Question Bank 2019 With Answers

STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE
CORPORATION BANK
QUESTION BANK FOR PROMOTION ASPIRANTS
2019-20
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Questionnaire on General Banking 2019 Promotion form I-II AND II-III
1. A Firm can be registered with
A) Registrar of firms B) ROC C) Civil court D) Municipal office
E) None of the above
2. In Public Ltd. Co. the minimum number of shareholders required is
A) 7 B) 2 C) 50
D) Unlimited E) None of the above
3. Regarding Public Ltd. Co. Which of the following is/are true?
A) It can issue shares to public

B) There is no restriction in the maximum number of shareholders
C) Shares can be freely transferred.
D) Minimum number of shareholders required is 7.
E) All the above
4. In a Private Ltd.Co. Minimum number of shareholder required… and maximum number of

shareholders can be…
A) 2-unlimited B) 2-100 C) 2-50
D) 2-200 E) None of the above
5. Regarding Public Ltd. Co Minimum number of directors required …..
A) 2 B) 3 C) 6 D) 7 E) None of the above
6. A Government company means in which not less than ...of the share capital is held by the
government.
A) 40 % B) 51% C) 50 % D) 60 % E) None of the above
7. The memorandum of association contains
A) Name and address of the registered office of the company
B) Name and addresses of the directors,
C) Objectives and powers of the company. Any act done or contract entered into by the
company
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D) All of the above

8. A joint stock company is constituted under company Act …
9. As per RBI directive all branches/ offices are advised to change all the forms, applications
etc., including account opening forms with the option of
A) Male/ Female/ Third Gender B) only Male C) only Female D) only Third Gender
10. What are the implied powers of a partner (trading & non-trading firms)
A. Engage servants. B. Give receipts
C. Sign or endorse cheques. D. Order out goods for the use of the firm
E. All the above
11. DIN number is a ______________ digit number
12. The Limited Liability Partnership Act 2008 has been notified with effect from….
A. 31 March 2010. B. 31 January 2009. C. 31 March 2009.

D. 31 January 2010 E. None of the above
13. Where the endorser does not want the endorsee or any subsequent holder, to incur any
expense on his account on the instrument, the endorsement is..
A) Sans Frais Endorsement B) Sans Recourse endorsement
C) Conditional endorsement D) Partial endorsement E) None of these
14. A minor may repudiate his liability as a partner within ……months of his attaining
majority. If, however, he does not do so, he is regarded as having ratified the agreement
or contract.
A. Six B. three C. one D. Twelve E. None of the above

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15. Which one of the following is not an essential feature of a cheque?
A. it is an instrument in writing
B. it is payable on demand
C. it is an unconditional undertaking
D. it is always drawn on a specified banker
E. None of the above
16. Which of the following is correct in case of a partnership firm?
A. Every partner has a right to take part in the conduct of the business
B. Every partner is bound to attend diligently to his duties in the conduct of the business
C. Any difference arising as to ordinary matters connected with the business may be
decided by a majority of the partners, and every partner shall have the right to express his
opinion before the matter is decided, but no change may be made in the nature of the
business without the consent of all the partners
D. Every partner has a right to have access to and to inspect and copy any of the books of
the firm
E. All of the above
17. Which of the following statement is true?

A. If the partners desire to give authority to a person who is not a partner to operate
on the account, all the partners must sign the Letter of Authority/Letter of Mandate.
B. Cheques payable to the firm should not be collected into the private account of any
of the partners or employees of the firm unless an authorization to the effect has been
obtained from all the other partners.
C. only A
D. Only B
E. Both A and B
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18. Subject to the contract between the partners, the property of the firm shall be held and
used by the partners exclusively for the purposes of the business, which section deals with
application of the property of the firm?
A. Section 35 B. Section15 C. Section 25 D. Section 5 E. None of the above
19. Dissolution of a partnership firm can happen under which of the following circumstances
A. When all the partners agree to dissolve it or if there is any previous agreement
between the partners to dissolve it, then in accordance with the terms of the agreement.
B. By the insolvency of all the partners or of all partners but one.
C. By the happening of any event which makes it unlawful for the business of the firm to
be carried on, or for the partners to carry it on, in partnership.
D. Dissolution by the Order of a Court.
E. All the above
20. What is the distinctive feature of a Company?
A) Separate legal entity
B) Liability of the members limited to the extent of shareholding
C) Company does not have a natural death D) Share of company is transferable
E) All the above
21. Which of the following is the Negotiable instrument recognized by usage or custom
A) Hundis B) Share warrants C) Dividend warrants D) All E) None
22. Which one of the following is a feature of a company?
A) Separate legal entity

B) Liability of the members limited to the extent of shareholding
C) Company is managed by board of directors
D) All
23. A promissory note cannot be made payable to the bearer, no matter whether it is payable
on demand or after a certain time as per provisions of which act?
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A. NI Act B. RBI Act C. Contract act D. Companies act E. None of the above
24. A person who is legally entitled to the possession of the negotiable instrument in his own
name and to receive the amount thereof, is called ____________.
A. Bearer B. Holder C. Payee D. Drawee e. None of the above
25. In the absence of any agreement to the contrary between partners, a partner cannot:
A. Open a banking account on behalf of the firm in his own name

B. Compromise or relinquish any claim or portion of a claim
C. Withdraw a suit or proceeding, filed by the firm.
D. Admit any liability in a suit or proceeding.
E. All the above
26. Which of the following is a characteristic of the negotiable instrument?
A) The possessor of the negotiable instrument is presumed to be the owner of the property
contained therein.
B) A bona fide transferee for value is not affected by any defect of title on the part of the
transferor
C) The transferee of the negotiable instrument can sue in his own name, in case of dishonor.
D) Presumption that consideration has been paid under it.
E) All the above
27. Section______________ of the Negotiable Instrument Act lay down certain presumptions
which the court presumes in regard to negotiable instruments.
A. 118 B.119 C.125 D.110 E. Both A and B
28. By the additional implied powers of a partner of a trading firm can

A. Endorse, sign, accept, draw etc., negotiable instruments.
B. Borrow money.
C. Pledge or sell movable property.
D. Do all the above
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29. One of the following is not a feature of Promissory Note
A. The instrument must be in writing
B. The instrument is unconditional
C. The maker must be certain and it should be signed by him
D. The promissory note must contain a direction to pay
30. The payee of a bill of exchange writes above his signature that in case of dishonor, he
may not be given notice of dishonor and would continue to be liable. The type of
endorsement made is called
A) Conditional endorsement B) Facultative endorsement

C) Sans Recourse endorsement D) Partial endorsement
E) None of these
31. Inactive company means a company which has not been carrying on any business or
operation, or has not made any significant accounting transaction during the last ..financial
years, or has not filed financial statements and annual returns during the last…..financial years
A) 2-2 B) 1-1 C) 3-3 D) 10-10 E) None of the above
32. Every Listed Company can appoint an individual auditor for____________years .
33. Apart from acceptance of deposits from public for the purpose of deployment of the same
by way of lending to public, bankers can do which of the following activity?
A) Selling bancassurance products B) undertaking Government business

C) Merchant banker D) All the above
34. In case of Roman Catholics and Parsis, the natural guardian is the father in the first
instance and after his death or incapacity, .................
A. The Mother B. The Grand Father C. Father`s father
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D. Executor appointed by the father’s will

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35. Which of the following banking facilities are offered to visually challenged persons
without any discrimination?
A) Cheque book B) ATM facility C) Retail loans

D) Lockers E) All the above
36. If a person dies, leaving behind a Will to be executed, the persons named in the Will to
manage the property are known as the ….
A) Administrator B) Trustee C) Executors.
D) Legal Heir E) None of the above
37. The person who promises to pay the amount stated in the Promissory note is called
__________.
A. Bearer B. Holder C. Payee D. Maker e. None of the above
38. A negotiable instrument can be transferred _____________ number of times till it is at

maturity.
A.10 B.20 C.30 D.100 E. Unlimited
39. About the affixing of thumb impression the legal provision is
A) female from affixing her left thumb impression,

B) the male from affixing her right thumb impression
C) The customer is free to put his/her left or right thumb impression on a
document.
D) All of the above
41. Beneficiaries of transactions conducted by, which of the following professional

intermediaries as permitted under the Law
A. Stock brokers B.Chartered Accountants C.Solicitors D.All
42. Bill of exchange defined under Section….. of the Act

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A) 5 B) 3 C) 4 D) 7 E) None
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43. When the relationship between a bank and a customer ceases?
A) The death, insolvency, lunacy of the customer.

B) Liquidation of the company
C) The closing of the account by the bank after giving due notice
D) Any of the above situations
44. Minimum paid up share capital in case of a private company is _______

A. 1 Lakh B. 2 Lakhs C. 3 Lakhs D. 4 Lakhs
45. The word Customer is defined in
A) KYC guidelines issued by RBI B) BCSBI

C) IBA D) Banking Regulation Act
46. The companies act 2013 has replaced companies Act ______________.
A) 1958 B) 1956 C)1960 D)1965 E)None of the above
47. Every Company must have a Director who stayed in India for a total period of
____________ days or more in previous calendar year.
A) 180 B) 182 C)270 D) 250 E) None of the above
48. Minimum paid up share capital in case of a public company is ________

49. The question as to who is to be regarded as a natural guardian of a minor is decided with
reference to the ……………………. to which the minor is subject.
A. Personal law B.CPC C .Hindu Succession Act D. Indian Majority Act E.None
50. A Joint Hindu Family also known as Hindu Undivided Family is a relationship arising out
of status of having been…… in a family
A) Taken B) Born C) Admitted D) Permitted

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51. . Consideration in the case of a Cheque is
A. Waived B. To be proved C. Immaterial D. Presumed
52. As per section …. A "cheque" is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not
expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand and it includes the electronic image of a
truncated cheque and a cheque in the electronic form.)
A) Section 6 B) Section 7 C) Section 4 D) Section 5 E) None
53. Which Clause specifies those activities company can pursue and those it cannot?
A) Liability clause B) Object clause

C) Name clause D) Association clause
54. Drawer of a cheque issued without balance in the account- shall be deemed to have
committed an offence and shall be punished with imprisonment under section..
55. Where a party entitled to a notice of dishonor is dead, and notice is given to him in
ignorance of his death, it is sufficient according to section ___________ of NI act
56. Under which Crossing Endorsee will not acquire a better title than that of the endorser
and cannot claim as a holder in due course?
A) General Crossing B) Special Crossing C) Account Payee Crossing
D) Not Negotiable Crossing E) None of the above
57. The corporate identity number (CIN) is a _______ digit number.
58. A bearer Negotiable instrument can be negotiated by
A. endorsement only B. transfer deed
C. endorsement and delivery D. delivery

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59. Minimum number of members in case of private company is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
E.None of the above
60. A visually impaired customer may be given the following options for operation of locker:
A) Operation – Singly B) Operation - Singly with the assistance of a reliable person
C) Operation – Jointly D) Not Permitted E) All A, B and C
61. As per the Indian Companies act 2013 Act, minimum number of partners can be... and
maximum..
A) 2-20 B) 2-15 C) 2-100 D) 2-100 E) None
62. Which clause mentions the place where the registered office is situated?
A) Domicile clause B) Name clause C) Association clause
D) Liability clause E) None of the above
63. As per Indian Contract Act, the absence of age of majority of …….years, sound mind and
insolvency incapacitates an agreement with such person and renders the contract as void
abinitio.
64. As per Sec.5 (b) of the ……………. “Banking' means accepting, for the purpose of
lending or investment, of deposits of money from the public repayable on demand or
otherwise and withdrawable by cheque, draft, order or otherwise."
A) RBI Act B) B R Act C) N I Act D) BOE Act
65. Every Listed Company /Public Company with paid up capital of Rs ….. Crores or more /
Public Company with turnover of Rs…… Crores or more shall have at least one Woman
Director
A) 100-300 B) 300-100 C) 200-600 D) 600-200E) None of the above
66. Particular partnership is “a person may become a partner with another person in
particular adventures or undertakings” which is defined under section…of the Act
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A. Section 38 B. Section 8 C. Section 25 D. Section 5 E. None of the above

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67. Under Section 138 drawer of a cheque issued without balance in the account- shall be
deemed to have committed an offence and shall be punished with imprisonment for a term
which may extend to __________ years and fine which may extend to twice the amount of
the cheque or with both Period.
68. Under which section Account Payee Crossing dealt in NI Act
69. Which of the following are the Rights of a Banker?
A) Right of General Lien B) Right of Set-Off

C) Right of Appropriation D) All are correct
70. A bill of exchange which is drawn on a specific bank and is not payable otherwise than on
demand, to bearer or to order, is called
A. inland bill of exchange

B. usance bill of exchange
C. accommodation bill
D. cheque
71. An order Negotiable instrument can be negotiated by
72. Promissory note defined under Section …..of the Act
A) 5 B) 3 C) 4 D) 7 E) None
73. A Proprietorship account is one which is opened in the name of a firm or concern
engaged in trade or business and run by an individual, known as…
A) Owner B) Entrepreneur C) Stake Holder
D) The Proprietor E) None of the above
74. Where the deceased has left no Will, while appointing an Administrator, the Court
issues..
A) A letter of authority B) A letter of settlement

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C) A letter of execution D) A letter of administration. E) None of the above

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76. As per companies Act small companies are the companies whose turn over does not
exceed_____________ crore.
77. In the case of Muslims, the persons entitled to be guardians of the property of a minor are,
in the below order of preference:
A) Father.
B) Executor appointed by the father’s will C) Father’s father
D) The order is incorrect E) The order is Correct
78. Every Listed Company can appoint a firm of auditors for……. Years
A. Bearer B. Holder C. Payee D. Drawee E. None of the above
80. In HUF on the death of a co-parcener intestate, his share will devolve on
A. His sons B. Wife
C. Daughters, mother and other relatives D. All
Questionnaire on General Banking 0-01 PPT
A. Bearer B. Holder C. Payee D. Drawee E. None of the above
2. In HUF on the death of a co-parcener intestate, his share will devolve on

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A. His sons B. Wife

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C. Daughters, mother and other relatives D. All

4. Negotiable Instruments are defined under:
A) Section 52 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949

B) Section 13 of the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881
C) Section 25 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
D) None of these
5. Which of the following is a characteristic of the negotiable instrument?
A) The possessor of the negotiable instrument is presumed to be the owner of the property
contained therein.
B) A bona fide transferee for value is not affected by any defect of title on the part of the
transferor
C) The transferee of the negotiable instrument can sue in his own name, in case of dishonor.
D) Presumption that consideration has been paid under it.
E) All the above
6. Section______________ of the Negotiable Instrument Act lay down certain presumptions

which the court presumes in regard to negotiable instruments.
A. 118 B.119 C.125 D.110 E. Both A and B
7. Section ______________ of NI ACT lays down that in a suit upon an instrument which
has been dishonoured, the court shall on proof of the protest, presume the fact of dishonour,
unless and until such fact is disproved.
A. 118 B.110 C.125 D.119 E. Both A and

maturity.
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10. When a promissory note or bill of exchange has been dishonored by non-acceptance or
non-payment, the holder may cause such dishonor to be noted by a notary public upon the
instrument or upon a paper attached thereto or partly upon each under section..
A) Sec. 99 B) Sec. 89 C) Sec. 109 D) Sec.129 E) None of the above
11. Which one of the following is not an essential feature of a cheque?
A. it is an instrument in writing
B. it is payable on demand
C. it is an unconditional undertaking
D. it is always drawn on a specified banker
12. One of the following is not a feature of Promissory Note
A. The instrument must be in writing
B. The instrument is unconditional
C. The maker must be certain and it should be signed by him
D. The promissory note must contain a direction to pay
13. A bill of exchange which is drawn on a specific bank and is not payable otherwise than
on demand, to bearer or to order, is called

D. cheque
14. Which of the following instrument has three parties’ i.e. drawer, payee and drawee, to the
instrument?
A. Bill of exchange and cheque
B. Bill of exchange and promissory note
C. Promissory note and cheque
D. Promissory note and demand draft
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16. According to which section Presumption accorded to the bank’s slip or memo disclosing
the fact of dishonor of cheque for want of sufficient funds, until such fact is disproved?
17. Section … of the Act lays down the contents of a regular and perfect protest
18. When a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque is dishonored by non-acceptance or

non-payment the holder must give notice of dishonor to all the parties to the instrument
whom he seeks to make liable thereon under section …
19. Which section of NI act Provides for serving of summons even by speed post or courier
service as approved by a court of session.
__________.

21. Which section of NI act deals of Liability of indorser?
A) Section 55 B) Section 53 C) Section 135 D) Section 125
22. The payee of a bill of exchange writes above his signature that in case of dishonor, he may not be
given notice of dishonor and would continue to be liable. The type of endorsement made is called
A) Conditional endorsement B) Facultative endorsement

C) Sans Recourse endorsement D) Partial endorsement E) none of these
23. According to section ….. of the Act, ‘when a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque is
transferred to any person so as to constitute that person the holder thereof, the instrument is said to be
negotiated.’

24. As per Section …. A promissory note, a cheque or a bill of exchange payable to order can be
negotiated only be endorsement and delivery. Unless the holder signs his endorsement on the
instrument and delivers it, the transferee does not become a holder. If there are more payees than one,
all must endorse it.

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25. Where the endorser does not want the endorsee or any subsequent holder, to incur any expense on
his account on the instrument, the endorsement is..
A) Sans Frais Endorsement B) Sans Recourse endorsement
C) Conditional endorsement D) Partial endorsement E) None of these
26. Restrictive endorsement under section....is one which either by express words restricts or prohibits
the further negotiation of a bill or which expresses that it is not a complete and unconditional transfer
of the instrument.
A) 47 B) 48 C) 50 D) 56 E) None
27. Which section of the Act provides that no person in possession of an instrument with a defect of
title can claim the amount of the instrument unless he is a holder in due course?
A) 85 B) 131 C) 13 D) 58 E) None
28. Instrument without consideration: dealt in the sections ……of the Negotiable Instrument Act deal
with the consequences of failure or absence of consideration in negotiable instruments.
A) 43-45 B) 40-42 C) 46-48 D) 49-51 E) None of these
29. Bankers are specially protected against forged endorsement under section __________ of
NI ACT.
A) 85 B) 131 C) 13 D) 58 E) None
30. Which section of NI act gives a right to sue on the instrument in his own name against all
the other parties ?
A) 85 B) 50 C) 13 D) 58 E) None
31. Which section defines deals with Holder in due course?
A) 8 B) 9 C) 13 D) 14 E) 18
32. Which section gives Rights to holder in due course to recover money is not at all affected
even though the instrument was originally an inchoate stamped instrument and the transferor
completed the instrument for a sum greater than what was intended by the maker.
A) Section 20 B) section 30 C) section 40 D) section 60 E) None of these
33. Under which section collecting Banker gets Valuable protection if he collects a crossed
cheque, not liable to the true owner for conversion, even though his customer’s title to the
cheque proves defective?
34. According to section __________ of NI act a bill after being accepted has got to be
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presented for payment on the date of its maturity.

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35. Under which section Not Negotiable Crossing dealt in NI Act
37. Protection for paying banker available under section…. if he pays a bearer cheque to the
bearer thereof, notwithstanding any endorsement in blank or in full therein.
A) 85 B) 85(1) C) 86 D) 87 E) None of the above
38. Which section defines deals with Holder?
A) 8 B) 9 C) 13 D) 14 E) 18
39. Which section deals with the protection to the paying banker in case of a crossed
cheques?
40. According to which section of NI act the acceptor is liable on the bill to a holder in due
course where both drawer and payee of a bill are fictitious persons.
41. Inactive company means a company which has not been carrying on any business or
operation, or has not made any significant accounting transaction during the last ..financial
years, or has not filed financial statements and annual returns during the last…..financial years
A) 2-2 B) 1-1 C) 3-3 D) 10-10 E) None of the above
42. Every Listed Company can appoint an individual auditor for____________years .
43. Apart from acceptance of deposits from public for the purpose of deployment of the same
by way of lending to public, bankers can do which of the following activity?
B) Selling bancassurance products B) undertaking Government business

C) Merchant banker D) All the above
44. In case of Roman Catholics and Parsis, the natural guardian is the father in the first
instance and after his death or incapacity, .................
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A. The Mother B. The Grand Father C. Father`s father

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D. Executor appointed by the father’s will

45. Which of the following banking facilities are offered to visually challenged persons
without any discrimination?
A) Cheque book B) ATM facility C) Retail loans

D) Lockers E) All the above
46. If a person dies, leaving behind a Will to be executed, the persons named in the Will to
manage the property are known as the ….
A) Administrator B) Trustee C) Executors.
D) Legal Heir E) None of the above
__________.

maturity.
49. About the affixing of thumb impression the legal provision is
D) female from affixing her left thumb impression,

E) the male from affixing her right thumb impression
F) The customer is free to put his/her left or right thumb impression on a
document.
D) All of the above
51. Beneficiaries of transactions conducted by, which of the following professional

intermediaries as permitted under the Law
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B. Stock brokers B.Chartered Accountants C.Solicitors D.All

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52. Bill of exchange defined under Section….. of the Act
A) 5 B) 3 C) 4 D) 7 E) None
53. When the relationship between a bank and a customer ceases?
A) The death, insolvency, lunacy of the customer.

B) Liquidation of the company
C) The closing of the account by the bank after giving due notice
D) Any of the above situations
54. Minimum paid up share capital in case of a private company is _______

55. The word Customer is defined in
A) KYC guidelines issued by RBI B) BCSBI

C) IBA D) Banking Regulation Act
56. The companies act 2013 has replaced companies Act ______________.
57. Every Company must have a Director who stayed in India for a total period of
____________ days or more in previous calendar year.
58. Minimum paid up share capital in case of a public company is ________

59. The question as to who is to be regarded as a natural guardian of a minor is decided with
reference to the ……………………. to which the minor is subject.
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A. Personal law B.CPC C .Hindu Succession Act D. Indian Majority Act E.None
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60. A Joint Hindu Family also known as Hindu Undivided Family is a relationship arising out
of status of having been…… in a family
A) Taken B) Born C) Admitted D) Permitted

61. . Consideration in the case of a Cheque is
62. As per section …. A "cheque" is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not
expressed to be payable otherwise than on demand and it includes the electronic image of a
truncated cheque and a cheque in the electronic form.)
63. Which Clause specifies those activities company can pursue and those it cannot?
A) Liability clause B) Object clause

C) Name clause D) Association clause
64. Drawer of a cheque issued without balance in the account- shall be deemed to have
committed an offence and shall be punished with imprisonment under section..
65. Where a party entitled to a notice of dishonor is dead, and notice is given to him in
ignorance of his death, it is sufficient according to section ___________ of NI act
66. Under which Crossing Endorsee will not acquire a better title than that of the endorser
and cannot claim as a holder in due course?
A) General Crossing B) Special Crossing C) Account Payee Crossing
D) Not Negotiable Crossing E) None of the above

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67. The corporate identity number (CIN) is a _______ digit number.
68. A bearer Negotiable instrument can be negotiated by
69. Minimum number of members in case of private company is

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5
E.None of the above
70. A visually impaired customer may be given the following options for operation of locker:
A) Operation – Singly B) Operation - Singly with the assistance of a reliable person
C) Operation – Jointly D) Not Permitted E) All A, B and C
71. As per the Indian Companies act 2013 Act, minimum number of partners can be... and
maximum..
A) 2-20 B) 2-15 C) 2-100 D) 2-100 E) None
72. Which clause mentions the place where the registered office is situated?
A) Domicile clause B) Name clause C) Association clause
D) Liability clause E) None of the above
73. As per Indian Contract Act, the absence of age of majority of …….years, sound mind and
insolvency incapacitates an agreement with such person and renders the contract as void
abinitio.
74. As per Sec.5 (b) of the ……………. “Banking' means accepting, for the purpose of
lending or investment, of deposits of money from the public repayable on demand or
otherwise and withdrawable by cheque, draft, order or otherwise."
A) RBI Act B) B R Act C) N I Act D) BOE Act

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75. Every Listed Company /Public Company with paid up capital of Rs ….. Crores or more /
Public Company with turnover of Rs…… Crores or more shall have at least one Woman
Director
A) 100-300 B) 300-100 C) 200-600 D) 600-200E) None of the above
76. Particular partnership is “a person may become a partner with another person in
particular adventures or undertakings” which is defined under section…of the Act
A. Section 38 B. Section 8 C. Section 25 D. Section 5 E. None of the above
79. Which of the following are the Rights of a Banker?
A) Right of General Lien B) Right of Set-Off

C) Right of Appropriation D) All are correct
80. A bill of exchange which is drawn on a specific bank and is not payable otherwise than on
demand, to bearer or to order, is called

D. cheque
81. An order Negotiable instrument can be negotiated by

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82. Promissory note defined under Section …..of the Act

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A) 5 B) 3 C) 4 D) 7 E) None
83. A Proprietorship account is one which is opened in the name of a firm or concern
engaged in trade or business and run by an individual, known as…
A) Owner B) Entrepreneur C) Stake Holder
D) The Proprietor E) None of the above
84. Where the deceased has left no Will, while appointing an Administrator, the Court
issues..
A) A letter of authority B) A letter of settlement
C) A letter of execution D) A letter of administration.
86. As per companies Act small companies are the companies whose turn over does not
exceed_____________ crore.
87. In the case of Muslims, the persons entitled to be guardians of the property of a minor are,
in the below order of preference:
A) Father.
B) Executor appointed by the father’s will C) Father’s father
D) The order is incorrect E) The order is Correct
88. Every Listed Company can appoint a firm of auditors for……. Years

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89. An instrument is also dishonored by non-payment when presentment for payment is
excused and the instrument when overdue remains unpaid under section…
A) Sec 76 B) Sec 77 C) Sec 78 D) Sec 75 E) None of the above
90. Consideration in the case of a Cheque is
HRM & Staff Service Comditions

01. Maximum accumulation of Privilege Leave permitted at any point of time is
a) 180 days b) 270 days c) 240 days d) 365 days
02. Application for Privilege Leave shall be submitted to Sanctioning Authority in

_____________.
a) Duplicate b) Triplicate c) Only through HRMS d) All the above
03. As per leave rules, CL can be availed in combination with the following kind of leave
a) Unavailed Casual Leave b) UCL & Sick Leave
c) UCL, PL & Sick leave d) Cannot be availed in combination with any

other kind of leave
04. To be eligible for getting Officiating Allowance, an Officer/Manager should officiate in a

higher post for a minimum period of ________ days continuously or aggregate in a calendar
month.
a) 7 days b) 10 days c) 5 days d) No such restrictions
05. Professional Qualification Allowance in lieu of additional increments is granted on reaching

maximum in the pay scale for completing ____________
a) Graduation b) JAIIB/CAIIB
c) Professional Course d) None of the above
06. As per Promotion Policy, maximum number of marks an officer can get for Educational
qualification in the promotion process is _______________
25
a) 50 b) 20 c) 100 d) 10
Page
07. “Family” for the purpose of Leave Fare Concession includes:
a) Spouse b) Wholly dependant parents
c) Wholly dependent unmarried children d) All the above
08. In case of Officers in Scale I, II & III, Medical expenses may be reimbursed on declaration to
the extent of Rs.___________ per annum.
a) Rs.5,000/- b) Rs.8,000/- c) Rs.15,000/- d)

Rs.3,600/-
09. Hospitalisation expenses will be reimbursed to the extent of ______ for self and
dependents.
a) 2 Lakhs b) 3 lakhs c) 4 lakhs d) 5 lakhs
10. As per Corporation Bank Officers’ (Discipline & Appeal) Regulations, the minimum and
maximum punishment that can be awarded as Minor Penalty or major penalty are:
a) Warning & Dismissal b) Censure & Dismissal
c) Censure & Compulsory Retirement d) Withholding Promotion.

11. An Officer shall contribute to the Staff Provident Fund a minimum of ______% of his pay.
a) No limit b) 8.33% c) 8.50% d)

10.00%
12. “Pay” for the purpose of Provident Fund means:
a) Basic Pay b) Officiating Allowance c) PQA & increment component of FPA d) All the
above
13. An Officer becomes eligible for receiving Gratuity on:
a) Completion of 10 years service b) completion of 5 years service
c) Completion of 20 years d) Whenever he leaves the Bank
14. An Officer who has opted for Pension is eligible to receive Pension if he retires after
completion of a minimum period of ____________.
a) 10 years b) 15 years c) No minimum service required d) None of the
above.
15. Reimbursement of expenses incurred on purchase of brief case is permitted once in

_________ years.
26
a) 2 years b) 3 years c) 4 years d) Every year.

Page
16. Documents that should be executed for availing Festival Advance are _________.
a) DPN & Take Delivery Letter b) Undertaking Letter
c) Only application through HRMS d) All the above
17. After availing ECOD by an Officer, maximum Employees’ Demand Loan permitted is
_______________.
a) 3 times of Gross Salary b) 6 times Gross Salary
c) 3 times of Basic Pay d) EDL not available.
18. Under Staff Welfare Scheme, scholarship for meritorious children of employees is available
from ______________ onwards.
a) Lower Kindergarten b) 1st Standard
c) 5th Standard d) Graduation
19. Medical Check up facility is available to the employees and their spouse on completion of a
minimum age of ___________ years.
a) 35 years b) 40 years c) 25 years d) On

completion of Probation.
20. For honouring the employees on completing 25 years of unblemished service in the Bank,
the cost of memento permissible from 1.11.2009 is Rs.__________.
27
a) Rs.2,500/- b) Rs.3,750/- c) Rs.10,000/- d)

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Rs.5,000/-
21. Under Corporation Bank Employees’ Voluntary Contribution Scheme for Death Relief”, the
contribution from Officers for death of a member of the Scheme is ____________.
a) Rs.15/- b) Rs.5/- c) Rs.4/- d)

Rs.3/-
22. The aggregate monetary ceiling on the cost of Bank’s furniture for Officers in Scale II and III
is ______________
a) Rs.65,000 b) Rs.1,00,000 c) Rs.80,000 d)

Rs.90,000
23. Over and above the eligibility of mediclaim hospitalization expenses under OSR, additional
claim is permissible under corporate buffer scheme upto the maximum of Rs.____________
per annum.
a) Rs.25,000 b) Rs.1,00,000/- c) Rs.1,50,000/- d) No

maximum limit
24. Savings linked Insurance Scheme (SLIS) is available to the employees until _______________
a) It is revoked b) Superannuation
c) Maturity Date fixed by Employee d) 10 years service
25. Holiday home facility can be availed by an employee for the purpose of _______
a) Official Purpose b) Rest & Recuperation
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above.

28
Page
26. Increments for educational qualifications for SWO on qualifying JAIIB is
a) 1 in the scale b) 2 in the scale
c) 3 in the scale d) 4 in the scale
27. Increments for educational qualifications for SWO on qualifying CAIIB is
a) 1 in the scale b) 2 in the scale
c) 3 in the scale d) 4 in the scale
28. Special pay for clerical staff for the post of special assistant is Rs.
a) 820/- b) 1280/-
c) 1930/- d) 2040/-
29. Duties of Single window operator “B” includes passing independently clearing & transfer
cheques, vouchers, etc. upto Rs.
a) 10,000/- b) 20,000/-
c) 25,000/- d) 30,000/-
30. Duties of Special Assistant includes passing independently clearing & transfer cheques,
vouchers, etc. upto Rs.
a) 1,00,000/- b) 50,000/-
c) 2,00,000/- d) 1,50,000/-
31. Halting allowance for the clerical staff at places with population of 12 lakhs & above is Rs.
a) 500/- per diem b) 700/- per diem
c) 600/- per diem d) 800/- per diem
32. Privilege leave is earned @ of one day for every _________ days of active service
a) 10 days b) 12 days
29
c) 13 days d) 11 days
Page
33. Male employees with less than 2 surviving children shall be eligible for _______ days of
paternity leave
a) 15 days b) 10 days
c) 20 days d) 12 days
34. For family planning special casual leave is granted of _____ days for male employees
undergoing sterilization & _____ days for female employees who undergo tubectomy operation.
a) 5 & 10 b) 6 & 14
c) 7 & 12 d) 10 & 20
35. As per medical scheme for the officers/employees of IBA member banks hospitalization and
domiciliary treatment coverage for clerical staff per anum is of Rs…
a) 3,00,000/- b) 2,50,000/-
c) 2,00,000/- d) 4,00,000/-
36. Indulging in any act of ‘sexual harassment’ of any woman at her workplace will result in
a) Disciplinary action b) Gross misconduct
c) Minor misconduct d) Explanation
37. The weightage for Marks for merit/ Performance of the officer through Appraisal for both
Senior & Merit/Fast Track Channel are
a) 10 b) 20
c) 30 d) 40
38. Out of the weightage 10 Marks for educational/Professional Qualification for both Senior
& Merit/Fast Track Channel, marks awarded for MBA/CA/ICWA/ACS or such other equivalent
qualifications relevant to the banking operations as may be approved from time to time by the
Board of Directors are ….
a) 01 b) 03
30
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c) 02 d) 04
39. An Asst. Manager directly appointed to the Junior Management Grade shall be on probation
for a period of……….
a) six months b) two years
c) twelve months c) three years
& Merit/Fast Track Channel, marks awarded for CAIIB Part II /CAIIB
a) 01 b) 03
c) 02 d) 04
41. The weightage for Marks for Educational/Professional Qualification of the officer through
Appraisal for both Senior & Merit/Fast Track Channel are
a) 40 b) 10
c) 30 d) 20
42. If in the opinion of the Competent Authority an officer has not satisfactorily completed the
training the officer’s probation may be extended by further period not exceeding ………….
a) Two years c) six months
c) Three years d) one year
43. Out of the weightage 10 Marks for educational/Professional Qualification for both Senior &
Merit/Fast Track Channel, marks awarded for Post Graduation/Double Graduation
a)01 b)03 c) 02 d)04
& Merit/Fast Track Channel, marks awarded for Graduation
a)01 b)03 c) 02 d)04

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Page
45. In order to arrive at a decision as to whether the probationary officer has completed the
period of probation satisfactorily or not, the opinion from respective Reporting Officers is obtained
on a.
a) half yearly basis b) yearly basis c) quarterly basis d) at the end of

probationary period
46. The weightage for Marks for Online test / written test of the officer through Appraisal for
both Senior & Merit/Fast Track Channel are
a)40 b)10 c)30 d)20
47. Out of the weightage 10 Marks for educational/Professional Qualification for both Senior &
Merit/Fast Track Channel, marks awarded for CAIIB Part I / JAIIB
a)01 b)03 c) 02 d)04
48. Where during the period of probation, including the period of extension, if any, the
Competent Authority is of the opinion that the Assistant manager/officers is not fit for confirmation,
his services may be terminated……………….
a) By three months’ notice or payment of one month’s emoluments in lieu thereof
b) By one month’s notice or payment of one month’s emoluments in lieu thereof
c) No need of any notice may be terminated at any time
d) Services cannot be terminated
49. Bank may terminate the service of the officer on giving him three months’
notice/emoluments in lieu thereof in deserving cases, the decision to terminate the services of the
officer will be taken by the……
a) ED b) MD&CEO c)GM,PAD d)By a committee
50. Promotions from Junior Management Grade/Scale-I to Middle Management Grade /Scale II
shall be through Normal/Seniority Channel and Merit/Fast Track Channel. Minimum Experience
requirement in Normal/Seniority Channel…….. and Merit/Fast Track………. ( in years)
32
a)3-5 b)5-3 c)2-4 d)4-2

Page
51. Promotions from Junior Management Grade/Scale-I to Middle Management Grade /Scale II
,the number of vacancies shall be apportioned in the ratio of…….and………..under
Normal/Seniority Channel and Merit/Fast Track Channel respectively.
A] 25% and 75% B] 50% and 50%C] 75% and 25% D] 60% and 40%
52. An Officer, coming under Normal/Seniority Channel should secure a minimum of……for
general and …. in case of SC/ST candidates, average marks in the self-appraisal/ APAR for the
minimum years of experience.
A] 75 %--25 % B] 50%-45% C] 60%-50% D] 40 %--35 %
53. An Officer, coming under Merit/Fast Track Channel should secure minimum ……. marks in
APAR for each of the years of service required for eligibility for participating in promotion process.
A] 75 % B] 60% C]40% D]40%
59. In the common on line test/written test, an Officer coming under Normal/Seniority Channel
should secure a minimum of……for general and …. in case of SC/ST candidates.
A] 40-35 B] 60-55 C] 65-60 D]50-45
60. In the common on line test/written test, an Officer coming under Merit/Fast Track
Channel should secure a minimum of……for general and …. in case of SC/ST candidates.
A] 55-50 B] 60-55 C] 65-60 D]50-45
61. Where an officer is not provided any residential accommodation by the bank and his Place of
Posting is Major A class Cities and Project Area Centres in Group A at ………………. rate he is eligible
for HRA.
A] 9.00% of Basic Pay B] 9.25% of Basic Pay
C] 9.50% of Basic Pay D] 10.00% of Basic Pay
Posting is Others places in area I and Project area Centres in Group B at ……… rate he is eligible
for HRA.
33

Page

posting is others places ………rate he is eligible for HRA
64. Where an officer is provided with residential accommodation by the bank, a sum equal
to……... of the first stage of the scale or pay in which the officer is placed or the standard rent for the
accommodation, whichever is less, will be recovered from him.
A] 0.75% B] 1.00% C] 1.20% D] 1.50%
65. The officers who are presently covered under the Bank Employees‟ Pension Regulations, 1995/96
shall continue to contribute 10% of the Pay towards Provident Fund and there shall be……….
matching contribution.
A] 10 % B] 20% C] No D]15%
66. The weightage for Marks for Interview of the officer through Appraisal for both Senior &
Merit/Fast Track Channel are
A] 20 B] 40 C] 30 D]10
67. To receive an officiating allowance of an amount equal to 6% of his pay, an officer is

required to officiate in a post in a higher scale for a continuous period of not less than…… days at a
time or a total of …… days during a calendar month for the period for which he officiates.
A] 7-7 B] 5-5 C] 6-6 D] 8-8
68. An officer deputed to serve outside the Bank, deputation Allowance shall be at the following rate
A] 4.00% of Pay with a maximum of 4000/ - p.m.
B] 5.00% of Pay with a maximum of 4000/ - p.m.
C] 7.75% of Pay with a maximum of 7750/ - p.m.

34
D] 7.75% of Pay with a maximum of 4000/ - p.m.

Page
69. Halting allowance for Officers in Scale I/II/III in Major A Class Cities is
A ]800 B]950 C]1100 D]1300
70. Halting allowance for Officers in Scale I/II/III in Other Places is
A]800 B]950 C]1100 D]1300
71. Halting allowance for Officers in Scale I/II/III in Area I Cities is
A] 1300 B]1100 C]800 D]950
72. As per Transfers policy all Officers in Scale I, II and III the ‘term’ means……… in a centre,
except in the case of posting to Branches/Offices in North-Eastern States
A]2 years B] 3 years C]5 years D]4 years
73. If the distance between the places of present work and posting is less than 1000 kms………….
time from the date of receipt of transfer intimation will be given to Officers in Scale-I and in respect
of Scale-II and Scale III, otherwise ……..time from the date of transfer intimation will be given for the
purpose of relieving.
A]15 days-30 days B]15 days- 15 days
C] 30 days---15 days D]30 days-30 days
74. Officers have to undergo ………… of service in rural areas for promotion from JMG Scale – I to
MMG Scale – II and………….. in rural / Semi-Urban areas (including the mandatory rural service in
JMG Scale – I) for promotion from MMG Scale – II to MMG Scale – III.
A] 2 years-2 years B] 2 years-3 years C] 3 years-3 years D] 3 years-2 years
75. As per leave rules, CL cannot be taken more than…….. days at a time
A] 4 B]3 C]2 D]1
76. An officer may avail UCL of not exceeding………. days on ground of sickness without
production of medical certificate and the number of occasions of availment of UCL without
35
production of Medical Certificate does not exceed ………times in a calendar year.

Page
A] 2-2 B ] 4-4 C]1-1 D]3-3

77. An office is eligible for sick leave at the rate of……… for each completed year of service
subject to maximum of ……….. during the entire service.
A] 15 days-540 days B] 30 days-540 days C] 30 days-270 days D] 15 days-

270 days
78. An officer who have put in ……years of service, will be eligible sick leave over and above 540
days, at the rate of 30 days for each year of service (maximum 90 days).
A] 24 B] 25 C] 20 D] 30
79. Eligibility to stay for scale II & III Maximum Room Tariff (Tax extra) in Area –I is Rs.
A] 800 B] 1200 C] 1600 D]2400
80. Eligibility to stay for scale I Maximum Room Tariff (Tax extra) in other places is Rs.
A] 2400 B] 1600 C]1200 D]800
81. An officer may be permitted to surrender and encash his LFC Block of anywhere in India at the
rate of ……of the eligible fare for the class of travel by train up to distance of 4500 kms (one way).
A] 75% B] 100 % C]50 % D]90 %
82. Male officer employees with less than two surviving children shall be eligible for 15 days
Paternity leave , The leave shall be applied up to ……before or up to ……… from the date of delivery of
the child.
A] 30 days-6 months B] 20 days-3 months C] 15 days--6 months D ]15 days-3

months
83. Encashment of Privilege Leave shall be restricted up to a maximum of ……. days.
A] 270 B] 240 C]300 D]330
84. An officer Scale-I, II, & III shall be eligible for reimbursement of medical expenses actually
36
by him in respect of ,himself and his dependent family members on declaration basis.
Page
A] 8000/- p.a B] 9050/- p.a. C] 8050/- p.a. D] 9000/- p.a.

85. The bank will reimburse the entertainment expenses incurred by the officer for entertaining
the customers of the Bank/Branch, officers in Scale – I Rs………….. per annum. It can be availed on
monthly basis as Rs.583/- per month. 50 % of the amount can be availed without bills and 50 % with
bills.
A] 7000/- B]8000/- C]9050/- D]10500/-
86. An officer confirmed in service Above 5 years but less than 10 years, for all need based
purposes can avail Employee Clean Overdraft Facility up to
A] 5.00 lakhs B] 1.50 lakhs C] 3.50 lakhs D]0.50 lakh
87. An officer confirmed in service above 10 years, for all need based purposes can avail
Employee Clean Overdraft Facility up to
A] 7.50 lakhs B] 1.50 lakhs C] 3.50 lakhs D]6.00 lakh
88. Scholarship to meritorious children of employees for class I to X std – Rs. per year
A] 2500/- B]3500/- C]4500/- D]5000/-
89. Scholarship to meritorious children of employees for class Graduation & PG Rs. per year
A] 2500/- B]3500/- C]4500/- D]5000/-
90. All officers in scale – I are eligible for reimbursement of expenses incurred on purchase of
brief case once in………… years subject to maximum of Rs.1500/-.
A]2 B] 3 C]4 D]5
91. Rental Ceiling for accommodation for Branch Heads in MMGS-II and Branch Heads in
MMGS-III in category of Centre with population 10 lac and above is Rs…….
A]7200 B]11050 C]13000 D]10400
92. Rental Ceiling for accommodation for Branch Heads in Scale-I/Managers in scale-II/Senior
37
Managers in scale-III(Other than B.H) in category Centre with population 10 lac and above is Rs…
Page
A] 10400 B]7200 C]11050 D]9750

93. Rental Ceiling for accommodation for Branch Heads in MMGS-II and Branch Heads in
MMGS-III in category of Centre with Centre with population above 1lakh and below 10 lakh and all
the branches/ offices of Goa except Panjim
A] 5500 B]5750 C]6050 D]7200
94. Rental Ceiling for accommodation for Branch Heads in Scale-I/Managers in scale-II/Senior
Managers in scale-III(Other than B.H) in category Centre with population above 1lakh and below 10
lakh and all the branches/ offices of Goa except Panjim
A] 5500 B] 5750 C]6050 D]7200
95. Rental Ceiling for accommodation for Assistant Managers/Sub managers/Deputy Managers
belonging to JMGS/Scale-I in category Major A class cities, Delhi, Mumbai
A] 15000 B] 13650 C] 11300 D]9750
96. Rental Ceiling for accommodation for Assistant Managers/Sub managers/Deputy Managers
belonging to JMGS/Scale-I in category other major A class cities viz. Hyderabad, chennai,
Ahemadabad, Bangalore & Kolkata
A] 15000 B] 13650 C]9750 D]11300
98. All officers including probationary officers are eligible to avail the furniture facility with
monetary ceiling of Rs………………for scale I officer.
A] 75,000/- B] 60,000/- C]100000 D] 80,000/-
99. Deduction of furniture rent as per OSR irrespective of whether the officer has taken all or a
few of the furniture items at …… of first stage of Basic Pay.
A] 0.25% B] 0.50% C] 0.75% D] 1.00%
100. Under Employee Hire Purchase Loan the maximum amount of loan that may be granted for
purchasing a motorcar /Maruti van / jeep shall be………….. of the cost of the motorcar/Maruti
38
van/jeep or Rs………………. whichever is less.

Page
A] 90 %-7,00,000 B]75 %-7,00,000 C] 80%--7,00,000 D]90%- 10,00,000

101. Scholarship to meritorious children of employees for Graduation & PG – Rs…… per year
A] 4000/- B] 6000/- C] 5000/- D] 7500/-
102. Scholarship to meritorious children of employees for Professional Qualification Rs…… per
year
A] 4000/- B] 6000/- C] 5000/- D] 7500/-
103. Incentives for the children of employees for excellence in education For securing 1 st 3 places
in SSLC with minimum 80% mark–Rs……
A] Rs.6000/- B] Rs.5000/- C] Rs.7500/- D] Rs.4000/-
104. Incentives for the children of employees for excellence in education for securing 1st 3 places in
12 std, graduation and post-graduation – Rs…….
A] Rs.5000/- B] Rs.6000/- C] Rs.7500/- D] Rs.4000/-
105. Medical Check-up for employees and spouse above 30 years but up to 35 years – Once in
A] a1 year B] 3 years C] 2years D] 5 years
106. Medical Check-up for employees and spouse above 35 years – Once in a
A] 3 years B] 5 years C] 2 years D] 1 year
107. Holiday homes are provided are eligible to avail ………in a financial year not more than…. per
occasion
A] 8 days-4 days B] 8 days-2 days C] 6 days-3 days D] 6 days-2 days
108. Holiday homes are provided at different places enabling employees to relax take rest and
recuperate while they are on LFC/Leave on payment of Rs…per person per day booking through
39
HRMS.
Page
A]100 B]200 C] 50 D]200

109. Under Motivational Schemes for Self Development prescribed academic qualifications like
JAIIB, CAIIB and other examinations conducting by IIBF, MBA from IGNOU are eligible for
reimbursements of examination/course fees. Maximum Rs……….during the entire period of service.
A] 80,000/- B] 1,00,000/- C] 50.000/- D] 75,000/-
110. An officer serving in places in Area I and in the state of Goa, city compensatory allowance at
….% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs……/- per month is eligible
A] 4 –870 B] 3-870 C] 2-870 D] 4-1000
111. An officer serving in places with population of 5 lakh and over and state capitals and
Chandigarh, Pondicherry and Port Blair, city compensatory allowance at ….% of basic pay subject to
a maximum of Rs……/- per month is eligible
A] 4 –870 B] 3-870 C] 3-600 D] 4-1000
112. For an officer who is working in a place with an altitude of 3000 metres and above he is
eligible …..% of pay subject to a maximum of Rs……p.m.
A] 10-2000 B] 15-2000 C] 5-2000 D] 10-1000
113. Officers who reach the maximum of the middle management grade scales II and III shall
draw stagnation increment/s for every…….completed years of service after reaching the last stage of
the scale II or scale III.
A] 3 B] 2 C]4 D]5
114. For the officers who reaches maximum in the pay scale, the professional qualification pay in
lieu of additional increment in consideration of passing both parts CAIIB/JAIIB will receive …./- p.m.
on after 2 years of reaching top of the scale.
A] 670 B] 770 C] 1680 D] 1780
115. For the officers who reaches maximum in the pay scale, the professional qualification pay in
lieu of additional increment in consideration of passing both parts CAIIB/JAIIB will receive …./- p.m.
on after one year of reaching top of the scale
40
Page
A] 770 B] 670 C] 1780 D]1680

116. An employee of the bank promoted as an officer in the Junior Management Grade shall be
on probation for ….
A] six months B] one year C] two years D] No probation period as it is internal

promotion
117. The norms prescribed for categorization of branches wef from 01.04.2017 the Small
category branch business criteria of average during the last two financial years.
A] Aggregate deposits and advances below Rs.10 crores
B] Aggregate deposits and advances below Rs.15 crores
C] Aggregate deposits and advances below Rs.20 crores
D] Aggregate deposits and advances below Rs.25 crores
118. The norms prescribed for categorization of branches wef from 01.04.2017 the Medium
category branch business criteria of average during the last two financial years
A] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.10 crores and above but below Rs.20 crores
B] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.10 crores and above but below Rs.40 crores
C] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.10 crores and above but below Rs.30 crores
D] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.10 crores and above but below Rs.25crores
119. The norms prescribed for categorization of branches wef from 01.04.2017 the Large
A] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.40 crores and above but below Rs.100 crores with
a minimum of Rs.10 crores to below Rs.12 crores as average advances
B] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.40 crores and above but below Rs.100 crores with
a minimum of Rs.10 crores to below Rs.20 crores as average advances
with a minimum of Rs.10 crores to below Rs.25 crores as average advances.
D] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.40 crores and above but below Rs.100 crores with
41
a minimum of Rs.10 crores to below Rs.15 crores as average advances.

Page
120. The norms prescribed for categorization of branches wef from 01.04.2017 the Very Large
A] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.100 crores and above but below Rs.275 crores
B] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.100 crores and above but below Rs.275 crores
D] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.100 crores and above but below Rs.275 crores
121. The norms prescribed for categorization of branches wef from 01.04.2017 the Exceptionally
Large category branch business criteria of average during the last two financial years
A] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.275 crores and above with a minimum Rs.75
crores as average advances
B] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.275 crores and above with a minimum Rs.100
C] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.275 crores and above with a minimum Rs.150
D] Aggregate deposits and advances of Rs.275 crores and above with a minimum Rs.125
crores as average advances.
122. An officer directly appointed to junior management grade will be on probation for two
years, the period may be extended by a further period not exceeding ………
A] 6 months B] 18months C] one year D] two years
123. The bank has the right to recruit every year ….% of the vacancies in officers cadre Scale I by
direct recruitment.
A] 25 B] 10 C] 15 D] 20
124. For the purpose of computing Halting allowance where the total period of absence is less
42
than 24 hours “per diem” shall mean a period of not less than ……hours
Page
A] 4 B] 6 C] 8 D] 12
125. For the purpose of Halting allowance Major A class cities shall mean with population
of ….lakhs and above
A] 45 B] 30 C] 20 D] 10
126. Reimbursement of lodging expenses for the officers in Scale –I in Area I cities at Rs.
A] 1600 B] 1200 C] 2400 D] 800
127. Reimbursement of lodging expenses for the officers in Scale –I in Major A class cities at Rs.
A] 1600 B] 1200 C] 2400 D] 800
128. In case of officer where lodging and boarding are provided at bank`s cost or arranged
through the bank free of cost,….of the Halting allowance will be admissible.
A] full B] half C] three fourth D] one fourth
129. Where an officer has family, with pay range of Rs.23, 700/- p.m. to Rs.32, 850/- p.m. On his
transfer will be reimbursed his expenses for transporting his baggage by goods train up to the limit
of…
A] 1500 kgs B] 3000kgs C] 4500 kgs D] 6000 kgs
130. The term wholly dependent child/parent shall mean such member of the family having
monthly income not exceeding Rs……/-
A] 1, 20,000 B] 9,000 C] 10,000 D] 12,000
131. Where an officer has no family, with pay range of Rs.23, 700/- p.m. to Rs.32, 850/- p.m. On
his transfer will be reimbursed his expenses for transporting his baggage by goods train up to limit
of
132. Where an officer has family, with pay range of Rs.32, 851/- p.m. and above on his transfer
43
will be reimbursed his expenses for transporting his baggage by goods train up to the limit of…
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A] 1500 kgs B] 3000kgs C] 4500 kgs D] 6000 kgs (full
wagon)
133. Where an officer has no family, with pay range of Rs.32, 851/- p.m. and above, on his
transfer will be reimbursed his expenses for transporting his baggage by goods train up to the limit
of…
134. If the officer on transfer is shifting his personal effects between two places by approved
lorry transport the reimbursement of expenses will be at Rs….rate per tonne per km if the distance
in up to 1000 kilometres
A] 1.80 B]2.00 C] 2.80 D]3.80
135. If the officer on transfer is shifting his personal effects between two places by approved
lorry transport the reimbursement of expenses will be at Rs….rate per tonne per km if the distance
in beyond 1000 kilometres
A] 2.80 B] 2.00 C] 1.80 D] 3.80
136. Officers in Scale I, II and III on transfer will be eligible to draw a lump sum amount of Rs.
A] 15,000 B] 10,000 C] 20,000 D] 25,000
137. An officer desiring to avail of privilege leave shall ordinarily give not less than ….days’ notice
of his intention to avail such leave
A] 15 B] 30 C] up to 4 occasions no advance notice D] 10
138. In terms of parent ministry guidelines which of the following category of officers are
specialist officers. A] Faculty members B] Financial analysts C] Law officers D]
All
139. For an officer the casual leave not availed of in any year may be suffixed or prefixed to sick
44
leave in the following …..years

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A] 3 B] 2 C] 4 D] 1
140. Sick leave can be accumulated up to ….days
A] 270 B] 240 C] 450 D] 540
141. An officer shall be eligible for Extra-ordinary Leave on loss of pay and allowances for not
more than ……days during the entire period of service.
A] 90 B] 360 C] 180 D] 270
142. Sabbatical leave to women Employees maximum of is of …years in the entire career.
A] 12 months B] 2 years C] 3 years D] 5 years
143. The women Employee applying for Sabbatical leave should have put in a minimum of ….
years of service
A] 3 B] 5 years C] 15 years D] 10 years
144. Preventive vigilance leave (PVL) is for continuous minimum period of ….days PL/Sick leave
A] 15 B] 30 C] 10 D] 5
145. As per medical scheme for the officers/employees of IBA member banks hospitalization and
domiciliary treatment coverage for officers per anum is of Rs…
A] 3 lakhs B] 3.5 lakhs C] 2.5 lakhs D] 4 lakhs
146. As per gratuity rules the Gratuity is Eligible only after 5 years of service 15 days salary for
every completed years of service with a maximum of ………. lakhs
A] 10 lakhs B] 20 lakhs C] 15 lakhs D] 25 lakhs
147. Employee with 25 years of unblemished service (no penalty/punishment imposed) shall be
honoured by presenting an award or any other article of employees choice costing an amount not
45
exceeding Rs. A] 10000/-. B] 15000/-. C] 25000/-. D] 5000/-.

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148. Each officer of the Bank shall have to undergo a minimum of service of …..in a rural branch
to become eligible for promotion from Scale I to Scale II
A] 2 years B] 3 years C] one year D] Not required
Vigilance
1. What do you mean by CVC in terms of vigilance…

a) Central Vigilance Commission
b) Chief Vigilance Commission
c) Card verification code
d) Central Vigilance Cell
2. What do you mean by CVO in terms of vigilance…
a) Central Vigilance Officer

b) Chief Vigilance Officer
c) Card verification officer
d) Central Vigilance Office
3. The ultimate aims of vigilance is to
a) preventing frauds, punishing the wrong-doers
b) protecting the innocent / honest staff members
c) both a & b
d) none of the above
4. Primary responsibility for maintenance of probity, integrity and efficiency in the PSUs is
vested with
a) the Chief Executive Officer of the Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
b) CVC c) CVO d) employees
5. The CVO acts as a special advisor to the _________and reports directly to him in all matters
relating to vigilance
a) Chief Executive b) CVC
c) Zonal Head d) Circle Head

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6. The Commission set up by the Government of India in pursuance of the recommendation
made by the Committee popularly known as ___________ on Prevention of Corruption
a) Goparia Commision
b) Santhanam Committee
c) Ranganathan Committee
d) None of the above
7. The Vigilance Commission, while enquiring or causing an enquiry or investigation to

be made into any complaint against a public servant will have following powers:
a) Summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India
and examining him on oath
b) Requiring the discovery and production of any document
c) Receiving evidence on affidavit
d) Requisitioning any public record or copy thereof from any court or office
e) Issuing commissions for examination of witnesses or documents
f) All of above
8. CVO has jurisdiction over all the employees/ officials of the Bank including those whose
services are lent to subsidiaries / other institutions and continue to be governed by the Corporation
Bank Officers Service Regulations/ Conduct Regulations /Disciplinary and Appeal Regulations
/Awards/ Bi-partite settlement.
a) True
b) False
9. CVO‟s responsibilities also include

(i) obtaining advices of CVC wherever necessary in regard to the disposal of complaints as
also where departmental disciplinary proceedings are initiated,
(ii) prompt submission of prescribed returns for the entire Bank to CVC, Bank‟s Board,
Various Committees of Board, RBI and Govt. of India.
(iii) to issue instructions relating to vigilance matters and interpret the instructions.
(iv) Handling vigilance cases and taking them to the logical end by following due process,
within the stipulated time-frame.
(v) Improving awareness among staff in the areas of frauds, system failures and preventive vigilance
a) only (i) & (ii)
b) only (i), (iii) & (iv)
c) only (ii), (iii) & (v)

47
d) All the above

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10. Vigilance cases generally originate from the following…
a.) Fraud
b) Complaints
c) Inspection report, spot audit report & special report
d) All the above
11. The reporting of fraud cases to RBI is undertaken by _________ at Head Office
a.) Fraud Monitoring Cell
b.) CVC
c.) CVO
d.) Audit Division
12. Receipt of information about corruption, malpractice or misconduct on the part of public
servants, from source in the form of__________ would be termed as complaint
a.) oral
b.) written
c.) signed, anonymous or pseudonymous
d.) All the above
13. Complaints may flow to the administrative authority/ CVC/ CVO / CBI/ the police authorities
from the following sources
a.) Received through Government of India, Reserve Bank of India, Central

Vigilance Commission, Central Bureau of Investigation/ State Vigilance / police authorities;
b) Allegation appearing in the Press and other media;
c) Received direct at any Branch/ Office of the Bank;
d) Received from individual staff members/ union / Association/ public;
e) Complaint received under Bank‟s Whistle Blower Policy.
f) All the above

48
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14. Under the Whistle Blower policy, the Commission, which will accept the complaints, has
the responsibility of keeping the identity of the complainant secret.
a.) True
b.) False
15. In order to protect identity of the person, the Commission will not issue any
acknowledgement and the whistle blowers are advised not to enter into any further correspondence
with the Commission in their own interest.
a.) True
b.) False
16. CVO should submit investigation reports within a period of _______ from the receipt of
reference of the commission.
a.) 15 days
b.) 1 month
c.) 45 days
d.) 60 days
17. Whistle Blower will provide his name, employee number and address in his complaint duly
signed by him. CVO will mask his personal details before handing over the complaint to the
investigating official.
a.) True
b.) False
18. Complaint will be sent to the CVO by the Whistle blower in a closed envelope
and there should not be anything except CVO‟s name and address on the envelope marked
“Strictly confidential” and super scribed “Complaint under Whistle Blower Policy”. The
envelope should not contain the “From Address”.
a.) True
b.) False
19. If a complaint against a public servant is found to be malicious, vexatious or

unfounded, the person making a false complaint can be prosecuted under Section
a.) 195(1) Cr.P.C.
b.) 182
c.) 191(2)
d.) No such provision
20. A business loss which has arisen as a consequence of a ________ commercial
49
decision has to be accepted as a normal part of business and ignored from the vigilance point
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of view
a.) Bona-fide b.) Mala-fide c.) Any d.) None
21. Any undue / unjustified delay in the disposal of the case, perceived after considering all
the relevant factors, would reinforce a conclusion as to the presence of _________
a.) vigilance angle in a case
b.) complaint in a case
c.) grievance
d.) crime
22. The following attributes will help for coming to a conclusion on vigilance angle
to take a view whether the officer‟s integrity is in doubt
a.) Gross or wilful negligence,
b.) Recklessness in decision making,
c.) Blatant violations of systems and procedures,
d.) Failure to keep the controlling authority/ superiors informed in time
e.) Any or all of above
23. Absence of vigilance angle in various acts of omission and commission have to
be dealt administratively as per the disciplinary procedure under the service rules/regulations.
a.) True
b.) False
24. The frequency of Preventive Vigilance audit of the branches shall be

a.) monthly
b.) Quarterly
c.) half yearly
d.) annual
25. A certificate/confirmation report, furnishing the name and date of audit of the
branches covered under the Preventive Vigilance Audit, has to be submitted to Vigilance
Division at Quarterly intervals so that it reaches Head Office within ______ from the end of
the quarter
a.) 10 days
b.) 15 days
c.) 7 days
d.) 30 days
26. Preventive Vigilance Committee will be formed at the ELB/VLB branches of the
Bank with minimum no of members in PVC
a.) 30% of the staff strength with proper representation from all
cadres
b.) 20% of the staff strength
50
c.) 1 members from each cadre

d.) all staff of the branch
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27. Preventive Vigilance Committee will be formed at the LB/MB/small branches of
the Bank having staff strength less than 10, the minimum no of members in PVC will be
a.) 30% of the staff strength with proper representation from all cadres
b.) 20% of the staff strength
c.) 1 members from each cadre
d.) all staff of the branch
28. The periodicity of meetings of Preventive vigilance committee should be

a.) once in a quarter
b.) every month
c.) half yearly
d.) Annualy
1 ATM CorpBank debit cards are a.for international transaction

automatically enabled b.for domestic transactions
c.Both a& b
d.None of the above
2 ATM ATM claims of customers have to a.7 days
be settled within ____________ b.10 days
days from the date of complaint c.15 days
d.None of the above
3 ATM Delay in settlement of ATM a.200/-
claims will incur penalty of b.100/-
Rs.______ per day c.50/-
d.NO Penalty
4 ATM What are the files generated a.PBF File
at the time of branch signoff b.CIS File
when the ATM application is c.Data File
entered in the system? d.None of the above
5 ATM What is the maximum a.3 times
number of times cash can be b.5 times
withdrawn per day for Debit c.No limit
card? d.None of the above
6 ATM What is the charge for a.Rs.100/=
duplicate debit card? b.Rs.120/=
c.Rs.200/=
d.None of the above
7 ATM If International debit card is a.Rs.25000/-
not chip based (old magnetic b.Rs.15000/=
strip card., then cash c.Rs.20000/-
51
withdrawl and POS limit per d.None of the above

day will be
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8 ATM What is the Visa a.Rs.40000/=
international debit card limit b.Rs.35000/=
of cash withdrawal per day c.Rs.25000/=
in foreign countries? d.No Limit
9 ATM What is meant by PBF with a.Positive Balance File
reference to ATM? b.Post Balance File
c.Pre Balance File
d.None of the above
10 ATM PMJDY accountholders will be a.Visa Card
issued b.Master Card
c.Rupay Card
d.American Express Card
11 ATM Our Bank is not issuing the a.Visa Debit Cards
following type of Cards to
the customers b.Visa Credit Cards
c.Rupay Debit Cards
d.IOC Petrol Card

12 ATM The Product name for our a.Corp Convenience
Debit card is b.Corp Companion
c.Corp Cash Withdrawal
d.Corp Connectivity
FOREX
1. If branch wants to make ODI transaction, what is the process to make an ODI transactions
in our bank?
Obtain duly filled Form ODI from Customer, Get approval from HO-T&ID,
Route the transaction to Forex Hub, Report to HO-T&ID
2. What is the present Limit to Indian Party to make ODI transaction under Automatic
Route?
400% of the Networth as on last audited balance sheet

3. What is the present Limit to Resident Individuals to make ODI abroad?
52
USD 250,000 per financial year

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4. What is the last date for reporting Annual Performance Report to RBI?
31st December every year
5. Whether branch undertake ODI remittance of APR defaulted (to other banks) ODI
customers?
Not permitted
6. How customer can report Foreign Direct Investment transactions to RBI?
Through e-Biz platform only

7. What is time period available for Indian party to submit Advance Reporting Remittance
(ARF) form to RBI?
30 days from the date of remittance

8. What is time period available for Indian party to issue shares to overseas Investor for the
FDI received?
180 days from the date of remittance
9. The Form FC-TRS is used to report which of the following transactions?
Transfer of shares from Resident to Non-Resident and vice versa

10. Whether transfer from NRE account maintained in India will be considered for Foreign
Direct Investment?
Yes
11. What is FCEB & FCCB?
Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bond and Foreign Currency Convertible Bond
12. Whether ECB can be raised in Indian Rupees? – YES
13. What is the maximum maturity for Medium term foreign currency denominated ECB and
Long term foreign currency denominated ECB?- 5 years and 10 years
14. The all-in cost for 5 years ECB and 10 years is ___6m LIBOR+300 basis points and 6m
LIBOR+450 basis points
15.What is the amount of ECB can be raised by Infrastructure companies? – Up to USD 750
million
16. What is EDPMS and IDPMS? – Export Data Processing and Monitoring Systems and
Import Data Processing and Monitoring Systems
53
17. Exports and Imports come under the purview of : Ministry of Commerce
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18. When an Exporter is caution listed in EDPMS? - if any shipping bill against them remains
open for more than two years in EDPMS
19. How the caution listing should be communicated to Exporters?- issuing letters to
Exporters
20. Unless other wise specified in a Letter of Credit which is issued subject to UCPDC UCPDC
600, documents must be presented for negotiation within ------ days from the date of
shipment --- 21 days from the date of shipment
21. For status holder Exporters, self write off is allowed upto what percentage? --- 10%
22. What is the time period AD banks can extent the period of realisation? – 6 months at a
time
23. AD banks may permit the reduction of Invoice value upto what extent? --- 25 % of
Invoice value
24. What is the time period for entire merchanting trade transaction to be completed? – 9
months
25. What is the time period AD banks can extent for settlement of Import dues? – 6 months
at a time
26. AD Category-l banks have been permitted to offer facility of payment for imports of
goods and software of value not exceeding ___________by entering into standing
arrangements with the OPGSPs. – USD 2000
27. Time limit for settlement of Norma Imports_______- 6 months
28.What are the accounts that a tourist visiting India can open?- NRO account not
exceeding 6 months
29. A person went to Dubai during 2014 for Employment. He came to India for 1 month
holiday. After the holiday period, he will go back to Dubai. What is his status? And what
type of accounts he can open?
A ‘Non-resident Indian’ (NRI) is a person resident outside India who is a
citizen of India. Hence his status is NRI and He can open NRE, NRO & FCNR
accounts
30. A student went to Germany to pursue his 2-year diploma course in Management. What
type of accounts he can open in India? And what are the modes available to him to receive
54
tuition fees from India?

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(a) A person who is going abroad for education purpose will be treated as NRI
(b) He can receive tuition fee from his father’s account or his own account
(c) Wire Transfer, DD, Currency, Forex Prepaid Cards, International Debit/credit Cards
31. Under which route NRI can make Foreign Direct Investments in india?
Portfolio Investment Scheme (PIS)

32. A person who is holding Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card. What type of account he
can open in India?
PIOs and OCI card holders are treated on par with NRIs and all facilities
extended to NRIs are available to PIOs and OCI card holders as well.
33. What is DTAA? – Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement
34. A Resident Indian went to Canada for his employment and came back to India after 2.5
years and he earned salary of CAD 500,000. While coming, how much currency he can bring
to India?
A person coming into India from abroad can bring with him foreign
exchange without any limit. However, if the aggregate value of the foreign
exchange in the form of currency notes, bank notes or travellers cheques brought
in exceeds USD 10,000 or its equivalent and/or the value of foreign currency alone
exceeds USD 5,000 or its equivalent, it should be declared to the Customs
Authorities at the Airport in the Currency Declaration Form (CDF), on arrival in
India.
35. A NRI returned from Singapore and brought foreign currency coins worth of SGD 2600.
Whether he can hold the foreign currency coins in India without tendering to AD banks for
exchange? What is the limit to him?
The residents can hold foreign coins without any limit.
36) A person resident outside India can establish a branch office in India provided it has a
profit making track record during the immediately preceding 5 financial years in the
home country and net worth of not less than ____ or its equivalent.
(a) USD 100000 (b) USD 75000 (c) USD 50000 (d) USD 25000
37) A person resident outside India can establish a liaison office in India provided it has a
profit making track record during the immediately preceding 3 financial years in the home
country and net worth of not less than ___ or its equivalent.
(a) USD 100000 (b) USD 75000 (c) USD 50000 (d) USD 25000
55
38) AD Category - I banks can approve Clean Credit i.e. credit given by a foreign supplier to
Page
its Indian customer / buyer, without any Letter of Credit (Suppliers’ Credit) / Letter of
Undertaking (Buyers’ Credit) / Fixed Deposits from any Indian financial institution for
import of Rough, Cut and Polished Diamonds, for a period not exceeding 180 days from the
date of shipment
(a) 90 days (b) 180 days (c) 270 days (d) 360 days
39) As per extant FDI policy for Insurance sector, the limit of foreign investment in
insurance sector has been enhanced ___ under the automatic route:
(a) from 24% to 49% (b) from 26% to 49% (c) from 49% to 74% (d) from 49%
to 75%
40) A no. of reports are required to be sent to RBI on XBRL. XBRLstands for:
(a) eXtensible Bank Reporting Language (b) eXtensible Business Reporting Language
(c) eXpress Business Reporting Language (d) eXpress bank Reporting Language
41) RBI may consider allowing FDI to entities having an established track record of running
a Credit Information Bureau in a well regulated environment.
(a) up to 49% if their ownership is not well diversified (i.e., one or more shareholders
each hold more than 10% of voting rights in the company)
(b) up to 26% if their ownership is not well diversified (i.e., one or more shareholders each
hold more than 10% of voting rights in the company)
(c) up to 74% if their ownership is not well diversified (i.e., one or more shareholders each
(d) up to 26% if their ownership is not well diversified (i.e., one or more shareholders each
42) RBI may consider allowing FDI to entities having an established track record of running
a Credit Information Bureau in a well regulated environment.
(a) up to 26% if their ownership is well diversified
(b) up to 49% if their ownership is well diversified
(c) up to 74% if their ownership is well diversified
(d) up to 100% if their ownership is well diversified
43) Who is a ‘Non-resident Indian (NRI)’ ?
(a) a person resident outside India (b) a person resident outside India who is a Person of
Indian origin
(c) a person resident outside India who is a citizen of India (d) c and d both
44) A ‘Person of Indian Origin (PIO)’ is a person resident outside India who is a citizen of
any country other than Bangladesh or Pakistan or such other country as may be specified by
the Central Government, satisfying the following conditions (which one is not correct):
(d) Who was a citizen of India by virtue of the Constitution of India or the Citizenship Act,
1955
(e) Who is a child or a grandchild or a great grandchild of a citizen of India
(f) Who is a spouse of foreign origin of a citizen of India
(g) a and b only
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45) Any person resident outside India, having a business interest in India, may open an ___
account in Indian Rupee with Authorized Dealers for the purpose of putting through bona fide
transactions in rupees:
(a) Foreign currency non-resident account (b) special non-resident rupee account
(c) non-resident ordinary account (d) non-resident external rupee account
46) The maximum period for a which special non-resident rupee account can be opened by a
foreigner for business purpose is:
(a) one year (b) three years (c) five years (d) seven years
47) AD Category – I banks can consider granting extension of time for settlement of
import dues up to a period of at a time (maximum up to the period of three years)
irrespective of the invoice value for delays on account of disputes about quantity or
quality or non-fulfilment of terms of contract; financial difficulties and cases where
importer has filed suit against the seller.
(a) 1 month (b) 2 months (c) 3 months (d) 6 months
48) While considering extension beyond one year from the date of remittance, the AD
Category-1 have to ensure that the total outstanding of the importer should not exceed
USD ____ or 10 per cent of the average import remittances during the preceding two
financial years, whichever is lower; - (a) USD one lac (b) USD five lac (c) USD one
million (d) USD ten million
49) F- TRAC of the Clearcorp Dealing Systems (India) Ltd., stands for:
(a) Forward Market Trade Reporting and Confirmation Platform
(b) Financial Market Trade Reporting and Confirmation Platform
(c) Financial Market Trade Requirement and Confirmation Platform
(d) Financial Market Trade Reporting and Consolidation Platform
50) As per RBI guidelines, the exporters are caution-listed if any shipping bill remains open
for more than ___ from date of shipment in RBI’s EDPMS. –
(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) one year (d) two years
51) What is full form of EDPMS? –
(a) External data processing and monitoring system (b) Export data processing and
monitoring system,
(c) Export data preparing and monitoring system (d) Export data processing and making
system
52) Separate reporting has been discontinued from HY December 2015 onwards for which of
the following, because the information is available on EDPMS of RBI? –
(a) BEF (b) R-return (c) X OS (d) all the above
53) For transactions under Asian Clearing Union arrangement, the minimum amount which
57
RBI receives in USD and/or Euro is

Page
(a) USD 25000 or Euro 25000 (b) USD 10000 or Euro 10000
(c) USD 1000 or Euro 1000 (d) USD 500 or Euro 500
54) For transactions under Asian Clearing Union arrangement, the minimum amount
which RBI pays in USD and/or Euro is :
(a) USD 25000 or Euro 25000 (b) USD 10000 or Euro 10000 (c) USD 1000 or
Euro 1000 (d) USD 500 or Euro 500
55) Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme of RBI, Authorised Dealers may freely allow
remittances by resident individuals up to :
(a) USD 1,20,000 per Financial Year (April-March) for permittedcurrent account transaction.
(b) USD 2,50,000 per Financial Year (April-March) for permitted current account transaction
only.
(c) USD 1,25,000 per Financial Year (April-March) for any permitted current or capital
account transaction or a combination of both.
(d) USD 2,50,000 per Financial Year (April-March) for any permitted current or
capital account transaction or a combination of both.
56) The permissible capital account transactions by an individual under LRS are:
(a) opening of foreign currency account abroad with a bank (b) purchase of property
abroad
(c) making investments abroad-acquisition and holding shares of both listed and unlisted
overseas company or debt instruments; acquisition of ESOPs; investment in units of Mutual
Funds, Venture Capital Funds, unrated debt securities, promissory notes;
(d) all the above
57) Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme of RBI, Authorised Dealers may freely
allow remittances by resident individuals within the prescribed limit for which of
following current account transactions : (1) private visit or business trips (2) gift/donation
(3) going abroad on employment, emigration or for medical treatment (4) maintenance of
close relatives abroad or for studies abroad –
(a) 1 to 4 all (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and
2 only
remittances by resident individuals beyond the prescribed limit of USD 250000 for which
of following current account transactions on the basis of additional documentation : (1)
medical treatment abroad (2) studies abroad (3) emigration (4) employment abroad
(a) 1 to 4 all (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d)
1 and 2 only
59) Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme of RBI, loan cannot be given for remittances
by resident individuals for which of following transaction :
(a) medical treatment abroad (b) purchase of property abroad (c) donation or gift (d)
none of the above
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remittances by resident individuals by obtaining Form-A2, which is mandatory requirement
if the amount of remittance is above:
(a) USD 15000 (b) USD 25000 (c) USD 30000 (d) in all cases
61) Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme of RBI, it is mandatory to have PAN card
to make remittances under the Scheme for capital account transactions. However, PAN
card need not be insisted upon for remittances made towards permissible current account
transactions up to USD ___ .-
(a) USD 15000 (b) USD 25000 (c) USD 30000 (d) in all cases
62) A resident individual can lend to Non-Resident Indian or Personal of India Origin
max ______ in India and amount of loan should be credited to:
(a) Up to USD 125000 by crediting the amount to NRO account of NRI / PIO
(b) Up to USD 250000 by crediting the amount to NRO account of NRI / PIO
(c) within LRS limit of USD 250000 by crediting the amount to NRO account of NRI /
PIO
(d) within LRS limit of USD 250000 by crediting the amount to NRO or NRE account of
NRI / PIO
63) Outward remittance under Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS) of RBI are
permitted to (1) Individuals (2) on behalf of Minor (3)HUF (4) Partnership (5) Company
(6) Trust :-
(a) 1 to 6 all (b) 1 to 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only
64) Outward remittance under Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS) of RBI are
permitted up to an amount of:
(a) USD 125000 per calendar year for permitted capital and current account transactions
(b) USD 125000 per financial year for permitted capital and current account transactions
(c) USD 250000 per financial year for permitted capital and current account
transactions
(d) USD 250000 per calendar year for permitted capital and current account transactions
65) Which of the following remittance are not allowed under LRS, as capital account
transactions:
(a) opening of foreign currency account abroad
(b) purchase of property or making investment in shares or debt instruments or setting

up wholly owned subsidiary companies & joint ventures,
(c) extending loans including in Indian currency to non-resident Indians who are
relatives
(d) none of the above
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66) Mr. Z wants to visit a no. of European countries and has requested for obtaining
foreign currency under LRS of RBI. How much amount will be available to him and how
many times he can go outside India:
(a) USD 250000 per financial year without any restriction on no. of visits abroad
(b) USD 250000 per calendar year without any restriction on no. of visits abroad
(c) USD 250000 per financial year with maximum 3 visits abroad,
(d) USD 250000 per calendar year with maximum 3 visits abroad
67) Mr. X wants to send a gift to his son residing in UK in Pound Sterling. What is the
maximum amount he can remit under LRS of RBI? –
(a) Equivalent of USD 250000 in a calendar year (b) Equivalent of USD 250000 in a
financial year
(c) Pound Sterling 250000 in a financial year (d) Pound Sterling 250000 in a calendar
year
68) Outward remittance can be made by a resident Indian, as part of current account
transaction up to USD 250000 for (1) donation (2) employment (3) expenses of relative (4)
studies (5) immigration (6) medical treatment:
(a) 1 to 6 all (b) 1 only (c) 2 and 6 only (d) 4 to 6 only
69) Outward remittance can be made by a resident Indian, as part of current account
transaction in excess of USD 250000 against documentary evidence for (1) donation (2)
employment (3) expenses of relative (4) studies (5) immigration (6) medical treatment:
(a) 1 to 6 all (b) 1 only (c) 2 and 6 only (d) 4 to 6 only
69) For which of the following transactions under LRS of RBI, banks cannot give loan:
(a) medical treatment outside India (b) purchase of property
outside India
(c) making donation in favour of a Trust outside India (d) all the above
70) For availing the remittance facility under LRS of RBI, the remitter is required to make
application / declarations on:
(a) Form CDF(b) Form A-1(c) Form A-2 (d) Form EDF
71) Resident individual can lend to non-resident Indian or Person of Indian Origin close
relative under LRS of RBI for a period up to:
(a) 6 months (b) one year (c) three years (d) five years
72) Under LRS of RBI, for making remittance for capital account transactions, the Indian
resident should be holding account with the Authorized dealer for a period of atleast: -
(a) three months (b) six months (c) one year (d) 2 years
73) As per RBI guidelines, the Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) can transact in the
60
Over-the-Counter (OTC) market for Government securities with ____ settlement.-

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(a) T + 3 (b) T + 2 (c) T + 1 (d) T + 0

74) Total foreign investment in an Indian company is the sum total of direct and indirect
foreign investments.
(a) direct investment (b) indirect investment (c) participatory notes (d) a and
b both
75)As per FDI Policy, Portfolio investment up to aggregate foreign investment level of ___ or
sectoral/ statutory cap, whichever is lower, will not be subject to either Government approval
or compliance with the sectoral conditions provided such investment does not result in
change in ownership leading to control of Indian entities:-
(a)24% (b) 49% (c) 50% (d)74%
76)For FDI purpose, a company or a limited liability partnership shall be considered as

owned by resident Indian citizens if more than____of the capital in it, is beneficially owned
by resident Indian citizens and/or Indian companies, which are ultimately owned and
controlled by resident Indian citizens.-
(a) 24% (b) 49% (c) 50% (d) 74%
77)Foreign investment up to ____ under the automatic route has been permitted in the
plantation sector which includes tea plantations, coffee plantations, rubber plantations,
cardamom plantations, palm oil tree plantations and olive oil tree plantations. -
(a) 26% (b) 51% (c) 74% (d) 100%
78)Foreign investment up to ____ is allowed under the automatic route, in Non-Banking

Finance Companies (NBFCs) engaged in the select 18 activities. –
(a) 26% (b) 51% (c) 74% (d) 100%
79)As per extant RBI directives, the amount of permitted trade transaction, under the Rupee
Drawing Arrangements (RDAs) shall not exceed Rs.___ per transaction. : -
(a) Rs.10 lac (b) Rs.15 lac (c) Rs.25 lac (d) Rs.100 lac
80) Against the pre-shipment credit, the refinance is available from ___ maximum for ___
days:
(a) RBI, 90 days,(b) EXIM Bank, 90 days (c) Exim Bank, 180 days (d) refinance is not
available
81) Which of the following does not match in case of drawl of foreign
exchange by residents:
a) Schedule I transactions not permitted b) Schedule II transactions — with permission
of Central Govt
c) Schedule III transactions with permission of RBI d) none of the above
82) What is the maximum amount that AD category-1 banks can release to an
Indian resident for private visit abroad:
a) Rs.10000 in a financial year b) USD 10000 in a calendar year
c) USD 10000 per personal visit d)
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none of
the
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above
83)What is the maximum amount that AD category-1 banks can release to an Indian residents
for going abroad for employment:
a) USD 10000 b) USD .25000 c) USD 250000 d) USD
200000
84)What is the maximum amount that AD category-1 banks can release for meeting
maintenance expenses of relative abroad, in a financial year:
a) USD 10000 b) USD 25000 c) USD 250000 d) USD 200000
85) What is the maximum amount that AD category-1 banks can release to an Indian
residents for going abroad for business tour:
a) USD 10000 per trip b) USD 250000 per FY
c) USD 100000 lump sum d) USD 200000 lump sum
86) What is the maximum amount that AD category-1 banks can release to an Indian
residents, on self declaration basis, for going abroad for medical treatment:
a) USD 10000 per visit b) USD 25000 per visit
c) USD 250000 d) USD 200000
87)What is the maximum amount that AD category-1 banks can release (per academic year)
to an Indian resident for going abroad for studies (a) USD 10000 (b) USD 25000 (c)
USD 250000 per academic year (d) amount estimated by the institution abroad:
A) b or d whichever is higher B) a or d whichever is higher
C) c or d whichever is higher D) C only
88)Out of the total forex sold to a resident Indian, the form of currency notes in which of the
following does not match:
a)for Russia, Iran, CIS countries — no ceiling for amount being released in currency notes
and coins
b) For Iraq and Libya — Max USD 10000 can be released in currency notes and coins
c) For other countries — Max USD 3000 can be released in currency notes and coins
89).Form A2 is used for obtaining foreign exchange (a) for import payments (b) for
remittances other than imports (c) for amount up to USD 5000 (d) ' for amount above USD
25000.
A) a and d are correct B) a and c are correct C) b and c are correct D) b
and d are correct
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90)General permission is available to any resident individual to surrender received / realised /

unspent / unused forex with in a period of :
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a) 60 days b) 90 days c) 180 days d) no time limit

91)For purchase of foreign exchange, the AD can accept cash (Indian Rupees), if such
amount:
a) does.not exceed Rs.20000 b) is less than
Rs.20000 only
c) is less than Rs.50000 d) does not exceed
Rs.50000
92)For purchase of foreign exchange in cash, above the prescribed amount, the payment can
be accepted:
a) crossed cheque drawn on applicant's bank or sponsoring company's bank account
b) banker's cheque / demand draft / payment order
c) debit / credit / prepaid card
d) any of the above
93)Under RBI's liberalised remittance scheme (LRS), the AD banks can remit up to:
a) USD 25000 in a calendar year b) USD 50000 in a calendar year
c) USD 75000 in a financial year d) USD 250000 in a financial year
94)Where an AD releases forex, what are the provisions of endorsement on the passport:
a) endorsement can be done at the request of the
applicant
b) endorsement to be done invariably
c) endorsement cannot be done even at the request of the
applicant
d) none of the above
95) Drawl of foreign exchange by a person in India is not permitted in respect of which of
the following:
a) transactions given in Schedule I to FEMA b) travel to Nepal and Bhutan
c) transactions with persons resident in Nepal and Bhutan d) all the above
96) Which of the following can remit up to US $ 250000, under RBI's liberalized remittance
scheme :
a) Resident individuals only
b) All NRIs
c) Resident individual and other than individuals
d) all the above
97) Any denomination of Indian currency can be taken to Nepal &

Bhutan, when the amount is up to:
a) Rs.5000 b) Rs.10000 c) Rs.15000
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d) Rs.20000 e) Rs.25000
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98)What is the full form of UCPDC?
a. Unilateral Customs and Practices for Demand Credit
b. Uniform Customs and Practices for Documentary Credit
c. Uniform Customs and Principles for Documentary Credit
d. Uniform Customs and Practices for Demand Credit
99) Which of the following authority regulates Foreign Trade in India?
a.)DGFT b.)SEBI c.)EXIM Bank d.)RBI
100) Pre-shipment credit in foreign currency can be allowed at which of the following
interest rates?
a.)EURIBOR b.)EURO LIBOR c.) LIBOR d.)All of the above
101) Under LERMS what percentage of Forex was required to be converted at RBI official
rate?
a.)Nil b.)40% c.)60% d.)100%
102) Which currency is known as base currency in terms of Exchange Rate Mechanism?
1.a.i.a. The currency with lowest value is base currency
1.a.i.b. The currency which is freely convertible
1.a.i.c. One unit of fixed amount of currency d. None of the above
103) Which currency is known as Terms Currency in terms of Exchange Rate Mechanism?
a. The currency which is quoted as variable amount
b. The currency which is freely convertible
c. Currency which dictates terms of market
d. None of the above
104) What is known as two way quote in exchange rate mechanism?
1.a.i.a. Quoting the rates both with the buyer and with the seller
1.a.i.b. Quoting the buying and selling rate at the same time
1.a.i.c. Both of the above d. None of the above
105) Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Banks) account can be opened in the name of which
of the following?
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a. Non-resident Indian b. Person of Indian origin c. Overseas Corporate

Bodies
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d. Both a and b
106) What is the implementation date of FEMA 1999?
a.)31.05.1999 b.)01.06.1999 c.)31.05.2000 d.)01.06.2000
107) Which of the following is not a correct type of category of Authorised Dealers under
FEMA 1999?
a. Authorised Dealer category I b. Authorised Dealer category II
c. Authorised Dealer category III d.Authorised Dealer category IV
107) Drawal of foreign Exchange by a person in India is not permitted in respect of which
of the following?
a. Transactions with persons resident in Nepal and Bhutan
b. Travel to Nepal and Bhutan
c.Transactions given in Schedule 1 of FEMA d. All of the above.
108) Which of the following methods is applied for quoting the foreign exchange rates in
India?
a.) Cross rates b.)Direct rate
c.)Indirect rate d.)Buying rate e.)Selling
rate
109) Overseas Corporate Bodies means:

a. 50% by NRIs and balance by resident Indians. B) 60% by NRIs irrespective of
balance holdings
c) 70% by NRI d.)60% by NRIs and balance by Government
110) Under, UCPDC-600, the term “ Middle” of a month –
a.) Second week of the month b.) Third week of the month
c.) 11th to 20th day of the month d.)5th to 15th day of the month
111) As per the article 5 of the UCPDC-600, Banks deals with

a.)Goods and services b.)Performance of the contract
c.)Documents only d.) None of the above.
112) Repatriation of funds held in NRO Account can be done upto………

a.)USD 10000 per FY without payment of tax b.)USD 100000 per FY after
payment of tax
c.)USD 1 million per FY after payment of tax d.)Repatriation can‟t be done
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from NRO a/c

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113) M/s Arun Exports has achieved an export performance of $5million cumulatively in
current plus previous two financial years. What will be its status under FTP 2015-20?
a.) One Star Export House b.) Two Star Export House c.) Three
Star Export House
d.) Four Star Export House e.) Five Star Export House
114) M/s Rajeev Exports which is a Small unit as per MSME classification has achieved an
export performance of $ 2 million cumulatively in current plus previous two financial
years. What will be its status under FTP 2015-20?
Star Export House
115) M/s Rajeev Exports which is a Small unit as per MSME classification has achieved an
export performance of $ 20 million cumulatively in current plus previous two financial
years. What will be its status under FTP 2015-20?
Star Export House
116) The Outstanding Export bills are to be reported to RBI at:
a.) Half yearly intervals at March and September
b.) Half yearly intervals at June and December
c.) Quarterly intervals at the end of the quarter
d.) Fortnightly basis on 15th and last day of the month
117) An EEFC account can be opened as:

a.) Savings Bank account b.) Current Account
c.) FD/KD accounts d.) SB/CA /FD/KD accounts
118) Under Whole-turnover packing Credit policy covered with ECGC i.e., ECIB-WTPC,the
percentage of cover for Small Scale Exporteraccounts:
a.) 75% up to Grade percentage limit c.)55% to 75% depending on the Claim
percentage
b.) 90% of the limit d.)65% of the limit
119) What is the eligibility criteria for defining an exporter as Small Scale Exporter as per
ECIB-WTPC/WTPS of ECGC?
a.) Annual export turnover upto Rs.50 lakhs b.) Annual export turnover upto
Rs.100 lakhs
c.) Annual export turnover upto Rs.200 lakhs d.) There is no such category
120) M/s Ramji Exports had availed Packing Credit of Rs.50 Crore from Canara Bank which
is defaulted. Canara Bank wants to invoke guarantee from ECGC under WTPC. What
will be the maximum amount which will be paid by ECGC under WTPC?
a.) 40.00 Crore b.) 37.50 Crore c.) 32.50 Crore d.)25.00
Crore
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121) M/s Sukanya Exports had availed Packing Credit of Rs.40 Crore from Canara Bank
which is defaulted. Canara Bank wants to recover its dues by invoking guarantee from
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ECGC under WTPC. What will be the maximum amount which will be paid by ECGC
under WTPC?
a.) 32.00 Crore b.)30.00 Crore c.)26.00 Crore d.20.00
Crore
122) What will be the percentage of cover available to our bank under ECIB-WTPS for
amount upto Rs.1992.17 lakhs for bills drawn on non associate non policy holder exporter?
a.) 65% b.) 70% c.)75% d.)90%
123) The importer has to use Form A1, if the import payment exceeds:
a.) USD 500000 or its equivalent b.) USD 100000 or its equivalent
c.) USD 5000 or its equivalent d.) USD 10000 or its equivalent
e.) Use of Form A1 since dispensed with
124) The time limit for settlement of usance bills under import payment for capital goods is:
a.) Maximum 6 months from the date of shipment. b.) Maximum 12 months from the
date of shipment
c.) Maximum up to the period less than 3 years. d.) Maximum 6 months from the
date of documents.
125) AD banks may approve trade credits per import transaction for individual transaction up
to :
a.) USD 1 million b.) USD 10
million c.) USD 20 million
d.)USD 1 billion
126) The PCFC will be available for the

maximum period of :
a.) 90 days b.) 180 days c.)270 days d.)360 days
127) If all the terms and conditions of shipment are given on the bill of lading document
itself, such bill of lading is called as
a.) Complete bill of lading b.) Long form bill of lading
c.) Short form bill of lading d.) Straight bill of lading
128) The bill of lading which covers the entire voyage covering more than one vessel
is called as:
a.) Straight bill of lading b.) Chartered party bill of lading
c.) Through Bill of lading Clause d .) Bill of lading
129) The bill of lading which covers the entire voyage including overland journey of goods is
called as:
a.) Straight bill of lading b.) Combined transport bill of lading
c.) Through Bill of lading d.) Claused Bill of lading
130) Any Bill of lading is safe for negotiation purposes if
a) It acknowledges that the goods have been put on board of the shipment.
b) No superimposed clause or notation that expressly declares the defective condition of

the goods
c) It is an acknowledgement that the goods have been received by
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the ship owners for shipment.

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d) Both a and b
131) In case of usance bills, the Normal Transit period (NTP) as prescribed by FEDAI is
a.) 5 days b.) 15 days c.) 25 days d.) 3 days
132) The exporter should necessarily submit the export documents to the bank within:
a.) 15 days from the date of the documents b.) 15 days from the date of shipment
c.) 21 days from the date of the documents d.) 21 days from the date of
shipment
133) In an international trade transaction, when the seller places the goods at the side of the
ship at named port and also clears the goods for Export, which Incoterms will be used?
a. ) FCA- Free Carrier b.) FOB –Free on Board
c.) FAS –Free Alongside Ship d.)DAP –Delivery at
134) INCOTERMS issued by ICC, Paris is called as :
a.) Indian company terms b.) International Commercial Terms
c.) International Contract terms d.) None of the above
135) Incoterms 2010 which is in practice now a day –
a.) 01.12.2010 b.)01.01.2011 c.) 01.10.2010 d.)01.05.2011
136) How many Incoterms are prescribed under INCOTERMS 2010?
a.) 10 b.) 11 c.)12 d.) 13
137) Which of the following is not an Incoterms 2010 for exclusive sea and inland waterway
transport?
a.) FOB b.) CIP c.) CIF d.) CFR
138) Balance of Trade means:

a. ) Net position of capital account b.) Current account balance
c.) Imports less exports d.) Exports less imports
139) A contract which affords adequate protection to an exporter or an importer against
exchange risk is :
a.)Hedging b.)Guarantee c.)Letter of Credit d.) Forward Contract
140) The Balance in hand at the close of the day is called:
a.) Short position b.) Long position c.) Overnight position d.) Day
light position
141)The banks which may purchase or sell foreign currency in different markets to take
advantages of the rate differentials is called:
a.) Hedging b.) SWAP c.) Arbitrage d.)Cover deal
142) A person does a transaction with Spot value on 28th February 2017 (Friday), then the
settlement for this transaction will be done on :
a.) 3rd March 2017 b.) 4th March 2017 c.) 5th March 2017 d.) On the
same day
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143) Which of the following can Remittance scheme?

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a.) All resident individuals b.)Resident companies

c.) All NRIs Resident partnership firms d.) Resident HUFs and Trusts
144) Visit by a resident Indian to which of the following countries are not eligible for
obtaining foreign exchange under forex facilities to residents?
a) All SAARC countries b.) All EEC countries c.) All CIS countries d.
Iraq and Libyae.) Nepal and Bhutan
145) General permission is available to any resident individual to surrender received/ realised
/unspent forex within a period of
a.) 60 days b) 90 days c) 180 days d) No time limit
146) Any resident Indian can hold/take Indian rupees during their travel abroad up to
except Pakistan and Bangladesh :
a.)Rs.7500 b.) Rs.10000 c.) Rs.25000 d.) No limit
147) What is the maximum amount of remittance that AD banks can make for import
payment where documents are directly received by importers?
a.) USD 25000 b.) USD 100000 c.)USD 200000 d.) USD 300000
148) An exporter received advance against export supply can accept the advance and pay
maximum interest rate of:
a.) BPLR b.) BPLR + 100 bps c.) LIBOR d.)LIBOR + 100 bps
149)Under UCPDC-600, the documents must be presented by or on behalf of the beneficiary

for payment, not later than ___________ after the date of shipment, but in any event not later
than the expiry date of the credit
a.) 21 banking days b.) 21 business days c.)21 working days d.) calendar
days
150)Under UCPDC-600, if the expiry date of a credit or the last day for presentation falls on
a day when the bank to which presentation is to be made is normally closed, the expiry date
or the last day for presentation, as the case may be will be:
a.) the first preceding banking day b.) the first following day
c.) the next following business day d.) the first preceding business day
151) Which of the following is NOT a capital account transaction?
a.) Investment in foreign securities. b.) Transfer of immovable property
outside India
c.) Export and import in to India d.)Raising foreign currency loans in
India and abroad
152)The foreign exchange can be released as Currency notes /

Coins up to :
a.) USD 3000 or its equivalent b.) USD 5000 or its equivalent in case of
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Iraq and Libya

c.) No ceiling in case of Iran, Russian Federation, and other republics of commonwealth
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of independent countries
d.) All of the above
153)Which is not correct in case of outward remittances under Liberalised Remittance

Scheme:
a.) Remittance for any purpose specifically prohibited under Schedule-1 of FEMA
b. ) Remittances made to Bhutan, Nepal, Mauritius or Pakistan permitted
c. ) Remittances can be made by any Resident Corporate, Partnership firms, HUFs, Trusts
etc.
d. ) It is mandatory to have PAN number to make remittances
154) While quoting the rates, the banks take into account the time factor i.e. how much is
going to be taken to get the purchased currency credited to the NOSTRO account abroad.
This date is known as:
a.) Cash date b.)Spot date c.) Forward Date d.)Value date
155) FCNR(B) deposits can be opened as Term deposit for the period:
a) ) Minimum 15 days , Maximum 10 years b.) Minimum 1 year, Maximum 5
years
c.) Minimum 1 year 1 day, Maximum 2 years d.) Minimum 1 year, Maximum 10
years
156) The NRE/ NRO accounts can be opened by NRI/PIO as a joint accounts with close
relatives who are resident Indian under _____________ condition:
a)Either or Survivor b.) Jointly c.)Former or
Survivor d.)Can‟t be opened with resident Indian
157)Which is true in NRO account:
61.a.a. Any person who is a resident can open the account.
61.a.b. Any person resident in Nepal and Bhutan can open.
61.a.c. Additional preferential interest rate for staff deposit not available
61.a.d. No restriction in repatriation of funds from NRO accounts
158) Resident Foreign Currency (Domestic) account can be opened as
a.) Only Current account
b.) SB/ CA
c.) Term deposits only
d.) SB/CA and Term deposits
159) SIBOR means : a.) Symbolic inter-bank Offered rate b.) Sri Lanka Inter-bank
Offered rate
c.) Singapore Inter-bank Offered rate. d.) Systematic Inter-bank
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Offered rate
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160) The rate that Indian banks and other derivative market participants use as a benchmark
for setting prices on forward rate agreements and interest rate derivatives:
a.) London Inter-bank offered rate[LIBOR] b.) Mumbai inter-bank
offered rate[MIBOR]
c. Mumbai Inter-bank Forward Offered rate [ MIFOR] c.) Euro Inter-bank offered
rate [ EURIBOR]
161) Under, UCPDC –600, the words “abox”usedt”orin“apprconn amount of LC or quantity

of goods, or price per unit, the LC are to be construed as allowing a tolerance not to
exceed___________ the amount, quantity, or price to which they refer:
a.) 15% more or 15% less than b.)10% more or 10% less than
c.) 5% more or 5%less than d.) 2% more or 2% less than
162) Under UCPDC-600, a bank assumes no responsibility for consequences arising out of
the interruption of its business by the Acts of God, riots, civil commotions, insurrections,
wars, acts of terrorism, or by any strikes or lockouts or causes beyond its control. This is
called as:
a.) Disclaimer b.)Force majeure c.) Modus operandi d.)Exclusion
of liability
163) Which of the following is most preferred LC for an exporter:

a.) Revocable b.) Irrevocable and red clause
c.) Irrevocable, confirmed and without recourse d.) Confirmed
and standby
164) LC issued in lieu of bank guarantee, is called:
a. ) Red clause LC b.) Green Clause LC
c.) Standby LC d).Revolving LC
165) Transferable Letter of credits can be transferred:
a.) Any number of times b.) Only once c.) 2 times d.) 5 times
166) The statutory authority which administers the Exchange Control in India:
a.) Ministry of commerce b.) DGFT c.) FEDAI d.) RBI e.)FEMA
167) In foreign Exchange transaction, which of the following is the basic buying rate:
a.) Bills Buying rate b.) TT Buying rate
c) FC buying rate d.) Direct rate e.Interbank
rate
168)Under UCPDC-600, branches of same bank in different

countries are:
a.) Same bank b.)Different bank c.)Associate bank
d.)Subsidiary bank
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169)In respect of sale or purchase of foreign exchange, the following principal would be
followed in direct rate:
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a.) Buy high b.) Sell low c.) Buy low, sell high d.) Buy high, sell
low
170) Mr. Rajiv, a resident of Bangalore, had shifted to USA for settled there itself. While in
USA, he married a USA girl, Martina, What is the status of Martina as per FEMA?
a.) An Indian Resident b.) Foreigner c.) A person of Indian origin
d.)Non-resident Indian
171) R-Return refers to returns concerning_________:
a.) ALM Position b.) CRR maintenance position
c.) NPA/SWL position d.) Foreign Exchange transactions
172) IF the contraventions of any direction given by RBI under FEMA or to file a return as
per the Act, RBI can impose additional fine that may extend up to:
a.) Rs.200 per day b.) Rs.500 per day c.)Rs.1000 Per day d.) Rs.2000
per day
e.) Rs.5000 per day
173) An exporter gets a letter of credit for export of garments to US but the expiry date of the
credit falls on 15th August, which is a public holiday in India. In such circumstances,
the documents for negotiation can be submitted to the negotiating bank on :
a.) Succeeding working day c.) Succeeding banking day
b.) Preceding business day d.) Preceding banking day
174) What is the maximum amount that can be deposited in EEFC account:
a) 25% of the exchange earned b.) 50% of the exchange earned
c.) 75% of the exchange earned d.) 100% of the exchange earned
175) The gap between the buying rate and selling rate of a currency is called:
a.) Bid-ask spread b.) Dealer’s margin c.Dealer’s spread
d.Exchange margin
176) When a dealer purchases more of a currency and is unable to dispose it off, the bank is
exposed to:
a.Lossb.Exchange riskd.Oversold position e.Dealing risk
177) A nominated bank or issuing bank shall each have a maximum of __________following
the day of presentation to determine if the documents are in order:
a.) 2 banking days c.) 5 working days
b.) 5 banking days d.) 15 banking days
178) The bank which undertakes the responsibility of payment by the issuing bank and on its
failure to pay is called :
a.) Negotiating bank b) Confirming bank c.) Reimbursing bank d.)
Advising Bank
179) Any LC which permits the advances for storage of goods in a warehouse in addition to
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pre-shipment advance is called as:

a.) Back to back LC b.) Standby LC c.) Green Clause LC d.)
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Red clause LC
180) Any LC is the one that can be cancelled or amended at any time without giving prior
notice to the knowledge of the beneficiary is called:
a.) Red Clause LC b.) Stand by LC c.) Revocable LC d.)
Irrevocable LC
181) Mr. Jayant is going abroad for Medical Treatment at Singapore. He is accompanied by
his wife as attendant. How much foreign Exchange can be released to attendant as per
FEMA:
a.) USD 10000 b.)USD 15000 c.) USD 25000 d.)USD 100000 e.)
USD 250000
182) Any Resident individuals with actual forex exposures are
allowed to book forward contracts upto______________ on
declaration, subject to certain conditions:
a.) USD 10,000 b.) USD 100,000 c.)USD 200,000 d.)USD 250,000
e.).USD 1,000,000
183) In case of Foreign Currency Non- Resident(Banks ) account, the ceiling of Interest rate
for the term deposits of 3 to 5 years are :
a.)LIBOR + 100 bps b.)LIBOR+ 200 bps
c.)LIBOR+ 300 bps d.)LIBOR + 400 bps e.)No
limit at all
184) Whenever the NRI visits India on his temporary visit, can render Foreign currency to
his accounts exceeding __________ has to submit Currency declaration form.
a.) USD 3000 b.)USD 5000 d.)USD 10000 e.)USD
25000
185) Any forex remittances with relates to Cultural tour as per the Schedule II of FEMA
should obtain permission from which ministry for release of forex:
a.) Ministry of finance b.)Ministry of HRD c.)Ministry of surface
transport
d.) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
186) Which of the following is true with regard to borrowings in Foreign Currency from
Close relatives outside India?
a. The borrowing sum not to exceed USD 250000 or its equivalent from his close
relatives outside India
b. Minimum maturity period of the loan is one year
c. Loan is free of interest
d. Amount of loan is received by inward remittance in free forex through
normal banking channels or by debit to NRE/FCNR account of a non-
resident lender.
e. All the above
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187) A person resident in India is allowed to retain foreign currency notes up to an amount of
________ or its equivalent :
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a.) No limit b.)USD 2000 c.)USD 5000 d.)USD 10000
188) Currency declaration form is a declaration given to custom authorities while entering
India by any person if:
a. ) Aggregate value of Foreign exchange in the form of Currency notes, TCs,exceeds
USD 10000 or equivalent
b. )Aggregate Value of Foreign Currency notes exceeds USD 5000 or its
equivalent
c. ) Both a and b d.)None of the above
189) The All-in-Cost ceilings for External Commercial Borrowings for the maturity period of
three years and up to five years is:
a.) 6 months LIBOR plus 200 bps b.)6 months LIBOR plus 300 bps
c.) 6 months LIBOR plus 450 bps d.) 6 months LIBOR plus 500 bps
190) In an export business, if the aggregate FOB realized value during the current and
previous 2 financial years exceeds USD2000 million, then the export enjoys the status of
:
a.)One Star Export house b.)Two Star Export house
c.)Three Star Export house d.)Four Star Export house e.) Five Star
Export house
191) The AD banks and Status holder exporters can self write off the unrealised Export bills
up to:
a. 5% of the total export proceeds realized during previous calendar year
b. 10% of the total export proceeds realized during previous calendar year
c. 5% of the total export proceeds realized during previous financial year
d. 10% of the total export proceeds realized during previous financial year
e. No write off is permitted
192) The Authorised Dealers should crystallize the overdue export bills from foreign currency
liability to Rupee liability by applying:
a.) Bill selling rate b.)TT selling rate c.)FC selling rate d.)TT buying rate
193) In a letter of credit, by adding a confirmation, the confirming bank undertakes the
responsibility similar to that of :
a.)Negotiating bank b.)Advising bank c.)Issuing bank d.)Both b
and c
194) Pre-shipment Credit in Foreign Currency is allowed at ________ related interest rates:
74
a.)LIBOR b.)SIBOR c.)EURIBOR d.)MIBOR

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195) Which of the form does not match its purpose:

a.)ETX- Seeking extension in realisation of bills from RBI
b.)XOS- Statement of exports bills outstanding more than 6 months
c.)EFC- Opening of Foreign Currency accounts with a bank in India or abroad by
Exporters
d.)BEF –Application for payment of import payment
196) Custom office returns to the exporter, which copy of the export declaration form:
a. )Trade control copy b.) Currency control copy
c.) Exchange control copy d.) Foreign control copy
197) Advance remittance can be allowed by AD banks, against import of aircraft /helicopter/
other aviation related purchases can be allowed without bank guarantee for an amount
up to:
a.)USD one million b.)USD five million c.)USD ten million
d.)USD fifty million
198) A foreign national on a 3 months visit to India wants to open a bank account:
a. He cannot be allowed to open any account
b. He can open any type of account that he need of
c. He can open an NRE account
d. He can open a NRO account e) Account can be opened only with RBI
Permission
199) Under UCPDC-600, if the provisions of LC and the UCDPC are contradictory:
a. Provision of UCPDC would prevail over the provisions of LC
b. Provisions of LC would prevail over the provisions of UCPDC

c. Provisions favourable to the beneficiary would prevail d.
d. Provisions favourable to the applicant would prevail
200) Forex transactions are classified according to date of-deal and date of delivery. Which
of the following is not correct regarding type of exchange transaction?
(a) cash:which is to be settled on the same day
(b) spot: delivery of foreign exchange takes place on the secondworking day of the contract
(c) TOM: delivery of foreign exchange takes place on the nextworking day of the contract
(d) Forward: delivery of foreign exchange takes place beyond secondworking day of the
contract
(e) None of these
201.what is BIN in in related to Export/ Import:

a.Business identity no , b.Business Identification number, c.bank
identity no, d. non of these.
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Page
202. The following document branch should obtain from the Exporter
except one:
a.Copy of 10digit IE code, b.The copy of the certificate/letter format
prescribed by customs if any, c.copy of the PAN card., d. all of these .
203. What are the documents required by the exporters: a.valid IE
code, b. register their AD code of the bank with the customs, c.
opening of current account for any drawback incentive. D. all of the
above.
204.What is the time period a AD banks can extent for settlement of
import duties:
a.one year, b. two years c. six months, d.three years .
205.What is time period for entire merchanting trade transaction to be
completed:a. Months, b. one year, c. nine months,d. none of these.
206. What are the accounts that a tourist visiting india can open? a.
nre ac, b. domestic SB, c. NRO ac, d. Nro account not exceeding six
months.
207.What is the time period for entire merchanting trade transaction
to be completed:a.9monts, b. 12months, c.18months, d. 2years.
208.Under which route Nri can make foreign direct investments in
India? a. Capital market, b. foreign direct investment, c. portfolio
investment scheme(PIS), d. none of these.
209.What is time period AD bank can extent for period of realisation?
a.6months at a time, b. 8months at a time, c.12months at atime, d.
none of these.
210.What is the last date for reporting Annual performance report to
RBI?
a. 31st dec, b. 31st march, c. 30th june, d.30th september.
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Page
1.Following are the part of risk management committee of our bank
except one given below . 1.ALCo, 2.CRMC, .3.ORMC, 4.CAPS
2.Expand the accronym ICAAP: 1.Internal capital adequacy &

assessment process, b. Internal capital assessment process, c.Inner
capital adequacy & assessment process, d.Interior capex adequacy &
assessment process.
3.Credit risk management policy is consists of following: a. risk

Identify, b. Risk measurement, c.risk monitor, d.all of the above.
4.What is the role assigned to ALM(asset liability management

policy)policy. a. for effectively managing operational risk, b. liquidity
position of bank, c. credit risk of bank, d.none of these.
5. Market risk policy consists of following risk: a.precious metal

business b.operational risk, c. treasury operation policy , d. treasury
operation , e. all of the above
6. Operation risk management consists of following :a. loss data

collection, b. business line mapping, c.risk & control self assessment ,
d. key risk indicator, e. all of the above.
7. Information security guidelines consists of following except

77
one:a. Password policy, 2.access control sub policy, c. network policy,

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d.disaster recovery plan.
8. MCLR compise of all except one: a.Marginal cost of funds,

b.Negative carry on account of CRR, c.Operating cost , d. Tenor
premium, e. all of the above.
9. Banks are supposed to publish internasl benchmark for the

following maturities: a. overnight MCLR, b. Six months MCLR ,c.one
year mclr, d. all of these.
10. Following loans are exempted from MCLR except one:

a.advance to own bank deposit , b.advance to banks own employees,
c. fixed rate loan , d. Mortgage loan.
11. RAM(risk assessment model) is a: a. hardware, b. Software, c.

Apps, d. internal rating.
12. RAM note is using for commercial credit proposals of minimum

what amount in our bank: a. Rs.50lac , b. 25lac, c. Rs.100lac,
d.Rs.37.5lac.
13. All commercail proposal of Rs. 1Cr & above are to be validated
by which department: a.CRMD zo, b.IRMD Ho, c.HOCC , d. none of
these.
14. How many level every use have in RAM: 1.Two levels, b. one, c.
three, d. five.
15. RAM is having following assessment type except one :a.

Greenfield project, b.company with project, c. company without
project , d. whitefield projects.
16. What are the three pillars of BASEL 1:
a.Minimum capital requires, 2.supervisory review, c.market

78
discipline, d. all of the above.

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17. Requirement of BASELiii of minimum common equity tire 1 by
march 2019 is : a. 5.5 b. 6.5. c.8.5, d.9.5.
18. Capital conservation buffer is to be maintained as per Baseliii to

what percent:a. 2.5%, b. 3.25%, c.3.15% d. none of these.
19. Under Bael iii concept two new framework was introduced ,
one is LCR or liquidity coverage ratio, what is the other one: a.SIFI,
b.RWA, c.NSFR(net stable funding ratio), d. none of these.
20. Which capital is having the highest loss-absorbing capacity:
a.CCB, b. Tier ii capital, c. Minimum common equity tierI, d. all of

these
21.What is the applicable risk weight to corporate having AAA rating:

a.30%, b.100%, c.20%, d.200%.
22.What is the percent of credit conversation factor of financial bank

guarantee:a.50%, b.20%, c.100%, d. all of these.
23.Credit conversation factor(CCF) is applicable to Which credit

exposure:a. Fund based exposure, b. corporate exposure, c. Non
fund based exposure, d. all of these.
24.If the mapping of external rating grades is BB , then what is the

corresponding internal rating for the same:a. CB1, b. CB8, CB7, d.CB6
25.While mapping internal rating grades external rating grades

following scoring in RAM need to be assessed: a.Business score, b.
financial score, c.Managemnent score d. Industry score, e. all of
these.
26.In case of propossl for fresh sanction where borrower is not

externally rated , then internal rating should not be assigned better
79
than: a.CB4, b.CB8, c.CB2, d. none of these.

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27.Under IRB approach banks are required to categorize their
banking book exposure into the following asset classes except
one: a.Corporate, b. sovereign, c. retail d. all
28.Under advanced IRB approach banks provide their own
estimate in the name of :a. PD (probablity of default, b.LGD
(loss given default), c. EAD(exposure at default), d.Effective
maturity (M), w. all of these.
29.Indas 109 guidelines is mandatory in indiafor all
companies from which date:a.01.04.2016, b. 01.04.2017,
c.01.10.2018,d. 01.06.2018
30.INDAS 109 guidelines is compulsory for the companies
having networthof more than Rs. 250Cr from which date: a.
01.04.2019, b.01.04.2020,c. 01.01.2018,d.01.04.2017.
31.Under INDAS109 guidelines credit assets are divided into 3
stages which are : a. performing, b. underforming, c. non
performing. d. all of these.
32.following are the part of operational risk management
capital charge method expect one: a. The basic indicator
approach, b. The standardized approach, c. Advance
measurement approach, d. all of these .
33.In our bank operation risk management risk capital is
being charged under which method:, a. The standardized
approach, b. advanced measurement approach, 3.The basic
indicator approached , d. all of these.
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Page
34.Following are the part of operation risk except one: a.
Legal risk, b. fire at office, c. Termites eating cash & security
documents, d . Reputational risk.
35.Following are the type of operational risk except one: a.
Actual loss events, b. potential loss events , c. near miss
events, d. all of these .
36.The standardised approach(TSA) in operational risk bank
activies are divided into how many parameters: a. five, b.
seven, c. six , d.Eight.
37.Under operational risk capital charge for each business
line is calculated by multiplying by a factor which is know as:
a. alpha factor,b. gama factor, c. bita factor , d. all of these.
38.Totasl capital charge is calculated under operational
method on the basis of : n of the regulatory capital acroa.
three year average of the simple summatioss each business
line, b. five year average, c. four year average , ed. None of
these.
39.Following are the part of operational risk under advanced
measurement approachs: a. Internal loss data, b. Scenario
analysis, c. External loss data, d. all of these.
40.What is full form of BEICf: a.Business environment &
internal control factor, b.Business environment &inner
control factor, c. Business environment & internal controlling
factor , d. none of these.
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Page
41.Trading book consists of the banks proprietary positions in
financial instrument which covering :a. debt securities, b.
Equity, c. foreign Exchange, d. Commodities , e. all of these.
42.Market is defines as: a. Adverse movements of mark to
mark et value of the trading portfolio,b.ALCOmovements,
c.strees testing policy, d. none of these.
43.Objective of ALM is to protect & enhance:a. The net
interest income, b. the net interest margin, c. market value of
networth, d.all of these.
44.ALM is all about managing three central risks which are:a.
Interest rate risk, b. Liquidity risk, c. Forex risk, d. all of these.
45.Maturing seets , cash inflow classified into how many time
buckets under ALM: a. 13, b.9, c,15, d.11.
46.LCR (liquidity coverage ratio ) should be calculated on the
basis of: a. high quality liquidassets/total net cash out flow
over nest 30calender days, b.mid quality liquid assets/net
cash out flow, c.stock of high quality liabilities/total net cash
outflows for next 30 days. d. all of these.
47.Net stable funding ratio(NSFR)calculated on the basis of :
a. availble stable funding/required stable funding, b
,ASF/RSFc, c. RSF/ASF, d . both a& b.
48.Capital conservative buffer should be what percentage in
the form of CET from march 31.03.2019: a. 2.5%, b. 3.5%,
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c.4.2%, d. 1%.
Page
49.Following are the positive attitude to have risk
management except one : a. Risk is natural, b. Risk should be
managed by everyone, c. Risk management enhanced value,
d. risk is avoidable.
50.Following are the negative atttitue to have risk
management except one: a. Risk is avoidable, b.Discusssing
risk show weakness, c. risk management protects value, d.
Discussing risk shows maturity.
51.ICCAP comprises a banks procedure & measures designed
to ensure the following: a. An appropriate identification &
measurement of risks, b.An appropriate level of internal
capital in relation to the banks risk profile, c.application &
further development of suitable risk management systems in
the bank, d. all of these.
52.The board of deirectors of bank shall assess & document
whether the process relating to ICAAP implementatyed by the
bank successfully once in :a. six months, b. nine months,
c.two years , d. one year.
53.Criteria of good Key risk indicators (KEI)are the following
except one: a. indicators be mesurable at specific point of
time, b. provide useful management information, c.reflect
objective measurement rather than subjective judgement, d.
all of the above.
54.Following are the example ofg KRI (key risk
83
indiacator)except one , please mark it:a. Number of customer

Page
complaints, b.total time that the CBSwas down, c. no of bank
gurantee expired but not cancelled by the branch, d. readily
understood & communicated.
55.Mapaping of asset classification rule under INDAS 109
defined in how many stages: a. stage one, b. stage two, c.
stage three , d. all of these.
56.Provisioning norm under INDAS109 in stage three is :a.
lifetime expected loss, b. 12months expected loss, c. none, d.
incurred.
57.Commercial real estate exposure attrats risk weight of
what percentage:a. 75% , b. 100%, c. 150% d. 125%.
58.Under credit risk, provision norms say that when provision
are at least twenty percent of O/S amount of NPA the risk
weight would be : a. 100%, b. 150% , c. 75% , d. 25%.
59.Following are the external credit rating agenecy except
one:a. CIRSIL, b. CARE, c. Smera, d. ICRA, e all of the
aboveare rating agency.
60.While mapping internal rating grades with external rating
grades how many notches is permited by competent
authority:a. Two notches, b. five notches, c. one notches, d .
three notches.
61.Interest rate risk can be measured from the following
approaches : a. earning prospective, b. economic value
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perspective, c. duration gap analysis, d. all of the above.

Page
62.Following are the types of liquidity risk , please mark the
unmatched. a. Funding risk, b,ICCAP. c. time risk, d. call risk.
63.concept of market risk cash outflow maturing assets are
:a.capital, b. reserve & surplus, c. deposits, d. borrowings, e.
all of these.
64.In concept of market risk cash inflow maturing liabilities
are: a.cash, b. balances with RBI, c. advances, d. fixed assets,
e. all of these .
65.In cyber security policy full form of CCMP: a. cyber crisis
management policy, b. cyber security management plan,
c.cyber secured managing plan, d. all of these,.
Case study one
You have been posted to a newly opened branch , where already there are ten bank branches of
public sector as well pvt sector. You alongwith your branch manager have been assigned for twenty
five percent CASA growth for next year . The area under your domain is urban in nature having
educated inhabitants. Please discuss your strategy how to improve the growth of CASA with your
existing product..
Case study two

A complain has been made against you of rude behavior to your existence customer while accepting
the cash from the customer, you have refused to accept the the small denomination note from
customer which is against the RBI currency circulation policy as mentioned in complained. Now you
have been asked to sort out the dispute at your end. Kindly discuss what should be your present
strategy & future course of action in this regard
case study three

Recently there were incognito visit by RBI official at your branch premises who have highlighted
poor customer services at your branch which is totally against the modalities of BCSBI code,
immediately entire branch people have been summoned by the zonal office to improve the
customer service of your branch premises. What should be your strategy & focused . kindly give your
imputs
CASE STUDY FOUR

One day one customer came to you to know about the education loan facility for his son. While you
requesting to went to officer desk for information. Customer challenged you as being the employee
of the bank I want to know the every details of the loan from you only. Please discuss what customer
85
right in this regard & what should be your course of action.

Page
CASE STUDY five

You are the cashier of the branch , you have cash retention power of your branch of Rs. 5.00lac, on
cost benefit analysis it has come to notice to your higher authority that because of excess cash
remain idle with you , bank as a whole loosing lot of income from same,. Not only that as your
branch is lying grey area the security is another issue for cash remittance. You have been advise by
your branch head to give your feedback for optimizing entire process to how to make it as profit
oriented . kindly discuss.
1 BHIM Full form of UPI a.Unified Payment Interface

Aadhaar b.United Payment Interface
UPI c.Unified paid Interface
d.None of the above
2 BHIM Which machines is required for a.Android Smart phone
Aadhaar BHIM Aadhaar transactions b.Finger print authentication
UPI device
c.Both a & b
d.None of the above
3 BHIM Smartphones running on a.Smartphones running on Nokia
Aadhaar following operating system can Asha platform
UPI be used for BHIM Aadhaar pay b.Smartphones running on iOS
c.Smartphones running on Android
OS
d.None of the above
4 BHIM Full form of BHIM a.Bharat Interface for Money
Aadhaar
UPI
b.Big Interface for Money
c.Bank Interface for Money
d.None of the above
5 BHIM For transaction through a.Mobile number
Aadhaar b.PAN number
UPI
“BHIM Aadhaar Pay” account c.Aadhaar number
of the customer should be d.None of the above
linked to
6 BHIM How to install “Corp Bhim a.From Google Play Store
Aadhaar b.From iPhone App Store
UPI
Aadhaar Pay” c.From Microsoft Store
d.All of the above
7 BHIM The per transaction limit in a.Rs.10000/
Aadhaar
UPI
Bhim Aadhar is b.Rs.15000/
c.No limit
d.None of the above
8 BHIM Per Day maximum transaction a.Rs.50000/-
Aadhaar b.Rs.100000/
UPI
limit in Bhim Aadhar is
c.No limt
d.None of the above
86
9 BHIM Who has introduced a.Govt of India in association

Aadhaar “BHIMAadhaar Pay” with RBI
Page
UPI b.Govt of India in association

with IBA
c.Govt of India in association
with IDRBT
d.Govt of India in
association with NPCI
10 BHIM Basic requirements for a.POS machine
Aadhaar “BHIMAadhaar Pay” b.Debit Card
UPI c.Android smartphone and a
biometric device
d.Both a & b
BALANCE SHEET ANALYSIS
1. A Balance Sheet shows the position of an enterprise __________________

a- On a given day b-Through out the year c- comparatively d-Nonr of the above e-
All of the above
2. The ___________of the Balance sheet show what money has been made available to the
enterprise from different sources and the ____________ show how the money has been
employed.
a-Liability & asset b-Asset & liability c-Capital & Fixed asset d- None of the above e- All
of the above
3. In simple words, assets are what is ________ by an enterprise.

a-Owned by b-Owed to c- Earned by d-None of the above e- All of the above
4. ________ assets are acquired for long-term use in the business.

a- Current asset b- None current asset c- Fixed asset d- Intangible asset e- None of
the above
5. Fixed assets are likely to be converted into cash in the normal course of business. YES/NO
6. _________assets represent the enterprise’s short-term employment of its funds.
a-Fixed asset b- Current asset c-Intangible asset d- Non Current asset e- None of the
above
7. Quick assets are part of the ________ assets.

a-Fixed asset b- Current asset c-Intangible asset d- Non Current asset e- None of the
above
8. Stocks of finished goods and other supplies are normally valued at ___________.
87
a-Cost price b- Market price c-Acquisition price d- Lower of a,b,c e- None of the
Page
above
9. Land is usually valued at __________________.
a-Cost price b- Market price c-Acquisition price d- Lower of a,b,c e- None of the
above
10. It is usually possible to see how an enterprise has obtained its finance by looking at the
___________on its balance sheet.
a-Liability b- asset c- Current asset d-Capital e- None of the above
11. The outside liabilities consist of _______________

a-Term loans b- Debenture c- Bonds d- All of the above e- None of the above
12. Bank overdrafts are working capital advances from banks. They are classified as
a-Fixed asset b- Current asset c- Long term liability d- Current liability e- None of the
above
13. As a rule, an enterprise should be in a position where it can meet its current liabilities from
its _____________.
a-Current asset b- Bank finance c- Own source d- cash e- None of the above
14. A balance sheet should show not only how much capital has been issued by a company, but
also how much capital the company is permitted to issue. YES/NO
15. Gross profit is equal to ___________minus __________
16. Cash generation is equal to ____________plus_________________.
17- Current ratio is arrived at by

a. Current assets- current liabilities b. capital/ current assets c. bank borrowing/ current
assets
d. current assets/ current liabilities
18- Prepaid expenses are shown as _____ in a balance sheet

a. Current assets b. current liabilities c. long term debts d. loss in P/L account e. None
19- Working capital Loans upto 2 crores other than SME sector are computed under
88
a. MPBF method b. Net owned fund method c. Projected turnover method d. cash
budget method.
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20- If current ratio is 1.5 and current liabilities are 60000. The Net working capital is
a. 90000 b.120000 c.30000 d. 60000 e. none
21- Which of the following is a current liability

a. Trade debtors b. provision for electric bill payment c. loan taken for machine d.
inventory
22- If a company makes loss it will be shown as _____ in the balance sheet
a. Current liability b. long term liability c. current asset d. intangible asset
23- Net profit ratio is calculated by

a. Net profit/net sales b. net profit/ total assets c. net profit/ net purchases d. net profit
/ net worth
24- Which is a solvency ratio

a. Current ratio b. debt – equity ratio c. creditors turn over ratio d. quick ratio e. none
25- A firm has a fixed expense of 12000. The cost price of single unit is Rs. 8 and selling price is
Rs. 12. If the company sells 100 units a day , how many days are required to reach break
even?
a. 30 days b.40 days c. 100 days d. cannot be calculated e.none of these
26- Which of the following is useful for fixation of repayment period

a. Current ratio b. debt service coverage ratio c. debt equity ratio d. debtors turn over
ratio
27- Furniture of the firm is classified under

a. Capital b. non current asset c. fixed asset d. current asset e. none
28- A machine purchased at Rs.100000 has a life of 4 years . The scrap value is Rs.20000.The
depreciation in the straight line method for the 4th year is
a.25000 b. 15000 c. 33000 d.20000 e. cannot be calculated
29- In a manufacturing company current ratio is very high but quick ratio is very low other
assets being in normal quantity , inventory may be
a. very high b. very low c. moderately low d. none
30- Average collection period in days can be calculated by the formula
a. (avg. creditors/purchases)X365 B. (avg. creditors/ sales)X365 c. (avg.
debtors/sales)X365 d. avg. debtors X short term debts x365
31- Tangible net worth is

a-Capital + reserves b. capital + reserves+ intangibles assets c. capital + reserves-
intangible assets d. total assets + total liabilities
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32- If net profit from a unit is 95000, interest on term loan 20000, instalments on term loan
is 45000, depreciation is 15000, then DSCR shall be
Page
a.1 b.2 c.3 d.1.5 e.none

33- In normal course under PTM, the loan amount permissible is
a.25% of projected turnover b. 20% of projected turnover c. 20% of actual/ audited
turnover d. none
34- When a firm takes a CC of 30 lac , it will be shown as ____ in their balance sheet
a-Capital b . current asset c. current liability d. non current assets e. none
35- Book debts of the firm are ___ for the firm
a-Term liability b. current liability c. current assets d. fixed assets
36- A firm has invested Rs.1 lac in mutual funds with a lock in period of 2 years. It will be
treated as
a. current liability b. fixed assets c. current assets d. non current asset e. fictitious asset
37- If creditors holding period is higher than the last year for a company, it means
a. this year the firm is able to repay its suppliers faster b. This year the repayment is slower
than last year c.there is no relation between repaying and creditors holding period d. it
means, the firm is able to recover its dues from its clients faster.
38- A firm has term loan of Rs.30 lakhs, CC loan of 15 lakhsit has capital of 10lakhs and reserves
10 lakhs. The debt equity ratio shall be
a.2.25 b.1.5 c.2.00 d.1.25 e. none.
39- In a firm liabilities are

a. sources of funds b. uses of funds c. they are to be received from others by the firm d.
none
40- short term assets or current assets means

a. items which are assets and undergo change in 12 months b. items which are to be paid
in 12 months c. which attract depreciation d. none of these
41- short term assets or current assets means

a. items which are assets and undergo change in 12 months b. items which are to be paid
in 12 months c. which attract depreciation d. none of these
42- capital is a
a. long term use of fund b. long term source of fund c. short term use of fund d. short term
use of fund
43- which of the following is an intangible asset

a. good will b. preoperative expenses c. debit balance in P/L account d. all of these.
44- Current asset are otherwise called as

a. short term sources of funds b. net working capital c. gross working capital d. long term
uses of fund
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45- If stock as per stock statement is 10 lakhs ,credit purchases is of 2 lakhs. Margin to be
Page
maintained is 25%. The drawing power on stock shall be

a.10 lakhs b. 8 lakhs c.6 lakhs d.7.5 lakhs
46- Book debts means

a. the amount given on credit and held up by the firm with its clients b. the amount taken
by the firm from it suppliers and to be paid. C. the amount of term loan taken by the firm d.
none of these.
47- A company issues shares worth 1 lakh in cash. It will

a. increase the working capital b. decrease working capital c. no change in working capital
d. None of these
48- If a company has paid Rs.50000/- in cash to creditor, then it will
a. increase the working capital b. decrease working capital c. no change in working capital
d. None of these
49- When long term sources of fund are more than long term uses then there is
a-Increase in current liabilities b. decrease in current assets c. increase in NWC D. None of
these
50- Bank guarantees are

a. off balance sheet items b. contingent liabilities c. non fund based limits d. all are correct
e. all are false.
51- The bench mark debt-equity ratio as per the group lending policy of the bank is
a.3:1 b.1.25:1 c.2:1 d.1.5 :1 e.None of the above
52- Break-even point indicates a point where the units makes

a. no profit – no loss b.profit c. no loss d. Moderate profit e.None of the above
53- Technical feasibility means

a. whether the project is possible technically b.whether the project will make adequate
profits c.whether the technology used is appropriate d.all the above e.none of the above
54- For a cash credit limit of Rs. 12 lac against the stocks in trade with 25% margin, what should
be value of stocks that the firm should have with them, if they want to avail the sanctioned
limit fully when the firm also has creditors to the extent of Rs. 6 lakhs
a. Rs. 18 lakhs b. Rs. 20 lakhs c. Rs. 22 lakhs d. Rs. 24 lakhs e. None of the above
55- Debentures are classified as:

a.Networth b.Term Liabilities c.Current Liabilties d.Non-current liabilities e.None of
these
56- In relation to analysis of financial statement, the Debtors Turnover Ratio

a-establishes relationship between profit and the debtors of the unit
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b-matches net cash sales of the unit to its total profitability

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c-matches net debtors to trade creditors

d-matches net credit sales of the unit to recorded trade debtors thereby
indicating the rate at which cash is generated by turnover of receivables
e-none of these
57- A decline in Receivable / Total Sales ratio indicates:

a-Sales are declining b.Bad debts are increasing
c.Sales are increasing d.Decrease in length of credit allowed e.None of these
58- The Drawing Power against Stock in Cash Credit A/c is regulated as under:
a] Stock + Debtors + Creditors b] Stock – Creditors – Margin
c] Stock – Margin d] Stock – Debtors – Creditors - Margin
59- Assets and Liability Statement of the applicant and guarantor is to be certified by a
Chartered Accountant where the credit limit is ____
a] Rs.25 lakh and above b] Rs.10 lakh and above c] Rs.50 lakh and above d] Rs. 1 crore
and above
60- A firm has net profits of 40 and its capital and reserves are 210. If it has good will of 10,
then return on net worth is
A. 25% B. 20% C. 18.5% D. 16%
QUESTIONS ON RETAIL LENDING
01. The advantages of Retail lending are

a. Spreads risk
b. Cliental expansion
c. Better yield
d. Helps increasing CASA
e. All the above
02. Banks are concentrating on Retail lending because of
a. High growth of income in middle class

b. Increase in nuclear family
c. Sudden surge in IT industry
d. Government policies
e. All the above
03. In case of other than salaried class, the tolerable limit of increase of income from the
previous year is
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20 % d. 25 %
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04. The percentage of net income to EMI for those whose income is more thanRs.10.00
lakh under our Corp Scheme is ___________
a.60% b. 50% c. 40% d. 70%
05. The percentage of net income to EMI for those whose income is Rs. 3-.00 to
Rs.10.00 lakh under our Corp Scheme is ___________
a.60% b. 50% c. 40% d.
70%
06. The percentage of net income to EMI for those whose income is less than Rs. 3
Lakhs under our Corp Scheme is ___________
a.60% b. 50% c. 40% d. 70%
07. Under Corp Schemes, the command area for Rural and Semi-urban branch is _____
Kms from the branch.
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20
d. 5
08. Under Corp Schemes, the command area for Urban branch is _____ Kms from the
branch.
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d.
25
09. Under Corp Schemes, the command area for Metro branch is _____ Kms from the
branch.
a. 25 b. 40 c. 50
d. 100
10. To Avail CHOME borrowers must be aged between

a. 18-60 years b.20-60 years c.18-60 years d.18-65 years
11. In CHOME for repayment purpose maximum Spouse plus.....close relative may join as co
applicant
a.4 b.3 c.1 d.2
12. The maximum loan that can be sanctioned under Corp Home scheme at Metro area is
Rs…..
a. Rs.100 lakh b. Rs.50 lakh c. Rs.500 lakh d. Rs.25 lakh
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13. In CHOME proposal, if the property is held jointly in the names of….. only to be
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considered.
a.Close relatives’ b. Friend/s c. Partner/s d. all
14. In CHOME loan, regarding the sale transaction between, which one is correct?
a.close relatives are not permitted
b.husband& wife permitted
c.husband & wife not permitted
d.No restriction
15. What is the maximum loan amount can be financed for purchase of site /land in Metro in
CHOME
a. 25 lakhs b.1 crore c. 50 lakhs d. 15 lakhs
16. What is the maximum loan amount can be financed in PT &Urban in CHOME
a. 35 lakhs b.1 crore c. 50 lakhs d. 5 crore
17. What is the maximum loan amount can be financed for purchase of site /land in PT
&Urban in CHOME
a. 25 lakhs b. 1 crore c. 50 lakhs d. 15 lakhs
18. What is the maximum loan amount can be financed in Rural in CHOME
a.35 lakhs b. 1 crore c. 50 lakhs d. 5 crore
19. What is the maximum loan amount can be financed for purchase of site /land in Rural in
CHOME
a. 25 lakhs b. 1 crore c. 50 lakhs d. 15 lakhs
20. In CHOME the prescribed margin up to Rs.30 lakhs is.....
a.25 % b.20 % c. 10 % d.15%
21. In CHOME the prescribed margin above Rs.30 lakhs & up to Rs.75 lakh is .....
a.25 % b.20 % c. 10 % d.15%
22. In CHOME the prescribed margin above Rs.75 lakhs is .....
a.25 % b.20 % c. 10 % d.15%
23. In CHOME which of the following is correct
a. Third party guarantee is mandatory
b. Third party guarantee is not mandatory
c. Where ever third party guarantee is not obtained co obligation of spouse is
mandatory.
d. both b &c are correct
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24. In CHOME whether cost of pre owned land can be considered as margin
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a.Yes, if it is inherited/gifted
b.Yes, if it is not inherited/gifted but not evidenced by sale deed
c.Yes, if it is not inherited/gifted, evidenced by sale deed
d.None of the above
25.In CHOME the residual /balancelife of the building shall be at least…more than the
repayment tenor.
a. 5 years b.10 years c. 1 year d. Equal to repayment period
26. Maximum repayment period available under our Corp Home loan is ____
a. 180 months b. 240 months c. 360 months d. 120 months
27 .In case of house/flat under construction, valuation to be done after the construction is
complete,thereafter, valuation of property shall be done once in…. years onlyin the cases
where the account is classified as NPA.
a. 1 b.5 c.3 d.accounts valuation is not required
28. Under Corp Home Scheme, Rent Savings / Future Rent may be consideredto the
maximum of ________% based on actual rent prevailing in that area.
a. 20% b. 25% c. 100% d. 50%
29.In case of takeover of housing loans, the age of the property shallnot exceed __years
a. 25 years b. 65 years c. 10 years d No such bar
30. Under Corp Home Scheme, loans against second charge is_________
a. Permitted after obtaining permission from Zonal Office
b.Permitted
c. Permitted subject to sanctioned by Zonal Head
d. Permitted after obtention of NOC from other bank/institution
31. Under Corp Home Scheme, property shall be situated within ___ kmsradial distance
from the branch of urban/PT
a.30 b. 20 c.15 d. 10
32. Corp Home Loan maximum up to Rs.___ will be treated under priority sectorHousing.
(Project cost-35) in Metros with > 10 lacs population.
a.15 lakh b. 20 lakhs c. 28 lakhs d. 30 lakhs

33. CHOME for reimbursement of house construction charges (house
constructed)…..fromdate of Registration is permitted.
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a. Any time b. within 12 months c. within 24 months d. within 3 months

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34 .Maximum tenor under CHOME fixed rate loans restricted to ….. years for salaried class
and ……….. years for other category of borrowers.
a.15-20 b. 20-15 c. 30-20 d.20-30
35. In CHOME where loan is availed for purchase of site & construction of house thereon,
cost of site/land should not exceed……. Ofproject cost.
a.40 % b.20 % c. 10 % d.15%
36. In CHOME which of the following is correct
a. Third party guarantee is mandatory
b. Third party guarantee is not mandatory
c. Where ever third party guarantee is not obtained co obligation of spouse is
mandatory.
d. both b &c are correct
37. In CHOME whether cost of pre owned land can be considered as margin
a.Yes, if it is inherited/gifted
b.Yes, if it is not inherited/gifted but not evidenced by sale deed
c.Yes, if it is not inherited/gifted, evidenced by sale deed
d.None of the above
38.In CHOME the residual /balance life of the building shall be at least…more than the
repayment tenor.
a. 5 years b.10 years c. 1 year d. Equal to repayment period
39. Maximum repayment period available under our Corp Home loan is ____
40 .In case of house/flat under construction, valuation to be done after the construction is
complete, thereafter, valuation of property shall be done once in…. years only in the cases
where the account is classified as NPA.
a. 1 b.5 c.3 d. accounts valuation is not required
41. Under Corp Home Scheme, Rent Savings / Future Rent may be considered to the
maximum of ________% based on actual rent prevailing in that area.
a. 20% b. 25% c. 100% d. 50%
42.In case of takeover of housing loans, the age of the property shall not exceed __years
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a. 25 years b. 65 years c. 10 years d No such bar

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43. Under Corp Home Scheme, loans against second charge is_________
a. Permitted after obtaining permission from Zonal Office
b. Permitted
c. Permitted subject to sanctioned by Zonal Head
d. Permitted after obtention of NOC from other bank/institution
44. Under Corp Home Scheme, property shall be situated within ___ kms radial distance
from the branch of urban/PT
a.30 b. 20 c.15 d. 10
45. Corp Home Loan maximum up to Rs.___ will be treated under priority sectorHousing.
(Project cost-35) in Metros with > 10 lacs population.
a.15 lakh b. 20 lakhs c. 35 lakhs d. 30 lakhs

46. CHOME for reimbursement of house construction charges (house
constructed)…..fromdate of Registration is permitted.
a. Any time b. within 12 months c. within 24 months d. within 3 months
47 .Maximum tenor under CHOME fixed rate loans restricted to ….. years for salaried class
and ……….. years for other category of borrowers.
a.15-20 b. 20-15 c. 30-20 d.20-30
48. In CHOME where loan is availed for purchase of site & construction of house thereon,
cost of site/land should not exceed……. Ofproject cost.
a.40 % b. 50% c. 60% d. 10%
49.Under CHOME Corp Flexi option the loan amount will be ………% of the normal
entitlement.
a.110 b. 130 c.120 d.150
50. Corp Flexi CHOME scheme is available only for the ……….. class
a. all salaried b. business class c. professionals d. salaried younger
borrowers
51. In CHOME in case of purchase of site and construction site value shall not exceed ....% of
Project cost and loan component prescribed for site.
a. 20 b. 40 c.25 d.60
52. In CHOME maximum IRH is given ......months
a. 6 b.12 c.18 d.24
53. In CHOME take over case maximum age of the property can be ...years
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a. 30 b.25c. 15 d.20
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54. Registration charges, stamp duty, documentation charges, shall be included in the project
cost for loans below..... Lakh
a.50 b.25 c.15 d.10
55.What is the maximum loan amount can be financed for purchase of site /land in Semi-
Urban in CHOME
a.25 lakhs b. 1 crore c. 50 lakhs d. 15 lakhs
56. In Corp Vyapar scheme, the loan amount is arrived based on the _____% of projected
turnover
a. 10% b. 20 % c. 30 % d. 40 %
57. The minimum loan amount under Corp Vyapar scheme is
a. 1 Lakh b. 2 Lakhs c. 5 Lakhs d. 10 lakhs
58. The maximum loan amount under Corp Vyapar is
a. 1 Crore b. 2 Crores c. 5 Crores d. 10 Crores
59. The maximum loan amount under Corp Vyapar in metro areas is
a. 1 Crore b. 2 Crores c. 5 Crores d. 10
Crores
60. The maximum loan amount under Corp Vyapar is Port town/Urban areas is
Crores
61. The maximum loan amount under Corp Vyapar in Semi urban areas is
Crores
62. The maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned in rural areas is
a. 10 Lakhs b. 25 Lakhs c. 30 Lakhs d. 100
Lakhs
63. Under Corp Vyapar scheme, the margin to be maintained if immovable property is
offered as security is
a. 25% b. 35 % c. 40 % d. 50 %
64. Under Corp Vyapar scheme, the margin to be maintained if deposits of our bank is
offered as security is
a. 10% b. 15 % c. 20 % d. 25 %
65. Under Corp Vyapar scheme, the margin to be maintained on surrender value of LIC
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policy is
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a. 10 % b. 15% c. 20 % d. 25 %
66. Under Corp Vyapar scheme, the margin to be maintained on NSC is
b. 10 % b. 15% c. 20 % d. 25 %
67. In case of Corp Vyapar Demand loan, the loan is repayable in
a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 7 years d. 10 years
68. In case of Corp Vyapar scheme, stock statement is to be submitted in ____ intervals
if the loan amount is less than Rs. 10 lakhs.
a. Quarterly b. Half yearly c. Yearly d. No need to
submit
69. In case of Corp Vyapar scheme, stock statement is to be submitted in ____ intervals
if the loan amount is less than Rs. 10 lakhs.
a. Quarterly b. Half yearly c. Yearly d. No need to
submit
70. Under Corp Vyapar scheme, the age of the property offered as security should not be
more than
20 years b. 25 years c. 30 years d. 35 years
71. Under Corp Mortgage Scheme, whether loan can be extended to any ofthe partners /
directors / trustees against the property owned by the firm / company / Trust?
a. Can be considered
b. Can be considered with the consent of the firm/company/trust
c. Not to be considered
d. To be considered without any resolution
72. Maximum loan that can be considered under Corp Mortgage Scheme is:
a. Rs.100 lakh b. Rs.500 lakhs c. Rs.50 lakhs d. No upper limit
73. Under Corp Mortgage Scheme, the quantum of loan is restricted to:
a. Rs. 500 lakhs or 50% of the value of the property
b. 10 times of net annual income, maximum of Rs.500 lakhs
c. 10 times of gross annual income, maximum of Rs.500 lakhs
d. 5 times of net annual income, maximum of Rs.100 lakhs
74. Valuation of property shall be done once in ____ years under CorpMortgage Scheme:
a. 2 years b. 5 years c. 3 years d. at the time of enhancement
75. The maximum repayment period fixed under Corp Mortgage Scheme is:
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76. In CMORT there can be a maximum of ...co applicants
a.3 b.2 c.1 d.nil
77. In CMORT whether non IT assessee can avail loan
a. yes b. No c. Yes with a maximum loan of 5 lakhs d. none of the
above
78.CMORT/CMTCC can be for the following purpose only
a.SME b. Domestic/personal c. Business d.All the above
79. To avail CMORT which of the below property can be taken as security
a. Residential b. Commercial c. Industrial d. Any one
80. Commercial real estate proposals of ...lakh and above require in principle clearance
a. 25 b.12 c.100 d.50
81. Under CMORT, Commercial real estate proposals of require in principle clearance for a
proposal of…
a. 12 crores and above b. Rs.50 lakh & above
c. Rs.100 lakh & above d.Rs.25 lakh & above
82. Under Corp Mortgege, the maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned in Metro is
a. 5 Crores b. 3 Crores c. 25 Lakhs d. 10 Lakhs
83. Under Corp Mortgage, the maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned in Port
town/Urban is
84. Under Corp Mortgage, the maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned in Semi-urban
is
85. Under CMORT, the maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned in rural is
86. The minimum loan amount under Corp Mortgage is
a. 1 Lakh b. 2 lakhs c. 5 Lakhs d. 8 lakhs
87. Under Corp Mortgage scheme, the margin on value of the property is
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a. 25 % b. 35% c. 50% d. 60%

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88. Maximum age of the property under Corp Mortgage scheme is

89. Under Corp Mortgage, the running account is valid for
a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years
90. Under Corp Mortgage, the repayment in case of other than salaried should not exceed
91. Maximum loan that can be considered under our Corp Vehicle Scheme [Commercial] is:
a. Rs. 75 lakhs b. Rs. 1 crore c Rs.5 crore d. Rs.7.50 crore
92. Maximum loan under Corp Vehicle scheme for 2 wheelers[Per vehicle] is
a. Rs. 1 lakh b. Rs. 2 Lakhs c. Rs. 3 Lakhs d. Rs. 4 Lakhs
a. Rs. 1 lakh b. Rs. 2 Lakhs c. Rs. 3 Lakhs d. Rs. 4 Lakhs
a. Rs. 25lakhs b. Rs. 50Lakhs c. Rs. 100Lakhs d. Rs. 200Lakhs
95. Under Corp Vehicle scheme, For 2 / 3 wheeler vehicles, the margin requirement is:
a. 25% b. 20% c. 15% d. 10%
96. Under Corp Vehicle scheme, For 4 wheeler vehicles, the margin requirement is:
a. 25% b. 20% c. 15% d. 10%
97. 02. Under Corp Vehicle scheme, For old four wheeler/commercial wheeler vehicles, the
margin requirement is:
a. 50% b. 40% c. 30% d. 20%
98. Margin and Loan amount for second hand two wheeler under Corp VehicleScheme is:
a. 10% & Rs.1 lakh b. 15% & Rs.75000/-
c. 25% & Rs.2 lakh d .Not permitted
99. For second hand vehicles, the age of the vehicle shall not exceed:
a. 5 years b. 3 years c. 2 years d. No restriction
100. Loans to transport operator without collateral security and third partyGuarantee shall be
invariably covered under:
a.CGTMSEb. NEW INDIA ASSURANCE CO.LTD
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c. LIC OF INDIA d. Corp Bima Yojana

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101. The repayment period for 2 Wheelers under Corp Vehicle scheme is
104. Under Corp Vidya Scheme the maximum loan available for studies in India is Rs.___
a. Rs.7.50 lakh b. Rs.4 lakh c.Rs.10 lakh d. Rs.20 lakh
105. Under Corp Vidya Scheme the margin up to Rs.4 lakh is _
a.5% b. 15% c. Nil d. 10%
106. The maximum loan can be sanctioned under Corp Vidya Scheme for studies abroad is:
a. Rs 10 lakh b.Rs. 20 lakh c. Rs.25 lakh d. Rs.7.50 lakh
107.Margin to be maintained for immovable property obtained as collaterals security under
Corp Vidya Scheme is __
a. No margin b. 25% c. 50% d. 35%
108. The minimum percentage of marks under Corp Vidya Scheme is:
a. No minimum marks criteria b. 60% for general candidates & 55% for
SC/ST
c. 60% for all d. 50% for all
109. Maximum repayment to be fixed under Corp Vidya Scheme is:
a. 7 years b. 10 years c.15 years d. 20 years
110. Under Corp Vidya Loan scheme, takeover can be consider subject to:
a. No takeover of Educational Loans
b. Concurrence of transferor bank
c. Only outstanding balance without any enhancement is considered
d. Without change in repayment period, loan can be considered.
111. Under Corp Vidya scheme, the margin to be maintained for studies in India above Rs.
4 Lakhs is
a. 5% b. 10 % c. 15 % d. 20 %
112. Under Corp Vidya scheme, the margin to be maintained for studies abroad is
102
a. 5% b. 10 % c. 15 % d. 20 %
113. Under Corp Vidya skill loam, the minimum loan amount is
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a. No such condition b. Rs. 5000/- c. Rs. 10000/- d. Rs.
15000/-
114. Under Corp Vidya skill loam, the maximum loan amount is
a. Rs. 50000/- b. Rs. 1 Lakh c. Rs. 1.50 Lakhs d. Rs. 2
Lakhs
115. Under Corp Vidya skill loan the repayment period for loans upto Rs. 50000/- is
a. 2 years + IRH b. 3 Years + IRH c. 4 years + IRH d. 5
years + IRH
116. Under Corp Vidya skill loan the repayment period for loans above Rs. 50000/- upto Rs.
1 Lakhs is
years + IRH
117. Under Corp Vidya skill loan the repayment period for loans above Rs. 1 Lakhs is
years + IRH
118.A firm managed by ……% Doctors is eligible loan under Corp Doctor Plus
a.100 % b. 51% c. 25% d. 50%
119. Maximum loan that can be considered under Corp Doctor Plus Scheme is:
a. Rs. 5 Crores b. Rs.2.50 crores c. Rs.7.50 crores d. Rs.10 crores
120.In Corp Doctor Plus Scheme the maximum loan for purchase of equipment is:
a.Rs.2.50 Crores b. Rs.1 crore c.Rs.50 lakhs d. Rs.25 lakhs
121. Loans under Corp Doctor Plus scheme shall be classified under:
a. MSME b. Service Industry c. Professionals d. None
122. For Corp Doctor Plus scheme Close relatives Maximum of ……. may join as co-
applicant/s though they are not Doctors for loan up to Rs.10 lakh.
a.2 b.3 c.4 d.1
123. For Physiotherapist under Corp Doctor Plus scheme the Maximum loan is of
Rs………:
a. 25lakhs b.50lakhs c. 10lakhs d.100lakhs
124. In Corp Doctor Plus the prescribed margin in case of loan is for repair/renovation on
Project cost
103
a. 15 b. 35 c. 25 d.10
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125. In Doctor Plus loans above Rs.......lacs to be collaterally secured by at least 50 % of loan
amount in addition to Hypothecation of assets.
a.10 b.20 c.30 d.40
126.In doctor plus if collateral security is taken the maximum age of the building is
........years
a.20 b.25 c.30 d. none of the above
127.To avail Corp Doctor Plus Register Medical Practitioner is in the age group of ....to...yrs
a.18-65 years b. 20-60 years c. 25-60 years d. 25-65 years
128. Under Corp Doctor plus scheme, Repayment tenor shall no go beyond
129. In case of Corp doctor plus scheme the margin on equipment is
a. 15% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30%
130. In case of Corp doctor plus scheme the margin for purchase of construction & building
a. 25% b. 30% c. 35% d. 35%

131. Maximum repayment period for construction/repairs/renovation/extension of hospital
building under Corp doctor plus scheme is
132. Maximum repayment period under Corp Doctor plus scheme for purchase of
equipment is
5 years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. 15 years

133. In case of Corp rental, the age of the commercial building leased/let out shall not be
more than
134. The minimum loan amount under Corp rental
a. 1 Lakh b. 5 Lakh c. 10 Lakh d. 15
Lakh
135. The maximum loan amount under Corp Rental is

a. No such ceiling b. No ceiling subject to prudential exposure norms
c.100 lakhs d. 500 Lakhs
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136. Under Corp rental, the loan amount should not be more than ____ % of the net rent
receivables for the unexpired lease period
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a. 50% b. 60% c. 70% d. 80%

137. The margin on lease rentals under Corp rental is
a. 25% b. 30% c. 40% d. 45%
138. The margin on immovable property under Corp rental scheme is

a. 25% b. 35% c. 40% d. 45%
139. The maximum repayment period under Corp Rental scheme is

140. Maximum loan amount that can be considered under Corp GharShobha is:
a.Rs.20 lakh b.Rs.15 lakh c.Rs.25 lakh d. Rs.30 lakhs
141. Margin requirement under Corp Ghar Shobha is:
a. 15% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30%
142. Loans for repairs / renovations / improvement/ extension / furnishing shall be
considered under.
a. Corp Home Scheme b. Corp Ghar Shobha Scheme
c. Corp House Repairs Scheme d.Both Corp Home &Ghar Shobha scheme
143.In Ghar Shobha uniform margin of ......% on project cost and the property mortgaged to
the Bank
a.10 b.20 c.25 d.25
144. In Ghar Shobha loans up to......lakh EMG of house/flat may not be insisted upon
a.20 b.15 c.12 d. 1
145. In Ghar Shobha maximum repayment period……..years, including maximum initial
RPH of..........months.
a.15 years 6 months b. 6 years 15 months
c. 30 years 18 months d. 18 years 18 months
146. In CHOME, Ghar Shobha valuation of property has to be done once in…..yrs for NPA
accounts
a.1 b.2 c.3 d.4
105
147. In case of Corp Ghar Shobha, along with the spouse maximum ____ co-applicant with
independent income can be added as co-applicant
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a. 01 b. 02 c. 03 d. 04
148. Maximum loan amount under Corp Ghar shobha scheme in metro is
a. 20 lakhs b. 15 lakhs c. 12 lakhs d. 8 lakhs
149. Maximum loan amount under Corp Ghar shobha scheme in Port town & Urban is
150. Maximum loan amount under Corp Ghar shobha scheme in semi-urban is
151. Maximum loan amount under Corp Ghar shobha scheme in rural is
152. Under Corp Ghar Shobha loan scheme loan upto what extant we may not insist on
mortgage , but financial securities can be taken
a. 1 lakh b. 2 lakhs c. 3 Lakhs d. 4 lakhs
153. In case of Ghar shobha scheme for take over of loans the age of the house property
should be below
154. The age of the applicant under Corp Professional is
a. 25-60 years b. 25-65 years c. 30-60 years d. 30-65 years
155. The minimum income criteria under Corp Professional is

a. No such criteria b. Rs. 1 lakh c. Rs. 1.50 Lakhs d. Rs. 2 Lakhs
156. The maximum loan amount under Corp professional in Metro areas is
a. Rs. 1 Crore b. Rs. 2 Crores c. Rs. 5 Crores d. Rs. 10 Crores
157. The maximum loan amount under Corp professional in port town & Urban areas is
a. Rs. 1 Crore b. Rs. 2 Crores c. Rs. 5 Crores d. Rs. 10 Crores
158. The maximum loan amount under Corp professional in Semi-urban areas is
b. Rs. 10 lakhs b. Rs. 25 Lakhs c. Rs. 50 Lakhs d. Rs. 1 Crore
159. The maximum loan amount under Corp professional in Rural areas is
a. Rs. 10 lakhs b. Rs. 25 Lakhs c. Rs. 50 Lakhs d. Rs. 1.00
Crore
160. In case of Corp Professional, the margin on building is

a. 25% b. 35% c. 40% d. 50%
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161. In case of Corp Professional, the margin on furniture is

a.25% b. 35% c. 40% d. 50%
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162. In case of Corp professional, the margin of ______% is to be maintained on project cost
for repair/renovation
a.25% b. 35% c. 40% d. 50%
163. The maximum repayment period in case of Corp Professional is

164. Under Corp Professional, the repayment upto Rs. ______ is envisaged by the present
income of the borrower.
a. 5 Lakhs b. 10 lakhs c. 12 Lakhs d. 15 lakhs
165. For Corp Apni dukan loan the business/trading activity can be
a. on own b. on contract c. commission/franchise /agency d. All are correct
166. Regarding Corp Apni dukan which of the following is correct
a. Proposed business activity by the applicant can also be taken up
b. Applicant must have sales tax registration/trade license/permit issued by statutory authority
c. applicant should not have any statutory dues outstanding in respect of business activity
d. All are correct
167. In Corp Apni dukan which of the following which one is incorrect
a. Purchase of land and construction of shop
b. Construction of shop on pre owned land
c. Purchase of ready built shop/commercial space for business
d. Purchase of shop/commercial space under construction for own business purpose
168 .For Corp ApniDukan loan business unit/shop shall be situated within.......kms from the
branch
a.20 b.30 c.10 d.50
169. In Apni Dukan while extending Term loan what is the prescribed margin on project cost
?
a.15 % b.25 % c.35 % d.10 %
170. The minimum and maximum loan amount in Corp Apni Dukan is
a. Rs. 2, 200 lakhs b. Rs. 10, 200 Lakhs c. Rs. 10 , 500 Lakhs d. Rs. 1, 200 lakhs
171. For loan above Rs. 10 lakhs the repayment is envisaged by
107
a. Income of the applicant b. DSCR c. IRR d. Debt Equity ratio

172. Maximum repayment envisaged in Corp Apni Dukan is
Page
a. 5 years b. 7 Years c. 10 years d. 15 years

173. Maximum repayment holiday under Corp Apni Dukan is
a. 12 months b. 15 Months c. 18 momths d. 24 months
174. The maximum loan amount under Corp Apni Dukan in Metro branches is
175. The maximum loan amount under Corp Apni Dukan in port town & Urban branches is
176. The maximum loan amount under Corp Apni Dukan in semi-urban branches is
177. The maximum loan amount under Corp Apni Dukan in rural branches is
178.Under Corp Personal, the repayment should not go beyond ____ years in case of other
than salaried class
179. The minimum loan amount under Corp Personal is
a. Rs. 1 lakh b. Rs. 0.50 lakh c. Rs. 0.25 Lakhs d. Rs. 0.10
Lakh
180.The maximum loan amount under Corp Personal is
a. Rs. 5 Lakhs b. Rs. 4 Lakhs c. Rs. 3.50 Lakhs d. Rs. 2.50
Lakhs
181. In case of Corp Personal, where salary routed through the branch and undertaking not
available
a. 6 time of salary b. 9 times of salary c. 12 times of salary d. 15 times a
salary
182. In case of Corp Personal, where salary routed through the branch and undertaking is also
available
b. 6 time of salary b. 9 times of salary c. 12 times of salary d. 15 times a
salary
183. In case of Corp Personal, in case of pensioner the loan eligibility
c. 6 times of net pension b. 10 times of net pension c. 12 times of net
pension
d. 15 times net pension
108
184.In case of Corp Personal, the loan eligibility in case of Others [Other than salary &
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pension] is
a. 25% of Net income b. 25% of Gross income c. 35% of net income
d.35% of gross income
185.Under Corp personal, the maximum repayment period is
186. Under Corp personnel if the repayment tenor goes beyond 65 years for pensioners ,
____________ has to be obtained as co-applciant.
a. Another pensioner b. Another salaried person c. Spouse/pension
nominee
d.Not required
187. CorpDemat loan is repayable in .....months

a.12 b.24 c.36 d.48
188. What is the prescribed margin in shares in Corp Demat loan
a.25 % b.50 % c.10% d.15 %
189.The minimum loan amount in Corp Demat
a.50000/- b. 1 lakh
c.2 lakh d. 5 lakhs
190.The maximum loan amount in Corp Demat

a. 10 lakhs b. 20 lakhs
c. 25 lakhs d . 50 lakhs
191. Regarding Corp Demat, which of the following is correct?
a. it is only for individuals having shared in their own or joint names
b.It is only against fully paid shares of approved companies
c. it is with pledge of shares and with TPG of an IT assessee
d. All are correct
192. Maximum loan that can be considered under Corp Mitra Scheme is:
a. Rs. 5 lakhs b.Rs.3 lakh
c.No quantitative restrictions d. 12 times of gross pay
109
193. Under Corp Mitra Loan Scheme to Employees, where irrevocable letterof authority in
the prescribed format is available, the quantum of loan available is:
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a. 6 times of net salary maximum 3 lakhs Demand loan

b.12 times of net salary Demand Loan
c. 6 times of gross take home pay in case of Overdraft d.a only
194. Under Corp Mitra Scheme, for agents of LIC of India, where undertaking letter is
available, the maximum loan is restricted to____% of the averageannual commission
receipts during the immediate preceding ______years
a.60% and 3 years b. 50% and 5 years
c. 25% and 5 years d. 40% and 1 year
195. Maximum loan available under Corp Mitra Scheme for agents of LIC of India
a. No quantitative restrictions b. Rs. 2 lakhs
c. Rs.3 lakhs OD/DL d. Rs. 5 lakhs
196.Regarding Corp Mitra which of the following is correct
a. It is a loan to Employees/Executives/Officials/Agents of the LIC, LICHF, and LIC
Mutual funds
b. Employees of other Insurance companies under public sector and their subsidiaries
c. Agents of insurance companies other than LIC
d. Only a, b are correct
197. In case of LIC agent to avail loan under Corp Mitra as an agent one must be in service of
....yrs
a.2 b.4 c.5 d.6
198. Under Corp mitra scheme, the age of the LIC agent should not be more than
199. In case of Corp Mitra loans to agents, the maximum loan that can be granted without
any security is
a. Rs. 1.00 lakhs b. Rs. 2.00 lakhs c. Rs. 3.00 lakhs d. Rs.
4.00 lakhs
200. Maximum repayment period for employees of LIC/LICHFL under Corp Mitra scheme
is
a. 24 months b. 36months c. 48 months d. 60 months
201. Maximum repayment period for LIC agents under Corp Mitra scheme is
a. 36 months b. 36months c. 48 months d. 60
months
110
202.In case of Corp Shelter the age of the primary borrower should be more than
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203. The minimum loan amount under Corp Shelter is
a. Rs. 1 Lakh b. Rs. 2 Lakhs c. Rs. 3 Lakhs d. 5 Lakhs
204. The maximum loan under Corp Shelter is
a. No maximum limit b. Rs. 25 Lakhs c. Rs. 50 Lakhs d. 100 Lakhs
205.Under Corp Shelter scheme, In case of the age of the applicant [Younger is case of joint
applicant] is 55-65 years the margin on the property is
a. 55% b. 60 % c. 65% d. 70%
206.Under Corp Shelter scheme, In case of the age of the applicant [Younger is case of
joint applicant] is 66-70 years the margin on the property is
a. 35% b. 45 % c. 55% d. 65%
joint applicant] is 71-75 years the margin on the property is
b. 35% b. 40 % c. 45% d. 50%
joint applicant] is above 75 years the margin on the property is
c. 25% b. 30 % c. 35% d. 40%
209. In case of Corp Shelter scheme, the value of the residential house should not be
below
a. No such restriction b. 5 Lakhs c. 10 Lakhs d. 12 Lakhs
210.In case of Corp Shelter, if the completed age of the applicant is between 55 & 65
years, the repayment is fixed for
211. In case of Corp Shelter, if the completed age of the applicant is between 66 and
above years, the repayment is fixed for
a. 10 years b. 15 years c. 20 years d. 25
years
212. In case of Corp Shelter scheme, one lumpsum amount is given _____% of the loan
eligibility
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
213. In case of Corp Shelter scheme, one lumpsum amount is restricted to Rs. _____
b. 5 Lakhs b. 10 Lakhs c. 15 Lakhs d. 20
111
Lakhs
214. Under Corp Shelter scheme, the balance life of the housing property should be
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10 ears b. 20 years c. 25 years d. 30 years

215 .Under Corp Shubha Vivah scheme, the age group of the applicant should be
a. 21-60 years b. 21-65 years c. 25-60 years d. 25-65
216. In case of Corp Shubha vivah scheme, maximum number of co-applcaints that can
be obtained for arriving repayment is
a. 01 b. 02 c. 03 d. No such
restriction
217. Under Corp Shubha vivah scheme, the minimum loan amount is
a. No such restriction b. Rs. 1 Lakh c. Rs. 2 Lakhs c. Rs. 3
Lakhs
218.Under Corp Shubha vivah scheme, the minimum loan amount is

a. No such restriction b. Rs. 10 Lakh c. Rs. 20 Lakhs c. Rs. 30
Lakhs
219. Under Corp Shubha scheme, the maximum loan amount under Metro branch
category is
a. Rs. 10 Lakhs c. Rs. 7 Lakhs c. Rs. 5 Lakhs d. Rs. 2
Lakhs
220.Under Corp Shubha scheme, the maximum loan amount under Port town/Urban
branch category is
a. Rs. 10 Lakhs c. Rs. 7 Lakhs c. Rs. 5 Lakhs d. Rs. 2
Lakhs
221.Under Corp Shubha scheme, the maximum loan amount under Semi-urban
branch category is
b. Rs. 10 Lakhs c. Rs. 7 Lakhs c. Rs. 5 Lakhs d. Rs. 2
Lakhs
222.Under Corp Shubha scheme, the maximum loan amount under rural branch
category is
c. Rs. 10 Lakhs c. Rs. 7 Lakhs c. Rs. 5 Lakhs d. Rs. 2
Lakhs
223. Under Corp Shubha Scheme, if the loan is secured by immovable property, the
margin is
a. 25% b. 35 % c. 40% d. 50%
224.Under Corp Shubha Scheme, if the loan is secured by bank own deposits, the
margin is
a. 5% b. 10 % c. 20% d.
25%
225.Under Corp Shubha Scheme, if the loan is secured by LIC policy [Surrender
112
value], the margin is

a. 5% b. 10 % c. 20% d.
25%
Page
226.Under Corp Shubha Scheme, if the loan is secured by NSC, the margin is
a. 5% b. 10 % c. 15% d.
20%
227.In case of Corp Shubha vivah scheme, if the salary is routed through the bank no
security is required upto the loan of Rs.
a. 1 Lakh b. 2 Lakhs c. 3 Lakhs d. No such
provision
228. In case of Corp Shubha vivah scheme the maximum repayment period is
229. Under Corp Shubha vivah scheme, the maximum age of the property offered as
security should not be more than
230.Under Corp Site the maximum loan amount for application money is
a. 5 lakhs b. 10 Lakhs c. 15 lakhs d. 20 Lakhs
231. Under Corp site loan, the maximum loan amount for allotment is
a. 10 lakhs b. 20 Lakhs c. 25 Lakhs d. 50 lakhs
232. Under Corp site loan, the maximum loan for allotment in case of salaried class
should not be more than ____ times the gross annual income
a. 6 times b. Nine times c. 12 times d. 15 times
233. Under Corp site loan, the maximum loan for allotment in case of other than
salaried class should not be more than ____ % of gross annual income
b. 50% b. 100 % c. 150 % d. 200%
234. The margin for the application money in case of Corp site is
a. Nil b. 5% c. 10 % d. 15%
235. If the salary is routed through the branch then the margin for application money
under Corp Site loan is
a. Nil b. 5% c. 10 % d. 15%
236.Under Corp Site loan , the repayment for application money is
237. Under Corp Site loan , the repayment for allotment is
b. 36 months b. 48 months c. 60 months d. 72 months
238.Under Corp Site loan, the applicant should undertake that he will construct the
113
house within ____ months from the date of site allotment

Page
239.The maximum loan amount under Corp Surya Rashmi is

a. 20 lakhs b. 15 Lakhs c. 10 Lakhs d. 5
Lakhs
240. The margin to be maintained on project cost in case of Corp Surya Rashmi is
a. 10% b. 15 % c. 25 % d. 30%
241.Under Corp Surya Rashmi scheme, collateral security need not be obtained for
loans upto Rs.
a. 5 Lakhs b. 4 Lakhs c. 2 Lakhs d. 1
Lakh
242. Under Corp Surya Rashmi scheme, the loan the maximum repayment period is
a. 36 months b. 60 Months c. 72 Months d. 84 Months
243. Loan amount above Rs. 5 Lakhs can be considered under Corp Surya Rashmi
scheme under
a. Corp Surya Rashm scheme from permission from ZLCC
b. No loan above Rs. 5 Lakhs is permitted
c. Loan above Rs. 5 Lakhs is considered under general Term Loan
Second loan under Corp Surya Rashmi can be given.
1 Visa Charges for using Visa Signature a.Rs.100/-

Signature debit card for withdrawing b.Rs.200/-
Debit Card money in ATMs in India c.No charge
d.None of the above
2 Visa No of times in a day the Visa a.5
Signature Signature debit card can be used b.10
Debit Card for ATM transactions c.15
d.None of the above
3 Visa Visa Signature Debit cards are a.Copr Signature,Pay Signature and
Signature targeted for this category of Corp Delite a/cs.
Debit Card customers b.Current A/cs (Sole Proprietorship.
with QAB of Rs.10 lakhs & greater
c.All customers having Fixed deposit
of Rs.5.00 lakh & above
d.All of the above
4 For Signature Debit Card a.10000/-
b.25000/-
holder , per cash transaction c.50000/-
limit in other Bank ATMS d. No limit
5 Visa Visa Signature Card holders a.2 per quarter
Signature
Debit Card are eligible for availing free b.1 per quarter
lounge facility c.3 per quarter
(Complementary Visits). d.None of the above
114
6 Visa The daily limit of ATM a.Rs.15000/-

Signature
withdrawal for Signature b.Rs.25000/-
Page
Debit Card
cards is c.Rs.50000/-
d.Rs.100000/-
7 Visa The daily limit of POS a.Rs.200000/-
Signature
Debit Card transaction for Signature b.Rs.500000/-
cards is c.Rs.100000/-
d.No limit
8 Visa Signature card holders are a.Rs.500000/-
Signature
Debit Card eligible for Air Accident b.Rs.1000000/-
Insurance coverage of c.Rs.5000000/-
d.Rs.100000/-
9 Visa The Signature Debit card a.QAB of Rs.5 lakh and more
Signature
Debit Card shall be offered to Current b.QAB of Rs.10 lakh and more
accounts (sole proprietorship c.QAB of Rs.20 lakh and more
only. holders with d.No limit
10 Visa The Signature Debit card a.Rs.2.5 lakh and above
Signature b.Rs.3.00 lakh and above
Debit Card shall be offered to customers c.Rs.5.00 lakh and above
having fixed deposits of d.Rs.1.00 lakh and above
11 Visa How many transactions are a.5
Signature b.10
Debit Card available for free of service c.No limit
charge at other bank ATM in d.None of the above
India for Signature card
holder
1 Corp e- Customers having multiple CIFs a.Yes

Passbook can access e-passbook facility b.No
c.Not applicable
d.none of the above
2 Corp e- The types of accounts that can a.Only deposit a/cs
Passbook be accessed through e-passbook b.Only loan a/cs
c.Deposit & loan a/cs
d.None of the above
3 Corp e- Whether e-passbook app can be a.Yes
Passbook accessed offline b.No
c.Not applicable
d.none of the above
4. Corp e- Whether Balance can be viewed a.In Real time mode
Passbook in Corp E-passbook b.In Offline mode
c.All of the above
d.None of the above
5 Corp e- Whether state-wise Bank Holiday a.Available
Passbook List is available in Corp e- b.Not available
Passbook c.Bank wise available
d.None of the above
115
6 Corp e- Criteria for availing e-passbook a.Smartphone

Passbook facility - b.Mobile no. registered with bank
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c.Mobile no. linked to a single CIF

d.All of the above
7 Corp e- Whether statement of account a.Available for 1 month

Passbook for a particular period is b.Available for 2 months
available in Corp e-Passbook app? c.Available for 3 months
d.All of the above
8 Corp e- How many digits are there in e- a.4
Passbook passbook Mpin ? b.7
c.6
d.8
9 Corp e- Corp E-passbook facility is a.Only with Internet Banking facility

Passbook available for customers b.Registered with Mobile
number
c.All customers
d.None of the above
10 Corp e- In Corp E-passbook facility we a.in PDF format only

Passbook can download account statement b.in XLS format only
using e-mail c.in both PDF & XLS format
d.None of the above
11 Corp e- In Android mobile phones, Corp a.Settings

Passbook E-passbook application is b.Google Play store
available in c.Gallery
d.None of the above
12 Corp e- In Corp E-passbook, creation of a.Yes

Passbook own personal ledger facility is b.No
available c.With Internet facility
d.None of the above
1 Corp Ease No of digits of Secure Login PIN a.2

in Corp Ease b.4
c.6
d.None of the above
2 Corp Ease No of digits of Transaction PIN in a.1
Corp Ease b.4
c.6
d.None of the above
3 Corp Ease Additional facilities available in a.Cheque book request
CorpEase b.Stop payment of Cheque
c.Debit card block/unblock
d.All of the above
4 Corp Ease Corp EASE is a a.Internet application
b.Intranet application
c.Mobile App
d.None of the above
5 Corp Ease Who can register for Corp EASE a.Any customer
116
b.Customer with registered

mobile no. & Valid Debit card
Page
c.Having IMPS
d.None of the above
6 Corp Ease Which are the accounts accessed a.All the accounts
in Corp EASE b.Accounts linked to CIF ID at
the time of registration
c.Accounts in particular SOL ID
d.None of the above
7 Corp Ease What are the types of fund a.Within Bank Transfer
transfer available in Corp EASE b.IMPS
c.NEFT
d.All the above
8 Corp Ease What is the limit for fund a.Rs.10000/-

transfer to third party within the b.Rs.100000/-
bank in Corp EASE c.No limit
d.None of the above
9 Corp Ease What is the Maximum amount of a.Rs.100000/-

transaction per day through b.Rs.10000/-
IMPS/NEFT in Corp EASE c.No limit
d.None of the above
10 Corp Ease Unique feature of Corp EASE is a.Registration

b.Instant Blocking/Unblocking
of Debit card
c.Ledger view
d.None of the above
11 Corp Ease How to Unlock ID or how to set a a.By using “Unlock ID or Forget
new Secure (Login) PIN or TPIN in Secure PIN/TPIN“ option
Corp Ease b.Request to HO-IT divn
c.Send SMS
d.None of the above
1. Corp Ease Deposit accounts which can be a.All Deposit a/cs

opened in Corp EASE b.Corp Classic
c.FD/RD/Tax Saver Deposit
d.None of the above
117
Page
Questions :
1. Who can register online for our CorpNet

a.Any customer of our bank
b.New Retail Customers only
c.Corporate customers
d.None of the above
2. Customer needs to enter the Account ID which is

a.Any a/c ID
b..Any a/c ID of the customer
c.Active a/c number linked to the CIF provided on online registration
d.None of the above
3. Mobile number field in CRM to be updated with a prefix of

a.Country code
b.STD code
c.Any code
d.None of the above
4. Country code for mobile number is necessary to be entered in CRM, to avoid:

a.A/c opening
b.CIF entry
c.Non receipt of OTP
d.None of the above
5. By default, the user ID for online registration will be:

a.Account Number
b.Name of the customer
c.Mobile number
d.CIf ID
118
Page
Topic: Digital Banking
Q No Chapter Question Answer/ Options

1. Credit card Airport lounge facility is available a.Signature Visa Credit Card
in b.Platinum Visa Credit Card
c.Gold Visa Credit Card
d.None of the above
2. Credit card Signature Credit card is available a.Rs.30.00 lakh
under Corp Faida scheme for loans b.Rs.20.00 lakh
above c.Rs.40.00 lakh
d.Rs.0.75 lakh
3. Credit card Name of the scheme under which a.Corp Gold
Credit card is issued against fixed b.Corp Secure
deposit c.Corp Platinum
d.Corp Signature
4. Credit card Min deposit residual period and a.Min 24 months and Min
Min deposit for Credit card issued Rs.50000/-
against fixed deposit b.Min 12 months & Min Rs.50000/-
c.Min 12 months & Min Rs.1.00 lakh
5. Credit card Documents to be submitted for a.Copy of passport
NRI availing Credit Card facility b.Foreign address to be furnished
are c.Copy of PAN or F60 if PAN is not
available
d.All of the above
6. Credit card In case credit card holder pays a.2% to 10% p.a.
minimum dues, interest to be b.10% to 18% p.a.
charged at (depending on card c.18% to 24% p.a.
type. d.27% to 36% p.a.
7. Credit card Min points required for a.Gold – 500 points
redemption of reward points of b.Platinum – 750 points
Corporation Bank Credit Card c.Signature – 1000 points
d.All of the above
8. Credit card Amount in rupees to be spent by a.Gold – 100/-
using credit card for earning 1 b.Platinum – 125/-
reward point c.Signature – 150/-
d.All of the above
9. Credit card Age criteria for issue of primary a.18 – 70 years
credit card b.10 – 60 years
c.20 – 70 years
d.None of the above
10. Credit card Age criteria for issue of add on a.18 – 75 years
credit card b.10 – 65 years
c.20 – 75 years
119
d.None of the above

11. Credit card Whether request from credit card a.Yes
holder is required for redemption b.No
Page
of reward points c.Not applicable

d.None of the above
12. Credit card Temporary enhancement of credit a.Upto 10%
card limit is to what extent b.Upto 30%
c.Upto 20%
d.None of the above
13. Credit card Temporary enhancement of credit a.30 days
card limit is upto what period b.60 days
c.90 days
d.None of the above
14. Credit card Whether balance transfer facility a.Yes
is available in Credit Card b.No
c.Not applicable
d.None of the above
15. Credit card How many variants are there in a.2
our Corp Credit Cards? b.4
c.3
d.5
16. Credit card What is the Minimum net Income a.03.50 Lakh
for issuing Platinum Credit Card ? b.02.00 Lakh
c.02.50 Lakh
d.04.00 Lakh
17. Credit card Minimum net income required to a.01.50 Lakh
issue Corp Gold Credit Card to b.01.20 Lakh
senior citizen/pensioner? c.01.75 Lakh
d.02.00 Lakh
18. Credit card What is the air accident insurance a.30 Lakh
coverage available to signature b.40 Lakh
credit card holders? c.50 Lakh
d.45 Lakh
19. Credit card What is the Minimum and a.10000 to 1000000

Maximum credit Limit available b.10000 to 500000
for Credit cards issued by c.10000 to 1050000
Corporation Bank? d.100000 to 1000000
20. Credit card The Credit Card issued by our a.Corporation Bank International
Bank, in association with VISA Credit Card
International, is known as b.Corporation Bank National Credit
Card
c.Corporation Bank Global Credit
Card
d.Corporation Bank Master Credit
Card
21. Credit card The following facilities are also a.Cash withdrawal from any ATM
available for the credit card b.Mobile Recharge Facility
holders issued by the bank. c.VISA Money Transfer
d.All the above
22. Credit card The maximum credit period a.15 Days
120
available in respect of credit b.30 days

cards issued by Corporation Bank c.45 days
Page
d.50 days
23. Credit card In our Bank, maximum how many a.one
add on cards can be issued to the b.three
primary credit cardholder. c.five
d.No Restriction
24. Credit card Corp Faida is a.Credit card facility for retail
borrowers
b.Credit Card facility for bulk
depositor
c.Credit card facility for Retail
Depositor
d.None of the above
Questions and Answers on Risk Management

1. A user logs in with a login ID and a password. What is the purpose of the login ID?
a.Authentication
b.Authorization
c.Accountability
d.Identification
a) All the above
2. Spoofing is also called as
a.Smishing
b.Phishing
c.Dumpster diving
d.Encryption
a) None of the above
3. Phishing attacks can be controlled by
a.User education
b.Anti-virus
c.Firewall
d.Digital Certificates
4. While proceeding on leave a staff member has to share his passwords with
a.Immediate officer
b.Manager of the branch
c.E-Mail the passwords to HRMS securely
d.Should not share the password with anyone.
5. Cyber security includes the following except:

121
a.Application security
b.Information security
Page
c.End-user security
d.Business continuity plan
a) Network security
6. Malicious program timed to cause harm at a certain point of time, but is inactive until that
point.
a.Trojan Horse
b.Logic bomb
c.Root kit
d.Adware
a) Worm
7. Which of the following is not included in the cyber attack
a.Breach of access
b.Denial-of-service and distributed denial-of-service attacks
c.Tail-Gating
d.Website Defacement
a) Password sniffing
8. Routers are used as
a.Gateway between the Bank’s network and the external world

b.Anti-virus detection tool
c.Intrusion prevention service
d.Intrusion detection system
9. Denial-of-service and distributed denial-of-service attacks will be launched by using the

following
a.Trojan horse
b.Adware
c.Botnets
d.Spyware
a) All the above
10. Someone intentionally leave USB devices at your desk or place with Malware is called as
a.Logic Bomb
b.Insider threats
c.Baiting
d.Internal fraud
122
11. Identity theft means

Page
a.Identifying the activities of hacker

b.someone uses your personal information without your knowledge
c.outsider posing as a genuine employee
d.using other staff login credentials
12. Brute-force attack is used for
a.Penetration testing
b.Vulnerability assessment
c.Hacking
d.To break passwords
a) All the above.
13. Malware having the capability to travel from one computer to another computer without
any human action
a.Worm
b.Virus
c.Botnet
d.Logic bomb
14. Software capable of recording and reporting on the activity conducted on a system
a.Adware
b.Switch
c.Firewall
d.Spyware
a) Router
15. Which of the following is not computer based social-engineering
a.Eaves dropping
b.Pop-up windows
c.Instant chat messenger
d.Spam email
a) Chain letters
16. Insider attack is a type of

a.Social engineering
b.Hacking
c.Smishing
d.External fraud
a) None of the above.
17. Which is the important security measure acting as the front line mode of protection for the
user accounts as per the information security policy
123
a.Surveillance camera
b.Password
Page
c.Access card
d.Segregation of duties
a) All the above
18. As per the information security policy Internal circulars, Internal Notes of the bank cannot be
shared through
a.Facebook
b.Twitter
c.LinkedIn /WhatsApp
d.All the above
19. An attempt to make an online service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from
multiple sources is called as?
a.SQL Injection
b.Social engineering
c.Distributed Denial of service
d.Cyber-attack
20. A text message sent to the customer mobile asking him to call a toll-free number for
claiming his refund, and once he calls, they enquire about his personal information such as
Account Number, Credit/Debit card number or Aadhar Number. Which type of attack is this?
a.Spoofing
b.Smishing
c.Spyware
d.Hacking
21. What is the recommended minimum length for a strong password as per the information
security guidelines?
a.12 characters
b.6 characters
c.10 characters
d.8 characters
22. Which of the following refers to the transforming of data into an unreadable format, so as to
hide it from unauthorized individuals?
a.Encryption
b.Decryption
c.Digital certificate
d.Digital envelope
a) All the above
23. Breach of access, system infiltration, website defacement, instant messaging abuse are used
for
124
a.Access controls
b.Cyber-attack
Page
c.Spoofing
d.Decryption
a) All the above
24. Trojan horse is a

a.Malicious software
b.Anti-phishing software
c.Hardware used for social engineering
d.Name of latest anti-virus
a) All the above
25. Which of the following is a good way to create a password?

a.Your children's or pet's names
b.Using look-alike substitutions of numbers or symbols,
c.A combination of upper and lowercase letters mixed with numbers and symbols
d.Using common names or words from the dictionary
a) All the above.
26. A document that states in writing how a company plans to protect the it's physical and IT
assets.
a.IT policy
b.Disaster recovery policy
c.Business continuity plan
d.Information security policy
27. This is a set of related programs, usually located at a network gateway server, that protects
the resources of a private network from other networks
a.Switch
b.Rootkit
c.Firewall
d.Anti-virus
a) All the above
28. A person who used his or expertise to gain access to other people’s computers to get
information illegally or do damage is?
a.Analyst
b.Spammer
c.Programmer
d.Hacker
a) Instant Messenger
29. Dumpster-diving is a type of

a.Card skimming
b.Online Fraud
c.Cloning the cards from skimming data
d.Social engineering
a) Worm
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Page
1 E-Purse Who can avail E-purse facility a.Our Bank customers only
b.Other Bank customers only
c.Any person having valid
KYC documents
d.None of the above
2 E-Purse We can Load money in e-purse a.Debit card/Cash deposit from any
using of our branhces
b.net banking of any bank
c.NEFT from any bank
d.all of the above
3 E-Purse Whether money can be a.Yes

transferred to one e-purse b.No
account from another e-purse c.Not applicable
account d.None of the above
4 E-Purse Whether bill payment can be a.Yes
done through e-purse b.No
c.Not applicable
d.None of the above
5 E-Purse Money can be transferred to b.Yes
other bank account a.No
c.Not applicable
d.None of the above
6 E-Purse What is the product name of a.Corp e-wallet
digital Wallet of Corp Bank b.Corp e-passbook
c.Corp e-purse
d.Corp e-Paymate
7 E-Purse Corp E-Purse balance limit is a.Rs.10000/-

b.Rs.5000/-
c.Rs.100000/-
d.No limit
8 E-Purse In Corp E-purse, counter a.OTP
payments through scanning is b.QR code
made by c.PIN
d.None of the above
9 E-Purse In Corp E-purse transfer of money b.Yes
from wallet to wallet is possible a.No
c.Only to account
d.None of the above
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Page
GROUP CREDIT POLICY AND RBI MONETARY POLICY
1- Integrated housing projects comprising of some commercial space can also be

classified as CRE –RH provided the commercial area in the residential housing
project does not exceed ______ of the total FSI.
a-5% b-10% c-15% d-20% e- None of the above
2- The commercial real estate sector housing will attract standard asset
provisioning of
a-0.25% b-0.45% c-0.75% d-1.0% e- None of the above
3- What is the risk wt for commercialreal estate housing sector
a-50% b-75% c-100% d-125% e-None of the above
4- What is the risk wt for housing loan upto Rs 30 lac where LTV is upto 80%
a- 35% b- 75% c- 100% d- 125% e- None of the above
5- As per RBI norms NBFC can not be a partner in
a-partnership firm b- LLP c- None d- Both
6- Our GCP covers credit risk under
a-lending b-investment and treasury c-CAPS d-All the above e- None of
the above
7- The head office level credit committee will be vested with power to take up
proposal upto ______ crore for single borrower and _________ crore for group
borrower.
a-75,100 b-75 ,150 c-100,200 d- 100,300 e- None of the above
8- According to GCP the exposure to commercial real estate activity will be within
________ % of NBC.
A-5 B-10 C-15 D-20 E-None of the above
9- Term loan above Rs ___________ crore sanctioned foe 5 years will be brought to the
notice of ALCO before disbursal.
a-10 b-50 c-100 d-200 e- None of the above
10- Which of the following sector according to our GCP is not promising sector
where additional exposure can be taken.
a-handicraft b-automobile c-housing finance d- mini cement plant e-
None of the above
11- Which of the following sectors according to our GCP we should take selective
approach?
127
a-cinema theatre b-mini paper plant c-readymade garment d- commercial

real estate e- All of the above
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12- Maximum aggregate credit facility that can be sanctioned to an individual for for
personal purpose is Rs ___________ crore.
13- Maximum aggregate credit facility that can be sanctioned to a proprietorship
concern is Rs ____ crore/
14- Maximum aggregate credit facility that can be sanctioned to a partnership firm is
Rs __________ crore.
15- As per RBI norms the exposure ceiling for single corporate customer is ___________
% of capital fund.
16- As per RBI norms the exposure ceiling for group corporate customer is
___________ % of capital fund.
17- If the exposure is taken in infrastructure sector in case of single corporate
additional ______ % can be taken above normal ceiling.
a- 5 b-10 c-10 d-15 e- None of the above
18- If the exposure is taken in infrastructure sector in case of group corporate
additional ______ % can be taken above normal ceiling.
19- The following categories of exposures shall be excluded from the purview of the
exposure ceiling
a-Facility to sick industrial unit b-loan against own fixed deposit c-limits
directly allocated by RBI d-All of the above e- None of the above
20- Unsecured exposure is one where the realisable value of security is less than
_______ % ab initio.
a-10 b-20 c-30 d- 40 e- None of the above
21- The aggregate unsecured exposure should be less than __________% of total
exposure of the bank.
a-25 b-30 c-40 d-50 e-None of the above
22- Unsecured credit as a percentage to total credit should be less than ______ of the
later.
23- Which of the following security is not considered as tangible security

a-personal guarantee b-negative lien c-Second charge on movable asset d- All
of the above e- None of the above
24- Maximum aggregate entry level exposure limit for individual customer for
128
personal purpose is Rs _______ crore.

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25- Maximum aggregate entry level exposure limit for corporate customer is Rs
_______ crore.
26- Maximum aggregate entry level exposure limit for partnership firm is Rs _______
crore.
27- The exposure of the bank to a single NBFC should not exceed _________ % of the
capital fund.
28- According to GCP the exposure to MFIs should not exceed ____________ % of the
total exposure.
29- Exposure ceiling to housing sector should not exceed _________ % of the aggregate
exposure under lending, non SLR investment and CAPS .
30- Banks aggregate exposure to capital market shall not exceed _________ % of net
worth of the bank.
31- The maximum loan that can be sanctioned against demat shares is Rs __________
lac.
32- According to our GCP the aggregate credit to sensitive sector shall not exceed
______% of NBC.
A-3 B-5 C-10 D-15 E-None of the above
33- All new proposals above Rs _______crore will be subjected to NBG clearance .
34- Audited financial statements are required in case of loan beyond Rs __________ lac.
35- In case of loan limit above Rs ________ crore valuation report from two empaneled
valuers to be taken.
36- If land and building is taken as collateral or p[rimary security valuation should
be done once in _______ years.
37- Collateral security will not be insisted in case of priority sector loans ( other than
agriculture ) upto amount Rs ______________.
38- In case of agri clinics and agri business centre loans the margin requirement for
loans upto Rs 5 lac is ________ %.
129
39- In case agri loans without limit and agri allied activity loans for individual
farmers processing through RAM is not required for loans upto Rs ________ crore.
Page

40- In respect of Agriculture loan proposals processed at Branches, which are falling
within the delegated powers of Branch Manager, clearance from the Grid approval
Committee is waived up to credit limit of Rs.____________lakhs.
41- Insurance against all risks for assets financed/hypothecated for loans of up to
Rs.______________- under priority sector may be waived
42- TEV report is required for term loans above Rs ___________ crore.
43- Rejection of loan proposals under agriculture , MSME ,and education should be done
at next higher sanctioning authority level. TRUE/FALSE
44- ZLCC is empowered to reduce the margin requirement in case of fund based limit.
TRUE/FALSE
45- Periodical NIL EC (annually) is required in case of all agricultural loans.
TRUE/FALSE
46- As per our group credit policy scenario analysis/sensitivity analysis is to be carried
out for credit extended beyond Rs __________ crore for now.
47- Margin for loan sanctioned against NSC which has completed more than 3 year is
_____________ %.
48- Margin for loan sanctioned against NSC which has completed less than 3 year but
more than one year is _____________ %.
49- According to GCP substantial exposure means when bank has an exposure of more
than ____________% of its capital fund on accompany.
a-10 b-30 c-40 d-50 e- None of the above.
50- Generally in case of take over of credit proposals the account internally graded from
CB1 to ____________ will be considered in normal course and also the account
should not have incurred loss in last two years.
a-CB4 b-CB5 c-CB6 d- CB7 e- None of the baove
51- Accounts which have been restructured and conducted satisfactorily for a minimum
period of ____________ years at the other Bank may be taken over on select &
justifiable grounds.
52- Accounts which are proposed to be taken over, under corp schemes (except housing
loans) should have completed ______________ year of satisfactory operation in the
borrowal account prior to takeover with the last Bank .
53- In respect of all other loans (except housing loans and retail loan) the minimum
130
period of _______________ years of satisfactory operation, with the previous bank

shall be considered before taking over the proposal.
Page
54- In case of housing loan we can take over loans in which of the following cases
a-individual house ( construction complete) b- individual house ( construction not
complete) b-Flats under construction c- All the above d- None of the above
55- In the case of non-SLR investments the cut off limit for the purpose of legal audit
shall be Rs. ___________Crore and above .
a-5 b-3 c-2 d-1 E- None of the above
56- All the accounts displaying unsatisfactory features/ overdues/ irregularities persisting
for more than __________ days shall be put under Special Mention Accounts
category for follow up and taking time bound action to prevent their further slippage.
a-30 b-60 c-90 d-All of the above e- None of the above
57- The slippage of the borrowal account to NPA category within ________________
year of the initial disbursement of the loan shall be treated as account with early
mortality.
a-1 b-2 c-3 d-6 months e- None of the above
58- All borrowal accounts of more than Rs ________ cr, except loans fully secured by
Bank Deposits, Loans Guaranteed by Central/State Govt., shall be rated by RBI
accredited external rating agencies.
59- To ensure that MSMEs do not remain small and medium units merely to remain
eligible for priority sector status, the MSME units will continue to enjoy the priority
sector lending status up to ____________ years after they grow out of the MSME
category concerned.
a-2 b-3 c-5 d-None of the above
60- Which of the the following is considered as weaker section
a-small and marginal farmers b-sc/st c-shg d-All of the above e- None of the
above
61- The overall exposure of the Bank under Gold Loans shall be within _____________%
of the aggregate exposure under lending, non-SLR investments and CAPS of the
preceding Financial Year.
62- Maximum exposure of Rs.____________ lakh per borrower has been stipulated for
gold loans according to our GCP.
A-25 B-50 C-75 D-100 E- None of the above
63- The facility of advances against the security of gold coins per customer is restricted to
gold coins weighing up to ________________ grams.
64- In case of term loans the minimum promoter contribution should be __________ % as
per GCP.
65- Fund based working capital limits up to Rs.2 Crore from the Banking system (Rs.
5 Crore in the case of SSI units) should be assessed by _______________ method.
a- PTM b- PBF c-cash budget d-None of the above
66- Borrowers graded under ____________ and above shall not be considered for
corporate loans.
a-CB5 b-CB6 c-CB4 d-CB7 e- None of the above
67- The Bank’s aggregate exposure under retail lending shall be within ___________% of
Net Bank Credit.
131
a-20 b-25 c-30 d-50 e- none of the above

68- Under Housing & Vehicle loan Schemes, the aggregate exposure shall be within
___________% & _____________ % of the Net Bank Credit respectively.
Page
a-30,7.5 b-30,8.5 c-20,7.5 d-20,8.5 e-None of the above

69- The maximum loan eligible under CREDIT LINKED CAPITAL SUBSIDY
SCHEME is Rs __________ crore.
70- The maximum subsidy eligible under CREDIT LINKED CAPITAL SUBSIDY
SCHEME is ____________ % of the loan amount.
71- A unit may be declared as sick MSME unit if
a- Any of the borrowal accounts of the enterprise remains NPA for 3 months or more
b- There is erosion in the net worth of the borrower due to accumulated losses
to the extent of 50 percent of its net worth during the previous accounting
year
c- Any one
d- Both
e- None of the above
72- Under which prudential category accounts can be restruvtured
a-standard b-substandard c-doubtful d-All e- None of the above
73- A loan for an infrastructure project will be classified as NPA if it fails to commence
commercial operations within______________ years from the original DCCO, even if it is
regular as per record of recovery,
74- A loan for a non-infrastructure project will be classified as NPA if it fails to

commence commercial operations within ___________ year from the original DCCO,
even if is regular as per record of recovery
75- As per our GCP the total outstanding liability under Fixed Rate loans above one year
shall be restricted to ___________ % of Net Bank Credit as at the end of each previous
year
76- The documents/securities charged to the Bank shall be returned within _________
days of the closure of the relative borrowal account .
a-15 calendar days b- 30 calendar days c- 30 working days d-15 working
days e- None of the above
77- If any delay occurred on the part of the Bank in returning the security as above, the
borrower shall be entitled for compensation to the tune of Rs. __________ per day
subject to a maximum of Rs._____________.
a-5,1000 b-10,50000 c-10,5000 d-10,no limit e- None of the above
78- As per our GCP kissan credit card account should be sanctioned irrespective of
the amount within ______________ days.
a-15 b-30 c-two weeks d-No such limit e- None of the above
79- All priority sector loans below 25000 should be sanctioned within ______________
and above 25000 within ______________.
132
a-7,15 b-fort night ,4 weeks c-fortnight, six weeks d-4 weeks , six weeks
e-None of the above
80- What is the current repo rate?
Page

81- What is the current reverse repo rate?
82- What is the current CRR?
a-4% b-4.25% c-4.5% d-5% e- None of the above
83- What is the current SLR?
a-20.75% b-21.0% c-21.25 d-21.5% e- Non of the above
84- What is the current MSF?
a-7% b-6.75% c-7.5% d-7.75% e-None of the above
85- What is the current bank rate?
a-7% b-6.75% c-7.5% d-7.75% e-None of the above
Questions on Priority Sector
1. The definitions of sectors under Priority Sectors were changed in 2007, as per the
recommendations of Working Group headed by Sri
a. R V Gupta b. C S Murthy c. C Rangarajan d. Narasimham
2. Target under total Priority Sector lending for SCBs is ____ % of ANBC as on preceding March
31
a. 18 b. 40 c. 10 d. 25
3. Target under total Agriculture lending for SCBs is ____ % of ANBC as on preceding March 31
a. 18 b. 40 c. 10 d. 25
4. Target under weaker section advances for SCBs ___% of ANBC as on preceding March 31
a. 18 b. 10 c. 40 d.25
5. Loans for repairs to the damaged dwelling units of families up to Rs. ______ lakh in
Metropolitan centres comes under Priority Sector.
a. 1 b. 2 c.4 d.5
6. Loans for repairs to the damaged dwelling units of families up to Rs._____ lakh in other than
Metropolitan centres comes under Priority Sector.
a. 1 b. 2 c.4 d.5
7. Loans up toRs. _____ Cr per borrower for Food and Agro processing units comes under
Priority Sector.
a. 25 b. 50 c.75 d. 100
8. Loans up to Rs. _____ Cr per borrower for construction of godowns, cold storage, Market
yard, Tissue Culture / Bio technology Lab, Vermi Composting, Seed Production, Bio fertilisers
comes under priority Sector
a. 25 b. 50 c.75 d. 100
9. Incremental export credit over corresponding date of the preceding year, up to 2% of ANBC
subject to a sanctioned limit of Rs.______ crore per borrower to units having turnover of up
to Rs.100 Cr. Comes under Priority Sector.
a. 25 b. 50 c.75 d. 100
10. Loans to individuals for educational purposes including vocational courses up to Rs. ____ lakh
133
irrespective of the sanctioned amount comes under Priority Sector.

a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30
Page
11. The loans for housing projects exclusively for the purpose of construction of houses only to
economically weaker sections and low income groups ( Income less than Rs 2 lakh p.a.), the
total cost of which do not exceed Rs. ______ lakh per dwelling unit comes under Priority
Sector.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30
12. Loans up to a limit of Rs. _____ crore per borrower for building social infrastructure for
activities namely schools, health care facilities, drinking water facilities and sanitation
facilities in Tier II to Tier VI centres (i.e. Population less than 1 lakh) comes under Priority
Sector.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30
13. Loans up to a limit of Rs. ______ Cr to borrowers for purposes like solar based power
generators, biomass based power generators, wind mills, micro-hydel plants and for non-
conventional energy based public utilities viz. street lighting systems, and remote village
electrification comes under Priority Sector (Renewal Energy).
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 30
14. For individual households, loans up to Rs. ________ lakh per borrower comes under Priority
Sector (Renewable Energy).
a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30
15. Loans, not exceeding Rs. _________ per borrower provided directly to individuals and their
SHG/ JLG (income – 1,00,000 in rural / 1,60,000 in other) comes under Priority Sector
a. 25,000 b. 50,000 c. 75,000 d. 1,00,000
16. Loans to distressed persons not exceeding Rs. _________ per borrower to prepay their debt
to non-institutional lenders comes under Priority Sector.
a. 25,000 b. 50,000 c. 75,000 d. 1,00,000
17. Artisans, village and cottage industries where individual credit limits do not exceed Rs.
________ comes under Priority Sector
a. 25,000 b. 50,000 c. 75,000 d. 1,00,000
18. Loans for agriculture activity to individual farmers up to Rs. ______ can be classified under
Direct finance to Agriculture
a. 50 lakh b. 1 Cr c. 2 Cr d. No limit
19. Loans for agriculture activity to corporate / partnership firms up to Rs. ______ can be
classified under Direct finance to Agriculture
a . 50 lakh b. 1 Cr c. 2 Cr d. No limit
20. As per MSMED Act, a Micro (Manufacturing) enterprise is one in which the investment in
plant & machinery should not exceed Rs. ____
a. 10 lakh b. 25 lakh c. 1 Cr d. 5 Cr
21. As per MSMED Act, a Micro (Service) enterprise is one in which the investment in equipment
should not exceed Rs. ____
a. 10 lakh b. 25 lakh c. 1 Cr d. 5 Cr
134
22. Loan up to Rs. _____ to Khadi and Village industries can be classified under Priority sector -
SME
a. 25 lakh b. 1 Cr c. 5 Cr d. any amount
Page
23. Loan up to Rs. _____ to Small& Micro (Manufacturing) units can be classified under Priority
sector - SME
b. 10 lakh b. 5 Cr c. 1 Cr d. any amount
24. Loan up toRs. _____ to Small& Micro (Service) units can be classified under Priority sector -
SME
c. 10 lakh b. 5 Cr c. 1 Cr d. any amount
25. Pledge loans to individual farmers upto Rs. ____ can be classified under finance to agri -
priority
a. 2 Cr b. 50 lakh c. 1 Cr d. 5 Cr
26. Pledge loans to individual farmers may be given for a period not exceeding ____ months
27. Housing Loans to individuals up to Rs. 35 lakh in metropolitan centres with population above
____ may be classified under Priority sector
a. 1 lakh b. 5 lakh c. 10 lakh d. 25 lakh
28. Housing Loans to individuals up to Rs. ____ in “other than metropolitan ” centers may be
classified under Priority sector
a. 25 lakh b. 35 lakh c. 40 lakh d. 50 lakh
29. Loans not exceeding Rs. _____ per borrower provided directly by banks to individuals and
their SHG/JLG, provided the borrower's household annual income in rural areas does not
exceed 60,000/- and for non-rural areas it should not exceed 1,20,000/-, can be classified
under priority sector
a. 25,000 b. 50,000 c. 100,000 d. 200,000
30. After 23.04.2015, Food and Agro Processing is classified under _____
a. Manufacturing b. Agriculture c. Service d. Miscellaneous
31. Out of the following, which item does not come under Priority Sector?
a. Rs. 20 lakh loan to a fair price shop
b. b. An education loan of Rs 9 lakh
c. c. Rs 40 lakh housing loan at Mumbai
d. d. Rs 5 lakh loan to a taxi operator for new taxi
32. All the Savings Bank account holders in the age group of _________ years are eligible for
Pradhan Manthri Jeevan Jyothi Bheema Yojana
a. 18 to 40 b. 18 to 50 c. 18 to 60 d.18 to 70
33. All the Savings Bank account holders in the age group of _________ years are eligible for
135
Pradhan Manthri Suraksha Bheema Yojana.

a. 18 to 40 b. 18 to 50 c. 18 to 60 d.18 to 70
Page
34. Benefit under Pradhan Manthri Jeevan Jyothi Bheema Yojana include Rs. ____ lakh on
account of death due to any reason.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
35. Benefit under Pradhan Manthri Suraksha Bheema Yojana include Rs. ____ lakh on account of
death or Rs. ____ lakh on account of disability due to accident.
a. 1 each b. 2 each c. 2 and 1 d. 1 and 2
36. Premium per annum under Pradhan ManthriJeevanJyothi Bheema Yojana is Rs. ____per
annum
a. 100 b. 200 c. 330 d.400
37. Premium per annum under Pradhan Manthri Suraksha Bheema Yojana is Rs. ____per annum
a. 10 b.12 c. 15 d.30
38. Bank will earn Rs. ______ as commission under Pradhan Manthri Suraksha Bheema Yojana
a.1 b.2 c. 3 d. 4
39. Bank will earn Rs. ______ as commission under Pradhan Manthri Jeevan Jyothi Bheema
Yojana
a. 31 b.41 c. 51 d.61
40. Margin stipulated under CCCK, is

a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 0%
41. CCCK card is valid for ____ years subject to annual review
a.2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7
42. Loans to retail trade up to Rs. ____ lakh may be classified under Priority Sector – MSE
(Services)
a. 20 b. 40 c. 500 d. any amount
43. Loans not exceeding Rs. _____ per borrower provided directly by banks to individuals and
their SHG/JLG, provided the borrower's household annual income in rural areas does not
136
exceed 60,000/- and for non-rural areas it should not exceed 1,20,000/-, can be classified
under priority sector
b. 25,000
Page
b. 50,000 c. 100,000 d. 200,000

44. Which of the following is a weaker section advance?
d. Crop loan to SF/MF b. loan to SC/ST c. Rs. 50,000 loan to women
e. Priority Sector loan to SHG e. All of the them
45. The Maximum lending rate of Micro Finance Institution for on lending is fixed based on
a. RBI repo rate b. Authority given to MFI c. 2.75 times of average base rate
of top five commercial banks d. NABARD refinance rate
46. A household whose annual income is up to Rs. ____ is treated as Economically Weaker
Section (EWS)
a. 50,000 b. 60,000 c. 100,000 d. 3,00,000
47. A household whose annual income is above Rs. ____ and up to Rs._____ lakh is treated as
Low Income Group (LIG)
a. 50,000 to 100,000 b. 1 lakh to 2 lakh c. 3 lakh to 6 lakh d. 6 lakh to 7 lakh
48. Under PMAY-CLSS (Affordable Urban Housing) maximum loan amount under EWS category is
Rs. _____lakh
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d.25
49. Under PMAY-CLSS (Affordable Urban Housing) maximum loan amount under LIG category is
Rs. _____lakh
a. 10 b. 15 c. 30 d.35
50. Under PMAY-CLSS (Affordable Urban Housing) margin for loan amount up to Rs.30 lakh is
___%
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d.20
51. Under the PMAY-CLSS (Affordable Urban Housing), loan is repayable in maximum of ___
years including moratorium of max.____ months. Repayment period shall not exceed
retirement age for salaried class and 70 years of age for other than salaried class.
a. 15 and 15 b. 15 and 10 c. 30 and 15 d. 30 and 18
52. Under the PMAY-CLSS (Affordable Urban Housing, subsidy is available for ____ years or
during tenure of the loan whichever is lower (loans sanctioned and disbursed after
01.01.2017)
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 30
53. Interest subsidy is to the extent of _____% under PMAY- CLSS (EWS / LIG Housing) Scheme.
a. 5 b. 6 c. 6.5 d. 7
54. Under NRLM scheme, a SHG can be financed ____ no. of times
a. 2 b. 4 c.8 d. Any no. of times till SHG attains sustainability
55. SJSRY scheme is replaced by

a. NRLM b. NULM c. SRMS d. RRY
137
56. SGSY scheme is replaced by

a. NRLM b. NULM c. SRMS d. RRY
Page
57. Loans under Corp Surya Rashmi are eligible to be classified under Priority Sector (Renewal
Energy). The maximum loan amount under Corp Surya Rashmi is Rs. _______lakh and margin
is _____%.
a. 2 & 20 b. 3 & 15 c. 4 & 10 d. 5 & 25
58. Financial assistance for service / trading units under PMEGP would be up to Rs ______ lakh
only
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 25
59. The 5th digit CIS Sector Code for Medium Manufacturing and Service Activity is
a. N and S b. P and M c. N and K d.B and D
60. The CIS Sector Code for Industry (non- priority) is ____.
a. M b. W c. Y d. D
61. Maximum loan under DRI scheme for economic activity is Rs _____
a. 15,000 b. 25,000 c. 30,000 d.50,000
62. Which of the following is not declared as a minority community in India

a. Jain b. Buddhist c. Zoroastrian d. Jewish
63. Interest Subvention of _____is available for Crop loans upto ____
a. 3% and 3 lakh b. 2% and 2 lakh c. 2% and 3 lakh d. 2 % and 1 lakh
64. Banks will get reimbursement of interest subsidy of___% for lending crop loans at 7% for
loans uptoRs 3 lakh
a. 2% from RBI b. 2% from GOI c. 3% from GOI d. 2% from NABARD
65. Ceiling for Total Financial Outlay (TFO), for Agriclinics and Agribusiness Centers, for individual
projects and group projects is Rs_____ lakh respectively
a. 10 and 20 b.25 and 50 c. 20 and 100 d. 25 and 100
66. Subsidy available for general candidates under Agriclinics and Agribusiness Centers scheme is
__
a. 25% b. 36% c. 33% d. 30%
67. Corp Bank Mitras engaged by our Bank get Rs. ___ per transaction for up to 100 transactions
per month.
a. 20 b. 25 c.31.25 d.33.25
68. Corp Bank Mitras engaged by our Corporate Business Correspondent (CBC) get Rs. ___ per
transaction for up to 100 transactions per month.
b. 20 b. 25 c.31.25 d.33.25
69. Bank Mitra will get an incentive of Rs _____ for canvassing an account or insurance policy
a. 10 b. 25 c.50 d.100
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70. By using Micro ATMs, Customers will be facilitated to withdraw or deposit a maximum of
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Rs. ______/- per transaction and a maximum of Rs. ________/- per day.
a. 15,000 & 30,000 b. 20,000 & 30,000 c. 25,000 & 30,000 d. 10,000 & 25,000
71. Customer per day transaction limit (numbers) through Micro ATM is
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
72. About SHG, which of the following is not correct?

a. SHG consists of 10-20 members b. It need not be registered
c. Only one member from a family per SHG d. Group of heterogeneous people
73. Which of the following norms are applicable to SHG

a. It should meet regularly b. Members should save regularly
c. Maintain meeting /savings/minutes/internal lending registers d. All the above
74. Which of the following form part of “corpus” of the SHG?

a. Balance in SB a/c and Cash in hand b. Amount lent to members
c. Grant/Subsidy received d. All the above
75. To get insurance cover under PMJDY, the account holder should operate his account by using
RuPay card at least once in ___
a. 30 days b. 45 days c. 60 days d. 90 days
76. Joint Liability Group usually consists of ____ members

a. 25-50 b.10-20 c. 5-10 d. 20-25
77. Scale of Finance for crop loans is decided by

a. NABARD b. RBI c. Lead Bank d. District Level Technical Committee
78. Branch Manager has been given authority to increase or decrease upto _____% in scale of
finance or unit cost while financing agriculture loans
a. 10 b. 15 c.20 d.25
79. For the purpose of the command area for agri loans, the activity or residence of farmer
should be situated within ___ Km radial distance from branch
a. 10 b. 20 c. 25 d.30
80. As per Group Credit Policy, insurance of assets financed may be waived upto loan amounts of
Rs. ____ under Priority Sector
a. 15,000 b. 50,000 c. 30,000 d.25,000
81. As per Group Credit Policy, a priority sector loan application up to Rs. 25,000, should be
disposed of within ____ days of receipt
a. 7 b. 10 c. 15 d. 30
82. Individuals such as salaried persons, professionals and businessmen possessing independent
houses having at least _______ sq. ft. open space having steady income are eligible for Corp
Home Orchard Loan Yojana.
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a. 250 b. 500 c. 750 d. 1000
83. Privately owned institutions having at least ______sq.ft. open space for gardening are
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eligiblefor Corp Home Orchard Loan Yojana.

a.250 b. 500 c. 750 d. 1000
84. Maximum loan amount under Corp Home Orchard Loan Yojana is Rs. _____lakh in case of
individuals.
a. 2 b. 2.5 c. 3.0 d. 3.5
85. Maximum loan amount under Corp Home Orchard Loan Yojana is Rs. _____lakh in case of
Institutions.
a.10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25
86. Under Corp Home Orchard Loan Yojana, loan is repayable in ______ EMIs [Maximum] with
initial repayment holiday of 06 months. Interest debited during the repayment holiday period
to be repaid as and when debited.
a. 40 b. 50 c. 60 d. 120
87. As per CIS, the 5th digit sector code applicable to a CPSNL loan of Rs.25,000 to a govt.
employee working in a rural area and whose monthly income is Rs. 5000/-.
a. P b. N c. C d. M
88. As per CIS, the 5th digit sector code applicable to Rs. 7 crore loan to a micro enterprise
manufacturing poultry feed is ____
a. A b. N c. S d. M
89. The aggregate of all credits in a financial year should not exceed Rupees ____ in Corp Aramb
account
a. 25,000 b. 50,000 c. 75,000 d. 1,00,000
90. Which of the following may be engaged as BCs?

a. SHG member b. Post office c. NGO d. All the above
91. In case of rural and semi urban branches, Service Area Approach is applicable to____
a. Priority Sector loans b. Agriculture loans c. Govt. sponsored schemes
d. All the above
92. The Nodal Agency for implementing Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS) is ___
a. NABARD b. SIDBI c. KVIC d. IDBI
93. For Minority Community, a target of _____% of Priority Sector Advance is stipulated by RBI
a. 10 b. 20 c. 15 d.25
94. Margin Money under AGTL scheme for loans above Rs.1,00,000/- is ___%.
a. 10 b. 15 c.20 d. 25
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95. In respect of advances to individual farmers for activities allied to agriculture, processing
through RAM module is waived up to credit limit of Rs. _______crore.
a. One b. two c. three d. four
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96. In respect of agri. loan proposals received from firms viz., Partnership firms, Companies etc.
where financial statements like Balance Sheet, P & L account are available, processing has to
be done through RAM module for credit limit of Rs.____ lakhs and above.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
97. Under Corp Surya Kiran Loan Scheme, maximum loan amount is Rs._____
a. 25,000/- b. 50,000/- c. 75,000/- d. 1,00,000/
98. Under Corp Kisan Tatkal Scheme , the maximum loan amount is Rs. ____
a. 25,000/- b. 50,000/- c. 75,000/- d. 1,00,000/
99. Repayment period under Corp Kisan Tatkal Scheme is _____ years.
a. 3 to 5 b. 6 to 10 c. 12 d. 15
100. Margin for financing Cold Storage units_____ %

a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d.25
101. Margin for financing under Corp Hi Tech Floriculture Loan Scheme is ____%
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25
102. Processing of Agriculture loans by Agriculture Field Officer (AFO) is _____

a. Not compulsory b. Compulsory
c. Compulsory for loans above Rs. 1 lakh d. Branch Head’s discretion
103. Mortgage of land / collateral security shall not be obtained for agriculture loans up to Rs. _
a. 25,000 b. 50,000 c. 1,00,000 d. 200,000
104. Concept of Sub Service Area (SSA) under FI, involves _____ no. of households
a. 250-500 b 500-1000 c. 1000-1500 d. 1500-2000
105. As per jewel loan policy, maximum exposure under jewel loan shall not exceed Rs. ____ per
borrower
a. 10 lakh b. 20 lakh c. 25 lakh d.
50 lakh
106. Jewel Loan under the interest subvention scheme to be assigned nomenclature ______
a. ACADL b. JLSUB c. ACATL d. CADL
107. Under Corp Business Jewel Loan, the maximum loan amount per borrower is Rs. ____ lakh.
a. 5 b.10 c. 15 d. 20
108. Branch Head does not have the discretionary power to reject loan applications received
under
a. Agriculture b. SME c. Education loan d. All the above
109. In case of Agriculture loans, No Due Certificate should be obtained for loans above Rs _____
a. 50,000 b. 100,000 c. 200,000 d. NDC shall not be insisted upon
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110. All variants of SB accounts will be eligible for OD facility under PMJDY except
a. Corp Arambh b. Corp Pragathi c. Corp Signature d. Corp Saral Plus
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111. Maximum OD amount available under PMJDY scheme is _____
a. 5000 b. 10,000 c. Rs.15,000 d. 20,000
112. Which of the following facility is not available to Corp Arambh accounts?
a. ABB b. NEFT c. Mobile banking d. RTGS
113. In case of DRI advances, for rural and urban areas, maximum family income shall not exceed
Rs. _____
a. 15,000 & 25,000 b. 18,000 & 24,000 c. 11,000 & 18,000 d. 24,000 & 60,000
114. Subject to income norms, loan to small borrowers upto individual aggregate limit of
Rs.________ is called micro credit
a. 25,000 b. 50,000 c. 100,000 d. 200,000
115. The Risk weightage applicable to loans covered under CGTMSE scheme is
a.10% b. 15% c. 25% d. 0%
116. For agriculture loans, with no tie up arrangements, additional security by way of mortgage of
lands is required when the credit exceeds
a. 10,000 b. 25,000 c. 50,000 d. 1,00,000
117. Under Corp Kisan Farm Mechanization (CKFM) Scheme, the margin to be maintained in case
of a loan for purchase of a new tractor is _____%.
a. 25 b. 20 c. 10 d. 5
118. Under Corp Kisan Vehicle Loan Yojana (CKVLY) Scheme, the margin requirement for new
vehicle is______%.
a. 25 b. 20 c. 10 d. 5
119. Under Corp Kisan Vehicle Loan Yojana (CKVLY) Scheme, the margin requirement for second
hand vehicle is ______%.
a. 25 b. 20 c. 10 d. 5
120. Maximum loan under Corp Kisan Loan Scheme is Rs. _____ lakh.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
121. Margin under the Corp Agriculture Produce Loan is _______%

a.10 b. 15 c. 25 d. 35
122. Repayment under Corp Agriculture Produce Loan is ____ months or the validity period of the
warehouse receipt, whichever, is earlier
a. 36 b. 24 c. 12 d. 6
123. Maximum repayment period under Corp Kisan Loan Scheme is _____ years.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d.20
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124. Under Corp Kisan Loan Scheme, for loan amount above Rs.1 lakh, the margin requirement is
___ %.
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a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d.20
125. Which of the following cannot be financed under Corp Kisan Farm Mechanisation
Scheme
a. Drip irrigation system b. Jeeps and Pick up vans c. Milk separators d. Combine
harvesters
QUESTION BANK- PROMOTION-2019
N. I. - ACT
1) When a cheque is drawn on a bank, the bank is called the
a)Payee
b)Drawee
c)Drawer
d)Endorsee (b)
2) One of the State Government avails of a temporary financial

assistance from Reserve Bank of India. This type of finance
is called :
a)Overdraft
b)Temporary loan
c)Short term finance
d) Ways and Means advance (d)
3) Maximum Bank Rate is:

a) 6%
b) 20%
c) 25%
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d) None (d)
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4) Obligation of a Banker to maintain secrecy is applicable to
a) Only in case of existing deposit accounts
b) Only in respect existing loan accounts
c) Only in case of closed accounts
d) All types of deposit/loan accounts (existing/closed) (d)
5) Bank A allows one of its clients to withdraw against

clearing of a cheque. The banker is called as:
a) Collecting and Paying banker
b) Holder in due course
c) Holder for value
d) Reimbursement banker (c)
6) As per the provisions of NI Act,1881 a banker gets protection

for payment of a cheque only if it is a :
a) Holder in due course
b) Payment in due course
c) Holder for value
d) All of the above (b)
7) At a Railway station, you withdraw cash from ATM of State Bank of India. SBI is a :
a) Paying Banker
b) Collecting Banker
c) Advising Banker
d) Issuing Banker (a)

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8) Management of a Bank vests with
a) Reserve Bank of India
b) Asset Liability Committee (ALCO)
c) Board of Directors
d) None of the above (c)
9) Hari issues a stop payment instructions to his banker to

Stop payment of a cheque for Rs,20,000.00. This is
a) A request from Hari
b) An intimation from Hari
c) An advice from Hari
d) A mandate from Hari (d)
10) Except one of the following instruments others are issued

at discount. Identify the exception:
a) A Certificate of Deposit (CD)

b) A Treasury Bill (TBill)
c) A Commercial Paper (CP)
d) A Fixed Deposit (FD) (d)
11) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is to be maintained on Net

Demand and Time Liabailities (NDTL).SLR is to be
maintained on:
a) Total Demand and Time Liabilities

b) Net Demand and Time Liabilities
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c) Total Demand and Time Assets

d) Net Demand and Time Assets (b)
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12) Garnishee order is issued by:

a) Judgement Debtor
b) Judgement Creditor
c) Judgement Debtor’s Debtor
d) None of the above (d)
13) CAMEL model is used by
a) Bankers to evaluated a credit proposal
b) Bankers to manage their risks
c) RBI inspectors to evaluate banks functions
d) Merchant Bankers to evaluate portfolio investment (c)
14) One of your NRI customers wants to place FCNR
deposits in Canadian $ with your bank. You will
a) Accept his request and open a FCNR a/c

b) Will not accept his request to open FCNR a/c in
Canadian $
c) Will inform the customer to place FCNR in any

one of the currencies (US$/GBP/JPY/EUR)
d) Both b and c (a)
15) Which one of the Non Resident Deposit schemes
is not permitted.
a) FCNR a/cs
b) NRNR a/cs
c) NRE a/cs
d) NRO a/cs (b)
16)At the time of receipt of a garnishee order your customer’s
accounts showed :
i)SB a/c uncleared balance Rs.2,000.35 (Cleared balance Rs

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550.35)
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ii) An overdue fixed deposit for Rs.25,753.22 matured one week earlier
iii)OD account showed a credit balance of Rs.8,728.96
iv)CC account showed a credit balance of Rs,2,247.18
Indicate the amount which can be attached by the garnishee order?
a) Rs.28,550.75
b) Rs.10,228.96
c) Rs.37,729.71
d) Rs 4,247.53 (c)
17)You receive a cheque in an overdraft account for Rs.27,000.00.
The debit balance in the account is Rs.30,000.00 and the OD
limit is Rs 55,000.00.What reason you will state while returning
a) Refer to drawer
b) Effects Not cleared
c) Exceeds arrangement
d) Endorsement not correct (c)
18) Match the following:
i) Payment in Due Course A) Insurance
ii) Karta B) Cash Credit
iii) IRDA C) HUF
iv) Hypothecation of InventoryD) Paying Banker
a) i-D,ii-C,iii-A,iv-B
b) i-A,ii-B,iii-C,iv-D
c) i-B,ii-A,iii-D,iv-C
d) i-D,ii-C,iii-B,iv-A (a)
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Identify the Committees:
i)Classification of Assets A) Nayak
ii)Computerisation in Banks B) Tarapore
iii)Working Capital for SSIs C) Narasimham
iv)Capital Account Convertability D) Rangarajan
a) i-B,ii-D,iii-C,iv-A
b) i-D,ii-C,iii-A,iv-B
c) i-B,ii-A,iii-C,iv-D
d) i-C,ii-D,iii-A,iv-B (d)
i)Financial intermediaries A) Mutual funds
ii)ATMs B) E- Banking
iii)Certificate of Deposits C) Money Markets
iv)Book debts D)Assignment
a) i-C,ii-D,iii-A,iv-B
b) i-D,ii-C,iii-B,iv-A
c) i-A,ii-B,iii-C,iv-D
d) i-A,ii-C,iii-B,iv-D (c)
21) RTGS stands for :
a) Real Time Settlement System
b) Real Time Gross Settlement System
c) Real Gross Settlement System
d) None of the above (b)
22) The banker acts as a Bailee and the customer as Bailor,

148
this relationship is applicable:

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a) when a bank lends funds to a corporate customer

b) when a bank accepts US$ FCNR deposits form a NRI customer
c ) when a customer operates a safe deposit locker
d)When a customer keeps articles in safe custody with a bank
(d)
23)One of your customers lost the Fixed Deposit Receipt issued
by the bank. To obtain a duplicate FD he needs to furnish
a) A Promissory note
b) A Guarantee
c) A Letter of Credit
d) An Indemnity bond (d)
24) In a demand draft the word “order” is changed to “bearer”
by the holder of the dd. It is called as:
a) Endorsement
b) Material alteration
c) Crossing
d) None of the above (b)
25) Capital adequacy is worked out based on:
a) Total demand and time liabilities
b) Net demand and time assets
c) Risk weighted assets

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d) Risk weighted liabilities (c)
26) One of your customers dies without leaving a will and

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The court appoints a person to handle the customer’s
Property. Such a person is called as
a) An administrator
b) An executor
c) A liquidator
d) A successor (a)
27)A negotiable instrument is endorsed as Pay to Raju only
This is called as:
a) Blank endorsement
b) Restrictive endorsement
c) Sans recourse endorsement
d) Endorsement in Full (b)
28) Corporate Bank had opened a saving bank account in the name of Mr.
Subramanian and Murlidhar operated as ‘former or survivor’. The wife of
Mr.Subramanian, who is nominee in the account comes to your branch and informs
you that Mr. Subramanian has expired a month back. She also hands over the death
certificate and requests for payment of the balance.
a. the payment to the nominee will be made on proper identification as she is also
having the death certificate.
b. the payment will be made to the wife of deceased being legal heir of the former.
c. the payment will not be made as with the death of the former, nomination has been
cancelled.
d. the payment will not be made as with the death of the former, survivor gets the
150
authority to operate the account and nominee comes in to picture only when none of
the account holders is available
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Ans - d
29)A savings account was opened in the name of a minor under guardianship of his
father to be operated by the father 5 years back. The minor has now become major.
We should:
a. Close the old account and must pay the amount to the minor now major and hot
allow him to continue the account.
b. Delete the name of the guardian and continue the account in the single name of the
minor now turned major
c. Pay the amount to the natural guardian
Ans - b
30) A contract made by a minor is:
a. Void ab initio and he can not ratify it even after attaining majority
b. Invalid but he can ratify it after becoming major
c. Lawfully valid
Ans - a
31) 17 years old minor requests the bank to grant a loan against FDR:
a. Bank would accede to the request.
b. Bank would not accede to the request

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c. Bank cannot grant a loan but can make a premature payment

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Ans - c
32) According to section 6 of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act 1956, the natural
guardian of a Hindu Minor is:
a. Father and mother after father’s death
b. Father and grandfather after father’s death
c. Father and mother after death of the father and grandfather after death of the
mother.
d. Mother and father after death of the mother
Ans - a
33) The Articles of Association of a company is a documents which:
a. Defines rules and regulations for internal management of the company which are
related to its day to day functioning.
b. Describes the constitution and objectives of the Co.
c. Is formulated to issue shares
Ans - a
34) Which of the statement is true for a public limited co.?
a. The no.of share holders is limited.
b. The member of branches is limited
c. The liability of the shareholder is limited.
d. None of the above.

152
Ans - c
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35) Against which of the following securities, the banks cannot grant loans:
a. shares of approved companies
b. fixed deposit of bank
c. debentures of companies
d. certificate of deposit issued by banks
Ans - d
36) In a public limited company, maximum and minimum no. of shareholders is:
a. 50 and 10
b. No limit and 7
c. 100 and 2
d. 1000 and 100
Ans - b
37) A cheque is presented for payment through clearing house but due to certain
reasons, it is returned unpaid. The returning memo is enclosed to comply with:
a. Negotiable Instruments Act
b. RBI Act
c. Banking Regulations Act
d. RBI clearing House rules
Ans - d
38) Which of following document is not required to open a current account in the
name of a private limited co.?
a. Certificate of incorporation
b. Certificate of commencement of business

153
c. Memorandum of association
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Ans - b
39) If director of another bank requires a loan of Rs._____, the loan can be sanctioned
by Board of Directors or Management Committee:
a. up to Rs.10 lac
b. Rs.25 lac and above
c. less than Rs.25 lac
d. up to Rs.50 lac
Ans - b
40) If the ATM has not dispensed the cash but account has been debited, the dispute
regarding such transactions is to be resolved by the banks within ?
a. 15 days
b. 12 days
c. 7 days
d. 3 days
Ans - c
...................................................
41) A kite flying transaction represents which of the following:
a. when overdraft is allowed by a bank to a firm
b. when additional loan is allowed by a bank to a firm to cover the amount of

irregularity in the account
c. when a bill is drawn without consideration by seller of goods on buyer of good.

154
d. when loan is allowed for low amounttransaction

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Ans - c
42) Mr. Z, a friend of Mr. X informs the bank that X has become insane. He wants to
deposit Rs.2000 in the saving bank account of Mr. X:
a. the bank will have no objection in getting the amount deposited
b. the bank will not permit the amount to be deposited
c. the amount can be deposited with consent of guardian of Mr. X
d. the amount can be deposited with consent of legal heirs of Mr. X, if there is no
nomination, otherwise nominee
Ans - c
43) If a property worth Rs1 lakh is insured for Rs 80000/- and the loss occurred is to
the extent of Rs 60000/-then insurance company is liable to pay
a. Rs 60000/-
b. Rs 80000/-
c. Rs 48000/-
d. Rs 1 lakh
Ans - c
44) Loan against FDR can be granted provided it is issued by
a. by the same branch only
b. by the same bank only
c. any nationalized bank
d. any commercial bank
Ans - b
45) A document executed outside India should be stamped

155
a. at the time or before execution of document

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b. within 3 months of receipt of document in India.

c. within 4 months of receipt of document in India
d. Stamping is not required if executed abroad.
Ans - b
46) The description Risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal
processes, people and systems or from external events, mainly relates to
a. Reputation Risk
b. Compliance Risk
c. Operational Risk
d. Legal Risk
Ans - c
47) Under customer Acceptance Policy Bank’s customers are classified into
a. Nil, High, Medium, Low Risk category
b. Zero, High, Medium, Low Risk category
c. Highest, High, Medium, Low Risk Category
d. High, Medium, Low Risk Category
Ans - d
48) The N.I act 1881 allows three days grace to
a. sight bills of exchange
b. usance bills
c. promissory notes
d. cheques
156
Ans - b
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49) A usance bill is presented for acceptance to the drawee. He has to accept in
a. within 24 hrs
b. within 48 hrs
c. within 72 hrs
d. no time limit
Ans - b
50) Bank’s code for customers was released by
a. RBI
b. SEBI
c. BCSBI
d. IBA
Ans - c
51) A minor, who was not born in India, would attain majority.
a. After completing age of 18 years
b. After completing 21 years of age
c. Attaining age fixed for majority according to law of land where he was born.
Ans - b
52) Mohammed Musa, minor Muslim boy whose father has expired without leaving
behind a will comes to you to open a Saving Bank account. Under whose
guardianship, you will permit the opening of the account.
a. mother
b. maternal grand-father
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c. paternal grand-father
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d. guardian appointed by the court
Ans - c
53) Banks conduct such business relating to:
a. Central Govt.
b. State Govt.
c. Tax authorities and railway and communication Dept.
d. All the above
Ans - d
54) A govt. bill is:
a. a quasi negotiable instrument
b. not a negotiable instrument
c. negotiable instrument
d. none of the above
Ans - b
55) Pension account can be transferred from one bank to another:
a. any number of times
b. twice in life time
c. once in a financial year
Ans - c
56) Life certificate is to be obtained from a pension during the months of:
158
a. January
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b. December
c. April
d. November
Ans - d
57) As per RBI guidelines, in case of RTGS, NEFT and ECS, the credit to an accountis
to be given
on the basis of:
a. name of account
b. account number
c. name of account and account no
d. any of these
Ans - b
58) X had given mandate in the name of b. to operate his current account. b. signed a
cheque on July 12, 2012 which was presented on July 31, 2012. b. however, expired
on July 22, 2012.
a. the cheque shall be returned as, on date of presentation, the signatory of the
cheque had died
b. the cheque shall be returned as, with death of the agent, his authority is terminated.
c. the cheque shall be paid, as with death of agent, the authority of principal
continues to be in operation
d. the cheque shall be paid after getting consent of the principal, who is still alive
Ans - c
59) The legal amount of a cheque represent which of the following:
a. amount in figures
159
b. amount in words
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c. amount in words and figures, whichever is large

d. amount in words and figures, whichever is small
Ans - b
60) The bank received garnishee order on saving bank account of Mr. Ram at 10.50
a.m., who deposits Rs. 5000 at 12.10 p.m.:
a. The order would apply to this amount also.
b. The bank will refuse to accept the deposit as no amount can be accepted after
garnishee order
c. The order will not apply to this amount
d. order will apply if court is informed about this
Ans – c
61) As per _____, the banks cannot allow loans and advance to their Directors and the
firms in which they hold substantial interest:
a. Section 19 (2) of RBI Act
b. Section 19 (2) of Banking Regulation Act
c. Section 20 (1) of RBI Act
d. Section 20 (1) of Banking Regulation Act
Ans - d
...................................................
62) Mr N issued cheque for Rs 8000/- and left some blank space after the amount in
words and figures and gave it to his clerk. His clerk added one zero after amount
written in figures and Y in the amount written in words, making it as eighty and
80000/-. The account is debited for 80000/-. Who is responsible?
a. There is material alteration and bank is negligent. Hence bank liable.

160
b. there is forgery due to which the bank is liable

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c. customer is negligent in writing the cheque due to which the alteration has taken
place, hence customer is liable for the loss.
d. since bank has paid the amount of an altered cheque and customer was negligent,
the loss to be borne by both of them equally
Ans - c
63) As per Section 20-A of Banking Regulation Act, the loans in the name of bank
directors can
be remitted (written off) with permission of which of the following:
a. Management Committee within the bank
b. Board of Directors of the bank
c. Reserve Bank of India
d. cannot be written off
Ans - c
64) What is the maximum time available to a customer for lodging complaint to
Ombudsman:
a. 1 month from date of complaint made to bank and no reply received
b. 1 year from date of receipt of reply from the bank but customer is not satisfied
c. 1 year from date of lodgement of complaint with the bank + 1 month, where reply
has not been received.
d. b or c
Ans - d
65) Ravi your customer of a saving bank account is approached by a person called
Ram to give an introduction to enable him to open a saving bank account with your
branch to which he agrees. Subsequently it is proved that Ravi gave introduction
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though he really did not know much about Ram. In such situation:
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a. Bank can hold Ravi responsible as he carelessly gave the introduction

b. Bank cannot hold Ravi responsible as Ravi has not violated introduction rules
c. Bank can recover 50% of amount from Ravi
d. any of the above
Ans – b
66) Four eyes concept” means
a. opening and verifying account by one person two times
b. opening and verifying account by electronic device
c. opening and verifying account by two different persons
d. rejecting to open the account
Ans - c
67) Interest paid on housing loans is eligible for deduction from taxable income under
which of the following:
a. Section 24 of Income Tax Act
b. Section 88 of Income Tax Act
c. Section 80c. of Income Tax Act
d. Section 42 (2) of RBI Act
Ans - a
68) What is the limitation period to exercise right of Lien by the bank:
a. 30 days
b. one year from date of cause of action
c. 3 years from due date

162
d. Law of Limitation not applicable on Lien

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Ans - d
69) Which of the following crossing does not provide better title to the transferee
than what the transfer or had:
a. account payee crossing
b. not-negotiable crossing
c. special crossing
Ans - b
70) The payee of an order cheque, Mr. Suresh, writes on the backside of a cheque ‘pay
to Kamlesh only’ and signs below this. This is called:
a. facultative endorsement
b. sans recourse endorsement
c. partial endorsement
Ans - d
71) Under the provisions of Section 138 of Negotiable Instrument Act, after receiving
notice from the holder to pay the amount of dishonoured cheque, the drawer can
make the payment maximum within ___ to avoid filing of suit by the holder:
a. seven days
b. fifteen days
c. thirty days
d. 45 days
Ans - b
163
72) If a company has availed loan for purchase of a heavy tanker, the registration is
mandatory, with which of the following (1) Regional Transport Authority (2) Registrar
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of Assurances (3) Registrar of Firms (4) Registrar of Companies:

a. 1 to 4 all
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 4 only
d. 1 only
Ans - b
73) A contract of Guarantee is
a. Primary contract
b. secondary contract
c. principal contract
d. All a, b, & c.
Ans - b
74) A usance bill of exchange falls due for payment on 15th August 2013, which is a
public holiday. The due date of the bill will fall on:
a. Aug 16, being next succeeding working day
b. Aug 14, being next preceding business day
c. Aug 14, being next preceding banking day
d. Aug 14, being, next preceding working day
Ans - b
75) The loan account of the borrower has been showing overdue amount. The
guarantor has some balance in his account. Whether it will be in order for the bank to
exercise the right of setoff.
a. bank can debit the account straightaway to recover the amount as liability of
164
guarantor is
similar to the borrower

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b. bank can debit the account if the loan has been recalled from the guarantor and
notice of set off has been given
c. bank can debit the account if the loan has been recalled from the guarantor and
borrower and notice of set off has been given to both of them
d. the account is not in the same name and capacity. Hence debit cannot be made
Ans – b
76) U/s 3 of Indian Majority Act, a minor is a person:
a. Who has not completed the age of 16 years.
b. Who has not completed the age of 21 years
c. Who has not completed the age of 18 years
d. Who has not completed the age of 19 years
Ans - c
77) U/s 30 of Indian Partnership Act:
a. A major and minor can constitute a partnership firm.
b. A minor can be admitted to the firm for benefits only.
c. A minor will not be personally responsible for the losses incurred.
d. Both (b) and (c) above.
Ans - d
78) Which of the following statement is true:
a. A company is a legal artificial person having a separate legal entity from its
shareholders
b. A company is having a perpetual succession

165
c. A company has a common seal

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d. All the above

Ans - d
79) A Claused bill of lading means which of the following?
a. bill of lading issued with a clause
b. a bill of lading that indicates defective condition of goods
c. a bill of lading that does not contain any adverse noting
d. a bill of lading which issued as per clauses in the letter of credit
Ans - b
80) As per Section 269-T of Income Tax, the cash payment of FDR can be made for an
amount:
a. up to Rs.20000 excluding interest
b. up to Rs.20000 including interest
c. less than Rs.20000 excluding interest
d. less than Rs.20000 including interest
Ans - d
81) A power of attorney has been executed in UK and it is to be used in Mumbai. The
time for
payment of stamp duty is:
a. within 3 months from date of entry into India
b. within 3 months from date of its execution
c. 3 months before the date when it is to used
d. it is not a valid document and cannot be used
Ans - a
166
82) A cheque has already been negotiated by X to Y and by Y to Z. How many times
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more, this instrument can be negotiated?

a. Thrice
b. Twice
c. Once
d. No limit
Ans – d
83) The documents executed by the company must be in conformity with its:
a. Articles of association
b. Memorandum of association
c. Resolution passed by Board
Ans - c
84) Who will sign documents on behalf of the company while raising a loan:
a. Managing Director
b. Executive Director
c. Authorised official whose name is mentioned in the resolution
Ans - c
85) If the company has to create an equitable mortgage in favour of the bank for
security of a loan, who will come to the bank to deposit the original title documents of
the property on behalf of the company:
a. Managing Director
b. Executive director
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c. Manager
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d. An authorised official, as per resolution
Ans - d
86) U/s 125 of the Companies Act 1957, the filing of particulars of charge with
Registrar of Companies has to be done from date of creation of charge within:
a. 35 days
b. 37 days
c. 60 days
d. 30 days
Ans - d
87) Maximum penalty under RTI act is
a. 100
b. 100000
c. 25000
d. 10000
Ans - c
88) A savings account was opened in the name of a minor under guardianship of his father to be
operated by the father 5 years back. The minor has now become major. We should:
a. Close the old account and must pay the amount to the minor now major and hot allow
him to continue the account.
b. Delete the name of the guardian and continue the account in the single name of the
minor now turned major
c. Pay the amount to the natural guardian

168
Ans - b
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89) 17 years old minor requests the bank to grant a loan against FDR:
a. Bank would accede to the request.
b. Bank would not accede to the request
c. Bank cannot grant a loan but can make a premature payment
Ans - c
...................................................
90) Loan against LIC policies are given based on
a. surrender value
b. paid up value
c. Insured value
d. market value
Ans – a
91) A cheque is presented for payment through clearing house but due to certain reasons, it is
returned unpaid. The returning memo is enclosed to comply with:
b. RBI Act
d. RBI clearing House rules
Ans - d
...................................................
92) If the ATM has not dispensed the cash but account has been debited, the dispute regarding such
transactions is to be resolved by the banks within ?
a. 15 days
b. 12 days
c. 7 days
169
d. 3 days
Ans - c
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...................................................
b. when additional loan is allowed by a bank to a firm to cover the amount of irregularity in the
account
c. when a bill is drawn without consideration by seller of goods on buyer of good.
Ans - c
94) A document executed outside India should be stamped
a. at the time or before execution of document
b. within 3 months of receipt of document in India.
c. within 4 months of receipt of document in India
d. Stamping is not required if executed abroad.
Ans - b
...................................................
...................................................
95) The following is not a key element of Bank’s policy on KYC/AML.
a. Customer Acceptance Policy
b. Customer Identification Procedure
c. HR Policy
d. Monitoring of transaction
Ans - c
...................................................
96) The N.I act 1881 allows three days grace to
a. sight bills of exchange

170
b. usance bills
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c. promissory notes
d. cheques
Ans - b
...................................................
11
97) A usance bill is presented for acceptance to the drawee. He has to accept in
a. within 24 hrs
b. within 48 hrs
c. within 72 hrs
d. no time limit
Ans - b
...................................................
98) Bank’s code for customers was released by
a. RBI
b. SEBI
c. BCSBI
d. IBA
Ans - c
...................................................
99) A minor, who was not born in India, would attain majority.
a. After completing age of 18 years
b. After completing 21 years of age
c. Attaining age fixed for majority according to law of land where he was born.
Ans - b
100) Government expenditure/tax policy is referred as

171
a. Fiscal policy
b. monetary policy
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c. government policy
d. exchange rate policy
Ans - a
101) To be eligible to issue commercial paper, a company must have minimum net worth of :
a. Rs.1 cr
b. Rs.4 cr
c. Rs.10 cr
d. Rs.20 cr
Ans - b
102) The payee of an order cheque, Mr. Suresh, writes on the backside of a cheque ‘pay to
Kamlesh only’ and signs below this. This is called:
a. facultative endorsement
b. sans recourse endorsement
Ans - d
...................................................
103) Under the provisions of Section 138 of Negotiable Instrument Act, after receiving notice
from the holder to pay the amount of dishonoured cheque, the drawer can make the
payment maximum within ___ to avoid filing of suit by the holder:
a. seven days
b. fifteen days
c. thirty days
d. 45 days
Ans - b
172
...................................................
104) In the context of non-performing advances, the term ‘out of order’ is used in the context of:
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a. term loans
b. cash credit or overdraft
c. bills discounted
d. post-shipment advance`
Ans - b
...................................................
105) B wants to nominate his wife and son for his saving bank account.
a. Bank will accept the nomination as they are his family members
b. Bank will accept if their share is decided before hand
c. Bank will not accept as it is proposed to be made in favour of two persons
d. a and b
Ans - c
...................................................
...................................................
106) U/s 3 of Indian Majority Act, a minor is a person:
a. Who has not completed the age of 16 years.
b. Who has not completed the age of 21 years
c. Who has not completed the age of 18 years
d. Who has not completed the age of 19 years
Ans - c
...................................................
107) U/s 30 of Indian Partnership Act:
a. A major and minor can constitute a partnership firm.
b. A minor can be admitted to the firm for benefits only.
c. A minor will not be personally responsible for the losses incurred.

173
d. Both (b) and (c) above.
Ans - d
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...................................................
108) Which of the following statement is true:
a. A company is a legal artificial person having a separate legal entity from its shareholders
b. A company is having a perpetual succession
c. A company has a common seal
d. All the above
Ans - d
...................................................
109) As per Section 269-T of Income Tax, the cash payment of FDR can be made for an amount:
a. up to Rs.20000 excluding interest
b. up to Rs.20000 including interest
c. less than Rs.20000 excluding interest
d. less than Rs.20000 including interest
Ans - d
...................................................
110) A power of attorney has been executed in UK and it is to be used in Mumbai. The time for
payment of stamp duty is:
a. within 3 months from date of entry into India
b. within 3 months from date of its execution
c. 3 months before the date when it is to used
d. it is not a valid document and cannot be used
Ans - a
...................................................
...................................................
111) A cheque has already been negotiated by X to Y and by Y to Z. How many times more, this
instrument can be negotiated?
174
a. Thrice
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b. Twice
c. Once
d. No limit
Ans - d
...................................................
39
112) U/s 125 of the Companies Act 1957, the filing of particulars of charge with Registrar of
Companies has to be done from date of creation of charge within:
a. 35 days
b. 37 days
c. 60 days
d. 30 days
Ans - d
...................................................
113) Maximum penalty under RTI act is
a. 100
b. 100000
c. 25000
d. 10000
Ans - c
...................................................
114) As per RTI act, information is to be conveyed within
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 15 days
Ans - a
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...................................................
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115) Holder of a cheque makes following alterations in a cheque. Which of these is not a material
alteration:
a. A bearer cheque converted to order
b. General crossing converted to special crossing
c. Crossing a cheque
d. All the above
Ans - d
...................................................
116 ) You are working as incharge of locker section of the branch. A and his wife W have a locker as
either or survivor. Because of dispute, A asks the bank not to allow an operation by W. W comes to
operate the locker. You will:
a. Allow operations by W as instructions are either or survivor
b. Will not allow operations to W but will allow to A
c. Allow only joint operations as there is dispute between the customer
d. a or b
Ans - c
...................................................
46
117) A solicitor is having two accounts with the bank. One in personal name and other in clients
name. One Cheque is Presented in ‘clearing’ in clients account. In the meantime, Garnishi Order is
served on the solicitors’ account. Whether Bank will pay this cheque presented in the clearing.
a. cheque will not be paid, as it is presented after receipt of the order
b. cheque will be paid, as account is in the same name
c. cheque will be paid as order is in his personal name
d. cheque will be paid, since it relates to client account, which the solicitor has opened in fiduciary
capacity
Ans - d
...................................................
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118) Mr. D is having one overdraft account with us. He is also having three other accounts with us,
(namely) his personal Sb. Account, Joint account with his wife and one u/gship accou nt with his son.
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Bank can use right of set off in which of these accounts.

a. right is available for all the three accounts
b. right available in the joint account and Sb. account
c. right available in u/gship account and personal Sb. account
d. right available in personal Sb. account
Ans - d
48
119) A bank has certain financial securities given by a customer and lying in safe custody account
and certain articles lying in locker, in addition to a saving bank account in the name of the customer.
The bank has an overdraft in the name of the same customer, who is not paying the loan :
a. bank can use lien on the financial securities only.
b. bank can use lien on the financial securities as well as on articles in locker
c. bank cannot use lien on the financial securities, but it is possible on locker and saving
bank account
d. bank can exercise its right of set off in case of saving bank account only.
Ans - d
...................................................
120) In case of genuine difficulty, the filing of particulars can be allowed by Registrar of
Companies by condoning delay till further period of:
a. 7 days
b. 10 days
c. 30 days
d. No time limit
Ans - c
...................................................
121) Mr. Satish Kaushik, an officer with a public. sector bank committed certain irregularities while
discharging his duties as Incumbent Incharge at a rural branch. Which among the following will not
be considered a punishment, if the bank proceeds with disciplinary action:
177
a. warning and suspension

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b. warning
c. suspension
d. censure
Ans – a
...................................................
122) A cheque of Rs.5000 is issued on March 12, 2007. But it is dated as February 28, 2007. It is
presented for payment on March 14, 2007. Such cheque is called ..... and the cheque is .....
a. stale cheque, returned
b. post dated cheque, returned
c. ante-dated cheque, paid
d. invalid cheque, returned`
Ans - c
...................................................
123) Delhi Bank Ltd maintains a current account of a partnership firm named Reliance
Enterprises. The account is operated by both the partners of the firm singly. The bank
receives a cheque of Rs. 38000, originally made for Rs.33000. Though the cheque is signed by the 1st
partner, the alteration in the cheque in the amount has been made by the 2nd partner:
a. the cheque is materially altered due to which it cannot be paid
b. the payee would be told to get the confirmation of the 1st partner who had originally
signed the cheque
c. the payment would be made to the payee as the alteration in the cheque is properly
authenticated by the drawer
d. the payment would be made for Rs.33000 instead of Rs.38000, if the payee is agreeable to get
that amount
Ans - c
...................................................
124) A bank customer has died testate. What does the term ‘testate mean’:
178
a. leaving legal heirs
b. leaving behind no legal heirs

Page
c. leaving a will
d. not leaving a will
Ans - c
...................................................
125) Where a guarantor makes payment of bank loan, all securities are required to be
transferred by bank to the guarantor, under which of the following:
a. right of redemption
b. right of foreclosure
c. right of subrogation
d. right of appropriation
Ans - c
...................................................
126) Model Bank maintains a current account of M/s Budhiraja Industries Private Limited for the last
3 years. Recently one of their directors having powers to operate the bank account has become
insane and bank has, on its records, this information. A cheque dated about 5 months back, of
Rs.23000, is presented in the account which is signed by the director who has become insane
recently. The cheque is returned unpaid, stating that the signatory of the cheque has become
insane. When this fact comes to notice of the company, it questions the decision of the bank to
return the cheque and claims damages also:
a. bank is not liable as it has acted in the interest of the company
b. bank has on its record a notice issued by the company about the insanity due to which the bank
has acted in good faith
c. bank has acted negligently as the director has signed the cheque as agent and due to his insanity
the cheque already signed by him should have been honoured
d. bank has acted negligently and it has ignored the notice received from the company
regarding insanity
Ans - c
...................................................
127) ABC, a firm has raised a cash credit limit of Rs.10 lac, which is guaranteed by Mr. X. The nature
of this guarantee is:
179
a. continuing guarantee
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b. performance guarantee
c. specific. guarantee
d. deferred payment guarantee
Ans – a
...................................................
128) Within the Bank the responsibility of overseeing and ensuring overall compliance with
regulatory guidelines on KYC/AML is assigned to a senior management official designated as
a. Chief Compliance Officer
b. Officer on special duty
c. Compliance Officer
d. Principal Officer
Ans - d
...................................................
129) The violation of KYC principals will attracts penalties as per following Act
a. Reserve Bank India Act
b. Banking Regulation Act
c. Prevention of Money Laundering Act
d. Both b & c
Ans - d
...................................................
130) Name the odd one out:
a. ICRA
b. CIBIL
c. CARE
d. CRISIL
Ans - b
...................................................
180
131) A bill drawn in Delhi issued in favour of a trader in Iran and payable in Madras is:
Page
a. An accommodation bill
b. An inland bill
c. A foreign bill
Ans - b
...................................................
132) Your branch receives a cheque in which amount in words and figures differ. Your ledger keeper
insists on payment of this cheque. The bank should make the payment for amount:
a. In words
b. In figures
c. In words or figures whichever less
d. Cheque should be returned.
Ans - a
...................................................
133) On July 01, 2015 your branch receives a cheque-dated 1.11.2014 issued by one of your very
valuable customer Mr. Prem who normally maintains a balance of Rs.5.00 lakh in his saving bank
account. The bank would:
a. Pay the cheque
b. Pay and get confirmation of drawer
c. Refuse payment of stale cheque
Ans - c
...................................................
134) When a bill matures on a public holiday, the maturity date of the bill falls on:
a. Next succeeding working day
b. Next preceding business day
c. Both the above

181
Ans - b
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...................................................
135) A cheque in favour of Lord Krishna or order is presented for payment:
a. Bank can pay
b. Bank should refuse to pay because either it can be paid only to drawer or it can be
credited to the trust account in the name of the Lord Krishna
c. Bank can pay to the presenter
Ans - b
...................................................
136) Your branch receives an electronic image of a cheque for payment. What should the branch do?
a. Should not pay
b. Should pay only if the instruments has also got the digital signature .
c. Should pay on indemnity of the drawer.
Ans - b
...................................................
137) A issued a cheque in favour of Ram or order but before handing it over to Ram he cancelled `or
the order to’ and authenticated the cancellation under full signatures. Now the payment of the
cheque can be made to :
a. Payee or to the holder
b. Payee or his order
c. Payee only
Ans - c
...................................................
138) A minor presents a cheque at the counter for payment but due to insufficient funds the
bank refuses to make payment. Minor insists on a written returning memo. In this case:
182
a. Bank is bound to give cheque return memo.
b. Bank need not do so

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c. Bank can do at its discretion
Ans - a
...................................................
139) Corporate Bank released a loan of Rs.35 lac. to a partnership firm for purchase of fixed assets
and for meeting working capital limits. The loan documents were signed by three partners at three
different places on January 12, 2013, January 26, 2013 and January 25, 2013. Which among these
will be the starting point for the purpose of validity of the documents for limitation purpose:
a. documents are not valid as these have been executed at different places
b. documents are not valid as these have been executed on different dates
c. limitation begins from January 12, 2013
d. limitation begins from January 27, 2013
Ans - d
...................................................
140) A bill of lading is presented by M/s Bangalore Exports Limited to their bank, Universal Bank, for
negotiation along with other necessary documents. The bill bears remarks regarding some defect in
the packing of the goods. Which of the following kinds of bill of lading it would be called
a. clean bill of lading
b. invalid bill of lading
c. straight bill of lading
d. claused bill of lading
Ans - d
...................................................
141) The legal status of a nominee in case of safe custody of articles account is that of:
a. agent of the locker holder
b. agent of the legal heirs of locker holder
c. trustee for the locker holder

183
d. trustee for the legal heirs
Ans - d
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...................................................
65
142) Your branch in Chandigarh decides to sanction working capital limits to a public. Limited
company having registered office in Chandigarh and proposes to obtain equitable mortgage of
immovable property of the company located in Jaipur. The registration of the particulars of the
mortgage will be required to be done:
a. with the Registrar of Companies having jurisdiction over Chandigarh
b. with the registrar having jurisdiction over Jaipur
c. with both the registrars
d. with any of the registrars
Ans - a
...................................................
143) In case of payment of cheque with an endorsement, the paying banker gets protection only
when:
a. signatures of the endorser are not forged
b. endorsement is not without consideration
c. endorsement appearing on the instrument is regular
d. all the above
Ans - c
...................................................
66
144) A power of attorney executed abroad and attested by Notary public. in that country:
a. Is valid in India also if stamped in India within 3 months from date of entry into India.
b. Not valid in India unless attested in India
c. Valid if attested in India also by Chief Justice
d. a to c
Ans - a
184
...................................................
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145) A bank wants to bring change in the terms and conditions relating to saving bank account. The
bank should inform the customer about this ____ month / days before implementation of the
change:
a. 2 months
b. 45 days
c. one month
d. 15 days
Ans - c
...................................................
146) A bill dated 1.1.2012 is payable 2 months after sight and it was sighted on 15.01.2012, but
accepted on 18.01.2012. The due date for payment would be:
a. 15.03. 2012
b. 18.03. 2012
c. 17.03. 2012
d. 21.03.2012
Ans - d
...................................................
147) What is the period for preservation of documents obtained while opening of deposit
accounts :
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 8 years
d. 10 years
Ans - b
...................................................
148) Ram Lal and Sons, HUF, is having current account operated by Karta, who dies:
185
a. Operations will be stopped and amount paid to legal heir
b. Eldest among surviving co-parceners would become Karta automatically and operate the account,
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if major.
c. HUF would be dissolved
Ans - b
...................................................
149) The liability of members of HUF is
a. Limited
b. Limited to the extent of their shares
c. Unlimited
Ans - b
...................................................
150) Trusts are governed by:
a. Indian Succession Act
b. Negotiable Instruments Act.
c. Indian Trust Act
Ans - c
...................................................
151) A non private charitable trust is registered with:
a. Registrar of Trusts
b. Register of Societies
c. Registrar of Companies
d. Commissioner of Charity
Ans - d
...................................................
186
152) A bank is having an account in the name of a trust with four trustees and they want to
authorise one of them to sign on their behalf. In such circumstances:
Page
a. Letter of authority must be signed by all

b. Letter of authority should be consented by the Commissioner of charity.
c. The authority would be valid when cheques are drawn only for the achievements of the objectives
of trust
d. If trust deed provides for such an authority, it can be accepted.
Ans - d
...................................................
153) Which of the following facility cannot be allowed to a blind person (i.e. a visually impaired
person).
a. cheque book facility in his Sb. account
b. ATM facility
c. locker facility
Ans - d
...................................................
b. when additional loan is allowed by a bank to a firm to cover the amount of irregularity in the
account
c. when a bill is drawn without considerationby seller of goods on buyer of good.
Ans - c
...................................................
155) A issues a cheque in favour of B on 1.7.2015 but forgets to fill in the date. B presents the
cheque for payment on 15.7.2015 filling the date as 10.07.2015. The bank will:
a. Pay the cheque
b. Bank will not pay the cheque
c. Bank will hand over the cheque to the police

187

Page
Ans - a
...................................................
156) Payment of a cheque is not affected by:
a. Death of the payee
b. Death of the drawer
c. Insolvency of the drawer
Ans - a
...................................................
157) A opened a current account on 10.7.2015 and obtained cheque book the next day and issued a
cheque in favour of B on 14.7.2015 mentioning the date as 1.7.2015. Che que is presented on
20.7.2015. The bank in this case can:
a. Pay the cheque
b. Refuse the payment \Contact the account holder
c. Contact the account holder
Ans - a
...................................................
158) A cheque-dated 29.2.2015 is presented on 28.2.2015. The bank should:
a. Pay the cheque
b. Refuse the payment of post-dated cheque
c. Contact the drawer
Ans - b
...................................................
159) A the customer of the bank authorises ‘B’ to receive the payment from his account on a plain
paper. He comes to bank and demands money:
188
a. Is bound to make payment and obtain stamped receipts as in NI Act there is no provision as to the
type or form to be used for demanding money.
Page
b. Bank would refuse the payment.

c. Bank would advise drawer to get a chequebook issued.
Ans - a
...................................................
160) The Bank can make payment of cheque even after receiving notice of the drawer for:
a. For criminal liability
b. For monetary liability
c. For both the above
Ans - c
...................................................
161) A issues a cheque in favour of B and also writes on face of the cheque that it is valid for eight
months. Bank will:
a. Pay the cheque within 8 months
b. Not pay if presented after 3 months
c. Will not pay the cheque
Ans - b
...................................................
162) You receive a cheque, which is issued, by one of your customers; in favour of a very reputed
limited company whose account you trying to take over from other bank. What will you do with this
cheque? :
a. Pay if it is bearer
b. Not pay across the counter
c. Pay if manager is satisfied

189
Ans - b
...................................................
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163) Y's current account is over drawn by Rs 3500/-.The bank can exercise right of setoff against a.
credit balance in the partnership account where y is a partner
b. cash deposited by y for buying a DD
c. credit balance in the account of a minor with y as Guardian
4]credit balance in the account of y maintained with another branch of the same bank
Ans - d
...................................................
164) In an account of joint trustee, on the death of one of the trustees:
a. Bank account will be operated upon by surviving trustees.
b. Bank will not permit operations unless it is specifically mentioned in the trust deed
c. Surviving trustees can operate the account if bank permits
Ans - b
...................................................
165) A trustee can raise a loan against the mortgage of property if:
a. Trust deed permits him to do so
b. Trust deed can not have conditions to the contrary
c. Trustee can stand as guarantor
Ans - a
...................................................
166) A contract with a married woman is :
a. Invalid
b. Unlawful
c. Lawful
d. Should be ignored
190
Ans - c
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...................................................
167) The husband is not responsible for a loan raised by a married woman, the exception to this rule
is:
a. When consent of the husband was taken before granting the loan
b. When loan had been granted for maintenance of the wife
c. Both (a) and (b)
Ans - c
...................................................
168) Mrs. x who maintained a safe deposit locker had expired and Mr x husband of her produces a
power of attorney executed in his favour by Mrs x authorizing him to operate the locker during her
life time or even after her demise and request the bank to allow him to take contents of locker.
a. He may be allowed
b. since power attorney is not considered for operation of locker he will not be allowed
c. authority to operate the locker comes to an end on the death of Mrs x.
d. As x is the legal heir and also holding the power of attorney ,he can be allowed
Ans - c
...................................................
169) A bank grants a loan of Rs 30000/-to X and obtains a demand promissory note and forgets to
affix revenue stamp by oversight. The account has become sticky and bank wants to file a suit for
recovery of the amount on the strength of the demand promissory note.
a. Revenue stamp should be affixed and crossed before filing the suit
b. ten times the value of the stamp can be paid and suit can be filed.
c. The court has the power to condone the omission on being satisfied about the cause of omission.
d. Omission can not be condoned
Ans - d
...................................................
170) The hirer of a safe deposit locker reports that the loss of key of the locker.
191
a. he will be issued a duplicate key on executing an indemnity bond
b. he will be advised to lodge FIR with police authorities and thereafter it will be broken
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open in the presence of police inspector and a witness
c. the safe will be broken open by the representative of the manufacturer in the presence of hirer
d. he has to surrender the locker
Ans - c
...................................................
171) In terms of which ACT no Person other than RBI can draw a BE or PN payable to bearer on
demand
a. SEC 31 of RBI Act
b. SEC 31 of Bract
c. SEC 31 of N.I act
4]sec 31 of contract act
Ans - a
...................................................
78
172) On which of the following dates, Hindi was declared Official Language of the Union, due to
which Hindi Diwas is observed on that day?
a. January 26, 1949
b. August 15, 1950
c. September 14, 1949
d. January 26, 1956
Ans - c
...................................................
173) Rules regarding preservation of records in bank are framed by __ under __ Act:
a. RBI, RBI Act
b. Govt., RBI Act
c. Central Govt., Banking Regulation Act

192
d. RBI, Banking Regulation Act
Ans - c
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...................................................
174) In case a notice has to be served on a company it should be sent at:
a. Factory office
b. Corporate office
c. Registered office
Ans - c
...................................................
84
175) A bank grants a loan to a married woman which she is unable to repay:
a. Bank can file suit against husband
b. Woman is personally responsible
c. None of the above
d. Both (a) and (b)
Ans - b
...................................................
176) After marriage of a Hindu Women, her right of streedhan
a. remain unaffected
b. remain unaffected if her parents allow
c. remain unaffected if in-laws permit
d. get extinguished
Ans - a
...................................................
177) Any contract entered with a Pardanashin lady is :
a. Valid contract
193
b. null & Void contract
c. Void contract
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d. Avoidable contract
Ans - b
...................................................
178) What is not true in respect of nomination of following types of accounts:
a. in joint deposit accounts only one nomination is allowed
b. in joint locker accounts, the no. of nominees can be equal to no. of locker holders
c. in joint safe deposit of articles, the no.of nominees can be one
Ans - c
...................................................
179) A bank has a right called....to combine two or more accounts (at least one of which has debit
balance and another has credit balance) in the same capacity,of customer:
a. Right of subrogation
b. Right of adjustment
c. right of lien
Ans - d
...................................................
87
180) To pass a cheque issued by the customer in favour of electricity department, bank allowed a
small amount of overdraft to one of its saving bank account holder, without his request for which
the customer sends thanks letter. But he is not ready to pay the amount of overdraft on the plea
that he never requested for OD:
a. bank can recover the amount
b. bank cannot recover the amount
c. bank cannot recover the amount as this has been given without consent of the customer
d. bank can recover the amount but no interest can be charged.

194
Ans – a
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181) A contract entered with a Pardanashin lady can be declared void only when it is proved that:
a. the identity was not established
b. another party unduly influenced the lady
c. free consent was not given
d. all the above.
Ans – d
182) X presented a bearer cheque for payment for Rs.7500 from account of Mr. Z. He refuses to sign
on the back side of the cheque while obtaining this payment:
a. bank can make the payment, without getting signatures
b. bank can refuse the payment since payment without signature of receiver is not a
payment in due course
c. bank can pay by obtaining stamped receipt for receiving the cash
d. bank can pay by obtaining unstamped receipt for receiving the cash
Ans - c
...................................................
183) In which of the following accounts, the available funds cannot be attached by a garnishee order
(1)fixed deposit that has not matured (2) account in the name of a deceased person (3) unused
balance in overdraft account
a. 1 to 3 all
b. 2 and 3
c. only 2
d. only 3
Ans - d
...................................................
184) Gopi is maintaining a current account with the bank and bank receives information
regarding his insanity
a. The bank should stop operations

195
b. Bank should close the account
c. Bank should ignore the information

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Ans - a
...................................................
185) Whether a lunatic or a mentally unsound person can become a borrower?
a. Yes,
b. No
c. Yes, if lunacy or mental unsoundness is of temporary nature and loan is raised when he is
not unsound
Ans – c
90
186) A person who is drunkard:
a. Should not be granted loan
b. Should be granted loan after obtaining doctor’s certificate
c. Should be granted loan when he is not under influence of liquor
Ans - c
...................................................
187) Who can operate upon the account of blind person:
a. Guardian appointed by court
b. Blind person himself
c. A near relative
Ans - b
...................................................
188) While withdrawing an amount from account, the blind person:

196
a. Can put his signatures
b. Can put his thumb impression

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c. Either of above
Ans - c
...................................................
189) What is the time limit during which the pension should be credited in account of the pensioner?
a. it should be by last day of each month
b. it can be spread over last 4 working days of month and for March, on or first working day of the
next month
c. it should be credited on or after first working day of the next month
d. it can be spread over last 4 calendar days of each month and for March on or first
working day of the April next
Ans - b
...................................................
190) Under provisions of Bankers Book Evidence Act, which of the following can be produced by the
bank in a court of law:
a. only original records or documents
b. copy of the original records or documents
c. certified copy of the original records or documents
d. any of the given options
Ans - c
...................................................
191) A cause of complaint occurred on January 12, 2010 and the customer made a request to
thebank on January 22, 2010, after verbally pursing the matter. The bank however, did not reply.
The customer can lodge the complaint with Ombudsman latest by which date, for settling this
complaint:
a. February 12, 2010
b. February 22, 2010

197
c. February 12, 2011
d. February 22, 2011

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Ans - d
...................................................
192) A minor was admitted in a partnership firm for benefits, on Jan 14,2012. He attains majority on
Mar 14,2012.He comes to know about this admission for benefits, on April 25, 2012 only. Latest by
which date, he can opt to become the partner in this firm.
a. April 25, 2012
b. July 13, 2012
c. Sept 13, 2012
d. Oct 24, 2012
Ans - d
...................................................
193) A cheque is presented in the account of Mr. X, but meanwhile a garnishee order is received. On
receipt of garnishee order, on account of a customer, what is status of liability of the bank to pay the
cheque ?
a. Stops operations in the account
b. Loses the right of set off.
c. Bank is discharged from the liability to honour the cheque issued by the customer
Ans - c
...................................................
194) Bank cannot disclose the affairs of account of a customer. What are the circumstance where it
is under obligation to disclose the affairs of customer’s account ?
a. compulsion of law
b. banking practice
c. in interest of the bank
d. a to c
Ans - d
198
...................................................
195) Mr. Ashok Rahi had obtained a fixed deposit from India Bank Limited for Rs.50000 for 2 years
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which have passed 4 months back. When Mr. Ashok Rahi demanded the payment from the bank on
Sept 12, 2005 after maturity, the bank could not locate the records. What is the limitation period
during which the customer can file suit to recover the amount from bank?
a. there is no limitation period in case of deposits and these can be claimed any time
b. the limitation period is three years from date of expiry of the fixed deposit receipt.
c. the limitation period begins from date of the term deposit and is three years
d. the limitation period runs from date of demand of the money and is three years
Ans - d
...................................................
196) If fixed/term deposit accounts are opened with operating instructions, Either or Survivor and
the payment is to be obtained before maturity, the signatures of which of the following are
required:
a. both the account holders
b. first account holder
c. 2nd account holder
d. only surviving account holder
Ans – a
00
197) A bill of exchange drawn by X on Y bears across its face two parallel transverse lines. Therefore
a. The bill is crossed generally
b. The bill is specially crossed
c. The bill contains superfluous extraneous addition.
d. The bill can not be endorsed further.
Ans - c
.................................................
198) A cheque issued in favour of self/order is presented for payment:

199
a. Bank should refuse the payment of cheque

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b. Bank should pay the cheque

c. Bank should pay to the drawer or person authorised by him after identification.
Ans - c
...................................................
199) There is credit balance in the account for Rs.3000.00. Three cheques with amount of Rs.1200,
1100 and 1000 are simultaneously presented. Bank will pay the cheques with amount of Rs.:
a. Rs.1200 only
b. Rs.1000 only
c. Rs.1100 only
d. Rs.1000 and Rs.1100
Ans - d
...................................................
102
200) A paying bank can get protection u/s 85(1) of NI Act on the following:
a. A forged endorsement
b. Forged signatures of drawer
c. Both the above
Ans - a
...................................................
201) A paying banker is absolved from his responsibility if he:
a. Pays the cheque in due course
b. Pays within prescribed time
c. Pays according to apparent tenor
Ans - a
200
...................................................
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202) There is credit balance of Rs.55000.00 in current account on 1.1.2016 and three cheques of
Rs.39000, 44000 and 46000 were presented for payment through clearing on 2.1.2016. The cheque
of Rs.39000 is in favour of ITO.
a. Bank will pay the cheque which is in favour of ITO
b. Bank will pay the cheque with highest amount
c. Bank will return all the cheques
Ans - a
...................................................
203) For wrongful dishonour of a cheque, drawee bank will be responsible to:
a. The payee
b. The drawer
c. The holder
Ans - b
...................................................
103
204) The paying bank paid a cheque presented through clearing house however the signature of the
drawer on cheque was forged. The forgery was made so intelligently that it could not be traced by
the passing official.
a. The bank is responsible for the payment to the drawer
b. The Bank is not responsible as it is collected through other bank.
c. The Bank is not responsible as it was not visible.
Ans - a
...................................................
205) A bearer cheque crossed ` not negotiable’ without having two parallel lines is presented for
201
payment at the counter:
a. The bank will pay the cheque as these words without lines will not constitute crossing.
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b. The bank will not pay as payment of such cheques can be made to banker only.
c. After getting identification bank would pay the cheque.
Ans - a
...................................................
206) While receiving the payment of a bearer cheque the presenter refuses to sign on the reverse of
the cheque:
a. The bank should not make payment
b. The bank should make payment to the bearer after obtaining the stamp receipt him.
c. The bank will ask for guarantee from the presenter
Ans – b
207) The amount of withdrawal will be limited to______% of the balance to the credit at the end of
the 4th year immediately preceding the year in which the amount of withdrawal is to be made or at
the end of the preceding year whichever is lower.
a. 10%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 100%
Ans - b
...................................................
208) While accepting a stop payment instruction from a customer, the bank give
acknowledgement with a condition that it will not be held responsible in case the payment of
stopped cheque is made through oversight. In this case whether bank is responsible if cheque is paid
by mistake:
a. The bank will not be responsible as the acknowledgement was conditional.
b. The Bank will be responsible, as the RBI has restrained conditional acknowledgment.
c. The bank will be responsible because the cheque after stop payment instruction is no
202
more than a plain paper and it is also not a mandate from drawer
d. B & C
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Ans - b
...................................................
209) A cheque is presented for payment through clearing and the bank passed the cheque in
customer’s account. Meanwhile the bank receives the notice of stop payment of the cheque. The
returning time of the cheque in clearing has not lapsed:
a. The bank should inform the drawer that the cheque was passed before receipt of stop
payment notice
b. The bank should comply with the stop payment notice
c. The bank should overlook the stop payment notice
Ans - b
...................................................
210) The bank received garnishee order on saving bank account of Mr. Ram at 10.50 a.m., who
deposits Rs. 5000 at 12.10 p.m.:
a. The order would apply to this amount also.
b. The bank will refuse to accept the deposit as no amount can be accepted after garnishee order
c. The order will not apply to this amount
d. order will apply if court is informed about this
Ans - c
211) Which of the following statement is a correct statement about joint deposit accounts.
a. the names can be substituted with the name of other persons
b. there can be maximum 2 nominees
c. in case of either or survivor account, if one expires and pre-mature payment is to be
obtained, it will be made to survivor and legal heirs of the deceased account holder
d. all the statements are wrong
Ans – c
203
115
...................................................
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212) An income tax attachment order for Rs.125,000/= is received in the name of Mr. X who is
having a joint account with his wife Mrs. W. The balance in the joint account is
Rs.2,00,000/=.
a. attachment in a joint account is not permitted
b. attachment is allowed for an amount up to Rs.1.25 lac
c. attachment is allowed for an amount up to Rs.1 lac. only
d. attachment up to full amount is permitted in attachment order
Ans - c
...................................................
213) A cheque has been issued by a firm in favour of bank and is crossed account payee. This is
presented by the bank on the counter of drawee bank for cash payment:
a. the payment can be made through clearing only
b. The drawee bank should make payment
c. The drawee bank should refuse payment
d. cheque has not been drawn properly as the bank can be drawee only and not a payee
Ans - b
...................................................
214) Universal Bank is maintaining a current account of M/s Sunaina Enterprises Ltd for the last 3
years. The bank receives a request from the company for return of all the cheques issued by them
and paid by the bank from their account during the last 6 months. What action the bank would take?
a. Bank may return the instruments if the company is a very reputed client so as the
maintain relationship.
b. Bank may return the instruments as it is provided under the provisions of Banking
Regulation Act
c. Bank should refuse the request since the passed cheques are the property of the bank
and bank may need these instruments for various purposes.
d. Bank may advise them to obtain photo copy of the instruments.

204
Ans - b
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...................................................
215) Harish and Mahinder are joint trustees and Harish is authorised to operate the account. He
issues a cheque but Mahinder gives a stop payment notice. The bank in the case:
a. Should not obey Mahinder as he is not having the powers to operate
b. Obey instructions of Mahinder as he is one of the trustees
c. Should ask Harish. As to why the payment not be stopped.
d. seek court direction because of the dispute
Ans - a
...................................................
216) Two charges were registered over the property of a company with ROC. One was created on
01.02.2012 and registered on 28.02.2012. The other was created on 07.02.2012 and was registered
on 15.02.2012 :
a. charge created on 01.02.12 will have priority
b. charge created on 07.02.12 will have priority
c. charge registered on 15.02.12 will have priority
d. both the charges will have equal priority
Ans - a
...................................................
217) A bearer cheque payable in favour of a liquidated company is presented for payment by the
liquidator:
a. The bank can make payment
b. The bank can pay after identification
c. The Bank can not make the payment to liquidator because he has to keep the money in a banking
account.
Ans - b
...................................................
218) A payee of a cheque requests for stop payment of a particular cheque because he has lost it:
205
a. The bank will comply with the request.
b. The bank will exercise the caution and seek the confirmation from the drawer. In the
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mean time if the cheque is presented for payment it should be returned with the remarks cheque
reported lost, confirmation is awaited.
c. The bank will ignore the request.
Ans - b
...................................................
219) A requested for stop payment of a cheque in favour of B. On the same date a cheque in clearing
is presented for payment which bears the same name, amount and number of the cheque, the
payment of which is stopped, but the date differs:
a. The bank should not pay because the date of cheque may wrongly be mentioned but all other
material facts of the cheque tally with the notice of stop payment.
b. The bank should refer the matter to the drawer
c. The Bank should pay the cheque
Ans - a
...................................................
119
220) Liability of the guarantor in a contract of guarantee is
a. unlimited
b. Irrespective of the liability of the principal debtor
c. Co extensive with that of the principal debtor
Ans - c
...................................................
221) The person on whose behalf the guarantee is issued is called
a. Creditor
b. Beneficiary
206
c. Guarantor
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Ans - d
...................................................
222) A, a customer has an account and her husband had withdrawn the money from the bank on the
basis of forged cheques at various occasions but the customer did not object to it. After his death
she comes to bank and demands the money.
a. Bank would refer the matter to the court.
b. Bank is liable on forged cheques.
c. The bank is not liable as the customer is negligent/connived and did not inform the bank.
Ans - c
...................................................
223) A cheque in clearing is presented for payment, but the amount in words and figures differ:
a. A Bank should pay the amount whichever is less.
b. Bank should return the cheque
c. Bank should pay the amount in figures
d. Bank should pay the amount in words.
Ans - d
...................................................
224) Bank receives two cheques in clearing and balance is sufficient to pay only one cheque:
a. Important cheque (covering payment of essential / govt. dues) should be paid.
b. Payment should be on first come first served basis
c. Both the cheques should be returned
Ans - a
...................................................
225) Payment of forged instrument is not a valid discharge for the bank of its liability because:
207
a. the instrument is not a proper mandate
b. forgery should be detected by the bank in any case

Page
c. bank has signatures of the customer and he can not deny his liability.
Ans - a
...................................................
122
226) Holders of post-dated cheques can sue the drawer:
a. after the stated date, if remain unpaid.
b. On date of their issue
c. Any time after their issue
Ans - a
...................................................
227) Section 6 of N.I act deals with
a. cheques
b. truncated cheques
c. electronic form of cheque
d. all the above
Ans - d
...................................................
228) Which of the following is not a feature of bill of exchange?
a. it is an order in writing
b. the person who draws it is called drawee
c. the persons who obtains payment is called payee
d. the bill can be drawn as demand bill or usance bill

208
Ans - b
...................................................
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229) If the time period of payment of a bill of exchange or promissory note is not indicated, such
instruments shall be treated as:
a. payable on demand
b. payable as per mutual arrangement within the parties
c. invalid bill of exchange or promissory note
d. none of the given options is correct
Ans - a
...................................................
230) Which of the following features of a not negotiable instrument is not correct:
a. holder of such instrument gets the title which the transferor had
b. in such instruments there is no holder in due course
c. such instrument cannot be transferred further by way of endorsement
d. banks have to make payment of such instrument, by taking normal precautions only
Ans - c
231) Which of the following RBI guidelines on nomination, are not correct:
a. name of nominee cannot be indicated on pass-book as that amounts to violation of
secrecy rules
b. on request of customer, the name of nominee can be indicated on pass-book or FDR
c. pass-book should be marked as nomination registered
d. none of the given options is incorrect
Ans - a
...................................................
232) If visually impaired persons approaches for certain banking facilities, which of the following can
be permitted to him (1) cheque book facility (2) ATM facility (3) Net bank facility (4) Locker facility
a. 1 to 4 any
209
b. 1 to 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
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d. 1 and 4 only
Ans - a
...................................................
233) What is the time period for meeting of the Committee on Implementation of Official Language:
a fortnightly
b. monthly
c. quarterly
d half-yearly
Ans - c
...................................................
234) A bill of exchange favouring A or order was endorsed by A on the reverse of the instrument as
pay B or order and signed below that. Before it could be delivered to B, A passed away. Thereafter
the legal heirs of A delivered the instrument to B. In this case...
a. The negotiation is valid as both endorsement & delivery has taken place
b. It is invalid negotiation as the legal heir of A can not complete its negotiation by delivery.
c. The importance is endorsement and not delivery and hence it is valid.
Ans - b
...................................................
235) Hypothecation is a mode of security provided in
a. Indian contract act 187
b. transfer of property act 1882
c. banking regulation act 1949
d. SARFAESI Act 2002
Ans - d
...................................................
210
236) Which one of the following will be treated as material alteration?
a. Converting an endorsement in blank to an endorsement in full

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b. crossing of a open cheque by holder
c. conversion of a general crossing in to special crossing
d. conversion of “order in to “bearer”
Ans - d
...................................................
237) A cheque drawn in favour of x is crossed “not negotiable”. X endorses the cheque in favour of Y
for valuable consideration. Y becomes ...
a. A holder in due course
b. only a holder
c. an assignee for the amount of cheque
d. the cheque can not be endorsed
Ans – b
134
238) A bearer cheque with general crossing is paid across the counter to the bearer of the cheque.
Later on it was found that the cheque was stolen. In this case the banker is...
a. Liable to the original owner of the cheque
b. liable to the true owner of the cheque
c. will not be liable since it is a bearer cheque
Ans - b
...................................................
239) An endorser of a negotiable instrument may, by express words in the endorsement excludes his
own liability there on. Such an endorsement is
a. Facultative endorsement
b. endorsement “sans recourse”
d. restrictive endorsement
211
Ans - b
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...................................................
240) A endorses a negotiable instrument in favour of B. Here
a. A is the endorser and B is the endorsee
b. B is the endorser and A is the endorsee
c. both are endorsers
d. both are endorsees
Ans - a
...................................................
241) The paying banker is protected under following SECTION for payment of cheque with forged
signature of the drawer.
a. Sec 89 of N.I act
b. sec 85[a. of N.I act
c. sec 131 of N.I act
d. no protection is available
Ans - d
...................................................
242) The definition of negotiable instruments is contained in
a. N.I act
b. Indian contract act
c. Banking regulation act
Ans - d
...................................................
243) A bill dated 22-11-2011 is payable 1 month after date. The bill will mature on
a. 24-12-2011
b. 25-12-2011
c. 26-12-2011
212
d. 22-12-2011
Page
Ans - a
...................................................
244) The offence as described u/s 138 become cognizable when:
a. a complaint is made
b. time of such complaint is within one month.
c. A and B
Ans - c
...................................................
245) A cheque for Rs.124390.00 is drawn in favour of Dhiraj Kumar or bearer. It is presented by a
cycle repair shop worker, near your branch. What will you do:
a. Pay the cheque without any enquiry
b. Refuse to pay the cheque since circumstances are such that the presenter may not be
entitled for receiving the amount Make enquiries and if satisfied pay or otherwise refuse
c. Insist for identification by the drawer
Ans - b
...................................................
246) Under Section 25 of NI Act, who declares a Public Holiday:
a. State Govt.
b. Central Govt.
c. RBI
d. A or b
Ans - d
...................................................
247) Where the Central Govt. declares a day as public holiday, the bank offices in a particular State
will be remain closed only when:
a. State govt. notifies

213
b. RBI notifies the day as public holiday
c. No need for any further notification

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d. All the above
Ans - c
...................................................
248) Which of the following statements is incorrect:
a. A bills of exchange is an instruments in writing
b. A bill of exchange may be drawn conditionally
c. A bill of exchange directs a certain person to pay certain amount of money
d. A bill of exchange is payable to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the
instrument
Ans - b
...................................................
249) A bill is payable at sight. It will be treated as:
a. Demand Bill
b. Usance bill
c. Accommodation bill
Ans - a
...................................................
250) An accommodation bill is drawn for
a. Mutual benefit without consideration
b. Genuine trade transaction against consideration
c. Payable at sight
Ans - a
...................................................
214
251) X and Y are associated with the following accounts jointly and they want to nominate their sons
A and b. in these accounts. In which of the following accounts, they can be allowed to do so:
Page
a. joint saving bank account

b. joint safe deposit vault account
c. joint safe deposit of articles account
d. in any of these accounts
Ans - b
...................................................
252) A bill of lading issued by a shipping company, which bears no Super imposed clause or notation
that expressly declares the defective condition of goods or packaging, is called :
a. on board bill of lading
b. Claused bill of lading
c. clean bill of lading
d. stale bill of lading
Ans - c
...................................................
253) A usance bill dated Feb 03, 2012 payable 90 days after sight is accepted on Feb 13, 2012. What
is due date:
a. 6.05.2012
b. 9.5.2012
c. 13.5.2012
d. 16.5.2012
Ans - d
...................................................
254) The limitation period in case of a bill payable on demand starts from:
a. Date of the bill
b. Date of demand
c. (a) or (b) whichever earlier

215
Ans - a
...................................................
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143
255) When the due date of a bill falls on a public holiday, the bill is payable.
a. on next working day
b. On next preceding business day
c. 3 days after next working day
Ans - b
...................................................
256) On presentation of usance bill of exchange, the drawee puts his signature on the face of the
bill, without writing the words `accepted for payment’.
a. it cannot be considered as acceptance, as intention is not clear
b. it constitutes incomplete acceptance
c. acceptance is complete and drawee becomes liable on it
d. putting the works accepted alongwith signature is must
Ans - c
...................................................
257) A usance bill is payable 2 months after acceptance without any grace period’, is accepted on
March 10, 2015. Its due date for payment will be:
a. May 08, 2015
b. May 10, 2015
c. May 11, 2015
d. May 15, 2015
Ans - b
...................................................
258) What will be due date for a bill dated 1.2.2015 payable 45 days after sight and the bill was
accepted on 6.2.2016:
a. 23.3.2016
216
b. 26.3.2016
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c. 25.3.2016
Ans - c
...................................................
144
259) A bill of exchange is sent for acceptance but for three days, the drawee does not respond. The
bill should be treated as:
a. Accepted
b. Dishonored for acceptance
c. Dishonored for payment
d. To be presented again
Ans - b
...................................................
260) Noting is done on:
a. The instrument itself
b. A separate paper
c. Partly on (a) and (b)
Ans - c
...................................................
261) Noting and protesting is compulsory in case of:
a. Foreign bill
b. Inland bill
c. Both the above
Ans - a
...................................................
217
262) A cheque drawn payable to A or B or order is presented across the counter for payment by B
alone
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a. The cheque is to be returned as it can not be drawn payable to A or B.
b. Payment can be made after properly identifying B
c. Payment should be refused unless B produces the death certificate of A
d. Payment can be made with the consent of A only
Ans - b
...................................................
263) A cheque for RS 10000/- has been presented in clearing and the cheque has been debited to
the respective account. You receive a stop payment instruction from the drawer before the returns
are sent by the branch. In this situation You will
a. return the cheque after cancelling the debit entry
b. since account is already debited you can not accept stop payment instruction.
c. It is up to the banker to decide
Ans - a
...................................................
264) A cheque drawn on account on which garnishee order is served .The cheque should be returned
with the remark
a. Garnishee order received
b. refer to drawer
c. account attached
d. orders not to pay
Ans - b
...................................................
265) A is having a current account and the minimum balance required is Rs5000/. The present
balance is Rs 6000/-.A cheque is presented in clearing for Rs 6000/- Now
a. You will return the cheque
b. You will pass the cheque

218
c. You will pass the cheque and close the account

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Ans - b
...................................................
266) In a bill the name of the “drawee in case of need” is mentioned. When it was presented to the
drawee it was dishonoured. Now the bill is said to be dishonoured
a. Since it was dishonoured by the drawee
b. only after it is presented to the drawee in case of need and dishonoured by him
c. It is not compulsory to present it to drawee in case of need
Ans - b
...................................................
267) With the amendment to N.I act on 01-04-1989[sec 138]
Dishonour of cheques for insufficiency of funds is deemed an offence. the drawer of the
cheque may be punished
a. Imprisonment for a term up to 1year or fine upto twice the amount of the cheque or with both
b. Imprisonment for a term of 2 years
c. fine up to thrice the cheque amount
d. imprisonment upto 2 years or fine which may extend to twice the amount of the amount of
cheque or with both
Ans - d
...................................................
268) Order instruments are negotiated by
a. Endorsement
b. delivery
c. endorsement & delivery
d. an order instrument can not be negotiated
Ans - c
219
...................................................
269) A endorses a cheque SANS RECOURSE to B. B endorses it to C and C to A. If the cheque is

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dishonored
a. A is not liable to B and C and also can not claim from them
b. A is not liable to B & C but can claim from them as an endorsee
c. A can claim from C only
d. A can claim from B only
Ans - b
...................................................
270) A cheque payable to Ratan singh is endorsed by him in blank and delivered Lakhan singh. Mr.
Lakhan singh adds the following above the blank endorsement made by Ratan singh “ pay Magan
singh or order” and handed over the cheque to Mr. Magan singh. Which of the following is correct
a. The cheque is rendered invalid as there is a material alteration
b. Mr lakhan singh is only liable if the cheque is dishonored
c. Mr Ratan singh is only liable if the cheque is dishonored
d. The cheque is valid and Mr Lakhan singh incurs no liability as an endorser
Ans - d
...................................................
271) A cheque of Central Bank of India bears a round stamp of Dena Bank and collection number of
the bank. The cheque is
a. Generally crossed
b. specially crossed to Dena Bank
c. uncrossed
Ans - b
...................................................
272) Bill of lading and railway receipts are:
a. Negotiable instruments
b. Accepted as negotiable instruments

220
c. Non-negotiable instruments

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Ans - b
...................................................
273) Which one of the following is not negotiable instrument:
a. A delivery order
b. A currency note
c. A letter of credit
d. All the above
Ans - d
...................................................
148
274) Rameshwar Dass issued a bearer cheque in favour of Mr.Ramneet but he expired before
hecould handover the cheque to Mr.Ramneet. Whether the negotiation is complete and howSuch a
negotiable instrument is transferable only by:
a. No & Endorsement
b. No & Delivery
c. Yes & Endorsement and delivery
Ans - b
...................................................
275) An order cheque is transferable only by:
a. Endorsement
b. Delivery
c. Endorsement and delivery
d. Blank endorsement
E. All the above
Ans - c
...................................................
221
276) Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument:
a. A postal order
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b. An LIC policy
c. A share certificate
d. All the above
Ans - d
...................................................
277) The holder of a negotiable instrument is holder in due course if (state which is not true out of
the following):
a. He receives the instrument in good faith and without negligence
b. He receives the instrument for any type of consideration
c. He receives the instrument before its maturity
d. All the above
Ans - b
...................................................
278) Payment in due course means, payment (which of the following is not correct):
a. According to apparent tenor of the instrument
b. Must be made in good faith and with negligence
c. Must be made to the person in possession of the instrument in circumstances without any doubt
or suspicion.
d. All the above.
Ans - b
...................................................
279) Which of the following is payment in due course:
a. Crossed cheque paid over counter
b. Cheque with forged signatures of the bearer.
c. Bearer cheque with endorsement on it even if it is forged.
d. Cheque paid after receipt of garnishee order.

222
Ans - c
...................................................
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280) An inland instrument is one, which is:
a. Drawn or made in India
b. Made payable or drawn on a person resident of India
c. Both the above
Ans - c
...................................................
281) A customer of your branch issues a cheque payable cash or bearer. This is presented by a minor
of 16 years of age for payment at the counter:
a. Bank can pay as cash would be treated as bearer
b. Bank should return the cheque
c. Bank should contact the drawer
Ans - a
...................................................
150
282) A customer of your branch issues a cheque, which is written in three different inks and in two
different handwritings. The cheque is presented at the counter for payment:
a. Payment should be refused
b. It should be paid
c. Confirmation from drawer sought
Ans - b
...................................................
283) If a garnishee order has been received in the account, what memo should be appended while
returning further cheques in the account:
a. Garnishee order received

223
b. Refer to drawer
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c. Both the above

Ans - b
...................................................
284) A cheque issued by director of Limited Company is presented for payment after death of the
director. In this case:
a. Bank cannot pay the cheque
b. Bank can pay the cheque
c. Bank should contact the Co.
Ans - b
...................................................
285) If a cheque is presented for payment through clearing house is returned with some reason.
Returning memo is enclosed to comply with:
b. RBI Act
d. None of the above but it is a practice.
Ans - d
...................................................
286) Which of the following is a material alteration:
a. A bearer cheque converted to order
b. Special crossing converted to general crossing
c. Crossing a cheque
d. All the above
Ans - b
...................................................
224
287) Which of the following alterations is not a material alteration:

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a. Converting order to bearer cheque

b. Crossing of a cheque
c. Changing payee’s name
d. All the above
Ans - b
...................................................
288) An order cheque was issued in favour of A who endorsed that cheque in favour of B. The
cheque was lost in transit and found by C who takes the payment with forged endorsement.
Whether Bank is
a. Discharged from its liability because payment is made in due course
b. Liable as it does not confer title on C
c. Liable for half the amount
Ans - a
...................................................
289) A cheque is presented for payment on account of Mr.Hari at counter. A token has beenissued
and cheque passed for payment, but payment has not been made by the cashier and during this
period garnishee order is received:
a. Order will apply to the amount of cheque.
b. It will not apply since the cheque has been passed
c. Order would become in-effective
Ans - a
...................................................
290) Your branch receives an Attachment order from Income-tax Officer against Mr.Shiva for a sum
of Rs.13500, who does not maintain any account with the branch in his single name. But there is a
saving bank account in the joint names of Shiva and Mrs.Parvati which shows a credit balance of
Rs.28532:
a. the attachment order will not apply to the joint account

225
b. the position may be clarified to the Income-Tax Officer by a letter and the operations in the
account should be stopped pending final order of the income tax officer
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c. A sum of Rs.13500 should be remitted to the income tax officer to the debit of the joint account as
the shares of joint holders in such account is presumed to be equal, until the contrary is proved, in
terms of section 226(3) (ii) of the income tax act, 1961.
Ans - c
...................................................
291) The garnishee order is not applicable to:
a. Amount lying in foreign accounts of the judgement debtor
b. Articles of judgement debtor lying in the safe custody
c. Both (a) and (b)
Ans - d
...................................................
292) A garnishee order is served on the bank’s Head Office at Mumbai against an account
maintained by Nariman Point branch.
a. The garnishee order will not be operative against the branch and hence will be referred back to
the court
b. Service of the order on the Head Office is service on all the branches of the bank in the jurisdiction
of the court and hence is operative
c. The head office will send the order to Zonal/Regional office for being communicated to the branch
through proper administrative hierarchy maximum within thirty days from the date of the order
d. None of these.
Ans - b
...................................................
293) Following types of forums are available under the Act:
a. District forums
b. State forums
153
226
c. National commission
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d. All the above.

Ans - d
...................................................
294) Validity period of a cheque can be reduced:
a. by the drawer by mentioning the same on the instrument
b. by the drawee
c. by the payee
Ans - d
...................................................
295) Cash Payment of order cheques should be made:
a. on proper identification of the payee
b. without identification
c. through bank only
Ans - a
...................................................
296) A cheque is not stated to payable to bearer or order. It is payable to:
a. payee
b. payee or order
c. payee or bearer
Ans - a
...................................................
297) For considering an offence u/s 138 of NI Act, it is essential that:
a. cheque is presented within its validity period

227
b. payment should be demanded within 30 days of return of the cheque
c. Drawer should have failed to pay within 15 days from receipt of the notice.
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d. All the above.
Ans – d
298) A person issuing a cheque commits an offence if the cheque is dishonoured for insufficiency
of funds, w.e.f.:
a. April 01, 1986
b. April 01, 1987
c. April 01, 1988
d. April 01, 1989
Ans - d
...................................................
299) What penalty in such cases is fixed:
a. imprisonment for a term up to two year
b. fine up to two times the amount of cheque
c. a & b above
Ans - c
...................................................
300) Which court is competent for trying cases u/s 138 of NI Act:
a. any court
b. Metropolitan Magistrate or 1st class judicial magistrate
c. High courts
Ans - b
...................................................
301) A garnishee order is applicable to

228
a. Demand deposits
b. Time deposits whether due or to become due

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c. Both (a) and (b)
Ans - c
...................................................
302) As per CPA, consumer is a person:
a. who hires many service for consideration
b. the consideration may be paid or partly paid or promises
c. any person who is beneficiary of a service hired by others
d. all the above
Ans - d
...................................................
303) While collecting bill of exchange for customers:
a. The bank does not get any protection
b. Protection is available as per Banking Regulations Act.
c. Protection is available as per Negotiable instruments act.
Ans - c
...................................................
304) In case the bill received for collection is not paid by the drawee:
a. Bank should return the bill immediately
b. Bank should act according to directions of remitting bank / drawer.
c. Bank should wait for the payment as per its discretion.
Ans - b
...................................................
229
305) The supply bills are collected by the banks on the basis of
a. Receipted challans
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b. An order
c. Bills of exchange
d. Power of attorney
Ans - a
...................................................
306) A issues a cheque for Rs 10000/- to M/S R.K charitable trust as donation. The cheque was
returned unpaid with reasons “Funds Insufficient”
a. The Trust can file a criminal complaint under sec-138 of N.I act
b. No criminal complaint can be filed as the cheque was not issued for any discharge of
liability
c. Criminal complaint can be filed only if it was returned for the second time
Ans - b
...................................................
307) The transferee can not get better title than the transferor in case of
a. A/C payee in crossing
b. not negotiable in crossing
c. special crossing
Ans - b
...................................................
308) As per the new guidelines, a Micro or Small Enterprise (as defined in the MSMED Act 2006) may
be said to have become SICK,
a. any of the borrowal account of the enterprise remains NPA for three months or more
b. there is erosion in the net worth due to accumulated losses to the extent of 50% of its net worth
during the previous accounting year
230
c. either a or b
d. a and b
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Ans - c
...................................................
309) What is the relationship when a persons raised loan from a bank:
a. borrower and lender,
b. debtor and creditor
c. loanee and banker
d. principal and agent
Ans - b
...................................................
310) A customer deposits Rs.3000 with the bank for remittance by way of telegraphic transfer for
credit of Z’s account at other station. The relationship is that of
a. principal and agent
b. beneficiary and trustee
c. debtor and creditor
d. bank and a customer
Ans - a
...................................................
311) A customer’s cheque is received in a current account where balance is inadequate.
Customer has a RD account also the amount in which is sufficient to cover the cheque. The bank will:
a. not pass the cheque as funds are not available for the cheque
b. send an intimation to the customer
c. permit overdraft without request
d. none of the above.
Ans - a
...................................................
312) Committee on customer service which submitted its report during 1977 is known as:
a. Talwar Committee
231
b. Tarapore Committee
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c. Goiporia Committee
d. Tandon Committee
Ans - a
...................................................
313) Through an over sight, the bank credits a sum of Rs.2 lac to the current account of M/s.Ram Lal
Pvt.Ltd.a joint stock company. When the mistake is detected, the company goes in for liquidation.
What is relationship between the bank and the company:
a. Bailer-bailee
b. Creditor-debtors
c. Debtor-creditor
d. Beneficiary-trustee
Ans - b
...................................................
314) Bankers are supposed to maintain secrecy of customer’ account, under which Act:
a. RBI Act
b. Banking Regulation Act
c. Negotiable Instrument Act
d. All the above
Ans - d
315) A Govt. bill can be endorsed
a. any no. of times
b. only once
c. twice
d. thrice
Ans - b
...................................................
316) A cheque issued by Govt. or by RBI account is valid (otherwise validity not restricted) for:
232
a. 12 months
b. 9 months
Page
c. 6 months
d. for ever till paid
Ans - c
...................................................
317) A pensioner gives a power of attorney in B’s favour to collect pension on his behalf:
a. bank shouldn’t accept it
b. bank may accept it
c. bank may obtain RBI permission
Ans - a
...................................................
318) A pensioner is required by the paying branches:
a. to produce non-marriage certificate
b. to undertake to refund excess payment if any
c. life certificate
d. all the above
Ans - d
...................................................
320) For getting pension from a bank, branch selection is made by:
a. the treasury officer
b. employer
c. pensioner
d. Govt.
Ans - c
...................................................
233
321) Pension cannot be credited in:
a. saving bank account

Page
b. current account
c. joint account with a relative with either/ survivor payment option
Ans - d
...................................................
322) Which of the statement is incorrect?
a. There are 3 parties in the contract of guarantee
b. There are 2 parties in the indemnity
c. The liability in the indemnity is secondary and conditional
d. The liability in the guarantee is secondary and unconditional
Ans - c
...................................................
323) The contract of guarantee requires concurrence of
a. any one of parties involved in contract
b. minimum 2 out of total persons involved in the contract
c. Consent of all parties to the contract
Ans - c
...................................................
324) M/s.Shalimar Paints Ltd. have asked your branch to provide a credit report on M/s.Dharuva
Paints, to whom M/s.Shalimar Paints Ltd.want to give a dealership. What would you do:
a. will not provide the credit report
b. will provide the credit report
c. credit report would be provide only if a request comes from Dharuva Paints
d. any of the above.
Ans - c
234
...................................................
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325) In terms of sec 138 of N.I act 1881 ,the payee should give notice within----days of receipt return
of cheque for insufficient balance
a. 15 days
b. 30days
c. 1 month
d. 48 hours
Ans - b
...................................................
326) A is having a savings account and he has nominated his minor son B as nominee. Now he has to
appoint a person on behalf of the nominee. The person can be
a. only mother
b. blood relatives
c. If mother is not alive blood relatives
d. any person
Ans - d
...................................................
327) An account holder has issued a cheque and was cleared. After sometimes the customer
requests you to give him the original cheque
a. It can be given
b. it can not be given
c. it can be given only if court demands it
d. only a certified copy can be given
Ans - a
...................................................
328) A and B are two account holders of your branch and are having a dispute .A has filed a case
against B .Now your branch receives a notice from A‟s Lawyer to appear as a witness in court to
prove an entry in the pass book issued by your branch. In this situation .
235
a. You can depute your staff as Bank‟s passbook entry is to be proved
b. you will ignore it as Bank is not a party to the case

Page
c. you will instruct the Lawyer to write to your head office
4]You will depute provided B also agrees to it at the expenses of A
Ans - b
...................................................
329) In an account, your head office has advised you to file a suit. The last day of filing the suit is 28-
12-2003 and it is Sunday and the court is closed. and the next day is a bank holiday[court is
opened].The suit can be filed on
a. 30-12-2003
b. on or before 29-12-2003
c. on or before27-12-2003
d. 3days grace is available from the last day and hence it can be filed upto31-12-2003
Ans - b
...................................................
330) On customer’s request over phone, the information about his account:
a. Should not be given
b. May be given at discretion of the bank
c. May be given if bank is satisfied that on the other side of the phone is the concerned
customer only
Ans - c
...................................................
331) A party directly approaches you for status report on one of your customers. In this case:
a. You will furnish the status report in general terms disclaiming all responsibilities on your part.
b. You will not give the status report.
c. You will give the status report provided it does not contain any reference to the account
maintained by the customer
236
d. None of these.
Ans - b
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...................................................
332) A party is having the following accounts with your branch a] FDR for Rs 5000/-in his single name
maturity value Rs 6500/-b] another FDR with his wife for Rs 19500/-.The FDR in his single name has
matured and he wants cash payment. It can be
a. Allowed
b. not allowed
c. take an undertaking and pay it
d. pay cash only if he gives his PAN
Ans - b
...................................................
333) Which of the following statement is incorrect in view of the provisions contained in the
Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?
a. The holder may convert a special crossing into a general crossing or he may cancel a
crossing altogether under his signature.
b. The holder may add general or special crossing to an uncrossed cheque
c. If a cheque is already crossed generally, the holder may add special crossing to it
d. Where a cheque is crossed generally or specially, the holder may add the words “Not
Negotiable”
Ans - a
...................................................
334) Account Payee in crossing is addressed to
a. Collecting Banker
b. Payee
c. Drawee Banker
d. 1 and 2
Ans - a
...................................................
237
168
335) A crossed cheque

Page
a. Must be credited to the account of the payee or endorsee

b. May be paid in cash across the counter
c. Should be paid to a banker only
d. None of these
Ans - c
...................................................
336) Crossing may be added to :
a. Order cheques only
b. Bearer cheques only
c. Both of 1 & 2
d. None of these
Ans - c
...................................................
337) “Account Payee” in crossing with two transverse parallel lines is
a. Special crossing
b. General Crossing
c. Restricted crossing
d. None of these
Ans - b
...................................................
338) In the case of a bill of exchange :
a. General crossing means that the amount may be paid only to a banker
b. Special crossing means that the amount may be paid only to the Bank named therein.
c. Crossing has a restricted application
d. Crossing has no meaning
Ans - d
238
...................................................
339) Form no 16 is to be furnished to staff and pensioners

Page
a. by 15th April
b. by 30th April
c. By 31st may
d. 31st july
Ans - c
...................................................
340) ABC is a partnership firm [with three partners A, B and C maintaining a current account, with
the operational instructions of „any one of the partners‟. A cheque signed by partner A is
countermanded by A himself. After two days, you receive a letter signed by A revoking the stop
payment instructions. How will you handle the request of A?
a. Since A had countermanded the payment of the cheque, revocation by A is sufficient
b. All the partners should sign the revocation letter
c. Any of the partners can sign the revocation letter as the account can be operated by any one of
the partners
Ans - b
...................................................
341) A banker is bound to disclose the affairs of an account, under which of the following:
a. By court orders under Bankers’ Book Evidence Act.
b. Under RBI Act
c. Under Banking Regulation act
d. All the above
Ans - d
...................................................
342) Mrs. Radha wife of Mr.Krishan Kumar Singh maintains a substantial savings account at your
bank. Mr. KrishanKumar approaches you for knowing the details of Mrs. Radha’s account. In this
case:
a. Disclosure would be justified because a husband is deemed to be an agent of the wife in all
239
financial dealing.
Page
b. Disclosure would be justified because there is no secrecy between husband and wife as a result of
matrimonial relationship.
c. Disclosure would be justified provided no divorce petition is pending in any court.
d. Disclosure would not be justified.
Ans - d
...................................................
343) Mr. Rajbahadur is having a Fixed deposit of Rs.15,000/- at your branch. Since he had borrowed
some money from Sher Bahadur, he endorsed the FDR in favour of Sher Bahadurand signs on the
back of the FDR. Mr. Sher Bahadur visits your branch on due date andrequest for payment. The Bank
will:
a. Obtain the discharge from Sher Bahadur and make the payment
b. Make the payment only to Rajbahadur
c. Make the payment to Sherbahadur if he is maintaining a account with the branch
Ans - b
...................................................
344) Which of the following is true
a. Promissory notes and Bills of exchange are to be stamped as per Indian stamp Act 1899
b. cheques and bills of exchange are to be stamped
c. Cheques need not be stamped
d. 1&3
Ans - d
...................................................
345) How many sections are there in negotiable instrument act?
a. 138
b. 146
c. 147
d. 148
240
Ans - c
...................................................
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...................................................
346) A and B are having a savings account with operational instructions either or survivor and C is
the nominee. Now A has expired. The balance in the account is payable to...
a. C only
b. B only
c. legal heir of A and B
d. C and B only
Ans - b
...................................................
347) While making the payment to a blind person, the payment:
a. Should be got witnessed by the person who has signed on the A/C opening card
b. Can be made without witness
c. Witness must be person other than the passing official
d. (a) and (c)
Ans - a
...................................................
348) An illiterate person is not provided with facility of a cheque book because:
a. He cannot draw a negotiable instrument
b. His presence in bank is essential at the time of withdrawal as he is to put his thumb
impression before the passing official
c. He is not competent to contract
d. Can be issued but at the time of issuing of cheque books, thumb impression of the
account holder should be duly affixed and authenticated by the bank official.
Ans - d
...................................................
349) Whom should a banker consider to be a customer of the bank?
a. A person who has been coming to the bank for purchasing demand drafts, mail transfers and
241
telegraphic transfers for the last five months; or
b. A person who has been retiring bills from the branch for the last 7 months; or
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c. A person who has been visiting the branch for encashing cheques for few months, or
d. A person who has opened a savings account only two days ago.
Ans - d
...................................................
350) According the acceptable prevalent definition a customer is a person:
a. Who has any type of bank account
b. Who is continuously dealing with the bank
c. Both ((a) and (b)
Ans - a
...................................................
351) Gurdeva, an illiterate customer in your branch, who is maintaining a savings account, requests
you permit him to authorise his friend Bhisham to operate his account:
a. An illiterate, being incompetent to contract, can not appoint an agent; or
b. Since an illiterate person cannot grant a power of attorney his request can not be
complied with or
c. The request of the illiterate customer may be acceded to on his executing a power of
attorney; or
d. The request of the illiterate customer may be acceded to provided the transactions on
the account are allowed on a restricted scale.
Ans - c
...................................................
352) If a banker wants to take protection u/s 131 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, the word
`customer’ means:
a. Any person who steps in to the bank for any lawful banking business
b. A person who approaches the bank for credit limits for productive activity.
242
c. A person who has an account, properly introduced with the bank.
d. None of these.
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Ans - c
...................................................
353) When a person is maintaining a deposit account with a bank, the relationship is that .
a. Debtor and creditor
b. Trustee and beneficiary
c. Principal and agent
d. Chief and agent
Ans - a
...................................................
354) When the bank accepts articles for keeping in safe custody, the relationship between the
banker and customer is that of:
a. Trustee and beneficiary
b. Bailor and bailee
c. Chief and Agent
Ans - b
...................................................
355) In case of collection of cheques and bills, the relationship of the banker with the customer is
that of:
a. Banker as agent
b. Bank as trustee
c. Banker as debtor
d. Banker as bailor
Ans - a
...................................................
356) In case of lockers, the relationship between the banker and customer is that of a:
243
a. Bailor and bailee
b. Trustee and beneficiary

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c. Lessor and lessee
Ans - c
...................................................
357) When a banker is acting on the standing instructions of a customer to pay school fee of the
customer’s son, their relationship is of:
a. An employer and an employee
b. An owner and a servant
c. A trustee and beneficiary
d. A principal and an agent
Ans - d
...................................................
358) Satish is having a saving account and he is also attorney of saving account holder B. You receive
the notice of death of Mr. Satish. Two cheques signed by Satish one in his saving account and the
other one in the account of B are presented in clearing. You will
a. return both the cheques
b. pass both the cheques
c. pass the cheque of account B and return the cheque of Satish account
d. pass the cheque of Satish account and return the cheque of account B
Ans - c
...................................................
359) A cheque dated 20-12-2011 was paid on 10-10-2011.The account holder gives stop payment
instruction of the above cheque on 15-11-2011.The bank
a. will refuse to accept the instruction as the cheque is already paid.
b. Will refuse as per the recent Supreme court Judgement
3]will refuse as issuance of post dated cheque is illegal
4]will accept the stop payment instruction

244
Ans - d
Page
...................................................
175
360) Natural guardian of an illegitimate child will be:
a. father
b. as decided by the court
c. mother
d. none of the above.
Ans - c
...................................................
361) While opening an account of a minor, his/her date of birth should be written;
a. In account opening form
b. On specimen signature slip
c. On ledger folio
d. On all the above
Ans - d
...................................................
362) Ashok got converted to Christianity but his wife continued to be Hindu. In such case, for their
minor son:
a. he will continue to be natural guardian of his child
b. he will cease to be the natural guardian of his child
c. he will cease to be the natural guardian which will be bestowed upon the mother
d. he can appoint a guardian through a will
Ans - a
...................................................
...................................................
363) M/s. Gram Udyog a sole-proprietorship concern of Mr.Amrit Lal maintain a current account at
your branch which is operated by the Munim of the firm under authority from Mr.Ajmrit Lal. He
advises the bank to cancel the authority given to the Munim. Subsequently, a cheque signed by the
245
Munim, bearing date prior to the date of cancellation of authority is presented for payment. Will you
pay the cheque?
Page
a. The cheque may paid since it is drawn prior to the date of revocation of authority.
b. The cheque may be paid since a revocation is always subject to the cheques already
drawn by the agent.
c. The cheque can not be paid after the bank is informed of the cancellation of authority.
d. None of these.
Ans - c
...................................................
364) NI Act is applicable in:
a. Punjab
b. The entire country
c. Entire country except J & K
d. Northern Eastern States
Ans - b
...................................................
365) A collecting bank gets protection u/s 131 of NI Act only if:
a. The collection is in good faith and without negligence
b. The Bank collects only on behalf of the customer
c. The Bank collects only crossed cheques.
D. All the above.
Ans - d
...................................................
366) How many times a negotiable instrument can be negotiated:
a. Once
b. Twice
c. Thrice
246
d. No limit
Ans - d
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...................................................
367) On payment of which of the following, the payment will not be considered a payment in due
course?
a. Normal cheque
b. Truncated cheque
c. Electronic Cheque
Ans - d
...................................................
368) A minor cannot be a nominee:
a. Yes
b. No, he can be.
c. Correct
Ans - b
...................................................
369) Natural guardian of an adopted minor shall be:
a. adoptive father
b. real father
c. as declared by the court
d. both of them
Ans - a
...................................................
370) The liability of a deceased partner is
a. Upto date of his death
b. Till public notice

247
c. Earlier of the above

Page

Ans - a
...................................................
371) A firm having three partners is having a current account and a cheque is presented for payment
drawn by one of partners after his death. The bank:
a. Will not pay the cheque
b. Will pay the cheque
c. Can pay, after confirmation of other partners.
Ans - c
...................................................
372) When the cheques are received for collection, the bank brands all the documents with crossing
stamp so that:
a. Bank gets protection u/s 131 of Negotiable Instruments Act.
b. To avoid unauthorized and fraudulent use of document.
c. To make clear that documents are sent through bank
Ans - b
...................................................
373) A firm is registered with
a. Registrar of firms
b. Registrar of companies
c. Registrar of deeds
Ans - a
...................................................
374) U/s. 18 of Indian Partnership Act, a partner of the firm is:

248
a. An employee
b. An owner
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c. A trustee
d. A principal & agent
Ans - d
...................................................
375) Which of the following is not negotiable instrument?
a. Cheque
b. Dividend warrant
c. Bank draft
d. Bill of exchange
Ans - b
...................................................
376) Protection is available to paying banker in paying drafts u/s..of NI Act
a. 85
b. 85A
c. 131
d. 130
Ans - b
...................................................
377) Drawee of a negotiable instrument is a person:
a. who pays the amount
b. who draws the instrument
c. who receives the payment
Ans - a
...................................................
249
...................................................
181
Page
378) When a documentary bill is received for collection and presented to the drawee for
acceptance or payment, the presenting bank will:
a. Not be responsible for genuineness of the bill
b. Make good the loss sustained by drawee if the quality of goods is not upto the mark
c. Certify all the documents attached to the bills
Ans - a
...................................................
379) A minor succeeded in raising a loan from a bank, not disclosing his true age. Now he is not
repaying. In such case the Bank:
a. Could have recovered the loan, if there was a guarantor.
b. Cannot recover this amount from the minor.
c. Can recover as banker has not acted negligently but through court of law.
d. Recover from guardian.
Ans - b
...................................................
380) The partners, M and S give a mandate authorising a minor to operate the account. The bank
should:
a. Accept the mandate
b. Should not accept
c. Accept with confirmation from guardian of the minor
Ans - b
...................................................
381) Can a limited company be partner in a partnership firm
a. Yes, because company is a legal person

250
b. No, because it has no physical presence
c. No because liability of a shareholder is limited

Page
Ans - a
...................................................
382) In a partnership firm, the liability of the partners is:
a. Limited
b. Unlimited
c. Limited to share
Ans - b
...................................................
383) In case, giving guarantee is not the business of the firm the guarantee letter should be signed
by:
a. Any one of the partners
b. All the partners. Only then the guarantee can be enforced against the firm
c. The manager of the firm
Ans - b
...................................................
384) An unregistered firm:
a. Cannot file a suit against third parties
b. Third parties cannot file suit against the firm
c. Both the above
Ans - a
...................................................
385) Guarantees are defined in

251
a. NI Act
Page
b. RBI Act
c. Banking Regulation Act
d. Indian Contract Act 1872
Ans - d
...................................................
386) A partner on behalf of the partnership firm
a. can give guarantee
b. cannot give guarantee
c. can give guarantee if business is to give guarantee
d. b & c
Ans - d
...................................................
...................................................
387) A documentary bill was received for collection, which was drawn on a party maintaining a
current account. Peon goes to the party’s office for presentation of bill when he was informed that
drawee would be available after banking hours but during his duty hours. The peon returned back
the bills the bills department stating that drawee was not available and narrates incidence. In this
case:
185
a. The bills would be deemed as not presented
b. Drawer was right in telling the bank to present the bill at any time during his business
hours
c. This presentation is enough but for record purposes it should be sent by post
d. A & B
Ans - c
...................................................
388) Although a minor is not competent to contract yet banks open accounts in the names of minor
because:
252
a. It is allowed under Negotiable Instruments Act.
b. It is allowed as per RBI Act.

Page
c. It is allowed as per Indian contracts Act.
d. A minor can give proper discharge for the payments received, which he cannot deny.
Ans - d
...................................................
389) In account of minor aged 17, an overdraft was created through an oversight, which minor is not
repaying. One day he comes to take the payment of FD. In this case the bank can exercise its right of
set off against FD.
a. Yes, because it is in his name.
b. Yes, if overdraft is allowed for providing necessities to the minor.
c. No, because it was not made lawfully.
1 NEFT There are _____ half hourly a.23

batches for sending outward b.12
message c.21
d.24
2 NEFT If the outward message amount is a.2
more than Rs.1.00 lakh, the same b.1
has to be authorised by how c.3
many persons. d.None of the above
3 NEFT Credit of NEFT inward remittance a.Name of Account holder
will be given solely based on the b.Address of account holder
c.Account number
d.All of the above
4 NEFT NEFT is a free service a.Yes
b.No
c.Not applicable
d.None of the above
5 NEFT Full form of NEFT a.National Electronic Fund
Transfer
b.New Electronic Fund Transaction
c.National Elsewhere Fund Transfer
6 NEFT NEFT is settled in a.Immediate setlements
b.Batches
c.Both a & b
d.None of the above
7 NEFT Min amount of NEFT a.Rs.1.00 lakh
b.Rs.2.00 lakh
c.Any amount
d.None of the above
253
8 NEFT Old account number as used in a.True

legacy CBS can’t be used for b.False
crediting inward NEFT remittance c.For amount upto Rs.1.00 lakh
Page
d.For amount above Rs.1.00 lakh

9 NEFT What are the timings for working a.8.00 hr to 19.00 hr
of NEFT b.9.00 hr to 19.00 hr
c.8.00 hr to 18.00 hr
d.9.00 hr to 18.00 hr
10 NEFT SFMS stands for a.Structured Financial
Messaging System
b.Structured Fund
Management Software
c.Structured Financial
Management System
d.None of the above
11 NEFT In NEFT credits will be a.Operative Accounts
b.Inoperative Account
accepted for c.Both Operative amd Inoperative
Accounts
d.As decided by bank from time to
time
1. Online Customer has to visit the branch a.10

account within how many days of online b.20
opening registration c.30
d.None of the above
2. Online Corporate accounts can be opened a.No
account through the online account b.Yes
opening opening module c.Not Applicable
d.Only in certain branches
3. Online Who can apply through online a.Minors
account account opening module for b.Individuals above 18 years
opening opening savings bank account c.Both a & b
d.Trusts
4. Online Major benefit of Online Account a.customer details will be
account Opening Solutions is automatically populated
opening based on the Aadhaar
Number
b.KYC is not required
c.Customer need not visit the
branch at any point of time
d.Both a & c
5. Online Following documents are a.Aadhaar
account mandatory for Online Account b.PAN
opening Opening Solutions is c.None of the above
d.Both a & b
6. Online The customer must have the a.Existing account in another
account following to avail Online Account bank
opening Opening facility b.E-mail ID
254
c.Existing account in
Corporation bank
d.All of the above
Page
7. Online To avail Online Account Opening a.Aadhaar

account facility, the mobile number of the b.PAN
opening customer should be linked to c.Bank account
d.Both b & c
8. Online Under Online Account Opening a.The branch chosen by the
account Solution, the branch where the customer
opening account will be opened is b.Branch chosen by the bank
c.Identified Branches
d.Specified Branches
9. Online Reference number generated on a.Only SMS
account successful registration under b.Only e-mail
opening Online Account Opening Solution c.Both SMS & E-Mail
will be delivered to customer d.Voice Call
through
10. Online Online Account Opening facility is a.Only Resident Indian
account available to Customer
opening b.NRI Customer
c.Both resident & NRI
d.Minors
11. Online Under Online Account Opening a.Single individual account
account facility, following types of b.Joint Account
opening accounts can be opened c.Current account
d.CC account
1 POS & Full form of POS a.Point of Sale

Missed Call b.Payment of Sale
Facility c.Point of Service
d.None of the above
2 POS & Full form of EDC a.Electronic Data Capture
Missed Call b.Electronic Disc Capture
Facility c.E-Debit Card
d.None of the above
3 POS & POS machines can work a.with fixed line (PSTN. connection
Missed Call b.with wireless connection
Facility c.Both a & b
d.None of the above
4 POS & Full form of MDR a.Merchant Discount Rate
Missed Call b.Mobile Discount Rate
Facility c.Minimum Discount Rate
d.None of the above
5 POS & Merchant Discount Rate [MDR] is a.The Bank to the merchant
Missed Call the charge levied as a percentage b.The merchant to the
Facility of every transaction by customer
c.The Bank to the customer
d.None of the above
6 POS & Mobile POS is ideal for a.small merchants
Missed Call b.door deliveries
Facility c.where fixed line is not
available
d.All the above
255
7 POS & A merchant is categorized as a.Rs.20.00 lakh

Missed Call Small merchant if the turnover is b.Rs.30.00 lakh
Page
Facility upto c.Rs.40.00 lakh

d.None of the above
8 POS & Max. MDR amount for POS a.Rs.500/-
Missed Call transaction for Small merchants b.Rs.750/-
Facility c.Rs.200/-
d.None of the above
9 POS & What is the prerequisite for a.Registered for SMS bankng
Missed Call
Facility availing the Missed call b.Registered for Internet
facility Banking
c.Registered for ATM facility
d.None of the above
10 POS & MPOS requires a.EDC facility
Missed Call
Facility b.GPRS facility
c.E mail facility
d.None of the above
11 POS & MDR is NIL for debit card a.All Transactions upto
Missed Call
Facility transactions at POS in India Rs.2000
for b.Transactions upto Rs.10000
c.Transactions upto Rs.5000
d.MDR is charged for all
transactions
12 POS & Missed call facility can be a.3 times in a day.
Missed Call
Facility availed for b.times in a day
c.5 times in a day
d.None of the above
256
Page
CORPORATION BANK
STAFF TRAINING CENTRE
Pre Promotion Test Training
Mock Test
Liability Products:
1. 31. What type of Current account would you suggest to a customer having Forex
transactions
a. Corp Current b. Corp Global c. Corp Club d.Corp Privelege
What is the minimum and maximum age limit for personal accident death cover under Corp Saral
Plus
a. 20-60 years b. 18-70 c. 18-75 d. 18-65
2. The ideal deposit scheme for those who desire to have a regular income is
a. KCC b. FD c. RD d. Money flex
3. FD can be opened for a minimum period ______ days for Rs.1 crore

257
4. Minimum period required for FDs of below Rs. 1 crore ______________

Page
5. Maximum period for which FDs are accepted in our Bank is __________
6. Interest payment frequency for FD account is _____________
a. Monthly only b. Quarterly only
c. Half Yearly only d. Monthly / Quarterly / Half yearly/Yearly
as per the option of depositor
7. TDS is applicable if the interest amount crosses Rs. _____in a financial year
a. 5,000/- b. 15,000/- c. 40000/-d. 20,000/-
8. Maximum amount one can invest under FD in our Bank is Rs. ____________
a. One lakh b. Ten lakhs c. No Limit d. One crore
9. Interest given in FD is ______________
a. Simple b. Compound c. Fixed d. Floating
10. Under KCC, the interest is compounded on a ________basis.

258
a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Quarterly

Page
11. Minimum period of investment under KCC is __________ months
a. 3 b. 9 c. 6 d. 12
12. Maximum period of investment under KCC is _________ months
a. 12 b. 120 c. 60 d. 72
13. Interest is credited to the KCC account once in a _____________.
a. Month b. Quarter c. Half year d. Year
14. Maximum amount that can be invested under KCC is Rs. _______________
a. One lakh b. Ten lakhs c. Hundred lakhs d. No Limit
15. The Flexible Term Deposit in our Bank is named as _________________
a. Recurring Deposit b. Kshemanidhi Cash Certificate
c. Flexi RD d. Money Flex Deposit
16. In Money Flex Deposit withdrawal of deposits in units of Rs. _______ is allowed.
a. 2,000/- b. 1,000/- c. 5,000/- d. 10,000/-
17. For Money Flex KCC, minimum period of deposit is ____________ months
259
a. 12 b. 6 c. 60 d. 120
Page
18. For Money Flex KCC, maximum period of deposit is ____________ months
a. 12 b. 6 c. 60 d. 120
19. Minimum amount required to open Money Flex Deposit Account is Rs. _____
a. 1,000/- b. 5,000/- c. 10,000/- d. 25,000/-
20. Minimum period for opening a Recurring Deposit is ____________ months
a. 6 b. 9 c. 12 d. 15
21. Maximum period permissible under a Recurring Deposit is _______months
a. 12 b. 60 c. 72 d. 120
22. Minimum amount required to open RD account at Rural/SU branches is Rs.__
a. 25/- b. 50/- c. 100/- d. 500/-
23. Minimum amount required to open RD account other than Rural and Semi Urban branches is
Rs.__________
a. 100/- b. 500/- c. 1,000/- d. 250/-

260
24. Deposits in RD is to be made in multiples of Rs._________ subject to the minimum amount

Page
a. 25/- b. 50/- c. 75/- d. 100/-
25. Maximum limit for RD is Rs. ____________
a. 1 lakh b. 2 lakhs c. 5 lakhs d. No limit
26. Interest accumulated in RD account is credited at the end of every_________
a. Quarter b. Half year c. Financial year d. Fort night
27. The minimum age to open New Gen account
a. 18 years b. 10 years c. 21 years d. none of the above
28. ATM cash withdrawallimit per day under Corp Signature
a. 25000 b. 35000 c. 1 lakh d. 50000
29. What is the deposit ceiling per person in case of staff account
a. 1 crore b. 75 lakhs c. 50 lakhs d. 25 lakhs
30. What is the amount of air accident insurance for a Signature account holder
a. 10 lakhs b. 5 lakhs c. 15 lakhsd. 50 lakhs

261
31. What is the minimum and maximum age limit for personal accident death cover under Corp
Page
Saral Plus
a. 20-60 years b. 18-70 c. 18-75 d. 18-65
32. Minimum and maximum salary stipulated under Corp Elite
a. Rs.1000-75000 b. Rs.15000 -74999 c.1000-74999d. 15000-75000
33. The Tax Saving Term Deposit is named as ____________ deposit
a. Corp Recur b. Corp Tax Saver c. Corp Money Flex d. Fixed Deposit
34. Maximum amount of deposit permitted under Corp Tax Saver Deposit Scheme is Rs.
___________ per financial year
a. 25,000/- b. 50,000/- c. 75,000/- d. 1,50,000/-
35. Period of investment in Corp Tax Saver Deposit Scheme is fixed at ____years
a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. 5
36. Corp Tax saver deposit account can be opened for a minimum amount of Rs. _
a. 100/- b. 500/- c. 1,000/- d. 5,000/-
37. To open Tax Savings Term Deposit account quoting of _______is mandatory.
262
Page
a. Voter ID number b. PAN

c . Pass port number d. Driving License number
38. Is Premature closure of Corp Tax Saver Deposit account allowed?
a. Yes b. No c. Partially allowed d. Partially not allowed
39. No loans will be granted against Corp Tax Saver Deposit.
a. True b. False
c. Loans will be granted at the discretion of the Bank
d. Loans can be granted provided margin is minimum 50%
40. The word “Tax“ under Corp Tax Saver Deposit Scheme refers to __________
a. Wealth Tax b. Gift Tax c. Income Tax d. Road Tax
41. Minimum amount required to open a SB account in Rural branch is Rs. _____
a. 100/- b. 500/- c. 250/- d. 1,000/-
42. Minimum amount required to open an SB account in other than Rural branch is Rs.
_________
a. 100/- b. 500/- c. 250/- d. 1,000/-
43. At present interest is paid at the rate of______% p.a. in SB account for amount below
263
50lakhs
Page
a. 3.50 b. 2.00 c. 4.00 d. 5.00
44. Interest is calculated for the amount in SB account is on ________ products
a. daily b. weekly c. monthly d. Half yearly
45. Interest is credited in SB accounts once in ________
a. Quarterly b. Yearly c. monthly d.Half yearly
46. Corp Classic is a combination of __________.
a. Savings bank b. Term deposit c. Current account d. Both b) & a)
47. At present minimum balance required to open CLSB is Rs._________
a. 15,000/- b. 25,000/- c. 10,000/- d. 5,000/-
48. In CLSB minimum number of units for transferring to term deposit is ______
a. One b. Five c. Ten d. Two
49. Minimum balance in SB in all branches other than rural branches is
a. 500 b. 1000 c. 5000 d. 2000

264
50. In CorpClassic the amount per unit is Rs_______

Page
a. 100/- b. 500/- c. 1,000/- d. 5,000/-
51. Corp Classic can be opened for a minimum period of _________
52. Maximum period for which CorpClassic Deposit account can be opened is __
a. One year b. Two years c. Three years d. Five years
53. In CorpClassic , breaking of DRSN is in multiple of ______units
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Five
54. Corp Payroll is a combination of __________.
a. Savings bank b. Term deposit c. Loan account d. Both c) & a)
55. Minimum QAB required for Corp NewGen account is Rs._______
a. 10/- b. 100/- c. 250/- d. 500/-
56. Special facilities provided for Corp Newgen accounts are__________
a. No annual maintenance charges for debit cards

265
b. No service charges for SMS banking
c. No service charges for purchase of DD’s/PO’s through the account upto a maximum of 5
Page
instruments per month

d. All the above
57. Corp Newgen accounts may be opened by ______
a. All minors
b. All minors who are students
c. Students who are above 10 years of age
d. All the above
58. Minimum QAB required for CPSB is Rs_______
a. 100/- b. 25/- c. 50/- d. Nil
59. Minimum QAB required to open Current Account in Rural branch is Rs.___
a. 1,000/- b. 2,500/- c. 5,000/- d. 10,000/-
60. Minimum QAB required to open Current Account in other than Rural branch is Rs.__
a. 1,000/- b. 2,500/- c. 5,000/- d. 10,000/-
61. Current Account should not be opened in the names of __________
a. Minors b. Illiterates c. Blind persons d. All the above
62. Which of the following is not a variants of Current Account?
a. Corp Privilege b. Corp Global c. Corp Club d. Corp Elite

266
63. Minimum QAB required for Current Account in Rural area is Rs___
Page
a. 10,000/- b. 2,500/- c. 5,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
64. Minimum QAB required for Corp Club Current Account is Rs___
a. 10,000/- b. 25,000/- c. 50,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
65. Minimum QAB required for Corp Privilege Current Account is Rs___
a. 10,000/- b. 5,00,000/- c. 2,50,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
66. Minimum amount required to open KCC at Metro branches is Rs.________
a. 500/- b. 1,000/- c. 5,000/- d.All the above
67. Minimum amount required to open KCC in a Rural branch is Rs.________
68. Interest is compounded ________ for KCC deposit
a. Monthly b. Quarterly c. Half yearly d. Yearly
69. Interest is credited ________ for KCC deposit

267
70. Minimum amount required to open Money flex deposit account is Rs_______
Page
a. 10,000/- b. 15,000/- c. 5,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
71. Minimum amount required to open Corp Recur is Rs_______
a. 100/- b. 500/- c. 1,000/- d. 50/-
72. In Corp Tax Saver Plus deposit scheme, a customer can remit
a. any number of times with a minimum of Rs.100/-
b. In multiples of Rs.100/-
c. maximum of Rs.1,50,000/- per FY
d. all the above
73. Lock in period for Corp Tax Saver Plus deposit is _________
a. one year b. Two yesrs c. Three years d. Five years
74. QAB to be maintained in case of Corp Arambh account Rs.___
a. 100/- b. 250/- c. 200/- d. No QAB
75. In case of Corp Arambh SB accounts, total credits in a financial year should not cross Rs.____
a. 50,000/- b. 1,00,000/- c. 15,000/- d. 10,000/-

268
76. Minimum period for NRE term deposit is _______ months

Page
a. Twelve b. Thirty six c. sixty d. 120
77. NRE term deposit is closed prematurely within a period of 12 months from the date of
deposit, the interest will be paid at _____
a. Savings bank rate b. No interest
c. Interest at, the date of closure d. all the above
78. Under Corp Saral Savings account, free Personal Accident Insurance cover is
a. 10 lacs b. 5 lacs c. 1 lac d. 2 lacs
79. Minimum QAB to be maintained in case of Corp Signature SB account is Rs.
a. Zero Balance b. 10,000/- c. 15,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
80. Minimum period of deposit under FCNR[ B ] is _______
a. 12 months b. 24 months c. 60 months d.120 months
81. Minimum QAB required to open Corp Mahila Power account is Rs._______
a. 500/- b. 1,000/- c. 2,000/- d. 2,500/-
82. Minimum loan amount under Corp M power account is Rs _____

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a. 10,000/- b. 25,000/- c. 50,000/- d. 1,00,000/-

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83. Maximum loan amount under Corp M power account is Rs _____
a. 10,000/- b. 25,000/- c. 50,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
84. Free Personal Accident insurance cover, under CorpM power for Rs._____ throughout
the life of the account
a. 1.00 lakh b. 5.00 lakhs c.. 2.00 lakhs d. 10.00 lakhs
85. Minimum QAB to be maintained in case of Corp Super SB account is Rs.____
86. For all practical purposes Photograph required to open an account should be
a. Passport size b. Recent one c. Solo d.All the above
87. No photo is required to open an account for
a. SB account without cheque book facility
b. Term deposit upto Rs.10,000/-
c. Basic Savings Bank Account
d. both a & b
88. SB account is treated as Inoperative if no operation for ______ continuously

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a. 2 years b. 1 year c. 6 months d. 90 days

89. CA account is treated as Inoperative if no operation for ______ continuously
a. 2 years b. 2 years c. 6 months d. 90 days
90. Debits in excess of Rs.________ in in-operative account is to be authorized by Branch

Manager
a. 10,000/- b. 25,000/- c. 50,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
91. Only ______ nominee can be accepted for the deposit account under Nomination
facility
a. One b. Two c. Three d. None
92. TDS is exempted for the amount in the following deposit accounts
a. SB b. RD c.. NRE d.All the above
93. To get additional interest benefit for the deposits of senior Citizen, period of
deposit should be for more than ________ days
a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 91
94. To get additional interest benefit for the deposits of senior Citizen, age of
depositor should be ________ years [ completed]

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a. 55 b. 58 c. 60 d. 65
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95. Additional interest benefit for staff deposits is at___ above applicable rate
a. 1.00 % p.a b. 2.00 % p.a c. 3.00 % p.a d. 0.50 % p.a
96. At the time of Settlement of claims for the deposits of deceased, interest will be calculated
and paid at ___________
a. contracted rate till maturity
b. interest at SB rate + 2% from the date of maturity till the date of payment
c.. in case of premature –without charging penalty
d. all the above
97. Free accident cover in case of Corp Signature SB account is Rs.____
98. Corp Pay Signature (Pay Roll a/c) is for those employees whose gross salary is
more than Rs.___
a. 15,000/- b. 50,000/- c. 75,000/- d. 25,000/-
99. In case of Corp Pragati SB account, free _____ card is issued to the customer
a. Master b. Ru Pay c. Visa d. None of the above

272
100. Maximum accident insurance cover available for Corp Saral Plus account holder
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a. Rs. 1 lakh b. Rs 2 lakh c. Rs 5 lakh d. Rs. 50,000

2. Credit card Airport lounge facility is available a)Signature Visa Credit Card
in b)Platinum Visa Credit Card
c)Gold Visa Credit Card
d)None of the above
3. Credit card Signature Credit card is available a)Rs.30.00 lakh
under Corp Faida scheme for loans b)Rs.20.00 lakh
above c)Rs.40.00 lakh
d)Rs.0.75 lakh
4. Credit card Name of the scheme under which a)Corp Gold
Credit card is issued against fixed b)Corp Secure
deposit c)Corp Platinum
d)Corp Signature
5. Credit card Min deposit residual period and a)Min 24 months and Min
Min deposit for Credit card issued Rs.50000/-
against fixed deposit b)Min 12 months & Min Rs.50000/-
c)Min 12 months & Min Rs.1.00 lakh
6. Credit card Documents to be submitted for a)Copy of passport
NRI availing Credit Card facility b)Foreign address to be furnished
are c)Copy of PAN or F60 if PAN is not
available
d)All of the above
7. Credit card In case credit card holder pays a)2% to 10% p.a.
minimum dues, interest to be b)10% to 18% p.a.
charged at (depending on card c)18% to 24% p.a.
type) d)27% to 36% p.a.
8. Credit card Min points required for a)Gold – 500 points
redemption of reward points of b)Platinum – 750 points
Corporation Bank Credit Card c)Signature – 1000 points
d)All of the above
9. Credit card Amount in rupees to be spent by a)Gold – 100/-
using credit card for earning 1 b)Platinum – 125/-
reward point c)Signature – 150/-
d)All of the above
10. Credit card Age criteria for issue of primary a)18 – 70 years
credit card b)10 – 60 years
c)20 – 70 years
d)None of the above
11. Credit card Age criteria for issue of add on a)18 – 75 years
credit card b)10 – 65 years
c)20 – 75 years
d)None of the above
12. Credit card Whether request from credit card a)Yes
holder is required for redemption b)No
of reward points c)Not applicable
d)None of the above
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13. Credit card Temporary enhancement of credit a)Upto 10%

card limit is to what extent b)Upto 30%
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c)Upto 20%
d)None of the above
14. Credit card Temporary enhancement of credit a)30 days
card limit is upto what period b)60 days
c)90 days
d)None of the above
15. Credit card Whether balance transfer facility a)Yes
is available in Credit Card b)No
c)Not applicable
d)None of the above
16. Credit card How many variants are there in A. 2
our Corp Credit Cards? B. 4
C. 3
D.5
17. Credit card What is the Minimum net Income A. 03.50 Lakh
for issuing Platinum Credit Card ? B. 02.00 Lakh
C. 02.50 Lakh
D. 04.00 Lakh
18. Credit card Minimum net income required to A. 01.50 Lakh
issue Corp Gold Credit Card to B. 01.20 Lakh
senior citizen/pensioner? C. 01.75 Lakh
D. 02.00 Lakh
19. Credit card What is the air accident insurance a). 30 Lakh
coverage available to signature b). 40 Lakh
credit card holders? c) 50 Lakh
d). 45 Lakh
20. Credit card What is the Minimum and a) 10000 to 1000000

Maximum credit Limit available b) 10000 to 500000
for Credit cards issued by c) 10000 to 1050000
Corporation Bank? d) 100000 to 1000000
21. Credit card The Credit Card issued by our a) Corporation Bank International
Bank, in association with VISA Credit Card
International, is known as b) Corporation Bank National Credit
Card
c) Corporation Bank Global Credit
Card
d) Corporation Bank Master Credit
Card
22. Credit card The following facilities are also a) Cash withdrawal from any ATM
available for the credit card b) Mobile Recharge Facility
holders issued by the bank. c) VISA Money Transfer
d) All the above
23. Credit card The maximum credit period a)15 Days
available in respect of credit b) 30 days
cards issued by Corporation Bank c)45 days
d) 50 days
24. Credit card In our Bank, maximum how many a) one
add on cards can be issued to the b) three
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primary credit cardholder. c) five

d) No Restriction
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25. Credit card Corp Faida is a) Credit card facility for retail
borrowers
b) Credit Card facility for bulk
depositor
c) Credit card facility for Retail
Depositor
26. Corp e- Customers having multiple CIFs a)Yes

Passbook can access e-passbook facility b)No
c)Not applicable
d)none of the above
27. Corp e- The types of accounts that can be a)Only deposit a/cs
Passbook accessed through e-passbook b)Only loan a/cs
c)Deposit & loan a/cs
d)None of the above
28. Corp e- Whether e-passbook app can be a)Yes
Passbook accessed offline b)No
c)Not applicable
d)none of the above
29. Corp e- Whether Balance can be viewed in a)In Real time mode
Passbook Corp E-passbook b)In Offline mode
c)All of the above
d)None of the above
30. Corp e- Whether state-wise Bank Holiday a)Available
Passbook List is available in Corp e- b)Not available
Passbook c)Bank wise available
d)None of the above
31. Corp e- Criteria for availing e-passbook a)Smartphone
Passbook facility - b)Mobile no. registered with bank
c)Mobile no. linked to a single CIF
d)All of the above
32. Corp e- Whether statement of account for a)Available for 1 month

Passbook a particular period is available in b)Available for 2 months
Corp e-Passbook app? c)Available for 3 months
d)All of the above
33. Corp e- How many digits are there in e- A. 4
Passbook passbook Mpin ? B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
34. Corp e- Corp E-passbook facility is a. Only with Internet Banking facility
Passbook available for customers b. Registered with Mobile
number
c. All customers
35. Corp e- In Corp E-passbook facility we can a. in PDF format only

Passbook download account statement b. in XLS format only
using e-mail c. in both PDF & XLS format
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Page
36. Corp e- In Android mobile phones, Corp E- a. Settings

Passbook passbook application is available b. Google Play store
in c. Gallery
37. Corp e- In Corp E-passbook, creation of a.Yes

Passbook own personal ledger facility is b. No
available c. With Internet facility
38. E-Purse Who can avail E-purse facility a) Our Bank customers only
b) Other Bank customers only
c) Any person having valid KYC
documents
39. E-Purse We can Load money in e-purse a)Debit card
using b)net banking of any bank
c)NEFT from any bank
d)cash deposit from any of our
branches
e)all of the above
40. E-Purse Whether money can be a) Yes

transferred to one e-purse b) No
account from another e-purse c) Not applicable
account d) None of the above
41. E-Purse Whether bill payment can be done a) Yes
through e-purse b) No
c) Not applicable
42. E-Purse Money can be transferred to other a) Yes
bank account b) No
c) Not applicable
43. E-Purse What is the product name of a. Corp e-wallet
digital Wallet of Corp Bank b. Corp e-passbook
c. Corp e-purse
d. Corp e-Paymate
44. E-Purse Corp E-Purse balance limit is a. Rs.10000/-

b. Rs.5000/-
c. Rs.100000/-
d. No limit
45. E-Purse In Corp E-purse, counter payments a. OTP
through scanning is made by b. QR code
c. PIN
46. E-Purse In Corp E-purse transfer of money a. Yes
from wallet to wallet is possible b. No
c. Only to account
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47. POS & Full form of POS a)Point of Sale
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Missed Call b)Payment of Sale

Facility c)Point of Service
d)None of the above
48. POS & Full form of EDC a)Electronic Data Capture
Missed Call b)Electronic Disc Capture
Facility c)E-Debit Card
d)None of the above
49. POS & POS machines can work a) with fixed line (PSTN) connection
Missed Call b) with wireless connection
Facility c) Both a & b
50. POS & Full form of MDR a)Merchant Discount Rate
Missed Call b)Mobile Discount Rate
Facility c)Minimum Discount Rate
d)None of the above
51. POS & Merchant Discount Rate [MDR] is a) The Bank to the merchant
Missed Call the charge levied as a percentage b) The merchant to the customer
Facility of every transaction by c) The Bank to the customer
52. POS & Mobile POS is ideal for a) small merchants
Missed Call b) door deliveries
Facility c) where fixed line is not
available
d) All the above
53. POS & A merchant is categorized as a)Rs.20.00 lakh
Missed Call Small merchant if the turnover is b)Rs.30.00 lakh
Facility upto c)Rs.40.00 lakh
d)None of the above
54. POS & Max. MDR amount for POS a)Rs.500/-
Missed Call transaction for Small merchants b)Rs.750/-
Facility c)Rs.200/-
d)None of the above
55. POS & What is the prerequisite for a) Registered for SMS bankng
Missed Call
Facility availing the Missed call b) Registered for Internet
facility Banking
c) Registered for ATM facility
56. POS & MPOS requires a) EDC facility
Missed Call
Facility b) GPRS facility
c) E mail facility
57. POS & MDR is NIL for debit card a) All Transactions upto Rs.2000
Missed Call
Facility transactions at POS in India b) Transactions upto Rs.10000
for c) Transactions upto Rs.5000
d) MDR is charged for all
277
transactions
58. POS &
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Missed call facility can be a) 3 times in a day.

Missed Call
Facility availed for b) 4 times in a day
c) 5 times in a day
59. NEFT There are _____ half hourly a) 23
batches for sending outward b) 12
message c) 21
d) 24
60. NEFT If the outward message amount is a) 2
more than Rs.1.00 lakh, the same b) 1
has to be authorised by how many c) 3
persons. d)None of the above
61. NEFT Credit of NEFT inward remittance a) Name of Account holder
will be given solely based on the b) Address of account holder
c) Account number
d) All of the above
62. NEFT NEFT is a free service a) Yes
b) No
c) Not applicable
63. NEFT Full form of NEFT a)National Electronic Fund Transfer
b)New Electronic Fund Transaction
c)National Elsewhere Fund Transfer
64. NEFT NEFT is settled in a) Immediate setlements
b) Batches
c) Both a & b
65. NEFT Min amount of NEFT a)Rs.1.00 lakh
b)Rs.2.00 lakh
c)Any amount
d)None of the above
66. NEFT Old account number as used in a) True
legacy CBS can’t be used for b) False
crediting inward NEFT remittance c) For amount upto Rs.1.00 lakh
d) For amount above Rs.1.00
lakh
67. NEFT What are the timings for working a) 8.00 hr to 19.00 hr
of NEFT b) 9.00 hr to 19.00 hr
c) 8.00 hr to 18.00 hr
d) 9.00 hr to 18.00 hr
68. NEFT SFMS stands for a) Structured Financial
Messaging System
b) Structured Fund Management
Software
c) Structured Financial
278
Management System
Page
69. NEFT In NEFT credits will be a) Operative Accounts
b) Inoperative Account
accepted for c) Both Operative amd
Inoperative Accounts
d) As decided by bank from time
to time
70. RTGS Full form of RTGS a)Real Time Gross Settlement
b)Real Time General Settlement
c)Running Time General Settlement
d)None of the above
71. RTGS Full form of IFSC a)Infinite Financial System Code
b)Indian Financial System Code
c)Indian Final Swift Code
d)None of the above
72. RTGS IFSC has how many alphabetical/ a)10
numerical characters b)11
c)12
d)None of the above
73. RTGS What is Corp Bullet a)RTGS
b)NEFT
c)ABB
d)None of the above
74. RTGS RTGS is settled a) Immediately
b) In batches
c) Both a & b
75. RTGS Minimum limit for customer a)1.00 lakh
transactions in RTGS b)10.00 lakh
c)2.00 lakh
d)None of the above
76. RTGS If a customer requests for a)RTGS
remitting an amount so that the b)Demand Draft
beneficiary gets immediate credit c)Pay Order
for the amount, which mode of d)None of the above
transfer of fund is to be
recommended to the customer
77. RTGS What is UTR a)Unique Transaction Reference
b)Union Territory Reference
c)Unlimited transfer reference
d)None of the above
78. RTGS An UTR is of how many a)11
alphanumeric characters b)22
c)33
d)None of the above
79. RTGS How can a RTGS transaction be a) Through UTR
tracked? b) Through URT
c) Through VTR
d) Through VRT
80. RTGS What are the timings for RTGS a) 8.00 hr to 16.30 hr
279
service window for accepting b) 9.30 hr to 16.30 hr

customer’s transactions c) 8.00 hr to 15.30 hr
Page
d) 9.30 hr to 15.30 hr
81. RTGS Information required for affecting a)Amount to be remitted
a RTGS b)A/c no. of remitting customer &
beneficiary
c)IFS Code of receiving Bank branch
d)All of the above
82. RTGS RTGS is a payment and settlement a) RBI
system introduced by b) GOI
c) SEBI
83. RTGS What is the minimum limit for a) Rs.100000/=

customer payment under RTGS? b) Rs.200000/=
c) No limit
84. RTGS What is IDL with reference to a) Intra Day Liquidity

RTGS? b) International Data Limited
c) Inter Day Login
85. RTGS The upper time limit stipulated A. 2 Hours

for remittance/credit/return of B. 24 Hours
an RTGS message is C. 48 Hours
D. 72 Hours
86. RTGS The service charges for an RTGS A. Rs. 28/- (Rs.25/- + Service
transaction Of Rs.2,00,000/- to Charges)
Rs.5,00,000/- is B. Rs. 56/- (Rs.50/- + Service
Charges)
C. Rs. 116/- (Rs. 100/- + Service
Charges)
D. Rs. 200/- + Service Charges
87. ATM CorpBank debit cards are a)for international transaction

automatically enabled b) for domestic transactions
c) Both a& b
88. ATM ATM claims of customers have to a)7 days
be settled within ____________ b)10 days
days from the date of complaint c)15 days
d)None of the above
89. ATM Delay in settlement of ATM a) 200/-
claims will incur penalty of b) 100/-
Rs.______ per day c) 50/-
d) NO Penalty
90. ATM What are the files generated e) PBF File
at the time of branch signoff f) CIS File
280
when the ATM application is g) Data File

entered in the system? h) None of the above
91. ATM What is the maximum a) 3 times
Page
number of times cash can be b) 5 times
withdrawn per day for Debit c) No limit
card? d) None of the above
92. ATM What is the charge for a) Rs.100/=
duplicate debit card? b) Rs.120/=
c) Rs.200/=
93. ATM If International debit card is a) Rs.25000/-
not chip based (old magnetic b) Rs.15000/=
strip card), then cash c) Rs.20000/-
withdrawl and POS limit per d) None of the above
day will be
94. ATM What is the Visa international a) Rs.40000/=
debit card limit of cash b) Rs.35000/=
withdrawal per day in foreign c) Rs.25000/=
countries? d) No Limit
95. ATM What is meant by PBF with a) Positive Balance File
reference to ATM? b) Post Balance File
c) Pre Balance File
96. ATM PMJDY accountholders will be a) Visa Card
issued b) Master Card
c) Rupay Card
d) American Express Card
97. ATM Our Bank is not issuing the a) Visa Debit Cards
following type of Cards to the b) Visa Credit Cards
customers c) Rupay Debit Cards
d) IOC Petrol Card
98. ATM The Product name for our a) Corp Convenience
Debit card is b) Corp Companion
c) Corp Cash Withdrawal
d) Corp Connectivity
99. Visa Charges for using Visa Signature a)Rs.100/-
Signature debit card for withdrawing money b)Rs.200/-
Debit Card in ATMs in India c)No charge
281
d)None of the above

100. Visa No of times in a day the Visa a)5
Signature Signature debit card can be used b) No limit
Page
Debit Card for ATM transactions c)15

d)None of the above
101. Visa Visa Signature Debit cards are a)SB A/cs with QAB of Rs.1.00 lakh &
Signature targeted for this category of greater
Debit Card customers b)Current A/cs (Sole Proprietorship)
with QAB of Rs.10 lakhs & greater
c)All customers having Fixed deposit
of Rs.5.00 lakh & above
d) All of the above
102. Visa Visa Signature Card holders a. 2 per quarter
Signature
Debit Card are eligible for availing free b. 1 per quarter
lounge facility c. 3 per quarter
(Complementary Visits) d. None of the above
103. Visa The Signature Debit card shall a. QAB of Rs.1 lac and more
Signature
Debit Card be offered to SB account b. QAB of Rs.50,000 and more
holders with c. QAB of Rs.15,000 and more
d. No limit
104. Visa The daily limit of ATM a. Rs.15000/-
Signature
Debit Card withdrawal for Signature b. Rs.25000/-
cards is c. Rs.50000/-
d. Rs.100000/-
105. Visa The daily limit of POS a. Rs.200000/-
Signature
Debit Card transaction for Signature b. Rs.500000/-
cards is c. Rs.100000/-
d. No limit
106. Visa Signature card holders are a. Rs.500000/-
Signature
Debit Card eligible for Air Accident b. Rs.1000000/-
Insurance coverage of c. Rs.5000000/-
d. Rs.100000/-
107. Visa The Signature Debit card shall a. QAB of Rs.5 lakh and more
Signature
Debit Card be offered to Current accounts b. QAB of Rs.10 lakh and more
(sole proprietorship only) holders c. QAB of Rs.20 lakh and more
with d. No limit
108. Visa The Signature Debit card shall a) Rs.2.5 lakh and above
Signature b) Rs.3.00 lakh and above
Debit Card be offered to customers having c) Rs.5.00 lakh and above
fixed deposits of d) Rs.1.00 lakh and above
109. IMPS Central clearing agency for IMPS is a) NPCI
b) RBI
c) IDBRT
d) IBA
282
110. IMPS MMID allotment is based on a) Customer wise

b) CIF id wise
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c) Account wise
111. IMPS IMPS is not operational on a) Sundays
b) Bank holidays
c) Available 24*7
112. IMPS Full form of SRN with reference to a)Session Reference Number
IMPS b)Second Reference Number
c)Session Registration Number
d)None of the above
113. IMPS What is the full form of IMPS a. International Mobile Payment
System
b. Immediate payment services
c. Intrabank Mobile Payment
System
114. IMPS What is the full form of MMID a. Mobile Money Identifier
b. Margin Money Identifier
c. Marked Money Identifier
115. IMPS The number of digits in MMID a. 8
is, b. 5
c. 7
d. 4
116. IMPS IMPS remittance / Fund a. Rs. 5000/- max.
Transfer transaction can be b. Rs.10000/- max
initiated using SMS message c. No limit
/syntax format wherein the d. None of the above
limits are restricted to
maximum of
117. IMPS MMID will be generated a. No
along with the SMS Banking b. Yes
Registration at the Branch. c. Generated for Internet
banking
118. IMPS Charges for IMPS transaction is a) Rs.20/- + GST per transaction
b) Rs.10 + GST per transaction
c) Nil
d) Rs.15 + GST per transaction
119. Online Customer has to visit the branch a)10
account within how many days of online b)20
opening registration c)30
283
d)None of the above

120. Online Corporate accounts can be opened a)No
account through the online account b)Yes
Page
opening opening module c)Not Applicable

d)Only in certain branches
121. Online Who can apply through online a)Minors
account account opening module for b) Individuals above 18 years
opening opening savings bank account c)Both a & b
d)Trusts
122. Online Major benefit of Online Account a) customer details will be
account Opening Solutions is automatically populated
opening based on the Aadhaar
Number
b) KYC is not required
c) Customer need not visit the
branch at any point of time
d) Both a & c
123. Online Following documents are a) Aadhaar
account mandatory for Online Account b) PAN
opening Opening Solutions is c) None of the above
d) Both a & b
124. Online The customer must have the a) Existing account in another
account following to avail Online Account bank
opening Opening facility b) E-mail ID
c) Existing account in
Corporation bank
d) All of the above
125. Online To avail Online Account Opening a) Aadhaar
account facility, the mobile number of the b) PAN
opening customer should be linked to c) Bank account
d) Both b & c
126. Online Under Online Account Opening a) The branch chosen by the
account Solution, the branch where the customer
opening account will be opened is b) Branch chosen by the bank
c) Identified Branches
d) Specified Branches
127. Online Reference number generated on a) Only SMS
account successful registration under b) Only e-mail
opening Online Account Opening Solution c) Both SMS & E-Mail
will be delivered to customer d) Voice Call
through
128. Online Online Account Opening facility is a) Only Resident Indian
account available to Customer
opening b) NRI Customer
c) Both resident & NRI
d) Minors
129. Online Under Online Account Opening a) Single individual account
account facility, following types of b) Joint Account
opening accounts can be opened c) Current account
d) CC account
130. BHIM Full form of UPI a)Unified Payment Interface
Aadhaar UPI b)United Payment Interface
c)Unified paid Interface
284
d)None of the above

131. BHIM Which machines is required for a) Android Smart phone
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Aadhaar UPI BHIM Aadhaar transactions b) Finger print authentication

device
c) Both a & b
132. BHIM Smartphones running on following a)Smartphones running on Nokia Asha
Aadhaar UPI operating system can be used for platform
BHIM Aadhaar pay b) Smartphones running on iOS
c) Smartphones running on Android
OS
133. BHIM Full form of BHIM a) Bharat Interface for Money
Aadhaar UPI
b) Big Interface for Money
c) Bank Interface for Money
134. BHIM For transaction through “BHIM a) Mobile number
Aadhaar UPI b) PAN number
Aadhaar Pay” account of the c) Aadhaar number
customer should be linked to d) None of the above
135. BHIM How to install “Corp Bhim a) From Google Play Store
Aadhaar UPI b) From iPhone App Store
Aadhaar Pay” c) From Microsoft Store
d) All of the above
136. BHIM The per transaction limit in a) Rs.10000/
Aadhaar UPI
Bhim Aadhar is b) Rs.15000/
c) No limit
137. BHIM Per Day maximum transaction a) Rs.50000/-
Aadhaar UPI b) Rs.100000/
limit in Bhim Aadhar is
c) No limt
138. BHIM Who has introduced a) Govt of India in association
Aadhaar UPI “BHIMAadhaar Pay” with RBI
b) Govt of India in association
with IBA
c) Govt of India in association
with IDRBT
d) Govt of India in association
with NPCI
139. BHIM Basic requirements for a) POS machine
Aadhaar UPI “BHIMAadhaar Pay” b) Debit Card
c) Android smartphone and a
biometric device
d) Both a & b
140. Corp Ease No of digits of Secure Login PIN in a)2
Corp Ease b)4
c)6
d)None of the above
141. Corp Ease No of digits of Transaction PIN in a)1
285
Corp Ease b)4

c)6
d)None of the above
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142. Corp Ease Additional facilities available in a-Cheque book request

CorpEase b-Stop payment of Cheque
c-Debit card block/unblock
d-All of the above
143. Corp Ease Corp EASE is a a. Internet application
b. Intranet application
c. Mobile App
144. Corp Ease Who can register for Corp EASE a. Any customer
b. Customer with registered
mobile no. & Valid Debit card
c. Having IMPS
145. Corp Ease Which are the accounts accessed a. All the accounts
in Corp EASE b. Accounts linked to CIF ID at
the time of registration
c. Accounts in particular SOL ID
146. Corp Ease What are the types of fund a. Within Bank Transfer
transfer available in Corp EASE b. IMPS
c. NEFT
d. All the above
147. Corp Ease What is the limit for fund transfer a. Rs.10000/-
to third party within the bank in b. Rs.100000/-
Corp EASE c. No limit
148. Corp Ease What is the Maximum amount of a. Rs.100000/-

transaction per day through b. Rs.10000/-
IMPS/NEFT in Corp EASE c. No limit
149. Corp Ease Unique feature of Corp EASE is a. Registration

b. Instant Blocking/Unblocking
of Debit card
c. Ledger view
150. Corp Ease How to Unlock ID or how to set a a. By using “Unlock ID or Forget
new Secure (Login) PIN or TPIN in Secure PIN/TPIN“ option
Corp Ease b. Request to HO-IT divn
c. Send SMS
151. Corp Ease Deposit accounts which can be a. All Deposit a/cs
opened in Corp EASE b. Corp Classic
c. FD/RD/Tax Saver Deposit
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1 RTGS Full form of RTGS a.Real Time Gross Settlement
b.Real Time General Settlement
c.Running Time General Settlement
d.None of the above
2 RTGS Full form of IFSC a.Infinite Financial System Code
b.Indian Financial System Code
c.Indian Final Swift Code
d.None of the above
3 RTGS IFSC has how many alphabetical/ a.10
numerical characters b.11
c.12
d.None of the above
4 RTGS What is Corp Bullet a.RTGS
b.NEFT
c.ABB
d.None of the above
5 RTGS RTGS is settled a.Immediately
b.In batches
c.Both a & b
d.None of the above
6 RTGS Minimum limit for customer a.1.00 lakh
transactions in RTGS b.10.00 lakh
c.2.00 lakh
d.None of the above
7 RTGS If a customer requests for a.RTGS
remitting an amount so that the b.Demand Draft
beneficiary gets immediate c.Pay Order
credit for the amount, which d.None of the above
mode of transfer of fund is to be
recommended to the customer
8 RTGS What is UTR a.Unique Transaction Reference
b.Union Territory Reference
c.Unlimited transfer reference
d.None of the above
9 RTGS An UTR is of how many a.11
alphanumeric characters b.22
c.33
d.None of the above
10 RTGS How can a RTGS transaction be a.Through UTR
tracked? b.Through URT
c.Through VTR
d.Through VRT
11 RTGS What are the timings for RTGS a.8.00 hr to 16.30 hr
service window for accepting b.9.30 hr to 16.30 hr
customer’s transactions c.8.00 hr to 15.30 hr
d.9.30 hr to 15.30 hr
12 RTGS Information required for a.Amount to be remitted
affecting a RTGS b.A/c no. of remitting customer &
beneficiary
c.IFS Code of receiving Bank branch
287
d.All of the above

13 RTGS RTGS is a payment and a.RBI
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settlement system introduced by b.GOI

c.SEBI
d.None of the above
14 RTGS What is the minimum limit for a.Rs.100000/=

customer payment under RTGS? b.Rs.200000/=
c.No limit
d.None of the above
15 RTGS What is IDL with reference to a.Intra Day Liquidity

RTGS? b.International Data
Limited
c.Inter Day Login
d.None of the above
16 RTGS The upper time limit stipulated a.2 Hours

for remittance/credit/return of b.24 Hours
an RTGS message is c.48 Hours
d.72 Hours
17 RTGS The service charges for an RTGS a.Rs. 28/- (Rs.25/- +

transaction Of Rs.2,00,000/- to Service Charges.
Rs.5,00,000/- is b.Rs. 56/- (Rs.50/- +
Service Charges.
c.Rs. 116/- (Rs. 100/- +
Service Charges.
d.Rs. 200/- + Service
Charges
PREPROMOTION TEST FOR SCALE-I TO II AND SCALE –II TO III
FINACLE QUESTION BANK

1. What is the menu options for reports of Loan repayment schedule ?
A) HLARSH B) HALARSH C) HCLARSH D) CLARSH
2. What is menu options for review/renewal of Loan account?
A) HACMLA B) HACLHA C) HACM D) HACLHM
3. How we can take AOD in Finacle for CC/OD accounts?
A) HACM B) HACHLA C) HACMLA D) HACMCC
4. How we can (menu) upload instruments for clearing ?
A) HICTMO B) HRMI C) HARMI D) CRMI
5. How we can enter AOD in Term Loan accounts ?
A) CACMLA B) CACHLA C) HACHLA D) HACLHM
6. Inquiry of overdue position of loan menu options is …..
A) HLAOPI B) HCLAOPI C) CLAOPI D) HCLAOPI
7. Menu options for Rescheduling of Loan and function is…..?
A) HLARA F-S B) HLARA F-R C) HLARA F-M D) HLARA F-RS
288
8. Processing of Loan at Maturity is done by……..?

A) HLAMATP B) HCLAMATP C) CLAMATP D) HACLAMATP
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9. Menu options for unscheduled payment of Loan is ….?

A) HLASPAY B) HLAUPAY C) CLAUPAY D) HCLAUPAY
10. How we can review NCGCC accounts……..?
A) HCACLHM B) CACLHM C) HACLHM D) HACALHM
11. Menu options for schedule payment of loan accounts…..?
A) HLAUPAY B) HPAYOFF C) HCLAUPAY D) HLASPAY
12. How we can open a loan (menu)account…?
A) HOAACLA B) COAACLA C) HOAACMLA D) HOAACALA
13. Modification of the value of collateral can be done through….?
A) HACLM B) HCLM C) HSCLM D) HALM
14. How we can check history of account limit ………?
A) HCLAHI B) HACHLI C) HACLHI D) HCALHI
15. Modification of the of limit can be done through……..?
A) HCACLHM B) HCLAHM C) HCAACM D) HACLHM
16. Lodgment of security can be done through which menu options………?
A) HCLM B) HSCLM C) HACLM D) HALM
17. Menu options for cash management transaction system is ……?
A) CAMSTM B) CMSTM C) HCMSTM D) CCMSTM
18. Correction and modification of transaction can be done through …….?
A) HACRT B) HSCRT C) HCRT D) HCMRT
19. Generation of any report and print can be done through…..?
A) CCORPRPT&HPR B) HCORPRPT&CHPR C) HSPRNT&HPR D) HCORPRPT&HPR
20. How many digits are there in office account?
A) 15 B) 17 C) 16 D) 14
21. First 4 digits ( in office account ) denotes ……..?
A) GL code B) SOL id C) SUB GL code D) CURRENCY CODE
22. OSP stands for ………………?
A) Operating pointing B) Office service pointing C) Office account system pointing
D) Operating system pointing
23. Function key F3 stand for ……….. in finacle ?
A) Help B) List C) Accept D) Back
24. Function key F9 stand for …….in finacle?
A) Back B) Signature popup C) Accept D) List
25. What is procedure for interest calculation concept in Finacle….?
A) Accrual/Booking/Calculation B) Booking/Calculation/Accrual
C) Accrual/Calculation/Booking D) Calculation/Accrual/Booking
26. splitting of inventory can be done through which menu options…..in any location ?
A) HISI B) HAISIA C) HISIA D) HSIAI

289
27. Merger of inventory in to our location…….?

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A) HIMIA B) HIAMI C) HIMIAI D) HIMAI

28. Inventory movement inquiry can be done through which menu option….?
A) HIMI B) HIAMI C)HAIMI D) HIMINQ
29. Inventory movement report can be done through ……. ?
A) HIAMR B) HIMR C) HIMIR D) HIMAR
30. Menu option for personalized check book ?
A) CPCBREG B) CCPBERG C) CPCCRBGE D) CPCBRGE
31. What is the procedure for Aadhar seeding in existing account?
A) CRM-MODIFY-HCCFM B) CRM-EDITENTITY-HCCFM C) CRM-EDITENTITY-ENTERAADHAR

NO D) CRM-EDIT ENTITY-ENTER AADHAR NO-RUN-HCCFM
32. What is menu option for reversal / ratification amount wrongly posted
A) HCRT B) HRCT C) HRTC D) HTRC
33.How we can transfer one account to another account?
A) HFXER B) HXFRE C) HXFER D) HEXFR
34. How we can generate scroll reports?
A) SLRPT B) SRLRPT C) SCRLPT D) CRLRPT
35. Recovery of charges can be done through which menu option?
A) HCGHRG B) HCHGRG C) HGCHRG D) HGRCHRG
36. How we can get detail of account ( menu ) ?
A) HAACDET B) HACCDET C) HCCADET D) HAACDET
37. What is menu of option for entering 15A or 15H for any other tax exceptions ?
A) MTDSE B) MTDES C) MTSED D) MDSET
38. Menu option TDS enquiry?
A) HTDSPI B) HTDSIP C) HTDISP D) HTDIPS
39. Marking / removal of lien?
A) HALM B) HCLM C) HSCLM D) CLAM
40. Stop payment of checks can be verified through which menu option?
290
A) HSPPV B) HSPPAV C) HSPP D) HPSPAV

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41. Standing instruction recording and verification can be done through which menu option?
A) HISSIM B) HISIMM C) HSSIM D) HASIM
42. Transfer of accounts between SOAL’s ……………...?
A) HACXFSOL B) HCAXFOSL C) HAXCFSOL D) HACXFRSC
43. How we can enter ECS mandate registration?
A) HCESM B) HESCM C) HSCEM D) HECSM
44. What is menu option for transfer of account between scheme?
A) HAXCFRSC B) HACXFRSC C) HACXRFSC D) HAXCRFSC
45. What is menu option for changing minor to major in existing account?
A) HBCM B) HBMC C) HMCB D) HCBM
46. What are steps involve in opening a bank guaranty?
A) CBSRAC-OGM-HLNM B) CBSRAC-HLNM-OGM C) CBCRAS-OGM-HLNM D) CBCRAS-HLNM-OGM
47. BSR stands for………?
A)Basic structural returns B)Basic statistical returns C)Basic service return D)Basic strategical returns
48. What is menu option for granting TOD?
A) HACTDOM B) HCATODM C) HACTODM D) HACODMT
49. What is menu option for DD debit enquiry?
A) HDDIP B) HDDIC C) HDDIR D) HDDID
50. What is menu option for cancellation of DD?
A) HDDC B) HDDIR C) HDDIC D) HDDIP
GROUP CREDIT POLICY

291
1. What is time limit for fresh sanction of Non Consortium finance…?

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A) 45 DAYS B) 60 DAYS C) 30 DAYS D) 75 DAYS

2. What is time limit for fresh sanction of Consortium finance…?
3. What is time limit for Renewal of Non Consortium finance…?
4. What is time limit for Renewal of Consortium finance…?
5. What is time limit for fresh sanction & Renewal of Exports finance…?
A) 30 & 45 DAYS B) 45 & 60 DAYS C) 45 & 30 DAYS D) 30 & 15 DAYS
6. As per GCP up to what extent Adhoc credit facility ZLCC can be sanction to their borrowers..?
A) 10% of sanctioned limit or rs.1.5cr whichever islower
B) 10% of sanctioned limit or rs.1.0cr whichever islower
C) 15% of sanctioned limit or rs.1.5cr whicever islower
D) 10% of sanctioned limi tor rs.1.5cr whicever Higher
7. As per GCP up to what extent Adhoc credit facility CLCC can be sanction to their borrowers..?
A) 10%of sanctioned limitor rs.3.0cr whicever islower
B) 10%of sanctioned limitor rs.3.5cr whicever islower
C) 10%of sanctioned limitor rs.2.5cr whicever islower
D) 10%of sanctioned limitor rs.4.0cr whicever islower
8. As per GCP up to what extent Adhoc credit facility HLCC can be sanction to their
borrowers..?
A) 20%sanctioned limit or rs.25crwhichever islower.
B) 25%sanctioned limit or rs.25crwhichever islower.
C) 20%sanctioned limit or rs.20crwhichever islower.
D) 20%sanctioned limit or rs.20crwhichever is Higher
9. As per GCP up to what extent Adhoc credit facility CAC can be sanction to their borrowers..?
A) 25%sanctioned limit or rs.40crwhichever islower.
B) 25%sanctioned limit or rs.50crwhichever is Higher.
C) 20%sanctioned limit or rs.50crwhichever islower.
D) 25%sanctioned limit or rs.50crwhichever islower.
10. As per GCP up to what credit limit collateral security shall not be insisted under priority
sector..?
A) 25000/- B) 50000/- C) 20000/- D) 15000/-
11. As per GCP up to what credit limit collateral security shall not be insisted for tiny sector
under SME...?
A) 5 LAKH B) 15 LAKH C) 20 LAKH D) 10 LAKH
12. As per GCP what is the Kannan committee recommendations…?
A) PBF B) PTM C) CBM D) NOF
13. As per GCP what is the Nayak committee recommendations…?
A) PBF B) PTM C) CBM D) NOF
14. As per GCP up to what extent credit facility can be sanction for W/C under PTM method…?
A) 20% of projected sales or 5.0cr which ever is lower
B) 25% of projected sales or 2.0cr which ever is lower
C) 25% of projected sales or 5.0cr which ever is lower
D) 20% of projected sales or 10.00cr which ever is lower
292
15. As per GCP what will be promotor’s contributions for term loan…to start business?
A) 25% B) 20% C) 15% D) 10%
16. Bench mark Debt Equity ratio is….?
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A) 3.5:1 B) 3:1 C) 1:3 D) 2.5:1

17. Bench mark DSCR is….?
A) 1.25:1 B) 1:1.5 C) 1.5:1 D) 2.5:1
18. What will be minimum period for WCDL…..?
A) 15 DAYS B) 10 DAYS C) 7 DAYS D) None of these
19. What is exposure norms sector wise for SME: Cottage industries: upto 5 lakhs…?
B) 20% B) 30% C) 40% D) 25%
20. What is the exposure norms for SME:Khadi & VI, artisans and tiny : between 5 lakhs and 25
lakhs
A) 20% B) 25% C) 40% D) 15%
21. In case of Cash Credit against hypothecation of Book debt, Book debt statements
should be counter signed by Chartered Accountant on_________basis
A) Monthly B) Quarterly. C) Half yearly D)Yearly
22. What is the maximum credit facility for individual for personal and other purposes for non
business purposes…?
A) 20 CR B) 15 CR C) 25CR D) 100 LAKH
23. What is Max. aggregate credit facilities (fund+non fund) for Non Corporate borrowers shall
be restricted to….. for individuals ( including proprietorships) ?
A) 30CR B) 40CR C) 25CR D) 50CR
24. What is Max. aggregate credit facilities (fund+non fund) for other Non Corporate borrowers
shall be restricted to…..?
A) 100CR B) 200CR C) 175CR D) 150CR
25. What is the exposure norms for Corporate Single Borrower…..as per GCP.?
A) 20% B) 15% C) 10% D) 25%
26. What is the exposure norms for Corporate Single Borrower…..as per GCP for infrastructure
projects..?
A) 20% B) 25% C) 15% D) 30%
27. What is the exposure norms for Corporates Group of Borrower…..as per GCP.?
A) 30% B) 25% C) 40% D) 50%
28. What is the exposure norms for Corporate Group of Borrower…..as per GCP for
infrastructure projects.. ( presently Power, Tele communications, Roads and ports)?
A) 30% B) 25% C) 40% D) 50%
29. What is the entry level exposure norms for land/build/infrastructure projects for corporates
both fund and non fund base…?
A) 500CR B) 250CR C)100CR D)400CR
30. What is the entry level exposure norms for land/build/infrastructure projects for Sole
proprietor both fund and non fund base…?
A) 15CR B) 10CR C)20CR D)25CR
31. What is the entry level exposure norms for land/build/infrastructure projects for OTHER
both fund and non fund base…?
A) 150CR B)200CR C) 250CR D)100CR
32. What is the entry level exposure norms for land/build/infrastructure projects for Individuals
for fund base…?
A) 10CR B) 5CR C) 2.5CR D) 10CR
33. What do you mean by capital funds….?
293
A) Paid up capital + free reserve as per published account

B) Paid up capital + free reserve as per not published in account
C) Paid up capital + free reserve
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D) Paid up capital - free reserve as per published account

34. As per GCP what is the exposure to real estate sector….?
A) 15% OF ANBC B) 10% OF NBC C) 10%OF ANBC D) 15% OF ANBC
35. As per GCP what is the exposure to capital market….?
A) 25% of the banks net worth as on 31st March of the Previous year
B) 40% of the banks net worth as on 31st March of the Next year
C) 40% of the banks net worth as on 31st March of the Previous year
D) 40% of the banks net worth
36. As per GCP what is the exposure to capital market for individuals for physical shares….?
A) 15 LAKH B) 10 LAKH C) 20LAKH D) 1.00CR
37. As per GCP what is the exposure to capital market for individuals for Demat shares….?
A) 15 LAKH B) 10 LAKH C) 20LAKH D) 1.00CR
38. What is the maximum ceiling to group / inter connected broking entities / companies…?
A) 50 CR B) 100CR C) 250CR D) 75CR
39. What is the maximum ceiling to Corporate Borrowers under rating CB1 to CB4 for both fund
and non fund base….?
A) 20&50CR B) 50&20 CR B) 25&20CR D) 50&50CR
40. What is the maximum ceiling to Corporate Borrowers under rating CB1 to CB4 for both fund
and non fund base….?
A) 20&30CR B) 25&25CR C) 10&20CR D) 20&20CA
41. The charge by way of hypothecation of assets belonging to a company must be
registered with ROC within a period of
A) 30 days from the date of execution of documents C). 30 days of default in
repayment
B) The charge need not be registered D) A and b
42. A letter of negative lien executed by a company
A) Creates equitable charge over assets not given expressly as security by the
company
B).Is an undertaking not to charge assets without obtaining bank’s prior permission
C) Is mutual agreement between bank and company not to exercise bank’s general lien
D) None of the above
43. Working Capital Gap refers to
A) Current Assets C) Current Liabilities
B) Current Assets-Current Liabilities (other than Bank finance)
C) All the above
44. The DSCR for Term Loan is calculated as under:
A) Net profit +Depreciation+interest on TL/ Interest on TL + Investments
B) Net Profit/Repayment obligations
C) Net Profit + investment on TL/ Instalments
D) Net cash accruals/ Instalments
45. Chairman of the sale committee where the reserve price of an asset is beyond Rs 100
lakh is
a. Branch manager b. Representative from Head office
b. Zonal head d. Executive from ZO
294
46. After the expiry of 60 days of notice period under SARFAESI Act, possession of the
property is taken by the Authorised officer not below the rank of
Page
a. Branch manager b. Chief Manager c. AGM d. DGM

47. To compute the extent of sacrifice in cases of compromise settlements, normal due is
calculated as
a. Book balance + simple interest at 4.25 % above the MCLR & un debited
expenses
b. Book balance + compound interest at 4.25 % above the base rate & un debited
expenses
c. Book balance + simple interest at applicable rate & un debited expenses
d. Book balance + compound interest at applicable rate & expenses
48. Limitation period to file EP (Execution petition) in respect of decreed accounts is
49. CDR (Corporate Deb Restructure) will apply only to multiple banking /syndicate/
consortium accounts with outstanding exposure of
a. Rs. 1.00 crore and above b. Rs. 5.00 crore and above
c. Rs. 10.00 crore and above d. Rs. 25.00 crore and above
50. Explain S4A…..?
A) Scheme for sustainable structuring of stress assets.
B) Scheme for suitable structuring of stress assets
C) Scheme for sound structuring of SMA
D) Scheme for suitable growth of stress assets

PRE PRAMOTION TESTS QUESTIONS ON NRI DEPOSITS
1. FEMA Act was introduce in ……?

a) 1997
b) 1999
c) 1989
d) 1979
2. Who is NRI ……?
a) A Person stayed out side of india more than 182 days in same year
b) A Person stayed out side of india more than 181 days
c) A Person stayed out side of india more than 180 days
d) A Person stayed out side of india more than 182 days in a preceding financial year
3. Explain EEFC…?
a) Export earning foreign currency
b) Export earning famous currency
c) Export earning federal currency
d) Export earner foreign currency
295
4. NRI accounts cannot be opened in the name of nationals of ________ without prior
permission of RBI.
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a. Bangladesh
b. Pakistan
c. China
d. both a & b
5. Interest on NRE term deposit cannot exceed
a. LIBOR/SWAP + 200 basis points
b. LIBOR/SWAP + 150 basis points
c. LIBOR/SWAP + 100 basis points
d. as applicable to domestic term deposits
6. Interest on FCNR term deposit cannot exceed
a. LIBOR/SWAP + 175 basis points
b. LIBOR/SWAP + 150 basis points
c. LIBOR/SWAP + 200 basis points
d. at the discretion of the Banks
7. Interest on NRE SB is
a. as determined by the individual banks
b. shall not exceed LIBOR/SWAP rate
c. not more than that applicable to domestic SB deposits
d. shall be +/- 100 basis points above LIBOR
8. NRE deposits can be held jointly with
a. any two NRIs or one NRI and another resident Indian
b. one NRI & another resident Indian
c. both resident Indians

296
d. both a & b are correct
e. none of the above

Page
9. Minimum period for which NRE term deposits could be accepted
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 6 months
d. one year
e. any period at the discretion of the Bank
10. Minimum period for which FCNR term deposits could be accepted
a. 7 days
b. 15 days
c. 6 months
d. one year
e. any period at the discretion of the Bank
11. Maximum period for which FCNR term deposits could be accepted
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. Five years
e. any period at the discretion of the Bank but not more than 10 years
297
12. Nominations in a NRE account is

Page
a. not permitted
b. permitted but nominee should be a resident
c. permitted but nominee should be a non-resident
d. both resident and non residents are permitted to be nominees
13. Power of attorney holders are not permitted to open accounts on NRI's behalf
a. NRE SB accounts only
b. NRE Term Deposit accounts only
c. NRE & FCNR term deposits only
d. all the above
14. Power of attorney holders in an NRI A/c are permitted to
a. make gifts not exceeding Rs.10,000/- per financial year to residents in India
b. not exceeding Rs.10,000/- per calendar year to residents in India
c. no such ceiling
d. such gifts can not be permitted to POA
15. Transfer of funds from one NRE a/c to another is permitted
a. provided the same is effected by the account holder/s
b. can be effected by the POA holder
c. both a & b is true
d. no transfer from one NRE to another permitted
e. permitted subjected to a ceiling
16. TODs in NRE SB is
a. not at all permitted
b. is permitted without any ceiling

298
c. is permitted at the discretion of the ADs
d. b & c is true
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17. Interest on FCNR Term deposit of tenure more than one year is compounded once in
a. a quarter
b. half year
c. yearly
d. at the discretion of the Ads
18. FCNR deposit of one year maturity, interest
a. can be compounded quarterly
b. can be compounded half yearly
c. cannot be compounded only simple interest
19. On returning to India for permanent settlement the existing FCNR (B) deposit
a. may be continued till maturity of the said deposit at the contracted rate
b. may be continued till maturity of the said deposit at the ROI as on the date of return
c. shall be converted into domestic deposit
d. at the discretion of individual Banks
20. NRO Accounts can be in the form of:
a. Savings
b. current
c. Term deposits including RD accounts
d. all the above
21. NRO accounts can be opened
a. singly in the name of NRIs
b. jointly when all are NRIs
c. jointly by NRIs and Residents

299
d. only residents
e. a, b & c are correct

Page
22. Period of deposit applicable to NRO Term deposits is
a. minimum one year
b. maximum 10 years
c. at the discretion of the ADs
d. as applicable to domestic term deposits
23. Credits to NRO SB a/c are allowed
a. Legitimate dues in India of the account holder including current income like rent,
dividend, pension, interest etc
b. Sale proceeds of financial assets/immovable properties acquired out of rupee/FC funds
or by way of legacy inheritance
c. Transfer from any domestic resident accounts
d. all the correct
24. Permitted debits in NRO SB account include
a. Local payments in rupees including payment for investments in India.
b. Remittance outside India of current income like rent, dividend, pension, interest etc. in
India of the account holder
c. Remittance up to USD one million, per financial year (April-March), for all bona fide
purposes to the satisfaction of the authorized dealer bank.
d. a & c are correct

300
e. all the above are correct

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25. Existing Resident SB account should be designated as NRO account when the account holder
leaves India for uncertain period of stay abroad except
a. he/she is leaving for a country other than Nepal/Bhutan
b. he/she is leaving for a country other than Nepal/Bhutan/Pakistan
c. when he/she is leaving for Nepal and Bhutan
d. he/she is leaving for a country other than Nepal/Pakistan/Afghanistan
e. any country
26. Permissible operations by a Power of Attorney holder in respect of NRO A/c are:
a. Local payments in rupees including payments for eligible investments
b. Remittance outside India of current income in India of the Non-Resident individual
account holder, net of applicable taxes.
c. Repatriation of funds to the Non-Resident individual account holder only. (Not to third party)
d. all the above are permitted
27. Power of attorney holders in an NRO A/c are permitted to
a. make gifts not exceeding Rs.10,000/- per financial year to residents in India
b. not exceeding Rs.10,000/- per calendar year to residents in India
c. no such ceiling
d. such gifts can be effected only once in a year
e. no POA holder cannot make any gifts to anybody
28. Power of attorney holders are permitted to open

301
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a. NRO accounts
b. FCNR (B) accounts
c. a & b both
d. NRE accounts
29. NRE /FCNR accounts can not be opened by transfer of funds from
a. NRE Accounts
b. Proceeds of FCNR (B) accounts
c. NRO account
d. foreign country
e. None of the above
30. Treat the accounts maintained by non-residents jointly with resident relatives as
a. NRE accounts
b. NRO accounts
c. both a & b
d. at the discretion of the ADs
31. Instruments other than those for opening ___________ should not be sent to IIBD, Mumbai
a. NRE
b. FCNR (B)
c. NRO
d. resident a/c in the name of NRI

302
32. FCNR accounts can be opened in currencies of

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a. 6 currencies
b. 5 currencies
c. 3 currencies
d. 9 currencies
33. Under FCNR we can open all types of time deposit accounts except
a. FD
b. KCC
c. FD & KCC
d. RD
34. Minimum term for NRE time deposit is
a. 15 days
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 3 years
e. at the discretion of the ADs
35. Maximum term for NRE time deposit is
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
36 For FCNR deposit the minimum term for deposit is
a. 1 year
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
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d. 10 years
37. Maximum term for FCNR time deposit is

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a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
38. Minimum balance prescribed for FCNR deposits under USD /GBP/EUR is
a. 1000 units
b. 5000 units
c. 500 units
d. 2500 units
39. NRO accounts may be opened in the form of
a. SB
b. Current
c. Term deposit
d. all the three above
40. Interest rate in case of which of the following accounts is linked to LIBOR/SWAP
a. FCNR
b. NRE
c. EEFC
d. RFC – Domestic
e. all the above
41. Exchange fluctuation risk in case of an NRE account remains with
a. RBI
b. Bank with whom the account is opened

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c. account holder
d. Govt. of India
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e. All the above, pro-rata
42. The rupee loan availed by NRI for purchase of residential accommodation was repaid either by
inward remittance or by debit to NRE / FCNR (B) account can the sale proceeds of such property be
repatriated?
a). Yes. Repayment of loan in foreign exchange is treated as equivalent to the foreign exchange
received for purchase of residential accommodation.
b) NO Repayment of loan in foreign exchange is treated as equivalent to the foreign exchange

received for purchase of residential accommodation.
c) IT is not applicable that, Repayment of loan in foreign exchange is treated as equivalent to the
foreign exchange received for purchase of residential accommodation.
43. Is there any lock in period for sale of residential / commercial property purchased out of
inward remittance / debit to NRE / FCNR (B) account?
a). No lock in period is applicable for sale of such property.
b) Yes lock in period is applicable for sale of such property.
C) There is no such guideline for lock in period is applicable for sale of such property.
d) None of the above.
44. Is there any restriction on number of residential properties in respect of which sale proceeds
can be repatriated by NRI / PIO?
a). Yes. Repatriation of sale proceeds is restricted to not more than two residential properties.
b) No Repatriation of sale proceeds is restricted to not more than two residential properties
c) Yes. Repatriation of sale proceeds is restricted to not more than one residential properties
d) No. Repatriation of sale proceeds is restricted to not more than one residential properties
45. Into which account the sale proceeds of residential / commercial property received by way of
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gift by NRI / PIO can be credited ?
a). The sale proceeds of residential / commercial property received by way of gift by NRI / PIO
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should be credited to NRO account only.

b) The sale proceeds of residential / commercial property received by way of gift by NRI / PIO should
not be credited to NRO account only.
c) The sale proceeds of residential / commercial property received by way of gift by NRI / PIO should
be credited to NRE account only.
d) The sale proceeds of residential / commercial property received by way of gift by NRI / PIO should
not be credited to NRE account only.
46. Can sale proceeds of any immovable property inherited by NRI / PIO from a person resident in
India be remitted abroad ?
a) Yes. Amount not exceeding USD one million, per Financial year.
b) Yes. Amount not exceeding USD one million, per calendar year.
c) Yes. Amount not exceeding USD two million, per Financial year.
d) Yes. Amount not exceeding USD two million, per calendar year.
47. Does Accounts under the erstwhile FERA continue under Foreign Exchange Management Act,
1999?
Ans. No. With the introduction of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, the accounts opened
by foreign nationals who are resident in India are treated as resident accounts. Such accounts are at
par with other resident Rupee accounts.
48. Can foreign nationals resident in India open resident account?
a). Yes. Foreign nationals resident in India can open and maintain resident Rupee account in India.
b) No Foreign nationals resident in India can open and maintain resident Rupee account in India.
c) Yes. Foreign nationals resident in India can not open and maintain resident Rupee account in
India.
49. Should banks have a separate system to monitor resident accounts maintained by foreign
nationals in the absence of account?
a). From exchange control point of view, no monitoring is required. However, the banks are free to
put in place such administrative arrangements as considered necessary for a smooth conduct of
accounts, especially in cases where it is likely that a request for repatriation of funds outside India
306
will be made.
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b) From exchange control point of view, monitoring is required, the banks are free to put in place
such administrative arrangements as considered necessary for a smooth conduct of accounts,
especially in cases where it is likely that a request for repatriation of funds outside India will be
made.
c) From exchange control point of view, monitoring is compulsorily required.
d) none of these
50. Can ADs (banks) remit proceeds of such accounts on closure?
a). No. But ADs (banks) should ensure that the funds to be repatriated outside India were either
received from abroad or are repatriable in nature or are permissible.
b) Yes. But ADs (banks) should ensure that the funds to be repatriated outside India were either
received from abroad or are repatriable in nature or are permissible in terms of RBI notification
No.FEMA.13/2000 dated 3rd May 2000 as amended from time to time.
c) Yes. But ADs (banks) should ensure that the funds to be repatriated outside India were either
received from abroad or are repatriable in nature or are permissible.
d) No not required for remit proceeds
51. In the absence of account how does the salary of foreign nationals be remitted?
Ans. In terms of GOI notification No.SO.301(E) dated March 30, 2001, banks are free to allow
remittance for maintenance of close relatives abroad not exceeding net salary (after deduction of
taxes, contribution to provident fund and other deductions) of a person who is resident but not
permanently resident in India and is a citizen of a foreign state other than Pakistan.
52. Can a foreign tourist open a bank account in India during their short visit?
a). No Foreign tourists during their short visit to India can not open a Non-Resident (Ordinary)
Rupee (NRO) account with any bank dealing in foreign exchange.
b) Yes. Foreign tourists during their short visit to India can open a Non-Resident (Ordinary) Rupee
(NRO) account with any bank dealing in foreign exchange. Such account can be open upto a
maximum period of 6 months.
C) Yes. Foreign tourists during their short visit to India can open a Non-Resident (Ordinary) Rupee
d) Yes. Foreign tourists during their short visit to India can open a Non-Resident (Ordinary) Rupee
307
53. What credits can be made to such accounts?
a) Funds remitted from outside India or those obtained by sale of foreign exchange brought by the
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tourists to India can be credited to the NRO account.

b) ) Only foreign exchange brought by the tourists to India can be credited to the NRO account.
c) ) Only sale of foreign exchange brought by the tourists to India can be credited to the NRO
account.
d) All the above
54. Can the NRO account be used for making local payments?
a) Yes. The tourists can freely make local payments by debit to the NRO account.
b)No. The tourists can not freely make local payments by debit to the NRO account
c) Yes. The tourists can freely make local payments by debit to the NRO account subject to approval
from the RBI
d) None of the above.
55. Can foreign tourists repatriate the balance held in their NRO account at the time to departure
from India?
a) Banks have been allowed to convert the balance in the account at the time of departure of
the tourists into foreign currency provided the account has been maintained for a period
not exceeding six months and the account has not been credited with any local funds,
other than interest accrued thereon.
b) No they can not
c) They can do with permission from RBI
d) They can do with permission from RBI/GOI
56. What can be done to repatriate the proceeds of an account that has been maintained for more
than six months?
a) In such cases, applications for repatriation of balance may be made on plain paper to the
concerned Regional Office of Reserve Bank.
b) In such cases, applications for repatriation of balance may be made on plain pape.
c) In such cases, applications for repatriation of balance may be made on stamp paper to the
concerned Regional Office of Reserve Bank.

308
1. Who can open Time deposit….?

a) Person with sound mind
b) Any person
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c) Lunatic Person
d) None of Above
2. For opening any time deposit how much photograph is required..?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 1
d) 4
3. What is the minimum period for deposit in KCC is..?
a) 3 month
b) 6 month
c) 12 month
4. What is the maximum period for KCC
a) 1 year
b) 5 year
c) 10 year
d) 20 year
5. What is the minimum amount for opening a KCC..?
a) 100
b) 500
c) 1000
6. What is the maximum amount for KCC…?
a) 1CR
b) 5CR
c) 10CR
d) No Limit
7. To open a KCC of a G D Goyanka Trust what is the major document to be obtain….?
a) KYC Document of all Trustee
b) Trust deed
c) Address proof of Trust
d) All the above
8. The ideal deposit scheme for those who desire to have a regular income is
a. KCC b. FD c. RD d. Money flex
9. FD can be opened for a minimum period ______ days for Rs.1 crore
10. Minimum period required for FDs of below Rs. 1 crore ______________
11. Maximum period for which FDs are accepted in our Bank is __________
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12. Interest payment frequency for FD account is _____________

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a. Monthly only b. Quarterly only
c. Half Yearly only d Monthly / Quarterly / Half yearly/Yearly

as per the option of depositor
13. TDS is applicable if the interest amount crosses Rs. _____in a financial year
a. 5,000/- b. 15,000/- c. 40,000/- d. 20,000/-
14. Maximum amount one can invest under FD in our Bank is Rs. ____________
a. One lakh b. Ten lakhs c. No Limit d. One crore
15. Interest given in FD is ______________
a. Simple b. Compound c. Fixed d. Floating
16. Under KCC, the interest is compounded on a ________basis.
a. Daily b. Weekly c. Monthly d. Quarterly
17. What is the Maximum amount for TSKCC….?
a) 50000 b) 100000 c) 150000 d) 200000
18. What is the minimum maximum period for TSKCC….?
a) 1-5 year b) 2-5 year c) 5 year d) None of the above
19. If a person come to your branch and at the end of march 29 and give you 30 Lakh cash
deposit with full KYC and you know you will complete deposit target..?
a) Will take deposit
b) Not to take
c) will take and tell the customer that will pay through A/C, DD/NEFT/RTGS only
20. Minimum period of investment under KCC is __________ months
a. 3 b. 9 c. 6 d. 12
21.Maximum period of investment under KCC is _________ months
a. 12 b. 120 c. 60 d. 72
22.Interest is credited to the KCC account once in a _____________.

310
a. Month b. Quarter c. Half year d. Year

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23. The Flexible Term Deposit in our Bank is named as _________________
a. Recurring Deposit b. Kshemanidhi Cash Certificate
c. Flexi RD d. Money Flex Deposit
24. In Money Flex Deposit withdrawal of deposits in units of Rs. _______ is allowed.
a. 2,000/- b. 1,000/- c. 5,000/- d. 10,000/-
25. For Money Flex KCC, minimum period of deposit is ____________ months
a. 12 b. 6 c. 60 d. 120
26. For opening any account address proof should not be older than……….month?
a) 3 b) 6 c) 2 d) 1
27. For Money Flex KCC, maximum period of deposit is ____________ months
a. 12 b. 6 c. 60 d. 120
28. Minimum amount required to open Money Flex Deposit Account is Rs. _____
a. 1,000/- b. 5,000/- c. 10,000/- d. 25,000/-
29. Minimum period for opening a Recurring Deposit is ____________ months
a. 6 b. 9 c. 12 d. 15
30. Maximum period permissible under a Recurring Deposit is _______months

a. 12 b. 60 c. 72 d. 120
31. Minimum amount required to open RD account at Rural/SU branches is Rs.__
a. 25/- b. 50/- c. 100/- d. 500/-
32. Minimum amount required to open RD account other than Rural and Semi Urban
branches is Rs.__________
a. 100/- b. 500/- c. 1,000/- d.
250/-
33. Deposits in RD is to be made in multiples of Rs._________ subject to the minimum amount
a. 25/- b. 50/- c. 75/- d. 100/-
34. Maximum limit for RD is Rs. ____________
a. 1 lakh b. 2 lakhs c. 5 lakhs d. No limit
35. Interest accumulated in RD account is credited at the end of every_________
a. Quarter b. Half year c. Financial year d. Fort night
36. The product name of Flexible Recurring Deposit in our Bank is _________
a. Corp Money Flex b. Corp Recur c. Corp Tax Saver d. CPSB
37. Investment period for Corp Recur Deposit is fixed for ________ years
a. 2 b. 5 c. 3 d. 6
38. Minimum amount required to open Corp Recur Deposit account is Rs. ______
a. 1,000/- b. 500/- c. 5,000/- d. 10,000/-
39. Additional deposit of____ times the monthly instalment is permitted in FRD
a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10
40. To open Tax Savings Term Deposit account quoting of _______is mandatory.
a. Voter ID number b. PAN

311
c . Pass port number d. Driving License number
41.Is Premature closure of Corp Tax Saver Deposit account allowed?

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a. Yes b. No c. Partially allowed d. Partially not allowed

42. No loans will be granted against Corp Tax Saver Deposit.
a. True b. False
c. Loans will be granted at the discretion of the Bank
d. Loans can be granted provided margin is minimum 50%
43. The word “Tax“ under Corp Tax Saver Deposit Scheme refers to __________
a. Wealth Tax b. Gift Tax c. Income Tax d. Road Tax
44. Minimum amount required to open a SB account in Rural branch is Rs. _____
a. 100/- b. 500/- c. 250/- d. 1,000/-
45. Minimum amount required to open an SB account in other than Rural branch is Rs.
_________
a. 100/- b. 500/- c. 250/- d. 1,000/-
46. At present interest is paid at the rate of______% p.a. in SB Deposit account
a. 3.50 b. 2.00 c. 3.5.00 d. 5.00
47. Interest is calculated for the amount in SB account is on ________ products
a. daily b. weekly c. monthly d. Half yearly
48. Interest is credited in SB accounts once in ________
a. Quarterly b. Yearly c. monthly d.Half yearly
49. Corp Classic is a combination of __________.
a. Savings bank b. Term deposit c. Current account d. Both b) & a)
50. At present minimum balance required to open CLSB is Rs._________
a. 15,000/- b. 25,000/- c. 10,000/- d. 5,000/-
51. In CLSB minimum number of units for transferring to term deposit is ______
52. In CorpClassic minimum number of units for transferring to term deposit and then in
multiples of _______units
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53. In CorpClassic the amount per unit is Rs_______

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a. 100/- b. 500/- c. 1,000/- d. 5,000/-
54. Corp Classic can be opened for a minimum period of _________
55. Maximum period for which CorpClassic Deposit account can be opened is __
a. One year b. Two years c. Three years d. Five years
56. In CorpClassic , breaking of DRSN is in multiple of ______units
a. One b. Two c. Three d. Five
57. Corp Payroll is a combination of __________.
a. Savings bank b. Term deposit c. Loan account d. Both c) & a)
58. Minimum QAB required for Corp NewGen account is Rs._______
a. 10/- b. 100/- c. 250/- d. 500/-
59. Special facilities provided for Corp Newgen accounts are__________
a. No annual maintenance charges for debit cards
b. No service charges for SMS banking
c. No service charges for purchase of DD’s/PO’s through the account upto a maximum of 5
instruments per month
d. All the above
60. Corp Newgen accounts may be opened by ______
a. All minors
b. All minors who are students
c. Students who are above 10 years of age
d. All the above
61. Minimum QAB required for CPSB is Rs_______
a. 100/- b. 25/- c. 50/- d. Nil
62. Minimum QAB required to open Current Account in Rural branch is Rs.___
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a. 1,000/- b. 2,500/- c. 5,000/- d. 10,000/-

Page
63. Minimum QAB required to open Current Account in other than Rural branch is Rs.__
a. 1,000/- b. 2,500/- c. 5,000/- d. 10,000/-
63. Current Account should not be opened in the names of __________
a. Minors b. Illiterates c. Blind persons d. All the above
64. Which of the following is not a variants of Current Account?
a. Corp Privilege b. Corp Global c. Corp Club d. Corp Elite
65. Minimum QAB required for Current Account in Rural area is Rs___
a. 10,000/- b. 2,500/- c. 5,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
66. Minimum QAB required for Corp Club Current Account is Rs___
a. 10,000/- b. 25,000/- c. 50,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
67. Minimum QAB required for Corp Privilege Current Account is Rs___
a. 10,000/- b. 5,00,000/- c. 2,50,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
68. Minimum amount required to open KCC at Metro branches is Rs.________
69. Minimum amount required to open KCC in a Rural branch is Rs.________
70. Interest is compounded ________ for KCC deposit
71. Interest is credited ________ for KCC deposit
72. Minimum amount required to open Money flex deposit account is Rs_______
a. 10,000/- b. 15,000/- c. 5,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
73. Minimum amount required to open Corp Recur is Rs_______
a. 100/- b. 500/- c. 1,000/- d. 50/-
74. In Corp Tax Saver Plus deposit scheme, a customer can remit
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a. any number of times with a minimum of Rs.100/-
b. In multiples of Rs.100/-
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c. maximum of Rs.1,50,000/- per FY
d. all the above
75. Lock in period for Corp Tax Saver Plus deposit is _________
a. one year b. Two yesrs c. Three years d. Five years
76. QAB to be maintained in case of Corp Arambh account Rs.___
a. 100/- b. 250/- c. 200/- d. No QAB
77. In case of Corp Arambh SB accounts, total credits in a financial year should not cross Rs.____
a. 50,000/- b. 1,00,000/- c. 15,000/- d. 10,000/-
78. Minimum period for NRE term deposit is _______ months
a. Twelve b. Thirty six c. sixty d. 120
79. NRE term deposit is closed prematurely within a period of 12 months from the date of
deposit, the interest will be paid at _____
a. Savings bank rate b. No interest
c. Interest at, the date of closure d. all the above
80. Under Corp Saral Savings account, free Personal Accident Insurance cover is
81. Minimum QAB to be maintained in case of Corp Signature SB account is Rs.
82. Minimum period of deposit under FCNR[ B ] is _______
a. 12 months b. 24 months c. 60 months d.120 months
83. Minimum QAB required to open Corp Mahila Power account is Rs._______
a. 500/- b. 1,000/- c. 2,000/- d. 2,500/-

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84. Minimum loan amount under Corp M power account is Rs _____

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a. 10,000/- b. 25,000/- c. 50,000/- d. 1,00,000/-

85. Maximum loan amount under Corp M power account is Rs _____
a. 10,000/- b. 25,000/- c. 50,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
86. Free Personal Accident insurance cover, under CorpM power for Rs._____ throughout
the life of the account
a. 1.00 lakh b. 5.00 lakhs c.. 2.00 lakhs d. 10.00 lakhs
87. Minimum QAB to be maintained in case of Corp Super SB account is Rs.____
88. For all practical purposes Photograph required to open an account should be
a. Passport size b. Recent one c. Solo d.All the above
89. No photo is required to open an account for
a. SB account without cheque book facility
b. Term deposit upto Rs.10,000/-
c. Basic Savings Bank Account
d. both a & b
90. SB account is treated as Inoperative if no operation for ______ continuously
a. 2 years b. 1 year c. 6 months d. 90 days
91. CA account is treated as Inoperative if no operation for ______ continuously
a. 2 years b. 2 years c. 6 months d. 90 days
92. Debits in excess of Rs.________ in in-operative account is to be authorized by Branch

Manager
a. 10,000/- b. 25,000/- c. 50,000/- d. 1,00,000/-
93. Only ______ nominee can be accepted for the deposit account under Nomination
facility
a. One b. Two c. Three d. None
94. TDS is exempted for the amount in the following deposit accounts
316
a. SB b. RD c.. NRE d.All the above
95. To get additional interest benefit for the deposits of senior Citizen, period of
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deposit should be for more than ________ days

a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 91
96. To get additional interest benefit for the deposits of senior Citizen, age of
depositor should be ________ years [ completed]
a. 55 b. 58 c. 60 d. 65
97. Additional interest benefit for staff deposits is at___ above applicable rate
a. 1.00 % p.a b. 2.00 % p.a c. 3.00 % p.a d. 0.50 % p.a
98. At the time of Settlement of claims for the deposits of deceased, interest will be calculated
and paid at ___________
a. contracted rate till maturity
b. interest at SB rate – 2% from the date of maturity till the date of payment
c.. in case of premature –without charging penalty
d. all the above
99. Free accident cover in case of Corp Signature SB account is Rs.____
100. Corp Pay Signature (Pay Roll a/c) is for those employees whose gross salary is
more than Rs.___
a. 15,000/- b. 50,000/- c. 75,000/- d. 25,000/-
99. In case of Corp Pragati SB account, free _____ card is issued to the customer
a. Master b. Ru Pay c. Visa d. None of the above
100. Maximum accident insurance cover available for Corp Saral Plus account holder
b. Rs. 1 lakh b. Rs 2 lakh c. Rs 5 lakh d. Rs. 50,000

c.
101. what is the % of additional interest benefit for capital gain account of staff member.
317
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a.1% b. .5% c.1.5% d. no extra benefit.

Lesson :1 KYC
Question corner:
1. As per the KYC guideline the following is not a document for identity proof
a. Passport b. PAN c. Driving licensed. Ration

card
2. As per KYC guideline, while opening the account of a company the identity proof
has to be obtained of the following persons
a.All directors b.Managing director and executive directors
c.Share holders d.Managers, officers or employees holding an

attorney to transact on the company’s behalf
3. KYC guidelines have been issued by RBI under the provisions of
a. Section 35 of Banking Regulation Act b. Section 35-A of RBI Act
c. Section 35-A of Banking Regulation Act d. Section 35-A of Prevention

of Money
Laundering Act
4. Which of the following is the document for proof of customer identity under KYC?
a. Telephone bill b.PAN card c.Electricity bill d.Letter from

employer
2. Under risk categorization, following customers are to be classified under low risk
category
a. Salaried Employees b.Stock broker c. High Net Worth individuals d.

Politically exposed person
7. Submission of details of PAN (Permanent Account Number) is compulsory for

Fixed Deposits, Remittances, such as, DDs if the amount is
a. Rs.10,000/- and above b. Rs.25,000/- and above c. Rs.50,000/- and

318
above d. No such limit

8. While opening an account in the name of a company, the following document/s
is/are to be obtained -
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a. Organisation Chart of the company
b. Roles and responsibilities of the Company
c. Memorandum and Articles of Association of the Company
d. Instructions of the Registrar of the Company
9.. For opening accounts of unincorporated association or a body of individuals,

the following document/s is/are required -
a.resolution of the managing body of such association or body of
individuals
b.power of attorney granted to him to transact on its behalf
c.Aadhaar number; and Permanent Account Number or Form 60 issued to
the person holding, an attorney to transact on its behalf
d. All of the above
10. While opening an account in case of partnership firm, one of the vital
documents to be produced by the firm is -
a. Partners MOU b. Partnership Deed
c. Registration certificate of Partnership d. Signatures of the partners
11. Which among the following is not an OVD for both Identity & Address-
a. Utility Bill
b. Passport
c. Aadhaar Card
d. Driving Licence
12 Full form of OVD

a. Officially Valid Document
b. Officially verifiable document
c. Officially validated document
13. Customer means
a.Person or entity that maintains an account and/or has a business

relationship with the bank;
b.One on whose behalf the account is maintained (i.e., the beneficial owner);
c.Beneficiaries of transactions conducted by professional intermediaries such as

stock brokers, Chartered Accountants, Solicitors, etc., as permitted under the Law
d.All of the above
14.While opening of accounts of Trust, which are the documents required?

a.Trust Deed
b.Registration Certificate
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c.List of Trustee/s
d.All the above
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15.KYC stands for

a.Know your command area
b.Know your customer
c.Know your credit
d.Know your cash
16.High risk customers are

a.Salaried Employees
b.Import/export
c.High Net worth individuals
d.Government Departments and Govt. owned companies
17.As per the KYC guideline if the customer submits his telephone bill.
Telephone bills not older than?
a.6 months
b.12 months
c.2 months
d.9 months
18.Key elements of KYC Policy:
a.Customer Acceptance Policy;

b.Customer Identification Procedures;
c.Monitoring of Transactions
d.All of the above
Lesson :2 E- KYC
Question corner:
1. CIDR stands for

a. Central Identities Data Repository
b. Central Information Data Repository
c. Central Institute of Data Repository
d. Central Institute of data Research
2. Biometric information of Aadhar Number holder are stored in
a.UIDAI
b.CIDR
c.RBI
d.SEBI
3. Use of Aadhar number shall be subject to provisions of
a. Sec.8 and Chapter VI of Aadhar Act

b. Sec.6 and Chapter V of Aadhar Act
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c. Sec .7 and Chapteer VI of Aadhar Act

d. Sec.8 and Chapter VI of Aadhar Act
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4. Aadhar number to be submitted by the customer who has opened

account without submitting the same at the time of account opening within a
period of
a.6 months from the date of the commencement of account based
relationship
b.3 months from the date of the commencement of account based relationship
c. 2 months from the date of the commencement of account based relationship
d.12 months from the date of the commencement of account based relationship
5 Following are the modes of e-kyc authentication
a.Demographic Authentication,
b.OTP based authentication
c.Bio Metric authentication.
d.All of the above
6 Aadhaar is mandatory for opening accounts in the following states
a.Jammu and Kashmir,

b.Assam
c.Meghalaya
d.Sikkim
7 Bio-metric authentication is verification of
a.Iris
b.Finger print
c.Signature
d.Both a & b
8 Consent of the customer in the prescribed format is mandatory for

a.Seeding of aadhaar in the account
b.Seeding & E-KYC authentication
c.Both a & b
d.None of the above
9. Branches should authenticate the AADHAAR
a. before its seeding to the account b. after its seeding to the account
c. No need of authentication d. it can be verified with hard copy only.
10. When the account holder visits the branches for Aadhaar authentication, Branches
may utilise this opportunity
a. to obtain latest mobile number e-mail ID/address and other relevant details of
the account holder,
b.Branches should not take any other document at that time.
c.Branches should use that opportunity only if specific instruction is received from
Head Office.
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Lesson: 3 C- KYC
Question Corner:
1. Utility bills as OVD’s for address proof should not be more than
a.1 month
b.2 months
c.3 months
d.6 months
2. Small account means a savings account in which aggregate of all credits in a
financial year does not exceed
a.1 lakh
b.50000
c.25000
d.2 lakhs
3.Small account means a savings account in which aggregate of all withdrawals and
transfers in a month does not exceed
a. Rs.10000
b. Rs.15000
c. Rs. 25000
d.Rs.50000
4.Small account means a savings account in which the balance at any point of time
does not exceed
a.Rs.25000
b.Rs.50000
c.Rs.100000
d. Rs.10000
5.Small account may be opened on the basis
a.Only with KYC documents
b.A self attested photograph and affixation of signature / thumb print
c.An introduction from existing customer
d.Introduction by our branch staff
6.Evidence for having applied for any of the OVD’s in case of small account has to be
produced to banking company within ______ months from opening of account.
a.12 months
b.6 months
c.3 months
d. 24 months
7.On submission of evidence for having applied for OVD’s to banking company in a small
account within the stipulated period from opening ,the account can be reviewed for a
further period of
a.12 months from the date of production of proof
b.9 months from the date of production of proof
c.6 months from the date of production of proof
d.3 months from the date of production of proof
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8. In the event of any change in address given for account opening to bank, the change of
address should be intimated to bank along with the following:
a.Proof of changed address is required to be submitted
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b.No fresh proof is required

c. Only information in writing is sufficient
d.Customer is required to intimate in person only
9.In terms of PML Act a ‘person’ includes:
a.An individual,
b.A Hindu undivided family,
c.A company,
d. All the above
10. As per KYC policy proof of address change/relocation is to be submitted to the branch
by the account holder within a period of
a.1 month
b.2 months
c.2 weeks
d.3 months
10. As per KYC norms for a company, the beneficial owner who is a natural person or
group of persons who are deemed to be persons having controlling ownership interest
when they own __% or more shares or capital profits of the company
a.5% b.10% c.15% d.25% e. None of these

11. For a foreign student to open a NRO bank account the KYC documents required are
a.Passport( With visa & immigration endorsed., a photograph and offer letter
from educational institution.
b.Only passport copy is sufficient
c.Letter from educational institution is sufficient.
d.Photograph self attested along with admission letter from educational
institution.
12.In NRO account of a foreign student the declaration and verification of local address
should be conducted within a period of _____ days.
a.7 b.15 c.30 d.60
13.Pending verification of local address the foreign remittances and monthly withdrawal
cap in the NRO foreign student account is
a.USD 1000 and Rs.50000 respectively

b.USD 5000 and Rs.5000 respectively
c.USD 1000 and Rs.5000 respectively
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d.USD 5000 and Rs. 50000 respectively
14.Students with Pakistani and Bangladeshi nationality for opening NRO savings account
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need prior Approval of

a.Ministry of Finance
b.Ministry of Home Affairs
c.RBI
d.HO- KYC & AML division
15.For a foreign national with passport having immigration and visa stamping,the same can
be verified with
a.Nearest Passport office
b.RBI
c.CBI
d.Ministry of External Affairs, New Delhi..
16.FPI stands for

a.Foreign Portfolio Investors
b.Foreign Portfolio Investments
c. Future Portfolio Index
d. Federal Portfolio index.
17. PEP’s stand for
a.Politically Exposed Persons
b.Potential Enterpreneur Programme
c.Portflio Experienced Persons
d.Public Enterprise Portfolio
18. PIS stands for
a.Portfolio Investment Scheme
b.Public Investment scheme
c.Political Investment scheme
d.Project Investment Schedule
19. FPI’s should be duly registered with
a.SEBI
b.RBI
c.NSDL
d.BSE
Lesson-4 Re- KYC

Question Corner:
1. CDD requirements for periodic updation is called
a.E-KYC b.Re-KYC c. C-KYC d. Only KYC
2. Full KYC exercise (Re-KYC) shall continue to be done at least every …. Years for
high risk individuals
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a.5 b.2 c.8 d.10 e.1

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3. Full KYC exercise (Re-KYC) shall be done at least every …… years for low risk
individuals and entities.
a.5 b.2 c.8 d.10 e.1
4. Full KYC exercise (Re-KYC) shall be done at least every … years for Medium risk
individuals and entities.
a.5 b.2 c.8 d.10 e.1
5. As per RBI guidelines on KYC & AML , Branches should periodically update the
following :
a. Address of the Customer only b.Complete profile of the

Customer
c. No need of updation d.only photo of the
Customer
6. Fresh proof of identity & address is not required at the time of periodic updation where
there is no change in status with respect to the identity & address for
a.Low risk customers

b.Medium risk customers
c.High risk customers
d.None of the above
7. At the time of periodic updation, if there is change of address, the customer can
merely forward a certified copy of the proof of address by mail/post and branches
should not insist on the physical presence of the customer for
a.Low risk customers

b.Medium risk customers
c.High risk customers
d.None of the above
8.A minor customer on becoming major, should submit
a.Fresh photographs
b.Address Proof
c.Identity Proof
d.None of the above
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9.Since bank has taken a decision to dispense with obtention of introduction for
opening all types of account, branches are required to implement
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a.Document based verification of identity

b.Verification of PAN through the NSDL link provided in the Intranet of the Bank
c.Confirm address through sending ‘Letter of Thanks’ by Registered Post A.D.
d.All of the above
10. As per RBI guidelines, Bank has taken a decision to dispense with obtention of
introduction for the following types of Account:
a. SB only b. CA only c. FD only d. all types of accounts
Lesson :5 KYC & AML Risk Management Measures
Question corner:
1. “Money Mules” can be used
a. to launder the proceeds of fraud schemes (e.g., phishing and identity theft)
b.to open SB account only

c.to deposit low value denominations of cash
d.None of the above
2. Role of the concurrent auditors / Internal auditors with KYC is to -

a. Review of compliance of KYC guidelines
b. Effectiveness of the implementation of the KYC
c.. Verification of newly opened accounts and their transactions
d. All of the above
3. Which of the following transactions is/are not consistent with a salaried

customer’s account?
a. Frequent deposits of cash in large sums by third parties
b. Deposit of cheques issued by foreign companies
c. High value transactions routed through the account with high frequency
d. All of the above
4. Which of the following transactions is/are suspicious from AML angle -

a. Large volume of credits happen through DDs/NEFT/RTGS/ECS, etc.,
b. Deposit of several small values of cheques
c. Frequent deposits of cash into the account by persons other than the
account holder or his authorised representative
d.. All of the above
5. Permanent account number (PAN) of customers shall be obtained and verified

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while
undertaking transactions as per the provisions of
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a.Income Tax Act

b.Company Act
c.MSME Act
d.RBI Act
6. If branch has a reason to believe that a customer is intentionally structuring a
transaction into a series of transactions below the threshold of Rs.50, 000/- the
branch should verify the identity and address of the customer and inform
a. RBI
b. HO-KYC & AML
c. FIU- IND
d. CVC
7. On receipt of reports from branches on intentional structuring of transactions
below the threshold of Rs.50000/- HO- KYC & AML may report the same to
a. CBI
b. FIU- IND
c. CVC
d. RBI
8. To comply with the guidelines issued by RBI on Decoy customers Zonal office should
depute one person to the branches for the above activity on an____________ basis
a. Quarterly
b. Half yearly
c. Monthly
d. Yearly
9. The status report submitted by Zonal offices should be consolidated by HO- KYC &
AML division and placed before the board on ____________ basis
a. Quarterly
b. Half yearly
c. Monthly
d. Yearly
10. Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) shall utilize the ‘at par’ cheque facility
for the following purposes:
a.For their own use.

b.For their account holders who are KYC compliant provided that all transactions
of Rs.50,000/- or more should be strictly by debit to the customer’s account.
c.For walk-in customers against cash for less than Rs.50,000/- per individual
d.All of the Above
11. Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) shall issue _________ type of ‘at par’
cheques
a.Crossed ‘Account Payee’ cheque

b.Bearer cheque
c.Order Cheques
d.No at par cheques can be issued
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12. Walk-in Customers means-
a.Person who is having an account with the Bank

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b.Person who does not have an account based relationship with the Bank but
undertake transactions.
c.Person visiting the branch for purchase of Demand Drafts only
d.None of the above
13. Branches should not make payment of cheques/drafts/pay orders/banker’s
cheques if they are presented beyond period of ______ months from the date
of such instrument.
a.Three months
b.Six months
c.Eight Months
d.None of the Above
14. Full Form of UCIC –
a.United Customer Information code

b.Unique Customer Identification Code
c.Unique Core Identity Code
d.None of the above
15. Risk categorization shall be undertaken based on –
a.Social/financial status
b.Nature of business Activity
c.Information about clients business and their location
d.All of the above.
Lesson- 6 CORRESPONDENT BANKING AND SHELL

BANK
Question corner:
1. As per KYC & AML Policy of our Bank, information/records are to be maintained for a
minimum period of _____ years
a. Seven b. Fifteen c. Ten d. Twenty
2. While accounts are transferred from one branch to another, the receiving
branch is
expected to comply with KYC Norms. Which one of the following is/are correct
in this
regard?
a. Detailed verification of Customer Profile as received from the earlier
branch is to be done with caution
b. Detailed verification is not needed but the account is opened
immediately
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and informed to the customer

c. Fresh details are to be obtained and a fresh customer profile is to
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be
prepared
d. No transaction is to be permitted for the first six months till the
customer
is fully know to the bank
3.. Which of the following is a source of identification of new customer who is not
having any valid documents such as, passport, DL, Voter ID, etc.
a. Introduction from the third person having an account with the bank
/branch
b. Introduction given the Safe deposit locker holder of the bank
c. Self–declaration given by the new customer along with duly filled in
A/C
opening Forms with Photograph for small accounts.
4. Letter of thanks is sent to Account holder because it is -

a. laid down in the banks’ manual
b. a routine practice followed by banks for years
c. recommended by the Auditors of banks
d. Positive confirmation of address
5.Four eyes concept means -
a. opening and verifying of account by one person two times
b. opening and verifying of account by electronic device/s
c. opening and verifying of account by two different persons
6. Role of the concurrent auditors / Internal auditors with KYC is to -

a. Review of compliance of KYC guidelines
b. Effectiveness of the implementation of the KYC
c. Verification of newly opened accounts and their transactions
d. All of the above
7. For effective implementation of “Know Your Employee”, measures to be

adopted by the banks are -
a. Verification of the life-styles of the employees
b. Proper Job-rotation in work environment
c. Not allowing frequent cheque purchase to the employees by the
employer
d. All of the above
8. Shell Bank means-
a. A bank which undertakes transferring of funds between bank accounts.
b. A Bank which has no physical presence and is not affiliated to any

regulated financial group.
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c. A nodal bank which monitors all the transactions.

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9. Wire transfers means-
a. Transaction carried out on behalf of an originator person through a bank by

electronic means with a view to making an amount of money available to a
beneficiary person at a bank.
b. Any transaction where originator and receiver are located in the same country.
c. Any transaction where originator and beneficiary are located in different country..
d. All of the above.
10. Ordering Bank means-
a. A Bank which receives fund.
b. A Bank that originates a wire transfer as per order placed by its customer.
c. A Bank processing an intermediary element of a chain of wire transfers.
11. The intermediary Bank shall preserve the information received from ordering
Bank for a ______ period as required by PML act 2002.
a. 4 years
b. 5 years.
c. 10 years
d. 6 Years
12. According to KYC & AML Policy of our Bank, Branches shall maintain transaction
details for ________ period.
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 8 years.
d. 1 Year.
13. Branches shall ensure that records pertaining to the identification of the
customers and their address obtained while opening account and during the
course of business relationship shall be preserved for _______ after the
business relationship is ended.
a. 5 years.
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b. 8 years.
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c. 10 years.
d. 6 years.
14. The amount beyond which cash transactions (Receipts & Payments) are to be
monitored/reported by the Commercial Banks to FIU-IND as per guidelines is -
a.Rs.5 lacs & above b. Rs.8 lacs & above c. Rs.10 lacs & above d. No such
limit
Lesson:7 REPORTING REQUIREMENTS

Question corner:
1. What is Money Laundering ?
a. Process of making dirty money appear clean money b.Huge transaction in the
account
c. Routing of legitimate transactions in the account d. All the above
2. What is the periodicity for reporting “CTR “ by the branches?
a. Fortnightly b. Quarterly c. Half yearly d. Monthly
3. " STR” stands for
a. Suspicious Transactions Report b. Summary of Cash Transaction

Report
c. Sum Total Report d. All the above
4. The term “dirty money “refers to
a. Cut/Soiled/Mutilated notes b.Money arising out of Profits of criminal/illegal
activities c. Currency not in circulation d. All the above
5.. " FIU-IND” stands for

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a. Financial Intelligence Unit-India b. Financial Information Unit-India
c. Freedom for Individuals Union- Indiad. All the above

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6. The Cash Transaction Report [CTR] is to be submitted by banks to
a. RBI b. FIU-IND c. Finance Ministry d.

SEBI
7. The main activity of the Financial Intelligence Unit India [FIU-IND] is to control
a. Terrorism b.Corruption c. Tax Evasion d.Money

Laundering
8. The violation of KYC principles will attract penalty by the following:
a.Reserve Bank of India b. Internal Audit
c. Cyber crime d. Enforcement Directorate
9. . As per KYC & AML. guidelines, the suspicious transactions’ report is to be

submitted
a. within 3 days of close of the month

b. within 7 days of date of confirmation of suspicion
c. within 3 days of date of date of confirmation of suspicion
d. within 15 days of close of the month
10. The branches of our bank should report suspicious transactions to –
a. HO-KYC & AML Cell b. RBI c. Ministry of Finance d. None of the above
11.Banks submit Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) to

a. RBI
b. CBI
c. FIU-IND
d. Directorate of Enforcement
e. Indian Banks Association
12. Shell Banks are

a. Permitted in India with strict rules
b. Permitted in India with limited operations
c. Permitted in India on case to case basis
d. Not permitted in India
13. Cash transaction report is sent to

a. RBI
b. CBDT
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c. CONTROLOING OFFICE
d. FIU-IND
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14. As per recent guidelines, if a locker is not operated for more than--------- year
in case of High Risk category customers, the bank can either advise him to operate
or surrender the locker.
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 1 year
d. discretion of banks
15. The report of all transactions involving receipts by non- profit organizations of value
more than
rupees ______ lakh or its equivalent in foreign currency should be submitted every
month to
the Director, FIU- IND by ______ of the succeeding month in the prescribed format.
a. 10 & 1 st
b. 5 & 10 th
c. 10 & 15 th
d. 5 & 10 th
16. Cross-border Wire Transfer Report (CWTR) is required to be filed with FIU-IND by
_____ of
succeeding month for all cross border wire transfers of the value of more than
_____lakh
rupees or its equivalent in foreign currency where either the origin or destination
of fund is in
India.
a. 15 th & Rs. 5 Lakhs

b. 10 th & Rs.10 lakhs
c. 15 th & Rs. 10 lakhs
d. 10 th & Rs. 5 lakhs
17.Branch should report the following transactions to HO-KYC & AML Cell in terms of
Branch alert indicators for Suspicious Transaction:
a. Customer offered false or forged identification

documents/address documents
b. Routing of funds through multiple accounts.
c. Both a & b
18.CBWTR stands for

a. Cross Border Wire Transfer Report b. Cross Border Wire Transaction
Report
c. Cross Border Wireless Transfer Report d. Cross Border Wire Telegraphic
Report
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Lesson 8 FATCA & CRS
Question corner:
1. Due diligence is done at the time of opening an account to enable banks to

ensure -
a. identification of the customer at the time of opening an account
b. correctness of the various denominations of notes given by the
customer
while opening an account
c. authenticity of the signatures of the customer at the time of opening
an
account
d. speeding up the process of account opening of the new customers
2"IGA" means
a. Inter Governmental Agreement between the Governments of India and the USA to
improve international tax compliance and to implement FATCA of the USA.
b. "IGA" means Inter Governmental Agreement between the Governments of India and the
UK to
improve international tax compliance and to implement FATCA of the USA.
c. Neither a nor b
d.Both a and b
3. FCRA means -
a. Foreign Currency Regulation Act b. Foreign Contribution Regulation
Act
c. Foreign Cheques / Commodities Regulation Act d. None of the above
4. The term “Hawala” is related to

a. Money Laundering b. Cash Deposits c. Permitted in India
d. Islamic
Banking
5. Money Laundering measures were originally introduced by act?

a. DICGC b. EXIM Bank c. FDIC d. SEBI e. PMLA
6. “Designated Director”, as required under provisions of the Prevention of Money

334
Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005, is
a) Executive Director of the bank b) Asst. Director c) Effective

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Director d) Eligible Director

7. FATCA stands for
a. Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act b. Foreign Accountant Tax

Compliance Act
c. Foreigner Accounting Tax Compliance Act d. Foreign country Account TAX

Compliance Act
7. CRS stands for
a. Common Reporting Standard b. Common Reply Standard
c. Common Relationship Standard d. Common Relay Standard
9. With reference to the HO Circular No. 523/2014 dated 10.07.2014 regarding Foreign
Account
Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) wherein the branches were advised to obtain-
a.“Full KYC details like passport number, country of citizenship/resident, tax

identification numbers, contact details including full address, telephone numbers,
email ids etc., in all accounts
b. Full KYC details like passport number, country of citizenship/resident, tax identification
numbers, contact details including full address, telephone numbers, email ids etc., in SB
accounts only
c. Re-KYC is not required
10. In case of accounts operated by power of attorney
a. the details of the POA including the name, address including country, telephone
number, email, country of tax residency, taxpayer identification number [TIN
(assigned in the country of residence)] and date and place of birth etc.to be collected
at the time of opening the account for new account holders.
b. No details required of Power of Attorney Holder because details of Account holder is

available.
c. the details of the POA name & address only is sufficient.
d. POA is not permitted under FATCA.

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Page
126. As per MSMED Act, a Micro (Manufacturing) enterprise is one in which the investment in
plant & machinery should not exceed Rs. ____
b. 10 lakh b. 25 lakh c. 1 Cr d. 5 Cr
127. As per MSMED Act, a Micro (Service) enterprise is one in which the investment in equipment
should not exceed Rs. ____
b. 10 lakh b. 25 lakh c. 1 Cr d. 5 Cr
128. Loan up to Rs. _____ to Khadi and Village industries can be classified under Priority sector -
SME
f. 25lakh b. 1 Cr c. 5 Cr d. any amount
129. Loan up to Rs. _____ to Small & Micro (Manufacturing) units can be classified under Priority
sector - SME
g. 10 lakh b. 5 Cr c. 1 Cr d. any amount
130. Loan up to Rs. _____ to Small & Micro (Service) units can be classified under Priority sector
- SME
a.10 lakh b. 5 Cr c. 1 Cr d. any amount
131. Loans to retail trade up to Rs. ____ lakh may be classified under Priority Sector –
MSE (Services)
b. 20 b. 40 c. 500 d. any amount
132. The 5th digit CIS Sector Code for Medium Manufacturing and Service Activity is
a. N and S b. P and M c. N and K d.B and D
133. Which of the following is not a SME (manufacturing) activity?

a. Power Generation b. Piggery farm with bacon processing
c.Cotton Ginning d.Retreading of tyre
134. Which of the following is a SME (Service) activity?

a. Pathology Lab b. Education Institution c. Power Distribution d.All of them
135. New General Credit Card Scheme (NCGCC) is replaced with

a. CGCC b. Artisan Credit Card c. CLUCC d. PMMY
136. The CGTMSE scheme is not applicable to ____

a. Retail Trade b. Educational Institution c. SHG d. b and c
137. Under CGTMSE, Bank may invoke guarantee within ___ years form date of NPA, if
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account becomes NPA after lock in period in respect of accounts where date on NPA is prior
to 15.03.2018.
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a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5
138. Maximum guarantee cover(in case of claim) available under CGTMSE scheme is Rs.
____ lakh
a. 50 b. 75 c. 100 d. Total Limit of loan
139. As per CIS, the 5th digit sector code applicable to SME (Manufacturing) units under
priority sector
a. M b. N c. S d. P
th
140. As per CIS, the 5 digit sector code applicable to Rs. 7 crore loan to a micro
enterprise manufacturing poultry feed is ____
b. A b. N c. S d. M
141. The Nodal Agency for implementing Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme (CLCSS) is
___
b. NABARD b. SIDBI c. KVIC d. IDBI
142. The Risk weightage applicable to loans covered under CGTMSE scheme is
a.10% b. 15% c. 25% d. 0%
143. Under Corp SME Gold Card Scheme the customer gets
a. Two drawals each not exceeding 10% of sanctioned limit, each for a max period of 90
days b.1% reduction interest and 5% reduction in margin c. 10% subsidy
d. Both (b) & (c) above
144. Under Corp SME Credit Card receivable loan the borrower gets
a. 40-56 days free credit b. 90 days free credit c. Easy instalments for repaying
credit card dues d. 25 lakh or 75% of average credit card receivables
145. Under Corp Auto+ and Tex+ schemes loans are given to
a. Working Capital to Textile and Auto sectors b. Project finance to Textile and Auto Sectors
c. Both the above d. None of the above
146. An overdraft account given to SMEs against 65% value of immovable property or
90% of financial assets is known as:
a. Corp Mortgage Scheme b. Corp SME Liquid Plus c. Corp SME Venture Capital fund
d. Corp SME Gold Card Scheme
147. Maximum loan under Corp Term Plus loan Scheme is Rs. _______ crore.
a. I b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
148. Maximum loanamount under Corp Liquid Plus Loan Scheme is Rs _________ crore
a. 2 crore b. 3 crore c. 5 crore d. 6 crore
149. Under Corp SME Credit Card Receivable Funding, the maximum loan amount is Rs.
____ lakh.
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a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25
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150. Credit facility up to Rs. ______ lakh sanctioned to MSEs (both manufacturing and
service sector are covered under CGTMSE.
a. 50 b. 100 c. 200 d. 300
151. CGTMSE was set up as a Trust in August of the year _______ and is administered by
a Board of Trustees
a. 1999 b. 2000 c. 2001 d. 2002
152. Government of India and Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) – the
settlors Contribution ratio is ________
b. 4:1 b. 3:1 c. 2:1 d. 1:1
153. Credit facilities extended jointly by two or more banks / institutions to a single
borrower, ___________ for guarantee cover.
b. Is eligible b. is not eligible
154. CGTMSE covers ______________.

a. only fund based loans b. only non-fund based loans c. Both
155. Under CGTMSE, credit proposals above Rs.______ lakh will have to be rated
internally and should be of investment grade.
a. 25 b. 50 c.100 d.200
156. Under CGTMSE, Credit Facility of above Rs.200 lakh can also be covered, but
Guarantee Cover will be limited to Rs. ______ lakh.
a. 25 b. 50 c.75 d. 100
157. Certain activities under Agri-Clinics and Agri-Business Centres (ACABCs) like Tissue
Culture, Feed Processing & Testing Units, Honey & Bee product processing units, Seed
Processing Units, Setting up of Information Kiosks / Cool Chain, etc. are eligible for
guarantee cover under the scheme
a. No b. Yes
158. Inclusion of MSE Retail Trade and introduction of Hybrid security product allowing
partial collateral security under CGTMSE is w.e.f. _________.
a. 01.04.2018 b. 01.06.2018 c. 28.02.2018 d. 01.01.2018
159. Under CGTMSE the maximum extent of Guarantee cover for credit facility to Micro
Enterprises up to Rs. 5 lakh is Rs. _______.
a. 5 b. 4.25 c. 4 d. 3.5
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160. The maximum loan amount under MUDRA is Rs. ____ lakh.
c. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 25
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161. MUDRA loans cover the following activities
a. Manufacturing b. Services c. Trade d. All a, b & c
162. OD facility sanctioned under PMJDY is also eligible to be classified under PMMY .
a. No b. Yes
163. Under PMMY, loan scheme up to Rs. 50,000/- is called.

a. Shishu b. Kishore c. Tarun d.Vishal
164. Under PMMY, loan scheme above Rs. 50,000/-and up to Rs. 5 lakh is called.
165. Under PMMY, loan scheme above Rs. 5 lakh and up to Rs. 10 lakh is called.
166. For loan up to Rs. 50,000/- the margin requirement on the capital investment to be
made.is __________%
a.10 b. 15 c. 20 d.25
167. MUDRA loans can be given as

a. Term Loan only b. Working Capital loan only c. Both a & b
168. All MUDRA loans excluding jewel loans up to Rs.50,000/ [SHISHU loans] both
Working Capital and Term loans and for existing as well as new new loans are to be charged
at _____ w.e.f. 01.03.2018
a. MCLR b. MCLR + 1% c. MCLR + 2% d. Base Rate
169. Under MUDRA, maximum repayment period for Term Loans is ____ years.
a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8
170. Under MUDRA

a. Assets financed are Primary Security b. No Collateral Security
c. CGFMU cover d. All a, b & c
171. Nomenclature for Cash Credit Account under MUDRA Yojana is.
a. PMYTL b. PMYOD c. PMYCC d. CLUCC
Enterprises above Rs. 5lakh up to Rs. 50 lakh is Rs. _____
339
a. 25 b. 37.50 c. 40 d. 50
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Enterprises above Rs. 50lakh up to Rs. 200lakh is Rs. _____
a. 25 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200
174. Under CGTMSE the maximum extent of Guarantee cover (per cent of amount in
default subject to maximum of Rs. 100 lakh) for credit facility to Micro Enterprises above Rs.
50lakh up to Rs. 200 lakh is _____% for cases sanctioned / renewed on or after April 01,
2018.
a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100
175. For Women Entrepreneurs / units located in North East region (other than credit
facility up to Rs. 5 lakh to Micro Enterprises), the maximum extent of CGTMSE Guarantee,
where credit facility is up to Rs. 50 lakh is Rs. _____ lakh.
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d.40
176. For all other categories of borrowers except Women Entrepreneurs / units located in
North East region (other than credit facility up to Rs. 5 lakh to Micro Enterprises), the
maximum extent of CGTMSE Guarantee, where credit facility is up to Rs. 50 lakh is Rs.
_____ lakh.
a. 10 b. 20 c. 37.5 d.40
Enterprises up to Rs. 5 lakh is _______ % of the amount in default subject to a maximum of
Rs. 4.25 lakh.
a. 25 b. 50 c.85 d. 100
178. The credit facility extended to MSE Retail Traders can now be covered under Credit
Guarantee Scheme of CGTMSE subject to exposure limit for credit facility of Retail Trade
segment is from Rs. _____lakh to Rs. ___ lakh per MSE borrower.
a. 10 to 100 b. 20 to 200 c. 5 to 50 d. 50 to 100
179. The extent of Guarantee cover for credit facilities extended to MSE Retail Traders
would be _____% irrespective of the category of the borrower.
a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100
180. Under CGTMSE, for Term Loans, the AGF would be calculated on the outstanding
amount as on 31st ___________ against each guarantee amount w.e.f 1st April. 2018.
a. March b. June c. December d. November
181. Under CGTMSE, the demand for AGF would be generated by 2nd week of ________
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every year.
a. January b. February c. March d. April
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182. AGF demanded by CGTMSE would have to be paid to CGTMSE on or before 15th
________ each year.
a. January b. February c. March d. April
183. Under CGTMSE, if the guaranteed account gets closed due to non-payment of AGF,
on the request for revival of accounts, an additional risk premium of ______% will be
charged on the Standard Rate in addition to the existing differential pricing structure and
penal interest, if any.
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
184. In the partial collateral security model, Branches are allowed to obtain collateral
security for a part of the credit facility, whereas the remaining part of the credit facility, up
to a maximum of Rs. _______ lakh, can be covered under Credit Guarantee Scheme of
CGTMSE.
a.50 b. 100 c. 200 d. 300
185. Under CGTMSE, the AGF is calculated based on the _________ amount for loans
sanctioned on or after April 01, 2018.
a. Sanctioned Amount b. Outstanding Amount
186. CGTMSE has increased the extent of guarantee coverage to _____% for credit
facilities of Rs.50 lakh and above with an increase in the Annual Guarantee Fee (AGF) on the
outstanding amount for the cases sanctioned on or after April 01, 2018.
a. 25 b. 50 c. 75 d. 100
187. Under CGTMSE, Bank may invoke guarantee within ___ years form date of NPA, if
account becomes NPA after lock in period in respect of accounts which have slipped to NPA
on or after 15th March 2018.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5
188. For setting up of new Micro Enterprise unit under PMEGP maximum cost of the
project /unit admissible under manufacturing sector is Rs. ______ lakh
a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d.30
189. For setting up of new Micro Enterprises under PMEGP maximum cost of the project
/ unit admissible under service sector is Rs. ______lakh
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d.30
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190. Under PMEGP, beneficiary’s contribution (of project cost) for general category is
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_____% for setting a new Micro Enterprise unit.

a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d.30
191. Under PMEGP, rate of subsidy (of project cost) for general category in Urban area is
____% for setting a new Micro Enterprise unit.
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d.30
192. Under PMEGP, Rate of Subsidy (of project cost) for general category in rural area is
____% for setting a new Micro Enterprise unit.
a. 10 b. 15 c. 25 d.30
193. For setting up of project costing above Rs.10 lakh in the manufacturing sector and
above Rs. 5 lakh in the business /service sector, the beneficiaries should possess at least
_____ standard pass educational qualification.
a. 7th b. 8th c. 9th d.10th
194. As per the definition population in a rural area should not exceed _____ persons.
a. 20000 b. 30000 c. 40000 d. 50000
195. The maximum cost of project / unit admissible under manufacturing sector for
upgradation under PMEGP is Rs._______.
a. Rs.25 lakh b. Rs. 50 lakh c. Rs.75 lakh d. Rs. One crore
196. The maximum subsidy for project / unit admissible under manufacturing sector for
upgradation under PMEGP is Rs._______.
a. Rs.5 lakh b. Rs. 10 lakh c. Rs.15 lakh d. Rs. 25lakh
197. The maximum cost of project / unit admissible under service sector for upgradation
under PMEGP is Rs._______.
a. Rs.25 lakh b. Rs. 50 lakh c. Rs.75 lakh d. Rs. One crore
198. The village industry as per PMEGP is the one where the investment per head of full
time artisan or worker is restricted to Rs. ______ lakh in plain area.
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a. Rs. 1 lakh b. Rs. 2 lakh c. Rs. 3 lakh d. Rs. 4lakh

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199. The village industry as per PMEGP is the one where the investment per head of full
time artisan or worker is restricted to Rs. ______ lakh in hilly areas.
a. Rs. 1.5 lakh b. Rs. 2.5 lakh c. Rs. 3.5 lakh d. Rs. 4.5 lakh
200. Eligible activities for finance under PMEGP are
a. Manufacturing & Services b. Trading & Transport c. Only a d. a & b
201. MUDRA is a subsidiary of
a. ASSOCHAM b. NABARD c. FICCI d. SIDBI
202. With introduction of PMMY, the sanctions under the following nomenclature is
discontinued.
a. CLUCC b. NCGCC c. CSCC d. All a, b & c
203. The scheme code allotted for Mudra loans is

a. 00065 b. 00066 c. 00067 d.00068
204. Existing running accounts shall be renewed with ____ Nomenclature only, except for the
accounts renewed without any enhancement in the existing limit.
a. new b. old
205. Existing term loans shall be continued with _____ nomenclature till maturity / closure.
a. new b. old
206. While opening loan accounts under new Nomenclature, Branches have to
a. obtain fresh Documents b. need not obtain fresh Documents
207. Structured financial statements like Balance Sheet, P & L account, Project Report, Stock
Statements need not be insisted for loans up to Rs. _____ lakh.
a. 1 b. 4 c. 5 d. 10
208. Stock statements shall be obtained on quarterly basis for loans above Rs. ___ lakh
a. 1 b. 4 c. 5 d. 10
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209. For issue of MUDRA Card, Branches have to give _____ under ATM application entry MENU
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under CBS.
a. MY b. MP c. MU d. ML
210. For loans canvassed by Corp Bank Mitras, new scheme code to used is
a. 00065 b. 00066 c. 00068 d.00069
211. Credit facilities with maximum interest rate of ----- and above shall not be eligible for
coverage under CGTMSE.
a. 7% b.10% c.12% d.14%
212. Credit facilities above Rs._____ lakh and upto Rs.____ lakh will have to be internally rated by
Zones/Brancghes and should be of investment grade to be eligible for CGTMSE coverage.
a. Rs.50 lakhs and Rs.100 lakhs
b. Rs.25 lakh and Rs.100 lakhs
c. Rs.50 lakh and Rs.200 lakhs
d. Rs.25 lakh and Rs.200 lakhs
213. MSMEs, engaged in providing or rendering of services as defined in terms of investment in
equipment under MSMED Act,2006, shall qualify under priority sector if the investment in
equipment is upto
a.10lakhs
b.20 lakhs
c. 50 lakhs
d.No limit
214. Under CGTMSE, Bank may invoke guarantee within ___ years form date of NPA,
if account becomes NPA after lock in period in respect of accounts where date on NPA is
after to 15.03.2018.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5
215. Under PMEGP scheme,Working Capital Component should not be more than 40% of the
Project cost for manufacturing units and not more than 60% of the project cost for the units
under service/ trading sector
a. 40% & 60%
b. 60% & 40%
c. 25% & 75%
d. 50% & 50%
1. At Zonal offices CMC (credit monitoring cell ) has been established for monitoring of the
account above _______ lakhs which tend to fall under NPA category,
a. One , b. five , c. ten d. hundred .
2. The CMC consists of members from _______ the department in zonal office
a. Credit b. crmd c. iad d all (CRMD,IAD,Credit).
3. The work of the CMC is to monitor accounts sanctioned by ________________.
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a. Branch b, ZLCC , C.CLCC d. HLCC E. all

4. The objective of credit monitoring cell are_____________
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a. Supplementing the action of branches in post sanction monitoring of accounts.

b. Credit monitoring \ management will get streamlined resulting in improvement in the
health of credit portfolio.
c. Focused monitoring will bring down the irregularities and improve inspection ratings.
d. Centralised post-sanction monitoring will help the sanctioning authority to have a feel of
the conduct of the account and help in quick decision making in case of incremental
credit needs of the borrower.
e. Streamlined monitoring will help in ensuring end-use of funds.
f. Close monitoring will help in early detection of warning signals of potential problematic
accounts.
g. Centralised monitoring will help in containing fresh slippages and delinquency.
h. All
5. The CMC can assess the _________in the account and recommend for initiation of prompt
and remedial action at the right time
a. weaknesses, b strengths c. outstanding balance d. sanctioning flaws
6. The CMC has to verify the ________________ of the account in the CORE system and
analyse the _______ , inform the branches to rectify the same.
a. Closing , errors b. opening , error c. modification , roi d. maintenance , tod
7. The CRMD official in the CMC shall look after the __________ of the accounts such as
counter checking of periodical statements, _________ and also monitoring the operations in
the accounts through CORE system,
Which option is correct
a. Operations –a obtention & verification of DP calculations –b
b. obtention & verification of DP calculations – a , operations – b
8. The details of PNPA are received by the CMC to analyse and distribute the same to the
staff of zonal office branch wise for enquiring , in turn the branch should send the details
to _______ and further they will compile , send to _______ for further rectification .
a, zonal office, ncbs b. branches , ncbs c. head office , ncbs d. circle office , core
centre.
9. The CRMD official in the CMC shall look after the __________of the accounts such as
counter checking of____________, obtention & verification of ________and also
monitoring the operations in the accounts through CORE system
a. operational aspects, periodical statements, DP calculations
b. periodical statements , operational aspects, DP calculations
c. DP calculations , operational aspects , periodical statements.
d. periodical statements , DP calculations , operational aspects.
10. The credit division officials in CMC shall undertake ______________ with the branches for
Further strengthening of the account status.
a. Review / renewal of the account
b. Monitoring of the health of the account
c. Compliances of the term of sanction
d. Application of proper rate of interest in the account
e. All the above
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11. The CMC in accordance with IAD should follow the _________ in the accounts.
a. Stock audit of the limits
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b. Credit audit of the limits

c. Timely and full coverage of insurance of the assets financed
d. All the above
12. The CMC should also get confirmation from the branch for _________
a. Scrutiny of the Legal Opinion on the immovable properties
b. Undertaking valuation of securities offered, by entrusting the work to the empanelled
valuers.
c. Legal Audit of the branch certified copies of document through Bank’s Law Officers at ZO
and follow up with the branch for rectification if any required.
d. Filing of charge with the Registrar of Companies
e. Obtention of Search Report
f. All the above
13. In case of cc limits there are certain precautions to be taken by CMC _____
a. ensuring that the branch is obtaining half yearly CA certified Book Debt statements
b. TODs have not been granted frequently and there is no intra-day TODs etc
c. Submission of QIS statement on quarterly basis
d. Submission of review/renewal papers in time
e. All the above
14. The periodicity of submission of stock and book debt statements in a general CC limits is
a. Monthly b . quarterly c. half yearly d. yearly
15. Sanctioned limits based on the collateral security , the submission of stock / book debt
statements in accounts with 10 lakhs limits is _________________
a. Monthly b . quarterly c. half yearly d. yearly
16. The submission of stock /book debt statements for an account limit less than 10 lakhs is
a. Monthly b. quarterly c. half yearly d. yearly
17. The stock audit of accounts with a sanctioned limit of rupees one crore and above is to be
conducted on _______________ basis.
a. Yearly b half yearly c. quarterly d. monthly
18. The fixation of Drawing power under working capital limits based on hypothecation of stocks
is ________
a. Paid stock –prescribed margin b. total stock – prescribed margin c. opening stock –
prescribed margin d. closing stock – prescribed margin.
19. Fixation of drawing power under working capital limits based on book debt , the book debt
value upto ______ days are considered .
a. 90 days, b. 60 days c. 180 days d. 365 days.
20. In calculation of paid stock under fixing of drawing power in cash credit accounts is ___
a. Closing stock- Creditor for purchases
b. a. Closing stock- Creditor for purchases - creditors at the time of sanction (if creditor
for purchase is more than creditors at sanction.)
c. Closing stock- Creditor for purchases -creditors at the time of sanction( if creditor for
purchase is less than creditor at sanction)
d. Closing stock ( if creditors for purchase is less than the creditors at the time of sanction)
e. Any of the above
21. The following stocks to be included for arriving at the drawing power for a limit of a
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customer .
a. Value of goods to the extent of bills liability under usance LCs (net of cash margin held
against LCs issued.)
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b. Value of goods to the extent of bills liability under documents against acceptance/ co-
acceptance.
c. Value of goods received under bank guarantee
d. Obsolete stock
e. None of the above
22. The drawing power of accounts under multiple banking arrangements ( MBA ) should be
derived and adjusted as per the consortium leader .
a. True b. false
23. The irregularities found in stock statements are
a.. Pledging / hypothecating, spurious goods.
b. Declaring wrong capacity of the storing place and / or erecting a false platform between
the loose stock. This causes an error in the calculation of quantity by volumetric method.
c. . Creating a hollow square in the centre of the pile of stock, especially in the godowns of
grains, placing pipes inside the tanks used for storing oil etc.
d . Dumping deteriorated stock between the good stock; mixing inferior liquids or water with
quality liquids, storing wrong quality of stock in the godowns, i.e. other than the stock
declared in the stock statement.
f. All the above.
24. The stock inspection should be conducted __________ by any extraneous matters like status
of the borrower, their standing and dealings with the Bank.
a. without being influenced b. as influenced c. biased d.normal.
25. Valuation of the properties mortgaged to the bank to be done once in _____ years for
standard assets .
a. Every b. two c. three. d. five.
26. Valuation of the properties mortgaged to the bank to be done once in _____ years for NPA
assets after the same at the time of NPA .
a. Every b. two c. three. d. five
27. The valuation of the immovable property to be done by ______________ valuers , the
report to be obtained in a prescribed format of the bank.
A. Bank approved b. board approved c. any bank d. any
28. The Valuation of properties under consideration of SARFAESI to conducted by ______ only.
A. Bank approved b. board approved c. any bank d. any
29. The valuation of the structures under construction to be obtained after completion of the
construction from ________ only .
a. Bank approved b. board approved c. any bank d. any
30. Obsolete/non-saleable stock, if any should be _______ and only fully paid up stock should be
considered after deducting Sundry Creditors
a. Considered b. ignored
31. For borrowers graded CB 1 to CB4 = Credit limits of Rs. 50.00 crore and above the valuation
of the assets to be taken from ______ approved valuers.
a. One b. two c. three d . four
32. For borrowers graded CB 5 to CB8 = Credit limits of Rs. 25.00 crore and above the valuation
of the assets to be taken from ______ approved valuers.
a. One b. two c. three d . four
33. To seize the vehicle which has become default , can be done without a seizure notice and
recall of advance.
a. True b. false
34. The LIC policies obtained from the borrowers to be _________ to bank against the loan
347
availed on it or taken as collateral security for the loan availed.

a. Pledged b, assigned c. mortaged d. hypothecated
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35. The branch should confirm that the LIC policies taken as security for a loan should be _____
and upto the time of surrender of the same.
a. In force b. obsolete c. discontinued d. none of the above.
36. The valuation of the items to be pledged is compulsorily done at the time of ____________
the loan .
a. Sanctioning b. closing c. inspection of the asset d. any time
37. The vehicle or machineries under consideration for sale in case of NPA accounts to be
valuated by __________.
a. Bank approved b. board approved c. any bank d. any
38. Any asset to be sold under auction to be valued before fixing _______ of sale.
a. Sale price b. reserve price c . auction price d. cost price
39. Valuation of stock by outside valuer may be resorted to only in specific cases expressly
permitted by the ________.
a. Customer b. sanctioning authority c. reviewing authority d. head office.
40. Only the _________ value of the security should be furnished in the Annual Statement on
Classification of Loans and Advances.
a. Present b. at the time of sanction c. at the time of inspection d. at the time of NPA.
41. Sanctioning Authorities should not consider abnormal spurt in value of immovable security
observed within 12 months of acquiring such property, while sanctioning loans under Corp
Schemes.
b. True a. false
42. The valuation of vacant land need not be obtained by the valuer , may be obtained from the
Regtistrar office and ________________ of the value may be considered as value of the
land.
1. 50 % 2. 60% 3. 80 % 4. 75%
43. One of the main items affecting the Capital Adequacy Ratio as well as the Bank's compliance
with the RBI stipulated norms in respect of advances is the extent of _________________
for the credit facilities enjoyed by the borrowers.
A. Security cover available b. unreleased portion c. released portion d. amount of loan .
44. _________________ are essential at the time of taking possession and the borrower’s
signature should be obtained in the inventory in order to prevent the borrower’s
subsequent allegation that the quantity and description of goods are incorrect..
a. Inventory and valuation b. sanction and release c. recall notice and NPA status
45. On taking possession of the assets from the borrower fore most important is to _________
The asset .
A. Insure and gaurd b. keep in proper place c. prepare the inventory
46. After issue of the notice for seizure in case of vehicle and movable, the permission from /
intimation to the police commissioner to seize the vehicle is necessary .
a. True b. false
47. The notice of sale of the asset to be sent to all the borrower / guarantors through
a. Registerd post with acknowledgement
b. Hand delivery c. courier service d. speed post e. any of the above.
48. Hypothecation agreement gives the Bank absolute authority to take possession of goods
under hypothecation .
a. True b. false
49. Before taking a decision for seizure of the hypothecated securities the following aspects are
to he taken note of
348
1. There should be availability of storing facility/space for safe keeping the seized goods.
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2. The securities/goods to be seized should command reasonable price and assure

recovery.
3 Unless there is a ready market, the seizure of livestock, perishable goods should be
avoided as far as possible
4. all the above]
50. . Bank may. at any time (before or after filing of suit) exercise the right of seizure of
hypothecation under any of hypothecation agreements in all most all the states, except
few states. A. true b. false
51. No attempt to seize should be made if the vehicle tractor/tiller cannot, be _________ after
seizure in effective possession of the bank or person approved by the Bank.
a. Sold b . retained c. maintained d. insured.
52. The bank can take physical possession of the house when the same is __________ , and by
putting another without the knowledge of the borrower.
a. Open b. locked c. vacant d. occupied.
53. At the point of seizing the movables, two independent persons such as ______________ or
such other similar respectable people of the locality should be taken to witness the seizure
a. Chairman of the Village Panchayat or a Municipality b. neighbour of the borrower
c. branch manager of other branch d. zonal / head office staff.
54. After completion of the Mazzhar the mazzhar report to be counter signed by __________
a. one or all borrowers b. branch official c. police person d. general public e. all the above
55. The copy of the Mazzahr report to be sent to ________________.
a. all the borrower b. zonal office c. police person d. person in charge of the custody e. all
56. The lok adalat scheme includes all NPA accounts both suit filed and non-suit filed, with
outstanding balance upto rupees ________________ lakhs .
a. 10 b. 100 c. 50 d. 20
57. if no Award has been made in respect of a non suit filed case under lok adalat , then the
documents should be kept live by obtaining _________ from time to time.
a. Acknowledgement of debt b. permission for Zonal office c. permission from the court
58 The Award so made shall be deemed to be a __________________. Every Award made by a
Lok Adalat shall be final and binding on all the parties to the dispute and no appeal shall lie
to any Court against the Award.
a. Decree of civil court b. decree of high court c. decree of supreme court d. decree.
59. Conducting of lok adalat for a individual bank cases is permitted a. yes b, no
60. Repayment period in case of compromise through Lok Adalat can be considered over a
period of ______ years in exceptional cases, with proper justification.
a. 1 to 3 b. 5 -6 c. 4-5 d. no restriction
61. The Board has delegated ______ powers for sacrifice for settlement through Lok Adalat
Compared to compromise settlement in branches.
a. Similar b. higher c. lesser
62. The services of the DRT is available in all the states of India except ______________.
a. puduchery b. Karnataka c. Delhi d. Andhrapradesh e. Jammu and Kashmir
63. The minimum amount of consideration to file a suit under DRT is _______________
a. 10 lakhs b. 20 lakhs 3. 100 lakhs 4. Any amount
64. The cases under DRT can be filed by _________________ only.
a. financial creditors b. borrower c. legal entity d. any person.
65. The DRT act would apply to simple money claims and also the money claims which is secured by
_________________________ or secured by any manner.
a. Mortgage of immovable property
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b. Hypothecation of movable property

c. Pledge of movable property
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d. All the above.

66. The provisions of the limitation act is applicatble in cases filed under DRT hence it is necessary
to apply cases to the Registrar of Tribunal on or before expiry of the period of limitation act.
a. true b false
67. An application can be made to ___________ of those cases pending under the civil court.
a. Supreme court b. high court c. lok adalat d. DRT.
68. The place of filing under DRT registrar should be ______________ in which the bank branch
belongs which files the case.
a. Jurisdiction b. any place in the country c. any court d. supreme court.
69. The summons from the DRT is issued to be replied within ___________ days by the defendant ..
a. 91 b. 30 c. 180 d. 365
70. Every application shall be accompanied by (vide Rule 9) paper book containing:
1. a statement showing details of the debt from a respondent and the circumstances under
which such a debt has become due:
2. all document relied upon by the applicant and those mentioned in the application.
3. details of the crossed demand draft or crossed Indian Postal Order representing the
application fee;
4. index of documents.
5. all the above.
71. The copy of the plaint and documents is sent to the defendant along with the summons by DRT
through registered post .
a. True b. false.
72. Fees for registration of the application is rupees ___________ thousand for an application of
Rs.10.lakhs and ______ in part of rs.10 lakhs and above per lakh , with a maximum of rupees ……
a.12 , 1,150000 b. 12 , 1, 200000 c. 10, 2,120000 d. 13,1,150000
73. The____________ of the Tribunal shall issue a certificate under his signature on the basis of the
order of the Tribunal, to the Recovery Officer for recovery of the amount of debt specified in the
certificate
a. recovery officer b presiding officer c. loan officer d. judicial officer.
74. Recovery Officer on receipt of the certificate shall proceed to recover the amount of debts
specified in the certificate by:
1. Attachment and sale of movable or immovable property of the defendant.
2. Arrest of the defendant or his detention in prison;
3. Appointing a receiver for management of movable or immovable properties of the
defendant.
4. ALL ABOVE OR ANY ONE.
75. The defendant can appeal to ____________ against DRT orders.
a. Supreme court b, high court c. civil court d. DRAT.
76. The defendant can appeal against the DRT orders on payment of ______ percent of
consideration amount to DRAT registrar .
a. 100 b. 50 c. 75 d. 25
77. The appeal has to be made to the registrar of appellate tribunal within whose jurisdiction
the case falls, either _______________ or by forwarding the same to such registrar by ____.
a. In person , registered post b. in person m, courier c. courier , registered post.
78. The fees payable for filing at appellate tribunal is rupees ______________ for amount debt due
less than rupees ten lakh .
350
a. 10000 , b. 12000 c. 13000 d. 15000.

79. The fees payable for filing at appellate tribunal is rupees ______________ for amount of debt
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due rupees ten lakh to twenty lakhs .

a. 10000 , b. 12000 c. 20000 d. 25000.
79. The fees payable for filing at appellate tribunal is rupees ______________ for amount debt due
rupees twenty lakhs and more.
a. 30000 , b. 12000 c. 13000 d.25000.
80. The Appellate Tribunal shall endeavour to dispose of the appeal within ____ months from the
date of receipt
a. one b. six c. twelve d. five.
81.The Sale notice by Recovery Officer of DRT would be issued as per the prescribed time norms for
DRT is ________ months
a.. one b. six c. twelve d. five.
82. On receipt of the recovery certificate ______________ with issue the attachment order for the
assets of the borrower.
a. presiding officer b. recovery officer c. banker d. borrower
83. The Respondent may file reply to the appeal along with documents in a paper book form with
the registry within_____ month from the service of the notice on him.
a. one b. six c. twelve d. five.
84. Having filed cases branches should be vigilant ________________ so that cases are concluded in
the quickest possible time.
a. complying with all the procedural formalities b. contact the borrower for recovery
c. take action against customer d. about customer to buy the presiding officer.
85. The issue of ________ forms the basis for taking further steps for recovery of the entire liability
outstanding.
a. recall notice b. filing suit c. due notice d. letter of dues.
86. There exists _________ under public money recovery act of the concerned states. Before filing
suit, branches have to explore the possibility of recovery through this process particularly for small
agriculture and other small loans.
a. revenue recovery process b. filing suit in court c. filing of case in high court
d. application to DRT.
87. The zonal level credit committee headed by AGM can approve for filing loans under the civil
court to and amount of consideration of upto _____ lakhs.
a. 1000 b. 100 c. 500 d. 1500
88.In case of any default in the account , the suit has to be filed against the main borrower only.
a. TRUE b. FALSE
89.On account becoming NPA in a limited company, the suit has to be filed against the company ,
the Directors who have put their personal signatures as also against co-obligants and the
guarantors .
a. True b. False
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90. The financial institution or creditor is permitted to file a suit against the party who has issued a
cheque and is returned for the reason as________________. He can be booked under NIA ACT 138
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, provided the creditor has to send a demand notice regarding the payment of the amount within 15
days of return of the said cheque.
a. effects not cleared b. refer to drawer c. insufficient credit or stop payment d. account closed.
91. It is the duty of the ________________ to ensure that timely steps are taken to have the
summons issued and served to the borrowers of accounts in which suit is filed against them.
a. Civil court officer b. branch manager c. law officer d. zonal office

92. Branch Manager must always be in contact with the _______ to know the development in the
suit and take necessary steps at the appropriate time to complete the process in time with out any
delay on his part.
a. zonal office b. circle office c. law officer d. lawyer.
93. If the Court has not decreed the suit as prayed for by the Bank, the Bank will have to file an
appeal against the judgment, Generally appeal will have to be filed in the following cases :
1. When the suit is dismissed fully or in part, whether the disallowed portion is towards the
principal amount or interest charged or future interest;
2. When the suit has been decreed but no costs have been awarded;
3. When Court has of its own accord granted unreasonable time for payment or given
installments unduly delaying the repayment period ;
4. When the Court has made any uncalled for observations regarding the conduct of the
officials of the Bank or of the bank itself. In this case, the Bank will have to get these observations
expunged by filing an appeal.
5. all the above
94. The Decree has to be executed as per the terms of the decree, the usual modes of execution are
_________________.
a. arrest b. attachment of movable properties c. only a d. only b e. a and b.
95. Within the period of ______ years from the date the decree has become executable. Any
number of execution petitions can be filed.
a. 15 b 12 c. 10 d 18 e, 13
96. In suit filed cases court issues notice to defendants to appear within _____ days of issuing
summons .
a. 30 b 60 c. 90 d. 25
97. AS per the time norms in suit filed cases the summons would be issued within ____ days after
acceptance of the suit in full terms.
a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 180
98. The SARFAESI Act 2002 empowers bank / financial institutions to recover their non performing
assets without the intervention of the ________.
a. court b. police force c. army d. DRT.
99. SARFAESI Act 202 extends to whole of India including the state of ________
a. Tripura b. Nagaland c. Jammu and Kashmir d. Delhi
100. Objective of SARFAESI Act 2002 is
1. Expeditous recovery of Non performing assets of the bank and Financial institutions.
2.To allow bank and financial institutions to take possession and sell or lease securedAssets.
3. both 1 and 2
4. only 1
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101. There are some provisions in the SARFAESI ACT 2002 which are helpful to the bankers, if a
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borrower defaults a secured creditor will have the powers under section 13(4)
a. to take possession ,
b. sell or lease secured assests ,
c. to take over the management of the business,
d. recover any money payable by 3rd parties to the borrower,
e. all the above
102. In case of consortium account if ______ percent of the secured creditors in value agree to
initiate recovery action , the same shall be binding on all secured creditors.
a. 50 b.30 c.60 d.75
103. The following accounts are eligible to take the recovery steps under SARFAESI Act 2002.
a. Account is classified as NPA
b. Default should have been committed by the debtor.
c. The outstanding amount of the loan to be considered to recovery under SARFAESI is rupees
One lakh and above
d. It is applicable only to a secured creditor
e. All the above
104. Accounts which are classified as NPA as per RBI norms but are not eligible to be recovered
under SARFAESI Act 2002 are
a. Any loan account where the amount due is less than 20% of the principal and interest ,
b. agricultural loans where , agricultural land is taken as security
c. loans secured by deposits of the bank
d limitation has expired as per limitation act.
f. where security is not charged by bank
g. all the above.
105. The bank or the financial institution has to give a notice of demand under section 13/2 of the
SARFAESI act 2002 on___________________
a. on the day when the account is classified as NPA
b. When the account is overdue
c. 60 days after account becomes NPA
d. any day after account is NPA.
106. As per the RBI and the approval of the board of Corporation Bank , _______ is authorised to
sign the 13(2) demand notice issued to the customer under SARFAESI .
a. secured creditor / branch manager b. chief manager c. sanctioning authority d. zonal manager
107. On issue of demand notice under 13(2) the borrower is provided time upto _____ days for the
repayment of the dues to the bank.
a. 50 b. 25 c. 30 d. 60 e. 91
108. The confirmation / acknowledgement of the receipt of the demand notice 13(2) by the
borrower is compulsory for taking further action on them,
a. True b. false c. not applicable.
109.The 13(2) demand notice issued to the borrower should contain the following details
a. The names of all the borrowers / guarantors
b. the total amount of loan sanctioned and disbursed
c. the total outstanding with overdues including the future interest.
d. details of the secured assets including the boundaries.
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e. any one of the above

f. all the above.
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110.On completion of ____ days after acknowledgement of the 13(2) demand notice by the
borrower taking of symbolic or physical possession , and issue possession notice is being done.
a. 60 b. 75 c. 30 d. 7
111.With in ______ days of taking symbolic / physical possession of the secured asset , the same to
be published in the two prominent local newspapers (English and vernacular).
a. 60 b. 75 c. 30 d. 7
112. On raising questions of issuing 13(2) demand notice to the customer , the reply of the same to
be given within ____ days of receipt of the same by the financial creditor.
a. 60 b. 15 c. 30 d. 7
113. The possession notice issued to the borrowers should be signed by _____________.
a. Authorised officer/ Chief manager b. secured creditor c. zonal manager d. branch manager.
114. If the 13(2) demand notice is returned undelivered from the borrower , the same has to be
published in _____________ immediately and the same to be affixed on the premises also.
a. 2 local daily ( English and vernacular language) b. broadcasted in radio c. telecasted in
television. D. any two news daily.
115. The possession notice to be sent to all the ______________ and guarantors through registered
post or speed post or authorised courier services by the zoanl office.
a. borrowers b. secured creditors c. co applicants d. newspapers.
116. The acknowledge of the notices sent by the post to the borrowers to kept safely in the
document.
a. Yes b. no c. not required at all.
117. The permission or assistance in taking physical possession of the secured asset to be sought
from ____________ .
a. District magistrate / Chief metropolitan magistrate b. police commissioner c. Local MLA d.
Member of parliament of the constituency .
118. At the time of symbolic possession of the property the possession notice to be issued to the
borrower along with _______ the same on the premises and the action to be captured.
a. affixed b . given c. posted d. couriered.
119. AT the time of physical possession of the secured asset , the following precaution to be taken.
a. Permission and assistance of DM/ CMM to be obtained
b. Information to the local police and assistance to be taken
c. Borrower to be present at the time of possession
d. Panchanama / Mazzhar of the assets to be done before possession.
e. The property to be taken under lock and key held by the branch f. all the above.
120. The property on possession to be ________ before taking possession or immediately .
a. locked b, insured c. guarded by security guard. d. left free
121. The action of all activities of possession to be captured in a still or video camera.
a. compulsory b. not important c. not required.
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122.The panchanama prepared at the time of possession to be signed by and copy given to the
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borrower.
a. borrower b. secured creditor c. witness d. police official I if accompanied) e. local people at the
site. F. all the above.
123. The valuation of the property after taking possession to be obtained by_______________
a. bank approved valuer b. board approved valuer c. any valuer d. any engineer.
124. The reserve price is based on the _______ given by the valuer.
a. market value b. government value c. distress sale value d. adjusted value
125. The reserve price for the property under consideration for e auction is fixed by
_______________ for property value upto 15 crores.
a. ZLCC headed by AGM , b. ZLCC headed by DGM c. CLCC d. HLCC
126. On fixing the reserve price of the asset the sale notice / e- auction to be sent to the
borrower/s and published in two news papers ( English and vernacular language) for a period of
____ days .
a. 25 b. 30 c. 60 d. 90
127. A EMD (earnest money deposit ) for participating in the e auction to be paid by the participants
for an amount equal to ______ percentage of the amount of consideration of the sale before the
due date as per the sale notice.
A, 25 b. 20 c. 50 d. 10
128. The successful participant after the e-auction to deposit _____ percentage of money of the
amount of consideration (including EMD) on the day of e-auction or next working day.
a. , 25 b. 20 c. 50 d. 10
129. The successful participant in the e-auction to pay the rest 75 % amount of consideration of sale
with in next _____ days to the financial creditor on failing with, will forfeit the amount paid as
confirmed bidder in the e auction, unless extended by the creditor.
a. 15 b. 25 c. 30 d. 90
130. A maximum period of ____ months can be extended by the financial creditor depending on
case to case basis for the payment , by the confirmed bidder in the e -auction.
a. 9 b 3 c, 2 d 1
131. On payment of the final amount the financial creditor / bank will execute the sale certificate in
the name of the bidder . A. TRUE B. False
132. IF the amount of collection by E-auction of the secured asset is insufficient to cover up the
loan outstanding , the creditor would go for __________ .
a. File suit in civil court b. file a suit in high court c. file a suit in DRT d. write off the balance .
133. IF the E- auction is a failure a sale notice of ____ days to be given to the borrower for further E
auction of the secured asset.
a. 25 b. 30 c. 15 d. 7
134. The secured asset can also be sold under _______ , if the sale is not happened by E- auction.
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a. private treaty b. free auction c. direct sale d. no sale

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135. _________ are eligible to file an appeal in Insolvency and Bankruptcy act.
a. Financial creditor b. operational creditors c. principal debtor d. all the above
136. The NCLT will verify the application for Insolvency and Bankruptcy and return the application
for default or incompleteness to the applicable person and the same has to be returned back with in
__________ days in complete status.
a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d.40
137. The committee of creditors would recommend a ________ to NCLT for further proceedings in
the firm .
a. Resolution professional b. Interim resolution professional c. Adjudicating authority d. creditor
138.The insolvency and bankruptcy resolution process to be completed with in _____ days of
application with a maximum period of extension of _____ days.
a. 180, 90 b. 150 , 90 c. 90, 180 d. 90,150
140. NCLT ( National company law tribunal ) comprises of ________ , _____ and _____.
a. President , treasurer , technical person, b. president , judicial member , technical member
c. president , secretary , treasurer d. president, supreme court judge , civil court judge.
141. The Central Government has constituted _____benches of the NCLtribunal with principal
bench in ______.
a. 29 , Mumbai b. 11, Ahmedabad c. 11, Mumbai d. 11, New Delhi
142. NCLAT ( National Company Law appellate tribunal) comprises of ________, ____ and ____.
a. president , judicial member , technical member b. chairperson , judicial member , technical
member c. president , secretary , treasurer d. president, supreme court judge , civil court judge
142. The resolution process will be approved on obtaining ______ percentage of votes in the
committee of creditors.
a. 50 b. 75 c. 60 d. 70
143. A public announcement of insolvency of the firm should be done by the NCLT on _____ days of
the application by the creditors/ debtor under insolvency and brankruptcy
a. 14 b. 16 c. 30 d. 1st
144. A person aggrieved by and order of the NCLT may prefer an appeal to NCALT within _____ days
for the date of order.
a. 45 b. 50 c. 30 d.91
145. The amount of consideration of a loan account to be filed under insolvency and bankruptcy
_____________________.
a. 1 lakh b. 1crore c. 10 lakhs d. 20 lakhs e. any amount
146. A person aggrieved by and order of the NCLAT may prefer an appeal to Supreme court within
_____ days for the date of order by NCLAT
a 45 b. 50 c. 30 d.91 e.60
147. On completion of the forming the committee of creditors by NCLT the first meeting of the COC
356
to be conducted on _________day of the application of insolvency .

a. 51 b. 45 c.180 d. 91
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148.The Judges of the Supreme court are appointed as Chairperson for a period of _____ in NCLAT
and extended for a further period _____________ yeasrs.
a. 5,5 b. 5,10 c. 10,10 d.3,3
149.The technical member is appointed up to an age of ________________ in NCLAT.

a. 65 b. 60 c. 67 d. 55
150. Verification of default is to be done on the basis of data available with information utility to be
set up under the code.
a. true b, false
Mock Test – English
MODEL PAPER I
Passage
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
What are the good parts of our civilization ? First and foremost there are order and safety. If today I
have a quarrel with another man, I do not get beaten merely because I am physically weaker and he
can kick me down. I go to law, and the law will decide as fairly as it can between the two of us. Thus
in disputes between man and man right has taken the place of might. Moreover, the law protects
me from robbery and violence. Nobody may come and break into my house, steal my goods or run
off with my children. Of course, there are burglars, but they are very rare, and the law punishes
them whenever it catches them.
It is difficult for us to realize how much this safety means. Without safety these higher activities of
mankind which make up civilization could not go on. The inventor could not invent, the scientist find
out or the artist make beautiful things. Hence, order and safety, although they are not themselves
civilization are things without which civilization would be impossible. They are as necessary to our
civilization as the air we breathe is to us; and we have grown so used to them that we do not notice
them any more than we notice the air.
Another great achievement of our civilization is that today civilized men are largely free from the
fear of pain. They still fall ill, but illness is no longer the terrible thing it used to be.... Not only do
men and women enjoy better health; they live longer than they ever did before, and they have a
much better chance of growing up.... Thirdly, our civilization is more secure than any that have gone
before it. This is because it is much more widely spread.... Previous civilizations were specialized and
limited, they were like oases in a desert.
1. What is the first merit of our civilization ?

(A) Material advancement
(B) Cultural advancement
(C) Development of science
(D) Order and safety
(E) Spiritualism has become a way of life
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2. Now-a-days a physically weak man is provided protection by :

(A) The group whose membership he opts for
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(B) The law

(C) His wit and wisdom
(D) His cunningness
(E) His friend and supporters
3. In olden days the rule of life was :

(A) Right
(B) Might
(C) Spiritualism
(D) Money
(E) None of these
4. The essential condition for the promotion of higher activities of life is:
(A) Dedication on the part of those who practise them
(B) Economic freedom
(C) Safety
(D) State support
(E) Encouragement and appreciation
5. What according to the author, is the second merit of the present civilization?
(A) Development of means of transport and communication
(B) Space research
(C) Freedom from drudgery
(D) Freedom from the fear of pain
(E) Mental enlightenment of the people
6. What according to the author has the freedom from the fear of pair led to ?
(A) Better health
(B) Devotion to duty
(C) Abundant leisure
(D) Increased cultural pursuits
(E) None of these
7. The third merit of the present civilization, according to the author, is:
(A) The present civilization is founded on justice
(B) The present civilization has liberal outlook on life
(C) The present civilization has provided more leisure
(D) The present civilization is more wide spread in the sense that large number of people are
civilized now than ever before
(E) The present civilization is more secure than any that has gone before
8. 'They were like oases in a desert' what does it mean ?

(A) Previous civilizations were more attractive than the present civilization
(B) Previous civilizations were confined to a very limited area while barbarians were far larger
in number
(C) Previous civilizations were shortlived
(D) Previous civilizations were attractive from outside only
(E) Previous civilizations were nature based
358
9. The present civilization :

(A) Begins from 15th century
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(B) Begins from 16th century

(C) Begins from 17th century
(D) Begins from 18th century
(E) Has no fixed date for its inception
10. The most appropriate title to the above passage may be:
(A) The merits of the Previous Civilizations
(B) The Defects of the Present Civilizations
(C) Merits and Demerits of the Present Civilizations
(D) The Limitations of the Previous Civilizations
(E) The Wonder That is the Modern Civilization
Pick out the most appropriate equivalent (synonym) of the following words taken from the above
passage :
11. Disputes:
(A) Disruptions
(B) Divisions
(C) Diversions
(D) Quarrels
(E) Divergences
12. Might:
(A) Force
(B) Weakness
(C) Cowardice
(D) Bravery
(E) Power
13. Rare:
(A) Profuse
(B) Limited
(C) Measured
(D) Unmeasured
(E) Uncalculated
14. Notice:
(A) See
(B) Warn
(C) Presage
(D) Decry
(E) Descry
15. Secure:
(A) Safe
(B) Defended
(C) Profuse
(D) Dangerous
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(E) Protected
Pick out the most appropriate words exactly opposite in meaning of the following words taken
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from the above passage :

16. Foremost:
(A) Hind most
(B) Unimportant
(C) Disposed
(D) Mature
(E) Premature
17. Protects :
(A) Defends
(B) Deprives
(C) Deserts
(D) Devises
(E) Secures
18. Beautiful:
(A) Wonderful
(B) Graceful
(C) Ugly
(D) Handsome
(E) Marvelous
19. Terrible:
(A) Soothing
(B) Frightening
(C) Scaring
(D) Delectable
(E) Horrible
20. Widely:
(A) Spaciously
(B) Succinctly
(C) Broad based
(D) Limitedly
(E) Narrowly
V. Read the following passage and answer the questions:
On the death of Alexander the great his vast empire was almost immediately broken up into three
main divisions. In the East, his General Seleucus Nikator founded an empire comprising Persia,
Mesopotamia, Syria and part of Asia Minor, that is, almost all the area from the Hellespont to the
Indus. The capital of this empire was Antioch, which became one of the greatest commercial centres
of those times, through which merchandise for Arabia, India and China flowed into the
Mediterranean.
The second division of the Alexandrian empire was the Graeco-Egyptian kingdom founded by
Ptolemy I, another general of Alexander. Its chief city was Alexandria which, with its safe harbour
and splendid library, became for a long time the most important centre of Greek civilization and
culture in the ancient world.
360
The third and the smallest division was Macedon, ruled by Autigonus and his successor, who had
partial control over Greece till 146 B.C. In that, year Greece was made a Roman province under
name of Achaea. Later, both Syria and Egypt were also conquered by the Romans.
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1. When Alexander died, his empire :
(A) Was disintegrated to several pieces.
(B) Was broken into three divisions.
(C) Was expanded by his son.
(D) Went totally out of existence.
(E) Did not die but remained intact tocontinue for several centuries thereafter.
2. Seleucus Nikator founded an empire in the :

(A) South
(B) West
(C) East
(D) North
(E) North-West
3. Which of the following was not included in the empire of Seleucus Nikator ?
(A) Persia
(B) Egypt
(C) Mesopotamia
(D) Syria
(E) Part of Asia Minor
4. The capital of Seleucus Nikator's empire was :

(A) Macedonia
(B) Athens
(C) Sparta
(D) Antioch
(E) Troy
5. The second division of Alexandrian empire was:

(A) Babylonian kingdom
(B) Graeco-Turkish kingdom
(C) Assyrian kingdom
(D) Graeco-Egyptian kingdom
(E) Persia
6. The second division of Alexandrian empire was founded by :

(A) Alexander's eldest son
(B) Alexander's youngest son
(C) Alexander's grandson
(D) Ptolemy I
(E) A Mesopotamian prince
7. The chief city of Graeco-Egyptian kingdom was :

(A) Cairo
(B) Damascus
(C) Alexandria
(D) Antioch
361
(E) Macedonia
8. Which of the following cities was for a long-time the most important centre of Greek civilization
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and culture in the ancient world ?

(A) Athens
(B) Sparta
(C) Constantinople
(D) Macedonia
(E) Alexandria
9. Who was Antigonus ?

(A) The General who was responsible for the death of Alexander
(B) The great warrior to whom goes the credit of successes in Alexander's military expeditions
(C) He was the founder of the third division of Alexandrian empire, known as Macedon
(D) The Roman emperor who conquered Greece and annexed it into the Roman empire
(E) The fictitious king of Greece, who figures in the tragedies of Sophocles
10. When did Greece become a Roman province?

(A) In 326 BC
(B) In 186 BC
(C) In 206BC
(D) In 171 BC
(E) In 146 BC
Pick out the most appropriate synonym of the following words taken from the above passage:
11. Comprising:
(A) Complicating
(B) Embracing
(C) Including
(D) Comprehending
(E) Calculating
12. Splendid:
(A) Affluent
(B) Glorious
(C) Magnificent
(D) Grand
(E) Mellifluous
13. Immediately:
(A) Instantaneously
(B) Hurriedly
(C) Unhurriedly
(D) Quickly
(E) Swiftly
14. Flowed:
(A) Fell
(B) Entered into
(C) Filled with
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(D) Flushed with

(E) Crept
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15. Conquered:
(A) Defeated
(B) Won
(C) Overcame
(D) Overpowered
(E) Overwhelmed
Pick out the most appropriate word exactly opposite in meaning (antonym) of the following words
taken from the passage :
16. Broken up :
(A) Split up
(B) Joined up
(C) Founded
(D) Severed
(E) Pierced
17. Founded :
(A) Uprooted
(B) Stabilized
(C) Devastated
(D) Discarded
(E) Disgraced
18. Ancient:
(A) Old
(B) Modern
(C) Upto-date
(D) Contemporary
(E) Posterior
19. Successors:
(A) Precursors
(B) Inheritors
(C) Predecessors
(D) Ancestors
(E) Elders
20. Partial:
(A) Piecemeal
(B) Fractional
(C) Biased
(D) Prejudiced
(E) Favoured
363
Page
Model Paper II
Make sentences of the following words:
Account English Speed Worked Loan

Help New Will/Shall Explain Computer
Correct the spelling of the following:
Curency Transacsion Comercial Reccuring Statment

Pasword Asets Liabileties Servece Rimember
Write Opposites of the following:
Hard Accept Top Arrive Begin

Complete Obey Lock Give Good
Write the opposite gender for the following:
Man Spinster Nephew Sister Uncle
Choose the correct preposition in the following sentences:
1. There is a cow __ the field.
a) In b) of c) to
2. He spoke __ me in Hindi.
a) off b)by c)to
3. I bought it __ hundred rupees.
a) On b) for c) among
4. I drove __ Mumbai to Pune.
a) For b) from c) by
5. Paste this picture __ the wall.
a) On b)for c) about
6. We travel __ train.
a) Still b) by c) from
364
7. Mumbai is famous __ its textiles.
a) For b) in c)with
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8. He slept __ 8 o’ clock in the morning.

a) Above b) till c) behind
9. He walks __ the office.
a) Among b) to c) since
10. Our company is making a profit __ Rs.1000/-.
a) In b) of c) away
Mark following as Active(A)/ Passive(P) voice . Write A for Active voice, P for Passive voice
1. Hari is helped by Rama.
2. The peon opened the gate.
3. The mouse was killed by the cat.
4. The police arrested him.
5. Twenty runs were scored by him.
6. Good news is expected.
7. Smoking is prohibited.
8. The people welcomed the president.
9. They use video for teaching the students.
10. The cheque was cleared by Corporation bank.
Identify the tenses in the following sentences. Write Present/Past/Future:
1. I spoke.
2. I will be speaking.
3. They were playing cricket.
4. The earth moves round the sun.
5. I attended the session yesterday
6. We will know the results tomorrow.
7. He will go to Pune tomorrow.-
8. I didn’t sleep well last night.

365
9. We will meet next week.
10. I am happy today.

Page
Write a letter on any one of the following: (About 10 lines)
1. To your friend about LFC
2. To your relative to come home for Diwali
3. To your branch for sanction of Festival Advance
Write a letter on any of the following: (About 10 lines)
1. Write a letter to your customer to visit the branch and take his return cheque sent in
clearing
2. Write a letter to your branch for a personal cheque book
3. Write a letter to your Head Office for sanction of non-repayable withdrawal.
xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Answers-Model Paper II
Correct the spelling for any 5 of the following:
Currency Transaction Commercial Recurring Statement

Password Assets Liabilities Service Remember
Write Opposites for any 5 of the following:
Hard x Soft Accept X Reject Top X Bottom Arrive X Depart

Begin X End Complete X Incomplete Obey X Disobey Lock X Unlock
Give X Take Good X Bad
Write the opposite gender for the following:
Man – Woman Spinster – Bachelor Nephew - Niece

Sister – Brother Uncle – Aunt
Choose the correct preposition in the following sentences:
1. a 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. b
7. a 8. b 9. b 10. b
Identify the following as Active(A) or Passive(P) voice . Write A for active voice, P for passive
voice:
1. P 2. A 3. P 4. A 5. P 6. P
366
7. P 8. A 9. A 10. P
Identify the tenses in the following sentences. Write Present/Past/Future:

Page
1. Past
2. Future
3. Past
4. Present
5. Past
6. Future
7. Future
8. Past
9. Future
10. Present
Model Paper-III
I. Make Sentences using the following words
Staff Service Popular New Stationery Loan
Explain Reply Search Gold Open Listen
Sanction Exchange Computer Vehicle
II. Write the words with opposite meaning for the following words:
Inside Open Come Happy Rich New
Beautiful Agree Big Literate Healthy Forward
Known Tidy Secured Persuade High Maximum
Costly [Expensive] Full
III. Give the plural of following words
Pen Book Child Box House Girl
Bus Car Foot Man Leaf Daughter-in-law
Son-in-law Animal Hat Shirt Pant Bat
Paper Ball
IV. Write the Feminine of

367
Hero He Grand son Prince King Actor
Cock Uncle Dog Brother Son Girls

Page
V. Write about 10 sentences on any TWO of the following topics
1.Founder’s day celebration at your branch
2. Financial Inclusion and Branch less Banking
3. Marketing of Bank products and services
4. CASA
VI. Write about 10 sentences on any TWO of the following topics
1. The book you liked very much
2. Republic day celebration at your town
3. Visit to your favourite tourist place
4. The importance of Education
VII. Correct the spelling of the following words
Marcheting MultipliKtion Chariman Ejucation
Clarifiction: Satsfaktion Comunikation Profsor
Rekuring: Complate: Agreeculture Mashin
Rekogniton Tellpone Collection Pledg
Leen Insentive Bisness Haliday
VIII. Write a letter to your friend about Corp Classic account and requesting him to open an account
in our bank.
Or
Write a letter to a customer about IT products and services of our Bank.
IX. Write a letter to your friend’s son about Corp New Gen account and its benefits.
Or
Write a letter to a lady customer about Corp Mahila power account and its benefits
368
X. Choose the suitable word/s to fill in the blanks from the choices given
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1. Do not _________ money in horse race [ lose, loose, loss]
2. The mug is __________ of water [ ful, full, filled]
3. ____________ are studying in the room [Children, Childrens]
4. She is married _________ [with, to, between]
5. The minister refused to step ________[out, into, down, on]
6. Something ___________better than nothing [is, are]
7. Mr. Gopal wanted to _________[apply/ applied/ applying/do apply] for leave yesterday
8. We [see/saw] the drama yesterday
9. Madhusudan [went/ will go] to Bangalore next week
10.[ a/ an/ the] Sun sets in the West
11. My brother [travel/ will travel/ travelled/ has travel] to Hyderabad next Sunday
12. Geetha [like/likes/ was liked/ did liked] to wear green sari
XI. Do as directed
369
1. She was praised by her teacher [ change to active voice]
2. The Guard opened the door [ Change to passive voice]

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3. Your are free [form a question tag]
4. Malini is so good that I cannot forget her [ Rewrite the sentence using “too---to”]
5. My father is ill. My mother is ill. [Make a single sentence using the word “and”]
6. He entered the room. He took off his coat [Make a single sentence using “as soon as”]
7. Ankitha will bring the doll [ Change to simple past tense]
8. The transaction was authorized by the officer [Change the voice]
9. Shalini goes to Bank [Change to simple past tense]
10. She said “ I am unwell”. (change into passive voice)
11. She said “I have passed the examination” (change into passive voice)
12. The sub staff opened the box. [Write in passive voice]
******************
Answers-Model Paper III
II. Write the words with opposite meaning for the following words:
Inside : Outside Open : Close Come : Go Happy: Unhappy
Rich : Poor New : Old Beautiful: Ugly Agree : Disagree
Big : Small Literate: Illiterate Healthy: Unhealthy [sick] Forward: Backward
Known: Unknown Tidy: Untidy Secured: Unsecured Persuade: Dissuade
High: Low Maximum: Minimum Costly [Expensive]: Cheap Full: Empty
III. Give the plural of following words
Pen: Pens Book: Books Child: Children Box: Boxes
House: Houses Girl : Girls Bus : Buses Car : Cars
Foot : Feet Man : Men Leaf: Leaves Animal: Animals
Daughter-in-law: Daughters-in-law Son-in-law: Sons-in-law

370
Hat: Hats Shirt: Shirts Pant: Pants Bat: Bats
Paper: Papers Ball : Balls

Page
IV. Write the Feminine of
Hero : Heroine He : She Grand son : Grand Daughter Prince : Princess
King: Queen Actor: Actress Cock : Hen Uncle : Aunty
Dog : Bitch Brother : Sister Son : Daughter Girls : Boys
VII. Correct the spelling of the following words
Marcheting : Marketing MultipliKtion :Multiplication Chariman :

Chairman
Ejucation: Education Clarifiction: Clarification Satsfaktion:

Satisfaction
Comunikation: Communication Profsor.: Professor Rekuring: Recurring
Complate: Complaint Agreeculture: Agriculture Mashin : Machine
Rekogniton: Recognition Tellpone: Telephone Colection:

Collection
Pledg: Pledge Leen: Lien Insentive; Incentive
Bisness: Business Haliday: Holiday
X. Choose the suitable word/s to fill in the blanks from the choices given
1. Do not _________ money in horse race [ lose, loose, loss]
2. The mug is __________ of water [ ful, full, filled]
3. ____________ are studying in the room [Children, Childrens]
4. She is married _________ [with, to, between]
5. The minister refused to step ________[out, into, down, on]
6. Something ___________better than nothing [is, are]
7. Mr. Gopal wanted to _________[apply/ applied/ applying/do apply] for leave yesterday
8. We [see/saw] the drama yesterday
9. Madhusudan [went/ will go] to Bangalore next week
10.[ a/ an/ the] Sun sets in the West

371
11.My brother [travel/ will travel/ travelled/ has travel] to Hyderabad next Sunday
12. Geetha [like/likes/ was liked/ did liked] to wear green sari
Page
XI. Do as directed
1. She was praised by her teacher [ change to active voice]
Ans: Her teacher praised her
2. The Guard opened the door [ Change to passive voice]
Ans :The door was opened by the Guard
3. Your are free [form a question tag]
Ans: Are you free?
4. Malini is so good that I cannot forget her [ Rewrite the sentence using “too---to”]
Ans: Malini is too good to forget
5. My father is ill. My mother is ill. [Make a single sentence using the word “and”]
Ans: My father and mother are ill.
6. He entered the room. He took off his coat [Make a single sentence using “as soon as”]
Ans: As soon as he entered the room, he took off his coat.
7. Ankitha will bring the doll [ Change to simple past tense]
Ans: Ankitha brought the doll.
8. The transaction was authorized by the officer [Change the voice]
Ans: The Officer had authorized by the transaction
9.Shalini goes to Bank [Change to simple past tense]
Ans: Shalini went to Bank
10. She said “ I am unwell”. (change into passive voice)
Ans: She said that she is unwell.
11. She said “I have passed the examination” (change into passive voice)
Ans: She said that she has passed the examination
12. The sub staff opened the box. [Write in passive voice]
Ans: The box was opened by the sub staff

372
Page
Page 373

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STAFF TRAINING COLLEGE

QUESTION BANK FOR PROMOTION ASPIRANTS

1. A Firm can be registered with

A) Registrar of firms B) ROC C) Civil court D) Municipal office

E) None of the above

2. In Public Ltd. Co. the minimum number of shareholders required is

D) Unlimited E) None of the above

3. Regarding Public Ltd. Co. Which of the following is/are true?

A) It can issue shares to public

4. In a Private Ltd.Co. Minimum number of shareholder required… and maximum number of

A) 2-unlimited B) 2-100 C) 2-50

D) 2-200 E) None of the above

5. Regarding Public Ltd. Co Minimum number of directors required …..

A) 2 B) 3 C) 6 D) 7 E) None of the above

A) 40 % B) 51% C) 50 % D) 60 % E) None of the above

7. The memorandum of association contains

A) Name and address of the registered office of the company

B) Name and addresses of the directors,

D) All of the above

A) 2013 B) 1957 C) 2003 D) 1965 E) None of the above

11. DIN number is a ______________ digit number

A) 8 B) 10 C) 2 D) 15 E) None of the above

A. 31 March 2010. B. 31 January 2009. C. 31 March 2009.

A) Sans Frais Endorsement B) Sans Recourse endorsement

C) Conditional endorsement D) Partial endorsement E) None of these

A. Six B. three C. one D. Twelve E. None of the above

D. it is always drawn on a specified banker

E. None of the above

16. Which of the following is correct in case of a partnership firm?

E. All of the above

17. Which of the following statement is true?

A. Section 35 B. Section15 C. Section 25 D. Section 5 E. None of the above

20. What is the distinctive feature of a Company?

A) Separate legal entity

B) Liability of the members limited to the extent of shareholding

C) Company does not have a natural death D) Share of company is transferable

E) All the above

A) Hundis B) Share warrants C) Dividend warrants D) All E) None

22. Which one of the following is a feature of a company?

A) Separate legal entity

A. Open a banking account on behalf of the firm in his own name

C. Withdraw a suit or proceeding, filed by the firm.

D. Admit any liability in a suit or proceeding.

E. All the above

26. Which of the following is a characteristic of the negotiable instrument?

D) Presumption that consideration has been paid under it.

E) All the above

A. 118 B.119 C.125 D.110 E. Both A and B

28. By the additional implied powers of a partner of a trading firm can

E. None of the above

A. The instrument must be in writing

B. The instrument is unconditional

C. The maker must be certain and it should be signed by him

D. The promissory note must contain a direction to pay

E. None of the above

A) Conditional endorsement B) Facultative endorsement

32. Every Listed Company can appoint an individual auditor for____________years .

A) 5 B) 3 C) 2 D) 6 E) None of the above

A) Selling bancassurance products B) undertaking Government business

D. Executor appointed by the father’s will

A) Cheque book B) ATM facility C) Retail loans

A) Administrator B) Trustee C) Executors.

D) Legal Heir E) None of the above

38. A negotiable instrument can be transferred _____________ number of times till it is at