1.

Of the following, hematologic changes that occur during pregnancy is

A. The main contribution to the expansion of maternal blood volume is total
plasma volume
B. There is proportional expansion in plasma volume compared with total red
cell volume
C. Plasma fibrinolytic activity is increased during pregnancy
D. During labor and early puerperium WBC counts become markedly decreased
E. The iron requirements in a normal pregnancy total about 10gm

2. If a woman with a nine week pregnancy has uterine contractions that become
increasingly painful and had excessive vaginal bleeding. The cervical dilation is
open and effaced, but no tissue has passed. the most likely diagnosis is
A. Incomplete abortion
B. Missed abortion
C. Threatened abortion
D. Inevitable abortion
E. Septic abortion

3. The most common type of vulvar cancer is

A. Melanoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Serous cell carcinoma
D. Sarcoma
E. Clear cell carcinoma

4. Normal placenta
A. Has diameter of 15-20cm
B. Has thickness of 5-6cm
C. Is 1/4th of fetal weight
D. Has two umbilical vein and one umbilical artery
E. Transfer of nutrient occurs only by active transport

5. The presenting diameter of mento anterior face presentation is

A. Occipito frontal
B. Sub ociptobregmatic
C. Sub mentobregmatic
D. Sub mentovertical
E. Biparietal

6. The most common cause of post menopausal bleeding is

A. Endometrial atrophy
B. Estrogen replacement therapy
C. Endometrial cancer
D. Cervical cancer
E. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

1
7. Antepartum hemorrhage is vaginal bleeding after 28wks of pregnancy AND
A. After delivery of the fetus and placenta
B. Before delivery of the fetus and placenta
C. Before delivery of the placenta
D. Synonymous with 3rd stage hemorrhage
E. Is the most common cause of hemorrhage

8. The best predictor for success of vaginal birth after cesarean section (VBAC) is
A. Previous vaginal delivery
B. Prior indication for Breech presentation
C. Previous successful VBAC
D. Non recurring
E. Previous indication for fetal distress

9. An ovulatory bleeding is most common in which age group?

A. Adolescent and childhood
B. Post menopause and reproductive age
C. Pre menopause and post menopause
D. Adolescent and pre menopause
E. Childhood and pre menopause

10. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. cervical cancer should be assumed in patient with post coital bleeding
B. the most common etiology for bleeding in childhood is from the vagina
C. the use of high dose oral estrogen in acute bleeding works by stabilizing the
endometrium
D. hysterectomy has the highest patient satisfaction for treatment of abnormal
uterine bleeding
E. polymenorrhea is a cycle length of <24 days

11. What bony prominence acts as an important land mark in obstetrics and is
palpable through the vaginal wall when pressing laterally?
A. Arcus tendineus
B. Ischial tuberosity
C. Coccyx
D. Ischial spine
E. Obturator foramen

12. Under normal conditions fertilization occurs in which part of the female
reproductive tract?
A. Infendibulem of the fallopian tube
B. Ampulla of the fallopian tube
C. Isthmus of the fallopian tube
D. Uterine lumen
E. Cervical canal

2
13. What is the fetal heart rate pattern in a fetus with placental insufficiency?
A. Late deceleration and loss of variability occurring concomitantly
B. First late deceleration and then loss of variability
C. First loss of variability and then late deceleration
D. First accentuated variability and then late deceleration
E. Late deceleration only

14. Which is WRONG about infection after C/S?

A. There is no definite relationship between anemia and infection
B. Sexual practices definitely play a role in infection
C. Prolonged labor is a risk factor
D. Three or more doses of betamethasone in preterm labor is a risk factor
E. More common than vaginal delivery

15. What is Rubin maneuver to release shoulder dystocia

A. Rotation of post shoulder to deliver anterior shoulder
B. Abduction of shoulders
C. Flexion of mother’s knees and supra pubic pressure
D. Rotation and extraction of anterior shoulder
E. Repositioning of fetal head back in to the uterus and C/S

16. A woman 35 years old GII Para I EFW of 2kg, presents with face presentation.
How do you manage her delivery?
A. Induction of labor
B. Internal rotation to make mentum anterior position
C. Observation to allow spontaneous rotation
D. C/S
E. Forceps assisted delivery

17. A 51 year old woman comes to your office complaining of hot flashes and trouble
sleeping at night. Her last menstrual period was 6 months ago and her periods
were irregular for 1 year prior to that. Elevation in which of the following tests
confirms your diagnosis
A. HCG
B. TSH
C. FSH
D. PRL
E. LH
18. In the well-controlled insulin requiring gestational diabetic woman, which mode
and time of delivery is usually employed?
A. Expectant management, await spontaneous onset of labor
B. C/Section
C. Expectant management until 42wks and vaginal delivery
D. Induction of labor 39 to 40 week
E. C/S if expected weight is > 4000gm

3
 19. Under what condition is external cephalic version allowed
A. Multiparty
B. Placenta previa
C. Engaged presenting part
D. CPD
E. Preterm
20. Which criterion applies to low forceps?

A. The fetal head leading point should be on station ≥2

B. The fetal head leading point should be above station≥2
C. The fetal head is on the pelvic floor
D. Sagital suture is ant-post
E. Rotation is less than 45 degree
21. In breech presentation what is the name of the maneuver .The shoulder is grasped
by one hand and the legs are grasped by the other hand then the newborn is pooled
toward mother’s abdomen?
A. Pinard
B. modified Prague
C. Bracht
D. Meuriceu
E. Burns marshal
22. Which is the most common reason of DIC in Obstetrics?
A. IUFD
B. Abruption
C. Amniotic fluid emboli
D. Septic shock
E. Abortion
23. Which is true about abruption?
A. The chance of repeated abruption is twice
B. Fetal assessment techniques can predict abruption with good precision
C. There is no means to predict abruption
D. The chance of repeated abruption is not different
E. Ultrasound is the gold standard for diagnosis

4
24. A placenta that is totally covered by chorionic villi and its separation causes heavy
bleeding that mandates hysterectomy is called?
A. Succenturiate
B. Fenestrated
C. Extracorial
D. Membranous
E. Circummarginate
25. Vesico vaginal fistula following obstructed labor should be repaired
A. 10 days later
B. Within 3 month
C. At any time
D. 3-6 month
E. Immediately
26. The following is NOT associated with pruritis vulvae
A. Candidiasis
B. T.vaginalis
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D. Vulvar cancer
E. Vulvar dystrophy
27. In occiput posterior position
A. Vaginal birth cannot occur
B. The woman should not give birth in squatting position
C. Vaccum extraction should not be performed
D. The expulsive phase may be prolonged
E. The presenting diameter is mento vertical
28. All are conditions for vaccum extraction EXCEPT
A. Vertex presentation
B. Fully dilated cervix
C. Fetal head at 0 station
D. Descent 3/5
E. No CPD

5
29. Which of the following changes does not accompany pregnancy?
A. An increase in renal perfusion
B. An increase in blood volume
C. An increase in cardiac out put
D. An increase in peripheral vascular resistance
E. A decrease in functional residual volume
30. Descent Zero out of fifth means
A. The head is floating
B. The head is fixed
C. Station is Zero
D. The whole head has entered the pelvic cavity
E. The head is crowning
31. Cervical incompetence
A. Causes painful mid-trimester abortion
B. Typically causes mid trimester abortion
C. May be caused by hydraminos
D. Treatment is circlage at third trimester
E. Causes recurrent pregnancy loss at first trimester of pregnancy
32. A 21 year old woman complaining of vaginal discharge she states that it has a fishy
odor. It is particularly noticeable following coitus. You examine her and found that the
PH is 5. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Candidiasis
D. lactobacilli
E. cervical cancer
33. The most common human papilloma virus sub types associated with genital wart
are
A. 16 and 18
B. 6 and 11
C. 6 and 18
D. 16 and 33
E. 18 and 11

6
34. Among ART drugs which of the following is associated with lactic acidosis during
pregnancy
A. Stavudin and didanosine
B. Zalcitabine and zidovudin
C. Nevirapine and lamuvidine
D. Didanosine and efavirenz
E. Stavuldin and efavirenz
35. One of the following is NOT part of evaluation of post menopausal bleeding
A. Cervical cytology
B. Endometrial biopsy
C. Serum HCG
D. Hysteroscopy
E. None of the above

36. A 42-year-old G3P3 presents with 12 weeks of amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting, and
mild tremors. Ultrasound reveals a heterogeneous intrauterine mass with theca lutein
cysts that appear like a snowstorm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Early intrauterine pregnancy
B. Perimenopause
C. Partial mole
D. Complete mole
37. A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, presents for her first prenatal visit after
testing positive on a home pregnancy test. She reports regular cycles every 35 days.
She denies use of birth control pills, Depo-Provera, or other contraceptive in the last 7
months. The first day of her last menstrual period was April 1, 2007, and the last day
was April 5, 2007. She says her periods always last 4 to 5 days. What is the best
estimate of her due date?
A. January 1, 2008
B. January 8, 2008
C. January 12, 2008
D. January 15,2008
E. June 23, 2008

7
38. A 34-year-old primiparous woman is seeing you because she is considering a
second pregnancy. She tells you she is afraid to get pregnant given the outcome of her
first pregnancy. At 32 years of age, she delivered a term infant with Down syndrome.
During that gestation, a serum screen for aneuploidy was not performed. Had a second-
trimester multiple marker screen been performed, which of the following results would
have been helpful?
A. Low MSAFP, low estriol, low hCG, low inhibin A
B. Low MSAFP, high estriol, low hCG, high inhibin A
C. Low MSAFP, low estriol, high hCG, high inhibin A
D. High MSAFP, high estriol, low hCG, low inhibin A
E. e)High MSAFP, low estriol, low hCG, low inhibin A

39. A 25-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 0, at 42 weeks of gestation, presents to your

clinic for prenatal care. She has accurate dating and has been receiving twice-weekly
NSTs for the last week. Underdevelopment of which structure in the fetus may
contribute to prolongation of this woman's gestation?
A. Cerebral cortex
B. Thalamus
C. Thymus
D. Adrenal cortex
E. Ovary

40. A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 30 weeks of gestation, presents to the

clinic for a routine prenatal visit. Her pregnancy has been unremarkable thus far.
Serosal fibroids are listed under her problem list. Her fundus measures 37 cm from the
symphysis pubis. In discussing possible complications of a fibroid uterus during
pregnancy, you mention that she is at highest risk for:
A. Preterm premature rupture of membranes (PROM)
B. Placenta previa
C. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)
D. Breech presentation
E. Placental abruption

41. The pelvic diaphragm is composed of all of the following muscles EXCEPT:
A. Iliococcygeus
B. Puborectalis
C. Transversus perinei
D. Pubococcygeus
42. The underlying pathophysiology of pelvic organ prolapse is which of the following?
A. Inherent connective tissue weakness
B. Childbirth injury
C. Aging
D. All of the above

8
43. A patient presents for her first initial OB visit after performing a home pregnancy test
and gives a last menstrual period of about 8 weeks ago. She says she is not entirely
sure of her dates, however, because she has a long history of irregular menses. Which
of the following is the most accurate way of dating the pregnancy?
A. Determination of uterine size on pelvic examination
B. Quantitative serum HCG level
C. Crown-rump length on abdominal or vaginal ultrasound
D. Determination of progesterone level along with serum HCG level

44. Which of the following modalities used to assess fetal health has the highest false-
negative rate when administered weekly?
A. Contraction stress test
B. Nonstress test
C. Biophysical profile
D. Modified biophysical profile
E. Nipple stimulation test

45. The patient undergoes a biophysical profile in labor and delivery after her nonstress
test proves to be nonreactive. All of the following are components of a BPP except
A. Contraction stress test
B. Amniotic fluid volume
C. Nonstress test
D. Fetal breathing movements
E. Fetal tone
46. .A 24-year-old primigravid woman, who is intent on breast-feeding, decides on a
home delivery. Immediately after the birth of a 4.1-kg (9-lb) infant, the patient bleeds
massively from extensive vaginal and cervical lacerations. She is brought to the nearest
hospital in shock. Over 2 h, 9 units of blood are transfused, and the patient’s blood
pressure returns to a reasonable level. A hemoglobin value the next day is 7.5 g/dL, and
3 units of packed red blood cells are given. The most likely late sequela to consider in
this woman would be
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome
C. Sheehan syndrome
D. Simmonds syndrome
E. Cushing syndrome
47. A postpartum woman has acute puerperal mastitis. Which of the following
statements is true?
A. The initial treatment is penicillin
B. The source of the infection is usually the infant’s gastrointestinal (GI) tract
C. Frank abscesses may develop and require drainage
D. The most common offending organism is Escherichia coli
E. The symptoms include lethargy

9
48. A 21-year-old has difficulty voiding 6 h postpartum. The least likely cause is which of
the following?
A. Preeclampsia
B. Infusion of oxytocin after delivery
C. Vulvar hematoma
D. Urethral trauma
E. Use of general anesthesia
49. A 23-year-old woman (gravida 2, para 2) calls her physician 7 days postpartum
because she is concerned that she is still bleeding from the vagina. It would be
appropriate to tell this woman that it is normal for bloody lochia to last up to
A. 2 days
B. 5 days
C. 8 days
D. 11 days
E. 14 days
50. A 25-year-old G1P1 comes to see you 6 weeks after an uncomplicated vaginal
delivery for a routine postpartum exam. She denies any problems and has been breast-
feeding her newborn without any difficulties since leaving the hospital. During the
bimanual exam, you note that her uterus is irregular, firm, nontender, and about a 15-
week size. Which of the
following is the most likely etiology for this enlarged uterus?
A. Subinvolution of the uterus
B. The uterus is appropriate size for 6 weeks postpartum
C. Fibroid uterus
D. Adenomyosis
E. Endometritis
51. A 7-year-old girl is seen by her pediatrician for left lower quadrant pain. You are
consulted because an ovarian neoplasm is identified by ultrasound. Of the following, the
most common ovarian tumor in this type of patient is
A. Germ cell
B. Papillary serous epithelial
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. Brenner tumor
E. Sarcoma botryoides
52. Tends to recur more than 5 years following the original diagnosis
A. Granulosa tumor
B. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
C. Immature teratoma
D. Gonadoblastoma
E. Krukenberg tumor

10
53. Correlation between malignant potential and the amount of neural tissue element
A. Granulosa tumor
B. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
C. Immature teratoma
D. Gonadoblastoma
E. Krukenberg tumor
54. The first evidence of pubertal development in the female is usually
A. Onset of menarche
B. Appearance of breast buds
C. Appearance of axillary and pubic hair
D. Onset of growth spurt
55. An 18-year-old consults you for evaluation of disabling pain with her menstrual
periods. The pain has been present since menarche and is accompanied by nausea
and headache. History is otherwise unremarkable, and pelvic examination is normal.
You diagnose primary dysmenorrhea and recommend initial treatment with which of the
following?
A. Ergot derivatives
B. Antiprostaglandins
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogues
D. Danazol
E. Codeine
56. Which of the following is characteristics of placenta accrete
A. Absent deciduas basalis
B. Villi invade the myometrium
C. Villi penetrate the myometrium
D. Villi invade the parietal peritoneum

57. Which of the following vaginal infections is positively associated with preterm birth?
A. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Candida vaginalis
D. Herpes simplex infections

11
58. Which of the following tocolytics is associated with premature closure of the fetal
ductus arteriosus?
A. Ritodrine
B. Nifedipine
C. Magnesium sulphate
D. Indomethacin
59. Which of the following is not a description associated with the postmature infant?
A. Smooth skinned
B. Patchy peeling skin
C. Long thin body
D. Worried looking faces
E. None
60. What is the incidence of postterm pregnancy ?
A. 1%
B. 8-10%
C. 16-18%
D. 24%
61. Which of the following cell growth phases occurs during the first 16 weeks of
gestation?
A. Cellular hyperplasia and hypertrophy
B. Cellular hyperplasia
C. Cellular hypertrophy
D. Apoptosis
62. Which of the following is not associated with fetal growth restriction?
A. Toxoplasmosis infection
B. Cytomegalovirus infection
C. Congenital rubella
D. Human papiloma virus
63. Which test of fetal wellbeing correlates with fetal metabolic acidosis at birth?
A. Reactive nonstress test
B. Negative contraction stress test
C. Biophysical profile of 8/10
D. Reversed end diastolic umbilical artery velocimetry
E. None

12
64. Which is the most common ovarian neoplasm associated with pregnancy?
A. Epithelial
B. Germ cell
C. Stromal
D. Mixed
E. Miscellaneous
65. At what weeks of gestation is AFP concentration highest in maternal serum?
A. 8-18 weeks
B. 12-14 weeks
C. 16-18 weeks
D. 20-22 weeks
E. After 30 weeks
66. Hormonal management options for patients with a myomatous uterus may include
all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Mifepristone (RU486)
B. Danazol
C. GnRH analogues
D. Oral contraceptives (30 to 35 pg ethinyl estradiol)

67. Which degenerative changes of myoma are the least common?

A. Hyaline degeneration
B. Red or carneous degeneration
C. Necrosis
D. Sarcomatous degeneration
68. What anesthetic agent is most ideal for replacing an inverted uterus?
A. Spinal analgesia
B. Thiopental
C. Succinylcholine
D. Halothane
69. At what serum level of magnesium do patellar reflexes disappear?
a) 6mEq/L
b) 8 mEq/L
c) 10 mEq/L
d) 12 mEq/
70. Which of the following conditions is less common in a woman who has undergone
tubal sterilization than in a woman whose partner has undergone vasectomy?
A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Hysterectomy
C. Ovarian cancer
D. Regret that sterilization was performed

13
71. All of the following are terms for abnormal colposcopic findings EXCEPT:
A. Mosaic
B. Metaplasia
C. White epithelium
D. Punctation
E. Atypical vessels
72. The best rationale for choosing radical surgery over radiation for treatment of early-
stage carcinoma of the cervix is:
A. Better survival with surgery
B. Fewer complications
C. Preservation of ovarian function
D. Decreased short-term recurrence
73. Which of the following tests is permitted for FIGO staging of cervical cancer?
A. Intravenous pyelogram
B. CT scans of abdomen and pelvis
C. Lymphangiogram
D. PET scan
E. All
74. The most oxygenated blood is found in which part of the fetal circulation?
A. Ductus venosus
B. Portal vein
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Ductus arteriosus
E. Descending aorta
75. A 28 year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 5 weeks' gestation, presents to you for
confirmation of pregnancy and possible prenatal care. Her first pregnancy resulted in
vaginal delivery of a viable female infant weighing 3900 g at term. Her daughter has a
bilateral hearing deficit. Her second pregnancy resulted in cesarean-section delivery of
a viable male infant weighing 2900 g at 34 weeks because of pregnancy-induced
hypertension. Her son was born with mild myelomeningocele. She denies family history
of any diseases or problems. She tells you that she is a lacto-ovo vegetarian. What is
the most appropriate advice during this prenatal session?
A. Supplement your diet with additional iron
B. Supplement your diet with additional vitamin B12
C. Increase your folic acid intake to 10 times your prepregnancy amount
D. Eat plenty of green, leafy vegetables
E. Increase your calcium intake to 1200 mg/day

14
76. Which of the following is NOT an indication for prenatal diagnosis?
A. Paternal age 45 years
B. Elevated MSAFP
C. Previous child with cystic fibrosis
D. Maternal ventricular septal defect (VSD)
E. Omphalocele detected on second-trimester ultrasound
77. The pain of the second stage of labor is conveyed by which nerve?
A. Paracervical
B. Ilioinguinal
C. Pudendal
D. Genitofemoral
E. Iliohypogastric

78. Which of the following patients is unlikely to have endometriosis?

A. A 19-year-old with cyclic pelvic pain and bicornuate uterus with a
noncommunicating uterine horn
B. A 28-year-old patient with cyclic pelvic pain and who has a mother and a sister
with endometriosis
C. A 25-year-old female with a history of dyspareunia, painful nodular masses in the
rectovaginal septum, and a left adnexal mass
D. A 28-year-old with menorrhagia and a 4-cm submucosal myoma
E. A 32-year-old with infertility and dysmenorrhea and a fixed and retroverted uterus
on physical examination

79. Velamentous insertion of the cord is associated with an increased risk for
A. Premature rupture of the membranes
B. Fetal exsanguinations before labor
C. Torsion of the umbilical cord
D. Fetal malformations
E. Uterine malformations
80. A 27-year-old has just had an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following events
would be most likely to predispose to ectopic pregnancy?
A. Previous tubal surgery
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
C. Use of a contraceptive uterine device (IUD)
D. Induction of ovulation
E. Exposure in utero to diethylstilbestrol (DES)
81. An intravenous pyelogram (IVP) showing hydronephrosis in the workup of a patient
with cervical cancer otherwise confined to a cervix of normal size would indicate stage
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
15
82. A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 8 weeks of gestation, likes to drink one
glass of red wine at night with dinner and doesn't believe it will harm her developing
fetus. She drank the same amount throughout her last pregnancy and she delivered a
normal healthy neonate weighing 8 lb 4 oz. Her past medical history is unremarkable
other than an appendectomy. When performing her ultrasound at 18 weeks of gestation,
the ultrasonographer should pay close attention to the anatomy of the baby's:
A. Bones
B. Brain
C. Heart
D. Kidneys
E. Vertebrae
83. Two female medical students are having a discussion about ovarian reserve.
Medical student #1 claims that because women are born with a finite number of follicles
and because she has been taking birth control pills since age 16, she has slowed down
loss of her follicles every month by inhibiting ovu-lation. Medical student #2 claims that
because she has been pregnant more times than medical student #1, she has a higher
ovarian follicle reserve. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Medical student #1 has slowed down depletion of her eggs
B. Medical student #2 has slowed down depletion of her eggs
C. Medical student #1 has higher ovarian reserve than medical student #2
D. Both students have slowed down depletion of their eggs
E. There is no way to slow down depletion of eggs
84. A 26-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 14 weeks of gestation, presents to you
because of increased vaginal discharge. You perform a wet mount and test for
gonorrhea and chlamydia by NAAT. The results of NAAT are positive for chlamydia.
The next step in management is (note: TOC = test of cure and RS = rescreen):
A. Azithromycin (patient and partner) + TOC 5 weeks + RS 4 months
B. Doxycycline (patient and partner) + TOC 5 weeks + RS 5 months
C. Ofloxacin (patient and partner) + TOC 4 weeks + RS 4 months
D. Erythromycin (patient and partner) + TOC 3 weeks + RS 4 months
E. Erythromycin (patient and partner) + TOC 2 weeks + RS 3 months

85. The most important reason that PID must be recognized and treated promptly is
prevention of:
A. Pelvic pain syndrome
B. Infertility
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Tubo-ovarian abscess
E. Pelvic adhesive disease

16
86. Which of the following is not positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Identification of fetal heart tones
B. Postive pregnancy test
C. Perception of fetal movement by the examiner
D. Identification of fetus by ultrasound
E. None

87. Upon which diameter does the prognosis for vaginal delivery with narrow midpelvis
or pelvic outlet largely depend?
A. Anterior sagittal diameter
B. Tarnsverse diameter
C. Posterior sagittal diameter
D. Anteroposterior diameter
E. None
88. A Women’s parity is determined by
A. Pregnancies she has had
B. Live foetuses delivered
C. foetuses reaching viability
D. Pregnancies reaching viability including still births
89. Which of the following will be suspected in the fetus in pregnant women who had
excessive ingestion of Vitamin A?
A. Blindness
B. Congenital Heart Block
C. Malformations
D. Seizures
E. None
90. Which of the following is not associated with Phase 3 Parturition?
A. Uterine Contractions
B. Milk ejection
C. Restoration of fertility
D. Uterine inversion
E. None

91. Which of the following is characterstic of asynclitism?

A. sagittal suture is not parallel to the transvers axis of the inlet
B. Sagittal suture lies midway between the symphysis and sacral promontory
C. sagittal suture although parallel to the tranverse axis of the inlet, does not lie
exactly midway between the symphysis and sacral promontory.
D. Sagittal suture rotates 45 degrees from the sacral spines

17
92. Which of the following ultrasound characteristics most strongly indicates
monochorionic twins?
A. Same gender
B. Dividing membrane thickness of 1 mm
C. Two placentas
D. Concordancy
E. none
93. Which of the following anomalies are NOT associated with polyhydraminos?
A. Central nervous abnormalities
B. Duodenal atresia
C. Esophageal atresia
D. Renal agenesis
94. What is arias-Stella reaction?
A. is specific for ectopic pregnancy
B. may be confused with malignancy
C. is specific for intrauterine gestation
D. is the result of unopposed estrogen
95. What is the treatment of choice for syphilis in pregnancy?
A. Tetracycline
B. Doxycycline
C. erythromycin
D. Penicillin
96. What is the progestin with the least androgenic effect?
A. Northindrone
B. Norgestrel
C. Levonorgestrel
D. Norgestimate
97. Oral contraceptives are currently thought to cause
A. Limb reduction defects
B. sexual ambiguity
C. heart defects
D. No association with any defects
98. Following vasectomy, which statement is true?
A. autoimmune diseases are more common
B. arteriosclerosis is accelerated
C. sterility is not immediate
D. testicular cancer is increased

18
99. Which of the following procedures is NOT appropriate for the evaluation of the
endometrial cavity?
A. Laparoscopy
B. Endometrial biopsy
C. Hysterescopy
D. Endometrial culture
E. Hysterography
100. Which of the following is Not evidence of ejaculation at the time of rape?
A. positive Wood’s light examination
B. positive acid phosphatise test
C. Wet mount of vaginal secretions showing motile spermatozoa
D. Presence of the B antigen in the vaginal fluid
E. Positive hCG

19