d. the output voltage depends on the input voltage

461. The effective βT of a Darlington pair using transistors of β

values of 50 and 100 is ________:
a. 5000 c. 150
b. 33.33 d. 2

462. In mercury-arc rectifiers the cathode voltage drop is because

of ________:
a. surface resistance
b. expenditure of energy of energy in liberating
electrons from mercury
c. expenditure of energy in ionization
d. expenditure of energy in overcoming the electrostatic
field

463. A SCR (silicon controlled rectifier) behaves as a ______

switch:
a. bi-directional c. unidirectional
b. mechanical d. three-way

464. A TRIAC can pass a portion of _______ half cycle through the
load:
a. only positive
b. both positive and negative
c. only positive
 d. none of these

465. The device that does not have a gate terminal is _____:
a. TRIAC c. SCR
b. FET d. DIAC

466. The input and output voltages of an amplifier network are 1 V

and 8 V respectively. If the input impedance are equal. What
is the voltage gain (or loss)?
a. –3 dB c. –6 dB
b. 3 dB d. 6 dB

467. Piezoelectricity principle is applied in one of the following:

a. ultrasound equipment c. microphones
b. thermometer d. TV sets

468. TV signal is transmitted to the air thru _________:

a. electron transmitter c. antenna
b. cyclon d. senders

469. Tubes are preferred to transistors in the following applications

EXCEPT one. Which one is this?
a. high power c. high voltage
b. high frequency d. long life

470. The peak inverse voltage of a diode vacuum tube is defined

as the maximum allowable ________:
a. negative voltage across the load resistor
b. negative voltage applied to plate with respect to
cathode
c. positive voltage applied to plate with respect to cathode
d. none of these

471. The maximum rectifier efficiency of a 1-phase, half wave

rectifier is ______:
a. 40.6% c. 89%
b. 50% d. 81.2%

472. A resistor connected across an AC supply of 220 V. The power

drawn is 1000 watts, if the diode was connected in series with
the resistor, what would be the power absorbed by the
resistor?
a. 850 watts c. 250 watts
b. 200 watts d. 500 watts
473. The peak inverse voltage (PIV) of a half wave rectifier circuit
with a shunt capacitor filter is ________:
a. 2 VSM c. VSM
b. ½ VSM d. 3 VSM

474. The ripple factor of a power supply is a measure of _____:

a. its filter efficiency
b. diode rating
c. its voltage regulation
d. purity of power output

475. A rectifier has an output voltage of 80 V with a ripple factor of

5%. What is the ripple output?
a. 4V c. 0.2 V
b. 5.65 V d. 2 V

476. In a full wave rectification, if the input frequency is 50 Hz,

then the output has a frequency of ________:
a. 100 Hz c. 50 Hz
b. 25 Hz d. 200 Hz

477. A full wave peak rectifier (using capacitor input filter) has a
percentage of 2 and load resistance of 10 KΩ. Minimum filter
capacitance required is _______ μF:
a. 12 c. 50
b. 24 d. 100

478. Without DC source, a clipper acts like a _______:

a. rectifier c. clamper
b. demodulator d. chopper

479. The primary function of a clamper circuit is to ______:

a. suppress variations in signal voltage
b. lower negative half cycle of the signal
c. raise positive half-cycle of the signal
d. introduce a DC level into an AC signal

480. When used in a power supply, the function of zener diode is

to maintain a constant:
a. output voltage
b. input voltage
c. output current irrespective of the load resistance
d. supply current
481. The phase difference between the input and output voltage in
a common base arrangements is ________:
a. 90° c. 180°
b. 0° d. 270°

482. A negative resistance microwave diode having an thin slice of

semiconductor material sandwiched between two metal
conductors is called:
a. Schottky c. PIN
b. Gunn d. varactor

483. The phase difference between the input and output voltages
of a transistor connected in common emitter:
a. 0° c. 180°
b. 270° d. 90°

484. If a transistor is operated in such a way that the output

current flows for 160o of the input signal, then it is _______
operation:
a. class A c. class C
b. class B d. class AB

485. When the transistor is fully switched ON, it is said to

be_______:
a. shorted c. saturated
b. open d. shut off

486. It is a very powerful small component of a computer. Which

one?
a. diode c. chip
b. triode d. internet

487. The gate voltage in a FET at which the drain current I

becomes zero is called ________ voltage:
a. active c. cut off
b. saturation d. pinch off

488. The main factor which differentiates a DE MOSFET from E-

only MOSFET is the absence of ________:
a. insulated gate c. electrons
b. channel d. P-N junctions
489. A Silicon Control Switch (SCS) has _________:
a. four layers and three terminals
b. two anodes and two gates
c. three layers and four terminals
d. one anode, one cathode and two gates

490. A LASCR is just like a conventional SCR, except that it

______:
a. cannot carry large current
b. has no gate terminal
c. can also be light-triggered
d. cannot be pulse-triggered

491. Voltage Dependent Resistor (VDR) are usually made from

________:
a. nichrome c. silicon carbide
b. graphite d. carbon

492. In a crystal, an atom vibrates at a frequency determined by

________:
a. the heat content of the crystal
b. the stiffness of the bond it makes with neighbors
c. the temperature of the crystal
d. the valence of the crystal

493. An electronic oscillator is __________:

a. just like an alternator
b. an amplifier with feedback
c. nothing but an amplifier
d. a converter of AC to DC energy

494. An oscillator produces __________ oscillation, and as well as

employs _______ feedback:
a. undamped, positive
b. modulated, both positive and negative
c. damped, negative
d. unmodulated, negative

495. Which of the following Logic circuits is the fastest?

a. Resistor-transistor logic (RTL)
b. Transistor-transistor logic (TTL)
c. Variable-threshold-logic (VTL)
d. Diode-transistor-logic (DTL)
496. It is the maximum frequency in which the human ear can
hear.
a. 30,000 Hz c. 10,000 Hz
b. 40,000 Hz d. 20,000 Hz

497. Silicon doped with gallium acts as:

a. intrinsic semi-conductor
b. extrinsic semi-conductor
c. p-type semi-conductor
d. n-type semi-conductor

498. The termination of an unloaded telephone line is made equal

to the characteristic impedance of the line in order to:
a. increase the velocity of propagation of signals
b. equalize the velocity of propagation of signals of all
frequencies
c. reduce the frequency discrimination in the transmission
d. reduce standing waves in the line

499. Overhead telephone wires are made of:

a. copper wires c. ACSR conductors
b. steel wires d. aluminum wires

500. How is the sensitivity of a feedback system defined?

a. The ratio of a percentage change in the loop transfer
function to the percentage change in the forward
transfer function
b. The ratio of the change in forward transfer to the ratio
of the loop transfer change
c. The ratio of the input signal to the output signal
d. The ratio of the output signal to the input signal

501. _____________ is a microscopic piece of silicon that contains

thousands of micro-miniature electronic circuit components,
mainly, transistor:
a. microchip c. capacitor
b. resistor d. IC

502. ________ is a tiny electrically operated switch that can

alternate between on and off many million of times per
second:
a. transistors c. capacitors
b. resistors d. microchip
 503. Communication channel that can communicate in 2 directions
but 1 direction at a time.
a. transmission speed c. narrow band
b. nibbles d . duplex communication

COMPUTER RELATED PROBLEMS

504. If a project that has diminishing returns with scale is modeled

using a linear program, which basic assumption of the linear
programming will be violated?
a. certainty c. additivity
b. divisibility d. proportionality

505. If all variables in a linear programming problem are restricted

to integers, which, if any, basic assumption of linear
programming is violated?
a. certainty c. additivity
b. divisibility d. proportionality

506. A state of the art technology designed to private supervisory,

control and data acquisition capability for industrial,
commercial and utility power factor substation and systems.
a. Mini SCADA c. COBOL
b. SCADA d. Monitor

507. Most of the inexpensive personal computers do not have any

disk or diskette drive. What is the name of such computers?
a. home computers
b. dedicated computers
c. diskless computers
d. general-purpose computers

508. Pick out the item that does not belong to computer:
a. Mouse c. MICR
b. OCR d. plotter

509. Processors of all computers, whether micro, mini or

mainframe must have:
a. primary storage c. control unit
b. ALU d. all of these

510. Which of the ff. terms is related to a monitor?

a. screen c. RGB monitor
 b. monochrome monitor d. video display

511. The basic components of a modern digital computer:

a. central processor c. output device
b. input device d. all of these

512. Which kind of storage device can be carried around?

a. hard disk c. diskette
b. system cabinet d. main memory

513. Which of the following devices allows user to add components

and capabilities to a computer system?
a. keyboards c. system boards
b. diskettes d. expansion slots

514. Where does a computer add, compare and shuffle its data?
a. memory chip c. floppy disk
b. CPU chip d. hard disk

515. The pieces of equipment that are attached to the CPU of

computer and which it can access are known as:
a. output devices c. peripherals
b. control units d. ALU

516. Which of the ff. is a part of the Central Processing Unit:

a. keyboard c. tape
b. printer d. arithmetic logic unit

517. A collection of eight bits is known as:

a. byte c. record
b. word d. file

518. Data management systems may be implemented as:

a. system software c. computer programs
b. application software d. all of these

519. Which unit of hardware an operator uses to monitor computer

processing?
a. card reader c. line printer
b. CPU d. console

520. Which one of the following can read data and convert them to
a form that a computer can use?
a. logic c. control
 b. storage d. input devices

521. Which of the following is used interchangeably with diskette?

a. diskette cartridge c. floppy disk
b. disk pack d. packette disk

522. List of detailed instructions that directs a computer is called

which one of the following:
a. logic c. memory
b. storage d. program

523. ROM is made of:

a. magnetic cores c. photo-electric cells
b. micro processors d. floppy disks

524. Which peripheral device is used to a word processing system?

a. floppy disk c. CRT
b. magnetic card reader d. all of these

525. Binary 101010 is equivalent to decimal number:

a. 26 c. 45
b. 42 d. 60

526. How many binary different numbers can be stored in a

register consisting of six switches?
a. 16 c. 64
b. 32 d. 128

527. A binary system has radix of:

a. 0 c. 2
b. 1 d. none of these

528. Give the number of bites present in a 48 K computer

memory:
a. 17256 c. 48512
b. 48000 d. 48152

529. Which one of the ff. is generally used where lowest power
consumption is essential?
a. CMOS c. PMOS
b. NMOS d. any of these

530. Syntax is connected with:

a. the format c. compositional structure
 b. well formedness d. all of these

531. Which of the following is applicative language?

a. LAMBDA c. COBOL
b. PASCAL d. FORTRAN

532. Which of the following logic gate is similar to the function of

two parallel switches?
a. AND c. OR
b. NAND d. NOR

533. In PASCAL, free identifier occurrences are bound in the

environment of the abstract. This is called:
a. static binding c. secondary binding
b. auxiliary binding d. dynamic binding

534. In PASCAL actual parameters are always evaluated

_______________ the procedure is invoked:
a. after c. with
b. before d. simultaneously with

535. Which of the following is not a HIGH LEVEL computer

programming language?
a. FORTRAN c. COBOL
b. MODEM d. ALGOL

536. Which of the following is a low level language?

a. FORTRAN language c. basic language
b. machine language d. none of these

537. Which of the following is a high level language?

a. BASIC c. PASCAL
b. COBOL d. all of these

538. The process of determining the phrase structure of text is

known as:
a. branching c. pasing
b. syntacting d. any of these

539. Syntactic classes:

a. commands c. sequence
b. definitions d. all of these
540. In PASCAL the Boolean values:
a. are not expressible by literals
b. are defined by the symbols true and false
c. both a and b
d. none of these

541. The decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number E5 is:

a. 279 c. 229
b. 325 d. 295

542. For the following decimal numbers, 9’s complement are given.
Point out the incorrect relation:
a. 5436 c. 45.15
b. 1932 d. 18.293

543. The hexadecimal number B6C7 is equal to the decimal

number:
a. 49761 c. 47691
b. 46791 d. 49671

544. How many different BCD numbers can be stored in a register

containing 12 switches using an 8,4,2,1 code?
a. 99 c. 999
b. 100 d. 1000

545. Decimal number 5436 when converted to 9’s complement will

become:
a. 4356 c. 4563
b. 4653 d. 4655

546. Which of the following binary number is equal to octal number

66.3?
a. 101110.100 c. 100111.111
b. 111111.111 d. 110110.011

547. Which of the following octal number is equal to the decimal

number 545.375?
a. 5000 c. 1041.3
b. 1640 d. 1170.7

548. 10 in the BCD code is represented as:

a. 10100 c. 1100
b. 010111 d. none of these
549. In each address represents one byte of the storage space how
many address lines are required to access RAM chips
arranged in a 4 x 6 array, where each chip is 8K x a bits?
a. 13 c. 16
b. 15 d. 17

550. In digital computer, the number 127 is stored as:

a. 1111111 c. 11000111
b. 10001 d. 00010010011

551. The decimal number 5436 when converted to one’s

complement will become:
a. 4356 c. 4563
b. 4653 d. 4555

552. What will be the simplified complements of the function CD +

BD?
a. B + CD c. D + BC
b. CD + BD d. BCD

553. In case of OR gate, no matter what the number of inputs, a?

a. 1 at any input causes the output to be at logic 1
b. 1 at any input causes the output to be at logic 0
c. 0 at any input causes the output to be at logic 0
d. 0 at any input causes the output to be at logic 1

554. The simplified form of the Boolean expression (A+B)(B+C) is

a. A+B+C c. BC+A
b. AB+C d. AC+B

555. (A + B + AB) is the same as that of?

a. 0 c. A
b. 1 d. none of these

556. In Fortran language which of the ff. statement is correct?

a. IF (X, L, Y) Z = W c. IF A, G, T, B, X = 2
b. IF (A + B) a = SQRT (B) d. none of these

557. In BASIC, which of the following GOTO statement is NOT

correctly written?
a. 10 goto 50 c. 70 goto 35
b. 110 goto N d. none of these
558. Which of the following BASIC string has not been correctly
written?
a. TWENTY SEVEN c. SYMBOL IS ‘X’
b. 2+7=9 d. 84.56

559. Select incorrect GOTO statement:

a. 75 GOTO K + 1 c. 55 GOTO 400
b. 100 GOTO 12 d. none of these

560. IN Fortran, which of the following is acceptable as real

variable?
a. ANSWER c. ENEMY
b. X21 d. all of these

561. In Fortran, select the GOTO statement that is valid:

a. GOTO A c. GOTO 123456
b. GOTO 72 d. none of these

562. In Fortran, the expression ez where z=x+iy is represented

by:
a. EXP (X, Y) c. CEXP (X, Y)
b. Complex Z EXP (Z) d. Complex Z CEXP (Z)

563. Which of the following is not correctly written in Pascal?

a. 123, 765 c. 11, 22, 33
b. 137 d. all of these

564. Which of the following is not a reversed word in PASCAL?

a. WHILE c. REPEAT
b. PLAY d. FILE

565. Which of the following operations is probably not an

instruction in a low level programming language (e.g.
assembly language):
a. AND c. STOP
b. LDA d. FETCH

566. The term that refers to the physical equipment or components

of an electronic data processing system is:
a. software c. firmware
b. CPU d. hardware
567. Which of the following is the corresponding format statement
for the output? )Denotes a blank space)
a. 10 FORMAT (5X, ‘SUM = ‘, 1X, F5)
b. 10 FORMAT (5X, ‘SUM = ‘,F6, 1)
c. 10 FORMAT (5X, ‘SUM = ‘, 1X, F5.0)
d. 10 FORMAT (5X. ‘SUM = ‘, s2230)

568. What is the base 19-eqiuvalent of the binary number

0101110?
a. 18 c. 46
b. 47 d. 30

569. What is the one’s complement of 10101?

a. 10001 c. 00010
b. 01010 d. 10010

570. In a computer work, an anti-virus is:

a. a software full of virus in order to minimize a software
against a specific defect
b. a specific virus that protects a program from other
unprecedented attacks by other viruses
c. a software that scans a computer system to
detect viruses or other harmful software
d. a vaccine injected by the operator into the hard disk of
a computer to remove interferences

571. Decimal number 5436 when converted to 1’s complement will

become:
a. 4555 c. 4563
b. 4356 d. 4653

572. Which of the following best defines a micro-operation?

a. An elementary operations performed on information
store in one or more registers during one clock pulse.
b. The complex operations that are performed by the CPU
during one microsecond.
c. An elementary operation performed on
information stored in one or more registers
during one cycle.
d. An operation that takes the smallest amount of time to
operate.
573. What would be the value printed as a result of the ff,
instructions?
10 DEF FNA (X) = X**2 + 1 /X
20 PRINT FNA (2)
30 END
a. 3.2 c. 6.5
b. 7.2 d. 4.5

574. Which is the correct Dimension statement for 9x9 matrix, A,

and a vector, B with 9 elements?
a. DIMENSION A (9.9), B (9)
b. DIMENSION. A (9.9), B (9)
c. DIMENSION, A (9,9), B (9)
d. DIMENSION A (9,9), B (9)

575. A megabyte is a computer term which means

a. a thousand kilobytes
b. a million kilobytes
c. a group of characters that can fill a computer storage
d. a hundred thousand bytes

576. Given a linear programming maximization problem, as the

simplex algorithm progresses from one solution to the next,
what will happen to the value of the objective function?
a. It will increase and then decrease.
b. It will decrease or stay the same.
c. It will increase or stay the same.
d. It will decrease and then increase.

577. How does a CPU know whether it is executing instructions

from a commercial database management or from a program
executing from an on-online programmer?
a. The micro-operations used are different fro the two
programs
b. One of the programs uses compiled code while the other
uses interpreted code
c. The CPU doesn’t know where instructions originate
d. One of the programs uses memory references while the
other uses register references

578. What value is assigned to A in the following expression?

A = 3.4(18*(4**2 + 17.2*8/6))-2/4
a. 900.1 c. 178.01
 b. 703.7 d. 92.5

579. What is the base 10 equivalent of the binary number

0101110?
a. 18 c. 46
b. 47 d. 30

580. What is the one’s complement of (10101)?

a. 10001 c. 00010
b. 01010 d. 10010

581. All data processing system involve the following operations

regardless of the kind of data processed or the kind of device
or equipment used. Which one of the following are these?
a. Analyzing, logic determination and coding
b. Input, processing, and output
c. Input, storage, and processing
d. Processing, storage, and distribution

582. Given A = true, B = true, and C = false, what is the value of

the following logical expression?
((A.AND.B).AND.(C.OR.A))
a. Either true or false c. Neither true nor false
b. False d. True

583. Which of the following is not reserved word in PASCAL?

a. while c. file
b. repeat d. play

584. Which of the following terms is related to a monitor?

a. video display c. monochrome monitor
b. screen d. RGB monitor

585. In the program below, what is the value assigned to N?

10 N=0
15 GO TO 50
20 FOR X = - 1 TO 7
25 N=6
30 FOR Y = 3 TO 6
40 NEXT Y
45 NEXT X
50 PRINT N
55 END
 a. 98 c. –3678
b. –356 d. 0

586. What is binary is a BASE 16?

a. 1011 c. 1010
b. 1000 d. 1110

587. Decimal number 5436 when converted to 1’s complement will

become:
a. 4555 c. 4563
b. 4356 d. 4653

588. The hexadecimal number B6C7 is equal to the decimal

number:
a. 46791 c. 49761
b. 47691 d. 49671

589. Find the value of J in the following program:

I=0
I=0
15 J = J **2 + I **
IF (1.EQ.3) GO TO 16
I=I+I
GO TO 15
16 continue

a. 34 c. 40
b. 9 d. 15

590. A __________ is one in which all microcomputers and other

communication devices are connected to a central hub, such a
file server or host computer:
a. Bus Network c. Ring Network
b. Star Network d. Hybrid Network

591. A flowchart:
a. Is a sequence of instructions to perform operations
b. Is alphabetic code to instruct the computer what to do
c. Defines basic operations and decision required
d. Is a series of human language statements and common
math symbols
592. The binary (100101)2 in octal is:
a. 45 c. 54
b. 24 d. 26

593. 128, the equivalent decimal number is ______:

a. 20 c. 10
b. 12 d. 100

594. A parity bit is also called ____ which is used to check

accuracy.
a. check bit c. silicon type
b. RAM capacity d. driver

595. A two-way parallel paths which connects the processor and

memory containing addresses.
a. cache memory c. address bus
b. control bus d. buffer

596. Transmission protocol serial asynchronous 8 bits ASCII, 1

parity bit, 9600 bps. How long will it take for a kilobyte file to
be transmitted through the link?
a. 0.96 sec c. 1.07 sec
b. 0.85 sec d. 1.17 sec

597. A non-impact printer using little dots to produce high quality

image.
a. ink-jet printer c. card printer
b. dot-matrix printer d. computer printer

598. A software that allows you fast and flexible access to the
large information and documents.
a. internet c. hypertext
b. e-mail d. hyperlink

599. _______ is a device converting computer digital signals to

analog signals for transmission over copper telephone wires
ad back to digital signals.
a. modem c. telegram
b. fax machine d. telephone

600. ________ is a secondary storage medium, generally non-

removable disk made out of metal and covered with a
magnetic recording surface. It holds data in the form
 magnetized spots and are usually built into the computer
system cabinet.
a. Hard disk c. Compact disk
b. Floppy disk d. CD ROM

601. What in binary is A base 16?

a. 1011 c. 1010
b. 1000 d. 1110

602. For the base 10 number of 30, the equivalent binary number
is _________:
a. 0111 c. 1110
b. 11110 d. 1111

603. ___________ is a piece of silicon that contains thousands of

micro-miniature electronic circuit components:
a. Chip c. Resistor
b. PCB d. Capacitor

604. __________ is a process of using microcomputer, mouse

scanner, laser printer that combines highly digital text and
images to produce a high quality output.
a. CAM c. CAD
b. Desktop Publishing d. CAE

605. Taligent systems is an operating system that will work on

multiple platforms, meaning on different processor types. This
statement is ___________.
a. TRUE for UNIX only c. TRUE if successful
b. FALSE d. TRUE for MS DOS only

606. In a logic ckt with the input A & B in an OR gate. If A = 0 and

B = 1. What is F{f = A + B}
a. 0 c. 1
b. 01 d. 0

607. In digital codes, how do you identify codes running from 0 to

1 or run from 0 – 7?
a. Base 10 c. Binary
b. Octal d. Gray

608. What is the equivalent of the digital octal code 2 to gray

code?
 a. 1000 c. 0011
b. 1100 d. 1001

609. Transmission protocol serial asynchronous, 8 bits ASCll, 1

stop, 1 parity bit, 9600 bps. How long will it take to a 1
kilobyte file to be transmitted through the link?
a. 1.17 sec c. 0.96 sec
b. 1.07 sec d. 0.85 sec

610. ___________ is a device converting a computer digital

signals to analog signals for transmission over copper
telephone wires and back to the digital signals:
a. modem c. telegram
b. fax machine d. telephone

611. Determine the decimal value of 23.4 base 8:

a. 27.5 c. 17.5
b. 17.0 d. 19.5

612. What is the binary equivalent with sign bit of –5 in 2’s

complement?
a. 1.0011 c. 1.0000
b. 1.1011 d. 1.0001

613. The binary representation 10101 corresponds to which base

10 number
a. 8 c. 21
b. 16 d. 10,101

614. Convert the Octal (3458) to the equivalent binary coded

decimal (BCD16) select the nearest answer.
a. 001000101001 c. 11100101
b. 001101000101 d. 1011011001

615. In digital codes, how do you identify codes running from 1 to

10 or run from 0 - 9?
a. binary c. gray
b. standard base 10 d. octal

616. On personal computer, the data storage device with the

largest capacity is most likely to be
a. hard disk c. Random Access Memory
b. 3 ½ “ DD Disk d. 3 ½ “ HD Diskette
617. Resides in the main memory while the computer is on and
directs other application.
a. Files c. Supervisor
b. Storage d. Options

618. Convert (17)8 to base 2.

a. 1011 c. 1101
b. 1111 d. 1001

619. Convert (30)10 to base2.

a. 11011 c. 11010
b. 11001 d. 11110

620. Binary equivalent of A to base –16.

a. 1110 c. 1010
b. 1000 d. 1011

621. Convert 347 base 8 to (16) BCD.

a. 10010010001 c. 10010010011
b. 1000110001 d. 110100110110

622. Which of the following is NOT an octal number?

a. 19 c. 77
b. 105 d. 15

623. Convert 345 Base 8 to (16) BCD.

a. 100100101001 c. 001000101001
b. 001010010100 d. 110100110100
ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

624. A comfortable room temperature is 72°F. the temperature

expressed in degrees centigrade is:
a. 27 degrees c. 44 degrees
b. 22 degrees d. 30 degrees

625. For circuits of 2.0mm² or 3.5mm² conductors, the minimum

insulator resistance shall be
a. 50,000Ω c. 150,000Ω
b. 100,000Ω d. 500,000Ω

626. The unit lighting for a dwelling unit expressed in watts per
square meter shall be
a. 8 watts c. 16 watts
b. 24 watts d. 40 watts

627. For the kitchen small appliance load in dwelling occupancies,

the code requires not less than:
a. two 20A circuits c. one 15A circuit
b. two 15A circuits d. one 20A circuit

628. The service or feeder capacity necessary to provide for six 5-

kW household electronic clothes dryer is
a. 18 kW c. 24kW
b. 27,500 kW d. 19.5kW

629. Carbon materials used in the field of electrical engineering are

manufactured mostly from:
a. Dolomite c. manganese
b. Manganetite d. graphite
630. When using optional calculation method for dwelling unit
service, all other loads above the initial 10 kW is to be
assessed at:
a. 30% c. 40%
b. 50% d. 60%

631. Conductors must have a clearance from windows, porches,

and fire escapes of not less than:
a. 600 mm c. 1000 mm
b. 800 mm d. 900 mm

632. For service drop conductors not exceeding 600 volts, its
minimum clearance over commercial areas parking lots
subject to truck traffic is:
a. 3100 mm c. 3700 mm
b. 4600 mm d. 5500 mm

633. Service conductors passing over roofs must have a clearance

over the roof, which they pass, of:
a. 1000 mm c. 1500 mm
b. 2000 mm d. 2500 mm

634. When the voltage between service conductors does not

exceed 300 volts, and the roof has a slope of not less than
100 mm, the clearance can be reduced to:
a. 500 mm c. 800 mm
b. 600 mm d. 1000 mm

635. Services using copper conductors shall have sufficient

capacity and shall not be smaller than
a. 5.5 sq. mm c. 8.0 mm
b. 14 sq. mm d. 22 sq. mm

636. The minimum diameter of a steel ground electrode is

a. 10 mm c. 12 mm
b. 14 mm d. 16 mm

637. Code requires that the minimum area are exposed surface
offered by a place electrode shall be:
a. 1/8 square meter c. 1/4 square meter
b. 3/8 square meter d. 1/2 square meter
638. A single grounding electrode is permitted when the resistance
to ground does not exceed:
a. 5 ohms c. 10 ohms
b. 15 ohms d. 25 ohms

639. The code specifies that one equipment is “in sight from”
another equipment if it is visible and at a distance of:
a. not more than 15 meters
b. not more than 20 meters
c. not less than 15 meters
d. not less than 20 meters

640. The minimum size of a copper equipment grounding

conductor require for equipment connected to a 40 ampere
circuit.
a. 5.5 mm² c. 8.0 mm²
b. 14 mm² d. 22 mm²

641. The length of free conductors at outlet and switch point for
splices and connection of fixture and devices must be at least:
a. 80 mm c. 100 mm
b. 120 mm d. 150 mm

642. In a concealed knob and tube wiring, the clearance to be

maintained between conductors is:
a. 45 mm c. 50 mm
b. 76 mm d. 66 mm

643. Supports of AC cable should have intervals not exceeding:

a. 1000 mm c. 1300 mm
b. 1500 mm d. 1400 mm

644. In rigid metal conduit wiring, the minimum electrical trade

size is:
a. 15 mm c. 20 mm
b. 25 mm d. 32 mm

645. In rigid metal conduit wiring, conduit shall be supported at

least every:
a. 2000 mm c. 2500 mm
b. 3000 mm d. 3500 mm

646. Branch circuit conductors supplying a single motor shall have

an ampacity in terms of full load current of not less than
 a. 100% c. 115%
b. 125% d. 130%

647. This device includes any switch used or device used to start
and stop the motor.
a. Rheostat c. relay
b. circuit breaker d. controller

648. A material used for insulation

a. rubber c. asbestos
b. all of these d. mica

649. Hazardous location because of the presence of combustible

dust.
a. Class 1 c. Class 2
b. Class 3 d. Class 4

650. Location under Class III that are hazardous because of the
presence of
a. pulverized sugar c. packing machinery
b. magnesium d. textile mills

651. Gas manufacturing plant where flammable gases may escape

is considered as:
a. Class 1, Division 1 area
b. Class 2, Division 1 area
c. Class 1, Division 2 area
d. Class 2, Division 2 area

652. A storage battery supplying emergency lighting and power

shall maintain not less than 87.5 percent of full voltage at
total load for a period of at least:
a. 2.5 hours c. 2 hours
b. 1.5 hours d. 1 hour

653. The disconnecting means for motor circuits rated 600 volts or
less shall have an ampere rating in terms of full load current
of:
a. 110% c. 115%
b. 125% d. 130%

654. The voltage of a galvanic cell does not depend on which of the
following parameters?
a. concentration of solution c. temperature
 b. pressure d. volume

655. Which of the following is not a good application of network

analysis?
a. electrical engineering c. information technology
b. cybernetics d. inventory theory

656. A material whose electrons cannot be excited across the band

gap is considered to be:
a. metal c. an insulator
b. a semiconductor d. a superconductor

657. A basic electrical system is composed of two subsystem

elements A and B in series, with reliabilities over an
operational period of 0.95 and 0.80 respectively. What is the
reliability of the basic system?
a. 0.5 c. 0.7
b. 0.6 d. none of the above

658. It refers to the installed capacity of an alternating current

(A.C.) electric plant or supply equipment, or the connected
load of industrials plants, commercial establishments,
institutional buildings expressed in kilovolt-amperes.
a. Substation c. KW
b. KVA d. KVAR

659. ________ is any building room or separate place which

houses or encloses electric supply equipment connected to
transmission or distribution lines and the interior of which is
accessible, as a rule, only to properly qualified persons.
a. Power plant c. Substation
b. Electrical room d. Power house

660. A ferromagnetic material must:

a. be permanent magnet
b. contain iron
c. have ionic bonding
d. have a large saturation magnetization

661. A three phase induction motor has the following data on its
nameplate: 10 Hp, 440 volts, 14.1 Amperes, 60 cps, 1750
rpm. If the motor is operated from a 370-volts, three phase,
50-cps source, the rotor speed when delivering its plate rated
torque will be approximately:
 a. 1750 rpm c. 1460 rpm
b. 1500 rpm d. 1420 rpm

662. A 5 Hp, 220 volts dc shunt motor draws 21.0 A at rated load
and speed. Manipulating the field control rheostat so as to
increase the shunt field circuit resistance by approximately
10% will:
a. decrease the line voltage
b. increase the line voltage
c. increase the speed
d. decrease the speed

663. An alternator operating at 1.0 power factor, is in parallel with

a large system. Increasing the field current will:
a. decrease the line voltage
b. increase the line voltage
c. increase the speed
d. decrease the line current

664. A 10 kVA, 2400/4160 – 120/240 volt distribution transformer

when given a short-circuit test had 100 volts applied with
rated current flowing in the short-circuited winding. The per
unit impedance of the transformer is approximately:
a. 0.06 c. 0.042
b. 0.02 d. 0.055

665. In starting a 500 Hp, 2300 V, 3 synchronous motor, the field

winding is initially short-circuited so as to:
a. produce much larger starting torque
b. increase acceleration time
c. lower voltage produced between layers of the
field winding
d. shorten acceleration time

666. It is a transformer that accomplishes voltage transformation

with a single winding only.
a. Scott connected transformer
b. distribution transformer
c. autotransformer
d. three-winding transformer
667. What is the coefficient of coupling of two coils whose mutual
inductance is 1 Henry and whose self-inductance are 1.2 and
2 henrys?
a. 0.646 c. 1.549
b. 0.417 d. 2.041

668. When an electric current is flowing in a conductor, heat is

developed at a rate proportional to the square of its intensity
of current. The proportionality factor is the resistance of the
conductor. This relation is known as:
a. Joule’s law c. Coulomb’s law
b. Faraday’s law d. Ohm’s law

669. A single-phase inductive load takes 10 kVA at 0.6 power

factor lagging. The amount of capacitance required to
improve the power factor to 1.0 is:
a. 10 kilovars c. 20 kilovars
b. 40 kilovars d. 22.5 kilovars

670. It is an assemblage of equipment for the purpose of switching

and/or changing or regulating the voltage of electricity.
a. Switchgear c. generating station
b. Substation d. none of the above

671. A power plant that uses bunker oil as fuel.

a. thermal power plant
b. gas turbine
c. coal thermal power plant
d. oil thermal power plant

672. It is used for any type of voltage application. Usually, its

voltage rating is high.
a. potential transformer
b. core type transformer
c. distribution transformer
d. shell type transformer

673. The ratio of the maximum load to the rated plant capacity is
called
a. load factor c. maximum load factor
b. utilization factor d. capacity factor

674. The continuous power available from a hydro-electric plat

under the most adverse hydraulic conditions is called
 a. base power c. primary power
b. utilization factor d. secondary power

675. Substances which are characterized by strong attraction and

repulsion by the magnetized bodies:
a. diamagnetic substance c. paramagnetic substance
b. ferromagnetic substance d. none of these

676. The resistance formed between two electrodes in a gas which

is exposed to constant ionization:
a. Brinell resistance c. Bohr resistance
b. Bunsen resistance d. Bronson resistance

677. An instrument for comparing the luminous intensities of two

point sources:
a. Quart’s fiber electroscope
b. footcandle meter
c. photometer
d. none of the above

678. The first step in removing a generator from parallel

operations:
a. increase the cycle of the generator
b. turn off all electrical equipment
c. trip the generator off the bus bar
d. remove the load from the off going generator

679. Complete establishment for the generation, transmission

and/or distribution of electric energy:
a. power plant
b. power system
c. electric generating plant
d. electrical installation

680. High frequency inductor in which the rapid rotation of a

slotted rotor induces current in the stator coils:
a. Synchronous alternator
b. Alexanderson alternator
c. Induction motor
d. None of these
681. High pressure sodium lamps latest development in the high
intensity discharge lamps which are now marketed under the
trade name:
a. Unalox c. Lucalox
b. All of these d. Ceramalux

682. In a three-phase electrical system, three ground detecting

lamps are provided. If one lamp goes dark and the others
remain bright when the test button is pushed:
a. this is a normal condition
b. there is a ground on the line with the dark lamp
c. there are grounds in the line with the bright lamps
d. the dark lamps must be replaced

683. One Professional Electrical Engineer and one Associate

Electrical Engineer re required for generating plants of any
capacity employing voltages up to:
a. above 4800 volts c. 4800 volts
b. above 6600 volts d. above 6900 volts

684. A 7.5 hp, 220 volt, dc shunt motor draws 31.5 A at rated load
and speed, manipulating the field control rheostat so as to
increase the shunt field circuit resistance by approximately
10% will:
a. increase line voltage c. increase speed
b. decrease speed d. decrease line voltage

685. A DC generator supplying direct current to maintain an AC

generator field is known as:
a. exciter c. rotor
b. stator d. armature

686. A megohmmeter is connected to the ends of motor winding,

what will a low ohm reading indicate?
a. Continuity c. dirty coil
b. loose coil d. open coil

687. Defined as the ease with which the flux passes through the
magnetic material. It is the reciprocal of reluctance:
a. Permeance c. ampere-turns
b. relative permeability d. absolute permeability

688. Obligations are extinguished by:

 a. Confusion c. compensation
b. all of these d. novation

689. The reciprocal of resistance:

a. Capacitance c. inductance
b. Conductance d. susceptance

690. A given series motor has 2 poles with 95 turns per pole, and
with the two coils connected in series. The total resistance of
the field coils is 3.02 ohms. With a 60-cycle current of (f 3.55
A, the voltage drop across the field coils is 62 V. Assuming
sinusoidal flux and current, find the field reactance:
a. 15.21 Ω c. 17.21 Ω
b. 20.21 Ω d. 19.21 Ω

691. Code requires that the minimum area exposed surface offered
by a plate electrode shall be:
a. ½ m2 c. 1/8 m2
b. ¼ m2 d. 3/8 m2

692. Electrical installation not covered by the Philippine Electrical

Code:
a. tennis court wiring c. substantial wiring
b. residential wiring d. motor vehicles

693. Select the material that has the highest electrical

conductivity:
a. steel c. silver
b. aluminum d. lead

694. How is high purity copper is obtained?

a. Rolling c. electric refining
b. Casting d. induction heating

695. A three phase motor driven pump at 1,800 rpm is discharging

500 gpm of water at a head of 25 meters, the efficiency is
75%. Determine the hp of the motor:
a. 14 c. 17
b. 16 d. 15

696. Is the annoying brightness of light sources in a person’s

normal field of vision:
a. contrast c. diffuseness
b. reflected glare d. direct glare
697. An electromagnetic device for separating isotopes by
electrical sorting of their ions
a. isocline c. isometer
b. isotron d. isotopes meter

698. A transformer has negative voltage regulation when its load

power factor is:
a. lagging c. leading
b. zero d. unity

699. Conducting power for the line of force as compared to air:

a. flux density c. magnetic induction
b. permeability d. field intensity

700. Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to:

a. keep it fresh and fully charged
b. increase its reserved capacity
c. prevent sulphation
d. proper electrode level

701. It refers to the magnitude of the auditory sensation produced

by the sound:
a. loudness c. pitch
b. intensity d. tone

702. Three equal impedances are first connected in wye across a

balance 3-phase supply. If it is connected in delta across the
same supply:
a. line current will become 1/3 of the original line current
b. power consumed will increase three-fold
c. phase current will be double
d. phase current will be tripled

703. According to this theorem in any linear bilateral network

having a number of resistance, batteries of generators, each
source can be assumed to be independent of the other:
a. Reciprocity theorem
b. Thevenin’s theorem
c. Superposition theorem
d. Norton’s theorem

704. Heating above the critical range and cooling slowly:

a. Tempering c. relieving
 b. Annealing d. normalizing

705. The luminous intensity of a lamp is expressed in:

a. candela c. lux
b. watts d. lumens

706. Which of the following would you expect to conduct

electricity?
a. iron c. dry toe
b. diamond d. all of these

707. The change in length per unit per degree rise in temperature:
a. volume expansivity c. linear expansivity
b. ideal gas temperature d. temperature scale

708. If a self excited dc generator after being installed, fails to

build up on its first trial run, the first thing to do is to:
a. reverse field connections
b. check armature insulation
c. increase the speed of the prime mover
d. increase the field resistance

709. Is one with rigid boundaries exchanging neither energy nor

mass with it as surroundings:
a. ideal gases c. heat
b. isolated system d. entropy

710. A device which automatically controls the speed of an engine:

a. Speedometer c. governor
b. Odometer d. none of these

711. Lux is expressed in:

a. lumens per sq. meter c. lumens per sq foot
b. lumens per sq. cm d. lumens per sq mm

712. It is a device which is used to provide a point for connection

to ground. It has no secondary winding and also carried no
load:
a. voltage transformer c. autotransformer
b. isolating transformer d. grounding transformer

713. If a motor has a slip of two percent at rated voltage,

determine the approximate value of the slip when developing
the same torque at ten percent above rated voltage:
 a. 1.8-% c. 1.75%
b. 1.55% d. 1.65%

714. Resistivity of carbon is approximately:

a. 10 – 70 μ ohm-cm c. 800 – 1300 μ ohm-cm
b. 80 130 μ ohm-cm d. 80-00 – 3000 μ ohm-cm

715. Silicon steel is widely used for which of the following?

a. transformer cores c. bushing
b. commutators d. tank fabrication

716. Which of the following will not conduct electricity?

a. molten NaCl c. graphite
b. iron d. quartz

717. Calculate the current taken by a motor at 440 volts having an

efficiency of 90%. Moreover, the motor is used to drive a
pump which lifts 240,000 kg. of water per hour to a height of
30 meters. The pump is given to be 80% efficient:
a. 58 A c. 75 A
b. 83 A d. 62 A

718. Select poorest conductor of electricity:

a. Aluminum c. steel
b. carbon d. silver

719. What is the value of dielectric constant of vacuum?

a. Infinity c. 1
b. 100 d. zero

720. The photoelectric current depends on which of the following?

a. intensity of incident light
b. wavelength of the incident beam
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

721. Which of the following material is used for cathode in

photoemissive cells?
a. zinc c. copper
b. goid d. silver

722. Metals approach superconductivity conditions:

a. near absolute zero temperature
 b. near critical temperature
c. at triple point’
d. under the conditions of high temperature and pressure

723. A good electric contact material should have all of the ff.
properties:
a. high melting point
b. good thermal conductivity
c. high resistivity
d. high resistance to erosion

724. Electric breakdown strength of a material depends in its:

a. composition c. thickness
b. moisture content d. all of the above

725. Select the odd one out:

a. Polyester c. Silicon
b. Phenolic d. PVC

726. Powder metallurgy technique is widely used for which one of

the ff?
a. transistors c. cutting tool
b. ferrite magnets d. porcelains

727. For which of the following materials the net magnetic moment
is zero?
a. ferromagnetic material
b. anti-ferromagnetic material
c. ferromagnetic material
d. all of the above

728. A magnetic material above Curie point exists as:

a. diamagnetics c. paramagnetic
b. ferromagnetics d. ferrite

729. To provide for small appliance load in dwelling units, the

feeder should be computed at:
a. 1500 watts c. 2400 watts
b. 3000 watts d. 3600 watts

730. For service drop contractors not exceeding 600 volts its
minimum clearance over commercial areas parking lots
subject:
 a. service drop c. service entry
b. service raceway d. service lateral

731. The rigid metal conduit, electrical metallic tubing, or other

raceway that enclose service entrance conductors:
a. service drop c. service entry
b. service raceway d. service lateral

732. A switch that is intended for isolating an electric circuit from

its source of power. It has no interrupting rating and is
intended to be operated only after the circuit has opened by
some other means:
a. circuit breaker c. knife switch
b. isolating switch d. key switch

733. The minimum clearance fir service drop over buildings:

a. 10 ft. c. 12 ft.
b. 8 ft. d. 14 ft.

734. The minimum clearance for service drop over sidewalks:

a. 8 ft. c. 12 ft.
b. 10 ft. d. 14 ft.

735. The minimum clearance of service drop over driveways, alleys

and public roads:
a. 10 ft. c. 20 ft.
b. 18 ft. d. 30 ft.

736. What position must a knife switch with fuse be mounted?

a. horizontal c. diagonal
b. vertical d. inclined position

737. What is the maximum voltage rating of plug fuses?

a. 110 V c. 200 V
b. 125 V d. 220 V

738. A dual element fuse with special threads so that fuses of

larger than what a circuit was designed for may not be used.
They are designed to make tampering or bridging difficult:
a. P-type c. Eagle type fuse
b. S-type d. N-type

739. Why are system and circuit grounded?

a. to protect from excessive current
 b. to limit the excess voltage to ground which occur
from lighting or exposure to other higher voltage
source
c. to acquire more power from grounding circuit
d. precautionary measure of the system

740. On an alternator, what parts must be laminated?

a. shunt field winding c. stator
b. rotor d. commutator

741. How much wire must be allowed at outlets and switch boxes
for connection and splices?
a. 6 in. c. 5 in.
b. 4 in. d. 8 in.

742. A device that transforms electrical energy from one or more

circuits at the same frequency but usually at a different
voltage and current:
a. Motor c. transformer
b. circuit breaker d. appliances

743. Why are system and circuit grounded?

a. grounding system
b. grounding electrode conductor
c. grounding wires
d. grounding cable

744. Open wiring on insulators commonly known as:

a. knob and tube wiring
b. split knob and receptacle wiring
c. duplex wiring
d. common wiring

745. Is a type of cable in which one or more electrical conductors

are insulated with a highly compressed refractory mineral
insulation (magnesium oxide) and enclosed in a liquid tight
and gas tight metallic sheathing:
a. type MI cable c. type AC cable
b. type MC cable d. type DC cable

746. The process by which one conductor produces, or induces a

voltage in another conductor, even though there is no
mechanical coupling between the two conductors:
 a. Induction c. cutting of flux
b. system d. short circuit

747. The property of a coil in a circuit to oppose any change if

existing current flow:
a. Resistance c. capacitance
b. Inductance d. diode

748. What is the phase relation between phases in a two phase

circuit?
a. they are 360 electrical degree
b. they are 180 electrical degree
c. they are 120 electrical degree
d. they are 90 electrical degree

749. One complete alternation, or reversal of alternating current is

called:
a. revolution c. cycle
b. straight line d. direction

750. Number 000 wire (AWG) has an area of 167,000 CM. What is
its diameter?
a. 83,900 mils c. 60 mils
b. 55 mils d. 409.6 mils

751. Current that continually reverse its direction of flow:

a. alternating current
b. direct current
c. pulsating direct current
d. pulsating alternating current

752. A transformer built like the ordinary isolation transformer,

except that the extra precaution are taken to assure that the
winding ratios are exact. Also, the primary winding is
connected in parallel with the circuit to be measured:
a. potential transformer c. three-phase transformer
b. current transformer d. booster transformer

753. A transformer that is the equivalent of three single phase

transformer which are all wound on one core and enclosed
within one common base:
a. single-phase transformer
b. two-phase transformer
 c. three-phase transformer
d. booster transformer

754. The circuit conductors between the service-entrance

equipment or isolated generating plant and the branch circuit
overload device or devices:
a. feeder c. overcurrent protector
b. disconnecting switch d. motor controller

755. When current passes through a path lesser resistance

thereby destroying the fuse in a circuit, we say that the circuit
is:
a. infinity c. lagging power factor
b. open circuited d. short circuited

756. Is the contact device installed at the outlet for the connection
of a single attachment plug:
a. switch c. female plug

b. receptacle d. male plug

757. A point in the wiring system at which current is taken to be

used in some equipment:
a. grounded c. outlet
b. service entrance d. conductor

758. It is the greatest effective difference of potential that exist

between any two conductors of a circuit:
a. current c. resistance
b. power d. voltage

759. An instrument that measures frequency:

a. frequency counter c. oscillator
b. frequency modulator d. rectifier

760. The circuit element that opposes any change in current:

a. capacitor c. resistance
b. admittance d. inductor

761. The opposition of a conductor to the flow of electric current:

a. admittance c. capacitive reactance
b. impedance d. resistance

762. A short circuit has a resistance of

 a. half-wave c. purely resistive
b. infinity d. zero

763. An instrument used to measure resistance, voltage and

current:
a. ammeter c. multimeter
b. voltmeter d. ohmmeter

764. What is the minimum size of rigid metal conduit?

a. ¼ in. trade size c. 3/8 in. trade size
b. ½ in. trade size d. ¾ in. trade size

765. The circuit element that opposes any change in voltage:

a. inductor c. siemens
b. capacitor d. admittance

766. What is the maximum number of bends (in degrees)

permitted in rigid metal conduit between outlets?
a. 180 o c. 45 o
o
b. 350 d. 75 o

767. What is the maximum number of conductors permitted in wire

ways at any cross section, signal circuit or starter control
wires are not included?
a. 25 conductors c. 40 conductors
b. 30 conductors d. 50 conductors

768. In order to protect a personnel and prevent shock, the

equipment should be connected good earth ground through:
a. conduit pipe c. cold water pipe
b. hot water pipe d. rigid conduit pipe

769. Connecting a resistor in parallel with a meter will:

a. increase the measuring range of voltmeter
b. increase the measuring range of ammeter
c. decrease the measuring range of ammeter
d. decrease the measuring range of voltmeter

770. Connecting a resistor in series with a meter will:

a. increase the measuring range of voltmeter
b. increase the measuring range of ammeter
c. decrease the measuring range of ammeter
d. decrease the measuring range of voltmeter
771. Who is the father of electricity?
a. William Gilbert c. Gustav Hertz
b. Voltzman d. Gustav Kirchoff

772. Who formulated Ohm’s law?

a. William Jorge Ohm c. Gustav Hertz
b. Jorge Simon Ohm d. Beil Bohr

773. What should you do to prevent shock when working on a high

voltage power supply?
a. charge the filter capacitor
b. open the filter capacitor
c. close the filter capacitor
d. discharge the filter capacitor

774. Two identical capacitors are connected in parallel. What is the

resultant capacitance?
a. half the value of one capacitor
b. thrice the value of one capacitor
c. twice the value of one capacitor
d. the value of one capacitor

775. Two identical capacitors are connected in series. What is the

resultant capacitance?
a. half the value of one capacitor
b. thrice the value of one capacitor
c. twice the value of one capacitor
d. the value of one capacitor

776. An alternator is operating at 1.0 power factor in parallel with

a large system. Increasing the field current will:
a. decrease the line voltage
b. increase the speed
c. increase the line current
d. decrease the line current

777. Equipment for hazardous location shall be approved for the ff.
properties, except:
a. durability c. ignitability
b. combustibility d. explosibility
778. Refers to a school building, hospitals, museums, display
centers, government buildings and the like:
a. institutional buildings
b. business establishments
c. industrial plant
d. commercial establishments

779. What is the item usually connected across relay contact to

minimize arcing?
a. reactor c. capacitor
b. resistor d. spring

780. Conductors must have a clearance from windows, perches,

fire escapes of not less than:
a. 900 mm c. 1000 mm
b. 700 mm d. 800 mm

781. It refers to choice of electrical systems, including planning

and detailing of requirements for protection, control,
monitoring, coordination and interlocking of electrical systems
among others:
a. system utilization design
b. practice of electrical engineering
c. power of plant design
d. electrical system design

782. Determine the minimum appliance and laundry load required

for a dwelling unit:
a. 4000 VA c. 3000 VA
b. 1500 VA d. 2000 VA

783. It is any equipment which produces, regulates, or controls the

supply of electrical power:
a. electric motor
b. electric supply equipment
c. rectifier
d. inverter

784. It is an establishment or a system for production and

modification of electric energy:
a. electric plant c. substation
b. generator house d. industrial building
785. This refers to planning, specifying, coordinating and layouting
of electrical equipment in power plants, substations and the
like:
a. electrical design
b. construction planning management
c. power plant design
d. plant specification

786. This is the highest effective potential difference between any

two conductors of the circuit concerned:
a. voltage c. ampacity
b. wattage d. power factor

787. It refers to the installed capacity of a direct current electric

plant on board watercraft:
a. KVA c. KVAR
b. KV d. KW

788. It refers to the installed capacity of an alternating current

electric plant or supply equipment., or the connected load of
industrial plants, commercial establishments, and institutional
buildings:
a. KW c. KVA
b. KVAR d. KV

789. It is any building, room or separate place which houses or

encloses electric supply equipment connected to transmission
lines and interior of which is accessible, as a rule, only to
properly qualified persons:
a. battery room c. power plant
b. substation d. electrical room

790. This refers to energy-consuming equipment including motors,

heaters, furnaces, light sources and other devices which
utilize electric energy for any purpose:
a. electric devices
b. utilization equipment
c. resistors
d. electrical appliances

791. This refers to manufacturing assembly plants, including

engineering shops, shipyards or other business endeavors
where electrical machinery and equipment are installed:
a. power plant
 b. industrial plant of factory
c. substation
d. warehouse

792. These are department stores, supermarkets, shopping malls,

office buildings, hotels, theaters, stadiums, condominiums,
convention centers, restaurants, and the like, used for
business or profit:
a. recreational centers
b. business centers
c. commercial establishments
d. institutional buildings

793. It is any waterborne unit which is designed and built to have

an electric plant:
a. water vessel c. submarine vessel
b. ship d. watercraft

794. This refers to the power plant mounted on wheels as used in

the railroad transportation industry:
a. electric train c. light rail transit
b. electric locomotive d. bullet train

795. Of the different kinds of starting a large squirrel cage motor,

which method is the most effective?
a. transformer reduced voltage method
b. star delta switching
c. dropping resistors
d. partial winding method

796. The following wiring raceways maybe installed underground,

EXCEPT:
a. electrical metallic tubing c. flexible metal conduit
b. rigid metal conduit d. rigid non-metallic conduit

797. The following are the advantages of motor-generator set over

rotary converter EXCEPT one:
a. it can be used for power factor correction purposes
b. DC output voltage can be controlled easily by adjusting
the field regulator
c. it has a comparatively high efficiency
d. provided supply voltage
798. When a rotary converter is started by means of a small
auxiliary motor, the power of motor must be _______.
a. less than the DC output of converter
b. slightly more than the value of friction and
windage losses at rated speed
c. half of DC output of converter
d. more than the DC output of the converter

799. The AC line current at slip-rings in a 6-phase, rotary

converter having 90% efficiency and 0.92 power factor is
_______ times dc current:
a. 0.943 c. 0.472
b. 0.236 d. 0.570

800. A 3-phase supply can be converted into 6-phase supply by

joining the 6 secondaries of the 3-phase transformer in ____:
a. double-delta c. double-wye
b. diametrical d. any of these

801. In a 500 kW motor-generator set, the induction motor has 6

poles and the dc generator has 4 poles. If the supply
frequency is 60 Hz. The mechanical power transmitted to the
shaft and electrical power transmitted are ________
respectively:
a. 200 and 300 kW c. 100 and 400 kW
b. 300 and 200 kW d. 350 and 150 kW

802. If you try to start a DC compound motor with the shunt field
open. What would happen?
a. it will over speed
b. the direction of rotation will reverse
c. the fuse will blow
d. it will not start

803. The frequency of the output voltage of an AC generator

depends on which of the following factors?
a. speed c. power factor
b. load d. excitation current

804. The PEC code allow a maximum voltage to be used in dwelling

places. What voltage is this?
a. 150 volts c. 250 volts
b. 230 volts d. 277 volts
805. Electrical equipment should not be mounted on a concrete
wall by which of the ff?
a. lead plug c. plastic plug
b. wooden lug d. expansion volt

806. A pump driven by 440 V, three-phase induction motor lifts

1100 cubic feet of water. The efficiency of the pump and that
of its motor are 0.75 and 0.92, respectively. The power factor
of the motor is 0.90. What is the line current drawn by the
motor?
a. 458 A c. 328 A
b. 632 A d. 583 A

807. A 3-phase motor draws 50 amperes at full load. What shall be

the maximum inverse time circuit breaker that may be used
for short circuit protection?
a. 50 amp c. 125 amp
b. 100 amp d. 75 amp

808. To obtain an accurate mounting of panel maters, which one of

the following is the procedure?
a. drill from the back of the panel
b. use a template
c. use the meter to mark the hole center
d. drill oversized

809. What can possibly happen in a battery room where there are
hot spots due to loose connections or sparkling?
a. an explosion might occur
b. the electrolyte might over heat
c. a short circuit may occur
d. an electrician may get shock

810. What is the exception in the advantages when comparing

solid wires with stranded wires of the same cross-sectional
area?
a. It is longer in over-all diameter
b. It is better for high voltages
c. It is easier to skin off the insulation
d. It has a higher current rating

811. Communication cables and wires shall have a voltage rating

not less than ________.
a. 400 volts c. 600 volts
 b. 300 volts d. 250 volts

812. Which one of the following raceways is not suitable for

installation in wet locations?
a. rigid non-metallic conduit
b. rigid metal conduit
c. flexible metal conduit
d. intermediate metal conduit

813. What is the item usually connected across relay contacts to

minimize arcing?
a. reactor c. capacitor
b. resistor d. spring

814. The frequency of the output voltage of an AC generator

depends on which of the following factors?
a. speed c. power factor
b. load d. excitation current

815. If you try to start a DC compound motor the shunt field of

which is open. What would happen?
a. it will over speed
b. the direction of rotation will reverse
c. the fuse will blow
d. it will not start

816. Of the different kinds of starting a large squirrel cage motor,

which method is the most effective?
a. Transformer reduced voltage method
b. Star-delta switching
c. Dropping resistors
d. Partial winding method

817. The following wiring raceways may be installed underground,

EXCEPT:
a. Electrical metallic tubing
b. Rigid metal conduit
c. Flexible metal conduit
d. Rigid non-metallic conduit
818. Where receptacles are connected to a 20-ampere branch
circuit. What should be the maximum allowable rating of a
cord-and-plug connected load?
a. 15 amperes c. 30 amperes
b. 10 amperes d. 23 amperes

819. Equipment for hazardous locations shall be approved for the

following properties, except:
a. durability c. ignitability
b. combustibility d. explosibility

820. What is the size in square millimeter (mm2) is the cable of

250 MCM size?
a. 118.656 mm2 c. 112.565 mm2
2
b. 126.675 mm d. 132.348 mm2

821. For service drop conductors not exceeding 600 volts it’s
minimum clearance over commercial area parking lots subject
to truck traffic is:
a. 3700 mm c. 5500 mm
b. 4600 mm d. 3100 mm

822. In rigid metal wiring conduit, the minimum electrical trade

size is:
a. 25 mm c. 15 mm
b. 20 mm d. 32 mm

823. For a person to be considered to be a member of the Board of

Electrical Engineering, he must: Be a natural born Filipino
citizen and a resident of the Philippines for a t least _____
consecutive years; Be at least _____ years of age, of proven
integrity with high moral values in his personal as well as his
professional conduct. Have practiced electrical engineering for
a period of not less than _____ years prior to his
appointment, with sworn statement as such
a. 5, 45, 10 c. 10, 35. 5
b. 5, 35, 10 d. 5, 45, 15

824. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of ____
years from the date of appointment or until their successors
shall have been appointed and qualified.
a. 4 c. 3
b. 6 d. 5
825. Section 5 Article 1 states that:
a. An Electrical Engineer shall discharge his duties with
absolute fidelity to his clients and employers, and shall
at all times, act with optimum margin of safety and with
fairness and impartiality to all, having due regard to
public interest and welfare.]
b. An Electrical Engineer shall uphold the honor and
dignity of his profession and, therefore, shall avoid
association or business dealings with any person or
enterprises of questionable character.
c. An Electrical Engineer shall only advertise his work or
merit in a simple manner and avoid any practice that
will discredit or do injury to the dignity and honor of his
profession.
d. An Electrical Engineer endeavor to extend
knowledge of electrical engineering to the public
and shall discourage spreading the untrue, unfair,
and exaggerated statements regarding electrical
engineering.

826. Who is the Chairman of the Board of Electrical Engineering

when RA 7920 was approved?
a. Engr. Roy F. Gil
b. Engr. Paul Woo
c. Engr. Rafael F. Florentino
d. Engr. Gerardo V. Gaor

827. Section 4 Article 1 states that:

a. An Electrical Engineer shall discharge his duties with
absolute fidelity to his clients and employers, and shall
at all times, act with optimum margin of safety and with
fairness and impartiality to all, having due regard to
public interest and welfare.
b. An Electrical Engineer shall only advertise his
work or merit in a simple manner and avoid any
practice that will discredit or do injury to the
dignity and honor of his profession.
c. An Electrical Engineer shall uphold the honor and
dignity of his profession and, therefore, shall avoid
association or business dealings with any person or
enterprises of questionable character.
 d. An Electrical Engineer shall strive to upgrade his skill
and knowledge in electrical engineering information and
experiences with other engineers, and by unselfishly
contributing to the mission of engineering societies,
institutes, schools ad engineering and scientific media,
and other public institutions.

828. The Board of electrical Engineering is empowered to look into

the conditions affecting the practice of the electrical
engineering profession, adopt measures for the enhancement
of the profession and maintenance of the high professional,
technical and _______ standards.
a. Theoretical c. U.S.
b. Acceptable d. ethical

829. Sec 17 (b) of Art III: Examination and Registration,

Qualifications of applicants for Registered Electrical Engineer,
states that an applicant is a least be ______ years of age:
a. 21 c. 24
b. 23 d. 25

830. Sec 5 (b) Qualifications of Members of Art II Board of

Electrical Engineering is ___________.
a. Be a natural born Filipino citizen and a resident of the
Philippines for at least five (5) consecutive years.
b. Be at least thirty (35) years, of proven integrity
with high moral values in his personal was well as
his professional conduct.
c. Be a person with no final conviction by the court of an
offensive involving moral turpitude
d. Have practiced electrical engineering for a period of not
less than ten (10) years prior to his appointment, with a
sworn statement as such.

831. Article III, Rule 7:

a. Enforcement and execution
b. Promulgation of Decisions, Rules, etc.
c. Official Business with the Commission
d. Assignment of Duties

832. Article IV, Rule _____ Requirements for examination as a

RME
 a. 14 c. 16
b. 15 d. 17

833. Article IV, Rule _____ Requirements for registration as PEE:

a. 12 c. 14
b. 13 d. 15

834. RISC means?

a. Reduce Instruction Set Computing
b. Reduce Instruction Set Computer
c. Reduce instruction Set Component
d. Reduce Information Set Capacity

835. Article I, Section 6 states that:

An Electrical Engineer shall have due regard at all
_____ times for the safety of the life and health of his
employees, other workers, as well as of the general public
and to the protection of life and property that may be affected
by the work under his responsibility.
a. Buildings c. office
b. times d. work area

836. Article 1, Section 3:

a. An Electrical Engineer shall endeavor to extend
knowledge of electrical engineering to the public and
shall discourage spreading the untrue, unfair, and
exaggerated statements regarding electrical
engineering
b. An Electrical Engineer shall discharge his duties with
absolute fidelity to his clients and employers and shall,
a t all times, act with optimum margin of safety and
with fairness and impartiality to all, having due regard
to public interest and welfare.
c. An Electrical Engineer shall only advertise his work or
merit in a simple manner and avoid any practice that
will discredit or do injury to the dignity and honor of his
profession.
d. An Electrical Engineer shall strive to upgrade his
skill and knowledge in electrical engineering in
order to give the best possible service to the
public which could be attained by exchanging
information and experiences with other
engineers, and by unselfishly contributing to the
 mission of engineering societies, institutes,
schools and engineering and scientific media, and
other public institution

837. Article III, section 4 states that:

a. An Electrical Engineer shall give credit to the
engineering work of the person to whom the credit is
legally due.
b. An Electrical Engineer shall live up to the standards of
professional practice of electrical engineering.
c. An Electrical Engineer shall not directly or
indirectly injure the professional reputation,
prospects, or practice of his colleagues in the
profession. Wherever he finds Electrical Engineer
violating the rules of ethical or professional
practices, he shall bring the matter of the
attention of the proper forum for disciplinary or
for other appropriate action.
d. An Electrical Engineer shall not malign, vilify, or destroy
the good name and reputation of others.

838. Article 2, Section 2:

a. An Electrical Engineer shall honestly advice his clients or
employer if specialized work is called for to engage the
services of competent experts and specialists, and once
engaged he shall cooperate with them in the interests
of his client or employer
b. An Electrical Engineer shall present clearly the known
possible consequences or limitations of the work for
which he will be responsible.
c. An Electrical Engineer shall, before undertaking
any engagement or entering into any contract
which calls for his professional service that will
require or need the use of apparatus, other
equipment or things in which he has financial
interest, have such situation clarified in the
contract or agreement to avoid conflict of
interests.
d. An Electrical Engineer shall be vigilant in guarding
against conditions that may be dangerous or
threatening to life, health, or property on work for
 which he is responsible, or to bring to the attention of
those responsible for such conditions.

839. The Board of Electrical Engineering is empowered to look into

the conditions affecting the practice of the electrical
engineering profession. Adopt measures for the enhancement
of the profession and maintenance of the high professional,
technical and _______ standards.
a. Theoretical c. U.S.
b. Acceptable d. Ethical

840. Section 4 (p) Powers and Duties of the Board of Article II

Board of Electrical Engineering is _______:
a. Adopt an official seal
b. Issue subpoena or subpoena duces tecum to secure the
attendance of respondents or witnesses relative to the
investigation conducted by the Board
c. Prosecute or institute criminal action against any
violator of the Act and or the rules and
regulations of the board
d. Supervise and regulate the practice of electrical
engineering in the Philippines.

841. Section 4 (r) Powers and Duties of the Board of Article II

Board of Electrical Engineering is _______.
a. promulgate rules an regulations including a code of
ethics, administrative policies, orders and issuances to
carry out the provisions of this Act
b. coordinate with the Commission and the
Department of Education, Culture and Sports
(DECS) in prescribing amending and/or revising
the courses
c. supervise and regulate the practice of electrical
engineering in the Philippines
d. determine and evaluate the qualifications of the
applicants for registration with or without licensure
examinations for special permits.

842. Sec. 18(1) of Art. 3: Examination and Registration,

Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Master Electricians
states that: ______________.
a. He has completed at least three (3) years of five-
year BSEE program or three-year course in
 electrical engineering technology from an
engineering school and has one (1) year of
practice of electrical wiring and installation,
operation and maintenance of utilization devices
and equipment
b. He has graduated from a two-year electrician’s course
of instruction from a vocational school recognized by
the Philippine government, and, in addition, has at least
three (3) years of electrical practice.
c. He has completed a one (1) year electrician’s course of
instruction from a vocational school recognized by the
Philippine government and, in addition, has at least
three (3) years of electrical practice.
d. He has completed a four year high school education or
its equivalent and, in addition, has a subsequent record
of at least five (5) years of electrical practice.

843. All papers, communications, certificates, decisions or other

documents shall be solely and exclusively acted upon by the
Board within the premises of the _________.
a. President c. Commission
b. DECS d. CHED

844. Section 4 Article 1 states that:

a. An Electrical engineer shall discharge his duties with
absolute fidelity to his clients and employers, and shall
at all times, act with optimum margin of safely and with
fairness and impartially to all, having due regard to
public interest and welfare.
b. An Electrical Engineer shall only advertise his
work or merit in a simple manner and avoid any
practice that will discredit or do injury to the
dignity and honor of his profession.
c. An Electrical Engineer shall uphold the honor and
dignity of his profession and, therefore, shall avoid
association or business dealings with any person or
enterprises of questionable character.
d. An Electrical Engineer shall strive to upgrade his skill
and knowledge in electrical engineering in order to give
the best possible service to the public which could be
attained by exchanging information and experiences
with other engineers, and by unselfishly contributing to
the mission of engineering societies, institutes, schools
 and engineering and scientific media, and other public
institutions.

845. IN Rule 2 (c) defining?

a. Syllabi
b. Commission
c. Commissioner – the chairman of the Professional
Regulation Commission
d. Board –Board of Electrical Engineering

846. Sec 5 (b) Qualifications of Members of Art. II Board of

Electrical Engineering is _____________
a. Be a natural born Filipino citizen and a resident of the
Philippines for at least five (5) consecutive years.
b. Be at least thirty five (35) years of age, of proven
integrity with high moral values in his personal as
well as his professional conduct.
c. Be a person with no final conviction by the court of an
offensive involving turpitude.
d. Have practiced electrical engineering for a period of not
less than ten (10) years prior to his appointment, with a
sworn statement as such.

847. Sec 17 (b) of Art. III: Examination and Registration,

Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Electrical Engineer,
states that an applicant is at least be _____ years of age.
a. 21 c. 24
b. 23 d. 25

848. Sec. 23 of Art. III: Issuance of Certificate of Registration. The

professional is required to renew license every _______ years
upon payment of registration fees:
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 6

849. Sec 33 of Art. IV: Sundry Provisions Relative to Practice of

Electrical Engineering, states that _______:
a. Personnel required
b. Preparation of plans, supervision of installation,
application of PEC code.
c. Practice not allowed for firms and corporation
d. Prohibitions is the Practice of Electrical Engineering
850. Section 4 (0) Power and Duties of the Board of Art II Board of
Electrical Engineering is ________:
a. Promulgate rules and regulations including a code of
ethics, administrative policies, orders and issuances to
carry out the provision of this Act.
b. Coordinate with the commission and tre Department of
Education, Culture and Sports (DECS) in prescribing,
amending or revising the courses.
c. Administer oaths in connection with the administration,
implementation, or enforcement of this Act.
d. Submit an annual report on the proceedings and
accomplishments during the year and on
recommendation of the Board to the commission
after the close of fiscal year.

851. Sec. 18 (b) of Art. III: Examination and Registration,

Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Master Electrician
states that ______:
a. He is a citizen of the Philippines
b. He is at least eighteen (18) years of age
c. He is of good reputation with high moral values
d. He is at least twenty-one (21) years of age

852. Sec. 16 (d) of Art. III: Examination and Registration,

Qualifications of Applicants for Registered as Professional
Electrical Engineer states that __________:
a. He is of good reputation with high moral values
b. He is a citizen of the Philippines
c. He has not been finally convicted by the court of an
offense involving moral turpitude
d. He is holder of the degree of BSEE from a
university, school, college, etc. recognized ad
accredited by Philippine government.

853. Sec. 18 (4) of Art. III: Examination and Registration,

qualifications of applicants for Registered Electrician states
that _________:
a. He has completed at least three (3) years of a five-year
BSEE program or three year course in electrical
engineering technology from an engineering school and
has one (1) year of practice of electrical wiring and
installation, operation and maintenance of utilization
from a vocational school
 b. He has graduated from a two-year electrician’s course
of instruction from a vocational school recognized by
the Philippine government, and in addition has at least
three (3) years of electrical practice.
c. He has completed a one (1) year electrician’s course of
instruction from a vocational school recognized by the
Philippine government and, in addition has at least
three (3) years of electrical practice.
d. He has completed a four year high school
education or its equivalent and, in addition, has a
subsequent record of at least five (5) years of
electrical practice.

854. Sec. 17 (e) of Art. 3: Examination and Registration,

Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Electrical Engineer,
states that:
a. He is at least twenty-one (21) years of age.
b. He is of good reputation with high moral values
c. He is a holder of the degree of BSEE from a
University, school, college, etc. recognized and
accredited by the Philippine government.
d. He is a citizen of the Philippines.

855. Sec. 17 (b) of Art. III: Examination and Registration,

Qualifications of applicants for Registered Electrical Engineer,
states that an applicant s at least be _______ years of age:
a. 21 c. 24
b. 23 d. 25

856. Sec. 18 (2) of Art. III: Examination and Registration,

Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Master Electrician
states that: ___________.
a. He has completed at least three (3) years of a five-year
BSEE program or three-year course in electrical
engineering technology from an engineering school and
has one (1) year of practice in electrical wiring and
installation, operation and maintenance of utilization
devices and equipment
b. He has graduated from a two-year electrician’s
course of instruction from a vocational school
recognized by the Philippine government, and in
 addition has a t least two (2) years of electrical
practice.
c. He has completed a one (1) year electrician’s course of
instruction from a vocational school recognized by the
Philippine government and, in addition has at least
three (3) years of electrical practice.
d. He has completed a four year high school education or
its equivalent and in, addition, has a subsequent record
of a t least five (5) years of electrical service.

857. Section 29 of Art. III: Revocation of Certificates of

Registration and Suspension from the practice of the
Profession. The Board shall have the power, upon notice of
hearing, revoke and certificate of registration of any
registrant, to suspend him from the practice of his
professions, for fraud, deceit, gross negligence or
incompetence. Which will satisfy the above policy?
a. Rules and regulation, policies, and code of
professional ethics of this Act
b. Order of court
c. PRC ruling
d. Act of government

858. Sec. 1 Art. II - Relations with Client and Employer, states

that: An Electrical Engineer shall be fair, impartial and
reasonable in rendering professional service to his clients,
employers and contractors regarding contract or other
agreements:
a. True c. false
b. partly true d. partly false

859. Sec. 2 of Art. II – Relations with Client and Employer, states

that: An Electrical Engineer shall, before undertaking any
engagement or entering into any contract which calls for his
professional service that will require or need the use of
apparatus, other equipment or things in which he has
financial interest, have such situation clarified in the contract
or agreement to avoid __________:
a. confusion c. disagreement
b. conflict of interest d. violation
860. Section 4 (a) Powers and Duties of the Board of Art. II Board
of Electrical Engineering is __________:
a. Issue permits to individual foreign electrical engineers
and electricians.
b. Supervise and regulate the practice of electrical
engineering in the Philippines
c. Determine and evaluate the qualifications of the
applicants for registration with or without licensure
examinations for special permits
d. Promulgate rules and regulations including a code of
ethics, administrative policies, orders and issuances to
carry out the provisions of this Act.

861. Article 1 is for the title and definition of terms. What is Sec 2
(3a) of this Article?
a. Consultation, investigation, valuation and management
of services requiring electrical engineering knowledge
b. Supervision of erection, installation, testing and
commissioning of power plants, substations,
transmission lines, industrial plants and others.
c. Teaching of electrical engineering professional subjects
d. Taking charge of the sale and distribution of electrical
equipments and systems requiring engineering
calculations or applications of engineering data.

862. RA 7920 is an act providing for a more responsive and

comprehensive ________ for the practice, licensing, and
registration of electrical engineers and electricians.
a. control c. regulation
b. evaluation d. enactment

863. Vacancies of the board shall be filled by the _____ from list of
recommendees selected by the Commissioner who was
chosen from the list of nominees submitted by the integrated
and accredited association for unexpired terms only.
a. IIEE
b. President of the Philippines
c. Chairman of the Board
d. Commissioner

864. Sec. 18 (1) of Art. Ill: Examination and Registration,

Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Master Electricians,
states that an applicant has completed at least three (3)
years of a five-year Bachelor of Science in Electrical
 Engineering (BSEE) program or a three-year course in
Electrical Technology with _____ years of practice in electrical
wiring installation, operation and maintenance.
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 5

865. The issuance of Electrical Permit need not to be issued

immediately. The delay shall not be longer than
________________ after which time the application together
with the accompanying plans shall be considered as
complying with all the requirements and the electrical permit
shall be issued thereafter.
a. 7 working days c. 5 working days
b. 10 working days d. 3 working days

866. The member of the board shall hold office for a term of _____
years from the date of appointment or until their successors
shall have been appointed and qualified:
a. 4 c. 3
b. 6 d. 5

867. The New Electrical Engineering Law is referred to:

a. PD 1123 c. PD 185
b. RA 7920 d. RA 184

868. Which of the following may cause a member of the Board to

be removed by the President of the Philippines?
a. incompetence c. neglect of duty
b. malpractice d. all of these

869. CPE means:

a. Commission on Professional Education
b. Continuing Program of Education
c. Continuing Professional Education
d. Continuing Professional Engineering

870. What percent of the maximum fees for all the applications for
oral examinations for professional electrical engineer and
written examinations for registered electrical engineer and
registered master electrician shall be treated as special fund
for the programs, projects and activities of the commission?
a. 90% c. 70%
b. 50% d. 10%
871. A person is deemed to be in practice of electrical engineering
when he renders or offers professional electrical engineering
services in the form of:
a. consultation
b. design and preparation
c. teaching of electrical subjects
d. all of the above

872. The Board of Electrical engineering shall be composed of how

many members?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

873. The Board shall be vested with the following specific powers,
duties and responsibilities except one. Which one is this?
a. supervise and regulate the practice of electrical
engineering in the Philippines
b. must keep in touch with the Deans and President
of some universities to give information regarding
test question
c. determine and evaluate the qualifications of the
applicants for registration with or without licensure
examinations and for special permits
d. adopt an official seal

874. Each Board member must be at least _________ years of age

at the time of his appointment:
a. 30 c. 40
b. 35 d. 28

875. Each Board member must be a natural-born Filipino citizen

and a resident of the Philippines for at least _____________
consecutive years at the time of his appointment:
a. 10 c. 5
b. 12 d. 15

876. Each Board member must have practiced electrical

engineering for a period of not less than _________ years
prior to his appointment, with a sworn statement as such:
a. 10 c. 15
b. 5 d. 20

877. Each Board member must not be an official nor a member of

the faculty of, nor have a pecuniary interest in, any
 university, college, school, or
bachelor’s degree in electrical
__________ years prior to his
connected with a review center:
a. 5 c.
b. 10 d.
institution conferring a
engineering for at least
appointment and is not
3
7

878. Any member of the Board may be removed by the President

of the Philippines, upon the recommendation of the
commissioner for:
a. neglect of duty c. unethical
b. incompetence d. all of the above

879. The Chairman and members of the Board shall receive

compensation of no less than _______: Provide, that the
Chairman shall receive __________ more:
a. P 10,000.00, 5% c. P 10,000, 10%
b. P 12,000.00, 10% d. P 12,000, 5%

880. How many percent of the examination fees shall be treated as

a special fund for the programs, projects and activities of the
commission?
a. 10% c. 50%
b. 90% d. 30%

881. How many percent of the examination fees shall be set aside
as a trust for the establishment and maintenance of the
center for continuing education and research?
a. 90% c. 10%
b. 50% d. 60%

882. How many percent of the registration fees, license fees, and
fines shall be set up in a special fund for the supervisory and
regulatory functions of the Board?
a. 50% c. 90%
b. 10% d. 30%

883. The ___________ shall be the executive officer of the Board

and shall conduct the examination given by the Board:
a. Board Chairman
b. President of the Philippines
c. Secretary of DECS
d. Commissioner of PRC
884. Exemption from examination and registration may be
imposed to which of the following?
a. foreign electrical engineers
b. engineering students
c. erection/commissioning/guarantee engineers
d. all of these

885. The exemption herein granted shall be good only for _______
renewable for another _______ at the discretion of the Board.
a. 1 year, 1 year c. 2 years, 6 months
b. 6 months, 6 months d. 6 months, 1 year

886. To qualify applicants for examination, notice of admission

shall be issued not later that ________ days prior to the first
day of examination:
a. 20 c. 10
b. 15 d. 5

887. Any person applying or admission to the registered electrical

engineer’s examinations shall be a Bachelor of Science in
Electrical Engineering (BSEE) and at least _______ years of
age:
a. 23 c. 20
b. 18 d. 21

888. A duly licensed and registered electrical engineer (REE) shall

be allowed to take an oral examination for a professional
electrical engineer provided he has _____ years or more of
active practice reckoned from the date of his registration as
REE:
a. 5 c. 6
b. 4 d. 3

889. A person shall not be required to register if he is in charge of

or supervising the operation, tending and maintenance of an
electric generating set for private use employing voltages not
exceeding ___________ and capacity not exceeding
_______.
a. 250 V, 50 KVA c. 230 V, 50 KVA
b. 220 V, 100 KVA d. 240 V, 100 KVA
890. Any person applying for admission to the registered master
electrician’s (RME) examinations shall establish to the
satisfaction of the Board and be at least ______ years of age:
a. 21 c. 23
b. 18 d. 25

891. For the purpose of confirming the service record and clarifying
the technical report, an applicant for registration as
professional electrical engineer (PEE) shall present ________
certifications signed by _______ PEEs.
a. 1, 1 c. 2, 2
b. 3, 3 d. 4, 4

892. The applicant for registered electrical engineer’s examinations

shall pass the written examinations on Mathematics,
Engineering Science and Applied Subjects, and Electrical
Engineering Professional Subjects with a weight of ________,
________, ________, respectively:
a. 30%, 30%, 40% c. 25%, 30%, 45%
b. 25%, 35%, 40% d. 25%, 45%, 30%

893. The passing general weighted average shall be _______ with

on grade below ________ in any subjects:
a. 70%, 50% c. 75%, 50%
b. 70%, 70% d. 70%, 60%

894. An applicant who obtained a general weighted average of

70% or above but with a rating of less than 50% on any
subject shall be allowed to take ________ only on the subject
he failed:
a. two times c. four times
b. three times d. none of the above

895. The applicant for registered master electrician shall pass the
written examinations on Technical subjects and Philippine
Electrical Code (PEC) Parts 1 and 11 weighing _________ and
________, respectively:
a. 30%, 30% c. 60%, 40%
b. 50%, 50% d. 40%, 60%

896. Any person shall be admitted to take the examinations for

registered master electrician provided he has completed at
least _______ years of a five-year Bachelor of Science in
 Electrical Engineering (BSEE) program and has a subsequent
specific record of ______ year practice in electrical wiring and
installation and maintenance of utilization devices and
equipment:
a. 3, 3 c. 3, 1
b. 2, 5 d. 3, 2

897. Any person shall be admitted to take the registered master

electrician’s course of instruction from vocational or trade
school recognized by the Philippine government and has at
least ______ years of apprenticeship after the completion of
the course instructions:
a. 5 c. 2
b. 3 d. 4

898. Any person shall be admitted to take the registered master

electrician’s examinations provided he has completed a one-
year electrician’s course and at least _____ years of
apprenticeship after the completion of the course instruction:
a. 3 c. 4
b. 5 d. 2

899. The new “Electrical Engineering Law” has been approved and
took effect last:
a. February 14, 1995 c. February 24, 1995
b. March 24, 1995 d. March 14, 1995

900. Any person shall be admitted to take the registered master

electrician’s examinations provided he has completed a four-
year high school education or its equivalent and has a
subsequent specific record of at least _____ years of
apprenticeship:
a. 6 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5

901. The Board of Electrical Engineering, within _____days after

the date of completions of the examinations, report the rating
obtained by each candidate to the Commission:
a. 7 c. 90
b. 150 d. 14

902. A professional license shall be renewed by the licensee every

________ years prior to the date of registration and shall
 comply with the requirements of the continuing professional
education (CPE):
a. 3 c. 2
b. 5 d. 1

903. A registered master electrician shall be allowed to practice his

profession as granted by this Act provided the installation of
the machinery is rated of not more than _______ of
_______:
a. 250 KVA, 250 V c. 500 KVA, 250 V
b. 500 KVA, 600 V d. 250 KVA, 500 V

904. Revocation of certificates of registration and supervision from

the practice of the profession whenever:
a. Being a professional electrical engineer, he has signed
ad similar documents or work not prepared by him or
not executed under his immediate supervision.
b. He has represented himself as having taken charge of
or supervised: any electrical construction or installation;
operation, tending and maintenance of any electric
plant; manufacture or repair of electrical equipment,
teaching of electrical engineering subjects, etc. without
actually doing so.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

905. A new certificate of registration may be re-issued after the

expiration of _______ year(s) from the date of revocation:
a. 3 c. 4
b. 2 d. 1

906. Any person who shall violate any provisions of this Act shall
be sentenced to a fine or not less than ______ nor more than
______ or imprisonment for a period of ________ months to
_______ years or both at the discretion of the court:
a. P 10,000.00, P 50,000.00, 6, 5
b. P 5,000.00, P 10,000.00, 6, 10
c. P 10,000.00, P 50,000.00, 6, 10
d. P 5,000.00, P 10,000.00, 6, 5

907. Assistant and Associate Electrical Engineer with professional

license issued under RA 184 shall register within 2 years from
 the effectivity of RA 7920 and shall be issued new certificate
of registration and professional license as:
a. Professional Electrical Engineer
b. Registered Master Electrician
c. Electrical Engineer
d. Registered Electrical Engineer

908. Mater Electrician with professional license issued under RA

184 shall register within two years from the effectivity of this
Act and be issued new certificate of registration and
professional license as:
a. Professional Electrical Engineer
b. Registered Master Electrician
c. Electrical Engineer
d. Registered Electrical Engineer

909. It is an act providing for more responsive and comprehensive

regulation for the practice, licensing and registration of
electrical engineers and electricians:
a. RA 2320 c. RA 3290
b. RA 7920 d. RA 6657

910. Before any person is allowed to practice electrical engineering

in the Philippines, he must have first a valid:
a. certificate of registration c. none of the above
b. professional license d. both (a) and (b)

911. A decision of suspension, revocation of the certificate of

registration, or delisting from the roll by the Board as
provided herein, may be appealed initially to the Commission
within ________ days from the receipt thereof:
a. 30 c. 20
b. 60 d. 15

912. The Board of Electrical Engineering is here referred as :

a. commission c. board
b. department d. bureau

913. The Professional Regulation Commission is called:

a. bureau c. agency
b. commission d. department
914. The number of questions for the registered electrical engineer
shall be such that the examinations can be finished in
_______ consecutive ______ hour days:
a. 3, 8 c. 3, 6
b. 2, 8 d. 2, 6

915. The Board of Electrical Engineering shall not issue a certificate

of registration to any person:
a. convicted by the court for criminal offense or moral
turpitude
b. guilty of immoral or dishonorable conduct
c. unsound mind
d. all of the above

916. The Board of Electrical Engineering may suspend a

professional from his profession for unprofessional or
dishonorable conduct. Among these are, except:
a. Signing and sealing electrical plans brought to
him for approval
b. Represented himself as having taken charge of or
supervised any electrical construction without actually
having done so.
c. For perpetration of fraud or deceit in obtaining a
certificate of registration
d. Signing technical reports, estimates or specification not
prepared by him

917. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a. Membership in the integrated organization like the llEE
shall not be a bar to membership in other associatins of
the electrical engineering profession.
b. A professional who has bee suspended by the
Bard of Electrical Engineering may appeal his case
within 30 days with Regional Trial court.
c. In the event of refusal to issue certificate of
registration, Board shall give the applicants a written
statement of the reason for refusal.
d. A firm or corporation ma file charges after taking
cognizance of acts constituting cause for suspension of
a professional.

918. The power and functions of the CPE council are the following
EXCEPT:
 a. Accept, evaluate and approve applications fro
accreditation of CPE providers
b. Approve recommendations of CPE providers for the
number of CPE credit units of their programs
c. Assess periodically and upgrade criteria for
accreditation of CPE providers and CPE programs,
activities or sources.
d. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for
exemptions from CPE requirements.

919. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a. Membership in the integrated organization like the llEE
shall not be a bar to membership in other associations
of the electrical engineering profession.
b. A professional who has been suspended by the
Board of Electrical Engineering may appeal his
case within 30 days with the Regional Trial Court.
c. In the event of refusal to issue a certificate of
registration, the Board shall give the applicant a written
statement of the reason for refusal.
d. A firm or corporation may charges after taking
cognizance of acts constituting cause for suspension of
a professional

920. Rule 2(P), Article I defines:

a. IIEE c. CHED
b. DECS d. TESDA

921. RA 7920, Rule 3:

a. PRC Seal c. PEE Official Seal
b. DECS Seal d. CHED Seal

922. Sec. 18(3) of Art. III: Examination and Registration,

Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Master Electricians
states that: _____?
a. He has completed a four-year high school education of
its equivalent and, in addition, has a subsequent record
of at least five (5) years of electrical practice.
b. He has graduated from a two-year electrician’s course
of instruction from a vocational school or trade school
recognized by the Philippine government, and n
addition, has at least two (2) years of electrical
practice.
 c. He has completed a one (1) year electrician’s of
instruction from a vocational school recognized by
the Philippine government, and in addition, has at
least three (3) years of electrical practice.
d. He has completed at least three (3) years of a five-year
BSEE program or three-year course in electrical
engineering technology from an engineering school and
has one (1) year of practice in electrical wiring and
installation, operation and maintenance of utilization
devices and equipment.

923. Sec. 5(b) Qualifications of Members of Art. II Board of

Electrical Engineering is _____________________.
a. Be a holder of the degree of Bachelor of Science in
Electrical Engineering (BSEE) from a university, school,
college, academy or institute of a duly constituted,
recognized and accredited by the Philippine
government.
b. Be at least thirty-five (35) years of age, of proven
integrity with high moral values in his personal as
well as his professional conduct.
c. Be a person with no final conviction by the court of an
offense involving moral turpitude.
d. Be a professional electrical engineer with a valid
certificate of registration and a valid professional license
duly qualified to practice electrical engineering in the
Philippines.

924. Section 6, Article III of the Code of Ethics for the Electrical
Engineer states that:
a. An Electrical Engineer shall live up to the standards of
professional practice of electrical engineering.
b. An Electrical Engineer shall give credit to the
engineering work of the person to whom the credit is
legally due.
c. An Electrical Engineer shall not alter, modify or
improve the whole electrical plan or any portion
thereof prepared and/or signed and sealed by
another Professional Electrical Engineer without
the latter’s written consent or permission.
d. An Electrical Engineer shall not directly or indirectly
injure the professional reputation prospects, or practice
of his colleagues in the profession. Whenever he finds
an Electrical Engineer violating the rules of ethical or
 professional practices, he shall bring the manner to the
attention of the proper forum for disciplinary or for
other appropriate action.

925. Allowing a foreign engineer to take board examinations and

be given certificate of registration provided the same will be
granted to a Filipino in such county is called:
a. foreign reciprocity c. Winchester Agreement
b. Paris Treaty d. none of the above

926. What sections are included in Article V, Transitory Provisions:

a. 40 to 41 c. 41 to 44
b. 41 to 42 d. 41 to 43

927. Sec. 5(e) Qualifications of Members of Art. II Board of

Electrical engineering is ________.
a. Be a person with no final conviction by the court of an
offense involving moral turpitude.
b. Be a professional electrical engineer with a valid
certificate of registration and a valid professional
license duly qualified to practice electrical
engineering in the Philippines.
c. Be a natural-born Filipino citizen and a resident of the
Philippines for at least five (5) consecutive years.
d. Be at least thirty-five (350 years of age, of proven
integrity with high moral values in his personal as well
as his professional conduct.

928. In the Article I, Section 2(a)(3) states that:

a. Teaching of electrical engineering professional subjects.
b. Taking charge of the sale and distribution of electrical
equipment and systems requiring engineering
calculations or application of engineering data.
c. Consultation, investigation, valuation and management
of services requiring electrical engineering knowledge.
d. Supervision of erection, installation, testing and
commissioning of power plants, substation,
transmission lines, industrial plants and others.

929. In Article II, Section 4r states that:

a. Submit an annual report.
b. Administer oath in connection with the administration,
implementation, or enforcement of this act.
 c. Coordinate with the commission and the
Department of Education Culture and Sports
(DECS) in prescribing, amending or revising the
courses.
d. Issue subpoena or subpoena duces tecum.

930. Article II, Section 4. Powers and Duties of the board. What is
meant by quasi-legislative?
a. Supervision c. Investigate
b. Evaluation d. Rule making

931. Sec. 18(b), Art. III-Qualifications of Applicants for registered

Electrician.
a. 18 c. 21
b. 20 d. 23

932. Article I is for title and definition of terms. What is Sec. 2 (Ia)
of this article?
a. Consultation, investigation, valuation and
management of services requiring electrical
engineering knowledge.
b. Supervision of operation and maintenance of electrical
equipment in power plants, industrial plants,
watercrafts, electric locomotives and others.
c. Teaching of electrical engineering professional subjects.
d. Taking charge of the sale and distribution of electrical
equipment and systems requiring engineering
calculations or applications of engineering data.

933. In Article III, Section 18(3) states that:

a. Has Completed at least three (3) years of five-year
Bachelor of Science in Electrical Engineering (BSEE)
program of engineering school recognized by the
Philippine government and, in addition, has a
subsequent specific record of one (1) year practice in
electrical wiring installation, operation and maintenance
of utilization of devices and equipment.
b. Has a graduate from a two-year electrician’s course of
instruction from a vocational or trade school recognized
by the Philippine government and, in addition, has at
least two (2) years of apprenticeship after completion of
the course of instruction on electrical installation,
operation and maintenance of utilization devices and
equipment.
 c. Has completed a one-year electrician’s course of
instruction from a vocational school recognized by
the Philippine government and, in addition, has at
least three (3) years of apprenticeship after
completion of the course of instruction on
electrical installation, operation and maintenance
of utilization, devices and equipment.
d. Has completed a four-year-high school education of its
equivalent and, in addition, has a subsequent specific
record of at least five (5) years of apprenticeship in
electrical wiring installation, operation and maintenance
o utilization devices and equipment.

934. Sec. 4 of Art. II states the powers and duties of the board.
What does it mean by quasi-legislative powers?
a. Control c. Rule-making
b. Evaluation d. Supervisory

935. Sec. 18(2) of Art. III: Examination and Registration,

Qualifications of Applicants for Registered Master Electricians
states that: __________
a. Has completed a four year high school education or its
equivalent, and in addition, has a subsequent record of
at least five (5) years of electrical practice.
b. Has completed at least three (3) years of a five-year
BSEE program or three-year course in electrical
engineering technology from an engineering school and
has one (1) year of practice of electrical wiring and
installation, operation and maintenance of utilization
devices and equipment.
c. Has graduated from a two-year electrician’s
course of instruction from a vocational or trade
school recognized by the Philippine government,
 and in addition, has at least two (2) years of
apprenticeship after completion of the course of
instruction on electrical installation, operation
and maintenance of utilization devices and
equipment.
d. Has completed a one-year electrician’s course of
instruction from a vocational school recognized by the
Philippine government, and in addition, has at least
three (3) years of apprenticeship after completion of the
course of instruction on electrical installation, operation
and maintenance of utilization devices and equipment.

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING

936. What is the process involved in the transfer of moisture from

the sea to the land and back to the sea?
a. hydrologic cycle c. evaporation
b. precipitation d. evapotranspiration

937. What is the graph showing stream flow vs. time?

a. rating curve c. infiltration curve
b. hydrograph d. all of these

938. It is the small channel in the invert of a large combined sewer

for dry weather flow?
a. cunette c. inverted siphon
 b. sag pipe d. holes

939. It is the phenomenon where air is forced to rise over a

mountain barrier?
a. wind upsurge c. convective lifting
b. frontal lifting d. orographic lifting

940. What is the area tributary to a given point on a stream and is

separated by a divider?
a. river basin c. watershed
b. river delta d. lake

941. What are the type(s) of rain gauge?

a. precipitation gauge
b. staff gauge
c. weighing rain gauge and tipping bucket gauge
d. all of the above

942. What is the map that shows contours of equal precipitation?

a. isohyetal map c. topographic map
b. hydrolic map d. none of these

943. Which statement is true?

a. effluent streams have a perennial flow of water.
b. influent streams have intermittent flow of water.
c. most river basins contain both effluent and influent
streams.
d. all of these.

944. What is the graph that plots the measured steam flow
discharge vs. water surface elevation?
a. hydrograph c. rating curve

b. infiltration curve d. none of these

945. What are the method(s) of measuring steam flow?

a. price current meter c. rating curve
b. open-channel formulas d. all of these

946. The hot wire anemometer is used to measure:

a. gas velocity
b. wind velocities at airports
c. pressure in gases
 d. pressure in liquids

947. What is the evaporation of water from the leaves of plant?

a. interception c. depression storage

b. transpiration d. basin recharge

948. What is the map that shows the average annual lake
evaporation values?
a. isohyetal map c. hydrologic map
b. topographic map d. evaporation potential

949. What is the term for rainwater collected by the leaves and
stems vegetation or structure?
a. Interception c. basin recharge
b. depression storage d. soil moisture

950. What is the term for water retained as puddles?

a. interception c. basin recharge
b. depression storage d. soil moisture

951. What is the term for capillary water in the smaller pore
surface of the soil?
a. interception c. basin recharge
b. depression storage d. soil moisture

952. What is the term for water that penetrates into the soil and
flows laterally in the surface soil to stream channel?
a. runoff c. percolation
b. interflow d. all of these

953. What are the methods for rainwater to reach a stream?

a. surface runoff c. percolation
b. inter flow d. all of these

954. What is the combination of a Direct Runoff?

a. precipitation, basin recharge and ground water
accretion
b. surface runoff, inter flow and percolation
c. interception, depression storage and basin recharge
d. all of these
955. What is the term required to the rate of surface runoff and
the rate of rainfall to reach equilibrium?
a. runoff coefficient c. overflow
b. infiltration rate d. time of concentration

956. What is the amount of water, which can be supplied from a

reservoir in a specific interval of time?
a. specific yield c. secondary yield
b. reservoir yield d. none of these

957. What is the maximum quantity of water can be guaranteed

during a critical dry period?
a. specific yield c. safe yield
b. reservoir yield d. secondary yield

958. What is the volume of water that will drain freely from the
aquifier?
a. specific yield c. safe yield
b. reservoir yield d. secondary yield

959. What is the water available in excess of safe yield during

periods of high flow?
a. specific yield c. safe yield
b. reservoir yield d. secondary yield

960. Which of the following are type(s) of flood mitigation

reservoirs?
a. Quay walls
b. dikes
c. levees
d. storage reservoirs and retarding basins

961. What is the line defined by the static level of water in the
wells penetrating the zone of saturation?
a. water table c. piezometric surface
b. specific yield d. all of these

962. What is the line defined by the water level in a group of

artesian walls?
a. water tale c. specific yield
b. piezometric surface d. none of the above
963. Which is the best method of irrigation for irregular
topography?
a. flooding c. furrow
b. sprinkling d. sub-irrigation

964. Which is the best method of irrigation for row crops?

a. flooding c. furrow
b. sprinkling d. sub-irrigation

965. Which is the best method of irrigation for irregular areas?

a. flooding c. furrow
b. sprinkling d. sub-irrigation

966. Which method of irrigation which requires an impermeable

core beneath the soil?
a. flooding c. furrow
b. sprinkling d. sub-irrigation

967. Which method of irrigation has the best control of water

supplied?
a. flooding c. furrow
b. sprinkling d. sickle irrigation

968. Which is not a physical characteristic of water?

a. total, dissolved and suspended solids
b. turbidity
c. color
d. hardness

969. What are the principal impurities found in water?

a. ionic and dissolved c. gases
b. non-ionic non-dissolved d. all of these

970. What are the principal impurities found in the evaluation of

water?
a. physical c. chemical
b. biological d. all of these

971. Which is not a chemical characteristic of water?

a. pH level
b. alkalinity
c. conductivity
d. total suspended and dissolved solids
972. What methods are used to remove tastes and odors?
a. aeration c. oxidation
b. adsorption d. all of these

973. What are the points to be considered for an area suitable for
irrigation?
a. Soil must have high water holding capacity and soil
must be readily penetrable by water.
b. Infiltration rate low enough to avoid excess loss of
water and soil must be deep enough to allow root
development and permit drainage.
c. Soil must not be sodium saturated and free of salts
susceptible to removal by leaching and soil must have
an adequate supply of plant nutrients and free of toxic
elements.
d. all of the above

974. What is the maximum velocity in a sewer flowing full?

a. 0.6 m/sec. c. 0.9 m/sec.
b. 1.2 m/sec. d. 1.8 m/sec.

975. What wastewater treatment that involves the removal of

course and settleable by interception?
a. Screening c. comminution
b. flow equalization d. mixing

976. What wastewater treatment method promotes the

aggregation of small particles into larger particles to enhance
the removal by gravity sedimentation?
a. screening c. comminution
b. flow equalization d. flocculation

977. What is a wastewater treatment method that involves

grinding of course solids to a more-or-less uniform size?
a. screening c. comminution
b. flow equalization d. mixing

978. What wastewater treatment involves removal of settleable

solids and thickening of sludges?
a. sedimentation c. filtration
b. flotation d. microscreening
979. What wastewater treatment involves removal of settleable
solids of finely divided suspended solids and particles with
densities close to that of water, also thickens biological
sludges?
a. sedimentation c. flotation
b. filtration d. microscreening

980. What method of wastewater treatment involves removal of

fine residual suspended solids remaining after biological or
chemical treatment?
a. sedimentation c. flotation
b. filtration d. microscreening

981. What wastewater treatment method involves of algae from

stabilization pond effluents?
a. sedimentation c. flotation
b. filtration d. microscreening

982. Which is a chemical wastewater treatment?

a. chemical precipitation c. gas transfer
b. absorption d. all of these

983. Which is a biological wastewater treatment?

a. activated sludge c. trickling filter
b. rotating biological disks d. all of these

984. The mass of water vapor per unit volume of air.

a. absolute humidity c. specific humidity
b. relative humidity d. critical humidity

985. The main source of ground water is:

a. precipitation c. evaporation
b. spring water d. underground water

986. Deep ground water deposits where underground water are

available for water supply and irrigation is known as:
a. aquifers c. water wells
b. water table d. saturated zone

987. A tidal phenomenon apparent in a large lake, when there may

be a rise of several feet in a few hours.
a. high tide c. seiche
b. seale d. scupper
988. It is the shape of the water table around a well during and
immediately after use.
a. cone of depression c. forebay
b. plat d. submain

989. These are sewer inspection holes large enough to lower a

lamp into but too small for a man.
a. lamp holes c. light hole
b. man hole d. none of these

990. In water purification, aeration is used to remove

a. objectionable gases c. turbidity
b. dissolved oxygen d. sediment

991. The interviewing channels of a braided stream is known as:

a. anabranch c. aquifuge
b. Aquifer d. Artesian well

992. A portion of an exposed aquifer (usually on a slope) between

two impervious layers is called:
a. anticlinal spring c. anabranch
b. aquifer d. aquiclude

993. It is an underground source of water capable of supplying a

well or other use.
a. aquifer c. aquiclude
b. pheartic zone d. water table

994. An underground source of water with insufficient porosity to

support any sufficient removal rate is known as:
a. aquiclude c. piezometric level
b. Artesian formation d. vaclose water

995. An underground geological formation that has no porosity or

openings at all through which water can enter or be removed
is called?
a. aquifuge c. zone of aeration
b. water table d. aquiclude

996. It is a spring in which water flows naturally out of the earth’s

surface due to pressure placed on the water by an impervious
overburden and hydrostatic head.
a. Artesian well c. base flow
 b. Artesian formation d. anticlinal spring

997. Artesian formation is an aquifer in which the piezometric

height is:
a. greater than the aquifer thickness
b. equal to the aquifer thickness
c. less than the aquifer thickness
d. none of the above

998. It is a process of mixing water with air either by spraying

water or diffusing air through it.
a. aeration c. coagulation
b. Infiltration d. evaporation

999. These are solids from aerated settling tanks which are rich in
bacteria.
a. activated sludge c. aerated lagoon
b. seed d. zooglea

1000. A holding basin into which air is mechanically introduced to

speed up aerobic decomposition is known as:
a. aerated lagoon c. seed
b. zooglea d. activated sludge

1001. Which of the following statement is true?

a. an algae is a one-celled plant life
b. an algae is a multi-celled plant life
c. an algae is a two-celled plant life
d. none of these

1002. A wide, shallow stream with many branches is referred to as:

a. braided stream c. blind drainage
b. base flow d. drainage

1003. Runoff which percolates down to the water table and then
discharge into a stream is called:
a. base flow c. blind drainage
b. braided stream d. drainage

1004. A process using sedimentation, trickling filter, and secondary

sedimentation before adding activated sludge.
a. bioactivation c. biota
b. Biosorption d. chemical precipitation
1005. It is a process that mixes raw sewage and sludge which have
been pre-aerated in a separated tank?
a. biosorption c. digestion
b. chemical precipitation d. bioactivation

1006. It refers to the flora and fauna of the region.

a. biota c. cunnete
b. zooglea d. algae

1007. The chief source of energy in the world today is:

a. coal c. oil
b. natural gas d. uranium

1008. The source of energy whose reserves are greatest is:

a. coal c. oil
b. natural gas d. uranium

1009. The lowest portion to storage basin from where the water is
not drawn is
a. bottom storage c. spring reserve
b. sub-soil storage d. dead storage

1010. The ratio of oxygen available to the oxygen required for

stabilization of sewage is called:
a. relative stability
b. oxygen-ion concentration
c. concentration factor
d. bio-chemical oxygen

1011. Rocks having excessive internal stresses may produce

spalling are called
a. swelling rocks c. crushed rocks
b. popping rocks d. stratified rocks

1012. It measures the magnitude of an earthquake:

a. Rossie scale c. Richter scale
b. Rossie-Forel scale d. Mercallis scale

1013. In the troposphere, ozone is produced during the daylight and

consumed during the darkness. Find the half-life of ozone it is
depleted to 10% of its initial value after 10 hours of darkness.
a. 4.0 hr c. 4.5 hr
b. 3.0 hr d. 3.5 hr
 1014. Which of following is usually used in industry?
a. Plastic c. Metal
b. Rubber d. Wood

1015. The effect of constructing a dam across a natural stream is to

raise the water surface at various sections upstream. The
resulting water surface profile is known as:
a. backwater curve c. upstream water surface
b. tall water curve d. headwater surface

ENGINEERING ECONOMY

1016. Amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

a. interest c. rate of interest
b. simple interest d. principal

1017. The charge of which the borrower pays to the lender for the
use of his money is
a. principal c. annuities
 b. depreciation d. interest

1018. Time Value of money

a. Capital c. Rate and Interest
b. Interest d. Investment

1019. What is work-in-process classified as?

a. an asset c. a revenue
b. owner’s equity d. an expense

1020. The total income equals the total operating cost.

a. Break-even-no-gain-no-loss
b. Interest Rate
c. In-piece-value
d. Scrap Value

1021. A secondary book of accounts, the information of which is

obtained from the journal.
a. Balance Sheet c. Trial Balance
b. Ledger d. Worksheet

1022. Actual interest rate when compounded higher than the

nominal:
a. nominal interest rate c. effective interest rate
b. simple interest rate d. compound interest

1023. It is a situation in economic study whereby there is no profit:

a. unhealthy point c. oligopoly
b. break-even point d. monopoly

1024. It is a measure of effectiveness of an investment of a capital.

a. rate of return c. depreciation
b. interest d. discount

1025. The ratio allowed operating income to a specified rate base

expressed as percentage:
a. percentage income c. percentage rate
b. operation income d. rate of return

1026. It is a point in economic study whereby there are few

suppliers and any action taken by anyone of them will
definitely affect the course of the others:
a. monopoly c. perfect competition
b. oligopoly d. unhealthy point
1027. An economic situation in which any given product is supplied
by an unrestricted number of vendors and where there is
complete freedom on the part of buyer and seller:
a. oligopoly c. elastic demand
b. perfect competition d. monopoly

1028. In the process of determining the value or worth of physical

property for specific reasons.
a. depletion c. economy
b. valuation d. investment

1029. Shows only one timing but also relationships among the task
of a project.
a. work flow c. data chart
b. bar chart d. pert chart

1030. It is a method used in selecting alternatives in which the

interest on the original investment is included as a cost:
a. Rate of return c. Annual Worth Cost
b. Present Worth Cost d. Future Worth Cost

1031. The quantity of a certain commodity that is both at a certain

price at a given place and time.
a. elastic demand c. inelastic demand
b. demand d. unitary demand

1032. It is the value which is disinterested third party, different

from buyer or seller, will determine in order to establish a
price that is fair and acceptable to both the buyer and the
seller:
a. book value c. market value
b. goodwill value d. fair value

1033. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy

human want:
a. returns c. utility
b. discount d. demand

1034. It is a sharp sudden increase in money or credit or both

without a corresponding increase in business transactions:
a. recession c. deflation
b. inflation d. subrogation
1035. It is a point in economic study where the sales volume is just
enough to pay the dividends:
a. break-even point c. elastic point
b. unhealthy point d. turning point

1036. Cost of things that are neither labor nor material:

a. labor cost c. investment
b. expenses d. construction cost

1037. Estimated value at the end of the useful life:

a. balance sheet c. compounded annually
b. economic life d. salvage value

1038. The remaining monetary value which represents the proceeds

obtainable from the sale of the asset is termed as
a. book value c. salvage value
b. real value d. apparent value

1039. An award of an exclusive right to provide a specific product or

service in a stated region:
a. profit c. franchise
b. benefit d. reward

1040. The security behind this type of bond is the stock or bonds of
a well-established subsidiary of the corporation:
a. debenture bond c. owner of the bond
b. collateral bond d. registered bond

1041. Occurs in a situation where there are so few suppliers of a

product or service that action by one will almost inevitably
result in similar action by others.
a. perfect competition c. oligopoly
b. monopoly d. demand

1042. Sum total of First Cost plus circulating capital:

a. interest c. rate of interest
b. capital d. investment

1043. What is work-in process classified as?

a. an asset c. owner’s equity
b. a revenue d. as expense
1044. An intangible value which an actually operating concern has
due to its operation.
a. goodwill c. organization cost
b. franchise d. going value

1045. An annuity where the payments are made at the beginning of

each period.
a. ordinary annuity c. annuity due
b. deferred annuity d. perpetuity

1046. Any method of repaying a debt, the principal and the interest
included, usually by a series of equal payments at equal
interval of time.
a. amortization c. annuity
b. bond d. sinking fund

1047. It is any method of repaying a debt, the principal and interest

included, usually by a series of equal payments at equal
interval of time:
a. amortization c. annuity
b. discount d. depreciation

1048. The sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs of
replacement, operation and maintenance for a long time or
forever.
a. capitalized cost c. fixed cost
b. original cost d. marginal cost

1049. It is a method of calculating depreciation in which rate of

interest is needed:
a. sinking fund method
b. declining balance method
c. straight line method
d. sum of the years digit method

1050. The unrecovered depreciation results due to poor estimate of

the life of the equipment.
a. sunk cost c. in-place value
b. economic life d. annuity

1051. Money, which has been spent, or capital which has been
invested and which cannot be recovered due to certain
reasons.
a. sunk cost c. increment cost
 b. marginal cost d. variable cost

1052. The additional cost of producing one more unit of a product.

a. fixed cost c. variable cost
b. increment cost d. marginal cost

1053. The present worth of cost associated with an asset for an

infinite period of time is referred as
a. annual cost c. operating cost
b. incremental cost d. capitalized cost

1054. Type of depreciation which is due to the gradual extraction of

the contents of the property.
a. physical depreciation c. functional depreciation
b. depletion d. normal depreciation

1055. Bonds which have no security behind them other than the
assets of a corporation issuing them are known as
a. mortgage bonds c. amortization bonds
b. trust bonds d. debenture bonds

1056. A bond without any security behind it except a promise to pay

by the issuing corporation:
a. debenture bond c. mortgage bond
b. collateral bond d. registered bond

1057. The profit earned by a corporation are periodically distributed

to stockholders in the form of
a. shares c. dividends
b. stocks d. bonds

1058. It is the present worth of its probable future net earnings:

a. fair value c. total fair value
b. going concern value d. earning value

1059. It is the interest earning with equal deposits made at equal

interval of time.
a. amortization c. sinking fund
b. depletion d. dividends

1060. The first cost to be incurred if the place of equipment now in

place had been bought for a second hand dealer or some
other business:
 a. material cost c. fixed cost
b. first cost d. in-place value

1061. A loan that is discharged or repaid by a uniform series of

payments over its duration is said to be
a. funded c. depreciated
b. amortized d. bonded

1062. The gradual extinguishments for an amount in an account by

prorating such amount over a predetermined period, such as
the life of the asset or liability to which it applies:
a. depreciation c. collection
b. amortization d. compensation

1063. The wearing out of an asset due to its use and action of its
elements upon it is referred to as
a. depreciation c. depletion
b. devaluation d. inflation

1064. Which of the following is not a method of depreciating a plant

equipment for accounting and engineering economics
analysis?
a. Double-entry method c. Fixed percentage method
b. Sum-of-the-years digit d. Straight line method

1065. These funds that are required to make the enterprise or

project a going concern.
a. banking c. accumulated amount
b. working capital d. principal or present worth

1066. The length of time during which the property may be

operated at a profit.
a. length of time c. economic life
b. physical life d. life

1067. Worth of the property as shown in the accounting records of

enterprise.
a. fair value c. use value
b. market value d. book value

1068. Is the worth of the property as an operating unit:

a. use value c. fair value
b. scrap value d. book value
1069. Cost of things that is either labor or materials.
a. construction cost c. expenses
b. labor cost d. investment

1070. Gross profit, sale less cost of goods sold, as a percentage of

sales is called:
a. profit margin c. rate of interest
b. gross margin d. price earnings

1071. The series of equal payments at equal intervals of time.

a. depreciation c. interest
b. annuity d. amortization

1072. Profit margin ratio is the percentage of each peso of sales

that is net income and the profit margin is:
a. rate of return
b. net Income Owner’s Equity
c. net Income before taxes/ Net Sales
d. price Earnings

1073. The present worth of all depreciation over the economic life of
the item is called:
a. maintenance c. capital recovery
b. depreciation recovery d. annuity

1074. An index of short term paying ability is called:

a. current ratio c. receivable turn-over
b. acid test ratio d. profit margin ratio

1075. The amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller
for the property where each has equal advantage and is
under no compulsion to buy or sell.
a. utility value c. fair value
b. market value d. book value

1076. It is the price a buyer is willing to pay a willing seller for the
stock.
a. bond value c. market value
b. scrap value d. stock value

1077. Fall after the increase reaches a certain variable amount, this
is called:
a. the process factor
 b. inflation
c. the law of diminishing return
d. the law of supply and demand

1078. It is a sharp sudden increase in money or credit or both

without a corresponding increase in business transactions.
a. recession c. inflation
b. deflation d. subrogation

1079. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth:

a. balance method c. break-even point
b. balance sheet d. production

1080. It is the present worth of its probable future earnings.

a. total fair value c. going concern value
b. total net value d. earning value

1081. In a Queing process of customers in store, what type of

distribution most likely governs the time between consecutive
arrivals of customers?
a. a normal probability distribution
b. an exponential distribution
c. an uniform probability distribution
d. a binomial distribution

1082. The simplest and extensively employed method in computing

depreciation?
a. sinking fund c. straight line method
b. sum-of-the-years-digit d. fixed percentage method

1083. All the proceeds, which are required by the businessman as a

result of sale of goods.
a. net income c. net revenue
b. gross income d. total sales

1084. The original record of business transaction is recorded in this

book.
a. Workbook c. journal
b. Ledger d. account book

1085. Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate on

enterprise.
a. capital c. assets
b. funds d. liabilities
1086. It is the claim other than the owner upon the assets.
a. liability c. equity
b. bond d. proprietorship

1087. The difference between the present value and the work of
money at sometime in the future.
a. arithmetic progression c. deduction
b. discount d. inflation

1088. Is the worth of the property which is equal to the original cost
less than the amount which has been charged to depreciation.
a. Scrap Value c. Fair Value
b. Book Value d. Use Value

1089. Is the worth of the property as shown in the accounting

records.
a. Scrap Value c. Fair Value
b. Book Value d. Use Value

1090. What is a borrower of a particular loan almost always required

to do during repayments?
a. pay exactly the same amount of principal each
payment.
b. pay a different rate of interest after each payment.
c. pay exactly the same amount of interest each payment.
d. repay the loan over an agreed upon length of
time.

1091. What is an annuity?

a. the future worth of a present amount
b. an annual repayment of a loan
c. a series of uniform amounts over a period of time
d. a lump sum at the end of the year

1092. When using net present worth calculations to compare two

projects, which of the following could invalidate the
calculation?
a. differences in the magnitude of the projects
b. evaluating over different time periods
c. mutually exclusive projects
d. non-conventional cash flows
1093. What must two investments with the same present worth and
unequal lives have?
a. identical salvage value
b. different salvage value
c. identical equivalent uniform annual cash flows
d. different equivalent uniform annual cash flows

1094. Firm A using absorption costing while Firm B uses variable

product costing. How will the financial statements of these
companies differ?
a. Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold, and therefore, a
smaller profit
b. Firm A has a higher cost of goods sold, higher
inventory value, and higher retained earnings
c. Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold and a larger
profit
d. Firm A has a smaller cost of goods sold, no change in
inventory value and no change in retained earnings

1095. What is the acid test ratio?

a. the ratio of owner’s equity to total current liabilities
b. the ratio of all assets to total liabilities
c. the ratio of the current assets (exclusive of
inventory) to total current liabilities
d. the ratio of gross margin to operating, sales and
administrative expenses

1096. The difference between the starting and ending inventory

valuations, a term that represents as an inventory account
adjustments is called:
a. cost of goods sold
b. physical inventory system
c. perpetual inventory system
d. periodic inventory system

1097. The length of time, usually in years, for the cumulative net
annual profit to equal the initial investment is called:
a. receivable turnover c. return on investment
b. price earning ratio d. payback period

1098. On his 6th birthday, a boy is left with an inheritance. The

inheritance will be paid in a lump sum of Php. 10,000 on his
21st birthday. What is the present value of the inheritance as
 of the boy’s 6th birthday if the interest is compounded
annually? Assume I = 4%
a. Php. 6500 c. Php. 5500
b. Php. 8600 d. Php. 7500

1099. If you invest your money, which would you prefer?

a. 12% compounded monthly
b. 12% compounded b-monthly
c. 12% compounded daily
d. 12% compounded semi-annually

1100. BPI bank charges 1-½% per month on the unpaid balance for
purchases made on BPI Express Credit Card. What effective
interest rate is it charging?
a. 16% c. 19.56%
b. 17% d. 15%

1101. A new building is being considered to house some equipment.

The new building will reduce maintenance costs by $6,000 per
year for the first ten years and $3,000 per year thereafter.
Based on a 50-year analysis period, what building
construction cost can be justified? The justified construction
cost is closest to:
a. $50,000 c. $30,000
b. $90,000 d. $180,000

1102. A steam boiler is purchased on the basis of guaranteed

performance. A test indicates that the operating cost will be
$300 more per year than the manufacturer guaranteed. If the
expected life of the boiler is 20 years and money is worth 8%,
how much should the purchaser deduct from the purchase
price to compensate for the extra operating cost?
a. $ 3320 c. $ 4102
b. $2945 d. $ 5520

1103. A friend of yours purchased a new car, making 20% down

payment and agreed to make 24 monthly payments to settle
the balance. Interest on the unpaid balance was to be
charged at the rate of 1.5% per month. At the same time he
made his 10th monthly payment of 62,716.91 to settle the
remaining balance. If interest in the final settlement was at
the same rate as in the final transaction, what was the
purchase price of the car:
a. P 125,110 c. P 225,110
 b. P 155,110 d. P 200,110

1104. A bank pays one percent interest on savings accounts four

times a yr. the effective annual interest rate is:
a. 2.04% c. 1.00%
b. 3.96% d. 4.06%

1105. When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is

difficult to increase, increasing the other factors of production
will result in a less than proportional increase in output:
a. Law of demand
b. Law of supply
c. Law of supply and demand
d. Law of diminishing return

1106. A land development project costs P5,000.00 with the benefit

of P10,000,000 and disbenefits P1,500,000. What is the
benefit cost ratio?
a. 1.7 c. 1.5
b. 1.6 d. 2.0

1107. A 500 kW electric lighting cost P1000 per kW installed. Fixed

charges is 14%, operating cost is P1.50 per kW-hr. The plant
averages 150 kW for 5000 hrs. of the yr. 420 kW for 1000 hr.
and 20 kW for the reminder. What is the unit cost of
production of electric energy?
a. P 2.965/kWh c. P 4.965 kWh
b. P 6.95/kWh d. P 1.965 kWh

1108. The initial cost of machine is P 50,000 and its salvage value
after 10 years of operation is P 10,000. What will be its book
value after 5 years using straight-line depreciation?
a. P 22,300 c. P 28,500
b. P 16,400 d. P 30,000

1109. The president of the engineering firm wishes to give each of

his 50 employees a holiday bonus of P 1,000. How much
should be invest monthly for a year at 12% nominal interest
rate to be able to give that bonus?
a. P 4,170 c. P 2,070
b. P 3,840 d. P 3,940

1110. A lathe machine cost P 20,000 today and has an estimated

scrap value of P 2,000 after 8 years, the inflation per year is
 8%. Effective annual interest rate earned on money invested
is also 8%. How much money needs to be set aside each year
to buy an identical replacement machine 8 years from now?
a. P 3,000 c. P 2,970
b. P 3,290 d. P 3,510

1111. A pump costs P 10,000. If installed it will save the company P

2,000 per year and will have a salvage value of P 3,000 at the
end of ten years of useful life. The company plans to replace
the pump with identical ones every 10 years for 30 years.
Estimate the present worth of the entire 30 years of service
at 10% interest rate.
a. P 5,287.00 c. P 3,000.00
b. P 3,445.76 d. P 7,750.00

1112. An investment of P 350,000 is made, to be followed by

payments of P 200,000 each year for 3 years. What is the
annual rate of return on investment for the project?
a. 41.7% c. 57.1%
b. 32.7% d. 15%

1113. The annual maintenance cost of a machine shop is P 70,000.

If the cost of making a forging is P 56 and its selling price is P
125 per forged unit, find the number of units to be forged to
break even.
a. 1015 units c. 1100 units
b. 985 units d. 1000 units

1114. A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and

paid P 2,000 per annum for the first 4 years. What does he
have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay off his
loan?
a. P 6,918.28 c. P 6,074.00
b. P 5,674.00 d. P 3,926.00

1115. Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% accounts that yield 9.84%

annually. Find how often the interest is compounded?
a. daily c. bi-monthly
b. monthly d. quarterly

1116. A machine has initial cost of P 50,000 and salvage value of P

10,000 after 10 years. Find the book value after 5 years using
straight-line depreciation.
a. P 12,500 c. P 16,000
 b. P 30,000 d. P 22,000

1117. The maintenance cost for a sewing machine this year

expected to be P 500. The cost will increase P 50 each year
for the subsequent9 years. The interest is 8% compounded
annually. What is the approximate present worth of
maintenance for the machine over the full 10 years?
a. P 4,700 c. P 5, 300
b. P 4, 300 d. P 5, 500

1118. Mr. Cruz plans to deposit for the education of his 5 years old
son, P 500 at the end of each month for 10 years at 12%
annual interest compounded monthly. The money that will be
available in two years is:
a. P 13,000 c. P 13,500
b. P 14,500 d. P 14,000

1119. A P 1000 face-value bond pays dividend of P 110 at the end

of each year. If the bond matures in 20 years, what is the
approximate bond value at an invest of 12% per year
compound annually?
a. P 1000 c. P 800
b. P 930 d. P 1820

1120. Which plan is the least expensive way to purchase plant

maintenance equipment? The discount rate is 11%.
Plan A: P 50,000 down, equal payments of P 25,115.12
for 20 years
Plan B: nothing down, equal payments of P 31,393.91 for
20 years
Plan C: P 100,000 down, equal payments of P 21,975.74
for 20 years
a. Plan A or B c. Plan C
b. Plan A or B or C d. Plan B

1121. A small machine has an initial cost of P 20,000, a salvage

value of P 2,000 and a life of 10 years. If your cost of
operation per year is P 3,500 and your revenues per year is P
9,000, what is the approximately rate return (ROR) on the
investment?
a. 25.0% c. 23.9%
b. 22.5% d. 24.8%
Ans: 18.5%
1122. What rate of interest compounded annually must be received
if an investment of P 5,400 made now will result in a receipt
of P 7,200 five years hence?
a. 2.85% c. 4.75%
b. 5.92% d. 3.65%

1123. A man borrowed P 20,000 from a local commercial bank

which has a simple interest of 16% but the interest is to be
deducted from the loan at the time that the money was
borrowed and the loan is payable at the end of year. How
much is the actual rate of interest?
a. 12% c. 10%
b. 14% d. 19%

1124. A P 10,000 loan is taken out. It is to be paid at the rate of P

200 per month, with an annual effective interest ate of
19.56% charged against the unpaid balance. What principal
remains to be paid after the third payment?
a. P 9511 c. P 9763
b. P 9400 d. P 9848

1125. A manufacturer desires to set aside a certain sum of money

to provide funds to cover the yearly operating expenses and
the cost of replacing every year the dies of stamping machine
is used in making radio chassis as model changes for a period
of 10 years.
Operating Cost per year = P500
Cost of Die = P1,200
Salvage value = P600
The money will be deposited in a savings account earning 6%
interest. Determine the sum of money that must be
deposited, including the cost of initial die
a. P 9,796.10 c. P 8,096.10
b. P 9,296.10 d. P 8,296.10

1126. An irrigation pump costing P10,000 is to be paid equal at the

end of year payment for 5 years, with 8% interest
compounded annually. What must be the annual payment?
a. P5,420.56 c. P2,504.56
b. P4,205.56 d. P2,405.56

1127. An asphalt and aggregated mixing plant having a capacity of

50cu.m every hour costs P2,500,000. It is estimated to
process 800,000 cu.m. during its life. During a certain year it
 is processed 60,000 cu.m. It its scrap value is P100,000,
determine the total depreciation during the year and the
depreciation cost chargeable to each batch of 50 cu.m. using
production units method.
a. P160 c. P180
b. P120 d. P150

1128. The original cost of a certain piece of equipment is P 150,000

and it is depreciated by a 10% sinking fund method.
Determine the annual depreciation charge if the book value f
the equipment after 10 years is the same as it had been
depreciated at P 14,000 each year by straight line formula.
a. P 7,843.35 c. P 8,748.36
b. P 8,784.36 d. P 7,858.35

1129. A promissory note with a maturity value of P 32,000 is due 3

years from now. What is the discount value of the note of this
noted base on an interest rate of 8%?
a. P 24, 305 c. P 20, 543
b. P 25, 403 d. P 23, 045

1130. A gasoline is available on installment basis with a down

payment of P 8,000 and P 1,000 at the end of each month for
one year. What is the cash price of the engine if interest is set
at 6% compounded monthly?
a. P 29,758.53 c. P 19,658.35
b. P 19,618.93 d. P 29,718.78

1131. To develop on oil well containing 2,000,000 barrels of oil

requires an initial investment of P 30,000,000. In a certain
year 400,000 barrels of oil were produced from this well.
Determine the depletion charge during the year.
a. P 6,000,000 c. P 3,000,000
b. P 4,000,000 d. P 5,000,000

1132. A debt of P 100,000 is to be discharged by ten semi-annual

payments, the first to be made 6 months after the loan is
given. The debt will be discharged by 5 equal payments each
P 10,000 and by 5 other equal payments of such amount that
the final payment will liquidate the debt. If interest is 12%
compounded semi-annually, what is the amount of the last 5
payments?
 a. P 16,386.74 c. P 22,956.44
b. P 18,386.74 d. P 18,584.36

1133. A bond with a par value of P1,000 will mature n years with a
bond rate of 8% payable annually. It is to be redeemed at par
at the end of this period. If it is sold at P1,050, determine the
yield at this price?
a. 5.05% c. 7.07%
b. 6.06% d. 4.04%

1134. A bond with a par value of P1,000 and with a bond rate of 9%
payable annually is to be redeemed at P1,050 at the end of 6
years from now. If it is sold now, what should be the selling
price to yield 8%?
a. P1,077.74 c. P 107.74
b. P 7,101.54 d. P 395.86

1135. To maintain a machine with a 15 year life. The following

outlays are needed: P 3,000 at the end of the 5 th year, P
4,500 at end of the 9th year, and P 4,000 at the end of the
12th year. If the money is worth 7% compounded annually;
determine the equivalent uniform annual maintenance cost of
the structure for the 15 year period.
a. P 698.60 c. P 215.40
b. P 705.80 d. P 850.25

1136. The original cost of a certain piece of equipment is P150,000

and it is depreciated by a 10% sinking fund method.
Determine the annual depreciation charge if the book value of
the equipment after 10 years is the same as if it had
depreciated at P14,000 each year by straight-line formula.
a. P8,784.36 c. P8,748.36
b. P7,858.35 d. P7,858.35

1137. Supposed a man receives an initial annual salary of P60,000

increasing at the rate P5,000 a year. If money is worth 10%,
determine his equivalent uniform salary for a period of 8
years.
a. P320,095.57 c. P80,143.36
b. P72,359.48 d. P75,022.39

1138. A gasoline engine is available on installment basis with a

downpayment of P8,000 and P1,000 at the end of each month
 for one year. What is the cash price of the engine if the
interest is set at 6% compounded monthly.
a. P29,758.53 c. P19,658.35
b. P19,618.93 b. P29,718.74

1139. A dam was constructed for P200,000,000. The annual

maintenance cost is P100,000. It interest is 5% the
capitalized cost of the dam, including maintenance, is:
a. P303M c. 202M
b. P101M d. 404M

1140. The capitalized cost of a piece of equivalent was found to be

P142,000. The rate of interest used in the computations was
125, with a salvage value of P10,000 at the end of a service
life of 8 years. Assuming that the cost of perpetual
replacement remains constant, determine the original cost of
the equipment.
a. P88,687.42 c. 85,488.42
b. 95,625.84 d. P80,425.22

1141. A certain machine is offered on installment basis with a down

payment of PHP 5,000 and with payments of PHP2,000
payable at the end of every 3 months for two years. If the
money is worth 8% compounded quarterly, what is the
equivalent cash price of the machine?
a. PHP 17,050.42 c. PHP 19,650.96
b. PHP 18,040.22 d. PHP 21,080.40

1142. The VCP trading Co. set aside PHP 200,000 each year for
expansion. If the fund earns 8% compounded annually, how
long will it take before a new building costing PHP 2,500,000
can be built?
a. 10 years c. 9 years
b. 8 years d. 12 years

1143. A company must relocate one of his factories in three years.

Equipment for the loading dock is being considered for
purchase. The original cost is P20,000.00 the salvage value of
the equipment after three years is P8,000.00. The company’s
rate of return (i) on money is 10%. Determine the capital
recovery rate per year.
a. P5115 c. P5625
b. P4945 d. P4805
1144. A young man has decided to go into business at age 40. He
wishes to accumulate P200,00 at that age. On his twenty-fifth
birthday he deposits a certain amount will increase the
deposit by 10% each year until the fortieth year, if the funds
can be invested at 9.6% compounded annually, how much
should his initial investment be?
a. P3,704.82 c. P3,407.82
b. P3,074.82 d. P3,740.82

1145. A back-pay certificate is offered for sale on which the yearly

payments are PHP 996.00, partly principal and partly interest.
There are 8 annual payment still due. The first of these is due
one year from now. How much should one pay for this note in
order to get 5 percent interest, compounded annually, on the
investment.
a. PHP 8,500.55 c. PHP 5,980.15
b. PHP 7,585.20 d. PHP 6,437.36

1146. The year-end operating and maintenance cost of a certain

machine are estimated to be P 12,000 the first year and to
increase by P 2,500 each year during it’s 4-yearlife. If the
capital is worth 12% determine the equivalent uniform year-
end costs.
a. P 12,584.15 c. P 14,358.16
b. P 15,397.13 d. P 16,452.18

1147. A certain machinery costs P 50,000, last 12 years with a

salvage value of P 5,000. Money is worth 5%. If the owner
decides to sell it after using it for five year, what should his
price be so that he will not lose or gain financially in the
transaction?
a. P 34,578.75 c. P 44,578.67
b. P 34,378.25 d. P 44,378.01

1148. An electrical motor has a cash price of PHP 8,000. It can also
be bought on installment basis with a down payment of PHP
2,000 and with periodic equal payment at the end of every 6
months for 5 years. If interest is fixed at 8% compounded
semi-annually, how much is each periodic payment?
a. PHP 793.75 c. PHP 973.75
b. PHP 739.75 d. PHP 379.75
HYDRAULICS

1149. The science of the mechanics of liquid and gases and is based
on the same fundamental principles that are employed in the
mechanics of solids is known as:
a. fluid mechanics c. hydrology
b. hydrography d. thermodynamics

1150. The three branches of fluid mechanics are:

 a. fluid statics, kinematics, and fluid dynamics
b. hydrostatics, hydrology, and hydrodynamics
c. statics, hydrodynamics, and hydrology
d. none of these

1151. The study of mechanics of fluids at rest.

a. fluid statics c. hydrodynamics
b. kinematics d. hydrology

1152. The study of mechanics of fluid that is concerned with the

relations between velocities and accelerations and the forces
exerted by or upon fluids in motion.
a. fluid dynamics c. kinetics
b. hydrostatics d. hydrology

1153. The study of mechanics of fluids which deals with velocities

and steam lines without considering forces or energy.
a. fluid statics c. hydrodynamics
b. kinematics d. hydrology
1154. Where does the Moody diagram for friction factors for pipe
flow come from?
a. calculations based on potential flow
b. theoretical solutions of the Navier-Stokes equation
c. experimental results for non-viscous fluids
d. experimental results for viscous fluids

1155. Fluid properties play the principal role in fluid mechanics. In

fluid statics weight is the important property. In fluid flow, the
predominant properties are:
a. density and viscosity
b. pressure and temperature
c. dpecific gravity and temperature coefficient
d. pressure, volume and temperature

1156. The locus of the elevations to which water will rise in the
piezometer tube is termed
a. energy gradient c. friction head
b. hydraulic gradient d. critical depth

1157. The external pressure applied to a confined fluid increases the

pressure of every point in the fluid by an amount equal to the
external pressure. This is known as
a. Archimedes’ principle c. Torricelli’s theorem
b. Bernoulli’s theorem d. Pascal’s law
1158. Weight per unit volume is termed as
a. specific weight c. density
b. weight density d. pressure

1159. The unit of absolute viscosity is:

a. m²/s c. Pa-s
b. Pa/s² d. Ps

1160. This is the property, which determines the amount of its

resistance to a shearing force. It is due primarily to
interaction between fluid molecules.
a. friction factor c. Manning’s coefficient, m
b. viscosity d. Kutter’s coefficient, n

1161. Kinematic coefficient of viscosity is defined

a. as the ratio of the absolute viscosity to the mass
density
b. as the ratio of the mass density to the absolute
viscosity
c. to be directly proportional to velocity
d. to be inversely proportional to velocity

1162. The speed with which a liquid escapes from a vessel through
an orifice is given by
a. Archimedes’ principle c. Torrecelli’s theorem
b. Bernoulli’s theorem d. Flow equation

1163. Flows that are unsteady, with rapid and seemingly random
instantaneous variations in flow variables such as velocity and
pressures over time and space.
a. turbulent flow c. Brownian
b. vortice d. gust

1164. Flow which has gradual and regular variations over time and
space, with little mixing occurring between liquid elements.
a. turbulent c. laminar flow
b. streamline d. Bernoulli

1165. Fluid flow in which the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent
layers and the paths of the individual particles do not cross,
the flow is said to be:
a. turbulent c. critical
b. uniform d. laminar flow
1166. The unit of kinematic viscosity is
a. m²/s c. Pa-s
b. Pa/s² d. m/s

1167. An instrument that measures density.

a. manometer c. hydrometer
b. barometer d. hydraulic meter

1168. The sum of the pressure head and the elevation head is
called:
a. isoparametric c. piezometric head
b. Potential d. venturi

1169. Is the depth above channel floor in open channels for

minimum potential plus kinetic energy for the volume flow
rate the channel delivers. Tranquil flow (at low kinetic energy,
and high potential energy) exists above this depth, and rapid
flow (at high kinetic energy and low potential energy) exists
below this depth.
a. critical depth c. hydraulic jump
b. hydraulic hammer d. hydraulic gradient

1170. In a turbulent flow, Reynolds’ number is:

a. <2000 c. <1000
b. >100,000 d. >2000

1171. At or below critical velocity in a small pipe or at very low

velocities, the loss of head due to friction
a. can be ignored
b. is definitely large
c. varies directly as the velocity
d. equals the velocity head

1172. It is the increased pressure developed on impact with a pilot

tube as a result of localized kinetic energy reduction to zero.
a. critical pressure c. hydraulic hammer
b. stagnation pressure d. critical depth

1173. The quantity v²/ 2g where v is the magnitude of the velocity

at any point on the streamline and g is the gravitational
acceleration is known as:
a. piezometric head c. potential head
b. pressure head d. velocity head
1174. Is a measure of the relative importance of inertia forces to
viscous forces. At sufficient high values, flows become
turbulent.
a. Froude’s number c. Reynolds’ number
b. Weber’s number d. Moody’s number

1175. Measures the relative importance of inertia to gravitational

forces. It plays an essential role in flow phenomena involving
a free surface in a gravitational field.
a. Froude’s number c. Reynolds’ number
b. Weber’s number d. Moody’s number

1176. Water flowing in a pipe enters a horizontal venturi tube whose

throat area is one-fourth that of the beginning (before the
nozzle) and the final (after the diffuser) cross-sections.
Continuity and energy conservation requires that:
a. pressure at the throat is increased
b. velocity at the throat is decreased
c. potential energy at the throat is decreased
d. the flow energy at the throat is decreased

1177. Absolute viscosity of a fluid varies with temperature and is

defined as a function of:
a. density and shear stress
b. shear stress and angular deformation rate
c. density and angular deformation rate
d. shear stress and density

1178. Untwisted hemp rope impregnated with oil, used to caulk bell
and spigot type of pipe joints.
a. oakum c. abaca
b. banana hemp d. coconut coir

1179. The height of a column of homogenous fluid that will produce

a given intensity of pressure is called:
a. elevation head c. potential head
b. fluid head d. pressure head

1180. The hydraulic radius of an open channel section is defined as:

a. cross-sectional area divided by the wetted
perimeter
b. wetted perimeter divided by the cross-sectional area
 c. cross-sectional area divided by the total perimeter of
the channel
d. the radius of a circle of equivalent area

1181. These are devices that use liquid columns to determine

differences in pressure.
a. anemometer c. venturi meter
b. manometer d. barometer

1182. A structure in a channel having a narrow throat and a raised

floor at the bottom that is used for measuring a discharge is
called a:
a. venturi flume c. partial flume
b. wave flume d. raised flume

1183. The flow that occurs when the velocity is larger than the
critical velocity and the depth is smaller than the critical
depth.
a. sub-critical c. normal
b. abnormal d. super critical

1184. The flow is said to be sub-critical if the Froude’s number

which is v/C where v is the average velocity and C = √gy and
y is the depth of flow, is:
a. 1 c. <1
b. <0 d. >1

1185. The flow is said to be critical if the Froude,s number which is

v/C where v is the average velocity and C = √gy an y is the
depth of flow, is:
a. 1 c. <1
b. >1 d. <0

1186. This graphically presents the relationship of pipes among the

dimensionless parameters: friction factor (f), Reynolds’
Number (Re), and surface roughness e/D.
a. Moody diagram c. Bernoulli’s equation
b. Hazen-Williams formula d. Chezy formula

1187. This is an empirical equation used in the solution of piping

networks in the form v = 1.318 C1R0.63 S0.54 where:
C1 = a coefficient of relative roughness
R = hydraulic radius in feet
 S = slope of the hydraulic gradient in
ft-lbf/lbm
ft length
v = velocity in ft/sec.
a. Chezy formula
b. Manning formula
c. Hazen-Williams formula
d. Darcy-Weisbach formula

1188. This formula applies to steady flow in open channels, and is in

the form: v = C√RS where:
v = velocity
C = an empirical coefficient
R = hydraulic radius
S = slope of the
hydraulic gradient
a. Manning’s formula c. Chezy formula
b. Hazen-Williams formula d. Darcy-Weisbach formula

1189. What is the value of Reynolds’ number for water to be

laminar?
a. <2100 c. >2100
b. <3000 d. >3000

1190. The relative roughness of a pipe is dependent on:

a. absolute roughness of the interior surface
b. diameter
c. length
d. a and b

1191. In the flow of fluid through and constriction in a pressure

conduit, which statement is true?
a. the pressure will decrease
b. the flow will run turbulent
c. the pressure will increase
d. a and c
1192. In pipe networks, which statement(s) must be satisfied?
a. the algebraic sum of the pressure drops around in any
close loop must be zero
b. the algebraic sum of the head loss around in a close
loop must be zero
c. the flow entering a junction must equal to the flow
leaving
d. a and c
1193. The hydraulic radius of a pipe with a diameter of 12mm is
a. 3mm c. 12mm
b. 6mm d. 4mm

1194. Which has the highest head loss coefficient among the
following types of entrance?
a. Reentrant c. bell mouth
b. square edge d. they are the same

1195. The term e/D is known as:

a. relative roughness c. absolute roughness
b. roughness coefficient d. roughness formula

1196. What is the term for a pipe carrying the flow of the canal of
sewer across a depression?
a. inverted siphon c. tuberculation
b. water hammer d. fluistors

1197. Which type of valve will open automatically at a

predetermined pressure?
a. pressure relief valve c. check valve
b. air inlet valve d. pressure regulating valve

1198. It is a water supply that uses natural flow from an elevated

tank or mountain reservoir to supply pressure.
a. gravity distribution c. wet well
b. depression storage d. dimple spring

1199. Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s law of fluid
flow?
a. the principle of conservation of mass
b. the principle of conservation of energy
c. the continuity equation of energytion
d. none of the above

1200. What is the absolute velocity of a real fluid at a surface?

a. the same as the bulk fluid velocity
b. the velocity of the surface
c. proportional to the smoothless of the surface
d. proportional to the kinematic viscosity of the fluid

1201. Ideal flow is:

 a. frictionless and incompressible
b. one which obeys Newton’s law of viscosity
c. a useful assumption in problems
d. very viscous

1202. Kinematic viscosity may be expressed as:

a. ft² /sec c. sec²/ft
b. slug-sec²/ft d. slugs/sec

1203. At constant pressure, P, all of the following statements about

flow rate, Q, in turbulent flow in a pipe are true, except:
a. Q varies approximately as diameter, D
b. Q decreases as pipe surface roughness ratio, e/D,
increases
c. Q decreases as pipe length, L, increases
d. Q varies as velocity, v

1204. The vena contracta of a sharp a sharp edged hydraulic orifice

usually occurs:
a. at the geometric center of the orifice
b. at a distance of about 10% of the orifice diameter
upstream from the plane of the orifice
c. at a distance equal to about two orifice diameter
downstream from the plane of the orifice
d. at a distance equal to about one-half orifice
diameter downstream from the plane of the
orifice

1205. On doubling the speed, N, of a centrifugal pump, all of the

following are true except:
a. head, H, is increased by a factor of 4
b. horsepower, P, is increased by a factor of 8
c. bolume flow rate, Q, is increased by a factor of 2
d. head, horsepower, and the volume flow rate are
independent variables

1206. Cavitation is the result of:

a. static pressure in a fluid becoming less than the
fluid vapor pressure
b. rivets under impact load
c. exposure of the concrete to salt water
d. head treatment of a low carbon steel

1207. The hydraulic formula CA = √2gh is used to find the:

 a. quantity of the discharge through an orifice
b. velocity of flow of a closed conduit
c. length of pipe in a closed network
d. friction factor of a pipe

1208. In a system of pipes in series, the

a. flows are equal
b. head losses are equal
c. velocities are equal
d. friction coefficient are equal

1209. In a system of pipes in parallel, the

a. head loss are equal c. discharges are equal
b. velocities are equal d. diameters are equal

1210. In pressure flow, the hydraulic grade in line is:

a. above the pipe c. non-existent
b. at the invert d. at the water surface

1211. In the design for waterways, the “hydraulic jump” is

sometimes used for:
a. energy dissipation
b. prevention of sedimentation
c. elimination of turbulence
d. reduction of head loss

1212. Viscosity of fluid is sometimes called:

a. coefficient of viscosity c. dynamic viscosity
b. absolute viscosity d. all of these

1213. Reynolds’ number is equal to the ratio of:

a. inertia forces to viscous forces
b. inertia forces to elastic forces
c. inertia forces to gravity forces
d. inertia forces to pressure forces

1214. Froude’s number is equal to the ratio of:

a. inertia forces to viscous forces
b. inertia forces to elastic forces
c. inertia forces to gravity forces
d. inertia forces to pressure forces

1215. Mach number is equal to the ratio of:

 a. inertia forces to elastic forces
b. inertia forces to viscous forces
c. inertia forces to pressure forces
d. inertia forces to gravity forces

1216. Euler’s number is equal to the ratio of:

a. inertia forces to pressure forces
b. inertia forces to elastic forces
c. inertia forces to gravity forces
d. inertia forces to viscous forces

1217. Weber number is equal to the ratio of:

a. inertia forces to viscous forces
b. inertia forces to elastic forces
c. inertia forces to surface tension
d. inertia forces to pressure forces

1218. A widely used unit for viscosity is the “poise” which is equal
to:
a. 0.01 N-S/m² c. 0.10 N-S/m²
b. 0.001 N-S/m² d. 0.0001 N-S/m²

1219. In experimental fluid mechanics, a die or other tracer is

frequently injected into the flow to trace the motion of the
fluid particles. If the flow is laminar, a ribbon of colors results.
This is called;
a. streak or filament line c. stream line
b. path line d. spatial line

1220. Under very slow deformation and at high temperature, it is

possible to have some plastic flow in a crystal at a shear
stress lower than the critical shear stress. What is this
phenomenon called?
a. slip c. twinning
b. creep d. bending

1221. Which of the following is not a basic component of motion of a

fluid element?
a. translation c. rotation
b. angular distortion d. twist

1222. A type of flow in which the velocity is the same in both

magnitude and direction at a given instant at every point in
the fluid.
 a. uniform flow c. steady flow
b. viscous flow d. laminar flow

1223. A type of flow in which all conditions at any point in a stream

remain constant with respect to time but that conditions may
be different at different points.
a. steady flow c. uniform flow
b. rotational flow d. sub-critical flow

1224. For a fluid, viscosity is defined as the constant of

proportionality between shear stress and what other variable?
a. the time derivative of pressure
b. the time derivative of density
c. the spatial derivative of velocity
d. the spatial derivative of density

1225. The Mach number is the ratio of the inertia to the elastic
forces or the ratio of the fluid velocity to that of a sound wave
in the same medium. If the value of the Mach number is less
than one, the flow is called:
a. subsonic flow c. sonic flow
b. supersonic flow d. hypersonic flow

1226. When the Mach number (ratio of fluid velocity to that of the
sound wave) is equal to one, the flow is called:
a. sonic flow c. subsonic flow
b. supersonic flow d. hypersonic flow

1227. Which of the following describes shear stress in a moving

fluid?
a. it is proportional to the absolute viscosity
b. it is proportional to the velocity gradient at the point of
interest
c. it is non-existent
d. both a and b

1228. When the Mach number is extremely high, the flow is called
a. hypersonic flow c. supersonic flow
b. subsonic flow d. sonic flow

1229. When the Mach number is greater than one, the flow is said
to be:
a. supersonic flow c. sonic flow
b. subsonic flow d. hypersonic flow
1230. The machine that is employed for converting the energy of
flow in a pipeline into mechanical work is called:
a. Turbine c. pump
b. Nozzle d. hydraulic ram

1231. It is defined as the speed of homologous rotating element of

such diameter that it develops unit power to a unit head.
a. specific speed c. average speed
b. turbine speed d. peripheral speed

1232. Which of the following is not true regarding the Blasius

boundary layer solution?
a. it is valid only for potential flow
b. it is valid in laminar flow
c. it is an approximate solution
d. it permits one to calculate the skin friction on a flat
plate

1233. In the complete turbulence zone,

a. the friction factor is dependent on the relative
roughness
b. the rough and smooth pipes have the same friction
factor
c. the friction factor depends upon the Reynolds’ number
only
d. the head loss varies as the square of velocity

1234. Mach number is significant in the case of:

a. full immersion or completely enclosed flow, such as with
pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles, etc.
b. simultaneous motion through two fluids
c. a surface of discontinuity, gravity forces, and wave
making effects, as with ship’s hull
d. supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion

1235. Hydraulic jump is used to

a. increase the flow rate
b. reduce the flow rate
c. reduce the velocity of flow
d. reduce the energy of flow

1236. The pilot tube is a device used for measurement of

 a. Pressure c. velocity
b. Flow d. discharge

1237. Hydrometer is used to find out

a. relative humidity
b. specific gravity of gases
c. specific gravity of solids
d. specific gravity of liquids

1238. The fluid forces taken into consideration in the Navier Strokes
equation are
a. gravity, pressure and turbulence
b. pressure, viscous and turbulence
c. gravity, viscous and turbulence
d. gravity, pressure and viscous

1239. Permissible velocity of water flowing through concrete tunnel

is generally
a. 20 m/sec c. 10-12 m/sec
b. 13-16 m/sec d. 4-5 m/sec

1240. Orifice refers to an opening

a. with closed perimeter and of regular form through
which water flows
b. with prolong sides having length of 2 to 3 diameters of
opening in thick wall
c. with partially full flow
d. in hydraulic structure with regulation provision

1241. The value of coefficient of discharge in comparison to

coefficient of velocity is found to be
a. more
b. less
c. same
d. more or less depending on flow

1242. Weir refers to an opening

a. with closed perimeter and of regular form through
which water flows
b. with prolong sides having length of 2 to 3 diameters of
opening in thick wall
c. with partially full flow
d. in hydraulic structure with regulation provision
1243. Select the parameters that determine the friction factor of
turbulent flow in a rough pipe.
a. Froude’s number and relative roughness
b. Froude’s number and Mach number
c. Reynolds’ number and relative roughness
d. Mach number and relative roughness

1244. If d=diameter of nozzle, D=diameter of pipe, l=length of pipe

and f=Darcy’s coefficient of friction for pipe, then the
maximum power transmission will occur if d is equal to
a. |D5/(8fl)|3/4 c. |D5/(8fl)|1/2
b. |D5/(8fl)|1/3 d. |D5/(8fl)|1/4

1245. Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when the loss

of head due to fiction is
a. one-half of the total head supplied
b. one-third of the total head supplied
c. one-fourth of the total head supplied
d. equal of the total head supplied

1246. For a six compression of air set, the minimum work conditions
are
a. pressure rise per stage will be equal
b. work done in successive stages will be in geometric
progression
c. cylinder volumes will be the same
d. temperature rise in cylinder will be the same

1247. In case of steam engine, the cut-off ratio is the ratio of

a. pressure at cut-off supply pressure
b. pressure at cut-off to exhaust pressure
c. pressure at cut-off mean effective pressure
d. fraction of piston stroke which the piston has
traveled when cut-off occurs

1248. The reason for insulating the pipes are

a. they may not break under pressure
b. there is minimum corrosion
c. capacity to withstand pressure is increased
d. heat loss from the surface is minimized
1249. In case of axial flow compressors for minimum fluid friction
and blade tip clearance losses, the blades of an axial flow
compressor are designed for
a. 80% reaction c. 60% reaction
b. 85% reaction d. 53% reaction

1250. Summation of all the heads in another section:

a. Boyle’s Law c. Bernoulli’s Principle
b. Archimedes’ Principle d. Torrecelli’s Principle

1251. Theoretical horsepower required to pump water at 100

gallons per minute from a large reservoir to the surface of
another large reservoir 400 ft. higher is nearest to:
a. 10 hp c. 18 hp
b. 35 hp d. 6 hp

1252. A waterfall is 60 meters high. It discharges at a constant rate

of 1.0 cu. m/sec. S mini-hydro electric plant is to be
constructed below waterfalls. If the turbine efficiency is 80%
and the generator efficiency is 95%, calculate the kW output
of the generator:
a. 865 KW c. 850 KW
b. 845 KW d. 860 KW

1253. A 12 inch inside diameter circular duct has been flowing at

given suction with an average velocity of 1000 ft. per minute.
Determine the quantity of air flowing in cfm:
a. None of these c. 785.4
b. 685.4 d. 585.4

1254. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. steady flows do not change with time at any point
b. Bernoulli’s equation only holds on the same streamline
c. The Reynold’s number is the ration of the viscous
force to the inertial force
d. For a fluid at rest, the pressure is equal in all lateral
direction.

1255. Absolute viscosity of a fluid varies with pressure and

temerature and is defined as a function of:
a. density and angular deformation rate
b. density and shear stress
c. shear stress and angular deformation rate
d. density, shear stress and angular deformation rate
1256. Viscosity for a fluid, is defined as the constant of
proportionality between shear stress and what other variable?
a. The spatial derivative of velocity
b. The time derivative of pressure
c. The time derivative of density
d. The spatial derivative of density

1257. An opening is made at the bottom of a dam 144 ft high. Find

the approximate velocity of the water that will flow through
the opening if friction is neglected.
a. 45 ft/sec c. 96 ft/sec
b. 900 ft/sec d. 750 ft/sec

1258. A pump requires 100 hp to move water with a specific gravity

of 1.0 at a certain flow rate to a given elevation. What
horsepower does the pump require if the flow rate and
elevation conditions are the same but the fluid pumped has a
specific gravity of 0.8?
a. 80 hp c. 60 hp
b. 100 hp d. 120 hp

1259. Find the mass flow rate of a liquid (p = 0.690 g/cm 3) flowing
through a 5 cm (inside diameter) at 8.3 m/sec?
a. 69 kg/sec c. 340 kg/sec
b. 140 kg/sec d. 11 kg/sec

1260. A 70% efficient pump pumps 60 degrees C water from ground

level to a height of 5 meters. How much power is used if the
flow rate is 103 m3/sec?
a. 80 kW c. 700 kW
b. 220 kW d. 950 kW

1261. Absolute viscosity is essentially independent of pressure and

is primarily dependent on.
a. specific gravity c. velocity
b. density d. temperature

1262. Water flows to a horizontal pipe of cross-sectional area 10

cm2. At one section the cross-sectional area is 5 cm 2.The
pressure difference between the sections is 300 N/m 2. How
many cubic meters of water will flow out of the pipe in 1
minute?
 a. 0.0868 m3 c. 0.5268 m3
b. 0.0268 m3 d. 0.1268 m3

1263. The runner in a turbine is 70 cm in diameter. The wheel

develops 410 kW when turning at 600 rpm under a head of
43 m. What is the specific speed of the turbine?
a. 24.3 c. 29.3
b. 26.5 d. 28.9

1264. A turbine uses 100,000 lbm/hr of steam which enters with an

enthalpy of 1400 BTU/lbm and essentially zero entrance
velocity. 10,000 horsepower are developed. The exit velocity
of the steam is 500 fps. Expansion is adiabatic. What is the
exit enthalpy?
a. 1140.5 BTU/lbm c. 1280.9 BTU/lbm
b. 1250.6 BTU/lbm d. 1120.8 BTU/lbm

1265. A 15’ diameter tank discharges 150°F water through a sharp

edged 1” diameter orifice (cd = 0.62). If the original water
depth is 12’ and the tank is continually pressurized to 50 psig,
find the time to empty the tank.
a. 117.25 min c. 227.85 min
b. 127.35 min d. 112.25 min

1266. Water flows through a perfect nozzle in the side of a water

tank. The water level is constant at 20 ft. What height should
the nozzle be located to make the stream flow a maximum
horizontal distance before the water strikes the ground?
a. y = 5 ft c. y = 15 ft
b. y = 10 ft d. y = 20 ft

1267. Water flows in a pipe of varying cross-sectional area. At

section where the pipe has a diameter of 5 cm, the velocity of
the water is 5m/csec. What is the velocity of the water at a
section of the pipe where the diameter is 10 cm?
a. 1.25 m/sec c. 1.3 m/sec
b. 2.0 m/sec d. 1.4m/sec

1268. It is required to pump water at 100 gal/min from a large

reservoir to the surface of another reservoir 400 feet higher.
What is the horsepower of the motor to drive the pump, if the
efficiency of the pump is 70%
a. 14.44 hp c. 12.44 hp
b. 13.22 hp d. 10.44 hp
1269. A pipe necks down from 24 inches at point A to 12 inches at
point B. The discharge is 8 ft3/sec in the direction of A to B.
The pressure head at A is 20 feet. Assume no friction. Find
the resultant force and its direction on the fluid if water is
flowing.
a. 3881.6 lbf from B to A c. 2896.8 lbf from B to A
b. 3381.6 lbf from A to B d. 2896.6 lbf from A to B

1270. A pump adds 550 feet of pressure head to 100 lbm/sec of

water. What is the hydraulic power in horsepower?
a. 200 hp c. 100 hp
b. 150 hp d. 300 hp

1271. A hemispherical shell with base horizontal and uppermost is

filled with water. If the radius is 8 ft. Determine the time
required to empty through a sharp edge orifice of 6 inches in
diameter with C = 0.6 and located at the lowest point?
a. 10.2 min c. 9.35 min
b. 11.1 min d. 8.90 min

1272. A pump is required to lift 200 gallons of water per minute

from a well 20 ft deep and reject it with a speed of 30 ft/sec.
What horsepower engine is needed?
a. 2.50 hp c. 1.72 hp
b. 5.6 hp c. 1.54 hp

1273. A pump adds 550 feet of pressure head to 100 lbm/sec of

water. What is the hydraulic power in horsepower?
a. 100 hp c. 200 hp
b. 150 hp d. 300 hp

1274. A centrifugal pump operating at 1800 rpm develops a total

head of 200 feet (60 m) at a flow rate of 320 ft 3 (9 m3) per
minute. What is the specific speed?
a. 1480 c. 1620
b. 1671 d. 1870

1275. At a certain point in a horizontal pipeline gauge pressure is

0.5 x 105 N/m2 at another point gauge pressure is 0.3 x 10 5
N/m2. If the areas of the pipe at these points are 20 cm 2 and
10 cm2, respectively. Compute the numbers of cubic meters
 of water which flow across any cross section of the pipe per
minute.
a. 0.75 c. 0.575
b. 0.438 d. 0.83

1276. What is the maximum height that a vacuum pump can lift
60°F water if the atmospheric pressure is 14.6 psia and local
gravity is 28 ft/sec2?
a. 28.07 ft c. 56.07 ft
b. 47.07 ft d. 38.07 ft

1277. A pump operating at 1770 rpm delivers 500 gal/min against a

total of 200 feet. Changes in the piping system have
increased the total head to 375 feet. At what rpm should this
pump be operated to achieve this new head at the same
efficiency?
a. 5454 rpm c. 6464 rpm
b. 2424 rpm d. 3434 rpm

1278. A reaction turbine with a motor efficiency of 890% operates

on a total of 40 feet. If the turbine turns at 750 rpm, what is
the specific speed?
a. 4.50 c. 7.75
b. 6.00 d. 5.75

1279. Water flows from a source to a reaction turbine exiting 625

feet lower. The head loss is 58 feet due to friction, the flow
rate is 1,000 ft³/sec and the turbine efficiency is 89%. What
is the output power in kilowatts?
a. 4.27  103 kW c. 4.27  106 kW
b. 4.27  104 kW d. 4.27  108 kW

1280. A 3-inch diameter pipe 2,000 feet long, with friction of 0.020
carries water from a reservoir and discharge freely at a point
100 feet below the reservoir’s surface level. Find the pump
horsepower to double gravity flow.
a. 21.20 hp c. 31.20 hp
b. 27.20 hp d. 37.20 hp

1281. A cylinder tank 20feet in diameter and 40 feet high has a 4”

hole in the bottom with Cd = 0.98 How long will it take for the
water level to drop from 40’ to 20?
a. 1214.8 sec c. 1695.8 sec
 b. 1625.9 sec d. 1725 sec

1282. Water flows through a horizontal pipe of cross-sectional area

10 cm2. At one section the cross-sectional area is 5 cm2. The
pressure difference between the sections is 300 N/m 2. How
many cubic meters of water will flow out of the pipe in 1
minute?
a. 0.0868 m3 c. 0.5268 m3
3
b. 0.0268 m d. 0.1268 m3

1283. An oil with kinematic viscosity of 0.005ft 2/sec flows at

10ft/sec through a 3-inch (actual diameter) pipe. Is the flow
laminar or turbulent?
a. the flow is normal c. the flow is laminar
b. the flow is abnormal d. the flow is turbulent

1284. A pump operating with a 1-ft diameter impeller works against

a total head of 200 feet. What impeller diameter should be
used if the total head increase to 330 feet and the new pump
must rotate at the same speed with the same efficiency?
a. 1.75 ft/sec c. 1.28 ft
b. 1.65 ft d. 1.16 ft

1285. What is the maximum height that a vacuum pump can lift
60°F water if the atmosphere is 14.6 psia and local gravity is
28 ft/sec2?
a. 38.07 ft c. 56.07 ft
b. 47.07 ft d. 28.07 ft

1286. For steam nozzle, which of the following ratios will have the
value less than unity?
a. pressure at inlet over pressure at outlet
b. specific volume at inlet over specific volume at
outlet
c. temperature of steam at inlet over temperature of
steam at outlet
d. saturation temperature of steam at inlet over saturation
temperature at outlet

1287. A steam nozzle changes

a. kinetic energy into heat energy
b. heat energy into potential energy
c. potential energy into heat energy
d. heat energy into kinetic energy
1288. Which type of valve allows flow in only one direction?
a. check valve c. slide valve
b. butterfly valve d. gate valve

1289. Valves are devices to control the flow of liquid through a pipe.
A valve consisting of a rotatable damper, which in the open
position, is parallel to the flow, and when rotated 90 degrees,
closes the opening to stop the flow
a. check valve
b. gate valve
c. butterfly valve
d. globe valve

1290. Valves are devices to control the flow of liquid through a pipe.
A piping valve similar to a gate valve but having a stopper
like disk which screws down to seat an over opening that is at
right angle to the direction of the flow
a. globe valve c. check
b. cock d. shut-off

1291. When a fluid flows full through a pipe of cross-section A and

velocity v, the flow or discharge is
a. A²/2v c. A²v
b. Av² d. Av

1292. A type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on

the blades or buckets and due to the impulse of water the
turbine starts moving
a. steam turbine c. Francis turbine
b. reaction turbine d. Pelton turbine

1293. In the design of waterways, the “Hydraulic jump” is

sometimes used for:
a. energy dissipation
b. elimination of turbulence
c. prevention of sedimentation
d. measurement of flow

1294. The sum of the pressure head, elevation head and the
velocity head remains constant. This is known as
a. Bernoulli’s theorem c. Archimedes’ principle
b. Torrecelli’s theorem d. Boyle’s law
 1295. Summation of all the heads in one section is equal to the
summation of all the heads in another section.
a. Bernoulli’s theorem c. Pascal’s theorem
b. Torrecelli’s theorem d. Boyle’s law

1296. At any instant, the number of particles passing every cross-

section of the stream is the same, the flow is said to be
a. discharge flow c. uniform flow
b. steady flow d. continuous flow

ENGINEERING LAWS, ETHICS AND CONTRACTS

1297. The word capita refers to:

a. person c. plants
 b. house d. animals

1298. The reason why the obligation exists.

a. vinculum c. prestation
b. debtor d. creditor

1299. A source of an obligation.

a. novation c. contract
b. delay d. consent

1300. The subject matter of obligation.

a. Creditor c. debtor
b. Object d. efficient cause

1301. The element of obligation who is a possessor of a right and

whose favor the obligation is constituted.
a. passive subject c. object
b. efficient cause d. active subject

1302. An obligation which is to be fulfilled or paid proportionately by

different debtors and is to be demanded proportionately by
different creditors.
a. solidary obligation c. joint obligation
b. pure obligation d. conditional obligation

1303. The part of specification which describes the work as a whole.

a. specification clause c. title
b. general clause d. introduction

1304. The meaning of minds between two persons whereby one

binds himself with respect to the other to give something or
to render some service
a. obligation c. elements
b. contract d. consent

1305. A type of contract which has no legal stature.

a. voidable c. void
b. lump-sum d. rescissible

1306. A cause vitiating consent which maybe a ground for an action

to an annual contract.
a. Offer c. threat
b. public policy d. revision
1307. The signification by one person to other of his willingness to
enter a contract
a. Bid c. desire
b. offer d. plan

1308. Unauthorized making, using or selling for use, or for profit, of

an invention covered by a valid claim of patent during the life
of the patent.
a. Duplication c. modification
b. Infringement d. copy

1309. Integral part of contract requirement which sets forth

technical engineering requirements which are not shown
completely on drawing
a. Specification c. permit
b. Notarization d. plan

1310. A part of specification which describes the technical details of

each type of construction.
a. shop drawing c. specific clause
b. general clause d. order of work

1311. A contract document which shows the physical detail of

works.
a. specification c. plan
b. schedule d. invitation to bid

1312. The calling which requires the passing of appropriate

government board examination.
a. practice c. profession
b. vocation d. engineering

1313. This is a delay in giving or delivering a thing.

a. Mora Solvendi ex re
b. Mora accipiende
c. Mora Solvendi ex persona
d. Compensation morae

1314. It is the vinculum or the link that binds the parties to an

obligation.
a. prestation c. legal tie
b. active subject d. contract
1315. A disciplinary action recognized by electrical engineering law
filed in court of competent jurisdiction.
a. public hearing c. administrative proceeding
b. criminal proceeding d. complaint

1316. A deliberate and voluntary act to evade fulfillment of an

obligation.
a. negligence c. fraud
b. delay d. contravention

1317. An unexpected event or act of God which could neither be

foreseen nor resisted.
a. natural event c. calamity
b. fortuitous event d. disaster

1318. An obligation not subject to conditions or burden nor does it

mention a specific date for its fulfillment and as such it is
immediately demandable
a. obligation with a period
b. pure and conditional obligation
c. joint and solidary obligation
d. obligation with penal cause

1319. An obligation with a period with a resolutory effect.

a. In diem c. Ex die
b. Legal d. Voluntary

1320. Which of the following is an essential element of contract?

a. consent c. freedom
b. acceptance d. fraud

1321. Essential elements of a contract.

a. consent of parties c. object
b. cause or consideration d. all of these

1322. Elements of a contract of unusual stipulation of the parties.

a. mutual elements c. essential elements
b. natural elements d. accidental elements

1323. It is a condition which suspends the demandability of the

obligation until the fulfillment of the condition.
a. Suspensive c. protestative
b. resolutory d. mixed
1324. One classification of cause of contracts in which the cause is
pure liberality of the giver.
a. Onerous c. remuneratory
b. gratuitous d. valid

1325. A defective contract which lacks one or some of the element

of a valid contract.
a. void c. voidable
b. unenforceable d. rescissible

1326. A contract which cannot be used upon in court unless it is

ratified.
a. voidable c. unenforceable
b. void d. inexistent

1327. It is a legal wrong committed through or negligence on a

person or property independent of a contract.
a. Quasi contracts c. Quasi delics
b. Culpa contractual d. Dolo causante

1328. Voidable contracts are:

a. those that are absolutely fictitious
b. those whose object is outside the commerce of man
c. those which contemplate an impossible service
d. none of the above

1329. The sudden removal of land from the state of one man to that
of another, as by a sudden change in a river, the property
thus separated continuing in the original owner of the sudden
shift in location of a channel is known as:
a. avulsion c. cavitation
b. erosion d. diversion

1330. A provision in the contract that indicates the possible

adjustment of material cost and labor cost.
a. fixed cost c. specification
b. escalatory clause d. general provision

1331. Kind of obligation which has no condition attached.

a. analytic c. gratuitous
b. private d. pure
1332. A legally binding agreement or promise to exchange goods or
services.
a. contract c. barter
b. memorandum d. pro-forma

1333. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not

considered intelligent.
a. dead person c. demented person
b. senior person d. minors

1334. Modes of extinguishing obligations when creditor abandons

his right to collect.
a. condonation c. forfeiture
b. debt cancellation d. liquidated damages

1335. A classification of contract which is perfected by more

consent:
a. express c. implied
b. executed d. consensual and real

1336. Classification of contracts as to legal status:

a. implied c. void
b. several d. unilateral

1337. Additional information to prospective bidders on contract

documents issued prior to bidding date:
a. technological assessment
b. delicts
c. escalatory clause
d. bid bulletin

1338. It is the claim of anyone to ownership.

a. proprietorship c. equity
b. assets d. liability

1339. Association of two or more individuals for the purpose of

operating a business as co-owners of a profit:
a. Corporation c. organization
b. Partnership d. company

1340. Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the

right of succession and the process, attributes and properties
expressly authorized by the law or incident to its existence:
 a. Corporation c. property
b. Partnership d. organization

1341. An aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of

conducting a business and recognized by laws as a fictitious
person is called
a. partnership c. stockholders
b. corporation d. investors

1342. An obligation whose performance is subject to any condition:

a. resolutory condition
b. pure obligation
c. conventional obligation
d. conditional obligation

1343. The performance of the specific task in project scheduling is:

a. event c. duration
b. activity d. float

1344. The series of interconnected activities through the network of

a construction scheduling for which its activity has zero time
is:
a. Dummy c. float
b. critical path d. duration

1345. Share of participation

a. franchise c. partnership
b. stock d. corporation

1346. A form of business organization in which the person conducts

his business alone and entirely for his own profit, being solely
responsible for all its activities and liabilities:
a. Sole proprietorship c. Partnership
b. Entrepreneurship d. Corporation

1347. A group of persons who have organized a joint venture for the
purpose if supplying electric energy to a specified area:
a. Corporation c. cooperatives
b. Supplier d. private firm

1348. Obligation arise from:

a. contracts c. quasi-delicts
b. quasi-contracts d. all of the above
1349. Obligation are extinguished by:
a. novation c. payment
b. compensation d. all of the above

1350. A classification of contract consisting unusual stipulation of

the parties:
a. mutual elements c. natural elements
b. essential elements d. accidental elements

1351. A classification of contracts which is perfected by mere

consent:
a. express c. executed
b. implied d. consensual and real

1352. Limitations upon the right to contract:

a. contrary to law c. contrary to public order
b. against moral d. all of the above

1353. Ground for annulment of contract:

a. Mistake c. Violence
b. Fraud d. Intimidation

1354. Voidable contracts are:

a. those which are absolutely fictitious
b. those whose object is outside the commerce of man
c. those expressly prohibited by law
d. none of the above

1355. In a contract, when the contractor fails to live up to the

contract agreement he is usually sued for damages. Which of
the following may not be a ground for the damages?
a. delay c. negligence
b. fraud d. amicable settlement

1356. Which of the following does belong to the Code of Ethics?

a. penal provisions
b. relations with the client and employer
c. preparation and signing of plans
d. professional life

1357. Castro is accused of crime in the court. He retains the

services of Atty. Gallardo as his defense counsel for P
6000.00. The P 6,000.00 to be given by Castro to Atty.
 Gallardo is for professional services of Atty. Gallardo. What
kind of contract is this?
a. onerous contract c. renumeratory contract
b. gratuitous contract d. executory contract

1358. The exceptional circumstances when litigation expenses other

than judicial cost can be recovered even without prior
agreements are, except:
a. in actions for legal support
b. when the court does not award judicial costs
c. when exemplary damages are awarded
d. in actions for recovery of wages of household helpers,
laborers, and skilled workers:

1359. Actual or compensatory damages may be recovered for the

following except:
a. For injury to one’s business standing or commercial
credit
b. Defective construction of an approved design
c. Loss or impairment of earning capacity in cases of
injury
d. For death caused by crime

1360. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. Subject to the laws, all rights acquired in virtue of an
obligation are transmissible of there has been no
stipulation to the contrary
b. Usurious transactions shall be governed by
special laws
c. If a person obliged to do something fails to do it
according to his contract, the same may not be
executed at his cost
d. Those who in the performance of their obligations are
guilty of fraud, negligence or delay and those who in
any manner contravene the tenor thereof, are liable for
damages

1361. There are many kind of damages, which one is not?

a. nominal c. actual or compensatory

b. exemplary or corrective d. immoral

1362. Ethics may be defined as the following, EXCEPT

 a. A philosophical concept dealing with moral conduct
b. A set of rules promulgated by law to control
criminality
c. A set of standards establishing right and wrong
d. Rules that describe one’s duty to society and to fellow
professionals

1363. Generally, a contractor may be sued in court for damages

when he fails to comply with a contract. In certain cases, the
law does not require a demand for damages. Which one of
the following is this?
a. When the contract is explicit about damages for non-
compliance
b. When the contractor failed to perform due to his own
fault
c. When the obligation or the law expressly declares
d. When the time for delivery of service is not controlling
motive in the contract

1364. Select the statement that is NOT CORRECT:

a. Obligation for whose fulfillment a day certain in has
been fixed shall be demandable only when that day
comes
b. If the obligation does not fix a period, but from its
nature it can be inferred that a period was intended, the
courts may fix the duration thereof.
c. Whenever in an obligation a period is designated, it is
presumed to have been established fro the benefit of
both the creditor and the debtor
d. Anything paid before the arrival of the agreed
upon period, the obligor being unaware of the
period, or believing that the obligation has
become demandable, may not be recovered with
interest.

1365. The following are the kinds of obligations under the civil code,
EXCEPT:
a. Obligation with a period
b. Obligation with a penal clause
c. Joint and solidary obligation
d. Unconditional obligation in performance
1366. The exceptional circumstances when litigation expenses other
than judicial courts can be recovered even without prior
agreements are, EXCEPT:
a. in actions for legal support
b. when the court does not award judicial costs
c. when exemplary damages are awarded
d. in actions for recovery of wages of household helper,
laborers and skilled workers

1367. Caruso obliged himself to deliver Vallejo a violin.

Subsequently, they entered into a contract whereby they
agreed. Instead of Caruso delivering a violin to Vallejo,
Caruso would just sing a classical song. The obligation is
extinguish by:
a. compensation c. the confusion
b. the condonation d. novation

1368. Which of the following does not belong to the Code of Ethics?
a. penal provisions
b. relation with the client and employer
c. preparation and signing of plans
d. professional life

1369. Cost of things that are NEITHER labor NOR material:

a. investment c. expenses
b. labor cost d. construction cost

1370. There are many kinds of damages, which one is not?

a. nominal c. actual or compensatory
b. exemplary or corrective d. immoral

1371. Generally, a contractor may be used in court for damages

when he fails to comply with the contract. In certain cases,
the law does not require a demand for damages. Which one
of the following is this?
a. when the contract is explicit about damages for non-
compliance
b. when the time for delivery of service is not
controlling motive in the contract
c. when the contractor failed to perform due to his own
fault
d. when the obligation or the law expressly declares
1372. Which of the following establishes ethical behavior among
professionals?
a. Legal contracts c. Taxation regulations
b. Hippocratic oath d. Rules of play sports

1373. Select the statements that is NOT correct:

a. Obligation for whose fulfillment a certain in has been
fixed shall be demandable only when that day comes.
b. If it does not fix a period, but from its nature it can be
inferred that a period was intended, the courts may fix
the duration thereof
c. Whenever in an obligation a period is designated, it is
presumed to have been established for the benefit of
both the creditor and the debtor.
d. Anything paid before the arrival of the agreed
upon period, the obligator being unaware of the
period, or believing that the obligation has
become demandable, may not be recovered with
interest.

1374. The following are the kinds of obligation under the civil code,
EXCEPT:
a. obligation with a period
b. obligation with a penal clause
c. joint and solidary obligation
d. unconditional obligation in performance

1375. Which of the following establishes ethical behavior among

professionals?
a. legal contracts c. taxation regulations
b. hippocratic oath d. rules of play sports

1376. Which of the following rules does not apply to interests?

a. When damages are awarded for breach of contract,
interest may be allowed at the discretion of the court.
b. Compounding of interest is allowed by the law although
there is no express agreement on this point.
c. In crimes and negligence cases, interest as part of
damages are NEVER adjudicated by the courts.
d. The indemnity for damages shall be the payment of
interest agreed upon.
PHYSICS

1377. An Angstrom unit, commonly used for atomic and sub-atomic

distances is:
a. 10–9 m c. 10–6 m
–12
b. 10 m d. 10–10 m

1378. One micron is equal to:

a. 10-8 cm c. 10-10 cm
b. 10-6 m d. 10-12 m

1379. The prefix pico- means:

a. 10-9 of a unit c. 10-12 of a unit
b. 10-6 of a unit d. 10-15 of a unit

1380. What does the prefix tera – refer to?

a. 10-12 c. 10-15
b. 1012 d. 1015

1381. What does the prefix atto-refer to?

a. 10-15 c. 1015
b. 10-18 d. 1018

1382. Which of these types of radiation has the least ability to

penetrate matter?
a. alpha particles c. gamma rays
b. beta particles d. x-rays

1383. The heat per unit mass per degree change in temperature is
called:
a. heat of fusion c. heat of vaporization
b. relative heat d. specific heat

1384. The heat of fusion of ice in calories per gram is

approximately:
a. 540 c. 80
b. 144 d. 970

1385. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of

the following is the main cause of this phenomenon?
a. gravity c. surface tension
b. air resistance d. viscosity of the fluid
1386. The fundamental reference dimensions are mass, length and
time. The fundamental SI units for them are kilogram (kg),
meter (m), and seconds (s). The unit of force derived from
these units is Newton (N). Consequently, the unit of work N-
m is called
a. watt c. Joule
b. horsepower d. erg

1387. The equation of state for a gas, given P to be absolute

pressure in Pascal; V, the volume in m³; T, the absolute
temperature in degrees Kelvin; and R, the gas constant in
J/kg-K is:
a. PV/T = R c. V = P/(RT)
b. P/V = RT d. PTV = R

1388. The force on a surface S due to hydrostatic pressure is

obtained by integration of the pressure over the surface. If
the surface is plane, a single resultant point force can be
found that is equivalent to the distributed pressure load. The
magnitude of this resultant force may be determined from F =
pA where: A is the area of the surface and p is the pressure
at the centroid of the surface. p is also the:
a. average pressure on the surface
b. normal force on the surface
c. resultant force on the surface
d. total pressure on the surface

1389. A theorem which states that for a problem involving N

independent physical variables with M basic dimensions, (N-
M) independent dimensionless groups of variables can be
formed.
a. Buckingham-Pi c. Reynold
b. Froude d. Weber

1390. A cylindrical cork is floating upright in a container partially

filled with water. A vacuum is applied to the container such
that the air within the vessel is partially removed, the cork
will:
a. sink somewhat in the water
b. rise somewhat in the water
c. sink to the bottom
d. remain stationary
1391. The point where the buoyant force and the center line
intersect. The body is stable when this point is above the
center of gravity, and unstable when this point is below the
center of gravity.
a. Epicenter c. metacenter
b. Focus d. locus or buoyant force

1392. Queing theory provides a large number of alternative

mathematical models for describing which of the following?
a. network problems
b. probabilistic arrivals
c. probabilistic service facilities
d. waiting line problems

1393. A body which is wholly immersed in a homogenous fluid

maybe subjected to two kinds of forces arising from relative
motion between the body and the fluid known as:
a. drag and lift
b. drag and buoyant force
c. lift and buoyant force
d. friction and buoyant force

1394. Which of the following is not a unit of work?

a. N-m c. erg
b. kg-m²/s² d. dyne

1395. The criterion for stability of a submerge body.

a. the center of buoyancy must be above the center
of mass of the body
b. the center of buoyancy must coincide with the center of
mass of the body
c. the center of buoyancy must be below the center of
mass of the body
d. the buoyancy must be bigger than the weight of the
body

1396. “Any body submerged in a fluid is acted upon by an

unbalanced force (buoyant force) which is equal to the weight
of the displaced fluid.” This principle is known as:
a. Archimedes’ principle
b. Bernoulli’s principle
c. Principle of hydro-dynamics
d. Energy principle
1397. Which of the following is the definition of a joule?
a. a unit of power
b. kg-m/s²
c. a Newton-meter
d. a rate of change of energy

1398. How many degrees of freedom does a coin rolling on the

ground have?
a. one c. two
b. three d. five

1399. The buoyant force, BF, which is equal to weight of displaced

fluid is acting at the:
a. centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
b. bottom of the body
c. center of pressure
d. center of gravity of the body

1400. Buoyant force is:

a. equal to the weight of the displaced fluid
b. the resultant force on a body due to the fluid
surrounding it
c. the resultant force acting on a floating body
d. the force necessary to maintain equilibrium on a
submerged body

1401. Capillary rise (depression), h, in a circular tube with radius

(r), is directly proportional to the surface tension of the liquid
contained in a tube.
a. h is inversely proportional to r
b. h=r
c. h is directly proportional to r
d. none of these

1402. A plane intercepts the coordinate axis at x = 1, y = 3 and z =

2. what are the Miller indices of the plane?
a. (132) c. (123)
b. (623) d. (326)

1403. A steam power cycle is modeled by the ideal cycle known as

the:
a. Otto cycle c. Diesel cycle
b. Rankine cycle d. Brayton cycle
1404. Which of the following statements is not true regarding X-ray
diffraction?
a. the geometrical structure factor, F, is the ratio of the
amplitude of the X-ray reflected plane in a crystal to the
amplitude of the X-ray scattered from a single electron.
b. X-ray diffraction is only useful for studying
simpler crystals such as the body-centered cubic
structure, rather than more complex crystals like
the hexagonal close-packed structure.
c. X-ray diffraction can be used to determine the grain
size of a specimen.
d. X-ray diffraction can be used to detect micro-stresses in
a crystal.

1405. A photon is:

a. a neutral proton
b. a particle of electromagnetic radiation
c. a neutral electron
d. a charged neutron

1406. Which of the following is not a unit of power?

a. Joule-second
b. Newton-meter per second
c. watt
d. horsepower

1407. A dropped ball loses potential energy as it falls. Gravity is an

example of:
a. conservative force
b. non-conservative force
c. dissipative force
d. any of these, depending on the reference level

1408. The work done in moving an object from A to B against a

non-conservative force:
a. cannot be recovered by moving it from B to A
b. does not depend on the path taken between A an B
c. is always entirely converted into heat
d. disappears forever

1409. An object at rest may have:

a. velocity c. momentum
b. kinetic energy d. potential energy
1410. Momentum is closely related to:
a. kinetic energy c. potential energy
b. impulse d. power

1411. Momentum can be expressed in:

a. N/s c. N∙m
b. N∙s d. N∙m/s

1412. In an elastic collision,

a. momentum is conserved but not kinetic energy
b. kinetic energy is conserved but not momentum
c. momentum and kinetic energy are both conserved
d. neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved

1413. An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point
has an image that is always:
a. inverted c. virtual
b. the same size d. smaller in size

1414. An object closer to a converging lens than its focal point has
an image that is always:
a. inverted c. virtual
b. the same size d. smaller in size

1415. Relative to its object, a real image formed by a spherical

mirror is always:
a. erect c. inverted
b. smaller d. larger

1416. The image of a real object produced by a diverging lens is

never:
a. real c. virtual
b. erect d. smaller than the object

1417. A negative magnification corresponds to an image that is:

a. Erect c. inverted
b. smaller than the object d. larger than the object

1418. Enlarging the lens aperture of a camera,

a. increases the ƒ-number
b. increases the depth of field
c. enlarges the image
d. permit a faster shutter speed
1419. A heavy brass plumb bob suspended from a 38-inch cord was
observed to have a neutral period of oscillation at about two
seconds if pulled 24 inches to one side and then allowed to
swing freely. If an astronaut was to repeat this experiment in
the moon where the gravitational attraction is approximately
1/6 that of the earth, the observed period would be:
a. 0.32 sec c. 4.90 sec
b. 0.82 sec d. 12.0 sec

1420. The quantity of heat required to evaporate 1 lb of saturated

liquid.
a. specific heat c. heat of fusion
b. latent heat d. heat of vaporization

1421. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one

gram of water from 14.5°C to 15.5°C.
a. heat of fusion c. BTU
b. calorie d. specific heat

1422. Newton’s law states that:

a. energy object continues in its state of motion unless
acted upon by an external force
b. action and reaction are equal and opposite
c. an object accelerates only if the net force acting on it
d. all of these

1423. The change of frequency due to the relative motion between

the source of sound and the observer is called
a. Beat c. Bandwidth
b. Doppler effect d. none of these

1424. The mass times the square of distance to the mass, assumed
to be a point mass is called the:
a. Torque c. centrifugal force
b. moment of inertia d. none of these

1425. The speed of light is

a. 3 x 106 m/s c. 3 x 108 m/s
b. 6 x 108 m/s d. 6 x 106 m/s

1426. What is the velocity of sound in 1500F(660C) water?

a. 2510 ft/sec c. 5928 ft/sec
b. 4985 ft/sec d. 28288 ft/sec
1427. Find the speed of sound in 32°F water if the compressibility is
3.4 x 10–6 psi-1?
a. 4764 ft/sec c. 4674 ft/sec
b. 4584 ft/sec d. 4664 ft/sec

1428. The principle known as conservation of momentum states that

if no net force is acting on an object, its momentum
a. is equal to zero c. remains constant
b. is equal to unity d. none of these

1429. In ideal machines, the actual mechanical advantage is

__________ the ideal mechanical advantage.
a. greater than c. equal to
b. less than d. zero

1430. Work performed involves:

a. the magnitude of the force
b. the direction of the force
c. the displacement of the object
d. all of these

1431. The value of the universal gravitational constant is:

a. 6.67 x 10-11 M-m²/kg² c. 6.67 x 10-8 M-m²/kg²

b. 3.44 x 10-11 M-m²/kg² d. none of these

1432. In elastic collision, _________ is conserved.

a. only momentum
b. only kinetic energy
c. kinetic energy and momentum
d. only impulse

1433. A ship whose full length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For

dynamic similarity, at what velocity will a 1:25 model be
towed through the water?
a. 10 m/sec c. 2 m/sec
b. 25 m/sec d. 50 m/sec

1434. For stable equilibrium of a floating body, its metacenter

should lie
a. below the center of gravity
b. below the center of buoyancy
c. above the center of buoyancy
d. above the center of gravity
1435. Center of pressure on an inclined plane lies
a. at the centroid c. below the centroid
b. above the centroid d. at metacenter

1436. The line of action of the buoyant force always acts through
the centroid of the
a. submerged body
b. volume of the floating body
c. volume of the fluid vertically above the body
d. displaced volume of the fluid

1437. An equipotential line is one that

a. has uniformly varying dynamic pressure
b. has no velocity component normal to it
c. exist in case of rotational flow
d. has no velocity component tangent to it

1438. The pressure force, in Newtons, on the 15 cm diameter head

light of an automobile traveling at 25 m/sec will be:
a. 10.4 c. 5.6
b. 6.8 d. 4.8

1439. A body, wholly or partly, immersed on a fluid is buoyed up by

a force equal to the weight of the fluid it displaced. This is
known as
a. Bernoulli’s theorem c. Pascal’s theorem
b. Torrecelli’s theorem d. none of the above

1440. A fluid property that refers to the attractive force between its
molecules and any solid substance with which they are in
contact.
a. adhesion c. cohesion
b. surface tension d. explosion

1441. It is the attraction between unlike molecules.

a. diffusion c. extraction
b. cohesion d. adhesion

1442. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is

called
a. volumetric strain c. compressibility
b. volumetric index d. adhesion
1443. A fluid property which refers to the intermolecular attraction
by which separate particles of the fluid are together:
a. cohesion c. explosion
b. adhesion d. surface tension

1444. It is the attraction between like molecules.

a. absorption c. diffusion
b. adhesion d. cohesion

1445. Property of a fluid whereby its own molecules are attracted to

each other is known as
a. adhesion c. viscosity
b. cohesion d. compressibility

1446. The property of the liquids which is due to both cohesion and
adhesion. If adhesion is greater than cohesion, the liquid will
rise at the point where it comes in contact with another body.
If cohesion is prevalent, the liquid will be depressed.
a. capillary c. surface tension
b. vapor pressure d. none of these

1447. Mercury does not wet glass because of the property known as
a. adhesion c. surface tension
b. cohesion d. viscosity

1448. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of

the following is the main cause of this phenomenon?
a. Gravity c. surface tension
b. viscosity of the fluid d. air resistance

1449. The interface between immiscible fluids acts like an infinite

thin membrane that supports a tensile force. The magnitude
of this force per unit length of a line on this surface.
a. capillary action c. hydrostatic tension
b. viscosity d. surface tension

1450. The rise or fall of head “h’ in a capillary tube of diameter “d”
and the liquid surface tension “σ” and specific weight “w” is
given by
a. 4dσ/w c. 4wσ/d
b. 4wd/σ d. 4σ/wd
1451. The latent heat of vaporization in Joules per kg is equal to
a. 3.35 x 105 c. 1.16 x 10³
5
b. 22.6 x 10 d. 6.40 x 10²

1452. 1 watt equals

a. 1 N∙m/hr c. 1 kN∙m/hr
b. 1 N∙m/m d. 1 N∙m/s

1453. The rate of radiant energy, that is emitted by a surface at any

temperature and in small wavelengths is found from the
known rate of energy, that under the same condition will be
emitted from black surface, by multiplying with the
absoptivity. Above enunciation is called
a. Lambort’s law c. Planck’s law
b. Kirchoff’s law d. Stefan Boltzman’s law

1454. At critical point, the latent enthalpy of vaporization is

a. only dependent on temperature
b. zero
c. minimum
d. maximum

1455. An insulated 2 kg box falls from a balloon 3.5 km above the

earth. The change in the internal energy of the box after it
has hit the earth’s surface will be approximately
a. 70,000 kJ c. 68.6 kJ
b. 7 kJ d. 0 kJ

1456. The torque of an engine is found to be T = 200 sin (лw/2000)

J, where w varies between 500 and 1000 rpm. It can be
concluded that
a. power at 500 rpm > power at 1000 rpm
b. power at 500 rpm = power at 1000 rpm
c. power at 500 rpm < power at 1000 rpm
d. torque at 500 rpm > torque at 1000 rpm

1457. An ideal gas is contained within a volume of 2 cu. Ft. when

the pressure is 137 atmosphere and the temp. is 27oC. What
volume would be occupied by this gas if it were allowed to
expand to atmospheric pressure at a temp. of 50oC:
a. 295 cu. ft. c. 185 cu. ft.
b. 265 cu. ft. d. 365 cu. ft.
1458. Amount of heat to raise the temperature of one gram of water
through 1°C at a constant pressure of one normal
atmosphere:
a. specific heat c. latent heat
b. BTU d. calorie

1459. The zero point on the absolute temperture scale; it is the

point of toal ABSENCE OF HEAT – 273oC:
a. absolute zero c. none of these
b. absolute temperature d. absolute pressure

1460. The pressure of the nitrogen in a constant volume gas

thermometer is 78.0 cm. at 0oC. What is the temp. of a liquid
in which the bulb of the thermometer is immersed when the
pressure is seen to be 87.7 cm:
a. 34oC c. 45oC
b. 60oC d. 90oC

1461. A 50 g. mass hangs at the end of the spring. When 20 g.

more are added to the end of the spring, it stretches 7 cm.
more. Find the spring constant:
a. 2.8 c. 2.9
b. 4.3 d. 2.5

1462. In refrigeration, the quantity 288,000 BTU / day is called:

a. ton c. throughput
b. vapor heat d. freon number

1463. What is the definition of instantaneous velocity?

a. v = xt c. v = sxdt

b. v = dx/dt d. v – dxdt

1464. An example of a vector quantity is _______________:

a. speed c. energy
b. density d. none of these

1465. The ______________ law of Newton sates that every object

continuous state of motion unless acted upon by an external
force:
a. first c. third
b. second d. fourth
1466. A continuous change in the position of a particle is called
___________:
a. velocity c. motion
b. acceleration d. displacement

1467. The property of an object to continue in its state of motion is

called ___________:
a. acceleration c. continuity
b. inertia d. none of these

1468. It is considered as the ability to do work:

a. impulse c. energy
b. momentum d. inertia

1469. The ______________ of force is the measure of its turning of

twisting effect about a given axis:
a. torque c. torsion
b. moment d. repulsion

1470. Two equal but oppositely directed parallel forces constitute a

___________:
a. torque c. couple
b. momentum d. none of these

1471. When the loads on successive unit lengths of a cable are not
spaced at equal horizontal distances, the cable assumes a
shape of:
a. parabolic c. hyperbola
b. corona d. catenary

1472. The centroid of the area of a triangle is located at a distance

of __________ of the altitude from the base:
a. one half c. two thirds
b. one third d. three fourths

1473. The centeroid of a volume of a cone of pyramid is at

___________ the altitude from the vertex:
a. one half c. two thirds
b. one third d. three fourths

1474. In D’Alembert’s principle, the added force is called the:

a. inertia force c. reversed effective force
 b. D’Alemberts force d. all of these

1475. The distance which when squared and multiplied by an area

equals the moment of inertia of the area is called:
a. moment of inertia c. moment radius
b. polar distance d. radius of gyration

1476. The moment of a body is ____________ when it is continued

to a straight line path:
a. linear c. unidirectional
b. rectilinear d. none of these

1477. Motion of a particle in a straight line path with an acceleration

which is proportional to the displacement from some fixed
point in the path and oppositely directed is called:
a. linear motion
b. rectilinear motion
c. simple harmonic motion
d. unicurvilinear motion

1478. The velocity of an object divided by the velocity of sound is

called:
a. Planck’s constant c. Mach number
b. Michelson’s number d. Velocity factor

1479. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is 1/25 sec.

What is its frequency?
a. 50 Hz c. 157 Hz
b. 25 Hz d. none of these

1480. Shaft work of –15 kJ/kg and heat transfer of –10 kJ/kg
change the enthalpy of the system by:
a. 10 kJ/kg c. –15 kJ/kg
b. 5 kJ/kg d. –25 kJ/kg

1481. An iron steam pipe is 200 ft. long at 0 oC. What will its
increase in length when heated to 100 oC. (coefficient of
-6 o
linear expansion is 10 x 10 per C):
a. 0.18 ft c. 0.12 ft
b. 0.28 ft d. 0.20 ft

1482. If the second derivative of the equation of a curve is equal to

the negative of the equation of that same curve, the curve is:
a. an exponential c. a sinusoid
 b. a conic section d. parabola

1483. A horizontal capillary tube closed at one end contains a

column of air imprisoned by means of a small volume of
water. At 7oC and a barometric pressure of 76 cm. of
mercury, the length of the air column is 15 cm. What is the
length at 17oC if the saturation pressure of water vapor is 7oC
and 17oC are 0.75 cm and 1.42 cm. of mercury respectively:
a. 12.55 cm c. 15.68 cm
b. 19.68 cm d. 18.50 cm

1484. A wooden spherical ball with sp. gr. of 0.42 and a diameter of
30 cm is dropped from a height of 4.2 m above the surface of
the water in a pool. If the ball barely touch the bottom of the
pool before it began to float, how deep is the water in the
pool at that point:
a. 3.91 m c. 3.19 m
b. 3.40 m d. 3.04 m

1485. A projectile weighing 100 lbs. strikes the concrete wall of a

fort within an impact velocity of 1,200 ft./sec. The projectile
comes to rest in 0.01 second having penetrated the 8-foot
thick wall to distance of 6 feet. What is the average force
exerted on the wall by the projectile?
a. 3.73 x 104 lbs c. 3.73 x 105 lbs
b. 3.73 x 108 lbs d. 3.73 x 106 lbs

1486. The ratio of the amount of heat taken up to absolute

temperature at which the heat is absorbed:
a. isobaric c. entropy
b. Eisentropic d. enthalpy

1487. It depends on the quantity of heat in the body and on its

temperature:
a. enthalpy c. entropy
b. work d. kinetic energy

1488. The energy which bodies posses by virtue of their positions,

configurations or internal mechanisms is called:
a. heat energy c. potential energy
b. kinetic energy d. internal energy

1489. Among the physical laws listed below, which one is different?
a. law of acceleration c. law if reaction
 b. law of gravity d. law of inertia

1490. Inward force that must be applied on the body to keep the
body rotating in a circular motion:
a. Resisting c. centripetal
b. External d. centrifugal

1491. Which of the following statements is false?

a. wavelength of visible light is greater than wavelength of
microwaves
b. frequency of ultraviolet is greater than frequency
of infrared
c. frequency of radio waves is less than frequency of
infrared
d. wavelength of x-ray is greater than wavelength of
gamma rays

1492. A 3500 kg car accelerates from rest. The constant forward

tractive force of the car is 1000 N, and the constant drag
force is 150 N. What distance will the car travel in 3 sec.?
a. 0.19mm c. 1.1m
b. 1.3m d. 15m

1493. The transfer of heat energy from molecule to molecule is

known as.
a. Resonance c. conduction
b. momentum d. radiation

1494. The heat transfer due to motion of matter caused by change

in density is called:
a. absorption c. conduction
b. radiation d. convection

1495. This heated air, being lighter, rises and circulated through the
house or is forced through by fan called:
a. vapor c. steam
b. forced convection d. vacuum

1496. A 250 lb block is initially at rest on a flat surface that is

inclined at 30 degrees. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is
0.30 and the coefficient of static friction is 0.40, find the force
required to start the block moving up the plane.
a. 190 lb c. 125 lb
 b. 212 lb d. 75 lb

1497. What is the period of an oscillating body whose mass is 0.025

kg. if the spring constant K = 0.44 N/m?
a. 1.0 sec c. 2.0 sec
b. 2.5 sec d. 1.5 sec

1498. A train changes its speed uniformly from 60 mi/hr to 30 m/hr

in a distance of 1500 ft. What is its acceleration?
a. –1.94 ft/sec2 c. –2.04 ft/sec2
b. 2.04 ft/sec2 d. 1.94 ft/sec2

1499. A car starts from rest and has a constant acceleration of 3

ft/sec2. Find the average velocity during the first 10 seconds
of motion.
a. 13 ft/sec c. 14 ft/sec
b. 15 ft/sec d. 12 ft/sec

1500. A ball’s dropped from a height of 60 meters above the

ground. How long does it take to hit the ground?
(Acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/sec2)
a. 2.1 sec c. 1.3 sec
b. 5,5 sec d. 3.5 sec

1501. A spring with a constant of 50 lbf/ft is hung vertically and a

mass is attached to its end. The spring end displaces 3 in
from its equilibrium position. The same mass is removed from
the first spring and is attached to the end of a second,
different spring. If the displacement of the second spring is
2.5 in, find its constant.
a. 63 lbf/ft c. 46 lbf/ft
b. 60 lbf/ft d. 56 lbf/ft

1502. The electrical energy required to raise the temperature of

water in a pool is 1000kwh. If the heat losses are 25%, the
heating energy required will be:
a. 111 kwh c. 1750 kwh

b. 1266 kwh d. 1333 kwh

1503. A magnifying glass has a lens with an index of refraction of n

= 5.4 and radii of curvature of 2.95 feet and 4.27 feet for the
two faces. What is the magnification of the lens when it is
held 2.36” from an object being viewed?
 a. 1.60 c. 2.16
b. 2.78 d. 1.98

1504. A 550 kg mass initially at rest is acted upon by a force of 50e t

N. What is the velocity of the mass at t = 4 sec?
a. 4.96 m/sec c. 13.55 m/sec
b. 27.10 m/sec d. 4.87 m/sec

1505. Two masses collide on a frictionless horizontal floor and in

perfectly inelastic collision. Mass 1 is 4 times Mass 2 velocity
of Mass 1 = 10m/s to the right while the velocity of Mass 2 =
20 m/s to the left. What is the velocity and direction of the
resulting combined mass?
a. 10 m/s to the right c. 10 m/s to the left

b. 4 m/s to the right d. 15 m/s to the left

1506. A 40 lb missile moves horizontally with a velocity of 150

ft/sec. It is intercepted by a laser beam which causes it to
explode into two fragments A and B which weighs 25 lbs and
15 lbs respectively. If A travels at an angle 45 degrees from
the horizontal while B travels at 30 degrees from the
horizontal immediately after the explosion, find the
magnitude of velocity of fragment A.
a. 73.21 ft/sec c. 31.06 ft/sec
b. 101.25 ft/sec d. 43.92 ft/sec
Ans. 124.07 ft/sec

1507. A man keeps a 1 kg toy airplane flying horizontally in a circle

by holding onto a 1.5 m long string attached to its wing tip.
The sting is always in the plane of the circular flight plan. If
the plane flies at 10 m/sec, find the tension in the string.
a. 28 N c. 67 N
b. 15 N d. 18 N

1508. A steel ball weighing 200 lbs sides on a flat, horizontal floor
surface and strikes a stationary wooden ball weighing 200 lbs.
If the steel ball has a velocity of 16.6 ft/sec at impact, what
is the velocity immediately after impact? Assume a frictionless
floor and the collision is perfectly elastic:
a. 8.35 ft/sec c. zero
b. –16.7 ft/sec d. –8.35 ft/sec
1509. Where is the centroid of the surface of a right circular cone
with respect to its base. The altitude is h.
a. 2/3 h c. 3/4 h
b. 4/3 h d. 1/3 h

1510. A rectangular plate is measuring 4 ft by 6 ft is submerged in

water such that the top of the shorter side is 4 ft below the
surface. What is the depth of the center of pressure on the
vertical plate?
a. 6.00 ft c. 6.57 ft
b. 6.66 ft d. 7.43 ft

1511. Four turns of rope around a horizontal post will hold a 1000 lb
weight with a pull of 10 lb, find the coefficient of friction
between the rope and post?
a. 0.18 c. 0.16
b. 0.22 d. 0.30

1512. What is the index of refraction of a material if the speed of

light through the material is 2.37 x 10 m/s?
a. 1.34 c. 1.27
b. 1.19 d. 1.52

1513. A homogenous ladder 18 ft long and weighing 120 lbs against

a smooth wall. The angel between it and the floor is 70
degrees. The coefficient of friction between the floor and the
ladder is 0.25. How far up the ladder can a 180 lb man walk
before the ladder slips?
a. 16.6 ft c. 10 ft
b. 14.6 ft d. 12.2 ft

1514. An automobile moving at a constant velocity of 15 m/sec

passes a gasoline station. Two seconds later, another
automobile leaves the gasoline station and accelerates at a
constant rate of 2 m/sec2. How soon will the second
automobile overtake the first?
a. 15.3 sec c. 13.5 sec
b. 16.8 sec d. 18.6 sec

1515. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Wavelengths of visible light is greater than the
wavelengths of microwaves
b. Frequency of radio waves is less than frequency of
infrared waves
 c. Frequency of ultraviolet is greater that frequency
of infrared
d. Wavelength of x-rays is greater than wavelength of
gamma rays

1516. How much at 200 deg C must be added to 50 grams of the

same oil at 20 deg C to heat it to 70 deg C:
a. 12.39 grams c. 19.23 grams
b. 29.12 grams d. 23.91 grams

1517. The temperature of three different liquids are maintained at

15 deg, 20 deg, and 25 deg respectively. When equal masses
of the first two liquids are mixed, the final temperature is 18
deg. C. and when equal masses of the last two liquids are
mixed, the final temperature is 24 deg. C. What temperature
will be achieved by mixing equal masses of the first and the
last liquid?
a. 15.83 deg. C c. 8.65 deg. C
b. 10.30 deg. C d. 23.57 deg. C

1518. A wooden pole (s.g. = 0.65), 9 cm and 9 cm long by 5 m

long, hangs vertically from a string in such a way that 3 m
are submerged in water and 2 m are above the surface. What
is the tension in the string?
a. 18.9 N c. 19.6 N
b. 20.8 N d. 19.8 N

1519. A 10 g block slides with a velocity of 20 cm/sec on a smooth

level surface and makes a head on collision with a 30 gram
block moving in the opposite direction with a velocity of 10
cm/sec. If the collision is perfectly elastic, what is the velocity
of the 30 gram block after the collision?
a. 15 cm/sec c. 25 cm/sec
b. 10 cm/sec d. 5 cm/sec

1520. A solid cube material is 0.75 cm on each cube. It floats in oil

of density 800 kg/cu m with one-third of the block out of the
oil. What is the density of the material of the cube?
a. 533 kg/cu.m c. 513 kg/cu.m
b. 523 kg.cu.m d. 543 kg/cu.m
1521. If a particle’s position is given by the expression X(t) = 3.4t 3 –
5.4t meters, what is the acceleration of the particle after t =
5 seconds?
a. 1.02 m/s2 c. 3.40 m/s2
b. 102 m/s2 d. 18.1 m/s2

1522. Ocean water is used to condensate spent steam at 260 deg. F

from a nuclear power plant into water at 140 deg. F. If the
ocean temperature is 60 deg. F, and the cooling water leaves
the condenser at 100 dg. F, how many pounds of ocean water
are needed to condensate each pound of spent steam? Take
the specific heat of ocean water to be 1 BTU/lb-F deg and
specific heat of steam to be 0.5 BTU/lb-F deg. Heat of
vaporization of water in BTU/lb is 970.
a. 26.7 lb c. 25.8 lb
b. 28.2 lb d. 27.4 lb

1523. A man whose weight is 667 N and whose density is 98 kg/cu.

can just float in water with his head above the surface with
the help of a life jacket which is wholly immersed. Assuming
that the volume of his head is (1/15) of his whole volume and
that the specific gravity of the life jacket is 0.25, find the
volume of the life jacket.
a. 0.006 cu.m c. 0.040 cu.m
b. 0.001 cu.m d. 0.004 cu.m

1524. A 100 gas steel tank weighs 50 lb when empty. Will it float in
seawater when it is filled with gasoline? The weight density of
gasoline is 42 lb/ft3 that of seawater is 64 lb/ft3, and 1 gal =
0.134 ft3. What is the total weight of the tank when filled with
gasoline?
a. not float & 584 lb c. float & 858 lb
b. sink & 876 lb d. float & 613 lb

1525. A roller starts from rest at the highest point of the track 30 m
above the ground. What speed will it have at ground level if
the effect of friction is neglected?
a. 35.6 m/s c. 65.2 m/s
b. 58.8 m/s d. 24.5 m/s

1526. A steel rail 30 m long is firmly attached to the roadbed only at

its ends. The sun raises the temperature of the rail by 50 deg
 C, causing the rail to buckle. Assuming that the buckled rail
consist of two straight parts meeting in the center, calculate
how the center of the rail rises. (Coefficient of linear
expansion = 12 x 10-6/ºC):
a. 0.47 m c. 0.41 m
b. 0.49 m d. 0.52 m

1527. A closed cylindrical tank 2 m in diameter and 4 m depth with

axis vertical contains 3 m depth of water. Air at a pressure of
0.06 kg/cm2 is pumped into the cylinder above the liquid
surface. Determine the total normal force acting on the wall
of the tank.
a. 15,720 kg c. 13,800 kg
b. 12,550 kg d. 16,400 kg

1528. How much perspiration must evaporate from a 5.0-kg baby to

reduce its temperature by 2 deg? The heat of vaporization for
water at body temperature is about 580 cal/g. For the body, c
= 0.83 cal/g deg C.
a. 13.4 g c. 15.7 g
b. 14.3 g d. 12.5 g

1529. A piece of wood weighs in mass units 10.0 g in air. When a

heavy piece of metal is suspended below it, the metal being
submerged in water, the “weight” of wood in air plus metal in
water is 14.0 g. The “weight” when both wood and metal are
submerged in water is 2.00 g. Find the density of the wood.
a. 830 kg/cu. m c. 840 kg/cu. m
b. 845 kg/cu. m d. 820 kg/cu. m

1530. A ball is dropped into a solid floor from an initial height, h 0. I

the coefficient of restitution, e, is 0.90, how high will the ball
rebound?
a. 0.81 h0 c. 0.45 h0
b. 0.85 h0 d. 0.90 h0

1531. A cubical copper block is 1.50 cm on each edge submerged in

oil which ρ = 820 kg/cu. m, what is the tension on the string
that is supporting the block when submerged? ρc u m = 8920
kg/cu. m
a. 0.268 N c. 0.249 N
b. 0.789 N d. 0.148 N
1532. A 60-kg motor sits on four cylindrical rubber blocks. Each
cylinder has a height of 3 cm and a cross-sectional area of 15
cm sq. The shear modulus for this rubber is 2 MPa. If the
sideways force of 300 N is applied to the motor, how far will it
move sideways?
a. 0.124 cm c. 0.102 cm
b. 0.075 cm d. 0.092 cm

1533. A 5 kg block is moving at a speed of 5 m/s. What is the force

required to bring the block to a stop in 8 x 104 seconds?
a. 18.8 kN c. 15.4 kN
b. 13.2 kN d. 9.2 kN

1534. A car moving at 70 km/hr has a mass of 1700 kg. What force
is necessary to decelerate it a rate of 40 cm/s2?
a. 4250 N c. 680 N
b. 0.680 N d. 42.5 N

1535. Determine the submerged depth of a cube of steel 0.30 m on

each side floating in mercury. The specific gravities of steel
and mercury are 7.8 and 13.6, respectively.
a. 0.155 m c. 0.184 m
b. 0.165 m d. 0.172 m

1536. The mass of a certain object is 10 gm. What would its mass
be if taken to the planet mars?
a. 6 gm c. 10 gm
b. 0 d. 20 gm

1537. Two men pull horizontally on ropes attached to a post, the

angle between the ropes being 45º. If man A exerts a force of
150 lb and man B a force of 100 lb, find the magnitude of the
resultant force and the angle it makes with A’s pull.
a. 198 lb, 30º c. 258 lb, 36.5º
b. 185 lb, 42º d. 232 lb, 17.5º

1538. A uniform area jet travels at 600 ft/sec and 100 ft 3/sec. What
horizontal force acts on the water if it undergoes a 90° turn?
a. –3,91 x 105 lbf c. –1.16 x 105 lbf
5
b. –3.25 x 10 lbf d. –1.91 x 105 lbf

1539. A object weighs 1,500 grams in air, 1,250 grams in water.

Determine the specific gravity of the object.
a. 5 c. 7
 b. 6 d. 8

1540. A rotating steel ring has mass density of 7850 kg/m 3. At

what angular velocity will the stress reach 200 MN/m 2 if the
mean radius is 250 mm?
a. 230.47 rad/min c. 850.5 rad/hr
b. 638.47 rad/sec d. 790 rad/day

1541. If a force of 86 lb parallel to the surface of a 20° inclined

plane will push a 120-lb block up the plane at constant speed,
what force parallel to the plane will push it down at constant
speed?
a. 4.06 lbs c. 86.5 lbs
b. 45.1 lbs d. 40.04 lbs

1542. An airplane pilot sets a compass course due west and

maintains an air speed of 120 mph. After flying for one-half
hour he finds himself over a town which is 75 mi west and 20
mi south of his starting point. Find the magnitude of wind
velocity.
a. 50 mph c. 55 mph
b. 60 mph d. 65 mph

1543. A uniform area jet travel at 600ft/sec and 100ft 3/sec. What
horizontal force acts on the water if it undergoes a 90 0 turn?
a. –3.91 x 105 lbf c. –1.91 x 105 lbf
b. –3.26 x 105 lbf d. –1.16 x 105 lbf

1544. A cylindrical tank having a diameter of 1.5 m and a height of

4 m is open at one end and closed at the other end, It is
placed below the water surface with its open end down. How
deep below the water surface should the tank be placed if the
depth of water inside the tank is 1.8m?
a. 8.41 m c. 6.21 m
b. 7.22 m d. 5.84 m

1545. A wooden spherical ball with sp.gr. of 0.42 and a diameter of

30 cm is dropped from a height of 4.2 m above the surface of
the water at the deep of the swimming pool. If the ball barely
touches the bottom of the pool before it began to float, how
deep is the swimming pool at the point?
a. 3.91 m c. 3.19 m
b. 3.40 m d. 3.04 m
1546. How long could a 2000-hp motor be operated on the heat
energy liberated 1 mi3 of ocean water when the temperature
of the water is lowered by 1 0C and if all these heat were
converted to mechanical energy?
a. 371.56 years c. 435.12 min
b. 341.65 hrs d. 213.75 sec

1547. An iceberg has a density of 57.1 lbm/ft3. If its floats in fresh

water, what percent of the iceberg’s volume will be visible?
a. 10.5% c. 7.5%
b. 5.5% d. 8.5%

1548. A balloon rising vertically with a velocity of 16ft/sec, releases

a sandbag at an instant when the balloon is 64 ft. above the
ground. Compute the position of the sandbag ¼ sec. After
release.
a. 5ft c. 3ft
b. 1ft d. 0.4ft

1549. A scientist plan to make a pulse laser with rate of 200 J in 35

seconds. What is the power?
a. 7 GW c. 7.72 GW
b. 5 GW d. 5.72 GW

1550. An elevator weighs 1000 pounds and is supported by a 5/16”

cable, 1500 feet long. When the elevator carries a 1500
pound load, the cable elongates 6” more. What is the
modulus of elasticity of the cable?
a. 460 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi)
b. 5.87 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi)
c. 231 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi)
d. 609 x 107 lbf/in2 (psi)

1551. An object weights 1,500 grams in air, 1250 grams in water.

Determine the specific gravity of the object.
a. 5 c. 7
b. 6 d. 8

1552. A piston-cylinder system contains a gas, which expands under

a constant pressure of 1200 lbf/ft2. If the piston is displaced
12” during the process, and the piston diameter is 24”, what
is the work done by the gas on the piston?
a. 7894 ft-lbf c. 1234 ft-lbf
 b. 3768 ft-lbf d. 6578 ft-lbf

1553. 2 lbm of 200°F iron (Cp = 0.1 BTU/lbm-°F) are dropped into a
gallon of 40°F water. What is the final temperature of the
mixture?
a. 33.77°F c. 43.74°F
b. 34.47°F d. 53.77°F

1554. A particle of charge +3 x 10-9 C is situated in a uniform

electric field directed to the left. In moving to the right a
distance of 5 cm, the work of an applied force is 6 x 10 -5 J and
the charge in kinetic energy of the particle is +4.5 x 10 -5 J.
What is the work of the electrical force?
a. kinetic energy only
b. kinetic energy + electrical potential
c. electric potential only
d. kinetic energy – electric potential

1555. In a laboratory experiment, 50 grams of copper is heated by

a steam at 100°C, is dropped into the 50 grams aluminum
calorimeter containing 100 grams of water at 27°C. If the
final temperature of the mixture is 30°C, find the specific heat
of copper. (Caluminum = 0.22 cal/g - C°).
a. 0.077 cal/g-C° c. 0.99 cal/g-C°
b. 0.095 cal/g-C° d. 0.66 cal/g-C°

1556. A plane wall 2 x 3 m and 20 cm thick. Its thermal conductivity

is 0.5 W/m-K. If the temperature difference between opposite
faces is 60C°, find the heat flux.
a. 155 watts per square meter
b. 150 watts per square meter
c. 145 watts per square meter
d. 160 watts per square meter

1557. A plane wall 2 x 3 m and 20 cm thick, its thermal conductivity

is 0.5 W/m-K. If the temperature difference between opposite
faces is 60C°, find the heat flow:
a. 930 watts c. 800 watts
b. 920 watts d. 900 watts

1558. Two piers A and B are located on a river, one mile apart. Two
men must make round trips from pier A top pier B and return.
One man is to row a boat at a velocity of 4 mi/hr relative to
 the water, and the other man is to walk n the shore at a
velocity of 4 mi/hr. The velocity of the river is 2 mi/hr in the
direction from A and B. How long does it take each man to
make to roundtrip?
a. 0.67 hr, 0.6 hr c. 0.5 hr, 0.3 hr
b. 0.5 hr, 0.46 hr d. 0.67 hr, 0.5 hr

1559. The electron emitted from a hot filament are accelerated in an

electric field until their velocity is 5 x 10 to the positive 9 th
power cm/sec. Find the wavelength of the electrons?
a. 0.660 c. 0.153
b. 0.009 d. 0.146

1560. To what height will pure 60°F water rise in a 0.1-inch

diameter glass tube open to the atmosphere to the other
end?
a. 0.36 inch c. 0.46 inch
b. 0.26 inch d. 0.16 inch

1561. A body of mass 50 grams is at rest at the origin, x = 0, on a

horizontal frictionless surface. At time t = 0, a force of 10
dynes is applied to the body parallel to the x-axis, and 5 sec
later the force is removed. What is the position of the body at
t = 5 sec?
a. 2.5 cm c. 3.5 cm
b. 2.8 cm d. 1.5 cm

1562. A river flows due North with a velocity of 3 mph. A man rows
a boat across the river, his velocity relative to the water being
4 mph, due East. What is his velocity relative to the earth?
a. 3 mph c. 5 mph
b. 4 mph d. 8 mph

1563. What average horsepower is developed by a 180 lb man when

climbing in 10 sec. a flight of stairs which rises 20 ft,
vertically? Express this power in kilowatts.
a. 0.974 c. 1.466
b. 0.378 d. 0.488

1564. A hockey puck leaves a player’s stick with a velocity of 30

ft/sec and slides 120 ft before coming to rest. Find the
coefficient of sliding friction between the puck and the ice?
a. 0.217 c. 0.117
 b. 0.127 d. 0.317

1565. Heat is supplied to 20 lbm of ice (cp – 0.5 BTU/lbm - °F) at

0°F at the rate of 160 BTU/sec. How long will it take to
convert the ice to steam (cp = 0.5 BTU/lbm - °F) at 213°F?
a. 163.78 sec c. 153.78 sec
b. 173.76 sec d. 157.38 sec

1566. A safe weighing 600 lb is to be lowered at constant speed

down a skid, 8 ft long, from a truck 4 ft high. If the coefficient
of sliding friction between safe and skid is 0.30. How great a
force parallel to the plane is needed?
a. 140 lbs c. 146 lbs
b. 142 lbs d. 144 lbs

1567. A safe weighing of 600 lbs is to be lowered at constant speed

down a skid, 8 ft long, from a truck that is 4 ft high. If the
friction by the safe surface and the skid is 0.30, what will you
do with the safe?
a. Nothing c. push down
b. hold back d. lift safe

1568. What is the sea level (g = 32.2 ft/sec 2) specific weight

(lbm/ft3) of liquid with density of 58.3 lbm/ft3?
a. 58.3 lbm/ft3 c. 64.3 lbm/ft3
b. 43.3 lbm/ft3 d. 25.3 lbm/ft3

1569. A piston-cylinder system contains a gas which expands under

a constant pressure of 1200 lbf/ft2. If the piston is displaced
12” during the process, and the piston diameter is 24”, what
is the work done by the gas on the piston?
a. 3768 ft-lbf c. 6587 ft-lbf
b. 1234 ft-lbf d. 7894 ft-lbf

1570. 1 kw-hr is equivalent to:

a. 2545 BTU c. 3412 BTU
b. 2545 cal d. 3412 cal

1571. A sphere of radius 5 x 10 to the negative two cm. and density

of 1.1 gm/cc falls at a constant velocity through a liquid
density 1.00 gm/cc and viscosity of 1.00 poise. What is the
velocity of the falling sphere is cm/sec?
a. –0.400 c. –0.744
b. –0.544 d. –1.533
1572. A railroad train is traveling at 100 ft/sec in still air. The
frequency of the note emitted by the locomotive whistle is
500 HZ. What is the wavelength of the sound waves in front
of the locomotive?
a. 3.0 ft c. 2.5 ft
b. 2.0 ft d. 3.4 ft

1573. A ball dropped from the cornice of a building takes 0.25 sec to
pass a window 9ft high. How far is the top of the window
below the cornice?
a. 15ft c. 17ft
b. 16ft d. 18ft

1574. A 16 lb block is lifted vertically at a constant velocity of 20

ft/sec through a height of 20 ft. Determine the force required
to move the 16 lb block.
a. 15 lb c. 16 lb
b. 15.5 lb d. 17.8 lb

1575. The distance between two points is exactly 100 ft. This
measurement is read correctly on a steel surveyor’s tape at
700F and with a 10-pound tension. If the tape measures
another distance as 100 feet at 1000F and with 20-pound
tension, what is the actual distance? The tape is 3/8 inch wide
and 1/32 inch thick.
a. 100.0875 ft c. 99.978 ft
b. 100.0223 ft d. 99.498 ft

1576. 10 BTU are transferred in a process where a piston

compresses a spring and in so doing does 1500ft-lbf of work.
Find the change in internal energy of the system.
a. 5.23 BTU c. 8.07 BTU
b. 5.23 cal d. 8.07 cal

1577. One end of a horizontal is attached to a prong of an

electrically driven tuning fork whose frequency of vibration is
240 vib/sec. The other end passes over a pulley and supports
a weight of 6 lb. The linear weight density of the string is
0.0133 lb/ft. What is the speed of a transverse wave in the
string?
a. 132 ft/sec c. 130 ft/sec
b. 120 ft/sec d. 115 ft/sec
1578. When a train has a speed of 10 mph eastward, raindrops
which are falling vertically with respect to the earth make
traces on the windows of the train which are inclined 30° to
the vertical. What is the velocity of the raindrop with respect
to the earth?
a. 22 mph c. 10 mph
b. 17.6 mph d. 20 mph

1579. A car traveling with a rated 60kph around a curve whose

radius is 100m. What is the maximum speed? Coefficient of
friction is 0.4.
a. 95 kph c. 90 kph
b. 99 kph d. 86 kph

1580. A gram bullet is propelled by a powder charge producing 500

calories of usable energy. What is the bullet muzzle velocity?
a. 920 m/sec c. 930 m/sec
b. 910 m/sec d. 915 m/sec

1581. A spherical helium balloon as STP has a diameter of 60 ft.

What is its lifting power?
a. 8679 lbf c. 7870 lbf
b. 7680 lbf d. 9876 lbf

1582. A ball rolls off the edge of a horizontal tabletop 4 ft. high and
strikes the floor at a distance of 5 ft. horizontally from the
edge of the table. What was the velocity of the ball at the
instant of leaving the table?
a. 15 fps c. 5 fps
b. 25 fps d. 10 fps

1583. A thin uniform rod is 5 meters long and has a mass of 2.34
kg. Find its moment of inertia about a transverse axis through
its center.
a. 9.75 kg-m2 c. 29.25 kg-m2
b. 19.5 kg-m2 d. 4.875 kg-m2

1584. What is the basic material used in ceramic magnets?

a. copper c. flat bars
b. aluminum d. iron oxide

1585. A student determined to test the law of gravity for himself

walks off a skyscraper 900 ft high, stopwatch in hand, and
starts his free fall (zero initial velocity). Five seconds later,
 Superman arrives at the scene and dives off the roof to save
the student. What must Superman’s initial velocity be in order
that he catches the student just before the ground is
reached? (Assume that Superman’s acceleration is that any
freely falling body)
a. 230 fps c. 320 fps
b. 400 fps d. 240 fps

1586. What is the density of a stone which weighs 19.9 lb in air and
12.4 lb in water?
a. 156.8 lbm/ft³
b. 165.8 lbm/ft³
c. 256.8 lbm/ft³
d. 168.5 lbm/ft³

1587. The Springfield riffle bullet weights 150 grains

(7,000 grains= 1 lb). Its muzzle velocity is 2,700 ft/sec, and
the length of the rifle barrel is 30 in. Compute the resultant
force accelerating the bullet, assuming it to be constant.
a. 977 lb c. 748 lb
b. 877 lb d. 1077 lb

1588. A cylindrical tin can 4 inches in diameter and 4 inches long

has 2/3 of its air removed. What is the force on each end?
a. 184.6 lbf c. 118.4 lbf
b. 150.7 lbf d. 123.1 lbf

1589. What area airfoil (CL = 0.5) is required to obtain a 5,000 lbf at
90 mph? The density of air s 0.075 lbm/ft³.
a. 492.8 ft² c. 294.8 ft²
b. 382.8 ft² d. 254.8 ft²

1590. A box is being pushed with a force of 40 lbs having an angle

of 30 with the horizontal. Using a scale 1 in = 10 lbs, find the
horizontal and vertical components of the force?
a. FX = 32.6 lbs, FY = 34.6 lbs
b. FX = 36.0 lbs, FY = 36.0 lbs
c. FX = 34.6 lbs, FY = 34.6 lbs
d. FX = 34.6 lbs, FY = 37.6 lbs

1591. Three planets of identical size and mass are oriented in space
such that radiant energy can occur. The average temperature
of planets A, B, and C are 284 K, 289K, and 283K,
respectively. All three planets are massive enough that small
 energy losses or gains can be considered to be isothermal
processes. What are the entropy productions for the planet B
and C if an energy transfer of 2330 KJ/kg occurs by radiation?
a. (-8.052, 8.233) KJ/kg-K
b. (-8.062, 8.233) KJ/kg-K
c. (-8.072, 8.233) KJ/kg-K
d. (-8.082, 8233) KJ/kg-K

1592. A scuba diver at a depth of 200 feet notices the bubbles he

exhales have diameter of ½ inch. Assume the tension and the
water temperature remains relatively constant. What is the
pressure on the bubble?
a. 404.4 lbf/in2 (psia) c. 202.4 lbf/in2 (psia)
2
b. 303.4 lbf/in (psia) d. 101.4 lbf/in2 (psia)

1593. A scuba diver at a depth of 200 ft notices the bubbles he

exhales has diameters of ½ inch. Assume the tension and
water temperature remains relatively constant. What is the
depth if the diameter is ¼ inch?
a. 1,500 ft c. 2,500 ft
b. 1,600 ft d. 2,800 ft

1594. What is the velocity of sound in 150 0F(660C) air at standard

atmospheric pressure?
a. 1411 ft/sec c. 1311 ft/sec
b. 1211 ft/sec d. 1511 ft/sec

1595. Two forces B1 and B2 act at a point. The magnitude of B 1 is 8

lb and its direction is 600 above the x-axis in the first
quadrant. The magnitude of B2 is 5 lb and the direction is 53 0
below the x-axis in the fourth quadrant. What are the
horizontal and vertical components of the resultant force?
a. BX = 7 lbs, By = 2.9 lbs
b. BX = 7 lbs, By = 3 lbs
c. BX = 6.95 lbs, By = 2.9 lbs
d. BX = 6.95 lbs, By = 3 lbs

1596. A 0.25 N bullet traveling at 500m/s hits a 44.75 N block

suspended vertically by a 3m long string. Find the maximum
angle in which the string makes with the vertical if the bullet
imbeds itself in the block.
a. 330 c. 28.90
0
b. 40 d. 300
1597. One end of a rope 50 ft long is attached o an automobile. The
other end is fastened to a tree. A man exerts a force of 100 lb
at the midpoint of the rope, pulling it 2 ft to the side. What is
the force exerted on the automobile?
a. 625 lbs c. 846 lbs
b. 620 lbs d. 528 lbs

1598. The hammer of a pile driver weights 1000 lb and must be

lifted a vertical distance of 6 ft in 3 sec. What horsepower
engine is required?
a. 5.34 hp c. 4.63 hp
b. 3.64 hp d. 6.43 hp

1599. The mass of the moon is one eighty-first and its radius one-
fourth that of the earth. What is the acceleration of gravity on
the surface of the moon? R e = 6.38 x 108 cm, Me = 6x1027
grams.
a. 205 c. 197
b. 192 d. 190

1600. The mass of the moon is one eighty-first, and its radius one-
fourth that of the earth. What is the acceleration of gravity on
the surface of the moon?
a. 192 cm/sec2 c. 197 cm/sec2
2
b. 190 cm/sec d. 205 cm/sec2

1601. A batted baseball leaves the bat at an angle of 30 0 above the

horizontal and is caught by an outfielder 400 ft from the
plate. What was the initial velocity of the ball?
a. 116 ft/sec c. 122 ft/sec
b. 128 ft/sec d. 126ft/sec

1602. A billiard ball whose diameter is 80 mm. What is the height

above the billiard table will the cue ball strike the billiard ball
so that it will roll frictionless?
a. 55 mm c. 60 mm
b. 56 mm d. 40 mm

1603. Permanent magnet materials are available commercially into

different classes one of these is …
a. Heat sink alloys
b. Quench hardened alloys
 c. Aluminum alloys
d. Manganese alloys

1604. Find the radius of gyration k of a solid sphere, diameter 6 ft

rotating about a diameter as an axis.
a. 1.8 ft c. 2.0 ft
b. 1.9 ft d. 2.5 ft

1605. The inner radius of a hollow cylinder is in 3 in, the outer

radius is 4 in and the length is 6 in. what is the radius of
gyration of the cylinder about x-axis?
a. 5.54 in c. 2.54 in
b. 3.54 in d. 1.95 in

1606. What diameter shaft is required to transmit 200 horsepower

at 1.850 rpm if the maximum shear stress is 10,000 psi and
the maximum twist is 1 degree per foot of length? The shaft
is round steel.
a. 1.41 in c. 2.54 in
b. 1.51 in d. 2.95 in

1607. The draft of a ship with 4,700 ft2 of water line cross section is
12 feet. What cargo load is required to increase the draft 3
inches? Assume the seawater has a density of 64.0 lbm/ft3.
a. 85,400 lbm c. 3,609,600 lbm
b. 3684,800 lbm d. 75,200 lbm

1608. Find the horizontal and vertical components of a 40-lb force

the direction of which is 500 above the horizontal to the right.
a. Fx = 30.6 lbs, Fy = 24.6 lbs
b. Fx = 30.6 lbs, Fy = 25.7 lbs
c. Fx = 25.7 lbs, Fy = 30.6 lbs
d. Fx + 24.6 lbs, Fy = 30.6 lbs

1609. A water-tight, cubical box with 12 inches outside dimensions,

is made from ¼ inch plate. If SG = 7.7 for the iron. Will the
box float?
a. The box will sink c. The box will float
b. The iron will float d. The box will not float

1610. An object is thrown vertically upward. It has a speed of

32ft/sec when it has reached one-half its maximum height.
How high does it rise?
a. 28 ft c. 32 ft
 b. 30 ft d. 34 ft

THERMODYNAMICS

1611. When the expansion or compression of gas takes place

without transfer of heat to or from the gas, the process is
called
a. isothermal c. isentropic
b. adiabatic d. reversible

1612. The chief differences between liquids and gases are: The chief
differences between liquids and gases are:
A. Liquids are practically incompressible whereas
gases are compressible
B. Liquids occupy definite volumes and have
free surfaces, whereas a given
C. Mass of gas expands until it occupies
of any containing vessel
D. Liquids obey the principle of fluid
mechanics; gases do not

a. all three, A, B, and C c. the first two, A and B

b. B and C d. none of these

1613. The ratio of the density of a substance to that density of some

standard substance is called
a. relative density c. specific gravity
b. specific density d. relative gravity

1614. The total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid

flowing across any section of a pipeline is a function of:
a. pressure and velocity
b. pressure, density and velocity
c. [ressure, velocity, density and viscosity
d. flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum
and internal energy
1615. The fundamental reference dimension are mass, length and
time. The fundamental SI units for them are kilograms (kg),
meter (m) and seconds (s). The unit of force derived from
these units is Newton (N). Consequently, the unit of pressure
in N/m is called
a. Pascal c. Mega Pascal
b. Gage d. stress

1616. This law states that pressure applied at a point in a confined

liquid is transmitted equally to all other points.
a. Boyle’s law c. Charles’ law
b. Lenz’ law d. Pascal’s law

1617. If the strain rate of the fluid is linearly proportional to the

applied shear stress and is zero when the later is zero, the
fluid is:
a. Brownian c. Archimedean
b. Newtonian d. Bernoullian

1618. A fluid for which the constant proportionality (the viscosity)

does not change with rate of deformation is said to be:
a. Newtonian fluid c. compressible fluid
b. incompressible fluid d. ideal fluid

1619. If the shear stress in a fluid varies linearly with the velocity
gradient, which of the following describes the fluid?
a. it has a constant viscosity
b. it is a Newtonian gas
c. it is a perfect gas
d. it is at constant temperature

1620. The ratio of the change in pressure to the relative change in

density, and measures the compressibility of a material is
known in fluid mechanics as:
a. bulk modulus of elasticity
b. compression index
c. compression ratio
d. modulus of volume

1621. Refers to the formula giving the terminal velocity of spherical

articles in liquid.
a. Buckingham-Pi c. Newton’s law
b. Archimedes’ law d. Stroke’s law
1622. This is the mechanical energy balance based on the first law
of thermodynamics. It includes potential energy (PE), kinetic
energy (KE), flow energy, losses and shaft work inputs, but
omits thermal energy. Similar to the Euler equation, though
written in differential form.
a. Manning equation c. Bernoulli’s equation
b. Kutter equation d. Hazen-Williams equation

1623. This formula relates the head loss with friction factor (f), the
length to diameter ratio (L/D), and the kinetic energy v²/2g.
a. Chezy c. Manning
b. Kutter d. Dracy-Weisback

1624. This law is used for diffusional flow, and closely parallels
conductive heat transfer. The form of the formula is Q = kIA
where Q is the volume flow rate, k is the coefficient of
permeability, I is the gradient, and A is the cross-sectional
area of the flow.
a. Darcy’s law c. Newton’s law
b. Chezy’s law d. Bernoulli’s law

1625. Refers to the gradient at which flow in a pipe of a particular

diameter will carry away any solids in it.
a. critical c. sub-critical
b. self-cleansing d. super critical

1626. A law that states that in a perfect fluid, the pressure exerted
on it anywhere gets transmitted in all directions.
a. Archimedes’ law c. Stoke’s
b. Darcy’s d. Pascal’s law

1627. If the relative density of oil is 0.75, its density is

a. 750 MPa c. 750 N/m²
b. 750 Pa d. 750 kg/m³

1628. The first law of thermodynamics is based in which of the

following principles?
a. conservation of mass
b. action-reaction
c. the enthalpy-entropy relationship
d. conservation of energy
1629. At constant pressure, it is the increase in enthalpy per unit of
mass when the temperature is increased one degree with its
volume held constant is called:
a. specific weight c. isotropic process
b. adiabatic process d. isentropic process

1630. The equation of state of the gas for isothermal conditions:

a. PV = constant c. PVK = constant
n
b. PV = constant d. none of these

1631. The equation of state of the gas for isentropic conditions:

a. PV = constant c. PVK = constant
b. PVn = constant d. none of these

1632. The equation of state of the gas for adiabatic conditions:

a. PV = constant c. PVK = constant
b. PVn = constant d. none of these

1633. In analyzing the steady flow of compressible fluids, the

process involved which there is no change in temperature is
involved is called:
a. isothermal process c. adiabatic process
b. isentropic process d. stagnation process

1634. The process involved in the analysis of a steady flow of

compressible fluids in which no heat is added or taken away
from the flow system is called:
a. isothermal process c. adiabatic process
b. isentropic process d. stagnation process

1635. The process involved in the analysis of a steady flow of

compressible fluids is also a frictionless adiabatic process is
called:
a. isothermal process c. adiabatic process
b. isentropic process d. stagnation process

1636. During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, which is

true about the change in entropy?
a. it is always zero
b. it is always greater than zero
c. it is always less than zero
d. it is temperature dependent
1637. The compressibility (change in volume due to change in
pressure) of a liquid is inversely proportional to its volume of
elasticity is known as:
a. bulk modulus c. modulus of elasticity
b. shear modulus d. strain modulus

1638. Cavitation occurs when the pressure in the liquid falls below
the _________ of that liquid.
a. vapor pressure c. atmospheric pressure
b. turbine speed d. peripheral speed

1639. Which statement is true for a fluid?

a. it cannot sustain a shear force
b. it cannot sustain a shear force at rest
c. it is a liquid only
d. it has a very regular molecular structure

1640. A fluid either liquid or gas, tangential or shearing force always

come into being whenever motion takes place, thus giving
rise to fluid friction because these forces oppose to movement
of one particle past another.
a. real fluid c. ideal fluid
b. compressible fluid d. incompressible fluid

1641. One atmospheric pressure is equal to:

a. 1013 mbars c. 760 mm of Hg
b. 10.3 m of H2O d. all of these

1642. The pressure exerted by the atmosphere in every surface with

which it comes in contact is known as:
a. atmospheric pressure c. absolute pressure
b. vapor pressure d. gage pressure

1643. Under normal condition at sea level, the atmospheric pressure

is most nearly:
a. 101.3 kPa c. 103.1 kPa
b. 110.3 kPa d. 130.1 kPa

1644. Which of the following is most accurate about a streamline?

a. it is a path of fluid particle
b. it is a line normal to the velocity vector everywhere
c. it is fixed in space in steady flow
d. it is defined for non-uniform flow only
1645. Absolute pressure is computed by the equation:
a. Pabs = Patm + Pgage c. Pabs = Pgage – Patm
b. Pabs = Patm – Pgage d. none of these

1646. All of the following is true about absolute pressure except:

a. absolute pressure can be negative
b. absolute pressure is the sum of atmospheric and gage
pressure
c. absolute pressure is measured above the absolute zero
d. absolute pressure can never be negative

1647. Under which conditions is mass conserved in fluid flow?

a. the fluid is baratropic
b. the flow is adiabatic
c. the flow is isentropic
d. it is always conserved

1648. Under which of the following conditions is Bernoulli’s equation

valid?
a. all points evaluated must be on the same streamline
b. the fluid must be incompressible
c. the fluid must be inviscid
d. all of the above

1649. Select the correct statement:

a. local atmospheric pressure depends upon the
deviation of locality only
b. local atmospheric pressure is always
c. standard atmospheric pressure is the mean
d. standard atmospheric pressure is 720 mm Hg abs

1650. Which of the following is true for water at a reference

temperature where enthalpy is zero?
a. internal energy is negative
b. entropy is non-zero
c. specific volume is zero
d. vapor pressure is zero

1651. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible,
isometric system?
a. positive c. negative
b. zero d. positive or negative
1652. How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic
process?
a. adiabatic: heat transfer=0; isentropic: heat transfer ≠ 0
b. adiabatic: heat transfer≠0; isentropic: heat transfer = 0
c. adiabatic: reversible; isentropic: not reversible
d. both heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible

1653. Which of the following thermodynamic cycles is the most

efficient?
a. Brayton c. Rankine
b. Carnot d. Rankine with reheat

1654. The ideal, reversible Carnot cycle involves four basic

processes. What type of processes are they?
a. two isothermal and two isentropic
b. all isothermal
c. two adiabatic and two isentropic
d. all adiabatic

1655. Which of the following is not an advantage of a superheated,

closed Rankine cycle over an open Rankine cycle?
a. lower equipment cost c. increased boiler life
b. increased turbine life d. increased efficiency

1656. The bulk modulus of elasticity, K, for a gas constant

temperature T is given by:
a. P (p) c. R (T)
b. P/p d. none of these

1657. The continuity equation:

a. relates mass rate flow along a stream
b. relates the relationship between work and energy
c. requires that the flow must be laminar
d. relates the momentum concept

1658. What is the Arrhenius equation for the rate of a thermally

activated process? (A = reaction constant; T = absolute
temperature; R = gas constant; Q = activation energy)
a. rate = A℮-Q/RT c. rate = A℮Q/RT
b. rate = A℮-QRT d. rate = A℮QRT

1659. An adiabatic process in a system is one in which:

a. no heat enters or leaves the system
b. the system does not work nor is work done on it
 c. the temperature of the system remains constant
d. the pressure of the system remains constant

1660. A Carnot engine that operates between the absolute

temperature T1 and T2:
a. is 100% efficient
b. has the maximum efficiency possible under these
circumstances
c. has an efficiency of T1/T2
d. has an efficiency equal to the actual engine that
operates between T1 and T2

1661. Which of the following engines is normally the least efficient?

a. gasoline engine c. diesel engine
b. gas turbine d. Carnot engine

1662. A refrigerator
a. produces coldness
b. causes heat to vanish
c. removes heat from a region and transport it
elsewhere
d. changes heat to coldness

1663. Heat is absorbed by the refrigerant in a refrigerator when it:

a. melts c. vaporizes
b. condenses d. is compressed

1664. How much heat is required to change 100 lbs of ice at 10°F to
steam at 212°F? Assume the following:
specific heat of ice = 0.5 BTU/lb∙°F
heat of fusion of ice = 144 BTU/lb
specific heat of water = 1
BTU/lb∙°F heat of vaporization of
water = 970 BTU/lb
a. 125,000 BTU c. 130,500 BTU
b. 150,000 BTU d. 110,500 BTU

1665. What will be the pressure in KPa, at height of 2000 m in an

isothermal atmosphere? Assuming T=20°C and Patm = 100
KPa
a. 87 c. 79
b. 82 d. 71
1666. What pressure differential, in Pascals, exists at the bottom of
a 3 m vertical wall when the temperature inside is 20°C and
outside is 20°C. Assume equal pressure at the top.
a. 15 c. 9
b. 12 d. 6

1667. The mass of water vapor per unit volume of air.

a. absolute humidity c. relative humidity
b. specific humidity d. critical humidity

1668. When gas is heated at constant pressure, the process called

a. Isometric c. polytropic
b. Isobaric d. isothermal

1669. When gas is heated at constant volume, the process is called

a. isotropic c. isometric
b. isobaric d. adiabatic

1670. An engine cycle containing two adiabatic and two isothermal

processes.
a. Carnot cycle c. Diesel cycle
b. Rankine cycle d. Otto cycle

1671. It is the condition, pressure and temperature at which a liquid

and its vapor are indistinguishable.
a. dew point c. relative humidity
b. absolute humidity d. critical point

1672. States that a heat engine cannot transfer heat from a body to
another at higher temperature unless external energy is
supplied to the engine.
a. first law of thermodynamics
b. Planck’s law
c. second law of thermodynamics
d. third law of thermodynamics

1673. Entropy is the measure of

a. the change in enthalpy of a system
b. randomless or disorder
c. the internal energy of a gas
d. the heat capacity of a substance
1674. The amount of heat passing through a body of 1m² cross-
section and 1m thick in 1 hour at a temperature difference of
1°C.
a. quantity of heat c. latent heat of solid
b. specific heat d. thermal conductivity

1675. This heated air, being lighter, rises and circulates through the
house or is forced through by a fan called
a. vacuum c. steam
b. vapor d. forced convection

1676. Is one whose pressure is higher that the saturation pressure

corresponding to its temperature.
a. compressed gas c. combustion
b. compressed liquid d. expansion ratio

1677. Is one whose temperature is below the saturation

temperature corresponding to its pressure.
a. sub-cooled liquid c. compression
b. condensation d. constant volume process

1678. It is a chart on which enthalpy is the ordinate and entropy is

the abscissa.
a. Ericson cycle c. Charles’ law
b. Mollier chart d. Bernoulli’s chart

1679. Is one with rigid boundaries exchanging neither energy nor

mass with its surroundings.
a. entropy c. isolated system
b. ideal gas d. heat

1680. Which of the following give the optimum intermediate

pressure in case of two stage compression?
a. p4 = (p1 +p2)/2 c. p2 = √p1p2
b. p3 = p1 +(p1+p2)/2 d. p = p1 + √(p1² +p3²)

1681. In the polytropic process we have the PVⁿ= constant, if the

value of n is infinitely large, the process is called?
a. constant pressure process
b. constant temperature process
c. adiabatic process
d. constant volume process
1682. The thermodynamic cycle used in a thermal power plant is
a. Ericsson c. Carnot
b. Brayton d. Rankine

1683. For the same heat input and the same compression ratio
a. both Otto cycle and Diesel cycle are equally efficient
b. Otto cycle is less efficient compared to Diesel cycle
c. efficiency depends mainly on working substance
d. none of the above

1684. The change in enthalpy for small temperature change, ΔT, for
an ideal gas is given by the relation
a. ΔH = CU ΔT c. ΔH = (C/CV) ΔT
b. ΔH = CP ΔT d. ΔH = CP ΔT

1685. Entropy, for reversible flow, is given by the relation

a. dS = du + pd (1/p) c. S = u +pVs
b. dS = TdqH d. dS = dqH/t

1686. In a polytropic process, if the work done in heat unit is w,

then the amount of heat transferred is given by
a. W c. (τ - 1)W/(n – τ)
b. ΤW d. (τ –n)W/(τ –1)

1687. A heat exchange process wherein the product of pressure and

volume remains constant is called
a. heat exchange process c. throttling process
b. isentropic process d. hyperbolic process

1688. The S.I. unit for pressure is

a. mm of water column c. dynes/cm²
b. Pascal d. all of the above

1689. Sterling cycle has

a. two isothermal and two adiabatic process
b. two adiabatic and two isentropic process
c. two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes
d. two isothermal and two constant volume
processes

1690. Brayton cycle has

a. two isentropic and two constant volume processes
 b. two isentropic and two constant pressure
processes
c. one constant pressure, one constant volume, two
adiabatic processes
d. two isothermal, a constant volume and a constant
pressure processes

1691. Diesel cycle consists of

a. isentropic, isothermal, constant volume, constant
pressure processes
b. two constant volume, one constant pressure, one
isothermal process
c. two isotropic, one constant volume, one constant
pressure process
d. two constant pressure, one constant volume, one
isentropic process

1692. Ericsson cycle has

a. two isothermal and two constant volume processes
b. two isothermal and two isentropic process
c. two adiabatic, constant volume and constant pressure
process
d. two isothermal and two constant pressure
processes

1693. Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even

for same adiabatic compression ratio and work output
because
a. Otto cycle is highly efficient
b. Brayton cycle is less efficient
c. Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only
d. large volume of low pressure air cannot be
efficiently handled in reciprocating engines

1694. Which cycle is generally used for gas turbines?

a. Otto cycle c. Dual cycle
b. Rankine cycle d. Brayton cycle

1695. The constant pressure gas turbine works on the principle of

a. Carnot cycle c. Rankine cycle
b. Bell – Coleman cycle d. Brayton cycle
1696. Which of the following provides the basis for measuring
thermodynamic property of temperature?
a. first law of thermodynamics
b. second law of thermodynamics
c. third law of thermodynamics
d. zeroth law of thermodynamics

1697. Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric, isochoric and

adiabatic processes are
a. dynamic process c. quasi-static process
b. stable process d. static process

1698. Isentropic flow is

a. perfect gas flow
b. irreversible adiabatic flow
c. ideal fluid flow
d. reversible adiabatic flow

1699. Exhaust gases from an engine possess

a. solar energy c. chemical energy
b. kinetic energy d. stored energy

1700. The extension and compression of helical spring is an

example of
a. isothermal cycle c. irreversible process
b. adiabatic process d. reversible process

1701. Which of the following relations is not applicable in a free

expansion process?
a. heat supplied = zero
b. heat rejected = zero
c. work done = zero
d. change in temperature = zero

1702. An ideal engine absorbs heat a temperature of 127 °C and

exhaust heat at a temperature of 77 °C. Its efficiency will be
a. 50% c. (127-77)/127 %
b. 33% d. 13%

1703. The triple point of a substance is the temperature and

pressure at which
a. the solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium
b. the liquid and gaseous phases are in equilibrium
 c. the solid, liquid and the gaseous phases are in
equilibrium
d. the solid does not melt, liquid does not boil and
the gas does not condensate

1704. According to Clausius Inequality statement for any cycle of

process, reversible or irreversible
a. cyclic δQ/T > 0 c. cyclic δQ/T = 0
b. cyclic δQ/T < 0 d. cyclic δQ/T ≤ 0

1705. A heat engine has the following specifications:

Power developed 50 kW
Fuel burned per hour 3 kg
Heating value of fuel 75,000 kJ
per kg Temperature limits
627°C and 27°C
This engine is
a. real c. costly
b. impossible d. cheaper

1706. A heat engine is supplying heat at the rate of 30,000 J/s and
gives an output of 9 kW. The thermal efficiency of the engine
is
a. 43% c. 55%
b. 50% d. 30%

1707. According to Clausius statement,

a. heat flows from hot substance to cold substance
b. heat flows from hot substance to cold substance,
unaided
c. heat can flow from cold substance to hot substance with
the aid of external work
d. both (b) and (c)

1708. Select the cycle that consists of two isothermal and constant
volume process.
a. Joule cycle c. Otto cycle
b. Diesel cycle d. Ericsson cycle

1709. “It is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in a

cycle and receives a given quantity of heat from a high
temperature body and equal amount of work” The above
statement is known as
 a. Gay Lussac law c. Kelvin – Planck law
b. Kinetic theory d. Joule – Thomson law

1710. Which of the engine is used for fighter bombers?

a. turbo prop c. ramjet
b. turbojet d. pulsejet

1711. In a diesel engine, fuel is injected

a. at the beginning of compression stroke
b. before the end of compression stroke
c. at the end of compression stroke
d. after the end of compression stroke

1712. Which is not correct for calculating air standard efficiency?

a. all processes are reversible
b. specific heat remains unchanged at all temperature
c. no account of the mechanism of heat transfer is
considered
d. gases dissociate at higher temperature

1713. A Bell – Coleman cycle is a reversed

a. Stirling cycle c. Joule cycle
b. Brayton cycle d. Carnot cycle

1714. According to Prettlier Thomson effect

a. it is possible to construct a heat engine that operates in
a cycle and receives a given quantity of heat from a
high temperature body and does equal amount of work
b. it is possible to construct a device that operates in a
cycle and produces no effect other than the transfer of
heat from a cooler body to hotter body
c. heat can be converted into work
d. work can’t be converted into heat

1715. A control volume refers to

a. a specified mass c. an isolated system
b. a reversible process d. a fixed region in space

1716. The Beattie – Bridgeman equation of state is quite accurate in

cases of
a. all pressures above atmospheric pressures
b. densities less than about 0.8 times the critical
density
c. near critical temperature
 d. near critical pressure

1717. Which of the following statement about Van der Waal’s

equation is correct?
a. it is valid for all pressure and temperature
b. it represents a straight line on pv versus v plot
c. it has three roots of identical value at the critical point
d. the equation is valid for diatomic gases only

1718. A hydrometer scale for measuring the relative density

(specific gravity) of liquids:
a. Beckman scale c. Baume scale
b. Beaufort scale d. Buckley scale

1719. Energy can neither be destroyed nor created, law of:

a. none of these
b. conservation of energy
c. conservation of momentum
d. conservation of mass

1720. A sealed tank contains 27oC at a pressure of 2 atm. If the

temperature increases to 100oC the pressure inside the tank
will be:
a. 4.15 atm. c. 1.60 atm.
b. 0.54 atm. d. 2.49 atm.

1721. The negative sign is for a gage reading called:

a. transmission of pressure c. vapor pressure
b. vacuum pressure d. pressure head

1722. Total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing

across any suction in a pipeline is a function of:
a. pressure and velocity
b. flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum
and internal energy
c. pressure, density and velocity
d. pressure, velocity and volume

1723. Is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation pressure

corresponding to the temperature:
a. combustion c. expansion ratio
b. compression liquid d. compressed gas
1724. An instrument which is used to determine the specific gravity
of a substance
a. substance c. hydrometer
b. throttling calorimeter d. odometer

1725. Assuming that the barometer reads 760 mm Hg, what is the
absolute pressure for 90 cm Hg gage?
a. 74.213 kPa c. 221.24 kPa
b. 48 kPa d. 358 kPa

1726. During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is

TRUE about the change in entropy?
a. it is temperature dependent
b. it is always less than zero
c. it is always zero
d. it is always greater than zero

1727. An instrument which used to measure small pressure

a. venture c. orifice
b. aneroid d. manometer

1728. The stress in a 90 cm. diameter pipe having a wall thickness

of 9.5 cm. and a static head of 70 m of water is:
a. 3.25 MPa c. 32.5 MPa
b. 32.5 Kpa d. 325 Kpa

1729. An open chamber rests on the ocean floor in 49 cm. of sea

water (sp. gr. = 1.03) What air pressure in Kpa must be
maintained inside to exclude water:
a. 495.1 Kpa c. 500.5 KPa
b. 490.5 Kpa d. 496.7 Kpa

1730. For a heat engine operating between two temperatures (T 2 >

T1), what is the maximum efficiency attainable?
a. 1 – T1 /T2 c. 1 – T2 / T1
b. T1 / T 2 d. 1 – (T1)2 / T2

1731. When property changes cease, the bodies are said to be in:
a. change in volume c. slug
b. triple point d. thermal equilibrium
1732. A device produces 37.5 joules per cycle. There is one power
stroke per cycle. Calculate the power output if the device is
run at 45 rpm.
a. 4.69 W c. 27.56W
b. 28.125 W d. 14.063 W

1733. What height of mercury column is equivalent to a pressure of

100 psig? Density of mercury is 848 lb/ft3.
a. 14 ft c. 12 ft
b. 17 ft d. 11 ft

1734. A piston and cylinder arrangement contains saturated water

vapor at 110 deg C. The vapor is compressed in a reversible,
adiabatic process until the pressure is 1.6 MPa. What is the
work done by the system per kilogram of water?
a. –330 KJ/kg c. –509 KJ/kg
b. –637 KJ/kg d. –432 KJ/kg

1735. What is the efficiency of an Otto cycle with a compression

ratio of 6:1? The gas used is air:
a. 0.512 c. 0.800
b. 0.488 d. 0.167

1736. During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is

TRUE about the change in entropy:
a. it is temperature dependent
b. it is always less than zero
c. it is always zero
d. it is always greater than zero

1737. One leg of mercury U-tube manometer is connected to a pipe

containing water under a gage pressure of 14.2 lb/in 2. The
mercury in this leg stands 20 in. below the water. What is the
height of mercury in the other leg which is open to the air?
Specify gravity of mercury is 13.6?
a. 3.6 ft c. 3.2 ft
b. 1.5 ft d. 2.6 ft

1738. Five moles of water vapor at 100 degree C and 1 atmosphere

are compressed isobarically to from liquid at 100 degree C.
The process is reversible and the ideal gas laws apply.
Compute the work, in joules, done on the system.
a. 10.5 MJ c. 6 MJ
b. 15 MJ d. 6 kJ
1739. Gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top
boundary. The gas is heated and expands from s volume of
0.40 m3 at a constant pressure of 200 KPa. Find the work
done on the system.
a. 16 KJ c. 14 KJ
b. 10 KJ d. 12 KJ

1740. For a heat engine operating between two temperature

(T2>T1), what is the maximum efficiency attainable?
T
1  1 T
1 2
T
a. 2 c. T
1
T (T )²
1 1
b. T d. 1  T
2 2

1741. A 20 liter sample of gas exerts a pressure of 1 atm. At 25 deg

C. If its is expanded into a 40-liter vessel that is held at 100
deg C, what will be its final pressure?
a. 0.50 atm. c. 0.315 atm.
b. 1.0 atm. d. 0.63 atm.

1742. A 36 inch petcock is anchored by a thrust block at a point

where the flow makes a 20 degree change in direction. The
water flow rate is 185 ft/sec. The water pressure is 2,880
lb/ft2 everywhere in the penstock. What is the resultant force
on the thrust block?
a. 8,900 lb c. 2,800 lb
b. 29,800 lb d. 120,300 lb

1743. As cylinder and piston arrangement contains saturated water

vapor at 110 degree C. The vapor is compresses in a
reversible adiabatic process until the pressure is 1.6 MPa.
Find the work done by the system per kilogram of water:
a. –432 kJ/kg c. –300 kJ/kg
b. –637 kJ/kg d. –509 kJ/kg

1744. A reversible thermodynamic system is made of follow the

Carnot cycle between the temperature limits of 650 degree F,
and 150 degree F. 300 BTU of heat are supplied per cycle to
the system. What is the change in entropy during the heat
addition?
a. 0.27 BTU/degree R c. 1.30 BTU/degree R
 b. 0.46 BTU/degree R d. 0.75 BTU/degree R

1745. A mercury barometer at the base of Mt. Makiling reads 654

mm and at the same time another barometer at the top of
the mountain reads 480 mm. Assuming sp. weight of air to be
constant at 12N/m3. What is the approximate height of Mt.
Makiling?
a. 1,934.5 m c. 4,168.2 m
b. 3,508.4 m d. 2,647.7 m

1746. In a diesel engine, the cylinder compresses air from

approximately standard pressure and temperature to about
one-sixteenth the original volume and a pressure of about 50
atm. What is the temperature of the compressed air?
a. 853 K c. 893 K
b. 863 K d. 878 K

1747. If atmospheric air is 14.7 psia and 60°F at sea level, what is
the pressure at 12,000 feet altitude if the air is compressed
isothermally?
a. 11.64 psia c. 19.54 psia
b. 9.53 psia d. 19.63 psia

1748. An ideal gas in a cylinder is compressed adiabatically to one

third its original volume. During the process 45 J of work is
done on the gas by the compressing agent. By how much did
the internal energy of the gas change in the process?
a. 55 J c. 40 J
b. 50 J d. 45 J

1749. Which of the following relationships is true for an ideal gas

going through a reversible adiabatic process?
a. cvdT + pdV = 0 c. cpdT + pdV = 0
b. cvdT – Vdp = 0 d. du + dh = ds

1750. Air at 400°F and 50 psia is compressed isothermally to one-

tenth of its original volume, What is the final pressure?
a. 100 psia c. 375 psia
b. 1000 psia d. 500 psia

1751. A gas is compressed in a reversible process from 15 psia and

68°F to 75 psia. If the compression process follows a
polytropic relationship with n = 1.4, what work is done by the
gas during the compression?
 a. 1.7 x 106 ft-lb/pmole c. –1.2 x 106 ft-lb/pmole
b. –1.7 x 106 ft-lb/pmole d. 1.2 x 106 ft-lb/pmole

1752. For which type of process does the equation dQ = TdS hold?
a. iothermal c. reversible
b. isometric d. irreversible

1753. Which process does not belong to Carnot cycle process?

a. Isentropic compression
b. Irreversible adiabatic compression
c. Reversible adiabatic expansion
d. Constant temperature adding heat

1754. What is the sea level (g = 32.2 ft/sec 2) specific weight (lb/ft3)
of liquid with density of 58.3 lbm/ft3?
a. 58.3 lbm/ft3 c. 64.3 lbm/ft3
b. 48.3 lbm/ft3 d. 25.3 lbm/ft3

1755. An instrument use to measure pressure by using height-

pressure relationship.
a. hdrometer c. manometer
b. hygrometer d. siphon

1756. A tank has gauge pressure of 500mmHg vacuum. Find the

pressure in kPa gauge? Use a conversion factor from mmHg
to kPa (pascal = N/m2) is 133.4.
a. 66.7 kPa c. –66.7 kPa
b. 70 kPa d. 80 kPa

1757. A Carnot cycle operates at maximum thermal efficiency. This

is one of the useful statement in the second law of
thermodynamics.
a. True c. Partly False
b. False d. Do not follow

1758. A gas has a density of 0.094 lbm/ft³ at 100 and 2 atm. What
pressure is needed to change the density to 0.270 lbm/ft³ at
250F?
a. 5.28 atm c. 7.28 atm
b. 6.28 atm d. 8.28 atm

1759. Find the charge in internal energy of 10 lbm of oxygen gas

when the temperature changes from 100 0F to 1200F, Cv =
0.157 BTU/lbm-OR.
 a. 23.55 BTU c. 14.63 BTU
b. 15.70 BTU d. 10.23 BTU

1760. 4 lbm/sec of steam enter a turbine with velocity of 65ft/sec

and enthalpy of 1350 BTU/lbm. The steam enter the
condenser after being expanded to 1075 BTU/lbm and 125
ft/sec. The total heat loss from the turbine casing is 50
BTU/sec. What power is generated by the turbine?
a. 1400 hp c. 1500 hp
b. 1600 hp d. 1700 hp

1761. The amount of heat required to raised the temperature of 2

kg of iron (sp.heat = 0.115 kcal/kg- 0C) from 270C to 1000C
is:
a. 16.8 kcal c. 15.8 kcal
b. 18.6 kcal d. 14.8 kcal

1762. What is the maximum height that a vacuum pump can lift 60 0
water if the atmospheric pressure is 14.6 psia and local
gravity is 28 ft/sec2?
a. 11.64 psia c. 19.54 psia
b. 9.53 psia d. 19.63 psia

1763. Oil (density of 55 lbm/ft3) flows a 1 ft/sec through a 1-inch

diameter pipe. A 0.2-inch diameter orifice (Cf= 0.6) is
installed. What is the indicated pressure drop?
a. 1682.7 lbf/ft2 c. 2082.7 lbf/ft2
2
b. 1482.7 lbf/ft d. 1882.7 lbf/ft2

1764. No heat can be produced without any losses of heat. This is

one of the useful statement of the second law of
thermodynamics.
a. true c partly false
b. partly true d. false

1765. The draft of a ship with 4700 ft2 of water line cross-section is
12 feet. What cargo load is required to increase the draft 3
inches? Assume that sea water has a density of 64.0 lbm/ft3.
a. 85,400 lbm c. 3,609,600 lbm
b. 3,684,800 lbm d. 75,200 lbm
1766. With what terminal velocity will an air bubble 1 mm in
diameter rise in a liquid of viscosity 150 cp and density 0.90
gram/cc? Pair = 0.00129 gram/cc
a. 0.42 cm/sec c. 0.32 cm/sec
b. 0.54 cm/sec d. 0.24 cm/sec

1767. A turbine uses 100,000 lbm/hr of steam which enter with an

enthalpy of 1400 BTU/lbm and essentially zero entrance
velocity. 10,000 horsepower are developed. The exit velocity
of the steam is 500 fps. Expansion is adiabatic. What is the
exit enthalpy?
a. 1240.8 BTU/lbm c. 1140.5 BTU/lbm
b. 1540.5 BTU/lbm d. 1680.4 BTU/lbm

1768. How many BTU’s are needed to isothermally compress 4 lbm

of 240° air twice the original pressure?
a. –150 BTU c. +160 BTU
b. +140 BTU d. –132 BTU

1769. What is the heat flow when 3 lbm of nitrogen undergo a

closed system isothermal process at 300°F from an initial
volume of 40 cubic feet to final volume of 22.5 cubic feet?
a. 70 BTU c. 80 BTU
b. –72 BTU d. –93 BTU

1770. What is the specific enthalpy of 4 lbs of water, which is

initially 80°F and to which 240 BTU are added?
a. 115 BTU/lb c. 108 BTU/lb
b. 120 BTU/lb d. 150 BTU/lb

1771. If atmospheric air is 14.7 psia and 60F at sea-level, what is

the pressure at 12,000 feet altitude if the air is compressed
adiabatically?
a. 29.62 psia c. 9.36 psia
b. 9.26 psia d. 39.36 psia

1772. If the atmospheric air is 14.7 psia and 60°F at sea level, what
is the pressure at 12,000 feet altitude if the air is compressed
isothermally?
a. 11.64 psia c. 15.54 psia
b. 9.53 psia d. 18.63 psia

1773. The entrance enthalpy, velocity, and height of a 5 lbm/sec

system are 1000 BTU/lbm, 100 ft/sec, and 100 feet
 respectively. 50 BTU/sec are lost to the surroundings. The
exit enthalpy, velocity and height are 1020 BTU/lbm, 10
ft/sec and 0 feet respectively. What is the input horsepower?
a. 20 c. 210.8
b. 250 d. 300

1774. Gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top

boundary. The gas is heated and expands from a volume of
0.04 m3 to 0.1 m3 at a constant pressure of 150 kPa.
Calculate the work done by the system.
a. 14 kJ c. 9 kJ
b. 12 kJ d. 15 kJ

1775. The barometer reads 29.0 inches or mercury. What s the

absolute pressure if a vacuum gage reads 9.5 psi?
a. 4.74 lbf/in2 (psi) c. 474 lbf/in2 (psi)
b. 47.4 lbf/in2 (psi) d. 474.4 lbf/in2 (psi)

1776. Assuming atmospheric conditions at sea level are 14.7 psia

and 59°F. What is the expected pressure at 35,000 feet
altitude? Assume the temperature decreases 3.5°F per 1,000
feet altitude.
a. 6.789 psia c. 3.456 psia
b. 4.567 psia d. 5.678 psia

1777. Two liquids enter a mixing chamber and are discharged at

800F at the rate of 50 gal/min. Liquid A enter at 140 0F with a
specific heat of 10 BTU/gal- 0F. Liquid B enters at 65 0F with
specific heat of 8.33 BTU/gal-0F. What is the volume flow for
liquid B?
a. 63.38 gal/min c. 41.38 gal/min
b. 32.38 gal/min d. 74.38 gal/min

1778. Two liquids enter a mixing chamber and are discharged at

80°F at the rate of 50 gal/min. Liquid A enters at 140°F with
a specific heat of 10 BTU/gal-°F. What is the specific heat of
the mixture?
a. 4.12 Btu/gal-°F c. 8.62 BTU/gal-°F
b. 5.32 BTU/gal-°F d. 6.02 BTU/gal-°F

1779. A Carnot machine operates between the hot reservoir at

200°C and a cold reservoir at 20°C. When operated as an
 engine it receives 1000 kJ/kg. Find the coefficient of
performance (COP) when used as refrigerator.
a. 1.77 c. 1.99
b. 1.63 d. 2.63

1780. To what height will a barometer column rise if the

atmospheric conditions are 13.9 psia and 68°F and the
barometer fluid is water?
a. 676.7 inches c. 476.7 inches
b. 576.7 inches d. 376.7 inches

1781. One kg of air 1.2 kg/sq.cm at 30°C is compressed according

to the law of PV where C = 1.36 until its volume is 0.5 cu.m.
If it is compressed isothermally, what will be the % of saving
work?
a. 7.1% c. 6.9%
b. 6.6% d. 7.0%

1782. An artificial satellite, constructed of aluminum, encircles the

earth at a speed of 9,000 m/sec. Find the ratio of kinetic
energy to the energy required to raise its temperature by
600C. The melting point of aluminum is 660. Assume
constant specific heat capacity of 0.2 cal/g-C.
a. 147.5 c. 337.5
b. 257.5 d. 538.7

1783. Helium ( R=0.468 BTU/lbm-R) is compressed isothermally

from 14.7 psia and 68F. the compression ratio is 4. Calculate
the work done by the gas in BTU/lbm.
a. –564 c. –567
b. –375 d. –364

1784. A tank contains 3 cubic feet of 120 psig air at 80F. How
many tires of volume 1.2 ft³ can be inflated to 28 psig at
80F.
a. 8 c. 5
b. 4 d. 3

1785. A quantity of air 180F originally occupies 20 ft³ at 30 psig.

The gas is compressed reversibly and adiabatically to 180
psig. What is the heat flow?
a. 200 BTU c. 100 BTU
b. 120 cal d. 0
1786. What horsepower is required isothermally compress 800ft 3 of
air per minute from 14.7 psia to 120 psia?
a. 100 hp c. 115 hp
b. 108 hp d. 150 hp

1787. What is the pressure 8000 feet below the surface of the
ocean? Neglect compressibility.
a. 312,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg) c. 912,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg)
b. 512,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg) d. 712,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg)

1788. What is the sea level (g = 32.2 ft/sec 2) specific weight

(lbf/ft3) of liquid with density of 58.3 lbm/ft3?
a. 58.3 lbm/ft3 c. 64.3 lbm/ft3
b. 43.3 lbm/ft3 d. 25.3 lbm/ft3

1789. A 50 horsepower motor (75% efficient) drives a 900-rpm

pump (90% efficient) that moves 5 ft3/sec of gasoline (SG =
0.728). What is the specific speed?
a. 1381 c. 1679
b. 1466 d. 1569

1790. What is the pressure 8,000 feet below the surface of the
ocean? Neglect compressibility.
a. 512,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg) c. 312,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg)
b. 712,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg) d. 912,000 lbf/ft2 (psfg)

1791. A Carnot machine operates between the hot reservoir at

2000C and a cold reservoir at 20 0C. When operated as an
engine it receives 1000KJ/kg. Find the coefficient of
performance (COP) when used as heat pump.
a. 4.1 c. 2.63
b. 2.95 d. 2.88

1792. To what height will a barometer column rise if the

atmospheric conditions are 13.9 psia and 68 0F and the
barometer fluid is ethyl alcohol?
a. 157.9 inches c. 257.9 inches
b. 359.9 inches d. 457.9 inches

1793. Assuming atmospheric conditions at sea level 14.7 psia and

590F. what is the expected 35,000 feet altitude? Assume the
temperature decreases 3.5 0F per 1000 feet altitude.
 a. 3.456 psia c. 5.678 psia
b. 4.567 psia d. 6.789 psia

1794. If atmosphere air is 14.7 psia and 60 0F at sea level. What is

the pressure at 12,000 feet altitude if the air is compressed
isothermally?
a. 11.64 psia c. 15.54 psia
b. 9.53 psia d. 18.63 psia

1795. The efficiency of an Otto cycle is 50% and k = 1.50. what is

the compression ratio?
a. 2 c. ½
b. 4 d. ¼

1796. A quality of air at 1800F originally occupies 20ft 3 at 30 psig.

The gas is compressed reversibly and adiabatically to 180
psig. What is the heat flow?
a. 200BTU c. BTU
b. cal d. 0

1797. The difference between stagnation and static pressures in

pilot/static tube is 2.0 inch Hg. What is the relative velocity in
air at 700F and 14.7 psia?
a. 348.7 ft/sec c. 444.7 ft/sec
b. 333.7 ft/sec d. 258.7 ft/sec

1798. What is the specific enthalpy of 4 lbs of water, which is

initially at 800F and to which 240 BTU are added?
a. 115 BTU/lb c. 108 BTU/lb
b. 120 BTU/lb d. 150 BTU/lb

1799. Determine the specific gravity of carbon dioxide (150 0F , 20

psia) Using STP air as a reference.
a. 1.7 c. 1.85
b. 1.8 d. 1.87

1800. What horsepower is required to isothermally compress 800ft 3

of air per minute from 14.7 psia to 120 psia?
a. 100 hp c. 115 hp
b. 108 hp d. 150hp
1801. Helium (R = 0.4968 BTU/lbm-0R) is compress isothermally
from 14.7 psia and 68 0F. The compression ratio is 4.
Calculate the work done by the gas.
a. –364 BTU c. –584 BTU/lbm
b. –357 BTU/lbm d. –537 BTU/lbm

1802. A quantity of gas occupies 1.2 cubic feet at STP. The gas is
allowed to expand to 1.5 cubic feet and 15psia. What is the
new temperature?
a. 4500R c. 6280R
b. 5900R d. 7840R

1803. A motorist equips his automobile tires with a relief-type valve

so that the pressure inside the tire never will exceed 240 kPa
(gage). He starts a trip with a pressure of 200 kPa (gage). He
starts a trip with a pressure of 200 kPA (gage) and a
temperature of 230C in the tires. During the long drive, the
temperature of the air in the tires reaches 83 0C. each tire
contains 0.11 kg of air. Determine the mass of air escaping
each tire.
a. 6.39 x 10-3 kg c. 2.59 x10–10 kg
b. 6.39 x 10–3 kg d. 2.59 x 10-5 kg

1804. Oil (density of 55 lbm/ft3) flows at 1 ft/sec through a 1 inch-

diameter pipe. A 0.2 inch diameter orifice (C=0.6) is installed.
What is the indicated pressure drop?
a. 1,428.7 lbf/ft2 c. 1,882.7 lbf/ft2
b. 1652.7 lbf/ft2 d. 2,082.7 lbf/ft2

1805. A scuba diver at depth of 200 feet notices the bubbles he

exhales have diameter of ½ inch. Assume the tension and
water temperature remain relatively constant. What is the
pressure on the bubble at a depth of 400 feet?
a. 155.0 lbf/in2 (psia) c. 177.0 lbf/in2 (psia)
2
b. 188.0 lbf/in (psia) d. 166.0 lbf/in2 (psia)

1806. A Scuba diver at a depth of 200 feet notices the bubbles he

exhales have diameter of ½ inch. Assume the tension and
water temperature remains relatively constant what is the
pressure on the bubble?
a. 404.40 9 (psia) c. 303.40 psia
b. 101.40 psia d. 202.40 psia
1807. To what height will a barometer column rise if the
atmospheric conditions are 13.9 psia and 68 0F and the
barometer fluid is ethyl alcohol?
a. 157.9 inches c. 457.9 inches
b. 357.9 inches d. 257.9 inches