MOD3 (MANOR) DISP-ADR

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1. B 1. Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered: 9. A 9. Any drug reaction which does not necessarily have a
a. pharmacologically active casual relationship with the treatment is called an:
b. pharmacologically inactive a. adverse drug reaction
c. free drugs b. therapeutic incompatibility
d. bioavailable drugs c. adverse drug event
d. none of the above
2. D 2. Alkaline salts like potassium penicillin when placed in
an acidic solution can result in: 10. D 10. Teratogenicity is a/an:
a. conversion into free acid a. Type A ADR
b. precipitation of penicillin b. Type B ADR
c. insolubility c. Type C ADR
d. all of the above d. Type D ADR
3. A 3. In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, Filipinos are 11. B 11. The following are true about biotransformation except:
considered: a. occurs after drug distribution
a. fast acetylators b. converts polar to nonpolar drugs
b. slow acetylators c. converts lipophilic to hydrophilic drugs
c. neither slow nor fast d. can influence drug elimination rate
d. same as the Caucasians
12. A 12. The following are manifestations of chemical
4. B 4. The following are true regarding incompatibilities, incompatibilities except:
except: a. immiscibility
a. problems arising during compounding, dispensing and b. photolysis
dispensing and drug administration c. gel formation
b. easier to correct than to prevent d. evolution of gas
c. may be intentional or unintentional
13. B 13. The precipitation of an organic substance from a
d. must be recognized by pharmacists
saturated solution when highly soluble salts are added is
5. A 5. The following are guidelines for reducing drug known
interactions, except: as:
a. employ combination therapy a. polymorphism
b. identify patient risk factors b. salting-out
c. educate the patient c. racemization
d. know properties of drugs d. eutexia
6. B 6. Enzyme inhibition of coumarins can lead to: 14. D 14. Acacia in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a
a. hypoglycemia "cake" at the bottom of the container. This manifestation is
b. profuse bleeding known as:
c. blood clotting a. gelatinization
d. convulsion b. hydrolysis
c. emulsification
7. B 7. Anaphylaxis is a:
d. cementation
a. Type A ADR
b. Type B ADR 15. D 15. Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result in:
c. Type E ADR a. anemia
d. Type F ADR b. hypertension
c. Parkinson's disease
8. B 8. Oxidizing agents are incompatible with reducing agents.
d. addison's disease
This is a:
a. physical incompatability 16. C 16. A mathematical model for a potentiating drug effect:
b. chemical imcompatability a. 1 + 1 = 2
c. therapeutic incompatibility b. 1 + 1 = 3
d. both A &B c. 0 + 1 = 2
d. 1 + 1 = 0
17. C 17. A remedy for tablet granulations containing vitamin C: 25. D 25. Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme inducers.
a. prepare by dry granulation As a consequence,
b. use precoated ascorbic acid granules a. one needs to increase dose of drug
c. both A & B b. this leads to drug tolerance
d. none of the above c. this is an ADR
d. all of the above
18. D 18. Chloramphenicol palmitate exists in 3 different
polymorphs, each differ in the ff. properties, except: 26. B 26. A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by
a. solubility sulfonamides:
b. free energy a. Parkinson's disease
c. melting point b. Steven's Johnson syndrome
d. none of the above c. hypertension
d. contact dermatitis
19. D 19. The following are the physiologic effects of food on
drug reaction, except: 27. D 27. The following are true regarding excretion of acidic
a. reducing gastric emptying rate drugs except:
b. milk reduces absorption of tetracycline a. exist in the ionized state in alkaline urine
c. tea increases absortion of paracetamol b. exist in the non-ionized form in acidic urine
d. vegetables potentiate anticoagulants c. acidic urine increases drug action
d. none of the above
20. D 20. Important characteristics of idiosyncratic drug
reaction, except: 28. A 28. Phenobarbital and griseofulvin are __________of
a. congenital hypersensitivities coumarins.
b. genetic or hereditary in origin a. enzyme inducers
c. metabolic abnormality b. enzyme inhibitors
d. none of the above c. antagonists
d. agonists
21. D 21. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO inhibitors) and
foods rich in tyramine like cheese will lead to: 29. B 29. Type F ADRs can occur as a result of the following
a. accumulation of pressor amines except:
b. increase in blood pressure a. antimicrobial drug resistance
c. non-metabolism of tyramine b. patient compliance
d. all of the above c. counterfeit drugs
d. drug instability
22. C 22. The following condition/s will amplify the activity of
cardiac glycosides: 30. C 30. Chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug
a. hypercalcemia reaction:
b. hypokalemia a. agranucytosis
c. both a & b b. Gray syndrome
d. none of the above c. both A & B
d. none of the above
23. A 23. Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug
alters the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and 31. A 31. A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by the
excretion of sudden release of endotoxins from various killed
the other drug. microorganisms is called:
a. pharmacokinetic interactions a. Herxheimer reaction
b. pharmacologic interactions b. Lyell's syndrome
c. pharmacodynamic interaction c. skin reaction
d. all of the above d. anaphylactic reaction
24. D 24. Displacement of a plasma-protein bound drug such 32. A 32. Camphor, menthol, acetophenetidine, phenol will
as in Warfarin-phenylbutazone interaction, results in: form:
a. hemorrhage a. eutectic combination
b. increase concentration of warfarin b. liquefaction
c. decreased activity of warfarin c. explosive combination
d. both A & B d. both A & B
33. A 33. The manifestation in no. 32 is a result of a: 42. B 42. The conversion of an optically active form to an
a. therapeutic incompatibility optically inactive form is called:
b. chemical incompatibility a. polymorphism
c. physical incompatibility b. racemization
d. adverse drug reaction c. polymerization
d. enantiomorphism
34. B 34. The most important protein to which drugs can bind
in the plasma: 43. D 43. Precipitation can be:
a. lipoprotein a. physical incompatibility
b. albumin b. chemical incompatability
c. glycoprotein c. adverse drug reaction
d. none of the above d. A or B
35. C 35. Side effects of streptomycin: 44. C 44. Examples of co-solvents:
a. headache a. water, butanol
b. dryness of the mouth b. alcohol, mineral oil
c. ototoxicity c. glycols, sorbitol, glycerol
d. none of the above d. acetone, water, alcohol
36. A 36. The following is/are true regarding absorption of 45. C 45. Enzyme induction of Phenobarbital with oral
salicylic acid: contraceptives can lead to:
a. non-ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable a. decreased Phenobarbital action
b. ionized form is more lipid-soluble & absorbable b. increased oral contraceptives action
c. polar form is more readily absorbed c. unreliable contraception
d. absorption is increased when taken with an antacid d. none of the above
37. A 37. UV light-sensitive substances are best protected using: 46. A 46. Characterizes the first exposure of the fraction of the
a. amber bottle drug metabolized in the liver:
b. plastic container a. first pass effect
c. flint glass b. drug-receptorinteraction
d. carton box c. biotransformation
d. pharmacokinetics
38. D 38. Oxidation is:
a. loss of electrons 47. B 47. These are functions of a pharmacist except:
b. dehydrogenation a. rug information
c. cause of drug instability b. diagnosis
d. all of the above c. counseling on medications
d. monitor drug response
39. B 39. The transport of a substance from one part of the
body to another by means of blood: 48. A 48. A physiological or a psychological state resulting
a. absorption from drug administration
b. distribution a. drug dependence
c. metabolism b. drug habituation
d. excretion c. drug addiction
d. drug tolerance
40. D 40. The following are possible remedies for liquefaction
of solid substances except: 49. B 49. An ADR experienced as a consequence of receiving
a. triturate separately and mix by tumbling an inappropriately high dose of the drug due to patient
b. add adsorbents to liquid combination characteristics:
c. dispense powders separately a. idiosyncracy
d. incorporate cotton in packaging b. extension effect
c. side effect
41. D 41. The following type/s of incompatibility may be
d. Type B
dispensed:
a. intentional incompatability 50. D 50. The ff. is/are characteristic/s of side effects:
b. unintentional incompatability a. dose-dependent
c. delayed chemical incomp., but within shelf-life of b. predictable
product c. associated pharmacological effect
d. both A & C d. all of the above
51. C 51. Oral antihistamines exhibit the following side effect: 60. C 60. Because it is the language of medical science
a. drowsiness throughout the world, this language is still used in Rx
b. sleepiness writing:
c. both A & B a. English
d. anemia b. German
c. Latin
52. B 52. Prescriber of a prescription:
d. Spanish
a. pharmacist
b. veterinarian 61. B 61. The prescription should be read and checked:
c. nurse a. infront of the patient/customer
d. medical technologist b. in the privacy of the pharmacy
c. in the counter of the botica
53. D 53. Compounding is concerned with:
d. none of the above
a. supply of a medicine
b. preparation & distribution of drugs 62. B 62. For dispensing thick viscous liquids, the container
c. order for medicine should be:
d. preparation of medicine a. standard prescription
b. wide-mouthed bottles
54. C 54. The supply of medicine to an individual patient in
c. collapsible tubes
accordance to the prescription given by the physician:
d. dropper bottles
a. compounding
b. formulation 63. A 63. When the generic name is preceded by the brand
c. dispensing name, the prescription is:
d. none of the above a. erroneous prescription
b. violative prescription
55. C 55. A prescription should be refused when:
c. impossible prescription
a. patient is terribly sick
d. none of the above
b. there is no available delivery service
c. essential information is missing 64. C 64. Generic dispensing means:
d. it is not signed by the pharmacist a. dispensing drugs with generic names only
b. dispensing with correct prescription
56. A 56. An example of a subscription:
c. dispensing the costumer's choice from generally
a. M. ft. sol.
equivalent drugs
b. 1 tab q 6 hrs
d. dispensing drugs in proper containers
c. shake well before using
d. 250 mg capsule 65. D 65. When dispensing a compounded prescription, these
information must be written on the label except:
57. B 57. A filled prescription for ethical drugs must be:
a. indications
a. returned to the patient
b. name and strength of actives
b. filed for future reference
c. name of manufacturer
c. discarded after recording
d. name of physician
d. forwarded to BFAD
66. B 66. In a prescription, the dispensing directions to the
58. D 58. Which of these drug products require a physician's
pharmacist is the:
prescription?
a. superscription
a. Aspirin 325 mg tab
b. subscription
b. Paracetamol 500 mg Tab
c. inscription
c. Nubain 10 mg/vial
d. signa
d. both B & C
67. B 67. How many mL will you dispense for a prescription
59. C 59. Which of the ff. correctly applies to this group of drug
calling for a 100 g of a liquid substance with a sp.gr. of
products? Paracetamol 325 mg. Tab, Cortal 325 mg Tab,
1.25?
Alvedon 325 mg Tab
a. 75 mL
a. all are generically equivalent
b. 80 mL
b. all are in brand names
c. 85 mL
c. all are non-prescription drugs
d. 90 mL
d. all are prescription drugs
68. B 68. Providing the correct medicines at the right time at the 77. D 77. Probenecid and penicillin exhibits this type of
right dose and using the right route of administration to interaction:
the a. enzyme induction
right patient is: b. enzyme inhibition
a. primary care c. alteration in gastric emptying
b. rational drug therapy d. competition for tubular secretion
c. osteopathy
78. C 78. Citric acid, atropine sulfate and ferrous sulfate are
d. homeopathy
classified as:
69. B 69. The following are true about dimercaprol except: a. eutectic mixtures
a. British Anti-Lewisite b. deliquescent substs.
b. Indicated for Fe poisoning c. efflorescent substances
c. indicated for as poisoning d. polymorphs
d. chemical antagonist
79. B 79. A mathematical model for synergism:
70. A 70. Identify the odd-man-out: a. 1 + 1 = 2
a. complete formation b. 1 + 1 = 8
b. insolubility c. 0 + 1 = 2
c. liquefaction of solid ingredients d. 1 + 1 = 0
d. polymorphism
80. A 80. Term for migration of the drug into the container:
71. A 71. Group of drugs commonly abused by athletes: a. sorption c. permeation
a. anabolic steroids b. leaching d. vaporization
b. dexamethasone
81. D 81. The conversion of an optically active drug with one
c. antibiotics
chiral center into an optically inactive isomer:
d. vitamins
a. polymorphism
72. A 72. Immediate remedy for anaphylaxis: b. enatiomerism
a. epinephrine injection c. epimerization
b. aspirin d. racemization
c. antihistamine
82. B 82. One of the violations committed by dispensing
d. antibiotic
pharmacist is:
73. B 73. A drug whose action is affected in a drug interaction: a. informing the patient of the current list of available
a. precipitant drugs
b. object drug b. imposing a particular brand or product on the buyer
c. interactant c. recording of prescriptions filled
d. none of the above d. dispensing of the product according to the prescription
74. A 74. The following are remedies for oxidation except: 83. D 83. An impossible prescription is described by the
a. acid pH following except:
b. change dosage form a. only the generic name is written but not legible
c. addition of antioxidant b. both generic & brand names are not legible
d. protection from light c. the generic name does not correspond to the brand
name
75. B 75. A suspension with the f. ingredients (FeCl3, Fe(OH)3,
d. the generic name is not legible and the brand is written
acacia, FD&C #5 (orange color) and methyl paraben will
legibly
reveal this manifestation:
a. polymerization 84. B 84. The incorrect prescription that can be filled is the:
b. gelatinization a. impossible prescription
c. cementation b. erroneous prescription
d. precipitation c. violative prescription
d. none of the above
76. B 76. The following are patient-related predisposing factors
to ADRs except: 85. D 85. The date after which the product is not intended to be
a. age used:
b. formulation a. beyond-use date
c. genetic disposition b. expiry date
d. history of allergy c. stop date
d. both A & B
86. A 86. The following are importance of recognizing potential 95. B 95. Refers to the schedule of dosing (e.g., QID, 10 days)
incompatibilities, except: a. divided doses
a. rewarding for the pharmacist b. dosage regimen
b. savings in money, time effort c. single dose
c. safety of the patient d. total dose
d. quality medicines dispensed
96. D 96. When dispensing prepared dosage forms, the
87. D 87. Poor patient compliance with prescription instruction pharmacist may use which of the ff dose equivalents?
is usually due to the ff. except: a. exact equivalent
a. patient understood pharmacists instructions poorly b. exact dose
b. pharmacist has poor communication skills c. approximate dose
c. inadequate time of pharmacist for patient counseling d. a and b
d. any of the above
97. B 97. Indicates the quantitative range or amounts of drug
88. A 88. HLB is a system used to distinguish between: that maybe prescribed within the guidelines of usual
a. surfactants d. excipients medical
b. glidants e. disintegrators practice.
c. suspending agents a. divided dose
b. usual dosage range
89. A 89. The purpose of the prescription number is:
c. loading dose
a. to identify the prescription for future reference
d. total dose
b. as a substitute for the name of the drug
c. to guide the pharmacist in costing 98. A 98. Which of the following dose not cause a therapeutic
d. to provide professional fee to the medicine incompatibility?
a. errors in pricing
90. D 90. In pricing the prescription, the pharmacist must
b. dosage form errors
consider:
c. loading dose
a. cost of ingredients
d. errors of storage and supply
b. professional fee
c. percentage mark-up 99. B 99. An associated pharmacological effect of
d. all of the above chlorphenamine maleate:
a. hypotension
91. C 91. If there is doubt in legibility of the prescription, the
b. sedation
pharmacist should:
c. headache
a. decide based on patient's ailment
d. nausea
b. make an educated guess
c. consult the prescriber 100. C 100. Ecstacy exhibits this type of ADR:
d. consult MIMS a. Type A
b. Type B
92. A 92. For the guidance of the patient, the prescription
c. Type C
needs:
d. Type D
a. signa
b. subscription 101. B 101. Idiosyncratic reactions are considered:
c. superscription a. Type A ADR
d. inscription b. Type B ADR
c. Type C ADR
93. B 93. Importance of a label:
d. Type E ADR
a. for sake of art
b. to establish identity 102. D 102. An anionic exchange resin intended to bind bile
c. to improve elegance acids, cholesterol metabolites and co-administered
d. to give prominence drugs:
a. chloramphenicol
94. A 94. An auxiliary label except:
b. cholesterol precursor
a. do not repeat
c. tetracycline
b. for external use
d. colestyramine
c. shake well before using
d. ophthalmic use
103. C 103. Are added to drug formulations to prevent or reduce 111. C 111. To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine:
oxidation a. body clearance
a. complexing agents b. fraction protein bound
b. surfactants c. volume of distribution
c. antioxidants d. all of the above
d. additives
112. A 112. Many diuretics tend to cause depletion of:
104. C 104. This container is impervious to air and other gases a. potassium
under ordinary conditions of handling storage and b. sodium
transport: c. carbonate ion
a. airtight container d. urea
b. security closed
113. C 113. Corticosteroids are frequently given with antacids to
c. hermitically sealed
a. enhance absorption
d. child-resistant container
b. slow absorption
105. C 105. Diuretics tend to enhance lithium salt toxicity due to c. reduce ulceration and bleeding
a. direct drug interaction d. increase the rate of distribution
b. potassium depletion
114. A 114. The functions of suspending agents include the ff.
c. sodium depletion
except:
d. increase solubility of the lithium salts
a. prevent oxidation-reduce reaction
106. A 106. All of the following untoward effects are commonly b. increase the viscosity of the vehicle
associated with cancer chemotherapy EXCEPT: c. slow down the rate of settling down
a. exfoliative dermatitis d. cause the preparation to remain in suspension
b. teratogenesis
115. C 115. General corrections of incompatibilities include all of
c. nausea
the ff. except:
d. alocepia & leukemia
a. separation of immiscible liquids
107. A 107. Glass is a traditional packaging material which has b. change of vehicle
been widely used for both liquid and solid dose forms. c. use of a different brand
All of d. substitution of ingredients
the following are types of glass containers, except:
116. A 116. Route of administration where drugs are applied to
a. closures
the skin surface to be absorbed slowly into the systemic
b. bottles
circulation
c. ear and nasal dropper bottles
a. transdermal route
d. containers for semi-solid preparation
b. inhalation route
108. C 108. Used as pharmaceutical packaging materials include c. buccal route
aluminum, tin and tin-coated lead d. rectal route
a. glass
117. A 117. Involves the degradation of the drug or excipients
b. plastics
through reaction with the solvents present in the
c. metals
formulations:
d. paperboards
a. solvolysis
109. C 109. How many grains are there in 5.0 g of strychnine b. oxidation
sulfate? c. photolysis
a. 10.4 gr d. polymerization
b. 20.4 gr
118. C 118. Degradationof drugs or excipient molecules can be
c. 77.2 gr
brought about by light, either room lights or sunlight.
d. 0.99 rg
a. solvolysis
110. C 110. How many doses of teaspoonful each are there in a b. oxidation
4-fl. Oz. bottle of medication? c. photolysis
a. 10 d. polymerization
b. 20
119. C 119. Remedy when a solid substance faild to dissolve in a
c. 24
liquid
d. 30
a. addition of an inert ingredients
b. prepare an emulsion
c. prepare a suspension
d. dispensing the ingredients separately
120. C 120. Occurs immediately upon compounding like 128. D 128. Factors that tend to reduce stomach contraction and
presence of precipitate; Effervescene of color changes. gastric emptying rate except:
a. minor incompatibility a. consumption of meals high in fat
b. delayed incompatibility b. patient lying on left side
c. immediate incompatibility c. depression
d. major incompatibility d. hyperthyroidism
121. D 121. Combinations liable to produce therapeutic 129. C 129. This drug inhibits the Vit. K dependent synthesis of
incompatibilities when administered at the same time clotting factors II, VII, IX and X
except: a. Tetracycle
a. sedatives and stimulants b. Diphenhydraime
b. tannins and aloins c. Warfarin
c. caffeine and chloral hydrate d. Aspirin
d. aspirin and warfarin
130. A 130. Low potassium level in blood produced by diuretics:
122. C 122. Water is most likely to cause instability on the a. hypokalemia
following drugs, except: b. hyponatria
a. Penicillins c. hypocalcemia
b. Cephalosporins d. hyperuricemia
c. Alkaloids
131. C 131. Increased sugar level in the blood over normal level.
d. Benzodiazepines
a. hypercalcemia
123. A 123. Aspirin hydrolizes in water giving acetic acid and b. hyperkalemia
a. salicylic acid c. hyperglycemia
b. oxalic acid d. hyperuricemias
c. formic acid
132. A 132. True types of incompatibilities
d. tricarboxylic acid
a. Unintentional or Unexpected Incompatibilities
124. C 124. During drug interaction, the affected drug may b. Intentional or Unexpected Incompatibilities
become more active resulting to the following except: c. Immediate Incompatibilities
a. increase drug activity d. Delayed Incompatibilities
b. longer therapeutic action
133. D 133. Optimum absorption takes place in the
c. less effective
a. gastrointestinal tract
d. toxicity
b. receptor
125. B 125. It occurs when drugs are mixed inappropriately in c. stomach
syringes or infusion fluids prior to administration. d. small intestine
a. pharmacodynamic interaction
134. B 134. Type of drug strongly bound to albumin:
b. pharmaceutical interaction
a. basic drug
c. pharmacokinetic interaction
b. acidic drugs
d. all of the above
c. alkaline drugs
126. A 126. Which statement is not true regarding Lithium-NSAID d. all of the above
combination?
135. D 135. Pharmacokinetically, enzyme induction will result to
a. NSAID impaired renal synthesis of bronchodilator
the following, except:
prostaglandin
a. peak level decreases
b. NSAID antagonize the renal excretion of lithium
b. accelerated metabolism
c. NSAID may cause sodium and water retention
c. increased overall elimination rate
d. NSAID inhibit prostaglandin dependent renal excretion
d. pharmacological responses are decreased
of lithium.
136. A 136. Principal site of drug metabolism
127. B 127. Delay in gastric-emptying time for the drug to reach
a. liver
the duodenum will ______, thereby prolonging the onset of
b. kidney
time for the drug.
c. stomach
a. slow the rate and extent of drug distribution
d. small intestine
b. slow the rate and extent of drug absorption
c. increase the rate and extent of drug absorption
d. increase the rate and extent of drug metabolism
137. D 137. Major pathway of excretion are via the kidney into 145. B 145. Interactions that arise with drug acting on the
the urine and via the liver into the receptors, sites of action or physiological system
a. bile a. pharmaceutical interactions
b. urine b. pharmacodynamic interactions
c. alveolar air c. pharmacokinetic interactions
d. feces d. change in body fluids and electrolyte balances
138. B 138. In basic urine, acidic drugs are 146. D 146. Factors that reduced binding capacity to albumin,
a. un-ionized, hence reabsorbed, decrease half life except
b. more ionized, not reabsorbed, decrease half life a. liver impairment
c. more un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increase half life b. smoking
d. un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increases elimination rate c. during pregnancy
d. nenonates patient
139. C 139. Decreased urinary recycling, increases elimination
rate constant hence 147. B 147. Phenobarbital-Antihistamine drug combinations will
a. increases half life result to
b. longer duration of pharmacologic response a. Phenobarbital metabolism is accelerated by
c. shortens duration of pharmacologic response antihistamine
d. increases therapeutic concentration in the body b. Antihistamine metabolism is accelerated by
Phenobarbital
140. A 140. In acidic urine, acidic drugs are more un-ionized,
c. Phenobarbital peak level increases
hence
d. Decreased Phenobarbital overall elimination rate
a. reabsorbed, increase in half life
b. not reabsorbed, increase in half life 148. A 148. Petition for favor of healing and warning from great
c. reabsorbed, decrease in half life care and precaution.
d. not reabsorbed, decrease in half life a. Rx
b. Signa
141. A 141. In acidic urine, basic drugs are
c. Magistral Pharmacy
a. more ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half
d. Mark thou
life
b. un-ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half life 149. D 149. The approved clinical use of the product based on
c. more ionized hence not reabsorbed, increase half life substantial evidence of the efficacy and safety of the
d. NEVER GIVE UP! :) drug
a. warning
142. D 142. Increase urinary recycling increase half hence,
b. formulation
expect
c. pharmacologic category
a. decreases elimination rate constant
d. indication
b. blood levels rise and persist longer
c. danger of toxicity in multiple dosing 150. B 150. Instruction and special care to avoid undesired
d. increases elimination rate constant effects and to ensure the safe and effective use of the
product
143. D 143. Which statement is incorrect regarding interaction
a. warnings
involving tyramine containing substance and MAO
b. precautions
inhibitor?
c. contraindications
a. inhibition of MAO result in the accumulation of large
d. indications
amounts of norepinephrine
b. decrease in the rate of intracellular metabolism 151. B 151. Generic equivalent drugs are finished pharmaceutical
c. large amount of norephinephrine can cause severe products having same ingredients, same dosage form,
headache and hypertension and
d. large amount of stored norepinephrine can cause the same strength. They differ only in
hypotensive crisis a. generic name
b. brand name
144. C 144. Acidic group of amino acids responsible for binding
c. international non-proprietary
basic drugs, expect
d. active constituents
a. glutamic
b. aspartic 152. D 152. Drug products that are considered prohibited, expect
c. lysine a. Heroine and Morphine
d. tyrosine b. Coca leaf and its derivative cocaine
c. Mescaline and Indian Hemp
d. Secobarbital
153. A 153. Regulated drug, except 162. B 162. Part of a label that is most likely to be presented,
a. LSD shown or examined under customary conditions for
b. Amphetamine display for
c. Methaqualone retail sale.
d. Phenobarbital a. outer label
b. principal display panel
154. A 154. Violation on the part of the pharmacist in generic
c. inner label
dispensing, except
d. label
a. adequately inform the buyer about available products
that meet the prescription 163. A 163. Patron saints of medicine and pharmacy
b. failure to record and file the prescription filed a. Cosmas and Damian
c. imposing a particular brand or product to the buyer b. St. Peter
d. failure to report to the nearest office cases of incorrect c. George Ebers
prescriptions within 3 months after receipt of d. Don Leon Ma. Guerrero
such prescriptions
164. A 164. Combination of salt substitute and potassium
155. B 155. Exempt prohibited drugs, except sparing drugs will result to
a. Lomotil a. hyperkalemia
b. Benzodiazepines b. tachycardia
c. Robitussin AC syrup c. alkalosis
d. Phenergon Expectorant with Codeine d. calcemia
156. B 156. Drugs requiring strict precautions in their use, except 165. B 165. A written order signed by a licensed medical
a. Methotrexate practitioner for medicine to be compounded by a
b. Codein pharmacist to
c.Nitrofurantoin meet the needs of a certain person at a particular time
d. Phenytoin a. letter
b. prescription
157. A 157. Official name of drug products containing 2 or more
c. recommendation
active ingredients with single INN
d. receipt
a. INN of the combination products
b. generic names of 2 or more active ingredients 166. B 166. It forms the beginning of a direct order from the
c. based on the nomenclature used by the PNDF prescriber to the compounder
d. products with standards formulations included in the a. inscription
current PNDF b. superscription
c. subscription
158. D 158. Source/s of information regarding incompatibilities
d. errors in the written order
a. Remington
b. USP 167. B 167. Dispensing directions to the pharmacist is
c. Product inserts a. inscription
d. all of the above b. subscription
c. superscription
159. A 159. This parchment scroll found in Egypt mentioned 700
d. transcription
drugs with formulas for more than 800 remedies
a. Papyrus Ebers 168. A 168. A prescription where the generic name is not written
b. De Materia Medica a. violative Rx
c. Remington b. erroneous Rx
d. USP NF c. impossible Rx
d. yellow DDB Rx
160. A 160. The chief active constituent
a. base 169. A 169. The part of the prescription which directs the patient
b. vehicle what to do is:
c. corrective a. signa
d. adjuvant b. inscription
c. subscription
161. A 161. Instruction for patient in taking the medication
d. superscription
a. transcription
b. inscription
c. superscription
d. subscription
170. C 170. A prescription where the generic name does not 178. D 178. Valium and Tagamet combination will not result to
correspond to the brand name one from the ff:
a. violative Rx a. Tagamet delay elimination of anti-anxiety agent
b. erroneous Rx b. Increased sedation and dizziness
c. impossible Rx c. Blood levels of anti-anxiety drug increased
d. yellow DDB Rx d. Valium increases the metabolism of Tagamet
171. B 171. The meaning of the abbreviation p.c. in the signa of a 179. C 179. The "NO SUBSTITUTION" instruction is seen on
prescription a. erroneous prescription
a. as necessary b. impossible prescription
b. after meal c. vilative prescription
c. at bedtime d. any of the above
d. sufficient quantity
180. C 180. A STAT order means the drug has to be administered
172. A 172. Complimentary list is a list of ________ drug used when a. as needed by the patient
there in no response to the core essential list b. at the hour of sleep
a. alternative c. immediately
b. substitute d. before surgery
c. additional
181. C 181. Piroxicam is a /an:
d. supplementary
a. prohibited drug
173. B 173. When suppositories containing phenol causes the b. regulated drug
vehicle to soften the melting point may be raised by c. OTC drug
adding: d. any of these answers
a. lanolin
182. B 182. If the pharmacist doubts the correctness of the
b. petrolatum
prescription, he should:
c. fixed oil
a. consult the patient
d. vehicle
b. consult the prescriber of the patient
174. C 174. Which one of the following antacid products is a c. consult other pharmacist
chemical combination of aluminum and magnesium d. base decision on ailment
hydroxides?
183. B 183. Providing the correct medicine at the correct time, in
a. Maalox c. Riopan
the correct dose and the correct route of administration is
b. Mylanta d. Gelusil
called:
175. A 175. Simethicone is most likely to be included in what a. primary care
type of OTC product. b. rational drug therapy
a. antacids c. osteopathy
b. cough products d. homeopathy
c. decongestant
184. B 184. When the word otic appears on the label of the
d. laxative
drug, the patient should be informed that the drug is
176. B 176. The label text outside the principal display panel on applied on the
the immediate container of pharmaceutical products as a. mouth
specified by RA 3720 contains the following information b. ear
except: c. eyes
a. formulation d. nose
b. contraindication
185. D 185. In pricing prescription, the pharmacist must consider
c. batch and/or lot number
a. cost of ingredients c. percentage mark up
d. mode of administration
b. professional fee d. all of the above
177. B 177. The ophylline when taken with high fat breakfast will
186. A 186. Salt of zinc that is valuable as an eyewash for the
result to the ff:
treatment of conjunctivitis
a. combination reduces the amount of theophylline
a. zinc sulfate
b. action of theophylline is enhanced by the fat present
b. zinc chloride
c. combination increases the metabolism of theophylline
c. zinc oxide
d. both have synergistic effects
d. all of these answers
187. D 187. The antiseptic property of hydrogen peroxide is due 195. C 195. NPO means:
to a. patient should be given drugs after meals
a. ozone b. patient should be given drugs before meals
b. acetanilide c. patient should not be given anything by mouth
c. peroxidase d. patient should be left undisturbed
d. oxygen
196. B 196. Drugs that can be dispensed only through a yellow
188. B 188. Which of the following is most closely related to prescription pad:
cefazolin? a. essential drugs
a. Erythromycin b. dangerous drugs
b. Moxalactam c. OTC products
c. ampicillin d. prescription drugs
d. Carbencillin
197. A 197. The objective of the Generic Law is to
e. Gentamycin
a. provide the patient the choice of drugs at the lowest
189. B 189. Failure to mix or dissolve when two or more cost
ingredients are combined may be termed as: b. provide regulated drugs
a. adverse reactions c. provide prohibited drugs
b. physical incompatability d. use habit forming drugs
c. drug precipitation
198. C 198. Zephiran is used in ophthalmic solution as:
d. complexation
a. suspending agent
190. A 190. The unusual result of triturating camphor and b. surfactant
menthol is c. antimicrobial agent
a. liquefaction d. antimicrobial agent and surfactant
b. synergistic effect
199. B 199. The lowering of melting point is called:
c. solidification
a. evolution
d. lowering of melting point
b. eutexia
191. D 191. Mixture of phenolic, aldehyde, ketonic compounds c. hydrolysis
and alcohols are examples of d. none of these
a. insoluble substances
200. D 200. The combination of NaHCO3 with an organic acid
b. hydroscopic substances
(citric or tartaric acid) will result in:
c. delinquent substances
a. precipitation
d. eutectic mixtures
b. color changes
192. B 192. Substances which absorb moisture from the air are c. oxidation
called: d. effervescence
a. effervescent powders
201. C 201. When an oxidizing agent is triturated in a mortar
b. hygroscopic powders
with a reducing agent, this would likely result to:
c. anhydrous powders
a. formation of damp mass
d. efflorescent powders
b. discoloration of powders
193. D 193. Liquefaction of crystalline salt occurs on trituration is c. violent explosion
due to: d. volatilization of some of the ingredients
a. addition of water
202. B 202. The reaction between sodium bicarbonate and
b. addition of other liquid ingredient
aspirin would result to:
c. absorption of moisture from the air
a. formation of precipitate
d. liberation of water of crystallization
b. evolution of gas
194. B 194. Urinary alkalinizer administered with sulfonamides c. hydrolytic changes
treatment to prevent crystalluria d. invisible changes
a. Na2CO3
203. A 203. Benzalkonium chloride is incompatible with:
b. NaHCO3
a. soap
c. NaOH or KOH
b. cationic agent
d. Na2CO3 10H2O
c. a & b
d. none of the above
204. D 204. Chemical incompatibility includes all of the 212. D 212. The combined action of two or more drugs which
following except: results in an
a. racemzation Enhancement or intensifying effects is termed:
b. implosion a. metabolism c. stimulation
c. cementation b. antagonism d. synergism
d. liquefaction
213. C 213. Sodium benzoate is effective as a preservative if the
205. C 205. When the response of a patient to one or more pH of the preparation is:
drugs is different in nature than that intended by the a. above 4
prescriber is b. above 7
called: c. below 4
a. antagonistic incompatibility d. below 7
b. chemical incompatibility
214. C 214. Upon exposure to air, aminophylline solution may
c. threrapeutic incompatibility
develop:
d. physical incompatibility
a. gas
206. C 206. Adverse drug reactions characterized by b. a precipitate of aminophylline
exaggerated or inordinate response to normal doses of a c. crystals of theophylline
drug: d. a straw color
a. idiosyncrasy
215. A 215. The degradation reaction for aspirin involves:
b. allergy
a. hydrolysis
c. hypersensitivity
b. racemization
d. potentiation
c. oxidation
207. A 207. Occurs when one drug increases the action of d. photolysis
another drug:
216. B 216. Reactions which are noxious, unintended and which
a. potentiation
occur at doses normally used in man for prophylaxis,
b. antagonism
diagnosis or therapy:
c. summation
a. drug interaction
d. cummation/potentiation
b. adverse drug reactions
208. B 208. Isotonic solution of this substance will still cause c. pharmacodynamic
hemolysis of RBC d. therapeutic incompatibilities
a. benzoic acid
217. D 217. The ingestion of alcoholic drinks while on analgesic
b. boric acid
or sedative therapy represents a commonly encountered
c. sodium bicarbonate
drug interaction that may result in:
d. sodium benzoate
a. tolerance
209. D 209. Substance used as a test for liver function by b. antagonism
measuring the amount of hippuric acid in urine c. excessive CNS stimulaton
a. sodium borate d. excessive CNS depression
b. aspirin
218. A 218. Biological half life of many drugs is often prolonged
c. sodium salicylate
in newborn infants because of:
d. all of the above
a. incompletely developed enzyme system
210. B 210. The risk of aspirin in children with fever due to viral b. microsomal enzyme inhibition
infection: c. higher protein binding
a. Gray baby syndrome d. well developed renal function
b. Reye's syndrome
219. C 219. To prevent errors, the pharmacist uses:
c. bone fraction
a. his knowledge of pharmacognosy
d. all of the above
b. his knowledge of chemistry
211. B 211. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used c. his broad knowledge of drugs
with: d. his knowledge of diseases
a. penicilline
220. A 220. The following are aminoglycosides, except:
b. antihistamine
a. quinidine
c. aspirin
b. kanamycin
d. sulfonamide
c. streptomycin
d. neomycin
221. A 221. Theophylline is used for: 230. B 230. A type of synergism in which the combined effect is
a. asthmatic equal to the additive effect of the combined drugs is
b. diabetic termed:
c. hypertensive patients a. potentiation
d. all of these answers b. summation
c. metabolism
222. B 222. Drugs that should not be given to children with
d. hyperactivity
chicken pox of flu symptoms:
a. acetaminophen 231. D 231. Which of the following factors influence drug
b. aspirin metabolism and metabolic pathway?
c. ibuprofen a. genetic variation
d. all of these answers b. antioxidant
c. physiologic or disease state
223. A 223. Drug that should not be given to patients who have
d. none ofthese answers
undergone surgery including dental surgery
a. aspirin 232. A 232. A metal catalyzed oxidation reaction pathway can
b. acetaminophen be prevented by:
c. ibuprofen a. chelating agents
d. all of these answers b. antioxidant
c. surface active agents
224. A 224. Aspirin with antacids will cause:
d. none of these answes
a. alteration of pH
b. complexation and adsorption 233. D 233. Which of the following factors may make it
c. alteration of GIT flora necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric
d. alteration of motility patients?
a. reduced enzyme activity
225. A 225. The most serious drug-induced blood disorder:
b. reduced kidney function
a. aplastic anemia
c. enhanced absorption
b. leukemia
d. a and b
c.agranulocytosis
d. thrombocytopenia 234. A 234. This reaction isclassifiedunder Bizzare reactions
(type B):
226. A 226. The most clinically significant adverse drug reaction
a. anaphylactic shock
affecting the upper gastrointestinal tract results from the
b. teratogenesis
use
c. adverse effect
of:
d. drug dependence
a. NSAIDS
b. antabuse 235. D 235. Consequence of diverse drug reactions:
c. phenobarbital a. increased mortality
d. aspirin b. prolonged hospital stay
c. increased cost of therapy
227. B 227. Used in the treatment of alcoholism by inhibiting
d. all of the above
activity of aldehyde dehydrogenase:
a. probenecid 236. C 236. A common adverse effect related to the use of
b. antabuse aluminum antacids
c. Phenobarbital a. nausea
d. aspirin b. vomiting
c. constipations
228. B 228. A reaction that is noxious and unintended, which
d. all of the above
occurs in doses used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis
and 237. D 237. Tetracyclines tend to form complexes with:
therapy: a. iron salts
a. drug interaction c. adverse drug effects b. magnesium salts
b. adverse drug reaction d. pharmacodynamic effects c. calcium salts
d. all of the above
229. A 229. Allergic reactions that are due to a person's immune
response:
a. hypersensitivity
b. idiosyncrasy
c. adverse drug effects
d. potentiation
238. B 238. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used 246. D 246. Cold preparations when taken in large doses may
with: interact with:
a. sulfonamides a. sedatives
b.antihistamines b. guaiafenisin
c. aspirin c. MAOIs
d.penicillin d. a and c
239. A 239. Increases serum levels and prolongs agent the 247. A 247. Which of the following properties would
activity of penicillin derivatives by blocking the latter's characterize a drug when it is bound to plasma albumin?
tubular a. it is biologically inactive
excretion: b. it can pass through the glomerulus
a. probeneid c. it is promptly metabolized
b. indomethacin d. a and b
c. propranolol
248. D 248. Traditional classification of adverse drug reactions:
d. methyldopa
a. side effect
240. A 240. Well known side effects of salicylate therapy: b. extension effect
a. tinnitus c. allergy
b. vomiting d. all of the above
c. headache
249. D 249. These reactions belongs to Augmented type (type
d. nausea
A):
241. D 241. Most common side effects of erythromycin therapy: a. extension effect
a. anaphylaxis b. allergy
b. ototoxicity c. side effect
c. headache d. a and c
d. abdominal cramps
250. C 250. The ff. drugs often precipitate an interaction when
242. C 242. A drug that increases the anticoagulant action of administered with a second drug, except:
warfarin because its metabolite competes with the a. sedation
anticoagulant for plasma protein binding sites: b. headache
a. tolbutamide c. hemolytic anemia
b. aspirin d. hypokalemia
c. chloral hydrate
251. C 251. The following response belong to Type B adverse
d. diazepam
drug reactions, except:
243. A 243. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and thus a. allergy of Cefotaxime
increases the plasma levels of: b. aplastic anemia in patients taking chloramphenicol
a. mercaptopurine c. facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic
b. chloral hydrate mothers
c. disulfiram d. peripheral neuritis in a british missionary ill with
d. aspirin tuberculosis
244. D 244. Aspirin combines with Phenylsalicylate resulting to: 252. B 252. An ointment is prepared by incorporating 10 g of a
a. melting drug into 100 g of
b. non-homogenous mixture White petrolatum. What is the percent w/w of active
d. moist mass ingredient?
c. turbid solution a. 10.0%
b. 9.1%
245. A 245. A formulation of FeSO4 Suspension cannot use
c. 0.91%
Acacia as a suspending agent, because the final product
d. 0.95%
may
e. none of the above
exhibit:
a. gelatinization 253. C 253. What is the proof strength of a 50% (v/v) solution of
b. prescipitation alcohol?
c. cementation a. 25 proof
d. oxidation b. 50 proof
c. 100 proof
d. 75 proof
e. 150 proof
254. A 254. Certified dyes may NOT be used in the area of: 262. B 262. The dose of a drug is 5 mg/kg of body weight.
a. the eye What dose should be a given to a 100-lb female patient?
b. the scalp a. 2500 mg
c. the lips b. 250mg
d. the nose c. 25 mg
e. all of the above d. 44 mg
e. 440 mg
255. A 255. The principal use of magnesium stearate in
pharmaceutics an as a (an): 263. A 263. How many grains of a drug is needed to make 4
a. lubricant fluid ounces of a 5% w/v solution?
b. antacid a. 91 grains
c. source of magnesium ion b. 96 grains
d. disintegrator c. 48 grains
e. binder d. 100 grains
e. 24 grains
256. A 256. The major use of titanium dioxide in pharmacy is in:
a. sunscreens 264. B 264. Methyl salicylate is used primarily as a (a):
b. antacid tablets a. flavoring
c. capsule as a diluent b. counter-irritant
d. effervescent salts c. suspending agent
e. emulsions d. emulsifier
e. binder
257. C 257. A synonym for vitamin C is
a. riboflavin 265. C 265. Which of the following is NOT used as a vehicle for
b. tocopherol injections?
c.ascorbic acid a. peanut oil
d. cyanocobalamin b. cotton seed oil
e. thiamine c. theobroma oil
d. sesame oil
258. D 258. Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes
because of which of its properties? 266. A 266. Lidocaine HCL is NOT administered orally because
a. neutralizing it is:
b. emetic a. ineffective by this route
c. absorptive b. too acidic
d. adsorptive c. too toxic by this route
e. stabilizing d. a cause of arrhythmias
e. unstable
259. C 259. The abbreviations SOS on prescription means:
a. at once 267. E 267. The two major properties of drug that are usually
b. freely modified by
c. if needed Complexation are:
d. do not repeat a. odor and taste
e. on alternate days b. taste and solubility
c. chemical structure and solubility
260. D 260. Clindamycin is closely related to which of the
d. chemical structure and stability
following in effective spectrum?
e. stability and solubility
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Tobramycin 268. E 268. What will result if the distribution of drugs is slower
c. Kanamycin than the process of biotransformation
d. Lincomycin and elimination?
e. It is unique in spectrum a. high blood levels of drug
b. low blood levels of drug
261. C 261. Prednisone is converted to which of the following
c. synergism
by the liver?
d. potentiation
a. Cortisone
e. failure to attain diffusion equilibrium
b. Hydrocortisone
c. Prednisolone
d. Methylprednisolone
e. Dexamethaxone
269. C 269. In radiopharmacy, he term "rem" means 277. C 277. Spans and tweens are
a. radiation per millisecond a. highly polymerized mannuronic acid anhydrites
b. radiation per minute b. phospholipids
c. roengent-equivalent-man c. polyoxyalkalene derivatives
d. external roentgens per minute d. glycosides
e. roentgen exposure per minute
278. C 278. Solutions that contain bacteriostatic agents:
270. B 270. pH is: a. cannot be tested for sterility
a. not termperature b. must be cultures on agar plates for sterility tests
b. a measure of acidity c. must be diluted beyond the bacteriostatic level for
c. the same as pOH sterility tests
d. high for acids d. do not require a sterility test
e. none of the above e. are none of the above
271. E 271. Which of the following types of tissues frequently 279. C 279. The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg. What dose should
store drugs? be given a 6-year-old child who weights 44 lb?
a. fatty tissue a. 0.003 g
b. muscle tissue b. 0.033 g
c. protein tissue c. 0.010 g
d. A & B d. 0.100 g
e. A & C e. 0.05 g
272. B 272. Which of the following drugs undergoes marked 280. E 280. Salicylic acid is used primarily as a/an:
hydrolysis in the GI Tract? a. analgesic
a. Aspirin b. antipyretic
b. Penicillin G c. cough suppressant
c. Acetaminophen d. uricosuric agent
d. Hydrocortisone e. keratolytic agent
e. Chlortetracycline
281. A 281. The chemical substance used commonly in running a
273. E 273. Surface-active agents tend to enhance absorption GI series is:
due to: a. barium sulfate
a. their effects on biological membrane b. fluorescein dye
b. their effects on the dissolution rate of drugs c. radioactive iodine
c. reduction of interfacial tension d. sodium bicarbonate
d. B & C only e. sodium carbonate
e. A, B, and C
282. B 282. Which of the following may be used as plasma
274. C 274. Emulsions made with tweens are usually: expanders?
a. unstable a. sodium salts
b. w/o b. dextrans
c. o/w c. starches
d. clear d. calcium salts
e. reversible e. prostaglandins
275. A 275. A solution contains 3 gr of a drug per fluid ounce. 283. E 283. Denaturation of emulsions is characterized by:
What is the percentage a. irreversible precipitation
w/v of the solution? b. reversible precipitation
a. 0.66% c. creaming
b. 0.59% d. changing of external phase
c. 10.0% e. C & D
d. 1.0%
284. B 284. Freeze drying is based on:
e. 6.5%
a. pressure filtration
276. D 276. Cyanocobalamin is a (an): b. sublimation
a. steroid c. polymerization
b. choline esterase inhibitor d. pasteurization
c. hallucinogen e. densification
d. vitamin
e. enzyme
285. D 285. Which of the following is NOT a naturally occurring 293. B 293. Reaction rate is increased most readily by:
emulsifier? a humidity
a. acacia b. high temperature
b. cholesterol c. freezing
c. gelatin d. photolysis
d. veegum e. hydrolysis
e. tragacanth
294. A 294. A primary disadvantage of ethylene glycol as a
286. C 286. The most prevalent commercial solid dosage forms solvent in oral preparation is its:
are: a. potential toxicity
a. hard capsules b. lack of solvent action
b. soft gelatin capsules c. very limited miscibility
c. tablets d. high cost
d. bulk powders e. high viscosity
e. divided powders
295. B 295. Glucose is NOT subject to hydrolysis because it is:
287. A 287. The purpose of sorbitol is formulation of soft gelatin a. a dissacharide
capsules is as a/an: b. a monosaccharide
a. plasticizer c. a polysaccharide
b. disintegrating agent d. insoluble
c. lubricant e. both B and C
d. thickener
296. C 296. Purified water USP may NOT be used in:
e. emulsifier
a. syrups
288. D 288. Pharmacists should caution patients whoare taking b. topical preparations
niacin that this drug: c. parenteral preparations
a. stains the urine bright red d. elixirs
b. causes ringing in the ears e. effervescent solutions
c. causes muscular weakness
297. B 297. Ferritin is a (a)
d. should be taken with meals
a. vitamin
289. E 289. Tetracyclines tend to form complexes with: b. micelle
a. calcium ions c. emulsion
b. magnesium ions d. amino acid
c. aluminum ions e. protein
d. iron ions
298. D 298. Gums are used in tabletting primarily as:
e. all of the above
a. disintegrators
290. B 290. Most drugs are: b. glidants
a. strong electrolytes c. lubricants
b. weak electrolytes d. binding agents
c. nonelectrolytes e. both B & C
d. highly ionic
299. D 299. Vanishing creams are classified as:
e. none of the above
a. oleaginous
291. C 291. A humectant retards b. absorption bases
a. bacterial growth c. water-soluble bases
b. degradation d. o/w
c. surface evaporation e. w/o
d. spreadability
300. A 300. Syrup NF is:
e. all of the above
a. self-preserving
292. A 292. Transdermal scopolamine is a drug used to prevent: b. a supersaturated solution
a. motion sickness c. a dilute solution
b. hypertension d. highly unstable
c. diabetes e. flavored and preserved
d. coronary insufficiency
e. rabies