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PRE-MEDICAL
PROTOPLASM
EXERCISE # 1
Q.1 Smell in protoplasm is like – Q.9 Which element is common in haemoglobin
(1) NH3 (2) SO2 and myoglobin -
(3) Garlic (4) None (1) Fe (2) Cu
(3) Mn (4) Mg
Q.2 In true solution size of solute particles is –
(1) Less than 0.001 (2) 0.001 – 0.1 Q.10 Which of the following type of water most
(3) More than 0.1 (4) None abundantly found in protoplasm –
(1) Free form (2) Bound form
Q.3 In sol type of colloidal solution, dispersion (3) Crystal form (4) Ice
phase is –
(1) Solid (2) Liquid Q.11 What is function of trace elements which
(3) Gas (4) None occur in protoplasm – [RPMT - 91]
(1) Formation of enzymes
Q.4 Trace element is – (2) Formation of Hormones
(1) Fe (2) Zn (3) Formation of Haemoglobin
(3) Na (4) Mg (4) Formation of Chlorophyll
Q.5 Ca2+ is necessary in - [RPMT - 94] Q.12 Hormones, enzymes and vitamins are
(1) Muscle contraction included in same group of biochemicals
(2) Blood clotting because these all – [RPMT - 89]
(3) Bone formation (1) Composed of proteins
(4) All the above (2) Regulate oxidative metabolism
Q.6 Which element is found in abunance in (3) Synthesized in animal body
eukaryotic cell – [RPMT - 94] (4) Help to regulate the metabolism
(1) Ca (2) P Q.13 Inter change of plasmasol and plasmagel is a
(3) Mg (4) S [RPMT - 89]
Q.7 Which element is most abundant outside (1) bio-chemical phenomenon
animal cell – [RPMT - 94] (2) Physico-bio-chemical phenomenon
(1) Na (2) K (3) Chemical
(3) I2 (4) Fe (4) Physical
Q.8 Term protoplasm is introduced by – Q.14 Inside of cell as compared to outside have –
(1) Purkinje [RPMT – 94, 92]
[RPMT - 88]
(2) Schultze
(1) More sodium (2) More potassium
(3) Sutton and Boveri
(3) More Na and K (4) None
(4) Van mohl
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Q.15 Percentage of water in animal body is – (1) K+ (2) Mg+2
(1) 20% (2) 65% (3) Ca+2 (4) Na+
(3) 55% (4) 15%
Q.23 Saline solution is given to patients of
Q.16 Water is important for the body of animals Cholera because –
in [BHU - 79] [AIPMT - 2000]
(1) Reproduction +
(1) Na prevents water loss from body
(2) Keeping the body cooled (2) NaCl functions as regulatory material
(3) Working as solvent (3) NaCl produces energy
(4) All of them (4) NaCl is antibacterial
Q.24 Which element is located at the centre of
Q.17 Decreasing order of organic compound in
the porphyrin ring in chlorophyll –
protoplasm is –
[AIPMT - 2003]
(1) Protein, lipid, Nucleic acid, Vitamin
(1) Calcium (2) Magnesium
(2) Protein, Lipid, carbohydrate, Nucleic
(3) Potassium (4) Mangnese
acid
(3) Carbohydrate, Lipid, Nucleic acid and Q.25 The major role of minor elements inside
vitamin living organisms is to act as –
(4) None of these (1) co-factors of enzymes
(2) Building blocks of important amino
Q.18 Who proposed the name sarcode for
acids
protoplasm –
(3) Constituent of hormones
(1) Van mohl (2) Corti
(4) Binder of cell structure
(3) Dujardin (4) Schultz
48
CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
Q.29 Glycogen is stored in (1) Carbohydrate, Protein, fat and nucleic acid
[MPPMT, AIPMT – 79]
(1) Liver and muscles (2) Protein, fats, nucleic acid and carbohydrate
(2) Liver only (3) Protein, fats, carbohydrates and nucleic
(3) Muscles only acid
(4) Pancreas
(4) Carbohydrate, fats, Proteins and nucleic
Q.30 Cholesterol is synthesized in – acid
[MPPMT - 94] Q.38 Characteristic feature of heamoglobin-
(1) pancreas (2) Burnners gland [RPMT - 94]
(3) Spleen (4) Liver (1) Reversible union with oxygen
Q.31 Which is a disaccharide – (2) Red Colour
[MPPMT - 94] (3) Presence of Cu
(1) Galactose (2) Fructose (4) Presence of Globulin protein
(3) Maltose (4) Dextrin Q.39 External Coat composed of cellulose like
Q.32 Which element is normally absent in proteins material occurs in -
[RPMT - 94] [RPMT - 94]
(1) C (2) N (1) Hemichordata (2) Urochordata
(3) S (4) P (3) Cephalochordata (4) Cyclostomata
Q.33 Which substance is not carbohydrate- Q.40 Common in feather and Silk is -
[MPPMT - 94] (1) Carbohydrate (2) Fats
(1) Starch (2) Glycogen (3) Protein (4) Nucleic acid
(3) Wax (4) Glucose
Q.41 Monosaccharide is - [RPMT - 93]
Q.34 To get quick energy one should use- (1) Pentose Sugar (2) Hexose Sugar
[RPMT - 94] (3) Only Glucose (4) All the above
(1) Carbohydrate (2) Fats
Q.42 Sugar which found in haemolymph of
(3) Vitamins (4) Proteins
insects is called- [RPMT - 93]
Q.35 Protein most abundant in human body is – (1) Maltose (2) Lactose
[RPMT - 94] (3) Trehalose (4) Galactose
(1) Collagen (2) Myosin
Q.43 Which substance is most abundant in cell –
(3) Actin (4) Albumin
[RPMT - 93]
Q.36 Which is not polysaccharide -
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Protein
[RPMT - 94]
(3) Water (4) Fats
(1) Sucrose (2) Starch
(3) Glycogen (4) cellulose
Q.44 Proteins which present in protoplasm are
Q.37 Decreasing order of amount of organic very important because- - [RPMT - 93]
compound in animal body- (1) They provide definite shape to cell
[RPMT - 94] (2) They function as biocatalyst
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PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
(3) They yield energy Q.51 Galactosemia disease in children can be
prevented if they are provided –
(4) They are stored food
[RPMT - 89]
Q.45 Dipeptide is - [RPMT - 93]
(1) milk less food
(1) Structure of two peptide bonds
(2) proteinaceous milk
(2) Two amino acids linked by one peptide
(3) more milk
bond
(3) bond between one amino acid and one (4) vitamin less milk
peptide
Q.52 Glycogen is - [RPMT - 88]
(4) None (1) Polymer of amino acids
(2) Polymer of fatty acids
Q.46 Which amino acids is non essential for
(3) Unsaturated fats
human body - [RPMT - 92]
(4) Polymer of glucose
(1) Glycine (2) Phenyl alanine
(3) Arginine (4) Methionine Q.53 Carbohydrate is - [RPMT - 88]
(1) Polymer of fatty acids
Q.47 Nails, horns and hoofs contain- (2) Polymer of amino acids
(1) Chitin (2) Keratin (3) Poly hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
(3) Both (4) None (4) None
Q.48 Essential component of all living organisms
(1) Haemoglobin Q.54 In which form, food stored in animal body
(2) Protein [RPMT - 88]
(3) Chlorophyll (1) Glucose (2) Glycogen
(4) Carbohydrate (3) Cellulose (4) ATP
Q.49 In which form the extra Sugars stored in the Q.55 Which compound produces more than
twice the amount of energy as compared to
body- [RPMT - 91] carbohydrates
(1) Glucose monosaccharide [AIPMT -75, BHU 78]
(2) Sucrose Disaccharide (1) Protein (2) Fats
(3) Glycogen polysaccharide (3) Vitamins (4) Glucose
(4) Fatty acid and glycerol Q.56 What is the normal ratio of sugar in human
Q.50 Products of proteins catabolism blood - [BHU' 80'81]
[RPMT - 89] (1) .01% (2) 0.1%
(1) NH3, CO2 and Urea (3) 1% (4) 0.18%
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CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
(3) Lactic acid in muscles Q.65 Long chain molecules of fatty acids are
formed by -
(4) Glycogen in liver and muscles [NCERT - 76]
Q.58 Carbohydrate metabolism is controlled by- (1) Polymerisation of 2 carbon compounds
Q.59 Fattyness is due to the excess of - Q.66 Most simple amino acid is - [BHU - 86]
[AIPMT - 86] (1) Tyrosine (2) Lysine
(1) Connective tissue (2) Blood (3) Glycine (4) Aspartic acids
(3) Muscular tissue (4) Adipose tissue
Q.67 The amino acids which are not synthesized in
Q.60 Which one of the following is polysaccharide
the body are called -
(1) Non-essential (2) Essential
[AIPMT - 86]
(3) Deaminated (4) All of them
(1) Sucrose (2) Lactose
(3) Glycogen (4) Glucose Q.68 Which of the following will be different in
different animal -
Q.61 Starving person will first use-
(1) Fats (2) Carbohydrates
[AIPMT - 88]
(3) Proteins (4) Vitamins
Q.88 Sweetest sugar among the naturally occurring Q.98 All lipids are -
(1) Composed of fatty acids
sugar - (2) Triglycerides
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (3) Insoluble in water
(3) Sucrose (4) Sacharine
(4) All the above
Q.89 Histone is a basic protein due to -
(1) Alanine & glycine Q.99 Which of the following does not contains
(2) Methionine & serine metal - [AIPMT - 99]
(3) Tryptophan & tyrosine (1) Glycoproteins
(4) Lysine & Arginine (2) Ferritin
Q.90 Lipid derivatives which occurs in faecal (3) Cytochromes
material - (4) Chromoproteins
(1) Cholesterole (2) Ergesterole Q.100 Which protein found in maximum amount –
(3) Lanoline (4) Coprosterole
[AIPMT - 99]
Q.91 Example of phospho protein is - (1) Catalase
(1) Mucin (2) Fibrinogen
(3) Casien (4) Myosin (2) Zinc carbonic anhydrase
(3) Transferase
Q.92 Sugar with five membered ring called -
(1) Pyranose (2) Furanose (4) RUBISCO
(3) Dextrorotatory (4) Laevorotatory
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PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
Q.101 Proteoglycan in cartilages which is part of (1) 261 (2) 64
polysaccharide – [AIPMT - 2000] (3) 256 (4) 43
(1) Condriotin (2) Ossein
Q.107 Quantity of nucleic acids in animal cells is -
(3) Casein (4) Cartilegen
[RPMT - 95]
Q.102 In the genetic code dictionary, how many (1) 2% (2) 5%
codons are used to code for all the 20 (3) 10% (4) 15%
essential amino acids –
Q.108 Nucleic acids are made up of -
[AIPMT - 2003]
[RPMT - 95]
(1) 20 (2) 64
(1) Amino acids (2) Pentose sugars
(3) 61 (4) 60
(3) Nucleosides (4) Nucleotide
cancer are called - [MP PMT-95] Q.113 Code in RNA corresponding to AGCT in
(1) Cancer genes DNA - [RPMT - 94]
(1) TACA (2) UCGA
(2) Carcino genes
(3) TCGA (4) AGUC
(3) Carcinomas
(4) Onco genes Q.114 Double helix model of DNA which was
proposed by Watson and crick was of –
Q.106 If genetic code is tetraplet then what is the [RPMT - 93]
possible number of codons which code 20 (1) C-DNA (2) B-DNA
types of amino acids - (3) D-DNA (4) Z-DNA
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CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
Q.115 Mitochondrial DNA is - [RPMT - 93] (3) Thymine (4) Phosphate groups
(1) Naked (2) Circular
Q.123 Which of following base pair is wrong –
(3) Double stranded (4) All the above
[RPMT - 88]
Q.116 If there are 10,000 nitrogenous base pairs in
(1) A-T (2) G-C
a DNA then how many nucleotides are there -
(3) A-C (4) A-U
[RPMT - 93]
(1) 500 (2) 10,000 Q.124 Which may be attached with Adenine base
(3) 20,000 (4) 40,000 in RNA - [RPMT - 88]
(1) Guanine (2) Cytosine
Q.117 The process of m RNA sythesis on a DNA
(3) Uracil (4) Thymine
is known as - [RPMT - 92]
(1) Translation (2) Transcription Q.125 Nucleotide is -
(3) Transduction (4) ransformation [RPMT - 88]
(1) N2-base, pentose sugar and phosphoric
Q.118 Double helix model of DNA is proposed by -
acid
[RPMT – 92 AIPMT' 79, BHU' 80;
(2) Nitrogen, Hexose sugar and phosphoric
DElHI PMT' 92] acid
(1) Watson and Crick (3) Nitrogen base, pentose sugar
(2) Schleiden and schwann (4) Nitrogen base, trioses and phosphoric
(3) Singer and Nicholson acid
Q.120 Back bone of structure of DNA molecule is Q.127 Who propounded the theory one gene one
made up of - [RPMT - 91] enzyme one chemical reaction-
(1) Pentose Sugar and phosphate [BHU' – 82'83]
(2) Hexose sugar and phosphate (1) Watson & Crick
(3) Purine and pyrimidine (2) George Beadle and Edward Tatum
(4) Sugar and phosphate
(3) Abraham Trembley
Q.121 Which of the following is called adaptor (4) T.H. Morgan
molecule - [RPMT - 91]
Q.128 A codon in m-RNA has -
(1) DNA (2) m-RNA
(3) t-RNA (4) RNA
[BHU - 83]
Q.122 Substance common in DNA and RNA - (1) 3-bases
[RPMT - 90] (2) 2-bases
(1) Hexose Sugar (2) Histamine
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(3) 1- base
Q.136 The contribution of cytoplasmic DNA in
(4) Number of bases very
the total DNA of a cell –
Q.129 Unit of nucleic acids are – [DELHI PMT - 86]
(1) 90-99% (2) 65-75%
[NCERT - 76] (3) 5-15% (4) 1-5%
(1) Phosphoric acid Q.137 DNA is not present in -
(2) Nitrogenous bases [DELHI PMT '83, RPMT' 89]
(3) Pentose Sugar (1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast
(4) Nucleotide (3) Bacteriophage (4) TMV
Q.130 Which element is not found in nitrogenous Q.138 In which of the following, the DNA is the
base - [NCERT - 76] principal constituent –
(1) Nitrogen (2) Hydrogen (1) Nucleus (2) Chromatin
(3) Carbon (4) Phosphorus (3) Ribosomes (4) Chloroplast
Q.131 The link between successive generation is Q.139 A nucleic acid contains thymine or
provided by - [AIPMT – 81,84] methylated uracil then it should be -
(1) Nucleus (2) Cytoplasm
[BHU' 81]
(3) Chromosomes (4) Nucleic acid
(1) DNA
Q.132 DNA was first discovered by – (2) RNA
[AIPMT – 76, 85] (3) Either DNA or RNA
(1) Meischer (2) Robert Brown
(3) Flemming (4) Watson & Crick (4) RNA of bacteria
Q.133 Nucleic acids are found in –
[AIPMT - 80] Q.140 Prokaryotic genetic system contains –
(1) Nucleus [RPMT' 85]
(2) Cytoplasm (1) DNA & histones
(3) Both nucleus & Cytoplasm (2) RNA & histones
(4) Nucleus & ribosome (3) Either DNA or histones
(4) DNA but no histones
Q.134 DNA is found in –
[AIPMT' 78, 80, MP. PMT - 86] Q.141 DNA histone complex can be removed
(1) ER & Ribosomes from chromosome by treatment with -
(2) Mitochondria, Plastid & nucleolus [JIPMER -85]
(3) Sphersome & Peroxysome (1) 6 M NaCl + Mg [OH]2
(4) Plasma membrane & lysosome (2) 1 M , NaCl
Q.135 Nucleic acids are found in - (3) Mg [OH]2
[RPMT' 90, MP. PMT - 90]
(1) Nucleus & nucleolus (4) Non-Separable
Q.143 A N2-base together with pentose sugar and Q.149 Which of the following is not a pyrimidine
phosphate forms (or) building-block unit of N2 base - [JIPMER' 85]
nucleic acid is – (1) Thymine (2) Cytosine
[DELHI PMT' 84; RPMT' 84; AIPMT' 84; (3) Guanine (4) Uracil
MPPMT' 85; ALIGARH PMT' 86]
Q.150 The base sequence of nucleic acid is AGG,
(1) Nucleoside
GGA, CGA, CCA from this it can be
(2) Polypeptide
inferred that it is a segment of -
(3) Nucleotide
[ALMS' 85, RPMT' 90]
(4) Aminoacid
(1) DNA (2) m-RNA
Q.144 One of the characteristics of DNA is –
(3) t-RNA (4) Data insufficient
[DELHI PMT' 84]
Q.151 Kinds of N2 bases in nucleic acids are -
(1) Uracil
[AIPMT' 81, 84, 90]
(2) Deoxyribose sugar
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Single strandedness
(3) Five (4) Eight
(4) Ability of protein synthesis Q.152 The purine & pyrimidine pairs of
Q.145 What replaces thymine in RNA – complementry strands of DNA are held
[AIPMT' 81, ALLMS' 82, BHU' 85] together by – [AIPMT' 80]
(1) Guanine (2) Adenine (1) H-bonds (2) Q-bonds
(3) Uracil (4) Water (3) C-bonds (4) N-bonds
Q.148 Which of the following N2 bases are Q.156 A single stranded DNA is present in -
pyrimidines [RPMT' 89] AIPMT 80; ALLM'86, MPPMT'90]
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PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
(1) TMV (2) Salmonella (4) Meiosis and mitosis both
(3) Coliphage × 174 (4) Bacteria
Q.164 DNA Replication occurs at -
Q.157 What is the nature of the 2 strands of a [RPMT' 85; MP PMT'85]
DNA duplex – (1) Go & G-1 (2) G2 -stage
[AIPMT' 80;AIIM86, MPPMT'90] (3) S-Stage (4) Mitotic phase
(1) Identical & Complimentary
Q.165 RNA synthesis is controlled by -
(2) Antiparallel & complimentary
[AIPMT-89]
(3) Dissimilar & non complimentary
(1) Rho-factor
(4) Antiparallel & none complimentary
(2) Sigma factor
Q.158 On an average, how many purine N2 bases (3) Endo-nuclease
are present in single coil of DNA (4) RNA-polymerase
(1) Four (2) Five
Q.166 Duplication of DNA is called -
(3) Ten (4) Uncertain
[AFMC;82, 84]
Q.159 Distance between two nucleotide pairs of
(1) Replication (2) Transduction
DNA is -
(3) Transcription (4) Translation
(1) 0.34 nm (2) 34 A°
(3) 3.4 (4) 34 nm Q.167 A DNA molecule in which both strands
have radioactive thymidine is allowed to
Q.160 Histone occupies the major groove of a
duplicate in an environment containing
DNA at an angle of -
non-radioactive thymidine. What will be
(1) 60° (2) 90°
the exact number of DNA molecules that
(3) 45° to helix axis (4) 30° to helix axis
contains the radio active thymidine after 3
Q.161 DNA polymerase is needed for - duplications -
(1) Replication of DNA (1) One (2) Two
(3) Four (4) Eight
(2) Synthesis of DNA
(3) Elongation of DNA Q.168 A bacterium with completely radioactive
DNA was allowed to replicate in a non-
(4) All of above
radioactive medium for two generation
Q.162 The usual method of DNA replication is - what % of the bacteria should contain
(1) Conservative radioactive DNA -
(2) Dispersive (1) 100% (2) 50%
(3) Non conservative (3) 25% (4) 12.5%
(4) Semi – conservative
Q.169 DNA polymerase enzyme is required for
Q.163 DNA duplication occurs at - the synthesis of -
(1) Meiosis - II [BHU' 77'84'85'87]
(1) DNA From DNA
(2) Mitotic interphase (2) DNA from RNA
(3) Mitosis only (3) Both the above
(4) DNA from nucleosides
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CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
[AIIMS' 81,85]
Q.170 Ligase enzyme is used for -
(1) Another DNA (2) t-RNA & m-RNA
[BHU' 85]
(3) r-RNA (4) Protein
(1) Denaturation of DNA
Q.176 Strongest evidence that DNA is genetic
(2) Spliting DNA into small bits material comes from –
(3) Joining bits of DNA [AIPMT' 75,81'84'85;MP.PMT'84]
(1) Chromosomes contain DNA
(4) Digestion of lipids
(2) Transformation of bacterial cells
Q.171 In the base sequence of one strand of DNA is (3) DNA is present in nucleus
GAT, TAG, CAT, GAC what shall be the (4) DNA is not present in cytoplasm
sequence of its complementary stand -
Q.177 Genetic code was discovered by –
[AIMPT-90; MP.PMT'90 ]
[BHU' 81,84,85,87]
(1) CAT, CTG, ATC, GTA
(1) Nirenberg & Mathei
(2) GTA, ATC, CTG, GTA
(2) Kornberg & Crick
(3) ATC, GTA, CTG, GTA
(3) Khorana & Kornberg
(4) CTA, ATC, GTA, CTG
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PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
(1) There was 64 types of amino acid (3) Variation in offsprings
(2) 64 types of t-RNA
(3) Genetic code is triplet (4) constancy of morphological trait
(4) There are 64 enzymes Q.187 Which of the following is employed in
Q.181 Degeneracy of genetic code was discovered recombinant DNA technology –
[BHU' 87]
by - [BHU' 86] (1) Plastids (2) Plasmids
(1) Mc Clintock (3) Ribosomes (4) Histones
(2) Khorana Q.188 Fuelgen reaction is employed to establish
(3) Ochoa the presence of –
(4) Baurnfield & Nirenberg [BHU' 83' AFMC'83'AIPMT'85]
(1) DNA (2) RNA
Q.182 Genetic code consists of -
(3) Protein (4) Lipids
[AIPMT' 88]
(1) Adenine & Guanine Q.189 Chargaff 's' rule is given as-
[RPMT 1998]
(2) Guanine & Cytosine (1) Purines Pyrimidines
(3) Cytosine & uracil (2) A + G = T + C
(4) All (3) A + U = G + C
(4) A + T/G +C = Constant
Q.183 Which codon gives signal for the start of
polypeptide (protein) chain synthesis- Q.190 In RNA, Nucleotides are bonded by –
[AIIMS'86] [RPMT 1998]
(1) AUG (2) UGA (1) H - bonds
(3) GUA (4) UAG (2) Phospo diester bonds
(3) Ionic bonds
Q.184 The function of non-sense codons is –
(4) Salt linkage
[AIIMS' 85]
(1) To release polypeptide chain from t-RNA Q.191 m-RNA is attached with- [RPMT 1997]
(2) To form an unspecified amino acid (1) E.R. (2) Ribosome
(3) To terminate the massage of a gene (3) Nucleus (4) Lysosome
controlled protein synthesis -
(4) To convert a sense DNA into non Q.192 DNA of E.COLI - [AIPMT 1998]
sense DNA (1) ds circular (2) ss circular
(3) ds linear (4) ss linear
Q.185 Termination of chain growth in protein
synthesis is brought about by – Q.193 Knife of DNA is - [AIPMT 1998]
[AIIMS' 83] (1) DNA ligase
(1) UUG, UGC, UCA (2) UCG, GCG, ACC (2) Restriction endonuclease
(3) UAA, UAG, UGA (4) UUG, UAG, UCG (3) Exonuclease
Q.186 Genetic code determines – (4) Peptidase
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CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
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64
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66
CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
Q.259 Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules Q.265 In DNA purine nitrogen bases are –
on earth, are produced by- [RPMT - 2005]
[AIPMT - 2005] (1) Uracil and Guanine
(1) Some bacteria, algae and green plant cells (2) Guanine and Adenine
(2) All bacteria, fungi and algae (3) Adenine and cytosine
(3) Fungi, algae and green plants cells
(4) Viruses, fungi and bacteria (4) None
Q.260 Production of a human protein in bacteria
Q.266 Which of the following diasaccharide gives
by genetic engineering is possible because
two molecules of glucose on hydrolysis –
[AIPMT - 2005]
[RPMT - 2005]
(1) Bacterial cell can carry out the RNA
splicing reactions (1) Maltose (2) Lactose
(3) (1) and (2) both (4) Sucrose
(2) The mechanism of gene regulation is
identical in humans and bacteria Q.267 Which of the following is the example of
(3) The human chromosome can replicate acidic amino acid - [RPMT - 2005]
in bacterial cell (1) Lysine (2) Glutamic acid
(4) The genetic code is universal (3) Aspartic acid (4) (2) and (3) both
Q.261 During transcription holoenzyme RNA
polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and
Q.268 Specificity of protein is due to –
the DNA assumes a saddle like structure at
that point. What is that sequence called- [RPMT - 2005]
[AIPMT – 2005,07] (1) Types of amino acid
(1) CAAT box (2) GGTT box
(3) AAAT box (4) TATA box (2) Sequence of amino acid
(3) Number of amino acid
Q.262 Which functional group participates in
disulphide bond formation in proteins - (4) Quantity of amino acid
[AIPMT - 2005]
Q.269 Bond between phosphate and sugar in a
(1) Thioether (2) Thiol
nucleotide is - [RPMT - 2005]
(3) Thioester (4) Thiolactone
(1) H-bond
Q.263 Physical basis of life is (2) Covelent bond
[RPMT - 2005] (3) Phosphodiester bond
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Protoplasm (4) Sulphide bond
(3) Nucleoplasm (4) Endoplasm
Q.270 The other name for glucose is –
Q.264 Ribosomes are sites of which reaction- [RPMT - 2005]
[RPMT - 2005] (1) Grape sugar (2) Cane sugar
(1) Respiration (3) Fructose (4) Galactose
(2) Photosynthesis
(3) Protein synthesis Q.271 Which of the following is formed in
(4) Fat synthesis nucleolus - [RPMT - 2005]
(1) r RNA (2) t RNA
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PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
(3) m-RNA (4) DNA Q.279 One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was
Q.272 Ribosomes are composed of [RPMT - 2005] postulated by - [AIPMT - 2006]
(1) DNA + Protein (2) DNA (1) R.Franklin
(3) RNA + Protein (4) RNA + DNA (2) Hershay and Chase
(3) A.Garrod
Q.273 The chemical in ovum which attracts sperms
[RPMT - 2005] (4) Beadle and Tatum
(1) Fertilizin (2) Antifertilizin
(3) Agglutinin (4) Thrombin Q.280 One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is
approximately - [AIPMT - 2006]
Q.274 DNA probes are copied from the messenger
(1) 20 nm (2) 0.34 nm
(3) 3.4 nm (4) 2 nm
RNA molecules with the help of –
[AIIMS - 2005] Q.281 Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule
(1) Restriction enzymes means that - [AIPMT - 2006]
(2) Reverse transcriptase (1) one strand turns anti-clockwise
(3) DNA polymerase (2) the phosphate group of two DNA
(4) Adenosine deaminase stands, at their ends, share the same
position
Q.275 Which of the following biomolecule is (3) the phosphate groups at the start of two
insoluble in water - [AIIMS - 2005] DNA stands are in opposite position
(1) -Keratin (2) Haemoglobin (pole)
(3) Ribonuclease (4) Adenine
(4) one strand turns clockwise
Q.276 Which one of the following statement is
true for protein synthesis (translation) –
[AIIMS - 2005] Q.282 The causative agent of mad-cow disease is -
(1) Amino acids are directly recognized by [AIPMT - 2006]
m-RNA (1) Bacterium (2) Prion
(3) Worm (4) Virus
(2) The third base of the codon is less specific
Q.283 During protein synthesis in an organism, at
(3) Only one codon codes for an amino acid
one point the process comes to a halt.
(4) Every t-RNA molecule has more than
Select the group of the three codons from
one amino acid attachment site
the following from which any one of the
Q.277 Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between three could bring about this halt-
tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein [AIIMS - 2006]
synthesis ? (1) UUU, UCC, UAU
[AIPMT - 2006] (2) UUC, UUA, UAC
(1) Erthromycin (2) Neomycin (3) UAG, UGA, UAA
(3) Streptomysin (4) Tetracycline (4) UUG, UCA, UCG
Q.278 Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis Q.284 Thymine is - [AIIMS - 2006]
is decided by the sequence of – (1) 5-Methyl uracil
[AIPMT - 2006] (2) 4-Methyl uracil
(1) tRNA (2) mRNA (3) 3-Methyl uracil
(3) cDNA (4) rRNA (4) 1-Methyl uracil
68
CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
Q.285 Molecular basis of organ differentiation (2) Ribosomes attached to each other in a
depends on the modulation in transcription by linear arrangement
[AIPMT - 2007] (3) Several ribosomes attached to a single
(1) RNA polymerase mRNA
(2) Ribosome
(4) Many ribosomes attached to a strand of
(3) Transcription factor
endoplasmic recticulum
(4) Anticodon
Q.291 Which one of the following pairs of
Q.286 The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is
growth - wrongly matched with the category
[AIPMT - 2007] mentioned against it ? [AIPMT - 2008]
(1) Result in transcription (1) Guanine, Adenine-Purines
(2) Adenine, Thymine-Purines
(2) Polymerize in the 3''-to5' direction and
(3) Thymine, Uracil-Pyrimidines
froms replication fork
(4) Uracil, Cytosine-Pyrimidines
(3) Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA
replication Q.292 In the DNA molecule - [AIPMT - 2008]
(1) the proportion of Adenine in relation to
(4) Polymerize in the 5' to 3' direction and thymine varies with the organism
explain 3'-to-5' DNA replication (2) there are two stands which run
antiparallel one in 5' 3' direction and
Q.287 The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are
other in 3' 5'
[AIPMT - 2007]
(3) the total amount of purine nucleotide
(1) Parallel (2) Discontinuous
and pyrimidine nucleotides is not
(3) Antiparallel (4) Semiconservative
always equal
Q.288 About 98 percent of the mass of every (4) there are two strands which run parallel
living organism is composed of just six in the 5' 3' direction
elements including carbon, hydrogen,
nitrogen, oxygen and - [AIPMT - 2007] Q.293 Which one of the following pairs of codons
(1) Phosphrous and sulphur is correctly matched with their function or
(2) Sulphur and magnesium the signal for the particular amino acid ?
(3) Magnesium and sodium [AIPMT - 2008]
(4) Calcium and phoshorus (1) AUG, ACG-Start/Methionine
(2) UUA, UCA-Leucine
Q.289 A plant requires magnesium for –
[AIPMT - 2007] (3) GUU, GCU-Alanine
(1) Holding cells together
(4) UAG, UGA-Stop
(2) Protein synthesis
Q.294 What is antisense technology ?
(3) Chlorophyll synthesis
[AIPMT - 2008]
(4) Cell wall development
(1) When a piece of RNA that is
Q.290 Polysome is formed by - [AIPMT - 2008] complementry in sequence is used to
(1) A ribosome with several subunits stop expression of a specific gene
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PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
(2) RNA polymerase producing DNA
(3) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used
for synthesis of antigens
(4) Production of somaclonal variants in
tissue cultures
70
CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
EXERCISE # 2
Corporate Office: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 (6 lines) PROTOPLASM 7171
PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
(4) DNA ligase
Q.1 The globular proteins undergo structural
changes, in response of pH or temperature, are Q.9 Suppose evolution on earth has occurred in
such a way that there are 96 amino acids
called - [Uttaranchal PMT 2004] instead of 20. DNA has 12 different types
(1) Renaturation (2) Denaturation of bases and DNA synthesis occur in the
same way as today. The minimum number
(3) Combination (4) Both 'a' and 'b' of bases per DNA condon would be -
[Uttaranchal PMT 2006]
Q.2 Which of the following fatty acid is not
(1) 12 (2) 8
synthesized in the human body -
(3) 2 (4) 3
[Uttaranchal PMT 2004]
(1) Glycerol (2) Cholesterol Q.10 Which of the following carbohydrate is
(3) Linoleic acid (4) Both 'a' and 'b' absent in honey –
Q.3 Cellulose is a - [West Bengal JEE 2007]
[Uttaranchal PMT 2005] (1) Glucose (2) Levulose
(1) Monosaccharide (3) Lactose (4) Maltose
(2) Disaccharide Q.11 Which of the following is not an essential
(3) Polysaccharide amino acid - [West Bengal JEE 2007]
(4) Lipid (1) Alanine (2) Valine
Q.4 The stored food material of muscles is - (3) Histidine (4) Methionine
[Uttaranchal PMT 2005] Q.12 Which is non reducing sugar -
(1) Starch (2) Glycogen [West Bengal JEE 2007]
(3) Lipid (4) Protein (1) Sucrose (2) Fructose
Q.5 Two free ribonucleotide units are interlinked (3) Galactose (4) Glucose
Q.8 Which one of the following enzyme is Q.15 Short DNA segment has 80 thymine and 90
responsible for the synthesis of DNA from guanine bases. The total number of
RNA - [Uttaranchal PMT 2006] nucleotides are -
(1) DNA polymerase [West Bengal JEE 2007]
(2) RNA polymerase (1) 160 (2) 40
(3) Reverse transcriptase (3) 80 (4) 340
72
CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
Q.16 The name 'protoplasm' was given by (3) Adenine (4) None of these
[C.G. PMT 2004]
Q.24 D.N.A. strands are anti-parallel because of -
(1) Hooke (2) A.K. Sharma
[C.G. PMT 2004]
(3) Schwann (4) Purkinje
(1) H-bonds
Q.17 The physical basis of life is - (2) Phospho diester-bonds
[C.G. PMT 2004] (3) Di-sulphide-bonds
(1) Nucleus (2) sex chromosome (4) Phosphate-bonds
(3) Protoplasm (4) DNA
Q.25 Translation is the process in which -
Q.18 DNA molecules of each chromosome [C.G. PMT 2005]
replicates in - (1) D.N.A. is formed on D.N.A template
[C.G. PMT 2004]
(1) G1 phase (2) G2 phase (2) R.N.A is formed on D.N.A. template
(3) S phase (4) Mitotic phase (3) D.N.A. is formed on R.N.A. template
Q.19 Which of the following is a purine – (4) Protein is formed from R.N.A. message
[C.G. PMT 2004]
Q.26 The enzyme responsible for transcription is
(1) Prokaryotes (2) Guanine
[C.G. PMT 2005]
(3) Thymine (4) Uracil
(1) D.N.A polymerase-I
Q.20 The nature of DNA replication is -
[C.G. PMT 2004] (2) R.N.A. polymerase
(1) Conservative (3) Reverse transcriptase
(2) Non conservative
(4) D.N.A. polymerase-III
(3) Semi-conservative
(4) Cyanobacteria Q.27 Initiation codon is -
[C.G. PMT 2005]
Q.21 The drug streptomycin inhibits the process
(1) AUG (2) UAG
of - [C.G. PMT 2004]
(3) UGA (4) UAA
(1) Prokaryotic translation
Q.28 The direction of D.N.A. replication is –
(2) Eukaryotic translation [C.G. PMT 2005]
(3) Prokaryotic transcription (1) From 5' end towards 3' end
(4) Eukaryotic transcription (2) From 3' end towards 5' end
Q.22 Who called the living matter of the cell as (3) Amino terminus to carboxy terminus
protoplasm - [C.G. PMT 2005] (4) Carboxy terminus to amino terminus
(1) Purkinje (2) Virchow
Q.29 Among the following examples which is a
(3) Hooke (4) Khorana
monosaccharide -
Q.23 Only R.NA. contains which of the following [C.G. PMT 2005]
base - [C.G. PMT 2005] (1) Glucose (2) Maltose
(1) Thymine (2) Uracil (3) Sucrose (4) Raffinose
Corporate Office: CP Tower, IPIA, Road No.1, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 (6 lines) PROTOPLASM 7373
PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
Q.30 Cellulose is - (3) Transcription (4) Transformaion
[C.G. PMT 2006]
Q.37 The genes are responsible for growth and
(1) Mono saccharide (2) Disacchride
differentiation in an organism through gulation
(3) Polysacchride (4) None
of - [C.G. PMT 2006]
Q.31 Transcription of DNA is aided by (1) Translocation
[C.G. PMT 2006] (2) Transformation
(1) RNA polymerase (3) Transduction and transcription
(2) DNA polymerase (4) Translation and transcription
(3) Exo nuclease Q.38 DNA is present in - [C.G. PMT 2006]
(4) Recombinase (1) Nucleus only
(2) Mitochondrion only
Q.32 If the base sequence in DNA is 5' AAAA
(3) Chloroplast only
3' then the bases sequence in m-RNA is -
(4) All the above
[C.G. PMT 2006]
(1) 5' UUUU 3' (2) 3' UUUU 5' Q.39 In a polypeptide chain of 125 amino acids,
(3) 5' AAAA 3' (4) 3' TTTT 5' if the 25th amino acid is mutated to UAA,
then
Q.33 Which of the following is a stop codon-
[Jharkhand 2006]
[C.G. PMT 2006]
(1) A polypeptide of 124 amino acid is
(1) AUG, GUG, UUU
formed
(2) UGA, UAG, UAA
(3) UUU, UAC, CUC
(2) A polypeptide of 25 amino acid is
(4) CUC, UAC, UAA
formed
Q.34 Correct order of molecular weight is - (3) A polypeptide of 24 amino acid is
[C.G. PMT 2006] formed
(1) DNA < r-RNA < m-RNA (4) Any of the above can be possible
(2) DNA < m-RNA < r-RNA Q.40 Which one is polymer -
(3) t-RNA < m-RNA < DNA [Jharkhand 2006]
(4) t-RNA < DNA < m-RNA (1) sucrose (2) Glycogen
Q.35 The site for protein synthesis in plants is the (3) Fructose (4) Lactose
Q.46 The scientist who was awarded Nobel prize (2) ATP
in 1959 for in vitro synthesis of (3) Carbohydrate
polyribonucleotide - (4) Fat
[Jharkhand 2003]
Q.53 Unit of nucleic acid is -
(1) Mendel (2) Calvin
[Bihar-2005]
(3) Khorana (4) Ochoa
(1) Nucleotide (2) Nucleoside
Q.47 The chemical formula of starch is - (3) Nucleic acid (4) All of these
[Jharkhand 2003]
(1) (C6H10O5)n (2) (C6H12O6)n Q.54 DNA replication requires -
(3) C12H22O11 (4) CH3COOH [Bihar-2005]
(1) DNA polymerase only
Q.48 Non-essential amino acids are synthesized in
the human body during - (2) DNA polymerase and ligase
[Jharkhand 2002] (3) Ligase only
(1) Protein catabolism (4) RNA Polymerase
(2) Protein anabolism
Q.55 Which of the following is not correct about
(3) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
translation -
(4) None of these
]
[Bihar-2005]
Q.49 According to modern colloidal theory the (1) It starts with AUG
protoplasm is a polyphasic colloidal system. (2) Stopped at termination codon
This was first suggested by - (3) Based on operon model
[Jharkhand 2002] (4) Occurs in nucleus
(1) Purkinge (2) Max Schultze
(3) R.A. Fisher (4) E. Strasburger
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PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
Q.56 Method by which information reaches from Q.63 t-RNA attaches, amino acid at its –
[Bihar-2003]
DNA to RNA is - (1) 3' end (2) 5' end
[Bihar-2005] (3) Anticodon (4) Loop
(1) Transcription (2) Translation
Q.64 Prokaryotic DNA is -
(3) Transformation (4) Transduction
[Bihar-2002]
Q.57 Which base is present in RNA but not in (1) double stranded round
DNA -
[Bihar-2004] (2) single stranded round
(1) Uracil (2) Thymine (3) double stranded straight
(3) Guanine (4) Cytosine (4) double stranded RNA as nucleic acid
Q.58 Number of carbons in deoxy ribose sugar is Q.65 Semiconservative replication of DNA was
given by - [Bihar-2002]
[Bihar-2004] (1) Watson and Crick
(1) Four (2) Five
(2) Bateson and Punnett
(3) Six (4) Three
(3) Messelson and Stahl
Q.59 Bond present between two carbohydrate (4) Avery, McCarty and Macleod
molecules is - [Bihar-2004]
(1) Glycosidic Q.66 Which one is hexose sugar -
(2) Hydrogen bond [Bihar-2001]
(3) Phosphodiester (1) Mannose (2) Galactose
(4) Amide (3) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (4) Cellulose
76
CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
Q.70 Nucleus is the site for the synthesis of - [UP CPMT- 2004]
[UP CPMT- 2001] (1) Insulin (2) Oxytocin
(1) DNA (2) RNA (3) Erythropoietin (4) thyroxine
(3) t-RNA (4) All
Q.78 The double helix model of Watson and
Q.71 The enzyme involved in transcription is - Crick is known as -
[UP CPMT- 2001] [UP CPMT- 2005]
(1) RNA polymerase (1) C-DNA (2) B-DNA
(2) DNA polymerase-I (3) Z-DNA (4) D-DNA
(3) DNA polymerase-II
Q.79 Mode of DNA replication in E. coli is -
(4) DNA polymerase-III [UP CPMT- 2005]
(1) Conservative and unidirectional
Q.72 A codon is made up to [UP CPMT- 2003]
(2) Semi conservative and unidirectional
(1) single nucleotide (2) two nucleotides
(3) conservative and bidirectional
(3) three nucleotides (4) four nucleotide
(4) Semi conservative and bidirectional
Q.73 Protein in silk thread is –
Q.80 Which of the following is initiator codon -
[UP CPMT- 2003]
[UP CPMT- 2005]
(1) Fibroin (2) Keratin
(1) UUU (2) AUU
(3) Albumin (4) Globulin
(3) UAC (4) AUG
Q.74 Which of the following enzymes is used in Q.81 Which of the following enzyme is used to
DNA multiplication – join DNA fragments –
[UP CPMT- 2003] [UP CPMT- 2005]
(1) RNA polymerase (1) Terminase (2) Endonuclease
(2) DNA endonuclease (3) Ligase (4) DNA polymerase
(3) Exonuclease
Q.82 Which is soluble RNA –
(4) DNA Polymerase
[UP CPMT- 2005]
Q.75 The back bone of RNA is consist of which (1) hnRNA (2) rRNA
of the following sugar - (3) mRNA (4) tRNA
[UP CPMT- 2003]
Q.83 Okazaki fragments are synthesized on -
(1) Deoxyribose (2) Ribose
[UP CPMT- 2005]
(3) Sucrose (4) Maltose
(1) Leading strands of DNA only
Q.76 Multiplication of DNA is called - (2) Lagging strands of DNA only
[UP CPMT- 2003] (3) Both leading and lagging strands of DNA
(1) Transcription
(2) Replication (4) Complementary DNA
(3) Translation
Q.84 cDNA probes are copies from the messenger
(4) Transduction
RNA molecules with the help of
Q.77 Amino acid derivative hormone is - [UP CPMT- 2005]
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PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
(1) Restriction enzymes [MP PMT- 2007]
(2) Reverse transcriptase (1) Protein
(3) DNA polymerase (2) DNA
(4) Adenosine deaminase (3) RNA
(4) Both DNA and RNA
Q.85 Messenger RNA is produced in -
[UP CPMT- 2005] Q.92 DNA replication includes -
(1) Nucleus [MP PMT- 2007]
(2) Glogi apparatus (1) DNA ligase
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum (2) DNA polymerase and ligase
(3) RNA polymerase and ligase
(4) Ribosomes (4) All of these
Q.86 Portion of gene which is transcribed but not
Q.93 During DNA replication in prokaryotes
DNA is attached to -
translated is -
[MP PMT- 2007]
[UP CPMT- 2005]
(1) Chromosome (2) Mesosome
(1) exon (2) intron
(3) Nucleolus (4) Ribosome
(3) cistron (4) codon
Q.94 Formation of RNA on DNA template is
Q.87 Which of the following is not found in
called -
DNA [UP CPMT- 2005]
[MP PMT- 2007]
(1) adenine (2) Cytosine
(1) Transduction (2) transformation
(3) Uracil (4) Thymine
(3) Transcription (4) Translation
Q.88 The type of linkage present in carbohydrates
Q.95 Out of 64 codons only 61 codes for the 20
different amino acids. This character of
is -
genetic code is called
[UP CPMT- 2005]
[MP PMT- 2007]
(1) Peptide (2) glycosidic
(1) Degeneracy
(3) Amide (4) Phosphate bonds
(2) Non ambiguous nature
Q.89 Formation of m RNA from DNA is - (3) Redundancy
[UP CPMT- 2007] (4) Overlapping
(1) Translation (2) Transcription
Q.96 DNA is acidic due to –
(3) Transformation (4) Transduction
[MP PMT- 2007]
Q.90 Retrovirus have genetic material - (1) Sugar (2) Phosphoric acid
[MP PMT- 2007] (3) Purine (4) Pyrimidine
(1) DNA only Q.97 RNA is not found in -
(2) RNA only [MP PMT- 2007]
(3) DNA or RNA only (1) Chromosome (2) Plasmalemma
(4) None (3) Nucleus (4) Ribosome
Q.91 Prions consists mainly of -
78
CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
Q.98 Which one is a laevo-rotatory sugar- Q.106 R.N.A. contains which of the following
[MP PMT- 2007] base, in place of thymine of D.N.A. -
(1) Sucrose (2) Glucose [MP PMT- 2001]
(3) Fructose (4) None of these (1) Thymine (2) Uracil
(3) Adenine (4) None of these
Q.99 Which one is the sweetest sugar -
Q.107 The enzyme responsible for transcription is -
[MP PMT- 2007] [MP PMT- 2001]
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (1) D.N.A polymerase I
(3) Sucrose (4) Maltose
(2) R.N.A. polymerase
Q.100 Functional unit of gene is - (3) Reverse transcriptase
[MP PMT- 2001]
(4) D.N.A polymerase III
(1) Muton (2) Recon
Q.108 The direction of D.N.A replication is -
(3) Cistron (4) Codon
[MP PMT- 2001]
Q.101 Initiation codon is - (1) From 5' end towards 3' end
(2) From 3' end towards 5' end
[MP PMT- 2001]
(3) Amino terminus to carboxy terminus
(1) AUG (2) UAG (4) Carboxy terminus to amino terminus
(3) UGA (4) UAA
Q.109 The cell wall of plants is made up to
Q.102 In eukaryotic cell the type of ribosome is - cellulose which is - [MP PMT- 2002]
(1) A lipid (2) A Protein
[CPMT- 2001]
(3) A Polysaccharide (4) An Aminoacid
(1) only 70s (2) only 80s
(3) 70s and 80s both (4) only 50s Q.110 Anticodons are found in –
[MP PMT- 2002]
Q.103 Translation is the process in which - (1) mRNA (2) t RNA
[MP PMT- 2001] (3) r RNA (4) In all
(1) DNA is formed on D.N.A. template
(2) R.N.A. is formed on DNA template Q.111 In which stage D.N.A. duplication occurs -
(3) D.N.A is formed on R.N.A template [MP PMT- 2002]
(4) Protein is formed from R.N.A (1) G1 (2) G2
(3) S (4) In all
Q.104 D.N.A. starnds are anti-parallel because of -
[MP PMT- 2001] Q.112 The process of RNA formation from DNA
(1) H-bonds is called - [MP PMT- 2002]
(2) Phospho diester-bonds (1) Transition (2) Translation
(3) Transversion (4) Transcription
(3) di-sulphide-bonds
(4) Phosphate-bonds Q.113 Nitrogen is the essential component of
[MP PMT- 2002]
Q.105 T.M.V. contains - (1) Carbohydrates (2) Fats
[MP PMT- 2001] (3) Proteins (4) Oil
(1) D.N.A. (2) R.N.A. + Protein
Q.114 The smallest RNA is - [MP PMT- 2003]
(3) D.N.A. + R.N.A. (4) D.N.A. + Protein
(1) r-RNA (2) m-RNA
(3) t-RNA (4) nuclear RNA
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PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
(1) Beadle and Tatum (2) Jacob and Monod
Q.115 Which of the following codes for stop
(3) Lederberg (4) Watson and Crick
signal [MP PMT- 2003]
(1) UAA (2) UAG Q.124 Most abundant RNA of cell is –
(3) UGA (4) All of these [MP PMT- 2006]
Q.116 The site for protein synthesis is - (1) m-RNA (2) t-RNA
[MP PMT- 2003] (3) r-RNA (4) None of these
(1) Ribosome (2) DNA Q.125 Reverse transcription was discovered by -
(3) Nucleus (4) Mitochondria [MP PMT- 2006]
(1) Wastson and Crick
Q.117 The most abundant RNA of cell is -
(2) Khorana
[MP PMT- 2003]
(3) Temin and Baltimore
(1) r-RNA (2) t-RNA (4) Meischer
(3) m-RNA (4) None of these
Q.126 Which of the following is found only in RNA
Q.118 DNA synthesis takes place by -
[MP PMT- 2003] and not in DNA –
(1) Replication (2) Transcription [MP PMT- 2004]
(3) Translation (4) Transduction (1) Adenine (2) Thymine
Q.119 One gene is responsible for making - (3) Guanine (4) Uracil
[MP PMT- 2005] Q.127 Genetic information are transferred from
(1) One protein (2) One polypeptide nucleus to cytoplasm of cell through -
(3) Many polypeptides (4) All of these [MP PMT- 2005]
Q.120 Eukaryotic chromosome different from (1) DNA (2) RNA
prokaryotic as these are made up of - (3) Lysosomes (4) ACTH
[MP PMT- 2006] Q.128 Carriers of genetic information are -
(1) RNA (2) DNA [MP PMT- 2005]
(3) DNA and liquid (4) DNA and histone (1) t-RNA (2) DNA
(3) m-RNA (4) Nucleoproteins
Q.121 Main components of ribosome are -
[MP PMT- 2006]
(1) Protein and RNA (2) sucrose Q.129 The information from RNA to DNA are
(3) starch (4) glycogen transferred by the process, which is called -
Q.122 One strand of DNA (non template) has base [MP PMT- 2005]
(1) Replication
sequence CAG, TCG, GAT. What will be (2) Transcription
the sequence of bases in m-RNA- (3) Translation
(4) Reverse transcription
[MP PMT- 2006] Q.130 The chemical name of vitamin D is -
(1) AGC, CTA, CTA (2) GTC, AGC, CTC [MP PMT- 2005]
(3) CAG. UCG. GAU (4) GAC. TAG. CTA (1) Riboflavin
Q.123 One-gene-one enzyme hypothesis was (2) Ascorbic acid
proposed by - [MP PMT- 2006] (3) Niacin
(4) Calciferol
80
CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
Q.135 Which one of the following also acts as a (1) A : Lecithin-a component of cell
catalyst in a bacterial cell ? [AIPMT- 2011] membrane
(1) 23 sr RNA (2) 5 sr RNA (2) B : Adenine-a nucleotide that makes up
(3) sn RNA (4) hn RNA nucleic acids
(3) A : Triglyceride-major source of energy
Q.136 The curve given below shows enzymatic (4) B : Uracil-a component of DNA
activity with relation to three conditions
(pH, temperature and substrate
concentration)
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Q.3 Asssume that there are 6 types of nitrogen (1) DNA is chemically less reactive, as
bases available and 40 types of amino acid compared to RNA
are available for protein synthesis, then in (2) RNA mutate at a faster rate, as
genetic code each codon made up by compared to DNA
minimum how many nitrogen bases ? (3) Guanyl transferase enzyme helps in
capping process during splicing of hn-
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2 RNA
(4) Sweetness index of saccharine is
Q.4 Base ratio of a DNA is 0.03 and the amount 10,000
Q.8 Mature eucaryotic m-RNA is recognized by
of A-T N2 base contents is 30000, then what
(1) Shine dalgarno sequence at 5 end
(2) 7-methyl guanosine at 5 end and
is the amount of G–C, N2 base contents in
polyadenine bases at 3 end
this DNA ?
(3) Anti shine dalgarno sequence at 5 end
(1) 1000 (2) 10000
(4) Presence of coding and noncoding
(3) 100000 (4) None
sequence
Q.5 If one strand of double stranded DNA, Q.9 In DNA replication, the primer is
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CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
(4) Enzyme taking part in joining (1) –NH2 group of 'P' site amino acid and
nucleotides of new strand –COOH group of 'A' site amino acid
(2) –COOH group of 'P' site amino acid and
Q.10 Corn is immersed in the boiling water, It is
then cooled, the solution becomes sweet. It
–NH2 group of 'A' site amino acid
is due to -
(3) > C = O group of 'P' site amino acid and
(1) Enzymes are inactivated in boiling water
(2) Disaccharides are converted to
–NH2 group of 'A' site amino acid
monosaccharides
(4) None
(3) Monosaccharides are converted to
disaccharides
Q.16 On hydrolysis of glucose, following units
(4) None of these are obtain -
Q.11 In unit area which stored polysaccharide (1) Erythrose (2) Ribose
provides maximum energy ? (3) Mannose (4) None of them
(1) Starch (2) Lipids Q.17 In a segment of DNA 3.2 kilobases are
(3) Glycogen (4) Cellulose present. If DNA segment has 820 adenine
molecules, then what will be number of
cytosine ?
Q.12 All the following statements about the (1) 1560 (2) 1480
structure of glycogen are ture, except - (3) 780 (4) 740
Q.18 DNA molecule has uniform diameter due
(1) Branched chains occur, after every ten to ?
residues (1) Double stranded
(2) It is a copolymer of glucose and mannose (2) Presence of phosphate
(3) It contains -1, 4-glycosidic linkages (3) Specific base pairing between purine
(4) It contains -1, 6-glycosidic linkages and pyrimidine
(4) Specific base pairing between purine
Q.13 A DNA molecule contains 10,000 base and purine
pairs, then the length of this DNA molecule is
(1) 3.4 × 10–5 meter (2) 0.34 × 10–5 meter Q.19 Which types of nitrogen bases are present
(3) 34 × 10–5 meter (4) None of above in loops of t-RNA ?
(1) Only unusual nitrogen bases
Q.14 The term informosome is applied to -
(2) Only usual nitrogen bases
(1) t-RNA protein complex (3) Both usual and unusual nitrogen bases
(2) m-RNA protein complex (4) None of the above
(3) m-RNA + t-protein complex
Q.20 Which statement is ture ?
(4) r-RNA + t-RNA complex
Q.15 During protein synthesis, formation of (a) Proteins are the heteropolymer of
peptide bonds take place between - -amino acid
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PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
(b) Sugar found in nucleic acid, is in the
form of -form
(c) Nucleic acids show acidic nature
(d) 5-methyl uracil binds with first carbon
atom of ribose sugar
(e) Collagen is most abundant protein in
plant world
(1) a, b, e (2) a, b, d
(3) b, c, d, e (4) a, b, c
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CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE # 1
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PRE-MEDICAL CAREER POINT .
EXERCISE # 2
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CAREER POINT . PRE-MEDICAL
EXERCISE # 3
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