VISIONIAS

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TEST BOOKLET C
CSAT APTITUDE TEST – 3 ( ) – 2019
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS BOOKLET
DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A
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2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN
THE ANSWER SHEET.

3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in

the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on

the Test Booklet.

4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (Questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel
that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider most appropriate. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

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5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See direction in the answers
sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks. Attempt all items. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct
responses marked by you in the answer sheet. For every incorrect response one-third of the allotted Marks will
be deducted.

7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the answer sheets as per the instruction sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

8. After you have completed filling in all responses on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you
should hand over to Invigilator only the answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. On a cold dark night, a security guard was guarding a private estate, suddenly the guard heard sounds
of breaking glass, and at the same time he saw a man rushing out of the estate. Till the time he
understood the matter, the man was 200 metres ahead of him. The guard started chasing the man, he
took 8 steps in every 6 seconds and the man took 6 steps in every 4 seconds. If the length of each step of
guard and that of the man are 120 centimetres and 80 centimetres respectively. What will be the time
taken by the guard to catch that man?

(a) 8 minutes 20 seconds

(b) 4 minutes 15 seconds

(c) 12 minutes 55 seconds

(d) 18 minutes 45 seconds

2. The average of five numbers is x, and the average of three of these numbers is y. Value of the
remaining two numbers is ‘a’ and ‘b’ and difference between these two numbers is 1. Which of the
following relationship(s) between them is/are true?

(a) 5x + 3y – b = 1

(b) 5x – 3y – 2b = 1

(c) 5x – 3y – 2a = 1

(d) Both (b) & (c)

3. A bag contains twenty scented candles. Out of these, ‘a’ are chocolate scented candles and the
remaining are cedar wood scented. If ten more cedar wood scented candles are put in the bag, the
probability of a cedar wood scented candle being drawn from the bag becomes twice of what it was
earlier. What is the number of chocolate scented candles in the bag?

(a) 15

(b) 20

(c) 25

(d) 30

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4. Nine children are playing in a park, and their average height is six feet. If first five of these children have
average height of 5 feet, while average height of last five children is 7 feet, then what is the height of fifth
child?

(a) 6 feet

(b) 5 feet

(c) 7 feet

(d) 4 feet

5. In a combined family, the percentage of persons of age above 75 years is 10%, between 50 and 60 years
is 20% and between 30 and 50 years is 30%. If the number of persons of age below 30 years in the family
is 20, then what is the number of persons in the family of age more than 75 years?

(a) 5

(b) 15

(c) 10

(d) 8

6. What is the least number which when divided by 6 leaves 4 as remainder; when divided by 8 leaves 6
as remainder and when divided by 10 leaves 8 as remainder?

(a) 120

(b) 118

(c) 128

(d) 119

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should
be based on the passages only.

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 Passage—1

Political parties choose a candidate based on his caste rather than his qualifications. You will notice during an
election, if the demography is largely comprised of people from one particular caste, all political parties will
field candidates from the same caste. This could be at the expense of more qualified candidates. One positive
effect of this has been that people from the so-called lower caste or suppressed caste, now have a voice at
the policy level. They have representatives from among their own, who understand their struggles and
problems. Because these people and their votes are important to the political parties, they finally have a say
in our country’s politics.

7. Which one of the following is the best explanation of the above passage?

(a) Political parties are bound to benefit due to the caste divisions among people.

(b) People from one’s own caste alone can understand their struggles and problems.

(c) Voice of so called suppressed classes has begun to grow in Indian polity.

(d) The fact that people from one caste are likely to vote alike has potential benefits for both political parties
and some sections of voters.

Passage—2

It is vital for climate justice to pursue a pathway to zero carbon emission by 2050 to limit global
temperature rise to 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels, and to minimize the adverse impacts of climate
change on people and their human rights. But can such a pathway be achieved without undermining
human rights and restricting the right to development? This Perspective discusses the risks of action
and inaction to identify a fair and just transition. It compares the risks posed to human rights from
climate impacts with the risks posed by climate action and suggests that rights-informed climate action
can maximize benefits for people and the planet.

8. Which of the following is the main idea of the passage?

(a) The problems and gaps in existing institutional arrangements is leading to adverse impacts on
human rights.

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(b) Pursuing a pathway to zero carbon emission by 2050 is a difficult task to achieve.

(c) Strengthening right to development is more important than fighting climate change.

(d) Climate justice is a complex phenomenon where challenges are associated with action and inaction.

Passage—3

President Obama outlined his foreign policy vision: “The United States will use military force, unilaterally
if necessary, […] when our people are threatened; when our livelihoods are at stake; when the security of
our allies is in danger […] In these circumstances, we still need to ask tough questions about whether our
actions are proportional and effective and just.”

9. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made about President
Obama’s foreign policy vision?

(a) Protecting the security of USA’s allies is the sole goal of US Foreign Policy.

(b) USA will resort to disproportionate military retaliation under certain circumstances.

(c) Under the circumstances mentioned, USA will always go for unilateral action.

(d) None of the above.

Passage—4

The capitalist and consumerist ethics are two sides of the same coin, a merger of two commandments.
The supreme commandment of the rich is ‘Invest!’ The supreme commandment of the rest of us is ‘Buy!’
The capitalist–consumerist ethic is revolutionary in another respect. Most previous ethical systems
presented people with a pretty tough deal. They were promised paradise, but only if they cultivated
compassion and tolerance, overcame craving and anger, and restrained their selfish interests. This was
too tough for most. The history of ethics is a sad tale of wonderful ideals that nobody can live up to. Most
Christians did not imitate Christ, most Buddhists failed to follow Buddha, and most Confucians would have
caused Confucius a temper tantrum. In contrast, most people today successfully live up to the capitalist–
consumerist ideal. This is the first religion in history whose followers actually do what they are asked to.

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10. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above
passage?

(a) Unlike previous ethical dogmas, capitalist–consumerist ethic does not offer any paradise to be
achieved.

(b) Tough ethical dogmas of earlier ethical systems (Christianity, Buddhism and Confucianism) has led to
rise of capitalist–consumerist ethic.

(c) ‘Religions’ with less cumbersome commandments are more likely to be followed effectively than those
with tough ones.

(d) Max Weber’s study of capitalism-consumerism led to revolutionary success of this ideal.

11. Simple interest accrued on an amount, if deposited in a savings bank account is 25% of the sum of
money deposited. Time period for which the amount is deposited is equal to the annual rate of interest.
What is the rate of interest at which the money is deposited in the savings bank account?

(a) 10%

(b) 5%

(c) 15%

(d) 8%

12. In a heap of wheat which weighs 2.1 Kg, twenty percent grains are blackish and are not usable. Weight
of each blackish grain is 0.2 grams and weight of good grain is five times that of blackish grain. What is the
number of good grains in the heap?

(a) 5000

(b) 2000

(c) 3000

(d) 1500

13. A tap is filling a water tank and the flow of water through that tap is 6 litres per minute. Once the tank
is filled, the tap is closed. Due to a leak in the bottom of the tank, it is emptied in 8 hours. When the tank
is full, and the tap and leak both work simultaneously, then tank is emptied in 12 hours. What is tank’s
capacity?

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(a) 5000 litres

(b) 8640 litres

(c) 3000 litres

(d) Can’t determine

14. Ravi and I share a certain amount of profit money. I got 40% of total profit money. However, if Ravi
gives me Rs. 2 more, my share becomes 5% more than my original share. What is the amount that Ravi
got as his share in the total profit?

(a) Rs. 60

(b) Rs. 40

(c) Rs. 100

(d) Rs. 20

15. A shopkeeper makes 30% profit by selling an item X mixed with item Y at the price of Rs. 250 per kg.
Item Y comes free of cost, and item X mixed with item Y is sold at the price of pure item X. Find the ratio
of Y to X in the mixture.

(a) 4 : 5

(b) 5 : 9

(c) 3 : 10

(d) 7 : 8

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should
be based on the passages only.

Passage—1

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South Korea is the world’s eighth largest cosmetics market, accounting for nearly 3% of the global market.
The country punches well above its weight for beauty spending considering that South Korea ranks
27th globally by population. The country is said to have the highest rate of cosmetic surgeries in the world.
According to The Independent, a third of young women in the country have experienced plastic surgery.
Seoul is recognised globally as the world’s plastic surgery capital. Beauty regimes can be extreme in South
Korea. It is not unusual for working women to spend an hour or more each day applying beauty products
before going to work. Daily skincare regimens are famously long and can involve as many as ten separate
steps. The expense of beauty products is also an issue, especially for cash-strapped younger consumers.

16. Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the
above passage?

1. The cosmetic industry is very strong in South Korea.

2. Patriarchy drives South Korean working women to go for daily skincare regimens.

3. The per capita expense on beauty products by South Korean women is highest in the world.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

Passage—2

From the ‘narrow focus on free trade arrangements and security alliances’ that existed till the
1970s, the concept of ‘regionalism’ has undergone drastic changes.

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By the mid-1980s, a worldwide phenomenon emerged which came to be known as the ‘new
regionalism’. In contrast to the ‘old regionalism’ that emerged in the context of the Cold War
politics, major structural changes in the global system including multi -polarity caused the
emergence of the new regionalism. The new regionalism is ‘comprehensive’, ‘multifaceted’ and
‘multi-dimensional’ and unlike the old regionalism, it involves ‘more spontaneous processes’ that
often emerge ‘from below’ and from within the region itself.’ In the new regionalism, the level
and process of regionalisation takes place at inter-regional, inter-state as well as sub-national
(sub-regional) levels. Moreover, the new regionalism is ‘extroverted’ rather than ‘introverted’
and thus supports ‘open regionalism’.

17. From the passage given above, which among the following is/are the most logical and rational
assumption that can be made about ‘old regionalism’?

1. ‘Old regionalism’ emerged in the context of a multi-polar world order.

2. The old regionalism was mostly about top down approach and emerged from outside the region
concerned.

3. The ‘new regionalism’ focuses on very few concrete areas; in contrast, ‘old regionalism’ was about
coverage of large areas without any depth.

Which of the assumption(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Passage—3

In 1526, the Mughal forces of Babur defeated the much larger ruling army of Ibrahim Lodi, Sultan of Delhi.
The battle was fought on 21st April near the small village of Panipat in the present day Indian state of
Haryana. It is generally held that Babur’s guns proved decisive in battle, not only because Ibrahim Lodi
lacked any field artillery, but also because the sound of the cannon frightened Lodi’s elephants, causing
them to trample Lodi’s own men. However, a reading of the contemporary sources shows that more than
the gun, it was the tactics which helped in winning the day. The guns and cannons could be fired without
any fear of being hit as they were shielded by the bullock carts which were held in place due to the hide
ropes holding them together. The nozzle of the heavy cannons could also be easily changed as they could
be manoeuvered by the mantelets which were provided with wheels. Ibrahim Lodi died on the field of

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battle, abandoned by his feudatories and generals (many of whom were mercenaries). Most of them
changed their allegiance to the new master of Delhi. However, had Sultan Ibrahim survived another hour
of fighting he would have won, as Babur had no reserves and his troops were rapidly tiring.

18. Which among the following is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be made from
the above passage?

(a) The superiority of weapons was the only reason behind Babur’s win against Ibrahim Lodi.

(b) Unlike Ibrahim Lodi, Babur was not abandoned by his feudatories and generals in the battle ground.

(c) The new war tactics introduced by Babur made the use of weapons effective.

(d) The outcome of the battle mentioned in the passage led to establishment of Mughal rule in India.

19. Samar and Ankit start to do a piece of work. Samar can complete the piece of work in ‘D’ days. If
Ankit can complete 25% of the same work in 5D/4 days, then find the ratio of efficiency of Ankit to that
of Samar.

(a) 2 : 5

(b) 1 : 2

(c) 1 : 5

(d) 2 : 7

20. How many numbers lying between 100 and 1000 can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, if
repetition of digits is not allowed?

(a) 120

(b) 100

(c) 90

(d) 20

21. First term of an A.P. is ‘a’, second term is ‘b’ and last term is ‘c’. Which of the following options could
be the possible sum of this A.P series?

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(a) {(b + c + 2a) (c – a)} /2(b + a)

(b) {(b + c + 2a) (c + a)} /2(b – a)

(c) {(b + c – 2a) (c + a)} /2(b – a)

(d) {(b + c + 2a) (c + a)} /2(b + a)

22. If P, Q and R are three angles such that P = Q + R and P > 180°, then which of the following is not true
for Q and R.

(a) One is obtuse angle and other one is acute angle.

(b) One is reflex angle and other one acute angle.

(c) Both are obtuse angles.

(d) Both are right angles.

23. Ram is running at a speed of 2 metres/second on a circular ground which has a periphery of 400
metres. Shyam starts running on the same circular path 2.5 minutes after Ram. What will be Shyam’s
position with respect to Ram after completion of one round, if his speed is double that of Ram?

(a) 200 metres behind Ram

(b) 100 metres behind Ram

(c) 100 metres ahead of Ram

(d) 200 metres ahead of Ram

24. In a building there are 24 cylindrical pillars. The radius of each pillar is 7 centimetres and height is 4
metres. What will be the total base area covered by bases of all the pillars taken together?

(a) 0.0154 square metres

(b) 0.01254 square metres

(c) 0.3696 square metres

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(d) 0.1078 square metres

25. A construction company wants to construct a hanging beam using trunk of a Palmyra palm tree. For
this they choose a straight Palmyra tree, and in order to get the exact length of the trunk required the
workers cut the tree from 8 metres above the base of the tree. The tree falls on the ground is such a way
that the top of the tree touches the ground at a point which is 15 metres away from the base of the tree.
What is the length of the required trunk?

(a) 21 metres

(b) 17 metres

(c) 29 metres

(d) 24 metres

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be
based on the passages only.

Passage—1

Across the European Union, there has always been a criticism towards integration. For the last two
decades, the debates have witnessed a widespread skepticism about the benefits of the European Union.
The Euroscepticism is manifested in critical practices that oppose European integration. Euroscepticism
relates to the principally contested character of the European Union as a political entity. It correlates with
the attempts to promote the democratic legitimacy of the European Union. Euroscepticism was seen as a
British disease, but now spread across the continent. The skepticism could be seen in the rejection of the
Constitutional Treaty in the 2005 referendums in France and the Netherlands, and in the rejection of the
Lisbon Treaty in the 2008 Irish referendum.

26. Which of the following is/are the correct inference(s) that can be made from the passage?

1. Constitutional Treaty and Lisbon Treaty had provisions for European integration.

2. Euroskeptics oppose only economic policies of a united European Union.

3. Euroscepticism has been decreasing in Britain but increasing in other countries of Europe.

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Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above is a correct inference

Passage—2

As economic powers from the developing world, particularly China, have emerged in the past few
decades, their weight has altered the balance in the global trading system. This has presented challenges
in the World Trade Organisation (WTO), the symbol of globalization, where the Doha Round of multilateral
negotiations has dragged on for more than a dozen years. Frustrated by this stalemate, many countries
have sought alternatives. Among these are ‘mega-regional’ trade agreements such as the proposed Trans-
Atlantic Trade and Investment Partnership (TTIP) between the US and EU, and a 16-member Trans-Pacific
Partnership (TPP).

27. Which of the following is/are the correct inference(s) that can be made from the passage?

1. Proposed TTIP and TPP involving more than a dozen countries are important stepping stones towards
globalization.

2. Emergence of new economic powers is posing serious challenge to the furtherance of globalization.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage—3

All kinds of feelings go on arising and passing – joy, anger, boredom, lust – but once you stop craving
particular feelings, you can just accept them for what they are. You live in the present moment instead of
fantasising about what might have been. The resulting serenity is so profound that those who spend their

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lives in the frenzied pursuit of pleasant feelings can hardly imagine it. It is like a man standing for decades
on the seashore, embracing certain ‘good’ waves and trying to prevent them from disintegrating, while
simultaneously pushing back ‘bad’ waves to prevent them from getting near him. Day in, day out, the man
stands on the beach, driving himself crazy with this fruitless exercise. Eventually, he sits down on the sand
and just allows the waves to come and go as they please. How peaceful!

28. Which one of the following is the most important implication of the example of “man standing on the
beach” that the passage discusses?

(a) Sufficient time needs to be necessarily spent before one is able to live a peaceful life.

(b) Peaceful life is possible when we accept positive things and filter out the negative ones.

(c) Despite presence of negative feelings, one must not stop craving for particularly good feelings.

(d) For a peaceful life, situations should be accepted as they are, rather than always craving for favourable
situations.

Passage—4

Are you spending all your time in other people’s business? Is your energy and effort spent minding other
people’s concerns? I am not referring here to gossiping, rumor mongering or any such vice. I am referring
to the thing that makes thousands of people in this country get up early in the morning, leave their families
and their homes and make a mad dash through crazy traffic like it’s the end of the world. That thing is
work. More specifically, it is employment. Whether in the formal or informal sector it is the dominant
activity in many of our lives throughout the world. It is a necessary evil for most of us, somehow we accept
that it is the only way to get by. Once the paycheck arrives at the end of the month we feel relieved,
though only for a little while, that we have our needs met. By the 10th of the month the waiting starts all
over again. We have to endure the rest of the month until the next paycheck arrives.

29. Which among the following is the most logical and rational assumption that can be made from the
above passage?

(a) The salaries that people are getting are more than that needed to survive for the entire month.

(b) Salaried jobs are becoming more attractive for people than entrepreneurship.

(c) In today’s world, getting a salaried job for survival ‘is the only way to get by’.

(d) Working for someone else comes with its own opportunity costs.

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 Passage—5

Behaviorism, also known as behavioral psychology, is based on the idea that all behaviors are acquired
through conditioning. Conditioning occurs through interaction with the environment. According to
behaviorists, behavior can be studied in a systematic and observable manner regardless of internal mental
states. Basically, only observable behaviors should be considered—cognitions, emotions, and moods are
far too subjective. Strict behaviorists believed that any person can potentially be trained to perform any
task, regardless of genetic background, personality traits, and internal thoughts (within the limits of their
physical capabilities). It only requires the right conditioning.

30. Which of the following is/are the inference(s) that the behaviorists are less likely to agree with?

1. Our responses to environmental stimuli shape our actions and behavior.

2. Our conditioning shapes all our emotions and moods.

3. Behaviors can be changed if there is a change in external environment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) Behaviorists will agree with all the given inferences.

Passage—6

We’ve all got that friend – the one who is always talking big, like they’re going to start this amazing new
company, write an inspiring novel or change the world. In fact, we probably have more than one friend
we hear constantly talking about big future plans. The problem I have noticed with not all, but many of
my peers (20-somethings) is follow-through. Ideas are everywhere, but motivation is seemingly non-
existent. Life doesn’t start tomorrow; life is happening right now. Successful people know this and are
focused on achieving their dreams and goals 24/7. It’s more than an obsession and a passion, it’s what
they are living.

31. What is the most crucial message conveyed by the above passage?

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(a) People lack ideas as well as motivation to get success, which needs to be overcome.

(b) Instead of always making lofty future plans, people should focus on acting on their dreams.

(c) Only those who start off early in their career and are focused on their dreams and goals are successful.

(d) One must always focus on present rather than making ‘big future plans’.

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

The following graph shows data for democracy score (ds) and corruption score (cs). of different
countries for the year 2018. For example, (Brazil, 80, 35) means Brazil has a democracy score of 80 and
corruption score of 35. Democracy score of ‘0’ means the country has an autocratic government and a
democracy score of ‘100’ means full democracy prevails in that country. Corruption score of ‘0’ means
high prevalence of corruption, and a score of ‘100’ denotes total absence of corruption.

32. With reference to the above graph, which of the following is the most logical and rational
statement(s) that can be made?

1. India has the best democracy and corruption scores among the given countries.

2. Other SAARC and BRICS nations, except Bhutan and South Africa, are worse off than India in
corruption.

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3. India has a better democracy score than other BRICS and SAARC nations except Brazil and South
Africa.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

33. With reference to the above graph, which of the following is/are the most logical and rational
inference(s) that can be made?

1. Nations which are relatively more corrupt tend to have weaker democratic institution with the
exception of India.

2. Nations which have relatively less corruption tend to have weaker democratic institutions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) None of the above

34. Five years ago, Mukta’s age was 2/3rd of Ravi’s age. 5 years hence, Ravi’s age will be 14/11 times
Mukta’s age. What are their present ages (in years)?

(a) 12, 18

(b) 17, 23

(c) 22, 28

(d) Cannot be determined

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Direction for following 3 (three) items:

In a college building there are five floors. Ground floor is considered as first floor, the one above it is
numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor. Every floor has different engineering departments i.e.
Electrical Engineering, Computer Science Engineering, Mechanical Engineering, Civil Engineering and
Electronics Engineering. Each department is headed by five professors named Dr. Batra, Dr. Mehra, Dr.
Sharma, Dr. Mishra and Dr. Tiwari (but not necessarily in the same order).

The department of Electronics Engineering is at third floor. Dr. Mehra is not heading Electrical
Engineering, Mechanical Engineering or Civil Engineering department. The department of Computer
Science Engineering is at an even-numbered floor. There are 2 floors between Computer Science
Engineering and Civil Engineering department. Dr. Mishra is the head of the department which is at first
floor. Dr. Batra is the head of Electrical Engineering department. Dr. Tiwari is neither the head of
Electronics Engineering nor the head of Computer Science Engineering department. Electrical
Engineering department is neither just above nor just below the department of Electronics Engineering.

35. The department of Mechanical Engineering is at which floor?

(a) First

(b) Third

(c) Fifth

(d) Second

35. (d)

36. The department of electronics engineering is headed by:

(a) Dr. Mehra

(b)Dr. Sharma

(c) Either Dr. Mehra or Dr. Sharma

(d) Dr. Tiwari

36. (c)

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37. Which of the following combination is correct?

(a) Electrical engineering – Dr. Mishra – Fifth floor.

(b) Civil engineering – Dr. Mishra – First floor.

(c) Computer engineering – Dr. Tiwari – Third floor.

(d) Mechanical engineering – Dr. Tiwari – Second floor.

37. (d)

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be
based on the passages only.

Passage

Classical realist thought in international relations stipulates that states’ international behavior and
interaction are principally guided by their pursuits of self-help, survival, security and their maximization
of national interests defined in terms of power. Located at the other end of the scholarly spectrum are a
large number of critical analyses of international relations, many of which are broadly located within the
tension arising from ‘our statist view of international relations’. Communitarians tend to view states as
‘situated selves and their sense of morality and solidarity is both socially constituted and confined to their
co-nationals’. Meanwhile, cosmopolitans do not differentiate between insiders and outsiders and assume
that the same morality applies within and beyond the confines of the state. There are few examples of
states that are entirely other-regarding; rather they mediate their national interests and security needs in
consideration of distant others. A feminist foreign policy is an illustrative case of such a mediation process.
Feminist foreign policy enriches international ethics by exposing injustices and struggles for gender justice
at the international level. Their focus is on the empowerment and protection of women and girls, the
reduction of gendered inequalities and violence, as well as uncovering the experiences and stories of other
marginalized groups.

38. Which of the following is/are the correct inference(s) that can be made from the passage?

1. Critical analysts of international relations take up those areas neglected by classical realist thought.

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2. According to communitarians, a state has a unique sense of morality that can differ from that of other
states.

3. According to cosmopolitans, in international relations, similar moral ethics should apply to all people
irrespective of their nationality.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

39. Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to feminist foreign policy as described
in the passage above?

1. Objective of feminist foreign policy is to increase representation of women in the process of foreign
policy formulation.

2. Feminists enrich international ethics by bringing the cause of women and other marginalized sections
to the fore.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 both

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

40. Consider the figures given below:

21
To fit the question mark, the correct answer figure is

(a)

(b)

(c)

22
(d)

41. In a certain code language 'low nas hsi Play' means 'she is bringing coffee'; 'wis sat low play' means
'he is bringing milk' and 'sat lim nas' means 'milk and coffee'. What is the code for ‘he’ in the same
language?

(a) Sat

(b) Wis

(c) Ploy

(d) Lew

42. Pointing to a lady, Rita said to her husband, “She is the mother of my only brother’s father’s only
sister”. How is lady related to Rita’s husband?

(a) Grandmother

(b) Great grandmother

(c) Grandmother-in-law

(d) Great grandmother-in-law

43. From a point A Rakesh starts walking towards east. After walking 9 meters, he turns towards North
and walks 17 meters. Then, he turns 135o in clockwise direction and walks a distance of 13 meters.

23
Finally, he turns towards West and walks 12 meters straight and reaches point B. What is the least
distance between points A and B?

(a) 25 m

(b) 5 m

(c) 15 m

(d) 12 m

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should
be based on the passages only.

Passage—1

Economists implicitly adopt a value framework when beginning a cost-befnefit analysis. Different value
commitments can lead to the same item being considered a cost from one perspective and a benefit from
another. For example, those whose standard of value is increasing human happiness would count a new
road to a scenic mountain vista as a benefit, while those whose standard is maintaining an unchanged
natural environment would count it as a cost.

The results of economic analysis also lead directly to ethical issues. For example, one result of the
nineteenth - and twentieth - century debate over capitalism and socialism is a general consensus that
capitalism is effective at producing wealth and socialism is effective at keeping people poor. Advocates of
capitalism use these results to argue that capitalism is good; others might respond that “socialism is good
in theory, but unfortunately it is not practical.” Implicit in the capitalist position is the view that practical
consequences determine goodness. By contrast, implicit in the position of those who believe socialism to
be an impractical moral ideal is the view that goodness is distinct from practical consequences.

44. What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

1. Objective cost benefit analysis of economic goods is difficult.

24
2. Unlike economic analysis, ethical analysis brings people belonging to different value systems on the
same page.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 both

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

45. As mentioned in the passage given above, which of the following statements is/are correct according
to proponents of socialism?

1. The consequences of socialism are good and thus socialism is a better policy than capitalism.

2. Like capitalism, socialism is equally effective at producing wealth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 both.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Passage—2

In most liberal democracies, citizens have realistic fears whether the ban on cash and digitalisation of
banking will erode the foundations on which the State-citizen relationship has historically been structured.
An important attraction of using cash is that it leaves no trail, and ensures the privacy of transactions. On
the other hand, digital transactions leave a trail and can be traced back even after decades. In most
modern legal systems, the right to personal liberty subsumes the right to privacy. Thrusting cashless and
digital transactions robs citizens of this fundamental right, and this has been a matter of contention even
in countries that are the home to cutting-edge innovations in financial technologies, like Switzerland.

25
46. Which of the following represents the ‘historic State-citizen relationship’ that the author is talking
about?

(a) The right of citizens to transact in cash.

(b) The right to privacy of individuals.

(c) The right of citizens to leave no trail while doing economic transactions.

(d) The right of citizens to opt for cashless or digital transactions.

Passage—3

Last year the British government launched a new long term strategy for occupational health in an initiative
entitled “Revitalising health and safety”. Among other things, this set a target of a 20% reduction in the
incidence of work related ill health to be achieved by the year 2010. In general, it is good practice to
identify criteria against which the success of such initiatives will be assessed, provided that they reliably
reflect policy intentions and can be measured satisfactorily. A goal of reducing occupational illness and
injury is clearly desirable and easy to sell to the public. On closer examination, however, the target is not
straightforward.

For a start, it is unclear what exactly is meant by “the incidence of work related ill health”. One
interpretation might be “the incidence of all disorders that could have been caused or made worse by
work”. As an example, with this definition, all cases of lung cancer in coke oven workers would be classed
as work related as the disease is known to be a hazard of that occupation. Such an approach would be
unsatisfactory, however, because for many disorders occupational factors account for only a small fraction
of cases, even in the occupations most at risk. It follows that even the most stringent control measures in
the workplace might not be capable of reducing their incidence by as much as 20%.

47. Which of the following is/are the correct inference/ inferences that can be made from the passage?

(a) Objective measurement of occupational illness is not as difficult as the passage suggests.

(b) Lung cancer among coke oven workers is on the rise in recent years.

(c) Occupational factors are the root cause of all disorders among working people.

(d) A satisfactory measurement of “incidence of work related ill health” is difficult.

Passage—4

26
Natural forests across India are slowly disappearing, with some serious decline in core forest area and
large protected forests, says recent research. These finding are contrary to the government’s claims of
increasing forest cover.

The scientific reports are based on a mix of satellite data, ground vegetation observations and historical
maps. According to their findings, the Eastern Ghats have lost 15.83% of their forest area over a span of
almost 100 years, tropical montane forests continue to disappear in the Sikkim Himalayas, particularly at
the lower heights and there is a noticeable decline across all forest types in India. This is at odds with the
latest Forest Survey of India report that assesses India’s forest cover. The FSI estimates India’s forest cover
to have increased in 2017, compared to 2015. This apparent rise in forest cover has been debated, with
majority of experts pointing out that the government estimates include plantations cover which are
different from natural forests.

48. Which of the following reasons can be attributed to the discrepancy in data mentioned in the passage?

(a) Different time periods for which the data is measured.

(b) Difference in methodologies of measurement of forest area.

(c) Difference in definitions of forest area.

(d) Absence of ground vegetation observations and historical maps in government data.

Passage—5

I am tempted to call the open economy the 'cowboy economy,' the cowboy being symbolic of the
illimitable plains and also associated with reckless, exploitative, romantic, and violent behavior towards
resources, which is characteristic of open societies. The closed economy of the future might similarly be
called the 'spaceman' economy, in which the earth has become a single spaceship, without unlimited
reservoirs of anything, either for extraction or for pollution, and in which, therefore, man must find his
place in a cyclical ecological system which is capable of continuous reproduction of material form even
though it cannot escape having inputs of energy.

49. Which of the following is/are the correct inference(s) that can be made from the passage?

1. Open economy is a notion of limitless resources, so that if we exhaust one spot we can just find another
one and keep exploring.

2. The closed economy of future requires economic principles which are different from those of the ‘open
societies’ of the past.

3. By its very definition, spaceman economy will have high levels of consumption patterns.

27
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

50. Three faces of a cube is painted with three different colours - blue, red and green. None of the pairs
of opposite faces have more than one face painted. The cube is cut into 512 small identical cubes. What
is the difference between number of smaller cubes having none of their faces painted and the number
of smaller cubes having at least two faces painted?

(a) 343

(b) 21

(c) 322

(d) 321

51. Consider the following figure:

What is the total number of triangles and hexagons in the figure given above?

(a) 34

(b) 24

28
(c) 29

(d) 27

Directions for the 2 (two) items:

Chief Ministers from Eight states MP, UP, AP, HP, UK, MH, WB and TN are invited for ‘Swacch Bharat’
round table conference (not necessary in the same order). Some information about the order in which
they are sitting is as follows:

(1) Chief Minister of WB is sitting opposite to Chief Minister of MH and to the immediate right of Chief
Minister of UK.

(2) Chief Minister of TN is sitting to the immediate right of Chief Minister of AP.

(3) Chief Minister of MP, who is not immediately next to Chief Minister of HP on either side, is sitting
opposite to Chief Minister of TN.

52. Who is sitting third to the left of the Chief Minister who is sitting immediately to the right of Chief
Minister of MH?

(a) Chief Minister of HP

(b) Chief Minister of AP

(c) Chief Minister of TN

(d) Chief Minister of WB

52. (c)

53. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Chief Minister of HP is third to the left of Chief Minister of MP.

(b) Chief Minister of WB is not the neighbour of Chief Minister of MH.

(c) There are four Chief Ministers sitting between Chief Minister of AP and Chief Minister of MP when
counted anti-clock wise from Chief Minister of AP.

(d) Chief Minister of UP is fifth to the left of Chief Minister of TN.

53. (b)

29
54. Arman is taller than Ranjana, who is shorter than Bhola. Arjun is shorter than Bhola, and Ranjana is
taller than Pinki. Bhola is shorter than Arman. Who is the tallest among the five?

(a) Arman

(b) Arjun

(c) Bhola

(d) None of these

55. Consider the sequence given below:

361, 289, 169, 121, 49, ………

What is the next term of the series?

(a) 36

(b) 64

(c) 25

(d) 16

Directions for the following 5 (five) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should
be based on the passages only.

Passage—1

There is no shortage of advice for those who aspire to be effective leaders. One piece of advice may be
particularly enticing: if you want to be a successful leader, ensure that you are seen as a leader and not a
follower. To do this, goes the usual advice, you should seek out opportunities to lead, adopt behaviors
that people associate with leaders rather than followers (e.g. dominance and confidence), and — above
all else — show your exceptionalism relative to your peers.

30
But there is a problem here. It is not just that there is limited evidence that leaders really are exceptional
individuals. More importantly, it is that by seeking to demonstrate their ‘specialness’ and exceptionalism,
aspiring leaders may compromise their very ability to lead. The simple reason for this is that, leaders are
only ever as effective as their ability to engage followers. Without followership, leadership is nothing.
There is a major flaw in the usual advice for aspiring leaders. Instead of seeking to stand out from their
peers, they may be better served by ensuring that they are seen to be a good follower — as someone who
is willing to work within the group and on its behalf.

56. Which of the following is/are the correct inference(s) that can be made from the passage?

1. The key to success in leadership lies in the collective “We,” not the individual “I.”

2. Leaders need to be seen as “one of us” not “one of them” and as “doing it for us”.

3. Leaders should find only the opportunities to lead and behave like leaders with confidence.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Passage—2

The Gupta Empire saw a vast range of scientific and cultural achievements. To the chagrin of many high
school math students, trigonometry and geometry got their start during this golden age. And Gupta
mathematicians developed the concept of zero and the number system. Other major contributions from
this era helped improve human health. Not only did scientists and doctors expand the alternative system
of medicine called Ayurveda, but they also improved surgical practices and helped popularize
vaccinations.

But the Gupta Empire didn't focus solely on science and math. Art and architecture were abundant during
this time. In fact, the son of Chandragupta I, Samudragupta, was an avid art lover and commissioned works
that can be found in museums to this day. The Gupta Empire is also responsible for a game still popular
around the globe: Chess.

31
57. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above
passage?

(a) Gupta age made high levels of advancements in several areas but lagged behind in science and math.

(b) Advanced levels of politico-administrative systems existed during Gupta age.

(c) Gupta era is associated with high levels of accomplishments in different fields.

(d) Several Gupta rulers were architects themselves.

Passage—3

A new concept of India as a “first responder” is emerging fast. By contributing its resources to prevent or
mitigate regional and international crises, India is demonstrating its commitment as a responsible actor
in the international order. Beyond narrow self-interest, such contributions help project India’s soft power
abroad and portray India in a positive light. As the Indian economy surges on and the country emerges as
one of the key actors in the international order, expectations as well as willingness is consequently
growing about India’s capacity to provide such support as a first responder to crises beyond its borders.

58. Which of the following is/are the correct inference(s) that can be made from the passage?

1. It is the first time in history that India has demonstrated its commitment as a responsible actor in
international order.

2. Concept of India as a “first responder” reflects country’s growing capability and increasing willingness
to assume larger role in global affairs.

3. In coming future, the resources that India would need to spend in responding to crisis may increase.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

32
 Passage—4

Deliberative democracy is a normative project grounded in political theory. And political theorists make a
living in large part by disagreeing with and criticizing each other. In fact, it is possible to evaluate the
success of a political theory by the number of critics it attracts, and the vitality of its intramural disputes.
By this measure, deliberative democracy is very successful indeed. Yet if the normative project is to
progress and be applied effectively in practice, it needs to lay some issues to rest.

Deliberative democracy is not just the area of contention that its standing as a normative political theory
would suggest. It is also home to a large volume of empirical social science research that, at its best,
proceeds in dialogue with the normative theory. Indeed, the field is exemplary in this combination of
political theory and empirical research.

Skeptics have questioned the practical viability of deliberative democracy. Its ideals have been criticized
as utopian and its forums have been dismissed as mere experiments, with no hope of being
institutionalized effectively. But skeptics have been proved wrong by the many and diverse deliberative
innovations that have been implemented in a variety of political systems. Both state and non-state
institutions demand more deliberative forms of citizen engagement. Policy-makers and politicians
convene citizens’ forums to elicit informed views on particular issues. Studies find that deliberating
citizens can and do influence policies, though impacts vary and can be indirect.

59. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with regard to the concept of deliberative
democracy?

1. The concept of deliberative democracy has attracted numerous criticisms.

2. At this moment, deliberative democracy is more of a normative concept having no practical

applicability.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33
60. Which of the following arguments will support the points made by the sceptics of deliberative
democracy?

1. Citizens’ forums convened by policy-makers and politicians are fully representative of the society as a
whole.

2. There are a large number of people who are simply at the receiving end of policies, having no role in
policy making.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

61. Which of the following pictures does not belong to the group of pictures given below?

(a) 5

34
(b) 3

(c) 1

(d) 8

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the information given below and answer the four items that follow.

Aman, Manoj, Suresh and Rohit are four managers working in a multinational company. They are
working in four different cities - Jaipur, Manali, Shimla and Nainital (not necessarily in the same order).
Their native places are Chhattisgarh, Delhi, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana (not necessarily in the same
order). They like to play different sports - volleyball, football, basketball and badminton (not necessarily
the same order). Further it is given that-

(i) The person who is from Chhattisgarh does not work in Manali and does not like to play badminton.

(ii) The person who likes to play volleyball is not Aman.

(iii) Manoj is from Telangana, and he does not like to play basketball.

(iv) The person who likes to play volleyball does not work in Nainital.

(v) Suresh likes to play football.

(vi) The person who is from Delhi likes to play football, and he does not work in Nainital.

(vii) The person who works in Shimla likes to play basketball, and he is not from Chhattisgarh.

62. Rohit likes to play

(a) Football

(b) Basketball

(c) Badminton

(d) Volleyball

62. (d)

63. Who works in Manali?

35
(a) Suresh

(b) Aman

(c) Rohit

(d) Manoj

63. (a)

64. The person who works in Shimla is from

(a) Delhi

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Chhattisgarh

(d) Telangana

64. (b)

65. Which one of the following statement is correct?

(a) The person who likes to play volleyball works in Shimla.

(b) Rohit is from Delhi.

(c) Suresh likes to play volleyball.

(d) Manoj works in Nainital.

65. (d)

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should
be based on the passages only.

Passage—1

36
Inequality has become a major political preoccupation in the advanced economies – and for good reasons.
In the US, according to the recently released World Inequality Report 2018, the share of national income
claimed by the top 1% of the population rose from 11% in 1980 to 20% in 2014, compared to just 13% for
the entire bottom half of the population. Qualitatively similar, though less pronounced, trends
characterise other major countries such as France, Germany, and the UK. To explain the rise in inequality
that began in the 1980s and has accelerated since the turn of the century, many have pointed out that
indicators of globalisation, such as the trade-to-GDP ratio, have also risen since 1980.

66. Which one of the following is the most important implication of the passage?

(a) Rising Asian inequality is an emerging issue that needs to be addressed.

(b) There could be a positive link between contribution of trade to overall GDP of a country and the
inequality present therein.

(c) Phenomena of rising inequality is limited to developed countries alone.

(d) Qualitatively different reasons have led to inequality in USA and in other countries like
France, Germany, and the UK.

Passage—2

The charge of economic reductionism/determinism, much like other allegations against Marxism, is, at
best, merely a product of ignorance of the written works of Marx and Engels. At worst, this is, as Lenin
pointed out, an example of the standard tactic of revisionism: first, make Marxism into something that it
is not and then refute it (and receive applause from the bourgeois intellectuals). The mere fact that one
can find replies to major allegations against Marxism in the very works of Marx and Engels forcefully shows
that all attempts of ‘going beyond Marxism’ have been intellectually self-defeating and futile.

67. What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

1. Marxism has been reduced into economic reductionism.

2. The author aims to apply revisionist techniques to Marxism.

3. A new theory is needed to counter the criticisms against Marxism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

37
(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

Passage—3

M. N. Roy was a twentieth century Indian philosopher. He began his career as a militant political activist
and left India in 1915 in search of arms for organizing an insurrection against British rule in India. However,
Roy's attempts to secure arms ended in a failure, and finally in June 1916, he landed in San Francisco,
California. He began a systematic study of socialism, originally with the intention of combating it, but he
soon discovered that he had himself become a socialist! Roy met Lenin in Moscow in 1920, and went on
to become an international ranking communist leader. Nevertheless, in September 1929 he was expelled
from the Communist International for various reasons. He returned to India in December 1930 and was
sentenced to six years’ imprisonment for his role in the Kanpur Communist Conspiracy Case and then he
became a Gandhian and a supporter of Indian National Congress.

68. What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Had Roy been successful in securing arms, his insurrection against British rule would have been
successful.

(b) Roy began the study of Socialism as he was fascinated towards the ideas of socialism.

(c) M. N. Roy’s ideological journey follows a pattern – he does not vacillate between two ideologies.

(d) Roy was expelled from the Communist International for doing anti-socialist activities.

Passage—4

A binding dispute resolution can be achieved in two ways. First is adjudication by a public forum (courts
or statutory tribunals). Second is adjudication by a private forum (Arbitral Tribunals). In the first method,
a party raises a dispute by petitioning the court or statutory tribunal, presided by adjudicator(s) appointed
by the State, for a decision. The parties have no choice in the selection of the adjudicator and the decision-
making is governed by the procedural laws and the decision is based on the substantive laws of the
country.

In the second method, a reference is made to an Arbitral Tribunal consisting of person(s) chosen by the
parties for adjudication and decision. The adjudication process is governed by the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996. The decision of the Arbitral Tribunal is based on the substantive laws, unless parties
authorise the Arbitral Tribunal to decide the disputes not strictly under the law. In the binding mode, there
is always a certainty of a decision with one party ending up as the winner and the other being the loser.

38
However, the decision may or may not be to the liking of one of the parties, or sometimes both parties.
Usually, the decision is open to challenge before an appellate or other forum as provided by law.

69. According to the passage given above, which of the following is not mentioned as an advantage of the
adjudication by a private forum?

(a) Adjudication is done by person(s) of choice of the disputing parties.

(b) The decision may be arrived at by going beyond the law.

(c) There no provision to challenge the verdict pronounced by private forums.

(d) All the above are advantages of adjudication by a private forum.

70. Consider the following statements and conclusions:

Statements:

1. Golf is a gentleman’s game.

2. Tiger Woods is a gentleman.

Conclusions:

1. Tiger Woods is a golfer.

2. Everyone who play golf is a gentleman.
3. Mohan plays volleyball, so he is not a gentleman.

What is/are the valid conclusion(s)?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 2 and 3

(d) All 1, 2 and 3

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

39
The table given below shows last two censuses data for children, in the age group 5 – 14 years, involved
in economic activities. Study the table and answer the items that follow.

Name of state/ UT Number of children involved in economic

activities in the age group of 5 - 14 years
(rounded up to nearest 10)
Census 2001 Census 2011
Arunachal Pradesh 18480 5760
Assam 351420 99510
Bihar 1117500 451590
Chandigarh 3780 3130
Chhattisgarh 364570 63880
Dadar & Nagar Haveli 4270 1054
Daman & Diu 730 770
Delhi 42000 26500
Gujarat 4855000 250300
Jammu & Kashmir 175630 25530
Jharkhand 407200 90900
Lakshadweep 30 30
Madhya Pradesh 1065200 286300
Manipur 28830 11800
Meghalaya 53940 18840
Mizoram 26200 2800
Nagaland 45870 11060
Puducherry 1900 1420
Sikkim 16450 2700
Tamil Nadu 418800 151430
Tripura 21700 4990
Uttarakhand 70180 28100

40
71. As per 2011 census, what is the sum total of number of children involved in economic activities in
the states which were formed by the 84th amendment of Indian constitution in the year 2000?

(a) 154870

(b) 155860

(c) 182880

(d) 155890

72. What is the difference between the total number of children involved in economic activities in the
‘Seven Sisters’ taken together in 2011 census and the seven union territories in 2001 census.
(a) 100000
(b) 100010
(c) 100100
(d) 100090

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Consider the following graph depicting land use pattern of a village, and answer the two items that
follow. (All data are in degrees)

41
73. What percentage of total land is under cultivation?

(a) 90%

(b) 24%

(c) 50%

(d) 25%

74. With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements:

1. The ratio of waste land to cultivated land is less than the ratio of waste land to inhabited land.

2. Percentage of land acquired for roads is less than the percentage of land under habitation.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

42
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Both are incorrect

The graph given below shows median forecast of quarterly inflation in terms of CPI and WPI. Study the
graph carefully and answer the question that follows.

Median Forecast of Quarterly Inflation

7

5
Inflation in %

0
Q2:18-19

Q3:18-19

Q4:18-19

Q1:19-20

Q2:19-20

CPI Headline
CPI excluding food & beverages, pan, tobacco & intoxicants and fuel & light
WPI All Commodities
WPI Non-food Manufactured Products

75. With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements.

1. Headline CPI inflation is likely to remain above four percent till second quarter of 2019-20.

43
2. Core inflation (i.e., CPI excluding food and beverages, pan, tobacco and intoxicants, and fuel & light) is
likely to remain above or equal to five percent till second quarter of 2019-20.

3. “WPI non-food manufactured products” inflation is likely to remain above 3.0 percent till second
quarter of 2019-20.

Which of the above are the most logical and rational statement(s) that can be made from the above
graph?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 only

76. The curves in the following graph indicates dependency ratios of three different countries over the
period of 1950 to 2015. Total population of these countries during the same time period is equal.

Dependency Ratio
85

80
per 100 population 15 - 64

75

70

65

60

55

50
1950

1955

1960

1965

1970

1975

1980

1985

1990

1995

2000

2005

2010

2015

Country A Country B Country C

44
With reference to the above graph, which of the following are the most logical and rational inferences
that can be made?

1. During the given period working population of all three countries follows increasing trend.

2. In the last one and a half decade of the given time period working population of ‘country C’ is more
than the working population of ‘country A’.

3. In the given period youth population of ‘country C’ is less than the youth population of other two
countries.

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the above

Directions for the following item:

Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer to this item should be based
on the passage only.

Passage

Every day we are bombarded by advertisements of every sort. The goal of these ads is to sell us cars,
computers, video games, clothes, and even political candidates. It’s been estimated that over $500 billion
is spent annually on advertising worldwide. There is substantial evidence that advertising is effective in
changing attitudes. After the R. J. Reynolds Company started airing its Joe Camel ads for cigarettes on TV
in the 1980s, Camel’s share of cigarette sales to children increased dramatically. But persuasion can also
have positive outcomes, like that of positive ads. For instance, a review of the research literature indicates
that mass-media anti-smoking campaigns are associated with reduced smoking rates among both adults
and youths. Persuasion is also used to encourage people to donate to charitable causes, to volunteer to
give blood and to engage in healthy behaviors.

77. Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference to the above passage?

(a) Negative advertisements like ads for cigarettes must be banned as they have disastrous impact on
children.

45
(b) Bombardment of people by advertisements of all sorts is changing the attitude but not the behavior
of people.

(c) Advertisements to bring positive outcomes (like donation to charitable trusts) must be promoted
through electronic means only as the target audience has internet access.

(d) Depending on the nature, the outcomes of persuasive messages may be both positive and negative.

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Consider the following graphs. The curves in the graph show data for net national product (NNP) at
market price, indirect taxes and subsidies. Study the graphs carefully and answer the two items that
follow.

NNP at Market Cost

14000000
2015-16, 12000000
12000000

10000000 2014-15, 11000000

In billion Rs.

8000000 2013-14, 9900000

2012-13, 8000000
6000000
2011-12, 6000000
4000000

2000000

0
2011-12 2012-13 2013-14 2014-15 2015-16

National income at factor cost

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 Indirect taxes and Subsidies 9000000

10000000 8000000
9000000
8000000 5000000

7000000
In billion Rs.

6000000 7500000

5000000
3000000
4000000 5000000
1500000
3000000
2000000
2000000 2500000
1000000
700000
0
2011-12 2012-13 2013-14 2014-15 2015-16

Indirect taxes Subsidies

78. What is the National income for the financial year 2015–16 in Rs. billion?

(a) Rs. 10,500,000 billion

(b) Rs. 16,500,000 billion

(c) Rs. 4,500,000 billion

(d) None of the above

79. If for the given time period, NNP at market price is fixed at Rs. 10,000,000 billion, then which of the
following statements can be made about the national income of the country?

1. National income of the country is following an increasing trend.

2. National income of the country is following a decreasing trend.

3. National income of the country will follow a decreasing trend except for the financial year 2015–16.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

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(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

80. Two six-digit numbers are formed using the digits 2, 0, 4, 7, 6, 5 and none of the digits is repeated.
One of the numbers so formed is the greatest possible six-digit number that can be formed using the given
digits and the second one is the smallest possible six-digit number using the given digits. What will be the
difference between the two numbers so formed?

(a) 5,60,853

(b) 4,53,219

(c) 5,61,358

(d) 2,06,535

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