Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

TEST - 5 (Code-C)
Test Date : 27/01/2019

ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (4) 73. (1) 109. (1) 145. (1)
2. (4) 38. (1) 74. (3) 110. (1) 146. (1)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (2) 111. (4) 147. (4)
4. (3) 40. (1) 76. (2) 112. (4) 148. (4)
5. (1) 41. (2) 77. (3) 113. (1) 149. (2)
6. (3) 42. (2) 78. (4) 114. (1) 150. (1)
7. (1) 43. (2) 79. (4) 115. (4) 151. (4)
8. (4) 44. (2) 80. (3) 116. (3) 152. (1)
9. (4) 45. (3) 81. (3) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (2) 46. (3) 82. (4) 118. (2) 154. (1)
11. (1) 47. (4) 83. (3) 119. (4) 155. (4)
12. (2) 48. (1) 84. (1) 120. (3) 156. (2)
13. (2) 49. (4) 85. (4) 121. (3) 157. (2)
14. (1) 50. (2) 86. (1) 122. (4) 158. (3)
15. (3) 51. (2) 87. (2) 123. (2) 159. (4)
16. (2) 52. (3) 88. (3) 124. (1) 160. (4)
17. (1) 53. (1) 89. (1) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (4) 54. (2) 90. (2) 126. (4) 162. (4)
19. (1) 55. (4) 91. (4) 127. (1) 163. (4)
20. (2) 56. (1) 92. (4) 128. (2) 164. (2)
21. (3) 57. (3) 93. (3) 129. (2) 165. (4)
22. (4) 58. (4) 94. (4) 130. (4) 166. (4)
23. (2) 59. (2) 95. (3) 131. (4) 167. (4)
24. (1) 60. (3) 96. (1) 132. (4) 168. (4)
25. (2) 61. (1) 97. (4) 133. (2) 169. (4)
26. (2) 62. (3) 98. (4) 134. (2) 170. (4)
27. (4) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (3) 171. (2)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (4) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (3) 101. (2) 137. (4) 173. (3)
30. (4) 66. (1) 102. (2) 138. (4) 174. (2)
31. (4) 67. (4) 103. (3) 139. (3) 175. (4)
32. (1) 68. (4) 104. (3) 140. (2) 176. (3)
33. (4) 69. (3) 105. (2) 141. (3) 177. (2)
34. (2) 70. (2) 106. (4) 142. (3) 178. (4)
35. (3) 71. (3) 107. (1) 143. (1) 179. (3)
36. (2) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)

ANSWERS & HINTS

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (2) 7. Answer (1)
Hint: CO molecule is diatomic.
dr
Sol.: CO molecule is diatomic. At moderate
temperature it will be having 7 degrees of freedom, Hint: Poisson's ratio  = – r
d
as vibrational mode is also excited.

2. Answer (4)
Sol.: V = r2 × 
Hint: vrms  T
Sol.: As temperature increases, speed also dV dr d 
⇒ 2 
increases. Hence number of collision per second will V r 
increase as well as momentum change per collision
will also increase. Hence force to the container wall dV d d d
⇒  –2 × 0.3   0.4
will increase so pressure will increase. V   
3. Answer (2)
dV d
Hint: Dalton’s law of partial pressure. ⇒  100  0.4   100  0.4  1%  0.4%
V 
⎛ 1 1⎞
⎜  ⎟  0.082  300 8. Answer (4)
Sol.: P  (1  2 )RT  ⎝ 4 4 ⎠
V 5 F
Hint: Breaking stress (B.S.) 
5
= 2.5 × 10 = 2.5 atm A
4. Answer (3)
F Mg A      g
Hint: Q = CvT Sol.: B.S.      g
A A A
Sol.: Q = CvT
 B.S is independent of area of cross-section.
2 3 ⎡ 5 ⎤ Hence, maximum length to be hung is .
  R  30 ⎢⎣∵ K  C  9 F ⎥⎦
20 2 9. Answer (4)
= 9 cal Hint: Elongation in the wire is proportional to the
tension in the wire.
5. Answer (1) Sol.: In case A, T = Mg
Hint: PV = constant
2  2M  3M  g
Sol.: As vessel is open pressure will be constant In case B, T    2.4Mg
2M  3M
and equal to the atmospheric pressure and
neglecting expansion of vessel so volume is also  T 
constant T  
 PV = RT Mg 
1T1 =2T2 ⇒  ⇒   2.4
2.4 Mg 
1 × 300 = 2 × 400
10. Answer (2)
31 Hint: Air pressure decreases with increase in volume.
2 
4 Sol.: P0 = hg + Pair
1 When tube will be pulled slightly the volume of air
⇒ Fraction of mass that will escape 
4 above mercury column will increase hence pressure
6. Answer (3) will decrease.
Hint: Properties of solids So, height of mercury column will increase.
Sol.: Fluids have only Bulk modulus. Hence slightly more than 70 cm.

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Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
11. Answer (1) 15. Answer (3)

4T W P V
Hint: Excess pressure inside soap bubble = Hint: Power  
r t t
Sol.: P = hg = 1.5 × 103 × 10 N/m2
4T
Sol.:  hg V
r  50  10 –6  1.25 m3/s
t
4  0.03  Power = 15 × 103 × 50 × 1.25 × 10–6 = 0.94 W
 3  10 –3  0.9  103  10
r 16. Answer (2)

4  3  10 2 4 m1  m2
r    10 2 m Hint: d mix 
39 9 V1  V2
Surface area = 4r2 × 2 = 496.2 × 10–6 m2
m1  m2 d1V  d 2V d1  d 2
12. Answer (2) Sol.: 1  V  V  V  V  2
1 2
Hint: By equation of continuity.
m1  m2 mm 2d1d 2
Sol.: A1v1 = A2v2 + A3v3 2   
V1  V2 m m d1  d 2

4 × A = 1 × 2A + v × 3A
d1 d 2
2
v m/s d1  d 2 2d1d 2 (d  d 2 )2  4d1d 2
3
Now, 1  2    1
2 d1  d 2 2(d1  d 2 )
13. Answer (2)
Hint: Use Bernoulli's equation. (d1  d 2 )2
 0
2(d1  d 2 )
1
Sol.: P0  4gh  P0  4 v 2 So, 1 > 2
2
17. Answer (1)
v  2gh
vD
Hint: R 
 2  10  5 

v = 10 m/s D 2v
Sol.: Q  Av 
14. Answer (1) 4
Hint: When anything lighter is unloaded no change 4Q
in the liquid level. Or, v 
D 2
Sol.: Let mass of cork ball is M.
D 4Q 4Q
Mg = upthrust when ball is inside the boat. So, R  
 D 2 D
Mg = Ving 18. Answer (4)
M Hint:  = 2
Liquid displaced (Vin) = ...(i)
 L
Sol.: L  L ⇒  100  2%
When ball is dropped in water, still Mg = upthrust L

r
M r  r  ⇒  100  2%
Vin  ...(ii) r

Area = r2
Boat is floating in both cases. So total volume of
water displaced in both cases are same. Hence no dA 2r
⇒  100   100  4%
change in liquid level. A r

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
19. Answer (1)
R
Hint: H = (m + w)c  For helium p =
4
Sol.: H = (m + w)c 
R
= 150 × 1 × 50 = 7500 cal For oxygen q 
= 7.5 kcal 32
20. Answer (2)  p = 8q
Hint: Heat current will be same as connected in 24. Answer (1)
series.
Hint: V  V 
(0 – 100)2KA (200 – 0 )3KA
Sol.: H   V –P
2 3 Sol.: 
V B
0 – 100 = 200 – 0
20 = 300 V
And  
0 = 150°C V
21. Answer (3)
P
Hint: Q = mL ⇒  
B
Sol.: Heat given by steam = Heat taken by ice
mLv + mc = mL1 P
⇒  
m × 540 + m × 1 × 100 = 80 × 80 B

80  80 25. Answer (2)

 m  10 g
640 Hint: P = eAT4
Mass of water present = 80 + 10 = 90 g Sol.: P = eAT4
22. Answer (4) Now as radius is doubled. Hence surface area will
Hint: For linear scale Y = mx + c become 4 times i.e. 4A.
Sol.: (ºC) PA
P 4A
P = 4P = 4 × 300 = 1200 W
80º C
26. Answer (2)

0 50 cm (cm)   Temperature difference

Hint: Heat flow = 
– 10º C Rth Thermal resistance
Sol.: Temperature difference remains same 30ºC,
9
  – 10 1 1 1
5 but thermal resistance  
Req R R
 When  = 70 cm

9 R
  70 – 10  Req 
5 2
 = 116ºC Hence heat flow will double i.e. 20 J/s
23. Answer (2) 27. Answer (4)
Hint: If C P & C V are molar specific heats then Hint: Apply Newton’s law of cooling.
CP – CV = R
Sol.: Molar specific heat = M × specific heat 1 – 2 ⎡   ⎤
Sol.:  K ⎢ 1 2 – 0 ⎥
McP – McV = R t ⎣ 2 ⎦

R 60 – 50 ⎡ 60  50 ⎤
cP – cV  ⇒ K⎢ – 20 ⎥ ...(i)
M 9 ⎣ 2 ⎦

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Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

50 –  ⎡ 50   ⎤ 32. Answer (1)

K⎢ – 20 ⎥ ...(ii)
9 ⎣ 2 ⎦ Hint: Q = U + W
10 35 Sol.: Q = U + W

50 –   –100 = U + 20
25  – 20
2 U = –120 J
= 42.5ºC
33. Answer (4)
28. Answer (2)
Hint and solution : If two bodies are in thermal
Hint: For fixed mass of gas at constant pressure equilibrium then both the bodies are at same
V T. temperature.
Sol.: V 34. Answer (2)

V
Hint:  
V T
T Sol.: PT = constant = K
Gas equation PV = RT
For fixed mass of gas at constant pressure V T.
K
29. Answer (2) V  RT
T
Hint: AB is Lsothermal process.
V T2
Pi dV 2T dT
Sol.: Work done = 2.303 RT log 10
PF
dV 2dT
⇒ 
1 V T
= 2.303 × 2 × 8.3 × 300 log
2
dV 2
= – 2.303 × 2 × 8.3 × 300 × 0.3010 
VdT T
= – 3452 J
35. Answer (3)
Negative sign indicates that work is done on the gas.
Hint: For adiabatic process Q = 0
30. Answer (4)
Hint: Change in internal energy is the function of Q
state only U1 = U2 = U3 Sol.: S  0
T
Sol.: Q = U + W  S will remain same.
W = area under P – V diagram
36. Answer (2)
Hence W1 > W2 > W3
Hint: Conversion of P-V graph into V-T graph.
Q1 > Q2 > Q3
Sol.: A Carnot cycle consist of isothermal
31. Answer (4) expansion, adiabatic expansion, isothermal
Hint: Change in internal energy U = CVT compression and adiabatic compression respectively.
Sol.: 37. Answer (4)

PAVA PBVB Hint: Q = U + W

Since 
TA TB Sol.: Isobaric process
Q = Cv R
3 3
3  10  1 10  3 Q = 3RR

TA TB Q = 4R
 TA = TB W = R
 T = TB – TA = 0 Q
⇒  4 :1
U = 0 W

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
38. Answer (1) 42. Answer (2)
Hint: PVN = constant Hint: For adiabatic Q = 0
Sol.: PVN = constant Sol.: Q = U + W
Molar heat capacity of the gas. U = –W
R 5R R 9R As in expansion W = Positive. Hence U =
C  Cv     Negative so temperature of the gas will decrease.
1– N 2 1– 1 2
2 43. Answer (2)
39. Answer (3) Hint: Carnot

Q2 ⎛ T ⎞
Hint: Coefficient of performance K  Sol.: Carnot  ⎜ 1– L ⎟
W ⎝ TH ⎠
TL Q
Sol.: K   2 ⎛ 303 ⎞
TH – TL W max  ⎜ 1–  0.284
⎝ 423 ⎟⎠
273 2000 = 28.4%  maximum possible efficiency.

45 P  Efficiency may be 25%
2000  45 44. Answer (2)
P  330 W
273 Hint: Boyle’s law.
40. Answer (1) Sol.: PV = constant.
P V2
Hint: PV = nRT P0V0 = P × 2V0
P2
⎛ nR ⎞ V1 P0
Sol.: P  ⎜ ⎟T P1 P
⎝ V ⎠ 2
T
0 45. Answer (3)

For a given temperature, P2 > P1 Hint: Isochoric process, i.e, V = 0

 V2 < V1 Sol.: From Ist law
41. Answer (2) Q = U + W
Hint and solution : Isobaric process is at constant  Q = U
pressure, isochoric process is at constant volume All heat absorbed will be used in increasing the
and isothermal process is at constant temperature. internal energy of the gas.

[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3) Sol.: The order of thermal stability of hydrides is
Hint: Basic character of oxide increases down the LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
group. 49. Answer (4)
47. Answer (4) Hint: In Castner-Kellner cell mercury cathode and
Hint: For solubility, hydration energy > lattice energy graphite anode are used.
Hg
Sol.: Cathode: Na   e    Na  Hg
Sol.: The size of Ba2+ and SO24 ions are very large
which leads to higher lattice enthalpy than that of 1
Anode: Cl  Cl2  e 
hydration enthalpy. 2
48. Answer (1) Cl2 gas evolved at anode.
Hint: Lattice enthalpy decreases with increase in the 50. Answer (2)
size of cation. Hint: Ga: [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p1

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Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

Sol.: In ‘Ga’ atom, 10 electrons are filled in d orbitals 57. Answer (3)
hence size decreases due to poor shielding of d Hint: All reactive metal releases H2 gas with dil acid
electrons. or water.
Sol.: 2NaHCO3 + 2HCl  2NaCl + 2H2O + 2CO2
51. Answer (2)
58. Answer (4)
Hint: Amphoteric oxides means which will react with Hint: Thermal stability order : MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BaCO3
acid and as well as base.
59. Answer (2)
Sol.: SnO2 + 2NaOH  Na2SnO3 + H2O Hint: Slaked lime is Ca(OH)2
SnO2 + 4HCl  SnCl4 + 2H2O Sol.: Slaked lime is prepared by adding water to quick
lime (CaO)
52. Answer (3)
CaO + H2O  Ca(OH)2
Hint.: Blue colour turns to bronze colour by increasing
60. Answer (3)
the metal concentration leading to the cluster formation
of metal. Hint: Cl Cl Cl
Al 101° Al
53. Answer (1)
Cl Cl Cl
Hint: BeH2 becomes polymer due to its electron
deficient nature through multicentre bridge bonds. 61. Answer (1)

Sol.: Hint: Al forms a protective layer of Al2O3 with conc.

HNO3.
3c - 2e bond
62. Answer (3)
H H H H
Be Be Be Be Hint: Boron nitride has 2 dimensional sheet like
H H H H structure.
54. Answer (2) 63. Answer (2)
wt. of H2O2 F
Hint: %strength=  100
V(ml) of solution
Hint: B
Sol.: 2H2O2  2H2O + O2 F F
22.4 L O2 from 2  34 g H2O2 (at NTP) Sol.: Acidic strength : BI3 > BBr3 >BCl3 > BF3
2  34 64. Answer (4)
100 L O2 from  100 = 303.57 g
22.4 Hint: Mobility decreases with increase in the extent
of solvation.
= 30.35% H2O2 solution.
Sol.: Order of size of hydrated ion
55. Answer (4)
Na+(aq) > K+(aq) > Rb+(aq) > Cs+(aq)
Hint: Galena is PbS.
65. Answer (3)
Sol.: Mica, zeolite and feldspar are silicates.
Hint: Half filled and completely filled subshells are
56. Answer (1) more stable.
H2O Sol.: IE1 order: Li < Be > B
Hint: CH 3SiCl3 CH 3Si(OH) 3 + HCl .
IE2 order: Li >> Be > Mg
Sol.:
66. Answer (1)
polymerise
CH3Si(OH)3 CH3 CH3 Hint: Solubility order :
– O – Si – O – Si – O  LiF < NaF < KF
O O  LiCl > NaCl > KCl
– O – Si – O – Si – O 67. Answer (4)
CH3 CH3 Hint: High hydration of Li+ compensates its high
(cross link polymer) ionisation enthalpy hence best reducing agent.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)

68. Answer (4) 80. Answer (3)

Hint: LiNO3 decomposes into oxide on heating. ether
Hint: 4BCl3 + 3LiAlH4 2B2H6 + 3LiCl + 3AlCl3
Sol.: All group-2 nitrates decompose in their oxides [A] [B] [C]
2M(NO3)2  2MO + 4NO2 + O2 81. Answer (3)
69. Answer (3) Hint: Electrovalency of alkali metals and phosphide
Hint: Ca(OCl)2 is calcium hypochlorite ion respectively are +1 and –3.
70. Answer (2) Sol.: Formula of phosphide of alkali metal is M3P.
Hint: Average composition of Portland cement 82. Answer (4)
CaO : 50–60% Hint: H3BO3 is a Lewis acid.
–
SiO2 : 20–25% Sol.: HO HO OH
H +
HO B + O B +H
Al2O3 : 5–10% H
HO HO OH
71. Answer (3)
83. Answer (3)
Hint: NH3 + H2O + CO2  NH4HCO3
Hint: Inert pair effect
72. Answer (2)
Sol.: Stability of +2 oxidation state (Si < Ge < Sn < Pb)
Hint: Be can show four co-ordination number.
84. Answer (1)
Sol.: Be(OH)2 + 2OH–  [Be(OH)4]2–
73. Answer (1) Hint: (SiO3 )n2n represent cyclic and chain silicates.
Hint: For alkaline earth metal hydroxides, 85. Answer (4)
decrease in lattice energy is more than decrease in Hint: Mixture of CO and N2 is called producer gas.
hydration energy down the group.
86. Answer (1)
74. Answer (3)
Hint: Generally beryllium compounds are covalent in
Hint: Large size anion is more stabilized by large size nature.
cation.
87. Answer (2)
Sol.: K and Rb form stable superoxides.
Hint: Graphite has 2D sheet like structure and has
75. Answer (2) unpaired electrons.
Hint: Order of density is Sol.: Graphite is thermodynamically more stable than
Rb > Na > K > Li diamond.
76. Answer (2) 88. Answer (3)
Hint: All alkali metals impart colour in flame test. Hint: SiCl4 has tetrahedral structure
Sol.: Due to small size and high nuclear charge, Be H Cl
and Mg do not show colour to the flame. N
+
B
,
77. Answer (3) Sol.: H H Cl Cl
H
Hint: Cs : [Xe] 6s1 Tetrahedral
–
Sol.: Cs has least ionisation energy in its group. O Cl
78. Answer (4) –
Si Al
–
Hint: 4H3BO3 + Na2CO3  Na2B4O7 + 6H2O + CO2 O – O
–
Cl Cl
O Cl
750°C Tetrahedral
Sol.: Na 2B4O 7 heat
2NaBO2 + B 2O 3
89. Answer (1)
Glassy bead
Hint: Lewis acids are electron deficient species.
79. Answer (4) Sol.: B2H6 acts as a Lewis acid
Hint: Borax is Na2B4O7  10 H2O 90. Answer (2)
Sol.: In borax, two boron atoms are sp2 and two boron 
atoms are sp3 hybridised. Hint: 2Na + 2NH3 2NaNH2 + H2

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Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (4)
Hint: Nitrogen is not absorbed by the plants in the
gaseous form
Sol.: Plants absorb nitrogen in the form of NO3 ,
NO2 and NH4 only. The major absorption occurs in
the form of NO3 .
92. Answer (4)
Hint: Macronutrients are found in plants in excess of
10 mmole kg–1 of dry matter.
Sol.: Macronutrients are nine in number (C, H, O, N,
P, K, Ca, Mg, S).
93. Answer (3)
Hint: Sulphur is not found in nucleosides and nucleic
acids.
Sol.: Deoxyadenosine is a nucleoside which does
not have sulphur.
94. Answer (4)
Hint: Element which activates carboxylases is also
required for synthesis of a growth hormone i.e.
auxin.
Sol.: Zn activates various enzymes especially
carboxylases. Nitrite reductase contains copper and
iron.
95. Answer (3)
Hint: Deficiency symptoms of immobile elements
appear first in young leaves.
Sol.: Ca is an immobile element which is required
for the formation of mitotic spindles.
96. Answer (1)
Hint: This element is an important component of cell
membrane.
Sol.: Phosphorus (P) does not help in maintaining
cation - anion balance in cells.
97. Answer (4)
Hint: Toxicity of Mn affects uptake of some other
elements & causes their deficiencies.
Sol.: Excess of Mn reduces uptake of Mg and Fe.
Its excess also inhibits translocation of Ca to shoot
apex and produces brown spots surrounded by
chlorotic veins.
98. Answer (4)
Hint: Symplast comprises cytoplasm and vacuole
Sol.: Metabolic phase involves movement of ions into
symplast. It is an active process and transmembrane
proteins are required for this phase of mineral
absorption.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
99. Answer (3)
Hint: It is the first step of nitrification.
Sol.: Nitrification is carried out by a group of nitrifying
bacteria which are free living and chemoautotrophs.
100. Answer (4)
Hint: Nitrogenase is found in all those bacteria which
convert N2 into NH3.
Sol.: Nitrococcus is a nitrifying bacterium whereas
rest of all are N2 fixing bacteria.
101. Answer (2)
Hint: Rhizobium is involved in nitrogen fixation for
which nitrogenase is required.
Sol.: Regions of nodule where nitrogen fixation
occurs have leghaemoglobin, nitrogenase, ATP and
lack molecular oxygen. Nitrogenase is highly
sensitive to molecular oxygen.
102. Answer (2)
Hint: Plants can assimilate both NH4 and NO3 .
Sol.: Rhizobium is aerobic and free living in soil but
fixes N2 in anaerobic condition symbiotically. Nodule
is formed by division of cells of inner cortex and
pericycle.
103. Answer (3)
Hint: Given conversion shows reductive amination.
Sol.: A -  - ketoglutaric acid
B - NADPH
C - Glutamate dehydrogenase
D - NADP
104. Answer (3)
Hint: Amides have more nitrogen than amino acids.
Sol.: Hydroxyl part of amino acids is replaced by
another amino group to form amides. Asparagine &
Glutamine are two important amides.
105. Answer (2)
Hint: Some plants transport nitrogen in other forms
which have high nitrogen to carbon ratio.
Sol.: Ureides have high N/C value thus high amount
of nitrogen is transported in this form.
106. Answer (4)
Sol.: Hydroponics is very useful technique but its
set up requires high cost to maintain.
107. Answer (1)
Hint: Death of tissue is known as necrosis.
Sol.: Necrosis is caused by deficiency of elements
such as Ca, Cu, Mg, K.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
108. Answer (3)
Sol.: Bacillus vulgaris converts organic nitrogen into
ammonia, called ammonification.
109. Answer (1)
Hint: These elements are absorbed in the form of
cation and anion respectively.
Sol.: Fe and S are absorbed as Fe+3 and SO 42
respectively. These are constituents of ferredoxin.
110. Answer (1)
Hint: These elements are either components of
chlorophyll or required for its synthesis.
Sol.: Mg is an important component of chlorophyll
while K & Fe are required for chlorophyll synthesis.
111. Answer (4)
Hint: First action spectrum was prepared by
measuring O2 evolution.
Sol.: T.W. Engelmann used a green alga Cladophora
and aerobic bacteria to measure O2 evolution and
prepared first action spectrum of photosynthesis
112. Answer (4)
Hint: Carotenoids are yellow-orange pigments found
in green plants.
Sol.: Carotenoids along with xanthophyll &
chlorophyll b are called accessory pigments. They
absorb wavelength between 400 - 700 nm (visible
spectrum) only and prevent photo-oxidation.
113. Answer (1)
Hint: PS II is found in grana lamellae only.
Sol.: PS I is found on the outer surface while PS II
towards inner surface of thylakoids.
Both are involved in non cyclic photophosphorylation
but only PS II is associated with release of O2.
114. Answer (1)
Hint: Reaction centre of PS I absorbs light at wave
length 700 nm.
Sol.: Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs at
1. Light wavelength beyond 680 nm.
2. Anaerobic condition
3. Low CO2 availability
115. Answer (4)
Hint: Chemiosmosis theory involves ATP synthesis
via ATP synthase.
Sol.: Only protons are diffused back to stroma to
break the proton gradient between lumen and stroma.
116. Answer (3)
Hint: Molecules which provide energy for CO2 fixation
are called assimilatory power
Sol.: ATP and NADPH are assimilatory power for
dark reaction.
10/14
Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
117. Answer (4)
Hint: Calvin cycle involves three steps of CO 2
fixation.
Sol.: Deamination is the process which involves
removal of amine group. It does not occur during C3
cycle.
118. Answer (2)
Hint: C4 plants can perform photosynthesis at high
temperature also.
Sol.: C4 plants are adapted to dry tropical regions.
119. Answer (4)
Hint: C3 plants can show dual activity of RuBisCO.
Sol.: Maize, Sorghum, Sugarcane are C4 plants
Wheat is a C3 plant which can show carboxylation
as well as oxygenation (during photorespiration) by
RuBisCO.
120. Answer (3)
Hint: Potato is a C3 plant, while Amaranthus is a C4
plant
Sol.: C3 cycle in potato - Mesophyll cells
C3 cycle in Amaranthus - Bundle sheath cells.
121. Answer (3)
Hint: RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme of the
world.
Sol.: RuBisCO is heat sensitive but has greater
affinity for CO2 than O2 when CO2 : O2 is nearly
equal.
122. Answer (4)
Sol.: For each molecule of CO2 to be fixed via Calvin
cycle 3 ATP and 2 NADPH molecules are required.
123. Answer (2)
Hint: PGA to PGAL conversion is a reduction
process.
Sol.: Reduction of PGA to PGAL requires ATP as
well as NADPH.
124. Answer (1)
Hint: C4 plants lose less water through transpiration
as compared to C3 plants.
Sol.: C4 plants have
 High yield and productivity
 C 3 plants perform better at high CO 2
concentration as compared to C4 plants.
 C4 plants show better water utilisation.
 C4 plants lack photorespiration.
125. Answer (2)
Hint: Bundle sheath cells are specialized cells in C4
plants, where RuBisCO is found.
Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
Sol.: Bundle sheath cells & mesophyll cells both 134. Answer (2)
show CO2 fixation process. Hint: Cyclic photophosphorylation involves PS I only.
Grana are absent in bundle sheath cells and primary Sol.: During cyclic photophosphorylation only ATP is
CO2 fixation product is different in both the cells. formed while non-cyclic photophosphorylation yields
126. Answer (4) ATP, NADPH as well as O2
Hint: CAM pathway is also known as diurnal acid 135. Answer (3)
cycle. Hint: To form two molecules of hexose sugar Calvin
Sol.: CAM pathway is less efficient than C 4 cycle operates 12 times.
pathway. In CAM plants stomata open during night Sol.: In maize both C3 and C4 cycles operate. Thus
(scotoactive). All chloroplasts are of same type. here 12 C3 & C4 cycles will occur.
127. Answer (1) Since 1 C3 cycle requires = 3 ATP
Hint: Photorespiration operates during light when  12 C3 cycles require = 12 × 3 = 36 ATP
concentration of O2 > CO2
1 C4 cycle requires = 2 ATP
Sol.: It consumes a part of light energy and prevents
plants from photooxidative damage.  12 C4 cycles require = 12 × 2 = 24 ATP
128. Answer (2) 136. Answer (4)
Hint: In C 2 cycle, O 2 is used by RuBisCO in Hint: Endocrine glands release their secretion in
chloroplast. blood so that they can reach every cell.
Sol.: Decarboxylation or release of CO2 occurs in Sol.: Neural system transmits messages through
mitochondria. impulses. This involves faster transmission of
information than endocrine system. Nervous system
129. Answer (2)
is not connected directly to every cell while
Hint: C4 plants can perform photosynthesis at high endocrine glands release hormones in blood that
temperature. reach every cell of the body through blood. Neural
Sol.: C4 plants have PEP synthetase which is cold response is rapid and lasts for shorter duration as
sensitive. compared to endocrine system.
130. Answer (4) 137. Answer (4)
Sol.: Pyruvic acid is a 3-carbon acid while rest all Hint: This hormone is also known as somatotrophin.
are 4-carbon acids. Sol.: GH hormone in muscles promotes protein
131. Answer (4) anabolism. Parathormone is related with Ca2+ level in
Hint: Light rarely becomes a limiting factor except blood and thymosin helps in maturation of
plants found in shade or dense forest. T-lymphocytes. Cortisol is a stress hormone which
Sol.: Above 10% light intensity of the total sunlight, promotes protein catabolism in muscle.
light becomes damaging and there is no increase in 138. Answer (4)
photosynthesis. Hint: Somatotrophin is also known as growth
132. Answer (4) hormone.
Hint: At low light intensity photosynthesis rate does Sol.: It regulates body growth by promoting protein
not change. anabolism. Somatotrophin is released from
Sol.: At low light intensity, no plant (C 3 or C 4) adenohypophysis or anterior pituitary gland which is
respond to high CO2 concentration. under the control of GHRH from hypothalamus.
133. Answer (2) 139. Answer (3)
Hint: Optimum external and internal factors will Hint: This hormone requires iodine for its synthesis.
support maximum photosynthesis. Sol.: Deficiency of thyroxine during intrauterine life
Sol.: causes cretinism characterised by stunted growth,
mental retardation and deaf mutism.
For C3 plants For C4 plants
140. Answer (2)
Green leaves Green leaves
Hint: Endocrine gland present in neck region.
Low temperature High temperature
Sol.: Thyroid is the largest endocrine gland in
CO2 = 450 IL –1 CO2 = 360 IL–1
humans. It secretes mainly three hormones
High light intensity High light intensity thyroxine or T4, T3 and thyrocalcitonin(TCT).

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
141. Answer (3)
Hint: Hormone which increases Ca2+ level in blood.
Sol.: Hyposecretion of parathormone decreases the
Ca 2+ level in blood that leads to tetany.
Hyposecretion of estrogen causes osteoporosis in
females. Hyposecretion of thyroxine causes
Myxedema in adults. Deficiency of vasopressin/ADH
causes diabetes insipidus.
142. Answer (3)
Hint: Zona reticularis is the innermost layer of
adrenal cortex.
Sol.: Zona reticularis layer secretes mainly
androgenic corticoids i.e., androstenedione,
dehydroepiandrosterone. Aldosterone is secreted from
zona glomerulosa and cortisol from zona fasciculata
of adrenal cortex. Epinephrine is secreted from
adrenal medulla.
143. Answer (1)
Hint: Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and
mineralocorticoids causes this disease.
Sol.: Addison’s disease occurs due to deficiency of
aldosterone and cortisol. Cushing’s disease is
caused due to hypersecretion from adrenal cortex.
Exopthalmic goitre occurs due to hypersecretion
from thyroid gland. Conn’s disease occurs due to
hypersecretion of aldosterone.
144. Answer (3)
Hint: Deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes
mellitus.
Sol.: Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone in humans
which increases uptake of glucose into cells from
blood. Glucagon, thyroxine and growth hormone can
result in hyperglycemia.
145. Answer (1)
Hint: These cells are also known as interstitial cells.
Sol.: Sertoli cells are also known as sustentacular
cells. They release ABP and inhibin. Spermatozoa
formation requires testosterone.
146 Answer (1)
Hint: Hormone secreted by thymus gland.
Sol.: Thymosin is a peptide hormone secreted by
thymus gland. This hormone helps in development of
immunity. T3, T4 and TCT are hormones of thyroid
gland. Catecholamines are released during
emergency from adrenal medulla.
147. Answer (4)
Hint: Amylase is a carbohydrate digesting enzyme.
Sol.: Digestion of carbohydrates starts in mouth but
does not occur in stomach due to absence of gastric
amylase.
12/14
Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
148. Answer (4)
Hint: These hormones are released by adrenal
medulla.
Sol.: Adrenal medulla is a sympathetic ganglia that
releases stress hormones. These hormones
produced by post ganglionic neurons are transported
through blood and are known as neurohormones. eg;
epinephrine and norepinephrine.
149. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify the disease characterised by hirsutism
and masculinization in females.
Sol.: ACTH is a pituitary hormone which acts on
adrenal gland and increases secretion from adrenal
cortex that results in Cushing’s disease. Deficiency
of insulin results in Diabetes mellitus. Deficiency of
hormones of adrenal cortex causes Addison’s
disease while Grave’s disease occurs due to
hypersecretion of thyroid gland.
150. Answer (1)
Hint: This hormone is secreted by -cells of
pancreas.
Sol.: Glucagon is a peptide hormone that requires
membrane bound receptors, whereas estrogen,
iodothyronines and cortisol require intra-cellular
receptors.
151. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a neurohormone from hypothalamus.
Sol.: ADH is produced by hypothalamus and stored
in posterior pituitary. Pars distalis also known as
anterior pituitary secretes PRL, TSH and ACTH.
152. Answer (1)
Hint: This hormone is mainly responsible for
ovulation.
Sol.: After ovulation, remaining part of Graafian
follicle that changes into corpus luteum is maintained
by LH in a non-pregnant female. FSH is responsible
for growth and development of ovarian follicles.
Corpus luteum secretes progesterone followed by
estrogen during luteal phase.
153. Answer (3)
Hint: This gland is attached to epithalamus.
Sol.: Pineal gland is present on the roof of third
ventricle. Hypothalamus is present at the base of
thalamus.
154. Answer (1)
Hint: Both gustatoreceptors and olfactory receptors
are chemoreceptors.
Sol.: The receptors which receive chemical stimuli are
known as chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors
receive mechanical stimuli. Algesireceptors receive
stimulus that is perceived as pain.
Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
155. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone is released from adrenal medulla.
Sol.: This hormone increases alertness and causes
pupillary dilation.
156. Answer (2)
Hint: This hormone is released by outer most layer
of adrenal cortex.
Sol.: Outer most layer of adrenal cortex called zona
glomerulosa releases aldosterone. This hormone
increases the reabsorption of Na+ in distal part of
nephron. Water is also reabsorbed following Na+
reabsorption. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) released
from atrial wall of heart affects water and electrolyte
balance but is not a corticoid. Melatonin and
testosterone are also not corticoids.
157. Answer (2)
Hint: This hormone is released in response to
increase in blood pressure.
Sol.: Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasodilation and
increases natriuresis (increased excretion of Na+ in
urine), thereby lowering blood volume and blood
pressure.
158. Answer (3)
Hint: This hormone increases thickness of
endometrium during proliferative phase of menstrual
cycle.
Sol.: Estrogen in females and testosterone in males
control secondary sexual characters. Progesterone
maintains pregnancy. FSH promotes gametogenesis.
159. Answer (4)
Hint: Testosterone increases muscular growth during
adolescence.
Sol.: Testosterone in males controls secondary
sexual characters and has anabolic effect on
proteins and carbohydrates.
160. Answer (4)
Hint: Disc shaped receptor sensitive to touch.
Sol.: Merkel’s disc is a disc shaped receptor
present in epidermis of our skin. Receptors such as
Pacinian corpuscle, Meissner’s corpuscle and
Ruffini’s organ are found below epidermis.
161. Answer (3)
Hint: This hormone is synthesised and released by
anterior pituitary.
Sol.: Prolactin is responsible for milk synthesis and
secretion from cells of alveoli of mammary gland.
Oxytocin is responsible for ejection of milk (Milk let
down hormone).
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
162. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify eye related defects.
Sol.: In myopia, image is formed in front of retina.
This defect is corrected by concave lens.
163. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify the gland that regulates diurnal rhythm.
Sol.: Melatonin released by pineal gland regulates
biological clock.
164. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a vasoconstrictor.
Sol.: ANF is released in response to increase in
blood pressure while vasopressin is released in
response to low blood pressure. Insulin increases
glucose absorption into cells and aldosterone
increases Na+ reabsorption in nephrons.
165. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify hypothalamic hormone called GHIH.
Sol.: Pineal gland secretes melatonin and prolactin
is secreted by anterior pituitary. Erythropoietin is
secreted by JG cells of kidney. Somatostatin is also
called GHIH.
166. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone is known as stress hormone.
Sol.: Adrenaline is derived from tyrosine and
functions during emergency conditions such as fear,
fight and flight
167. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a ductless gland.
Sol.: Parathyroid gland is situated on dorsal side of
thyroid gland while salivary, lacrimal and mammary
glands are exocrine glands.
168. Answer (4)
Hint: This molecule is called energy currency of the
cell.
Sol.: Hormones which are hydrophilic in nature bind
to extracytoplasmic receptors present on plasma
membrane and generates a second messenger
which leads to activation of enzyme cascade.
Common secondary messengers are Ca2+, cAMP
and cGMP. ATP is not a secondary messenger.
169. Answer (4)
Hint: Sensory cells in ear
Sol.: Hair cells are present in organ of corti are
sensory in nature.
170. Answer (4)
Hint: Cochlea is composed of both bony and
membranous labyrinth.
Sol.: Scala media is filled with endolymph while
scala vestibuli and scala tympani are filled with
perilymph.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
171. Answer (2)
Hint: This part of ear is involved in hearing.
Sol.: Utricle, saccule and cristae help in maintaining
body equilibrium.
172. Answer (3)
Hint: This membrane is found in scala media.
Sol.: Sensory hair cells are pressed against tectorial
membrane upon receiving stimulus. Reissner’s and
Basilar membrane form roof and floor of scala media
respectively.
173. Answer (3)
Hint: This pigment is also called rhodopsin.
Sol.: Rods are sensitive to dim light due to
presence of rhodopsin
174. Answer (2)
Hint: Part that gives white appearance to eye.
Sol.: Sclera is outermost layer, choroid is middle
layer and retina is innermost layer of eye.
175. Answer (4)
Hint: This structure connects middle ear to pharynx.
Sol.: Eustachian tube connects middle ear to
pharynx so that atmospheric pressure remains equal
on both sides of ear drum.
176. Answer (3)
Hint: This is the swollen part of a semicircular canal
Sol.: Cristae are associated with ampulla in inner ear
and help in maintaining equilibrium.
 
14/14
Test - 5 (Code-C) (Answers & Hints)
177. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a steroid hormone.
Sol.: Norepinephrine, oxytocin and TCT are lipid
insoluble hormones hence, they cannot cross the
lipid bilayer. They execute their action through
extracellular receptors. Estrogen is lipid soluble,
steroid hormone which acts through intracellular
receptors.
178. Answer (4)
Hint: Some hormones are steroidal in nature or
derivative of an amino acid.
Sol.: Estrogen, progesterone, cortisol, etc are
steroidal in nature while catecholamines and
thyroxine are amino acid derivatives.
179. Answer (3)
Hint: This organ is associated with sense of smell
Sol.: Modified pseudostratified epithelium/
Schneidarian membrane is associated with roof of
nasal cavity
180. Answer (4)
Hint: This disease results from hyperthyroidism.
Sol.: Exopthalmic goitre occurs due to hyper
secretion of thyroxine hormone. High secretion of
GH after puberty and before puberty causes
acromegaly and gigantism respectively.

Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

TEST - 5 (Code-D)
Test Date : 27/01/2019

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (4) 73. (2) 109. (4) 145. (2)
2. (2) 38. (4) 74. (3) 110. (3) 146. (4)
3. (2) 39. (1) 75. (1) 111. (4) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (3) 76. (3) 112. (1) 148. (4)
5. (2) 41. (1) 77. (2) 113. (1) 149. (4)
6. (1) 42. (3) 78. (4) 114. (4) 150. (4)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (4) 151. (4)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (1) 116. (1) 152. (2)
9. (4) 45. (2) 81. (4) 117. (1) 153. (4)
10. (2) 46. (2) 82. (2) 118. (3) 154. (4)
11. (3) 47. (1) 83. (1) 119. (1) 155. (3)
12. (2) 48. (3) 84. (3) 120. (4) 156. (4)
13. (4) 49. (2) 85. (2) 121. (2) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (1) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (3)
15. (4) 51. (4) 87. (4) 123. (3) 159. (2)
16. (4) 52. (1) 88. (1) 124. (2) 160. (2)
17. (2) 53. (3) 89. (4) 125. (2) 161. (4)
18. (2) 54. (4) 90. (3) 126. (4) 162. (1)
19. (4) 55. (3) 91. (3) 127. (3) 163. (3)
20. (2) 56. (3) 92. (2) 128. (4) 164. (1)
21. (2) 57. (4) 93. (2) 129. (4) 165. (4)
22. (1) 58. (4) 94. (4) 130. (1) 166. (1)
23. (2) 59. (3) 95. (4) 131. (3) 167. (2)
24. (4) 60. (2) 96. (4) 132. (4) 168. (4)
25. (3) 61. (2) 97. (2) 133. (3) 169. (4)
26. (2) 62. (3) 98. (2) 134. (4) 170. (1)
27. (1) 63. (1) 99. (1) 135. (4) 171. (1)
28. (4) 64. (2) 100. (4) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (1) 65. (3) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (1)
30. (2) 66. (2) 102. (1) 138. (4) 174. (3)
31. (3) 67. (3) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (4) 104. (4) 140. (3) 176. (2)
33. (2) 69. (4) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (3)
34. (2) 70. (1) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (4)
35. (1) 71. (3) 107. (4) 143. (3) 179. (4)
36. (2) 72. (4) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)

ANSWERS & HINTS

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3) 7. Answer (3)
Hint: Isochoric process, i.e, V = 0 Q2
Hint: Coefficient of performance K 
Sol.: From Ist law W
Q = U + W TL Q
Sol.: K   2
 Q = U TH – TL W
All heat absorbed will be used in increasing the 273 2000

internal energy of the gas. 45 P
2. Answer (2) 2000  45
P  330 W
Hint: Boyle’s law. 273
8. Answer (1)
Sol.: PV = constant.
Hint: PVN = constant
P0V0 = P × 2V0
Sol.: PVN = constant
P0
P Molar heat capacity of the gas.
2
R 5R R 9R
3. Answer (2) C  Cv    
1– N 2 1– 1 2
Hint: Carnot 2
9. Answer (4)
⎛ T ⎞
Sol.: Carnot  ⎜ 1– L ⎟ Hint: Q = U + W
⎝ TH ⎠
Sol.: Isobaric process
⎛ 303 ⎞ Q = Cv R
max  ⎜ 1– ⎟  0.284
⎝ 423 ⎠ Q = 3RR
= 28.4%  maximum possible efficiency. Q = 4R
 Efficiency may be 25% W = R
4. Answer (2) Q
⇒  4 :1
Hint: For adiabatic Q = 0 W
Sol.: Q = U + W 10. Answer (2)
U = –W Hint: Conversion of P-V graph into V-T graph.
As in expansion W = Positive. Hence U = Sol.: A Carnot cycle consist of isothermal
Negative so temperature of the gas will decrease. expansion, adiabatic expansion, isothermal
5. Answer (2) compression and adiabatic compression respectively.
Hint and solution : Isobaric process is at constant 11. Answer (3)
pressure, isochoric process is at constant volume Hint: For adiabatic process Q = 0
and isothermal process is at constant temperature.
6. Answer (1) Q
P V2 Sol.: S  0
Hint: PV = nRT T
P2
V1  S will remain same.
⎛ nR ⎞
Sol.: P  ⎜ ⎟T P1 12. Answer (2)
⎝ V ⎠
T
0 V
Hint:  
For a given temperature, P2 > P1 V T
 V2 < V1 Sol.: PT = constant = K

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Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
Gas equation PV = RT = – 2.303 × 2 × 8.3 × 300 × 0.3010
= – 3452 J
K
V  RT Negative sign indicates that work is done on the gas.
T
18. Answer (2)
V T2
Hint: For fixed mass of gas at constant pressure
dV 2T dT V T.
dV 2dT Sol.: V
⇒ 
V T

dV 2

VdT T
T
13. Answer (4)
Hint and solution : If two bodies are in thermal For fixed mass of gas at constant pressure V T.
equilibrium then both the bodies are at same 19. Answer (4)
temperature.
Hint: Apply Newton’s law of cooling.
14. Answer (1)
Hint: Q = U + W 1 – 2 ⎡   ⎤
Sol.:  K ⎢ 1 2 – 0 ⎥
t ⎣ 2 ⎦
Sol.: Q = U + W
–100 = U + 20 60 – 50 ⎡ 60  50 ⎤
⇒ K⎢ – 20 ⎥ ...(i)
U = –120 J 9 ⎣ 2 ⎦
15. Answer (4) 50 –  ⎡ 50   ⎤
K⎢ – 20 ⎥ ...(ii)
Hint: Change in internal energy U = CVT 9 ⎣ 2 ⎦
Sol.: 10 35

PAVA PBVB 50 –  
25  – 20
Since  2
TA TB
= 42.5ºC
3  103  1 103  3 20. Answer (2)

TA TB
  Temperature difference
 TA = TB Hint: Heat flow = 
Rth Thermal resistance
 T = TB – TA = 0
Sol.: Temperature difference remains same 30ºC,
U = 0
1 1 1
16. Answer (4) but thermal resistance  
Hint: Change in internal energy is the function of Req R R
state only U1 = U2 = U3
R
Sol.: Q = U + W  Req 
2
W = area under P – V diagram Hence heat flow will double i.e. 20 J/s
Hence W1 > W2 > W3 21. Answer (2)
Q1 > Q2 > Q3
Hint: P = eAT4
17. Answer (2)
Sol.: P = eAT4
Hint: AB is Lsothermal process.
Now as radius is doubled. Hence surface area will
Pi become 4 times i.e. 4A.
Sol.: Work done = 2.303 RT log 10
PF PA
1 P 4A
= 2.303 × 2 × 8.3 × 300 log
2 P = 4P = 4 × 300 = 1200 W

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
22. Answer (1) m × 540 + m × 1 × 100 = 80 × 80
Hint: V  V  80  80
 m  10 g
640
V –P
Sol.:  Mass of water present = 80 + 10 = 90 g
V B
V 26. Answer (2)
And  
V Hint: Heat current will be same as connected in
series.
P
⇒   (0 – 100)2KA (200 – 0 )3KA
B Sol.: H  
2 3
P 0 – 100 = 200 – 0
⇒  
B
20 = 300
23. Answer (2) 0 = 150°C
Hint: If C P & C V are molar specific heats then 27. Answer (1)
CP – CV = R
Hint: H = (m + w)c 
Sol.: Molar specific heat = M × specific heat
Sol.: H = (m + w)c 
McP – McV = R
= 150 × 1 × 50 = 7500 cal
R = 7.5 kcal
cP – cV 
M 28. Answer (4)
R Hint:  = 2
For helium p =
4 L
Sol.: L  L ⇒  100  2%
R L
For oxygen q 
32 r
r  r  ⇒  100  2%
 p = 8q r
24. Answer (4) Area = r2
Hint: For linear scale Y = mx + c
dA 2r
Sol.: (ºC) ⇒  100   100  4%
A r
29. Answer (1)
80º C vD
Hint: R 

0 50 cm (cm)
– 10º C D 2v
Sol.: Q  Av 
4
9
  – 10 4Q
5 Or, v 
D 2
 When  = 70 cm
D 4Q 4Q
9 So, R  
   70 – 10  D 2 D
5
30. Answer (2)
 = 116ºC
25. Answer (3) m1  m2
Hint: d mix 
Hint: Q = mL V1  V2
Sol.: Heat given by steam = Heat taken by ice m1  m2 d1V  d 2V d1  d 2
mLv + mc = mL1 Sol.: 1  V  V  V  V  2
1 2

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Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
34. Answer (2)
m1  m2 mm 2d1d 2
2    Hint: By equation of continuity.
V1  V2 m m d1  d 2

d1 d 2 Sol.: A1v1 = A2v2 + A3v3
4 × A = 1 × 2A + v × 3A
d1  d 2 2d1d 2 (d  d 2 )2  4d1d 2
Now, 1  2    1 2
2 d1  d 2 2(d1  d 2 ) v m/s
3
35. Answer (1)
(d1  d 2 )2
 0
2(d1  d 2 ) Hint: Excess pressure inside soap bubble =
4T
r
So, 1 > 2
4T
31. Answer (3) Sol.:  hg
r
W P V 4  0.03
Hint: Power    3  10 –3  0.9  103  10
t t r
4  3  10 2 4
Sol.: P = hg = 1.5 × 103 × 10 N/m2 r    10 2 m
39 9
V
 50  10 –6  1.25 m3/s Surface area = 4r2 × 2 = 496.2 × 10–6 m2
t
36. Answer (2)
 Power = 15 × 103 × 50 × 1.25 × 10–6 = 0.94 W Hint: Air pressure decreases with increase in volume.
32. Answer (1) Sol.: P0 = hg + Pair
Hint: When anything lighter is unloaded no change When tube will be pulled slightly the volume of air
in the liquid level. above mercury column will increase hence pressure
will decrease.
Sol.: Let mass of cork ball is M.
So, height of mercury column will increase.
Mg = upthrust when ball is inside the boat.
Hence slightly more than 70 cm.
Mg = Ving
37. Answer (4)
M Hint: Elongation in the wire is proportional to the
Liquid displaced (Vin) = ...(i)
 tension in the wire.
Sol.: In case A, T = Mg
When ball is dropped in water, still Mg = upthrust
2  2M  3M  g
M In case B, T    2.4Mg
Vin  ...(ii) 2M  3M

 T 
Boat is floating in both cases. So total volume of T  
water displaced in both cases are same. Hence no
change in liquid level. Mg 
⇒  ⇒   2.4
33. Answer (2) 2.4 Mg 

Hint: Use Bernoulli's equation. 38. Answer (4)

1 F
Sol.: P0  4gh  P0  4 v 2 Hint: Breaking stress (B.S.) 
2 A

v  2gh F Mg A      g
Sol.: B.S.      g
A A A
 2  10  5  B.S is independent of area of cross-section.
v = 10 m/s Hence, maximum length to be hung is .

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)

39. Answer (1) 42. Answer (3)

dr Hint: Q = CvT

Hint: Poisson's ratio  = – r Sol.: Q = CvT

d
 2 3 ⎡ 5 ⎤
  R  30 ⎢⎣∵ K  C  9 F ⎥⎦
Sol.: V = r2 × 20 2

dV dr d  = 9 cal
⇒ 2 
V r 
dV d d d 43. Answer (2)
⇒  –2 × 0.3   0.4
V    Hint: Dalton’s law of partial pressure.

dV d
⇒  100  0.4   100  0.4  1%  0.4% ⎛ 1 1⎞
V  (    )RT ⎜  ⎟  0.082  300
4 4⎠
Sol.: P  1 2 ⎝
40. Answer (3) V 5
Hint: Properties of solids
Sol.: Fluids have only Bulk modulus. = 2.5 × 105 = 2.5 atm
41. Answer (1) 44. Answer (4)
Hint: PV = constant Hint: vrms  T
Sol.: As vessel is open pressure will be constant
and equal to the atmospheric pressure and Sol.: As temperature increases, speed also
neglecting expansion of vessel so volume is also increases. Hence number of collision per second will
constant increase as well as momentum change per collision
 PV = RT will also increase. Hence force to the container wall
1T1 =2T2 will increase so pressure will increase.
1 × 300 = 2 × 400 45. Answer (2)

31 Hint: CO molecule is diatomic.

2 
4 Sol.: CO molecule is diatomic. At moderate
1 temperature it will be having 7 degrees of freedom,
⇒ Fraction of mass that will escape 
4 as vibrational mode is also excited.

[ CHEMISTRY]
–
46. Answer (2) O Cl
–
 Si Al
Hint: 2Na + 2NH3 2NaNH2 + H2 –
O – O
–
Cl Cl
O Cl
47. Answer (1) Tetrahedral
Hint: Lewis acids are electron deficient species. 49. Answer (2)
Sol.: B2H6 acts as a Lewis acid Hint: Graphite has 2D sheet like structure and has
48. Answer (3) unpaired electrons.

Hint: SiCl4 has tetrahedral structure Sol.: Graphite is thermodynamically more stable than
H Cl diamond.

N
+
B 50. Answer (1)
,
Sol.: H H Cl Cl Hint: Generally beryllium compounds are covalent in
H
Tetrahedral nature.

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Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

51. Answer (4) 63. Answer (1)

Hint: Mixture of CO and N2 is called producer gas. Hint: For alkaline earth metal hydroxides,
52. Answer (1) decrease in lattice energy is more than decrease in
hydration energy down the group.
Hint: (SiO3 )n2n represent cyclic and chain silicates. 64. Answer (2)
53. Answer (3) Hint: Be can show four co-ordination number.
Hint: Inert pair effect Sol.: Be(OH)2 + 2OH–  [Be(OH)4]2–
Sol.: Stability of +2 oxidation state (Si < Ge < Sn < Pb) 65. Answer (3)
54. Answer (4) Hint: NH3 + H2O + CO2  NH4HCO3
Hint: H3BO3 is a Lewis acid. 66. Answer (2)
–
Sol.: HO HO OH Hint: Average composition of Portland cement
H +
HO B + O B +H
H CaO : 50–60%
HO HO OH
SiO2 : 20–25%
55. Answer (3)
Al2O3 : 5–10%
Hint: Electrovalency of alkali metals and phosphide
ion respectively are +1 and –3. 67. Answer (3)
Sol.: Formula of phosphide of alkali metal is M3P. Hint: Ca(OCl)2 is calcium hypochlorite
56. Answer (3) 68. Answer (4)
ether Hint: LiNO3 decomposes into oxide on heating.
Hint: 4BCl3 + 3LiAlH4 2B2H6 + 3LiCl + 3AlCl3
[A] [B] [C] Sol.: All group-2 nitrates decompose in their oxides
57. Answer (4) 2M(NO3)2  2MO + 4NO2 + O2

Hint: Borax is Na2B4O7  10 H2O 69. Answer (4)

Sol.: In borax, two boron atoms are sp2 and two boron Hint: High hydration of Li+ compensates its high
atoms are sp3 hybridised. ionisation enthalpy hence best reducing agent.

58. Answer (4) 70. Answer (1)

Hint: Solubility order :
Hint: 4H3BO3 + Na2CO3  Na2B4O7 + 6H2O + CO2
 LiF < NaF < KF
750°C
Sol.: Na 2B4O 7 heat
2NaBO2 + B 2O 3  LiCl > NaCl > KCl
Glassy bead 71. Answer (3)
59. Answer (3) Hint: Half filled and completely filled subshells are
more stable.
Hint: Cs : [Xe] 6s1
Sol.: IE1 order: Li < Be > B
Sol.: Cs has least ionisation energy in its group.
IE2 order: Li >> Be > Mg
60. Answer (2)
72. Answer (4)
Hint: All alkali metals impart colour in flame test.
Hint: Mobility decreases with increase in the extent
Sol.: Due to small size and high nuclear charge, Be of solvation.
and Mg do not show colour to the flame.
Sol.: Order of size of hydrated ion
61. Answer (2) Na+(aq) > K+(aq) > Rb+(aq) > Cs+(aq)
Hint: Order of density is
73. Answer (2)
Rb > Na > K > Li
F
62. Answer (3)
Hint: Large size anion is more stabilized by large size Hint: B
cation. F F
Sol.: K and Rb form stable superoxides. Sol.: Acidic strength : BI3 > BBr3 >BCl3 > BF3

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)

74. Answer (3) 83. Answer (1)

Hint: Boron nitride has 2 dimensional sheet like Hint: BeH2 becomes polymer due to its electron
structure. deficient nature through multicentre bridge bonds.
75. Answer (1) Sol.:
Hint: Al forms a protective layer of Al2O3 with conc. 3c - 2e bond

HNO3. H H H H
Be Be Be Be
76. Answer (3) H H H H
84. Answer (3)
Hint: Cl Cl Cl
Al 101° Al Hint.: Blue colour turns to bronze colour by increasing
Cl Cl Cl the metal concentration leading to the cluster formation
77. Answer (2) of metal.
Hint: Slaked lime is Ca(OH)2 85. Answer (2)
Sol.: Slaked lime is prepared by adding water to quick Hint: Amphoteric oxides means which will react with
lime (CaO) acid and as well as base.
CaO + H2O  Ca(OH)2 Sol.: SnO2 + 2NaOH  Na2SnO3 + H2O
78. Answer (4) SnO2 + 4HCl  SnCl4 + 2H2O
Hint: Thermal stability order : MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BaCO3
86. Answer (2)
79. Answer (3)
Hint: Ga: [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p1
Hint: All reactive metal releases H2 gas with dil acid
or water. Sol.: In ‘Ga’ atom, 10 electrons are filled in d orbitals
Sol.: 2NaHCO3 + 2HCl  2NaCl + 2H2O + 2CO2 hence size decreases due to poor shielding of d
80. Answer (1) electrons.

H2O 87. Answer (4)

Hint: CH 3SiCl3 CH 3Si(OH) 3 + HCl .
Hint: In Castner-Kellner cell mercury cathode and
Sol.: graphite anode are used.
polymerise Hg
CH3Si(OH)3 CH3 CH3 Sol.: Cathode: Na   e    Na  Hg
– O – Si – O – Si – O 1
Anode: Cl  Cl2  e 
O O 2
– O – Si – O – Si – O Cl2 gas evolved at anode.
CH3 CH3 88. Answer (1)
(cross link polymer) Hint: Lattice enthalpy decreases with increase in the
81. Answer (4) size of cation.
Hint: Galena is PbS. Sol.: The order of thermal stability of hydrides is
Sol.: Mica, zeolite and feldspar are silicates.
LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH
82. Answer (2)
89. Answer (4)
wt. of H2O2 Hint: For solubility, hydration energy > lattice energy
Hint: %strength=  100
V(ml) of solution
Sol.: The size of Ba2+ and SO24 ions are very large
Sol.: 2H2O2  2H2O + O2
which leads to higher lattice enthalpy than that of
22.4 L O2 from 2  34 g H2O2 (at NTP) hydration enthalpy.
2  34 90. Answer (3)
100 L O2 from  100 = 303.57 g
22.4 Hint: Basic character of oxide increases down the
= 30.35% H2O2 solution. group.

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Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

[ BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (3) Sol.: Decarboxylation or release of CO2 occurs in
Hint: To form two molecules of hexose sugar Calvin mitochondria.
cycle operates 12 times. 99. Answer (1)
Sol.: In maize both C3 and C4 cycles operate. Thus Hint: Photorespiration operates during light when
here 12 C3 & C4 cycles will occur. concentration of O2 > CO2
Since 1 C3 cycle requires = 3 ATP Sol.: It consumes a part of light energy and prevents
 12 C3 cycles require = 12 × 3 = 36 ATP plants from photooxidative damage.
1 C4 cycle requires = 2 ATP 100. Answer (4)
 12 C4 cycles require = 12 × 2 = 24 ATP Hint: CAM pathway is also known as diurnal acid
92. Answer (2) cycle.
Hint: Cyclic photophosphorylation involves PS I only. Sol.: CAM pathway is less efficient than C 4
Sol.: During cyclic photophosphorylation only ATP is pathway. In CAM plants stomata open during night
formed while non-cyclic photophosphorylation yields (scotoactive). All chloroplasts are of same type.
ATP, NADPH as well as O2 101. Answer (2)
93. Answer (2) Hint: Bundle sheath cells are specialized cells in C4
Hint: Optimum external and internal factors will plants, where RuBisCO is found.
support maximum photosynthesis. Sol.: Bundle sheath cells & mesophyll cells both
Sol.: show CO2 fixation process.
For C3 plants For C4 plants Grana are absent in bundle sheath cells and primary
Green leaves Green leaves CO2 fixation product is different in both the cells.
Low temperature High temperature 102. Answer (1)
CO2 = 450 IL–1 CO2 = 360 IL–1 Hint: C4 plants lose less water through transpiration
High light intensity High light intensity as compared to C3 plants.
94. Answer (4) Sol.: C4 plants have
Hint: At low light intensity photosynthesis rate does  High yield and productivity
not change.
Sol.: At low light intensity, no plant (C 3 or C 4)  C 3 plants perform better at high CO 2
respond to high CO2 concentration. concentration as compared to C4 plants.
95. Answer (4)  C4 plants show better water utilisation.
Hint: Light rarely becomes a limiting factor except  C4 plants lack photorespiration.
plants found in shade or dense forest.
103. Answer (2)
Sol.: Above 10% light intensity of the total sunlight,
light becomes damaging and there is no increase in Hint: PGA to PGAL conversion is a reduction
photosynthesis. process.
96. Answer (4) Sol.: Reduction of PGA to PGAL requires ATP as
Sol.: Pyruvic acid is a 3-carbon acid while rest all well as NADPH.
are 4-carbon acids. 104. Answer (4)
97. Answer (2) Sol.: For each molecule of CO2 to be fixed via Calvin
Hint: C4 plants can perform photosynthesis at high cycle 3 ATP and 2 NADPH molecules are required.
temperature. 105. Answer (3)
Sol.: C4 plants have PEP synthetase which is cold Hint: RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme of the
sensitive. world.
98. Answer (2) Sol.: RuBisCO is heat sensitive but has greater
Hint: In C 2 cycle, O 2 is used by RuBisCO in affinity for CO2 than O2 when CO2 : O2 is nearly
chloroplast. equal.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
106. Answer (3)
Hint: Potato is a C3 plant, while Amaranthus is a C4
plant
Sol.: C3 cycle in potato - Mesophyll cells
C3 cycle in Amaranthus - Bundle sheath cells.
107. Answer (4)
Hint: C3 plants can show dual activity of RuBisCO.
Sol.: Maize, Sorghum, Sugarcane are C4 plants
Wheat is a C3 plant which can show carboxylation
as well as oxygenation (during photorespiration) by
RuBisCO.
108. Answer (2)
Hint: C4 plants can perform photosynthesis at high
temperature also.
Sol.: C4 plants are adapted to dry tropical regions.
109. Answer (4)
Hint: Calvin cycle involves three steps of CO 2
fixation.
Sol.: Deamination is the process which involves
removal of amine group. It does not occur during C3
cycle.
110. Answer (3)
Hint: Molecules which provide energy for CO2 fixation
are called assimilatory power
Sol.: ATP and NADPH are assimilatory power for
dark reaction.
111. Answer (4)
Hint: Chemiosmosis theory involves ATP synthesis
via ATP synthase.
Sol.: Only protons are diffused back to stroma to
break the proton gradient between lumen and stroma.
112. Answer (1)
Hint: Reaction centre of PS I absorbs light at wave
length 700 nm.
Sol.: Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs at
1. Light wavelength beyond 680 nm.
2. Anaerobic condition
3. Low CO2 availability
113. Answer (1)
Hint: PS II is found in grana lamellae only.
Sol.: PS I is found on the outer surface while PS II
towards inner surface of thylakoids.
Both are involved in non cyclic photophosphorylation
but only PS II is associated with release of O2.
114. Answer (4)
Hint: Carotenoids are yellow-orange pigments found
in green plants.
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Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
Sol.: Carotenoids along with xanthophyll &
chlorophyll b are called accessory pigments. They
absorb wavelength between 400 - 700 nm (visible
spectrum) only and prevent photo-oxidation.
115. Answer (4)
Hint: First action spectrum was prepared by
measuring O2 evolution.
Sol.: T.W. Engelmann used a green alga Cladophora
and aerobic bacteria to measure O2 evolution and
prepared first action spectrum of photosynthesis
116. Answer (1)
Hint: These elements are either components of
chlorophyll or required for its synthesis.
Sol.: Mg is an important component of chlorophyll
while K & Fe are required for chlorophyll synthesis.
117. Answer (1)
Hint: These elements are absorbed in the form of
cation and anion respectively.
Sol.: Fe and S are absorbed as Fe+3 and SO42
respectively. These are constituents of ferredoxin.
118. Answer (3)
Sol.: Bacillus vulgaris converts organic nitrogen into
ammonia, called ammonification.
119. Answer (1)
Hint: Death of tissue is known as necrosis.
Sol.: Necrosis is caused by deficiency of elements
such as Ca, Cu, Mg, K.
120. Answer (4)
Sol.: Hydroponics is very useful technique but its
set up requires high cost to maintain.
121. Answer (2)
Hint: Some plants transport nitrogen in other forms
which have high nitrogen to carbon ratio.
Sol.: Ureides have high N/C value thus high amount
of nitrogen is transported in this form.
122. Answer (3)
Hint: Amides have more nitrogen than amino acids.
Sol.: Hydroxyl part of amino acids is replaced by
another amino group to form amides. Asparagine &
Glutamine are two important amides.
123. Answer (3)
Hint: Given conversion shows reductive amination.
Sol.: A -  - ketoglutaric acid
B - NADPH
C - Glutamate dehydrogenase
D - NADP
Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
124. Answer (2)
Hint: Plants can assimilate both NH4 and NO3 .
Sol.: Rhizobium is aerobic and free living in soil but
fixes N2 in anaerobic condition symbiotically. Nodule
is formed by division of cells of inner cortex and
pericycle.
125. Answer (2)
Hint: Rhizobium is involved in nitrogen fixation for
which nitrogenase is required.
Sol.: Regions of nodule where nitrogen fixation
occurs have leghaemoglobin, nitrogenase, ATP and
lack molecular oxygen. Nitrogenase is highly
sensitive to molecular oxygen.
126. Answer (4)
Hint: Nitrogenase is found in all those bacteria which
convert N2 into NH3.
Sol.: Nitrococcus is a nitrifying bacterium whereas
rest of all are N2 fixing bacteria.
127. Answer (3)
Hint: It is the first step of nitrification.
Sol.: Nitrification is carried out by a group of nitrifying
bacteria which are free living and chemoautotrophs.
128. Answer (4)
Hint: Symplast comprises cytoplasm and vacuole
Sol.: Metabolic phase involves movement of ions into
symplast. It is an active process and transmembrane
proteins are required for this phase of mineral
absorption.
129. Answer (4)
Hint: Toxicity of Mn affects uptake of some other
elements & causes their deficiencies.
Sol.: Excess of Mn reduces uptake of Mg and Fe.
Its excess also inhibits translocation of Ca to shoot
apex and produces brown spots surrounded by
chlorotic veins.
130. Answer (1)
Hint: This element is an important component of cell
membrane.
Sol.: Phosphorus (P) does not help in maintaining
cation - anion balance in cells.
131. Answer (3)
Hint: Deficiency symptoms of immobile elements
appear first in young leaves.
Sol.: Ca is an immobile element which is required
for the formation of mitotic spindles.
132. Answer (4)
Hint: Element which activates carboxylases is also
required for synthesis of a growth hormone i.e.
auxin.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
Sol.: Zn activates various enzymes especially
carboxylases. Nitrite reductase contains copper and
iron.
133. Answer (3)
Hint: Sulphur is not found in nucleosides and nucleic
acids.
Sol.: Deoxyadenosine is a nucleoside which does
not have sulphur.
134. Answer (4)
Hint: Macronutrients are found in plants in excess of
10 mmole kg–1 of dry matter.
Sol.: Macronutrients are nine in number (C, H, O, N,
P, K, Ca, Mg, S).
135. Answer (4)
Hint: Nitrogen is not absorbed by the plants in the
gaseous form
Sol.: Plants absorb nitrogen in the form of NO3 ,
NO2 and NH4 only. The major absorption occurs in
the form of NO3 .
136. Answer (4)
Hint: This disease results from hyperthyroidism.
Sol.: Exopthalmic goitre occurs due to hyper
secretion of thyroxine hormone. High secretion of
GH after puberty and before puberty causes
acromegaly and gigantism respectively.
137. Answer (3)
Hint: This organ is associated with sense of smell
Sol.: Modified pseudostratified epithelium/
Schneidarian membrane is associated with roof of
nasal cavity
138. Answer (4)
Hint: Some hormones are steroidal in nature or
derivative of an amino acid.
Sol.: Estrogen, progesterone, cortisol, etc are
steroidal in nature while catecholamines and
thyroxine are amino acid derivatives.
139. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a steroid hormone.
Sol.: Norepinephrine, oxytocin and TCT are lipid
insoluble hormones hence, they cannot cross the
lipid bilayer. They execute their action through
extracellular receptors. Estrogen is lipid soluble,
steroid hormone which acts through intracellular
receptors.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
140. Answer (3)
Hint: This is the swollen part of a semicircular canal
Sol.: Cristae are associated with ampulla in inner ear
and help in maintaining equilibrium.
141. Answer (4)
Hint: This structure connects middle ear to pharynx.
Sol.: Eustachian tube connects middle ear to
pharynx so that atmospheric pressure remains equal
on both sides of ear drum.
142. Answer (2)
Hint: Part that gives white appearance to eye.
Sol.: Sclera is outermost layer, choroid is middle
layer and retina is innermost layer of eye.
143. Answer (3)
Hint: This pigment is also called rhodopsin.
Sol.: Rods are sensitive to dim light due to
presence of rhodopsin
144. Answer (3)
Hint: This membrane is found in scala media.
Sol.: Sensory hair cells are pressed against tectorial
membrane upon receiving stimulus. Reissner’s and
Basilar membrane form roof and floor of scala media
respectively.
145. Answer (2)
Hint: This part of ear is involved in hearing.
Sol.: Utricle, saccule and cristae help in maintaining
body equilibrium.
146. Answer (4)
Hint: Cochlea is composed of both bony and
membranous labyrinth.
Sol.: Scala media is filled with endolymph while
scala vestibuli and scala tympani are filled with
perilymph.
147. Answer (4)
Hint: Sensory cells in ear
Sol.: Hair cells are present in organ of corti are
sensory in nature.
148. Answer (4)
Hint: This molecule is called energy currency of the
cell.
Sol.: Hormones which are hydrophilic in nature bind
to extracytoplasmic receptors present on plasma
membrane and generates a second messenger
which leads to activation of enzyme cascade.
Common secondary messengers are Ca2+, cAMP
and cGMP. ATP is not a secondary messenger.
12/14
Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
149. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a ductless gland.
Sol.: Parathyroid gland is situated on dorsal side of
thyroid gland while salivary, lacrimal and mammary
glands are exocrine glands.
150. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone is known as stress hormone.
Sol.: Adrenaline is derived from tyrosine and
functions during emergency conditions such as fear,
fight and flight
151. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify hypothalamic hormone called GHIH.
Sol.: Pineal gland secretes melatonin and prolactin
is secreted by anterior pituitary. Erythropoietin is
secreted by JG cells of kidney. Somatostatin is also
called GHIH.
152. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify a vasoconstrictor.
Sol.: ANF is released in response to increase in
blood pressure while vasopressin is released in
response to low blood pressure. Insulin increases
glucose absorption into cells and aldosterone
increases Na+ reabsorption in nephrons.
153. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify the gland that regulates diurnal rhythm.
Sol.: Melatonin released by pineal gland regulates
biological clock.
154. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify eye related defects.
Sol.: In myopia, image is formed in front of retina.
This defect is corrected by concave lens.
155. Answer (3)
Hint: This hormone is synthesised and released by
anterior pituitary.
Sol.: Prolactin is responsible for milk synthesis and
secretion from cells of alveoli of mammary gland.
Oxytocin is responsible for ejection of milk (Milk let
down hormone).
156. Answer (4)
Hint: Disc shaped receptor sensitive to touch.
Sol.: Merkel’s disc is a disc shaped receptor
present in epidermis of our skin. Receptors such as
Pacinian corpuscle, Meissner’s corpuscle and
Ruffini’s organ are found below epidermis.
157. Answer (4)
Hint: Testosterone increases muscular growth during
adolescence.
Sol.: Testosterone in males controls secondary
sexual characters and has anabolic effect on
proteins and carbohydrates.
Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
158. Answer (3)
Hint: This hormone increases thickness of
endometrium during proliferative phase of menstrual
cycle.
Sol.: Estrogen in females and testosterone in males
control secondary sexual characters. Progesterone
maintains pregnancy. FSH promotes gametogenesis.
159. Answer (2)
Hint: This hormone is released in response to
increase in blood pressure.
Sol.: Atrial natriuretic factor causes vasodilation and
increases natriuresis (increased excretion of Na+ in
urine), thereby lowering blood volume and blood
pressure.
160. Answer (2)
Hint: This hormone is released by outer most layer
of adrenal cortex.
Sol.: Outer most layer of adrenal cortex called zona
glomerulosa releases aldosterone. This hormone
increases the reabsorption of Na+ in distal part of
nephron. Water is also reabsorbed following Na+
reabsorption. ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) released
from atrial wall of heart affects water and electrolyte
balance but is not a corticoid. Melatonin and
testosterone are also not corticoids.
161. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone is released from adrenal medulla.
Sol.: This hormone increases alertness and causes
pupillary dilation.
162. Answer (1)
Hint: Both gustatoreceptors and olfactory receptors
are chemoreceptors.
Sol.: The receptors which receive chemical stimuli are
known as chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors
receive mechanical stimuli. Algesireceptors receive
stimulus that is perceived as pain.
163. Answer (3)
Hint: This gland is attached to epithalamus.
Sol.: Pineal gland is present on the roof of third
ventricle. Hypothalamus is present at the base of
thalamus.
164. Answer (1)
Hint: This hormone is mainly responsible for
ovulation.
Sol.: After ovulation, remaining part of Graafian
follicle that changes into corpus luteum is maintained
by LH in a non-pregnant female. FSH is responsible
for growth and development of ovarian follicles.
Corpus luteum secretes progesterone followed by
estrogen during luteal phase.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
165. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a neurohormone from hypothalamus.
Sol.: ADH is produced by hypothalamus and stored
in posterior pituitary. Pars distalis also known as
anterior pituitary secretes PRL, TSH and ACTH.
166. Answer (1)
Hint: This hormone is secreted by -cells of
pancreas.
Sol.: Glucagon is a peptide hormone that requires
membrane bound receptors, whereas estrogen,
iodothyronines and cortisol require intra-cellular
receptors.
167. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify the disease characterised by hirsutism
and masculinization in females.
Sol.: ACTH is a pituitary hormone which acts on
adrenal gland and increases secretion from adrenal
cortex that results in Cushing’s disease. Deficiency
of insulin results in Diabetes mellitus. Deficiency of
hormones of adrenal cortex causes Addison’s
disease while Grave’s disease occurs due to
hypersecretion of thyroid gland.
168. Answer (4)
Hint: These hormones are released by adrenal
medulla.
Sol.: Adrenal medulla is a sympathetic ganglia that
releases stress hormones. These hormones
produced by post ganglionic neurons are transported
through blood and are known as neurohormones. eg;
epinephrine and norepinephrine.
169. Answer (4)
Hint: Amylase is a carbohydrate digesting enzyme.
Sol.: Digestion of carbohydrates starts in mouth but
does not occur in stomach due to absence of gastric
amylase.
170 Answer (1)
Hint: Hormone secreted by thymus gland.
Sol.: Thymosin is a peptide hormone secreted by
thymus gland. This hormone helps in development of
immunity. T3, T4 and TCT are hormones of thyroid
gland. Catecholamines are released during
emergency from adrenal medulla.
171. Answer (1)
Hint: These cells are also known as interstitial cells.
Sol.: Sertoli cells are also known as sustentacular
cells. They release ABP and inhibin. Spermatozoa
formation requires testosterone.
13/14
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020
172. Answer (3)
Hint: Deficiency of this hormone causes diabetes
mellitus.
Sol.: Insulin is a hypoglycemic hormone in humans
which increases uptake of glucose into cells from
blood. Glucagon, thyroxine and growth hormone can
result in hyperglycemia.
173. Answer (1)
Hint: Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and
mineralocorticoids causes this disease.
Sol.: Addison’s disease occurs due to deficiency of
aldosterone and cortisol. Cushing’s disease is
caused due to hypersecretion from adrenal cortex.
Exopthalmic goitre occurs due to hypersecretion
from thyroid gland. Conn’s disease occurs due to
hypersecretion of aldosterone.
174. Answer (3)
Hint: Zona reticularis is the innermost layer of
adrenal cortex.
Sol.: Zona reticularis layer secretes mainly
androgenic corticoids i.e., androstenedione,
dehydroepiandrosterone. Aldosterone is secreted from
zona glomerulosa and cortisol from zona fasciculata
of adrenal cortex. Epinephrine is secreted from
adrenal medulla.
175. Answer (3)
Hint: Hormone which increases Ca2+ level in blood.
Sol.: Hyposecretion of parathormone decreases the
Ca 2+ level in blood that leads to tetany.
Hyposecretion of estrogen causes osteoporosis in
females. Hyposecretion of thyroxine causes
Myxedema in adults. Deficiency of vasopressin/ADH
causes diabetes insipidus.
 
14/14
Test - 5 (Code-D) (Answers & Hints)
176. Answer (2)
Hint: Endocrine gland present in neck region.
Sol.: Thyroid is the largest endocrine gland in
humans. It secretes mainly three hormones
thyroxine or T4, T3 and thyrocalcitonin(TCT).
177. Answer (3)
Hint: This hormone requires iodine for its synthesis.
Sol.: Deficiency of thyroxine during intrauterine life
causes cretinism characterised by stunted growth,
mental retardation and deaf mutism.
178. Answer (4)
Hint: Somatotrophin is also known as growth
hormone.
Sol.: It regulates body growth by promoting protein
anabolism. Somatotrophin is released from
adenohypophysis or anterior pituitary gland which is
under the control of GHRH from hypothalamus.
179. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone is also known as somatotrophin.
Sol.: GH hormone in muscles promotes protein
anabolism. Parathormone is related with Ca2+ level in
blood and thymosin helps in maturation of
T-lymphocytes. Cortisol is a stress hormone which
promotes protein catabolism in muscle.
180. Answer (4)
Hint: Endocrine glands release their secretion in
blood so that they can reach every cell.
Sol.: Neural system transmits messages through
impulses. This involves faster transmission of
information than endocrine system. Nervous system
is not connected directly to every cell while
endocrine glands release hormones in blood that
reach every cell of the body through blood. Neural
response is rapid and lasts for shorter duration as
compared to endocrine system.