BIOCHEMISTRY EXAM FEEDBACK 2017
Review for Pre-finals
CARBOHYDRATE CHEMISTRY
1.
2. Mirror image stereoisomers are called: ENANTIOMERS
3. How many chiral carbons does glyceraldehyde
have: ONE (1)
4. Number of possible stereoisomers ribose has: EIGHT
(8)
5. Which of the the following sugars is a ketose:
FRUCTOSE
6. Glycosidic bond in lactose is: BETA-1→4
7. Sugar units in sucrose: GLUCOSE AND FRUCTOSE
8. Which of the following polysugars is classified as a
homopolysaccharide: STARCH
9. Polysaccharide aids in the formation of normal stools
and relieves constipation: CELLULOSE
10. Heteropolysugar that is a component of synovial
fluid: HYALURONIC ACID
11. Glucose and galactose are epimers at what carbon
number: CARBON 4 (?)
12. From which simple sugar do starch and glycogen
come from: GLUCOSE
13. This polysugar is built for rapid storage and release
when glucose is needed: GLYCOGEN
14. Which of the following is an example of GAG:
CHONDROITIN SULFATE
15. Epimers of glucose are: GALACTOSE AND MANNOSE
16. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar having
no mutarotation properties: SUCROSE
17. D-glucuronate and N-acetylglucosamine are found
in: HYALURONIC ACID
18. This heterosugar is a component of both cartilage
and cornea: KERATAN SULFATE
19. When glucose is reduced, it becomes: SORBITOL
20. This polysugar contains D-glucuronate and is found in
the ECM of loose connective tissues and synovial
fluid: HYALURONIC ACID or CHONDROITIN SULFATE (?)
21. When fructose and mannose react with
phenylhydrazine, they form needle-like crystals
called: OSAZONES
22. When glyceraldehydes is reduced, it becomes:
GLYCEROL
23. Which disugar in starch has a n alpha-1→6 glycosidic
linkage and is hydrolyzed at the branch point of
amylopectin: ISOMALTOSE (?)
24. Which homosugar is used in milk formulas to prevent
curdling of milk in the infants’ stomach: DEXTRIN
25. Intracellular GAG found in mast cells lining arteries of
the lungs and liver: HEPARIN
26. simplest ketone sugar from which most ketoses come
from? -DIHYDROXYACETONE
27. mirror image stereoisomers are called?- ENANTIOMERS
28. How many chiral carbons does dihydroxyacetone
have? – ZERO (0)
29. The number of possible sterioisomers fructose has is?–
EIGHT (8)
30. Which of the following sugars is a ketose?-FRUCTOSE
31. The glycosidic bond in sucrose? – ALPHA-BETA 1,2
32. The sugar units in maltose are? – 2 GLUCOSE UNITS
33. Which of the following polysugars is classified as a
homopolysaccharide?- GLYCOGEN
34. Which polysaccharide aids in the formation of normal
stools and relives constipation?- CELLULOSE
35. This heteropoly sugar acts as a powerful inhibitor of
clotting –HEPARIN
36. glucose and galactose are epimers in what carbon
number?- FOUR
37. from which simple sugar do starch and glycogen
come from?- GLUCOSE
38. this polysugar is built for rapid glucose storage and
release when glucose is needed – GLYCOGEN
39. Which of the following is an example of
glycosaminoglycan?- CHONDROITIN SO4
40. The epimers of glucose are? – GALACTOSE AND
MANNOSE
41. A non redusable sugar is?- SUCROSE
42. D-glucoronic acid and N- acetyl glucosamine are
found in? -HYALURONIC ACID
43. This heterosugar is a component of both cartilage and
the cornea – CHONDROITIN SO4
44. When glucose is reduced it becomes?-GLUCORONIC
ACID
45. which property of sugar gives them the optical
activity? –PRESENCE OF CHIRAL CARBON
46. when a simple sugar react with phenyl hydrocele
what does it form? –OSOZOMES
47. when both ends of a simple sugar is oxidize you form?
– ALDONIC ACIDS
48. (this is being complained in the feedback. Saccharic
Acids daw dapat)
49. when glyceraldehyde is reduced it forms? –
GLYCEROL
50. this polysugar is used as a plasma expander – DEXTRAN
51. this polysugar contains D-L acetylglucosamine and
Acetyl glucosamine and D-gluronate and is found in
the ECF of the loose connective tissue and synovial
fluid?- HYALURONIC ACID
LIPID CHEMISTRY
52. A 50-year old is driving at NLEX suddenly developed
severe chest pain, pulled over, called his wife,
paramedics arrived, CPR done, brought to ER,
angiogram done. Lipid profile is done, what particular
lipid would you anticipate to be deranged: TAG and
CHOLE
53. On PE, the patient developed yellowish plaque
deposition in his middle eyes. Xanthelasma:
CHOLESTEROL
54. 4y/o male, hyperactivity, impulsivity, what treatment:
OMEGA 3 FA
55. Cherry red spots are common finding in: CENTRAL
RETINAL ARTERY OCCLUSION
56. Which of the ff is an example of sphingophospholipid:
SPHINGOMYELIN
57. Not a derived lipid: VLDL
58. True about omega carbon: ALSO KNOWN AS N-
CARBON
59. True about cholesterol: PRECURSOR OF BILE ACIDS
60. Sources of omega 3 FA except: BEEF
61. True of saturated FA: SOLID AT RT
62. The parent compound of sphingomyelin: CERAMIDE
63. Largest among LPP: CHYLOMICRONS
64. Beta-glycosidase deficiency: GAUCHER DISEASE
65. Aspirin, an NSAID, inhibits cyclooxygenase of both
PGHS1 and PGHS2 by what process: ACETYLATION
66. Considered at suicide exam: CYCLOOXYGENASE
67. Immediate precursor of DHA: ALPHA-LINOLENIC ACID
68. Patients with retinitis pigmentosa have low levels of:
DHA
69. Only one among the 3 lipooxygenases that is
capable of forming leukotrienes: 5-LIPOOXYGENASE
70. Greenland Eskimos have low incidence of heart
disease, diminished platelet aggregation and
prolonged clotting time due to: HIGH INTAKE OF FISH
OIL RICH IN OMEGA-3 FA
71. Micelles of FA in water are organized such that the
____ faces the solvent and the ___ are directed
towards the interior: HYDROPHILIC HEADS;
HYDROPHOBIC TAILS
72. Palmitate has 16C with how many double bonds:
ZERO
73. Major protein constituent of HDL: APO A1
74. Chylomicrons are synthesized in: SMALL INTESTINES
75. Not present in a glycerophospholipid: CERAMIDE
76. True of trans FA: USUALLY SYNTHETIC FATTY ACIDS
1. TXA3 is less thrombogenic than TXA2 and is
synthesize from. A. arachidonic acid, B. Cervonic acid,
C.
Alpha linolenic acid. D. Timnodonic acid
2. Which of the following fatty acid has a low
saponification number but is negative for iodine test?
A.
oleic, b. palmitic, c. palmitoleic. D. butyric
3. All of the following are true regarding Gm2 except.
A. It’s a ganglioside, b. ceramide is attached to
glucose and galastose, C. it contains two sialic acids,
D. accumulates is tay sach disease
4. This is a c-21 steroid that regulates intermediary
metabolism of carbs and lipids A. progesterone, B.
aldosterone, c. cortisol, d. androstenedione
5. This phosphatidate which has sugar alcohol for a
side chain is a precursor of 2nd messengers. A.
cardiolipin, b. cephalin, c. lecithin, d. lipositol
6. All of these omega fatty acids can be synthesized
inside our body once a precursor is present except: a.
gamma linolenic acid, b. alpha linolenic acid, c.
eicosapentaenoic acid, d. arachidonic acid
7. Which of the following is a sphingolipid but not a
glycosphingolipid? A. sulfatide, b. Globosode, c.
sphingomylin, d. ganglioside?
8. This phosphoglyceride is a marker of apoptosis when
it flipflops from the inner leaflet to the outer leaflet
of the cell membrane. A. phophatidyl serine, b.
phosphatidyl ethanolamine, c. phosphatidyl inositol,
d.
phosphatidyl glycerol
9. Which lipoprotein carries hepatic triacylglycerol in
the blood. A. chylormicron, b. prebata lipoprotein, c.
beta lipo protein, d. alpha lipoprotein
10. The triglyceride of linoleic acid is liquid at room
temp because it is/has. A. low melting point, b. high
melting point, c. non-volatile, d. insoluble in water.
Modified true or false
a. If a is correct
b. Is b is correct
c. If both correct
d. If botch are not correct
D 11. Deficient in a newborn with acute respiratory
distress syndrome. A. dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl
glycerol, b. distrearoyl phosphatidyl choline (LECITHIN)
B 12. Fatty acid which exhibits cis-trans isomerism a.
palmitic acid, b. linoleic
C 13. Saturated and unsaturated fatty acids can
undergo this chemical reaction a. saponification, b.
esterification
A 14. Side chain of this lipid is a phosphorylated choline
a. lecithin b. sphingomyelin
B 15. The value of this chemical test is directly
proportional to the degree of unsaturation of the oil.
A.
acetyl number, b. iodine number
A 16. Lacking in the adipose tissue of patients suffering
from marasmus. A. triacylglycerol b. phospholipid
A 17. Carries cholesterol synthesized in extrahepatic
tissues to the liver. A. alpha lipoprotein, b. beta
lipoprotein
B 18. Storage form of cholesterol in the tissue. A. free
cholesterol b. cholesterol ester
A 19. As an important component of the platelet 22. Bond that connects the unsaturated fatty acid to
membrane, it is involved in blood coagulation. A. the nucleus or ring – ESTER BOND
phosphatodyl ethanolamine, b. phosphatidal 23. Bond that connects galactose to ceramide – BETA-
ethanolamine GLYCOSIDIC BOND
B 20. Has an unsaturated high molecular weight 24. Bond that connects the fatty acid to sphingosine –
alcohol in carbone one of glycerol. A. AMIDE BOND
glycerophosphatide, 25. Specific name of the bond in dietary triacylglycerol
b. plasmalogen. that is not cleaved by pancreatic lipase –
Identification SECONDARY ESTER
21. Bond that connects the phosphorylated choline
to phosphatidic acid – ESTER BOND
 PROTEIN CHEMISTRY
77. This amino acid would exist in dipolar form when the
pH is at physiological state: ALANINE
78. This amino acid would exist in fully ionized form when
the pH is at physiological state: GLUTAMIC ACID
79. This amino acid would be positively charged when
the pH is at physiological state: GLYCINE
80. Present in the inner core of a globule that is found in
the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane: HYDROPHOBIC
AA / NONPOLAR AA (?)
81. Sulfur-containing amino acids, methyl donor when
activated: METHIONINE
82. These amino acids absorb UV light: AROMATIC AA
83. Proton acceptor and/or donor at physiological state:
HISTIDINE
84. This amino acid does not have a chiral carbon:
GLYCINE
85. This amino acid is a precursor has a benzene ring on
its side chain: PHENYLALANINE
86. Physical property of AA: ALPHA CARBOXYL AND
ALPHA AMINO GROUPS READILY IONIZE
87. Protonic equilibrium is the step by step dissociation of
AA from: POSITIVE TO NEGATIVE
88. Isoelectric pH isL MIDPOINT BETWEEN ? VALUES ON
EITHER SIDE OF ... chena
89. Hydrophobic interation: INTERACTION BETWEEN NON-
POLAR GROUPS
90. Electrostatic forces are: INTERACTION BETWEEN R-
GROUPS OF BASIC AND ACIDIC AA
91. True about peptide bonds except: ANG HABA DI KO
GETS, BASTA LETTER C SIYA GUYS
92. Which of the ff statements about the alpha-helix is
correct: HAS A 3.6 AA RESIDUE PER 360 DEGREES TURN
93. Beta sheet structure is stabilized by: INTERCHAIN H
BONDING BET PEPTIDE BONDS
94. AA acid residue in a polypeptide chain: HAS A
WATER MOLECULE RELEASED UPON THE FORMATION
OF AMIDE?
95. Altering the primary sequence of a protein via
mutation will affect the overall tertiary structure if:
PROLINE IS SUBSTITUTED FOR ANY OTHER AMINO ACID
WITHIN THE ALPHA HELIX
96. Fibrous protein: KERATIN
97. True about biological significance of amino acids
except: BCCAA UNDERGO PHOSPHORYLATION AND
DEPHOSPHORYLATION FOR ENZYME ACTIVATION
98. Not true about protein denaturation: PROTEINS NEVER
REGAIN THEIR STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION
99. A.A without chirality(sounds like!!)- GLYSINE
100. Non polar A.A promote which of the ffg interactions?
–HYDROPHOBIC INTERACTION
101. A.A. that will carry a net charge of +1 at the
physiological PH- HISTIDINE
102. A.A. with greatest negative charge?- ASPARTIC ACID
103. AA with zero net charge at physiological PH? ALANINE
104. Known as the alpha helix breaker? –PROLINE
105. AA with a property of absorbing ultra violet light?-
AROMATIC AA
106. Referred to as alpha iminoacid? -PROLINE
107. AA that is important in regulating enzyme activity?-
SERINE
108. AA that is important in detoxification of ammonia? –
GLUTAMINE
109. AA that is responsible for the buffering capacity of
hemoglobin?- HISTIDINE
110. Its side chain contains an indole ring?- TRYPTOPHAN
111. Which of the following statements regarding AA
physical properties is correct? –AA IS AMPHOTERIC
112. If PH=PKA then?- THE ACID AND CONJUGATE BASE ARE
EQUAL IN CONC.
113. The isoelectric PH is?- PH MIDWAY BETWEEN THE PKAs
OF THE ISOELECTRIC FORMS OF THE AA.
114. The dissociation….(K.A. daw.. ang bilis!) is equal to? –
HA/HA ( HA all over HA daw)
115. Lower PK value means?- ACID IS STRONG
116. Posses an R group that is capable of forming disulfide
bond –CYSTEINE
117. (With A FIGURE ABOVE THE QUESTION) The above
titration curve of alanine has designated points
A,B,C,D. alanine has PK 12.3 and PK 29.1 which of the
following statements is correct? –ISOELECTRIC FORM
OF ALANINE peptide bond is?- IT HAS CONDENSATION
REACTION
A 1. Heme abundant porphyrin ring in the human
body is derived from which amino acid
a. Glycine
b. Alanine
c. Proline
d. Histidine
B 2. Conjugation of glycine with benzoic acid
which is a food additive will form
a. Acetic acid
b. Hippuric acid
c. Lactic Acid
d. Beta hydroxybutyric acid
D 3. Glycine is utilized in synthesize of purines
forming the following atoms of the purine ring
EXCEPT:
a. Carbon 4
b. Carbon 5
c. Carbon 7
d. Carbon 9
D 4. Creatine synthesis requires all the following
amino acids EXCEPT:
a. Glycine
b. Methionine c. Arginine
c. Arginine d. Threonine d. Lysine

5. Phosphorylation or Dephosphorylation of 14. Histidine compounds include any of the

any of the following amino acids activate or following EXCEPT:
inactivate regulatory enzymes EXCEPT: a. Ergothioneine
a. Histidine b. Carnosine
b. Serine c. Dietary Anserine
c. Tyrosine d. Sphingosine
d. Threonine
15. Overproduction of Serotonin in Carcinoid
6. Carbon 2 and 8 of purines are derived from patients will cause a reduction in the synthesis
which amino acid of this water-soluble vitamin causing Pellagra:
a. Threonine a. Thiamine
b. Serine b. Niacin
c. Alanine c. Cobalamin
d. Glycine d. Folic Acid

Note: What are the 3 amino acid involve in

7. Which of the following amino acid can be Maple Syrup Urine disease: Valine,
converted 3-diaminopropane portion of Isoleucine, Leucine
spermine and spermidine: mt
a. Cysteine
b. Methionine
c. Arginine
d. Ornithine

8. This amino acid forms the putrescine 1,4

diaminobutane portion of spermine and
spermidine:
Arginine

9. This amino acid can be converted to Taurine

that conjugates with bile acid:
Cysteine

10. Which of the following amino acid is the

precursor of thioethanolamine portion of
COA:
Cysteine

11. Which of the following reactions will

convert histidine to histamine
Decarboxylation

12. The immediate amino acid precursor of 3-4

Dihydroxyphenylalanine (dopa)
a. Phenylalanine
b. Tyrosine
c. Aspartic Acid
d. Glutamic Acid

13. Which of the following amino acid is the

precursor of Nitric Oxide:
a. Valine
b. Histidine
 ENZYME CHEMISTRY:

1. Substrates are describes as: Compounds that can
transform products
2. Different molecular Forms of the same enzyme
synthesized by different tissue: Isoenzyme
3. Enzyme for removal of water: Lyases
4. enzyme removes or adds H atom: oxidoreductase
5. Which class of enzyme does Dehydrogenase belong:
Oxidoreductase
6. Enzyme mutase belongs to: Isomerase
7. Which statement about enzyme is true: They lower
Activation energy
8. Transform enzyme into product: Catalytic
9. This coenzyme is a Redox Reduction: NAD
Nucleic Acid
10.Factors show Straight line: Enzyme concentration
11.Kinetic order dependent on chemicals: Zero order
12.Which statement is true of Km: Vmax/2
13.Reciprocal Equation: check nyo nalang hahah
14.True of Competetve Inhibitor: Vmax is unchange
15. Non competitive inhibition: binds other than the
active site
16.which mechanism..... undergoing conformational
change: Structural flexibility
17.Metabolite binds qwerty: Allosteric regulation
18. what type of curve is Michaelis menten: Hyperbolic
19.which enzyme is specific for liver function test: ALT
20.Which cardiac enzyme rises first 24 hours: CPK daw

1. 5-methyl-2,4 dioxypyrimidine is also known as:
Thymine
2. Which Nitorogen of purine Ring: N9 (d ko gets
tanong)
3. Which atom of pyrimidine ring helps in production of
nucleoside: N1
4. Nitrogenous base found in what type of RNA: Transfer
RNA
5. Main undisputed role of this RNA is to recognize intron
and extron: SmRNA
6. Nitrogenous bases absorb ultraviolet in the region:
250-280nm
7. Which cant be found in RNA: thymine
8. Which bond can be found in a nucleotide:
5'Phosphoester bond
9. what atom participiate in making internal ring ing
CAMP : t3 and t5
10.All of the following are true except: Can replicate by
itself
11. True about B structure - mali ung correction key :))
12.DNA covalent backbone is made up of: Ribose and
Phosphate
13.What interactions: BOTH d ko gets tanong
14. True regarding A structure of DNA: Right handed
helix
15.Which of the ff is true about chargaff rules: base
composition varies from 1 spp to another
16.Which of the ff is true of nucleosome: AOTA
17.Which is the packing ratio of 7-10: 10 nm fibril of
nucleosome
18.which of the ff RNA provides a platform: Ribosomal
RNA
19. Plan of RNA: mRNA

1. Which level of DNA that has a packing ratio of b. The beta-N-glycosidic bonds between sugar and
10? bases
a. Double helix DNA c. Hydrophobic interaction of base pairs
b. 10nm fibril of a nucleosome d. Peptide bonds . . by histones
c. Solenoid 5. Conformation of DNA in DNA-RNA hybrids
d. Chromosome. . . a. Z DNA
2. The glycosidic bond in DNA and RNA.. b. A DNA
a. Connects the sugar to the base c. C DNA
b. Can be hydrolyzed by –OH ion d. B DNA
c. Stabilize Watson and Crick hydrogen bond 6. Default or physiologic DNA seen in the cell
d. Free to rotate a. Z DNA
3. True of messenger RNA b. A DNA
a. It is the end product of transcription c. C DNA
b. Monocistronic mRNA codes for only one polypeptide d. B DNA
and usually seen in prokaryotes 7. . . .DNA that have a sequence of alternating purines
c. Transports amino acids to the site of protein synthesis and pyrimidines
d. It helps the ribosome in catalyzing in the formation of a. Z DNA
peptide bond during protein synthesis b. A DNA
4. They are forces that stabilizes the DNA duplex, this c. C DNA
includes: d. B DNA
a. The phosphodiester bonds 8. Which statement best depicts the principles on
 DNA… 16. Enzyme responsible for unwinding shorts segments of
a. Base composition of DNA generally is essentially the DNA
same among eukaryotes a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA isolated from the skin of humans has the same b. Primase
base composition as the one isolated from human c. DNA ligase
liver d. Helicase
c. The base composition of an infant is the same as the 17. 5’ and 3’ numbers are related to the:
elderly a. Length of replicating strand
d. A-G, C-T pairing b. Carbon number
c. Base pair rule
True of histones H1 EXCEPT: d. Number of.. . .
a. Most tissue specific
b. Not found in nucleosome core 18. . . . . . .hypothesis for DNA replication is:
c. Rich in arg a. Conservative
d. --- b. –-
9. The carbon atom of the sugar that is involved in the c. Semiconservative
formation of N-glycosidic bond with the sugar-base d.
molecule in nucleic acid
a. Carbon 1
b. Carbon 2
c. Carbon 5
d. Carbon 3
10. What type of bond is found between a phosphate
group and a sugar in the phosphate-sugar backbone
a. Ionic
b. Electrostatic
c. Hydrogen
d. Covalent
11. What type of bond is affected during the
denaturation of nucleic acids
a. Hydrogen bond
b. Covalent
c. Noncovalent bond
d. Ionic bond
12. What specific technique was used to identify the
structure of DNA. . .
a. –-
b. X-ray crystallography
c. ---
d. ---
13. Which is a function of DNA
a. Carries information to the site of protein synthesis
b. Carries genetic code
c. Building blocks of proteins
d. - - - - !!!! (HINDI CLEAR YUNG SINASABI NI DOC, BAKIT
KASI ANG INGAAAYYY!!!! )
14. Which of the following major structures of DNA is left
handed
a. Z DNA
b. ---
c. ---
d. ---

dna replication takes place in 5’-3’

15. HINDI KO MARINIG. . . . (basta D. daw ung
Bioenergetics, Biologic Oxidation, Electron Transport
Chain and Oxidative Phosphorylation UNIT TEST
Feedback
1) Law of Conservation of energy
2) What form of water has the highest degree of
randomness? Water vapour/ Gas form
3) Based on the concept of thermodynamics, the
heat content of the system is known as?
Enthalpy
4) If the Free energy (Gibbs) is negative, it is?
Exergonic
5) Standard free energy change at pH 7.0? G0
6) What is the standard free energy of hydrolysis of
ATP--> ADP + Pi? -30.5 kJ/mol or -7.3
kCal/mol
7) Kinase uses this high-energy organophosphate as
a source of energy and phosphate group in tumor
reaction: ATP
8) ADP + ADP catalyzed by Adenyl kinase will yield:
ATP + AMP
9) Which component of the redox couple is the best
oxidant, based on the standard redox
potential in mammalian oxidation systems table?
Oxygen
10) The reaction 2H2O2 2 H20 + O2 is catalyzed by?
Catalase
11) Transfer of a single electron to molecular oxygen
produces? Superoxide
12) Prosthetic group used by ____tase? FMN or Flavin
Mononucleotide
BLOOD CHEMISTRY
26.The coumarin drugs, such as Warfarin, inhibit
coagulation by .
C. Blocking the Vit. K dependent gamma-‐
carboxylation reactions necessary to the functions of
factors II, VII, IX, & X.
27. Activation of the plasminogen is by cleavage of .
B. Arginine-‐Valine bond [Arg-‐Val]
28. In the intrinsic pathway, activation of Factor X
requires assembly of tenase complex which compose
all of the ff., except
D. Factor II
29. A genetic disease characterized by a defective
spectrin
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
30. Which of the following statement about the
glucose transporters of RBC is incorrect?
A. It is insulin dependent
31. A glycoprotein synthesized by the kidney in
response to hypoxia
13) Malonic acid inhibits what protein complex in the
Respiratory chain? Complex 2
14) What is the actual P:O ratio for NADH? 2.5
15) The energy that drives the synthesis of ATP in a
complex is called: Proton-motive force
or electrochemical gradient/potential
16) Which of these conditions limits the rate of
respiration? Availability of oxygen
17) Electron carriers in the ETC are arranged
sequentially in order of increasing redox
potential: letter C ?
18) Which of the ff enzymes is inhibited by
oligomycin? ATP Synthase
19) What subunit of ATP synthase phosphorylates ADP
to form ATP : All Beta subunits
20) Coenzyme Q reads what protein complexes?
Complexes 1, 2 & 3
21) All of the ff are true regarding glycerol-3-
phosphate shuttle system except: it produces
more ATP than the Malate-Aspartate shuttle
22) Which of the ff is the uncoupler of oxidative
phosphorylation? 2,4- dinitrophenol
23) Which of the ff protein complexes produces one
molecule of water? Complex 4
24) Complex 2 of the electron transport chain is?
Succinate-Q-reductase
25) Which of the ff is true of cytochrome p450? It is a
monooxygenase
26) The reduced form of this coenzyme, produced by
pyridine-linked dehydrogenase, is
used as a normal reducing equivalent: NADPH
B. Erythropoietin
32. Immunodominant sugar for blood type B
substance
D. GalNac
33. A neutrophillic protein that kills bacteria by
causing membrane damage
B. Defensins
34. Mutations in which of the following enzymes can
cause Chronic Granulomatous Disease?
D. NADPH oxidase
35. RBC contains all of the following cytosolic
enzymes that dispose of powerful oxidants during
heme metabolism, except:
D. Elastase
36. Sickle cell anemia is caused by
B. Sequence for codon 6 of beta chain change from
Valine to Glutamic acid
 37. Which of the following disorders does not cause a. Specific enzymatic assay
hemolytic anemia? b. Mutational analysis
A. G6P DH deficiency c. CBC
B. Pyruvate kinase deficiency C. Hereditary d. Urine porphyrin level
spherocytosis 2. Follow up studies demonstrates low BPG deaminase
D. Deficiency of Folic acid in erythrocytes. Also, additional history is elicited
revealing that the woman has started a very low
38. What is the RBC source of ATP production? carbohydrate diet about 1 week before she was
D. Glycolysis admitted. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
a. Acute intermittent porphyria
39. Which of the ff. statements about reticulocytes is b. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
not true? c. Erythropoietic protoporphyria
D. Upon entering the circulation, they retain their d. Porphyria cutenea tarda
ribosomes and mitochondria 3. All of the following reactions occur in the
40. Cellular oxidative stress is mitochondria EXCEPT:
C. Inactivation of enzymes involved in the disposal of a. Formation of porphobilinogen
reactive oxygen species [ROS] b. Formation of protoporphyrin
c. Formation of aminolvulinic acid
d. Formation of heme
41. The ferric form of methemoglobin is reduced 4. One of the following reactions occurs in the
back to ferrous state by the action of cytoplasm
A. Reduced Cytochrome P 5 a. Formation of heme
b. Formation of hydroxymethylbilane
42. Eicosanoids and platelet activation factors that
c. Formation of protoporphyrin
are vasoactive molecules and involved in acute
d. Conjugation of glycine and succinyl-CoA
inflammation are derived from which of the following
5. Deficient enzyme seen in variegate porphyria
cellular sources?
a. Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
D. Neutrophils
b. Porphobilinogen deaminase
c. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
43. A genetic deficiency, which can cause recurrent
d. Ferrochelatase
infections responsible for the green color of pus
A. Myeloperoxidase
6. True of direct bilirubin
a. Water soluble
b. Tightly bound to albumin
44. Cigarette smoke may oxidize which of the
c. Presence of acholuric jaundice
following specific component of alpha-‐1-‐
d. Not filtered in the glomerulus
antiprotease inhibitor leading to emphysema?
A. Meth 3-‐5-‐8 (?) 7. Following the surgery (the patient above), the
decision was made to screen for the porphyrias
45. When neutrophils and other phagocytic cells that cause acute neurovisceral symptoms.
engulf bacteria, they exhibit a rapid increase in Which of the following test would be most likely
oxygen consumption known as to be used?
C. Respiratory burst a. Erythrocyte porphyrins
b. Total fecal porphyrins
c. Total plasma porphyrins
PORPHYRIN
d. Total urinary porphyrin
1. A 20 year old woman goes to the emergency 8. The known treatment for the patient (above) would
room with severe abdominal pain. She previously
include?
experienced severe episodes of pain that lasted
a. Discontinue all unnecessary or potentially harmful
several hours for few days but this episode is the
drugs
most severe and she is also experiencing nausea,
b. Fluid replacement
vomiting, and constipation. The patient is
c. Treat any infection or other comorbidities
agitated and somewhat confused and the clerk’s
d. All of the above
history is difficult to elucidate. This patient was sent
9. Which of the following drugs is known to precipitate a
to emergency
porphyria attack?
but no pathologist noted at surgery. Based
a. Sulfa drugs
on the history, what would be the most useful test
b. Barbiturates
before considering a rare genetic disorder?
c. Anti-fungals glucoronyl transferase causing compensated
d. All of the above hemolysis associated with unconjugated
hyperbilirubinemia.
10. True in porphyria cutanea tarda EXCEPT: a. Gilbert’s syndrome
a. Deficiency of uroporphyrinogen cosynthase b. Crigler-Najar type I
b. No neurologic manifestation c. Acute intermittent porphyria
c. High incidence of HCV and hepatocellular d. Crigler-Najar type II
carcinoma
d. Precipitance frequently include alcohol, estrogen 12. Hyperbilirubinemia may be due to
and iron a. Increase in bilirubin production
b. Reduced hepatic uptake
11. This genetic defect is heterogenous group of c. Impaired hepatic conjugation
disorders caused by a decrease level of UDP- d. All of the above
13. 10 grams of hemoglobin will yield 17. One of the major uses of porphyrins is in medical
a. 350 therapeutics. This field is known as
b. 100 photodynamic therapy which involves?
c. 35mg a. Porphyrins is commonly used as light absorbing
d. Depends on hemoglobin content compounds which are switched on by photons of
14. Major source of bilirubin is light and then react with cells in a desired way.
a. Destruction of senescent red cells b. Same as the role of hemoglobin, it carries oxygen to
b. Destruction of maturing erythroid cells the target tissues
c. Turnover of heme and heme products in the liver c. Both
d. Recycling of old hemoglobin d. Neither
15. Predominantly unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is 18. Protoporphyrin side chains
seen in the following clinical scenarios EXCEPT: a. –
a. Hemolysis b. –
b. Ineffective erythropoiesis c. M (methyl); P (propionyl)
c. Prolonged fasting d. –
d. Hepatobiliary stones 19. The major difference between uroporphyrin I and III
16. Heme and chlorophyll are both have porphyrin a. Series III are asymmetric
rings in their structure. What is their major b. Acetate and propionyl are reversed in uroporphyrin
difference? (hindi ko maintindihan choices, basta c. Both A and B
ang sagot A.) d. None of the above
a. Instead of atom, in chlorophyll, is
present (hindi ko maintindihan part na to) 20. The rate limiting step in heme synthesis
b. They are perfect mirror images a. Formation of ALA
c. Chlorophyll works as a cell trapping solar energy and b. Formation of protoporphyrin IX
heme is a carrier of oxygen c. Formation of PBG
d. - d. Formation of coproporphyrinogen
 RESPIRATORY CHEMISTRY
1. In hemoglobin, the binding of oxygen molecule replaces carbon dioxide
by one subunit causes a slight conformational a. Bohr effect
change in the subunit causes slight quaternary b. Haldane effect
change. . . . (HINDI KO NA MARINIG) c. Cooperativity
a. Bohr effect d. None of the above
b. Haldane effect 9. 2,3 BPG binds with fetal hemoglobin because
c. Cooperativity the gamma chain is 21 residue is another
d. --- amino acid and not histidine. What is this
2. This is a protein that acts like a battery storing amino acid?
oxygen in muscles until it is needed, does not have a. Valine
a function of transporting oxygen only storing it b. Arginine
a. Hemoglobin c. Alanine
b. Myoglobin d. Serine
c. Cytochrome c 10. It is the most abundant transport of carbon dioxide in
d. Methemoglobin the human body.
3. The iron group in heme is held in place by 4 nitrogens a. Bicarbonate
of the heme and 1 nitrogen of b. ---
above the ring c. ---
a. Histidine d. ---
b. Lysine 11. Carbon dioxide has a distinct attachment in the Hg
c. Glycine molecule. Unlike CO2 and O2 which attaches to
d. Alanine central iron, it attaches to . (ang gulo)
4. This relates to the fact that Hg loses its a. Free amino group of the N-terminal of amino acid in
affinity or lets go of oxygen in a more each subunit
acidic environment which hemoglobin is b. Free amino group of the C-terminal of amino acid in
found each subunit
a. Bohr effect c. –
b. Haldane effect d. Amino group of the beta subunit
c. Cooperativity 12. Oxyhemoglobin curve shift to the left
d. Oxyhemoglobin curve a. Hyperthyroidism
5. Adult hemoglobin contains tiny pocket in the b. Decrease 2,3 BPG
middle of it called c. Increase CO2
and this is produced by actively respiring tissue d. Increase temperature
a. 2,3 BPG 13. Oxyhemoglobin curve shift to the right
b. Carbon monoxide a. Acute asthma
c. Oxygen b. Anemia
d. Iron c. Hypothyroidism
6. The chemical rationale why fetal hemoglobin prefers d. Polycythemia
. . . a specific Hg state is due to 14. 2,3 BPG forms salt bridges to the beta chains via:
a. N terminal Val NA1
a. BPG stabilizes the T form of Hg by cross linking the b. Lys EF6
beta chain c. His H21
b. BPG binds with fetal Hg causes the gamma chain . . . d. All of the above
c. Both A and B 15. Which of the following . . . .T or Taut or Tight state
d. None of the above a. Higher affinity to oxygen
7. In deoxyhemoglobin, the first oxygen binds first b. More salt bridges
with the alpha chain and this is because the 16. Salt bridges between the hydrogen atoms and
heme pocket of beta chain is being blocked by oxygen atoms in the Hg are
residue? bonds
a. Valine a. Hydrogen bonds
b. Histidine b. Hydrophobic bonds
c. Arginine c. Covalent bonds d. Ionic bonds
d. Alanine
17. Fetal Hg spends more time at state can take
8. This explains why the lungs binding of oxygen to Hg away O2 from the adult Hg
a. T state 91. Why is it that CO does not completely displace
b. R state oxygen from heme iron in hemoglobin?
c. Partially T and partially R state B. The distal histidine hinders bonding of CO at the
d. None of the above preferred angle to the plane of the heme ring.
18. What happens to the oxyhemoglobin curve when
there is methemoglobinemia? 92. All of the following are true about hemoglobin
a. Shift to the right except:
b. Shift to the left A. P50 at 26 mmHg
c. Depends on the O2 concentration
d. Straight curve 93. The following statements are compatible with the
relaxed conformation of Hgb except:
19. Adult Hg . . . .EXCEPT????? D KO MAINTINDIHAN
C. The iron lies outside of the plane of the heme ring
TANONG
a. In deoxyhemoglobin, . . combines first with alpha
94. Which among the following tetramer is the most
chain
hemoglobin at the first trimester of life?
b. Heme pocket of the beta chain is blocked by Val
Answer was supposed to be gamma hemoglobin but
residue
there was a conflict in the answer key.
c. Alpha 1 beta 1 interaction is. . .70 -90 hydrogen bonds
d. Alpha 1 beta 2 reactions is stronger because they are
95. This statements are true with Bohr Effect, EXCEPT:
less. . . . .???
A. Reciprocal coupling of proton and oxygen binding
20. True of the globin molecule EXCEPT: B. Hemoglobin and myoglobin exhibits Bohr effect.
a. At the surface of each subunit, are polar amino acids
C. Dependent upon the cooperative interaction
b. At the interior are non-polar amino acids
between the hemes of the hemoglobin tetramer
c. Heme is located at the crevice in the hydrophobic
D. Increasing hydrogen ion will increase concentration
interior of the Hg
of deoxyhemoglobin
d. Alpha chains have more amino acids than…????
96. Situations wherein the oxygen dissociation curve is
shifted to the left are the following except:
86. The following statements are true regarding
A. CO poisoning
hemoglobin structure EXCEPT:
B. Hemoglobin H disease
A. Contains four polypeptide chains and a heme C. Metabolic acidosis
prosthetic group with iron in the ferrous state (? It D. Blood transfusion with citrated blood
seems right to me.)
97. The following are the possible etiologies of
87. The following statements refer to protoporphyrin
methemoglobinemia except:
ring of heme EXCEPT
A. Polycythemia
A. Bound to a single iron in the ferrous state
B. Reduced activity of methemoglobin reductase
B. The iron atom consist of six coordination bonds
C. Histidine F8 is replaced by tyrosine
C. It can also be found in other proteins other than
D. Sulfonamide intoxication
myoglobin and hemoglobin
D. Coordination bonds prevent irreversible conversion of 98. The sigmoidal curve of hemoglobin is due to:
the ferrous to the ferric state
A. Abundant presence of 2,3- BPG in RBCs
B. Cooperative binding of the four subunits
88. The following statements are true with myoglobin C. Repulsive forces acted upon the proximal histidine
except: D. Presence of increased amount of carbon
B. The polypeptide chain differs with hemoglobin in the dioxide.
number of alpha-helical segments

89. A tightly bound compound that is permanently

99. Carbon dioxide is excreted in the atmosphere in
associated with its protein that contributes to the the lungs and carried by hemoglobin in what form?
protein’s function is one of the following:
A. Carbamates
C. Prosthetic group B. Carbonic Acid
C. Bicarbonate
90. The iron of unoxygenated myoglobin puckers to
D. CO
what amino acid residue?
A. Histidine F8
 100. Thalassemia wherein all the alpha-globin genes
is defective is one of the following:
A. Hydrops fetalis
101. The following statements are true regarding
sickle cell anemia, except?
A. Hemoglobin S, once deoxygenated becomes
insoluble and polymerize into tubular fibers
B. Hemoglobin S, results from a single amino acid
substitution, lysine instead of glutamine residue at
position 6 in the two beta chains
C. Patient has inherited this allele from both parents
D. Sticky hydrophobic spots cause the hemoglobin S to
associate abnormally with each other.
102. What could be the oxygen dissociated curve of
an isolated single hemoglobin polypeptide?
A. Hyperbolic
B. Sigmoidal
C. Extreme right shift
D. None of the above
103. 25-year old male was rushed to the ER with
shortness of breath and fatigue. Auscultations
revealed wheezes. He was nebulized with
bronchodilator for three times and was discharged
with a diagnosis of acute exacerbation of bronchial
asthma. What is the LEAST pathophysiologic event
that will happen molecularly?
A. The increases in proton in the tissues stabilize the T
hemoglobin conformation.
B. Bronchodilator increases the amount of oxygen in the
lung tissue which increases the affinity of oxygen in
the lungs.
C. 2,3- BPG increases in concentration, shifting the
oxygen dissociation curve to the right.
D. Hyperventilation decreases the PCO2 during the
early attacks.
104. A one week old newborn that was rushed to the
ER was observed to be unconscious, bradycardic
and with shallow breaths. There was no cyanosis
noted but she had a distinct pinkish color. She was
intubated and 100% oxygen was administered but
was pronounced dead later. Autopsy revealed CO
poisoning. What can be the molecular basis of her
death?
A. Carbon monoxide binds to all four heme ferrous
sites rendering it unavailable for oxygen binding
B. Fetal hemoglobin has higher affinity for CO and
therefore hyperbaric oxygen was not able to
displace it.
C. Oxygen deprivation of tissues due to high affinity
of oxygen to the remaining subunits
D. CO competes with the binding sites of the
myoglobin that causes hypoxia of the muscle tissues.
105. A 56 year old diabetic female was seen in the
clinic with chronic cough, mild grade fever and DOB.
Chest X-Ray was done and was diagnosed with
bronchiectasis. She was given levofloxacin,
bronchodilator, mucolytic and paracetamol. Which
among the following best describes the basis of the
pharmacologic management to alleviate the acute
symptoms?
A. Bronchodilator prevents further respiratory acidosis
by facilitating excretion of CO2 and increasing the
affinity of the hemoglobin in the lungs.
B. Levofloxacin decreases the inflammation by
inhibiting the effect of the bacterial infection which
shifts the curve to the right
C. Paracetamol to set the temperature threshold as
to prevent the shifting of the oxygen dissociation to
the left
D. Mucolytic solubilize the phlegm and hasten
expectoration to increase the oxygen available for
binding with hemoglobin in the lungs.
Which of the following best describes what p50
stands for in the oxyhemoglobin curve?
a. It is the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood at
which the hemoglobin is 50% saturated,
typically it is about 26.6 mmHg for a healthy person
b. It is the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood at
which half(50%) of the dissolved oxygen is tightly
bound to hemoglobin
c. It is the amount of hemoglobin needed to saturate
50% of total available oxygen in the blood
Which statement best describes cooperative binding
in hemoglobin molecule
a. Hemoglobin bound to oxygen makes other oxygen
easier to bind to other hemoglobin molecule
b. Hemoglobin affinity for oxygen increases a
successive molecule of oxygen bind
c. Both
d. NOTA
True of the oxygen hemoglobin curve (Sigmoid
curve)
a. At pressure about 60 mmHg, the standard
dissociation curve is relatively flat
b. At the slope side of the curve, supplemental
oxygen would increase oxygen dissolve in plasma
c. At pressure about 60 mmHg, more additional
binding occurs
d. Increase 2,3 BPG would shift the pressure to the left
Which of the following statement is true?
a. The oxyhemoglobin binds 1 proton for every 2
oxygen molecules released
b. As oxygen binds to oxyhemoglobin, protons are
released and combine with bicarbonate to form
carbonic acid
c. This reciprocal coupling of proton and oxygen
binding is termed as the Bohr effect
d. All statements are correct d. Respiration is entirely involuntary
Which is true of 2,3 BPG Which of the following is true regarding the transport
a. 2,3 BPG is formed from glycogenolysis form of carbon dioxide?
b. It has a more affinity to oxyhemoglobin a. Dissolved form is 24 times more soluble than
c. Fetal hemoglobin has increase affinity to 2,3 BPG oxygen
d. It makes the R-form of hemoglobin shift to the T- b. It comprises 90% of total carbon dioxide in the
form body
Which of the following is seen among patient living in c. Carbamino compounds comprise about 15%
high altitude? d. The most abundant is biacarbonate
a. Normal number of erythrocytes but with increase Which could stimulate the respiratory compounds?
hemoglobin content a. Increase tissue metabolism
b. Increase concentration of hemoglobin but b. Inadequate breathing
decrease BPG c. A & B
c. Elevated BPG lowers the affinity of the adult d. Neither
hemoglobin for oxygen which enhances release of Which of the following is a peripheral chemoreceptor
oxygen at the tissues stimulated during the respiratory response?
d. All of the above a. Aortic body
All of the following will shift the curve to the left b. Coronary sinus
except c. Chemosensitive neurons
a. Hyperthermia d. A & B
b. Alkalosis The rationale why we need to protect the blood
c. Hypocarbia while doing blood transfusion like covering cloth or
d. Increase 2,3 BPG with carbon
One of the following would increase 2,3 BPG paper
a. Hypoxemia a. To protect the ferrous form of iron from oxidation
b. Chronic lung disease b. Because light would shift the curve from R-form to
c. Congestive heart failure T-form
d. All of the above c. A & B
A person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning d. Neither
can have Which of the following is true regarding the R-form of
a. May be suffocating with oxygen saturation of 98- the hemoglobin?
100% a. It is deviated around 50 degrees at the R-form axis
b. Cyanosis and shortness of breath b. It is in this conformation that 2,3 BPG attaches
c. The patient can be Cherry red in color effectively
d. A & C are correct c. Salt bridges linking exogenous base progressively
Which of the diseases would shift the oxyhemoglobin as oxygen are added in this form
curve would shift to the left It is the reciprocal coupling of proton and oxygen
a. Septic shock binding
b. Hypophosphatemia a. Bohr effect
c. Anemia b. Cooperative binding
d. A & B c. Both
True about methemoglobin d. Neither
a. Increase amount would shift the curve to the right A trauma patient at the ICU has an oxygen saturation
b. It manifest to cooperative binding of 50%, the patient eventually developed shock and
c. A & B are correct his
d. NOTA saturation decreased down to 40%, what should be
Which of the following is true regarding control of done to the patient in order to increase oxygenation
respiration? a. If the patient is intubated you increase the amount
a. Each breath is initiated by neurons in respiratory of oxygenation
control center in the brain stem specifically at the b. Hyperventilation
level c. Giving sodium bicarbonate
of the midbrain d. Blood transfusion
b. Neurons stimulate external intercostal muscles and How much oxygen is present in 500 mL of blood
diaphragm to contract causing inhalation a. 20
c. When neurons stop producing impulses, respiratory b. 100
muscles relaxed and inspiration occurs c. .2
d. 200
This is produced by Type II pneumotic cells
a. Lecithin
b. Phosphatidyl Choline
c. Both
d. Neither
Patient diagnosed with Emphysema has productive
cough and tachypnea, LFT revealed FEV1 of 70%
a. Mild
b. Moderate
c. Severe
Mutations in this gene is responsible for α-1 antitrypsin
deficiency
a. Serpina 1 gene
b. A gene encoding for a copper transporting
ATPase located at chromosome
c. Both
d. Neither
One of the following is an example of elastase
inhibitor
a. α-1 antitrypsin
b. LOX
c. Lysine oxidase
d. NOTA
What type of emphysema would chronic smokers
usually develop?
a. Panacinar
b. Centriacinar
c. Multiacinar
d. NOTA
The main difference between COPD and Asthma
a. In asthma, the defective airway is irreversible, in
COPD the defective airway is reversible
b. Reversibility in asthma and irreversibility in COPD
For COPD patients, how frequent do we give flu and
pneumonia vaccines
a. Yearly flu pneumonia every 5 years
b. Same as in general population
c. Both
d. Neither