IRMA FLT Questions

IRMA
FLT
Test ID: 771318
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Full Length Test
1. DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL OF THIS 7. The paper is divided into four sections.
Instructions
BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO Section-I: 40 Q:, Section-II: 50 Q:,

START. Section-III: 50 Q; and Section-IV: 60 Q.
2. This booklet contains 32 pages excluding 8. Wrong answers will attract a penalty of one-fourth
the cover page and the back page. of the marks allotted to the questions.
Immediately after opening the booklet, verify 9. Directions for answering the questions are given
that all the pages are printed properly. in the test booklet before some of the questions
3. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and wherever necessary. Read these directions
sharpener with you. DO NOT keep with you carefully and answer the questions by darkening
books, rulers, slide rules, drawing the appropriate ovals.
instruments, calculators (including watch 10. At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leave
calculators), pager, palmtops, cellular the hall till the invigilator announces, “You may
phones, or any other device. These should leave now.” The invigilator will make the
be left outside the room. announcement only after collecting the test
4. Do the rough work on the test booklet only booklets and answer sheets from everyone in
and NOT on the answer sheet or any other the room.
paper.
5. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. ANY CANDIDATE GIVING/SEEKING/ RECEIVING
Candidates found violating the instructions ASSISTANCE OR FOUND COPYING WILL BE
will be disqualified. IMMEDIATELY DISQUALIFIED.
6. The Test Paper contains 200 questions.
There is only one correct answer to each
question. The duration of the test is 120
minutes.
MBA
FLT-0001/10 Test Prep
Section – I
Directions for questions 1 to 10: Fill in the blanks in the given passage from the given choices for each
other questions and also answer the following questions.
Not only mathematics is __(1)__ on our thoughts, and us but in another sense, we and the whole universe
of existing things are dependent on mathematics. The apprehension of this purely ideal character is
indispensable if we are to understand rightly the place of mathematics as one __(2)__ the arts. It was
formerly supposed that pure reason could decide in some respects as to the nature of the actual world:
geometry at least, was thought to deal with the space in which we live. But we know now that pure
mathematics can never __(3)__ upon the questions of actual existence: the world of reason, in a sense,
controls the world of facts, but it is not at any point creative of fact, and in the __(4)__ of its results to the
world in time and peace, its certainty and precision are lost among approximations and working hypoth-
eses. The objects __(5)__ by mathematicians have, in the past, been mainly of a kind suggested by
phenomena; but from such restrictions, the abstract imagination should be wholly __(6)__ . A reciprocal
__(7)__ must be accorded; reason cannot dictate to the world of facts, but the fact cannot restrict reason’s
privilege of dealing with whatever objects its love of beauty may cause to seem __(8)__ of consideration.
Here, as elsewhere, we build up our deals out of the fragments to be found in the world; and in the end, it
is __(9)__ to say whether the result is a creation or a __(10)__.
1. a. imposed b. blessing c. enlightening d. dependent e. ruling
2. a. of b. among c. between d. defying e. denying
3. a. rely b. pronounce c. question d. decide e. either (b) or (c)
4. a. direction b. understanding c. application

d. assumption e. estimation
5. a. considered b. rejected c. ignored d. filtered e. given
6. a. restricted b. confined c. free d. released e. retained
7. a. liberty b. feeling c. suspension d. ignorance e. harmony
8. a. suitable b. worthy c. unworthy d. unacceptable e. acceptable
9. a. easy b. obvious c. hard d. wrong e. correct
10. a. blunder b. discovery c. destruction d. revolution e. transformation
IRMA – FLT MBA Page 1

Test Prep
Directions for questions 11 to 25: Read the passage that follow and answer the questions given at the
end of each passage.
French and German officials have gone public with the idea that their two countries could contemplate a
union if the European Constitution fails to win approval. Officials in Paris and Berlin have said that if
negotiations over the European Constitution, now under way, were to run into a stalemate, the Franco-
German duo, constituting Europe’s two largest economies that have long been the locomotive pushing
European integration, would move towards a union in the spheres of foreign policy, defence, education and
economic and social reform.
Such a scenario however is being evoked with a caveat — that France and Germany would seek fusion
only if Europe’s prospective 25 members failed to reach any agreement on the constitution. The tone was
set recently by the French Prime Minister, Jean-Pierre Raffarin, who said: “If a Europe of 25 fails, what will
be left for France? The initiative of Franco-German rapprochement.”
Political observers say these statements are essentially intended to put pressure on countries like Poland
and Spain, regarded as the major stumbling blocks to an early agreement on a Constitution for the European
Union. Both countries won significant advantages in terms of voting rights during the Nice treaty negotiations
three years ago which they now loath to give up.
Under the draft Constitution, which aims at streamlining structures and systems in order to avoid institutional
paralysis, the EU’s decision-making process would call for a majority vote representing at least 60 per cent
of the Union’s population. That would effectively enable larger states such as France or Germany to block
legislation coming from a group of smaller states. While smaller states might be in a majority in terms of
the number of votes, they would fail to carry the motion if large member states decided to withhold support.
Spain and Poland which have substantially smaller populations compared to France, Germany or Britain,
are bargaining hard to keep special voting rights they won in parleys three years ago.
The EU nations failed to reach an agreement on the issue in Rome last October and there is every
likelihood of their failing to compromise at the Inter-Governmental Conference next month.
The draft Constitution drawn up by a specially appointed Convention headed by the former French President,
Valery Giscard Estaing, has also drawn criticism from several countries for its markedly secularist tone.
The fact that Europe’s ‘Christain roots’ find no mention therein has drawn forth howls of protest from
countries like Poland and Italy, where Silvio Berlusconi, who currently heads the EU’s rotating presidency
has pledged to have a ‘religion clause’ inserted in the final document.
Respected commentators like economist Jean-Paul Fitoussi also deplore the failure of the document to
address the question of what basic economic principles should underlie and govern a future European
federation. In order to reach a consensus, Europe has gone from one bad compromise solution to another,
shoving the real problems under the carpet of obfuscation from year to year. This desire for compromise is
Page 2 MBA IRMA – FLT

Test Prep
likely to make Europe less, not more governable, Mr. Fitoussi argues. In the circumstances, he says it is
perhaps right that Europeans recognise the many issues that separate them, rather than go down the path
of an illusory unity. It is better not to venture beyond the idea of a common market if there is no real
homogeneity of views within Europe.
The French and the Germans are fully aware of the divisive nature of the debate within Europe today. And
while the noises about a possible Franco-German union are essentially early warning shots aimed principally
at Poland and Spain, they are also a pragmatic setting-out of scenarios for possible future action if the EU
Constitution fails to win acceptance in its present form.
The Franco-German relationship has never been this close. Last month, the German Chancellor, Gerhard
Schroeder, asked not his own deputy but French President Jacques Chirac to represent him at a speech
before the European Council in Brussels. And the French Foreign Minister, Dominique de Villepin, described
the strengthening of the Franco-German relationship as ‘the one historical challenge we cannot afford to
lose’.
Such declarations would not have been possible without the spectacular impetus given to ties between
the two countries by the 2002 election of Chancellor Schroeder in Germany and the re-election of President
Chirac in France. Another factor that played a crucial role in bringing the two countries even closer was the
Iraq crisis in which France and Germany found themselves on the same side of the fence. France has had
a long history of ‘principled’ opposition to the United States. However, it was groundbreaking for Germany
which has been a political dwarf under the US. Another unifying factor is the realization that both countries
face similar economic and social problems.
Almost 10 years after the Germans first proposed a mini-federation within Europe — a strong inner core —
comprising France, Germany and the Benelux countries, the French have begun to see the wisdom of the
proposal. At the time, in 1994, when Christian democrats Karl Lammers and Wolfgang Schauble made the
proposal under Chancellor Kohl, the French rejected it as an imposition of the German federative model on
the more centralist France. The angry French also saw it as an attempt to cut their ties with Latin
southern Europe.
Today the idea of a Franco-German Union is being seriously considered by experts and politicians, although
it is still too soon to launch a proper public debate on the subject. Pascal Lamy, the brilliant French
Commissioner to the EU, says a Franco-German ‘Bund’ or federation should concentrate on spheres not
adequately dealt with by the European Union or by the German Landers. Which would, in substance,
mean defence, foreign policy, economic and social policy and research for which a special federal budget
should be constituted. For Mr. Lamy, this would also mean common armies, diplomatic corps and a
sharing of France’s United Nations Security Council seat.

Test Prep
So how could a public and democratic debate be launched? Despite their convergence of views, France
and Germany are founded on two very different societal models, one centrist, the other federative. Gunter
Verheugen, Germany’s chief negotiator at European enlargement parleys, has suggested a confederation
at the inter-governmental level that would include the population of the two countries but which would not
lead to the creation of new institutions.
Commissioner Lamy has proposed a congress with an equal number of French and German representatives,
a Franco-German Commission to administer the Bund. On the other hand, Green Euro MP Daniel
Cohn-Bendit feels a union would only work if it is the fruit of joint parliamentary elections.
There are, of course, many opponents to the idea on both sides of the Rhine. Despite the adoption of the
Euro, an integration of social and fiscal policy still raises eyebrows. The teaching of French or German as
a second language in schools in both the countries has seen a decline in recent years with a marked
preference for English. French or German music, television shows, books and cinema find little favour
across the Rhine. Cultural reticence with eyes on both sides fixed firmly on the Anglo-Saxon world could
be one of the biggest hurdles to Franco-German fusion.
Several leading Germans while favouring joint defence forces say they should be firmly anchored within
NATO. The French on the other hand dream of creating a purely European defence alliance completely
independent of, and as a counterweight to NATO. Germany has backed the plan for a separate European
defence initiative but recently, bowing to pressure from Washington, said it would not press for a separate
EU defence headquarters — yet.
Washington thoroughly disapproves of any possible Franco-German union. Richard Perle, senior US defence
adviser, earlier this month urged Germany to stop following France on the international political stage
saying the Franco-German relationship was harming ties with the US. He said the depth of the Franco-
German partnership was further damaging the EU’s already strained ties with the US.
The idea of a Franco-German union has also sent alarm bells ringing across Europe. Several countries,
especially Italy, Spain, Poland and Britain see this as a dangerous evolution that could break the EU.
To which the French and Germans smartly reply: We are all for European unity. But not on your terms.
11. The author uses the word locomotive. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the
given word?
a. changeable b. motile c. ambulatory d. immobile e. portable
12. The author uses the word rapprochement. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the given
word?
a. reconciliation b. grievance c. variance d. disharmony e. encountering

Test Prep
13. According to the passage,
a. Spain and Poland are empowered with special voting rights.
b. France and Germany do not have any voting rights.
c. The number of votes can make way for effective passage of legislation.
d. Voting puts pressure on countries.
e. None of the above
14. The draft Constitution aims at

a. encouraging fundamentalist tone
b. strengthening Christian roots
c. streamling structures and systems
d. inserting religious clauses
e. None of these
15. According to Fitoussi,

a. the question of underlying economic principles to govern a future European federation must be
addressed first.
b. Economic problems can be tackled later, a consensus must be reached first.
c. Europeans focus excessively on issues that separate them.
d. One should appreciate consensus
16. The strength of the Franco-German relation can be assessed from the fact that
a. both countries are large states.
b. Villepin described the union as a historical challenge.
c. the French President represented the German Chancellor at the European Council.
d. the Franco-German relation was long-lasting
17. Which of the following has not been mentioned in the passage?
a. EU b. UAE c. NATO d. US e. UN
18. Which country definitely does not have a federal form of government?
a. US b. India c. France d. Germany e. None of these
19. According to the passage,

a. a Franco-German integration of social culture is eminently possible.
b. the French people and the Germans do not approve of the Anglo-Saxon world.
c. relations between EU and the US are not very favourable.
d. a separate EU defence alliance will never see the light of the day.

Test Prep
20. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word 'homogeneity' used in the passage?
a. Coherent b. Harmony c. Congruity d. order e. None of these
21. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word 'historical' used in the passage?
a. Momentous b. Consequential c. Monumental d. Terrific e. Ancient
22. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word 'parleys' used in the passage?
a. Verbatim b. Articulation c. Conference d. Shout e. Gathering
23. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word 'impetus' used in the passage?
a. Ortund b. Gurn c. Indisposed d. Dearth e. Spur
24. The convention headed by the former French President, Valery Giscard Estaing received criticism
over the drafted constitution for which of the following reasons?
a. The drafted constitution had a non-secularist tone.
b. The drafted constitution had a secularist tone
c. The drafted constitution had missed the mention of a famous religious tenet.
d. The French president had misused his position as the head of the convention.
e. None of these.
25. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word ‘reticence’ used in the passage?
a. Ennui b. Reserved c. Oblivion d. Voluble e. Talkative
Directions for questions 26 to 30: A number of sentences are given below which, when properly sequenced,
form a coherent paragraph, Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of
sentences among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
26. A. Information Technology, television and the media in general are some examples.
B. The proof lies in the fact that the areas of economic activity free from government control have
boomed.
C. The dictatorship of the petty official and the corrupt politician has prevented and continues to
prevent India from being a rich, developed country.
D. So the lesson should be that whenever there has been democracy in economic activity there
has been progress and prosperity.
a. BACD b. CABD c. CDBA d. CBAD e. ADBC
27. A. The CEO’s stubborn stance upset the players.

B. The players had believed that their board president would fight for them.
C. He threatened that the board would field a second string team regardless of the non-participation
of the top players.
D. Instead they found him taking a hostile stance.
a. DCBA b. ACBD c. ABCD d. DABC e. DBCA

Test Prep
28. A. He travelled by bus till the late 1970’s to hawk other merchants products.
B. Some 20 years after he started from a chawl of Bhuleshwar, Mumbai as a middleman in the yarn
trade, he moved into a Rs. 100 crore mansion.
C. Twenty years later his first Cadillac was customised with an air suspension.
D. Dhirubhai Ambani has lived a full life without guilt, self remorse and without feeling inferior to
those blessed by birth.
a. ABCD b. DBCA c. DBAC d. DCBA e. ACDB
29. A. It is not often easy to cope with the shifting patterns and kaleidoscopic images of India’s rich
past where people and forces engage with structures and resources to write each chapter of its
singular saga.
B. His origins and career were as unusual as his accomplishments and legacy are.
C. India abounds in throwing up colourful personalities from its chequered pages of history.
D. Even this caveat is woefully inadequate when one attempts to introduce the richness Malik
Ambar has added to our heritage.
a. ABCD b. CABD c. CADB d. ABDC e.ACDB
30. A. Also, the recumbent posture gave the analyst the opportunity to sit behind the client’s head, out
of the client’s view; so that the analyst’s physical presence did not disturb or distract the client.
B. Even after he abandoned the use of hypnosis, the couch continued to play a role, as he believed
it caused the client to be in a state of relaxation when exploring unconscious conflicts.
C. Freud used hypnosis in the early stages of the development of psychoanalysis and, therefore, a
recumbent posture was considered more desirable.
D. The couch came to be used in therapy when, around the turn of the last century, Sigmund
Freud, the much-maligned genius, invented psychoanalysis or the “talking cure”.
a. CDAB b. ABCD c. CBAD d. DCBA e.BDCA
Directions for questions 31 to 35: There is one blank in each of the following sentences. From the words
given, choose the one that fills the blank most appropriately.
31. No very satisfactory account of the mechanism that caused the formation of the ocean basins has
yet been given. __________________.
a. Convection current theory is the most important theory to explain the intricacies of earthquakes
and volcanoes.
b. Ocean holds many important resources, which are still to be harnessed.
c. The modern view supports the rift theory to explain the structure of the land surface.
d. The traditional view supposes that the upper mantle of the earth behaves as a liquid when it is
subjected to small forces
e. None of these.

Test Prep
32. Although small companies were the first to have women directors, ___________.
a. most of the women who have risen up in the hierarchy got the top position only after the merger
of companies.
b. women directors have proved themselves to be more successful than their male colleagues.
c. women are uniquely positioned to be responsive to some of these concerns.
d. large corporations currently have a higher percentage of women on their boards.
e. None of these.
33. Japanese firms have achieved the highest levels of manufacturing efficiency in the world automobile
industry. ______________.
a. This is true not only for their plants in Japan but also in other countries as well.
b. Some observers of Japan have assumed that Japanese firms use the same manufacturing
equipment and techniques as United States firms.
c. Some other link high Japanese productivity to higher levels of capital investment per worker.
d. The management of these firms is also under study to identify why the Japanese firms are more
efficient.
e. None of these.
34. The promise of finding long-term technological solutions to the problem of world food shortages
seems difficult to fulfill. _________________.
a. Recent innovations are promising indeed and the day is not far when world would free from
hunger.
b. The best way to end hunger from world is to incorporate changes in our consumption patterns.
c. Governments, all over the world, have whole-heartedly supported the research to end hunger
from this world.
d. Many innovations that were once heavily supported and publicized have since fallen by the
wayside.
e. None of these.
35. The members of the constituent assembly were correct in their predictions._________________.
a. They had overstepped the limitations that the assembly imposed on them.
b. They knew beforehand that the constitution would be tested only after its put into action.
c. Even after 60 years of its operation, the constitution has successfully guided the Indian democracy.
d. The constitution is a dynamic body of rules and it needs to be updated continuously.
e. None of these.
Directions for questions 36 to 40: There are two blanks in each of the following sentences. From the
pairs of words given, choose the one that fills the blanks most appropriately. The first word in the pair
should fill the first blank.
36 . The courts of civilised states have ________ and acknowledged that a prolonged delay in _________
a death sentence can make the punishment, when it comes, inhuman and degrading.
a. recognized, executing
b. refused, completing
c. understood, suspending
d. accepted, denying
e. denied, carrying

Test Prep
37 . According to the World Bank report, Dubai is seen as a more ________market as it has the
experience, infrastructure and _________business environment.
a. advanced, dynamic
b. fruitful, static
c. naïve, stable
d. traditional, constricted
e. open, anachronistic
38. In the medieval period, it was pretty ________ for the church to believe that it is the earth that
________ around the sun and not the other way around.
a. outlandish, revolves
b. charismatic, rotates
c. entreating, rotates
d. beseeching, revolves
e. whimsical, rotates
39. It is not a chance that many people find Salman Rushdie’s book disturbing, for it is purposefully
________ to question a number of beliefs they have long ________.
a. designed, cherished
b. annotated, assimilated
c. intended, refuted
d. anxious, misunderstood
e. reputed, rejected
40. Rajesh is very disappointed, although he is a ________ talker, when it comes to convincing a
prospective customer, he ________ the power to convert a prospective customer into a loyal customer.
a. logical, claimed
b. convincing, held
c. glib, lacks
d. true, acquired
e. plausible, lacked

Test Prep
Section – II
41. In a plane there are 37 straight lines, of which 13 pass through the point A and 11 pass through the
point B. Besides, no three lines pass through one point, no line passes through both points A and B,
and no two lines are parallel. Find the number of points of intersection of the straight lines.
a. 537 b. 533 c. 535 d. 531 e. None of these
42. Given that ‘abc’ is a three digit number such that each of the digits a, b and c is distinct and is a
factor of 6. What is the sum of all such number, possible?
a. 8992 b. 7992 c. 9992 d. 6992 e. 5992
43. On the last day of college, every student exchanged autograph with all the students except himself.
A total of 870 autographs were exchanged. How many students were there in the college?
a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 48 e. 36
44. Two men and 8 children can do a piece of work in 30 days with each man working 6 hours in a day
and each child working 4 hours in a day. In how many days will 6 men and 16 children complete the
same work if each child and each man work for 2 hours in a day?
a. 20 days b. 30 days c. 40 days d. 42 days e. Cannot be determined
45. We have 60 L of alcohol in a container. 6 L of alcohol is taken out in one operation and is replaced
by the same amount of water. How many times more this operation should be carried out to get a
final solution of 81% alcohol?
a. One b. Three c. Four d. Five e. None of these
0.7 + 0.07 × 777 + 77 ÷ 7 − 0.007

46. simplifies to.
0.007 − 7 ÷ 77 − 777 ÷ 0.07 − 0.7
a. –0.0595 b. –0.59 c. –0.006 d. –0.0005 e. –5.95
 0.000001 + 0.0004   0.0025 + 0.0036 

47.   ×   , simplifies to.
 0.0009 + 0.0016   0.000049 + 0.000064 
a. 2.20 b. 22.0 c. 0.22 d. 0.022 e. 0.0022
 1 1 1 1 1
48. X =  1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5  , find the value of X
 2 3 4 5 6
339 329 319 309

a. b. c. d. e. None of these
20 20 20 20

Test Prep
Directions for questions: 49 to 53: Simplify the following questions.
 0.027 − 1   0.027 + 0.09 + 0.3 

49.  ÷ 
 0.33 − 0.3   0.09 + 0.3 
a. 0.09 b. 0.03 c. 0.3 d. 3.33 e. 9
(1331 + 121 + 33 × 12 + 22) + 2

50.
112 + 22 + 1
0.16 + 0.09 + 0.24

51.
0.16 − 0.09
a. 1 b. 10 c. 0.1 d. 0.25 e. None of these
0.064 - 0.027
52. × 100
0.09 + 0.16 + 0.12
a. 0.001 b. 0.01 c. 1 d. 10 e. 100
16 × (0.4)5 − 6.4
53.
(4 × 0.16 + 4)(0.8 + 2)
a. –0.8 b. –0.6 c. –0.48 d. –0.96 e. None of these
(9.09)3 + (1.01)3
54. evaluates to
(9.09)2 − (9.09 × 1.01) + (1.01)2
a. 8.08 b. 1.01 c. 10.1 d. 0.808 e. None of these
55. The number of ways to distribute 40 different things equally, among 5 persons is given by
40! 40! 40! 40!
a. b. c. d. e. None of these
5! (8!) 8! (5!) (8!) (5!)8
5 8 5
56. Which of the following values of x, satisfy the equation given below?
1 1 1
logb x + 3logb + logb 32 = 0
2 x 10
2 5

Test Prep
57. What will be the ratio of the volume of the largest sphere that can be inscribed in a cylinder, whose
height is greater than its diameters, to the largest cube that can be inscribed in that sphere?
a. π 3 : 8 b. π 3 : 2 c. π : 2 d. π : 2 e. Cannot be determined
58. For what values of ‘a’ does the equation (a – 1)x2 + x + (a + 1) = 0 has real and distinct roots?
5 5 5
a. a > 1 or a < –1 b. − <a< c. 1 < a <
2 2 2
5
d. − < a <1 e. None of these
2
59. If (52% of 212) + (26% of x) = 310,then what is the value of x?

a. 650.44 b. 750.33 c. 822 d. 768.30 e. 914
Directions for questions 60 to 64: Follow the pattern and identify the next term of the series.
60. 0, 15, 48, 105, _____

61. 4, 11, 22, 37, 56, _____

a. 73 b. 76 c. 79 d. 83 e. 87
62. 3, 7, 19, 55, 163, _____

63. 87, 303, 951, 2895, _____

64. 122, 146, 172, 200, _____

a. 235 b. 220 c. 230 d. 225 e. 240
Direction for questions 65 to 69: Following questions are followed by two statements, I and II. Answer
each question using the following instructions:
Mark (a) if the question can be answered by using the statement I alone but not by using the
statement II alone.
Mark (b) if the question can be answered by using the statement II alone but not by using the
statement I alone.
Mark (c) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (d) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of
the statements alone.
Mark (e) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
65. What is the value of y if y is an integer?

I. x2 + y2 = 8
II. x2 – 4x + 4 + y2 = 0

Test Prep
66. The ratio of ages of Ramesh to that of Anil is 3:2 and the ratio of age of Arun to that of Ramesh is
1:2.What is the age of Anil?
I. The difference between the age of Anil and Arun is 10
II. The total age of Ramesh, Anil and Arun is 70.
67. Is a > b?
a
I.   + x > 2, x > 3.
b
a
II.   + x is a positive integer.
b
68. The total number of students in a class is 450. The average age of the students is 20 years. What
can be the maximum age of a student in the class?
I. The minimum age of a student is 15
II. One of the students is of age 22 years.
69. What is the nature of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c?

I. a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca
II. a2 + b2 + c2 = 1
3  7   2162 
70.  × 778  +  3 × 7799  +  1243  = ?
7     
a. 18532.82 b. 750.33 c. 822 d. 17230.66 e. 914
Directions for questions 71 to 75: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The following graph represents the financial performance of XICOM Ltd from the year 1996 to 2000.
120
100
80
In Rs. crore
60
40
20
0
1996 1997 1998 1999 2000
Sales Expenditure Equity

Profit = (Sales – Expenditure)

Test Prep
71. In which year, was the sales per rupee of expenditure the lowest?
a. 1996 b. 1997 c. 1998 d. 1999 e. 2000
72. In which year, was the sales per rupee of equity the highest?
a. 1996 b. 1997 c. 1998 d. 1999 e. Cannot be determined
73. In which year, was the profit per rupee of equity the highest?
74. In which year, was the sales per rupee of equity the lowest?
75. In which year, was the profit per rupee of sales the lowest?
a. 1997 b. 1998 c. 1999 d. 2000 e. 1996
Directions for questions 76 to 80: Answer the questions based on the bar graph given below.
The bar graph represents the percentage of total companies present in India which were involved in social
work in 2002 and further broken it up into different types of companies and their respective percentages.
Percentage of companies
100
95
95
90
84 85
85 83
80
75
All Indian Foreign PSU
76. What is the ratio of the numbers of foreign and PSU companies involved in social work in 2002?
a. 0.91 b. 0.81 c. 0.89 d. 0.83 e. Cannot be determined
77. If the total number of companies in India in 2002 was 4,950, out of which 90% were Indian and 12%
of those Indian companies were the only PSUs in the country, then how many Indian PSUs did
social work in 2002?
78. Based on the information in question 77, what is the ratio of Indian and foreign companies doing
social work in 2002? [Assume all the companies, which are not Indian, are Foreign]
a. 8.8 b. 9.5 c. 9.0 d. 8.2 e. None of these

Test Prep
79. Based on the information in question 77, if on an average, one Indian company donated Rs. 1 lakh
and one foreign company donated Rs. 2.5 lakh for social work, then how much money was donated?
a. Rs. 34.75 crore b. Rs. 51.20 crore c. Rs. 47.50 crore
d. Rs. 29.35 crore e. None of these
80. If the total number of companies in India in 2002 were 10000 and 60% of those were foreign
companies, out of which 30% constituted all the working in PSUs of the country, then how many
PSU companies in India were not involved in social work in 2002?
For three magazines, Business Today, Business India and Business World, Table-1, shows the number of
readers (in ‘000) under five different categories – A, B, C, D and E, in the year 2002. Table - 2 shows the
percentage change in the number of readers under these categories in the year 2002 over the year 2001.
Table 1: Readership (2002)
Categories Business Today Business India Business world

A 200 180 75
B 450 420 180
C 310 280 160
D 500 470 165
E 240 220 80
Total Readers 1710 1570 660
Table 2: Growth in Readership (over 2001)
Categories Business Today Business India Business world

A 25 –3 –3
B 32 2 –6
C 28 2 –5
D 32 8 –4
E 20 4 –1
81. In the year 2002, what was the percentage increase in the number of readers, combined across the
five categories, for the magazine Business Today?
a. 21.50% b. 29.35% c. 32.50% d. 22.6% e. 31.25%
82. What was the difference in the number of readers of Business Today and Business India in 2001 in
the category C?
a. 20,503 b. 11,234 c. 31,232 d. 32,322 e. 33,000
83. In 2002, what percentage of its readers (combining all categories) did Business world loose as
compared to the previous year?
a. 3.50% b. 8.95% c. 7.25% d. 5.75% e. 4.35%

Test Prep
84. What was the readership share of Business India in 2002?
a. 17% b. 37% c. 47% d. 51% e. Data insufficient
85. In the year 2001, what percentage of its readers of Business Today(across the five categories)
comprised of the readers under categories E ?
a. 18% b. 15% c. 10% d. 8% e. 12%
The following table shows the composition of the number of passengers who travelled by different domestic
airlines, in three successive years.
Year
Airlines 1998-99 1999-2000 2000-01
Indian Airlines 17% 10% 17%
Air Sahara 4% 5% 3%
Jet Airways 76% 80% 75%
Alliance Air 3% 5% 5%
Total passengers
1000 1500 2000
(in ’000)
86. Over the period of 3 years, what was the ratio of the total number of passengers who travelled by
Indian Airlines to the total number of passengers who travelled by Jet Airways?
a. 11 : 58 b. 1 : 5 c. 33 : 173 d. 5 : 1 e. None of these
87. For any of the given airlines, what has been the maximum percentage increase in the number of
passengers, over the previous year ?
a. 100% b. 150% c. 66.7% d. 175% e. None of these
88. What was the maximum fall in the number of passengers recorded by any of these airlines ?
a. 20,000 b. 18,000 c. 25,000 d. 15,000 e. None of these
89. What was the maximum percentage fall in the number of passengers of any of these airlines, in any
of these years over the previous year?
a. 5% b. 20% c. 15% d. 10% e. None of these
90. Let A be the percentage change in the number of passengers that travelled by Air Sahara from
1998–99 to 1999–2000 and B, be the percentage change in the number of passengers travelled by
Alliance Air from 1998–99 to 1999–2000. Find B – A.
a. 75% b. 62.5% c. 50% d.37.5% e. None of these

Test Prep
Section – III
Directions for questions 91 to 98: In these type of questions, a pair of words is given, followed by five
pairs of words as alternatives. You have to choose the pair in which the words bear the same relationship
to each other as that in the given figure.
91. Bomb : Destruction

a. Cement : Pillars b. Curve : Digression c. Circular : Rotation
d. Pest : Extermination e. Salt : Preservation
92. Treaty : Bond

a. Poem : Sonnet b. Speech : Words c. Play : Amusement
d. Essay : Topic e. Painting : Brushes
93. Sunlight : Photosynthesis

a. Degree : Dissertation b. Yeast : Fermentation c. Composition : Paragraph
d. Body : Pigmentation e. Puppets : Orchestration
94. Neophyte : Immature

a. River : Ocean b. Mountain : Peak c. Root : Tree
d. Moonlight : Brightness e. Hubris : Arrogance
95. Taunts : Unpleasantness

a. Brain : Skull b. Democracy : Right c. Barren : Fertile
d. Virus : Disease e. Surgeon : Scalpel
96. Green : Leaves

a. Mars : Sun b. Proprietor : Trustee c. Uncle : Nephew
d. Transparent : Glass e. Bank : Money
97. Needle : Stitch

a. Aeroplane : Aerodrome b. Teeth : Masticate c. Hammer : Iron
d. Gold : Ornaments e. Novel : Paper
98. Height : Depth

a. Run : Jump b. Brick : House c. Stretch : Shrink
d. Seconds : Minute e. Wall : Paper
Directions for questions 99 and 100: Five words are given in each of the following questions. Four of
them are similar or connected to each other in some way. You have to pick the odd word out.
99. a. Quagmire b. Predicament c. Paradox

d. Agreement e. Crisis
100. a. Revelment b. Merriment c. Reverberate

d. Festivity e. Gaiety

Test Prep
Directions for questions 101 to 105: Answer the questions based on the following information.
In taking decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’
arguments and ‘weak’ arguments in so far as they relate to the question. ‘Strong’ arguments are those
which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of
minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect
of the question.
Each question below is followed by a statement and two arguments, numbered I and II. You have to decide
which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Mark the answer:

a. if only argument I is strong.
b. if only argument II is strong.
c. if neither I nor II is strong.
d. if both I and II are strong.
e. if none are applicable.
101. Statement:
Should the consumption of aerated drinks be banned in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it is banned in many other countries also.
II. No, there is no confirmed evidence that such products have adverse effects on human body
102. Statement:
Should the rule of wearing helmet for both driver and pillion-rider while riding a motorbike be enforced
strictly?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it is rule and rules should be followed strictly by all.
II. No, each individual knows to protect his own life and it should be left to his discretion.
103. Statement:
Should all the management institutes in the country be brought under government control?
Arguments:
I. No, the government does not have adequate resources to run such institutes effectively.
II. Yes, this will enable to have standardised education for all the students.
104. Statement:
Should all the youngsters below 21 years of age be disallowed from going to a beer bar?
Arguments:
I. No, it is not correct to prevent mature youngsters above 18 years of age who can vote from having
fun.
II. Yes, the entry fee to such pubs should also be hiked.
105. Statement:
Should class IV children have board examination?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will motivate the children to study and get higher marks.
II. No, the children will be forced to study and won’t enjoy the process.

Test Prep
Directions for questions 106 to 110: Each question consists of a statement followed by two conclusions,
I and II. Study the following statements and then:
Mark the answer:

a. If conclusion is definitely true
b. If conclusion is definitely false
c. If conclusion is probably true
d. If conclusion is probably false
e. If given data is inadequate
Man, in order to escape his conflicts, has invented many forms of meditation. These have been based on
desire, will and the urge for achievement and imply conflict and a struggle to arrive. This conscious,
deliberate striving is always within the limits of a conditioned mind and in this there is no freedom. All effort
to meditate is the denial of meditation. Meditation is the ending of the thought. It is only then that there is
a different dimension, which is beyond time. A meditative mind is silent. It is not the silence which thought
can conceive of; it is not the silence of a still evening; it is the silence when thought – with all its images,
its words and perceptions – has entirely ceased. This meditative mind is the religious mind – the religion
that is not touched by the church, the temple or by chants.
106. Meditation can reduce the conflicts of mind.
107. The objective of meditation is freedom of mind.
108. A tranquil mind is a meditative mind.
109. A meditative mind is deeply engrossed in the scriptures.
110. True meditation is cessation of all activities and desires.
Directions for questions 111 to 115: Each question consists of two statements (statement I and II) which
could be independent or related. You have to determine which one is the cause and which one is the effect,
and then mark answers as per following instructions:
Mark the answer:

a. If both are independent causes.
b. If both are independent effects.
c. If second one is the cause and the first one is the effect.
d. If first one is the cause and the second one is the effect.
e. If none are applicable.
111. I. Robert Koch showed the world that TB is not a scourge, curse or god’s punishment but a
bacterial disease that can be cured.
II. World TB Day (March 24) is a day when we remember Robert Koch.
112. I. Violent incidents in schools are on the rise.

II. Exposure to violence both off and on the screen can breed violence.
113. I. So, finally he decided to get married.

II. Therefore, we planned to study together.

Test Prep
114. I. The accused have been restrained from leaving the country.
II. They have to appear in court on April 18, the next date of hearing.
115. I. The Union Government would promulgate an ordinance on Friday to identify some posts as
office of non-profit.
II. Thus, a meeting regarding it was held at the residence of Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.
Directions for questions 116 to 120: Read the arguments given below and answer the questions that
follow.
116. Rock concerts at some of the UK’s most important historic buildings have put them at risk of
damage from powerful bass note vibrations, according to research by scientists at Hampton Court
Palace. The researchers analysed vibrations caused by the palace’s annual summer music festival,
which this year featured Bryan Ferry, Tom Jones, Van Morrison and Jools Holland. They found that
bass notes are able to induce vibrations in window panes that could lead to damage. The study
raises serious questions about other historic buildings that act as venues for live music events, and
often rely on the revenue from them.
Which of the following statements reinforces the findings of the research?
a. The behaviourial patterns of rock fans at these venues has also led to a movement against
staging rock concerts at these venues.
b. A number of historians are of the view that these buildings will be unable to survive the vibrations,
though preserved, these buildings were never exposed to such extreme conditions in the past.
c. Many musicians believe that the researchers conveniently and deliberately overlooked the safety
arrangements which were made specially for this particular venue.
d. Rock fans believe that the historical buildings must be conserved but not at the cost of sacrificing
music concerts.
e. Some historians and researchers involved in this survey have been charged with tampering with
the results.
117. It is in Iraq that all the various aspects of Bush’s character have perilously combined: his tendency
to exceed, his need to prove himself, his search for the Big Idea, his need to drive himself to the
limits of endurance. “The job of the president,” Bush tells Draper as he munches on a sausage in the
Oval Office, “is to think strategically so that you can accomplish big objectives. As opposed to
playing mini-ball. You’ve gotta think, think BIG.” In all this, he shows not a smidgeon of self-doubt -
a conscious ploy as it now turns out. “I try not to wear my worries on my sleeve,” he tells Draper,
adding later, “Self-pity is the worst thing that can happen to a presidency. This is a job where you
can have a lot of self-pity.”
Which of the following statements is similar to President Bush’s point of view?
a. A President is like a one - man show which does not require any external support to run itself
under any circumstance or in case of any situation.
b. A President is similar to a versatile actor who can manage every situation with sincerity, style
and humour at the sametime.
c. A President is like a comic character who needs to exaggerate every action undertaken by him.
d. A President is similar to a businessman who is an epitome of artfulness and perseverance.
e. A President is like a visionary who knows what the future holds and makes decisions,
in accordance.

Test Prep
118. Mr. Fleischer said the rise of the internet meant that vast amounts of information were being shipped
around the globe, often to countries with no official data protection. Without a new set of rules to
apply worldwide, surfers could lose confidence in the internet and hamper its development. “Three
quarters of the countries in the world have no privacy regimes at all and among those that do have
laws, many of them were largely adopted before the rise of the internet,” he said. “It’s said that every
time you use a credit card, your details are passed through six different countries. We’re talking
about this to help set the framework for the internet of the future.” Mr. Fleischer will address the
problem at the meeting, which is focused on the ethics of working in an information-based society.
The danger of failing to address privacy on a worldwide basis, he is expected to say, is that the
internet’s progress will be undermined by the rise in online crimes.
Which of the following statements reinstates Mr. Fleischer’s point of view?
a. On failing to create firewalls to keep away hackers from websites, a number of corporations have
begun to file lawsuits against hackers.
b. Internet crime is an important issue but at the moment most firms are interested in reaping
maximum financial benefits out of the dot com business.
c. Internet has slowly crept into our lives and opened the door to the world of abundant content and
information which can only prove to be useful.
d. The internet boom is the most important development in the history of mankind and even more
important is the need to use it to its optimum potential.
e. The effect of internet crime cannot be underestimated; however, most countries have not raised
the issue on an international level.
119. The funnies are on the frontline of a TV revolution. As General Musharraf clings to power and the
country swings from one crisis to another, stations offering 24-hour coverage have done more than
just report the news, analysts say - they are indirectly making it. “The channels brought the battle
into people’s living rooms,” said Adnan Rehmat of Internews, which promotes independent media.
“Minute-by-minute coverage exposed Musharraf’s actions in real time, galvanising opinion and forcing
people to take sides. It brought everything out into the open.”
Which of the following statements weakens Mr. Rehmat’s argument?
a. Media is misusing the freedom of speech and conditioning the audiences’ mindset.
b. General Musharraf has passed a bill which grants certain liberties to Pakistani media agencies.
c. Media agencies, all over the world, consider Pakistani agencies as the icon of unbiased and
focused news reporting.
d. General Musharraf has been condemning the reports aired on the news channels.
e. Pakistani audience believes that this kind of news reporting is considerably more entertaining
than the usual news bulletin.

Test Prep
120. It’s nice to be included in people’s fantasies but you also like to be accepted for your own sake.
I don’t look at myself as a commodity, but I’m sure a lot of people do. Including, well, one corporation
in particular, which shall be nameless. If I’m sounding picked on or something, I think I am. I’ll think
I have a few wonderful friends and all of a sudden, ooh, here it comes. They do a lot of things. They
talk about you in the press, to their friends, tell stories, and you know, it’s disappointing. These are
the ones you aren’t interested in seeing every day of your life. Of course, it does depend on the
people, but sometimes I’m invited to places to kind of brighten up a dinner table like a musician
who’ll play the piano after dinner, and I know you’re not really invited for yourself. You’re just an
ornament.
Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the author’s opinion?
a. A large number of corporations pay huge sums of money for celebrity appearances but most of
the times celebrity managers’ intervene and create problems for both parties.
b. A large number of corporations condemn celebrity appearances and endorsements.
c. Many celebrities admit that they enjoy the recognition and fan following that is bestowed on
them by people.
d. Many celebrities believe that this commodification hampers their public image and can also
prove detrimental to their career.
e. A large number of corporations pay enormous amount of money to celebrities who willingly
accept payment for making appearances and endorsing various brands.
Directions for questions 121 to 125: In each of the following questions, there are three statements
(labelled I, II and III) which should from a coherent paragraph. Statement II is left blank. From the given
options, choose the appropriate statements which can fill in the blank, so that statement III logically
follows from statements I and II.
121. I. Chief Inspector Armand Gamache of the Surêté du Québec and his team of investigators are
called in to the scene of a suspicious death in a rural village south of Montreal.
II. _____________________________________________________
III. The locals are certain it’s a tragic hunting accident and nothing more, but Gamache smells
something foul in these remote woods, and is soon certain that Jane Neal died at the hands of
someone much more sinister than a careless bowhunter.
A. Still Life introduces not only an engaging series hero in Inspector Gamache, who commands his
forces—and this series—with integrity and quiet courage, but also a winning and talented new
writer of traditional mysteries in the person of Louise Penny.
B. After years covering disasters and politics, she quit in order to write crime fiction.
C. Jane Neal, a local fixture in the tiny hamlet of Three Pines, just north of the U.S. border, has
been found dead in the woods.
a. Only A b. A and B c. Only C d. Only B e. A, B and C

Test Prep
122. I. AN ESTIMATED yield loss of 20 per cent in sugarcane due to rodent damage has been reported
even in a well-maintained field.
II. ________________________________________________
III. Total rat control can be achieved only through an integrated approach.
A. At first instance place 2 per cent zinc phosphide baiting followed by bromadiolone (0.005 per
cent) baiting after 2 or 3 days.
B. This damage cannot be easily noticed in densely grown fields. Farmers generally use the common
rodenticide, zinc phosphide with bait which offers temporary relief .
C. Bromadiolone baiting should be carried out thereafter as and when necessary till the fresh
damage is checked.
123. I. Users of a bullhorn should always respect the rights of others.

II. ________________________________________________
III. Police officers can enforce noise restriction laws on unauthorized bullhorn broadcasts in public
areas.
A Individuals may enjoy the protection of free speech, but courts often rule against the use of
amplification devices, which infringe on other peaceable assemblies.
B One drawback to using a bullhorn as a public address system is vocal clarity.
C. This can also cause a loop to form as the background noise is fed back into the microphone.
124. I. The Bermuda Triangle is an imaginary triangle stretching from the east coast of Florida to the
island of Bermuda and back to Puerto Rico.
II. ________________________________________________
III. Yes, I am being slightly sarcastic because I’m a bit tired of all the tales surrounding the Bermuda
Triangle. But I have to admit being enchanted by it.
A. Many of the disappearances discussed in these articles and others did not even occur in the
area of the Triangle.
B. The term “Bermuda Triangle” was first used in an article written by Vincent H. Gaddis for Argosy
magazine in 1964.
C. Ever since the passage of Columbus through these waters countless stories have been told
(and re-told) of curses, balls of fire, swooping dragons, methane gas, sea monsters, and deadly
tides.

Test Prep
125. I. Bonded Labour is the existing form of slavery.
II. ________________________________________________
III. Yet, 20 million of the humanity is trapped and victimised in a system that has defied and
continues to defy and deny human rights to men, women and children.
A. Unconstitutional, yet present in most of the south Asian countries, bonded labour is not an
issue that political parties have on their agenda, nor is it a mainstream concern.
B. Prevalent in India, Pakistan, Nepal and Bangladesh, this form of slavery has continued to exist
for decades or even perhaps centuries in these areas.
C. It is a vicious and a ruthless cycle that leaves the vulnerable section of our societies with little
choice and no support.
a. Only A b. B and C c. Only C d. Only B e. A, B and C
126. If SCIENTIST is coded RDHFMUHTS, then what will be the code for UNIQUE?
a. TOHRTE b. TOHSTF c. THORTF
d. TOHRTF e. TOHRTG
127. If ORIGINAL is coded PTLKNTHT, then what will be the code for REMARKS?
a. SGPFWQZ b. SGPEWRZ c. SGPEWQZ
d. SGEPWQZ e. SGPEVQZ
128. If the animals, who can walk are called ‘swimmers’, animals, who ‘crawl’ are called ‘flying’, those
who lives in water, are called ‘snakes’ and those who fly in the sky, are called ‘hunters’, then what
will a ‘common lizard’ be called?
a. swimmer b. snake c. hunter
d. flying e. None of these
129. If ‘cloud’ is called ‘white’, ‘white’ is called ‘rain’, ‘rain’ is called ‘green’, ‘green’ is called ‘air’, ‘air’ is
called ‘blue’ and ‘blue’ is called ‘water’, where do the birds fly in?
a. air b. cloud c. white
d. rain e. blue
130. If ‘air’ is called ‘water’, ‘water’ is called ‘green’, ‘green’ is called ‘dust’, ‘dust’ is called ‘yellow’ and
‘yellow’ is called ‘cloud’, in which of the following does the fish live in?
a. air b. water c. green
d. dust e. yellow

Test Prep
I. A group of six persons namely A, B, C, D, E and F are members of a club.
II. Out of these six persons, two are musicians, two are badminton players, one is a photographer and
one is a magician.
III. A, the photographer, is married to D who is a musician.
IV. The magician is married to B who is of the same profession as that of F.
V. A, B, C and D are two married couples in the group.
VI. F the unmarried badminton player is the brother of C.
VII. Among the two badminton players only one is male.
VIII. The only married musician in the group is a female.
131. Which of the following is a pair of musicians?

a. BE b. BF c. DE d. AC e. BD
132. Who is the magician in the group?

a. B b. C c. E
d. Both (a) and (b) e. Cannot be determined
133. What is the profession of B?

a. Badminton player b. Musician c. Magician
d. Photographer e. Cannot be determined
134. Which of the following is definitely a pair of males only?

a. AB b. BC c. EC d. AC e. FD
135. Which one of the following is a pair of only married females in the group?
a. CD b. AD c. AB d. BD e. AC
8 persons namely L, M, N, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a square table such that there are 2 persons
on each side and they are all facing the centre of the table.
i. P sits between L and S.
ii. Q sits 2 places to the left of L.
iii. R who is T’s neighbour sits opposite to L.
iv. M sits 2 places to the left of R.
136. Who sits opposite to P?

a. T b. M c. N d. S e. R
137. Who sits 2 places to the right of S?

a. P b. M c. T d. L e. L
138. Between which two persons, does L sit?

a. M-P b. N-P c. N-R d. T-Q e. S-T
139. Who amongst the following is a neighbour of L?

a. S b. Q c. P d. R e. M
140. Who sits exactly opposite Q?

a. S b. P c. M d. N e. S

Test Prep
Section – IV
141. Match the following crop season’s durations with their respective months.
a. Kharif 1. July-October
b. Rabi 2. November-March
c. Zayad 3. March-June
a. a–1, b–2, c–3 b. a–3, b–2, c–1 c. a–1, b–2, c–3

d. a–1, b–3, c–1 e. a–3, b–1, c–2
142. Which of the following is the major objective of The National Resource Management (NRM)?
a. prevention of land degradation and restoration of productive potential of the degraded lands in the
country.
b. to empower people by providing skills training and to provide gainful employment to them in rural
areas.
c. to develop the mineral resources of the country and to exploit them keeping view the needs of
the future generations.
d. Both (a) and (c)
e. Both (b) and (c)
143. Which of the following information about NABARD is incorrect?

a. NABARD is formed through the Act 61 of 1981and came into existence on 12 July 1982.
b. NABARD took over the functions of the erstwhile Agricultural Credit Department (ACD) and
Rural Planning and Credit Cell (RPCC) of RBI and Agricultural Refinance and Development
Corporation (ARDC).
c. Dr. Y. C. Nanda is present Chairman of NABARD
d. It promotes research in the fields of rural banking, agriculture and rural development.
e. NABARD is headquartered at Mumbai.
144. Indian Institute of Horticulture Research is located in which of the following cities?
a. Kohima b. Shimla c. Meerut
d. Dehradun e. Bangalore
145. The recommendations of 13th Finance Commission’s recommendations cover the period ranging
from …
a. 2008 to 2013 b. 2009 to 2014 c. 2010 to 2015
d. 2011 to 2016 e. None of these
146. Which of the following represents the year in which National Rural Health mission was launched ?
a. 2001 b. 2003 c. 2005 d. 2007 e. 2009
147. Which of the following personalities is the winner of the World Food Prize -2010?
a. Philip E. Nelson b. J Luck c. David Beekman
d. Gebisa Ejeta e. Both (b) and (c)

Test Prep
148. Which of the following represents the duration of the fourth five year plan?
a. 1966 – 1971 b. 1967 – 1972 c. 1968 – 1973
d. 1969 – 1974 e. 1970 – 1975
149. What percentage of the Indian population is employed in the agriculture sector?
a.46% b.48% c. 50% d. 52% e.54%
150. The year 2008 marked the _____anniversary of World Health Organization(WHO).
a.30th b.40th c.50th d.60th e. None of these
151. Where would you find the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) in the world?
a. Malaysia b. Singapore c. Hong Kong d. Indonesia e. Philippines
152. World Consumer Rights Day is celebrated on _____every year.

a. February 15 b. March 15 c. April 15
d. May 15 e. June 15
153. The present president of World Bank is …

a. Paul Wolfowitz b. Susan Schwab c. Robert Zoellick
d. Rodrigo Rato e. None of these
154. The primary/major nutrients supplied by fertilizers to the crops are…

a. Ca, Mg, S b. N, P,K c. Mg, P, K
d. N, Mg, K e. N ,Ca, S
155. Which of the following personalities is the present chairman of NABARD?

a. Parthi Bhatol b. Verghese Kurien c. M. S. Swaminathan
d. U.C. Sarangi e. H. M. Dalaya
156. South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) replaced South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement (SAPTA)
in…
a. 2003 b. 2004 c. 2005 d. 2006 e. 2007
157. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with organization of agriculture and animal husbandry?
a. Article 48 b. Article 48A c. Article 44 d. Article 51A e. Article 42
158. In the context of international trade what do you mean by “Dumping”?

a. Exporting goods of inferior quality.
b. Exporting goods at prices below the actual cost of production.
c. Exporting goods without paying any duties or taxes.
d. Exporting goods at unreasonably high rates.
e. Exporting goods at free of cost.
159. Which of the following represents the targeted year for the eradication of poverty as per the National
Rural Livelihood Mission?
a. 2012-2013 b. 2013-2014 c. 2014-2015
d. 2015-2016 e. None of these

Test Prep
160. This personality is known as the father of poultry industry of India. We are talking about....
a. C. Subramanium b.B.V. Rao c. Salim Ali
d. S.S. Bhatnagar e. None of these
161. The chairman of the Central Water Commission of India is …

a. A.K. Bajaj b. T.R. Balu c. Hanumant Rao
d. Pawan Kumar Bansal e. Vayalar Ravi
162. The chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India is ...
a. K .V. Kamath b. M. Damodaran c. Y.V. Reddy
d. C.B. Bhave e. Rajnikant Patel
163. Reserve Bank of India was established by which of the following acts?
a. Reserve Bank of India Act 1934
b. Reserve Bank of India Act 1935
c. Reserve Bank of India Act 1949
d. Reserve Bank of India Act 1950
e. None of the above.
164. What is “Sarvpriya” scheme?

a. Scheme for girls of age 10-18 regarding schooling, malnutrition, and early marriage.
b. Scheme of distributing mid-day meal to school children
c. Scheme for distribution of selected items of consumer goods to benefit the common people,
particularly those of the lower income groups and people living in the rural areas.
d. Scheme for rural women for exploring new job opportunities in handcraft items.
e. None of these
165. Identify the incorrect match.
Scheme Year of beginning

a. Bharat Nirman Program 2005
b. NREGS 2006
c.Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana 2007
d. Twenty point program 1975
e. All of the above schemes are matched properly
166. Which of the following represents the Cash Reserve Ratio as on 29th July 2010?
a. 4.5% b. 5% c. 5.25% d. 5.5% e. 6%
167. Match the following:

a. Pascal Lamy 1. President Asian Development Bank
b. Klaus Schwab 2. Managing Director IMF.
c. Dominique Strauss Kahn 3. Founder President WEF
d. Haruhiko Kuroda 4. Director- General WTO
a. a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4 b. a–4, b–2, c–3, d–1 c. a–4, b–3, c–1, d–2
d. a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1 e. a–4, b–1, c–3, d–2

Test Prep
168. Which of the following represents the present rate of service tax?
a. 10.3% b. 11.6% c. 12.4% d. 13.7% e. None of these
169. HDI (Human Development Index) prepared by UNDP (United Nations Development Program) to
measure human development since 1990. The HDI is a composite index of the following except
a. Life expectancy or Longevity - As measured by life expectancy at birth.
b. Adult literacy & years of schooling
c. Real GDP (Gross Domestic Product) per capita.
d. Government expenditure (on general public)
e. None of these.
170. NABARD, the apex development bank of India, has the mandate to work in which of the following
areas?
a. for facilitating credit flow for promotion and development of agriculture
b. small-scale industries
c. cottage and village industries
d. handicrafts and other rural crafts.
e. All of the above.
171. Which of the following is the most corrupt nation of the world as per the Corruption Perception Index
-2009 released by Transparency International?
a. Iraq b. Afghanistan c. Somalia d. Myanmar e. Haiti
172. Which of the following is the balanced application/ideal ratio (in N: P: K form) of the usage of
fertilizers, where N, P and K stand for Nitrogen, Phosphorus and Potassium?
a. 4 : 2 : 2 b. 4 : 3 : 2 c. 4 : 2 : 1 d. 4 : 3 : 1 e. 4 : 1 : 1
173. The president of National Association of Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM) is …
a. Som Mittal b. Ganesh Natarajan c. Kiran Karnik
d. Pramod Bhasin e. Chandrajeet Bannerjee .
174. Kutir Jyoti scheme is associated with...

a. Promoting rural girl children
b. Promoting rural cottage industry
c. Providing electricity to rural families living below poverty line.
d. Promoting employment opportunities to rural women
e. None of these
175. Who is the Chairman of Board of Direct Taxes?

a. SSN Moorthy b. Dhyan Mishra c. RMS Rajaswamy
d. Rakesh Jain e. None of these
176. Who is appointed as the chairman of the Unique Identification Authority of India?
a. Sam Pitroda b. Nandan Nilekani c. S. Ramadorai
d. K.V. Kamath e. None of these

Test Prep
177. As per 2001 census, which of the following represents the state with highest proportion of sched-
uled tribes?
a. Manipur b. Orissa c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Mizoram e. Meghalaya
178. Who is the winner of Wolf Price in Agriculture 2010?

a. Ronald L. Phillipes b. Gurdev Khush c. Roger N Beachy
d. Jozef Stefan Schaal e. David Baulcombe
179. Who is the Secretary of General of Non Aligned Movement?

a. Fidel Castro b. Raul Cestso c. Hosni Mubarak
d. Thabo Mbeki e. Nckkon Mandela
180. Who chaired the committee for the renovation of the higher education in India that submitted its
report recently?
a. Krishna Kant b. Yash pal c. Kapil Sibbal
d. SUkhdeo Thorat e. None of these
181. Can you identify the year in which Essential Commodities Act ( ESC) came into existence so as to
make easy availability of essential commodities and prevent exploitation of the consumers by the
traders?
a. 1952 b. 1955 c. 1964
d. 1975 e. None of these
182. This country is the largest producer of steel in the world. We are talking about..
a. Germany b. USA c. India
d. China e. Russia
183. Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme was introduced in ...

a. 1975 b.1985 c. 1995
d. 2005 e. 1987
184. Where would you find the National Institute of Rural Development in India?
a. Gandhinagar b. Hyderabad c. Bhopal
d. Trivendram e. Cuttack
185. This personality is the finance secretary of India. Identify him from the given options.
a. Sunil Mitra b. Ashok Chawla c. Sushma Nath
d. G.K. Pillai e. P.V. Bhide
186. Competition Commission of India came into existence in …

a. 2001 b. 2002 c.2003
d. 2004 e. 2005

Test Prep
187. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about India?
a. The area of India is 3.3 million sq.km
b. The coastline of India is 7515.6km
c. The crude birth rate and death rate of India are 24.8 and 8.9
d. The literacy rate is 65.38 %
e. There are 22 national languages and 844 different dialects in use in India
188. The last G-8 summit at Hunts Ville, Canada was the ____edition of the summit.
a. 33rd b. 34th c.35th
d. 36th e. 38th
189. Which of the following represents the rank of India in the list of countries by GDP (PPP) in the
world?
a. 3rd b. 4th c. 5th
d. 6th e. None of these
190. Who is the present Chairman of National Commission for Farmers?

a. M.S Swaminathan b. Dr. Y S P Thorat c. Dr. Mangala Rai
d. Dr. Verghese Kurien e. Dr. R.S. Paroda
191. Which of the following is India’s oldest port established in 1870?

a. Calcutta port b. Madras port c. Mumbai port
d. Vishkhapatnam port e. Kandla port
192. The present commerce minister of India is …

a. Anand Sharma b. Kamal Nath c. A. Raja
d. A.K. Antony e. Sharad Pawar
193. Which of the following represents India’s first Export Processing Zone(EPZ)?
a. Cochin b. Kandla c. Vishakhapatanam
d. Surat e. None of these
194. Which of the following information’s about National Agriculture Innovation Project (NAIP) is/are
incorrect?
a. NAIP has become effective from July 2006 and shall continue for three years, till June 2009.
b. Rs. 1170 crore project, with the assistance of World Bank, would facilitate an accelerated and
sustainable transformation of the Indian agriculture so that it can support poverty alleviation and
income generation.
c. NAIP involves $ 200 million credit from World Bank
d. NAIP focuses on innovations in agriculture technology
e. All are correct.
195. Which of the following statement about CAPART is incorrect?

a. CAPART- Council for advancement of people’s action and rural technology, Delhi (headquarter).
b. CAPART was formally recognized in the Seventh Plan in 1986.
c. CAPART provides assistance and evaluates rural welfare programs
d. Prime minister is ex-officio chairman of CAPART
e. All are correct

Test Prep
196. Which of the following represents the number of operational Special Economic Zones (SEZ) in
India?
a. 76 b. 82 c. 89
d. 93 e. 98
197. The present Director General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) is..

a. Rajeev Mittal b. B.S. Meena c. P.D. Sudhakar
d. Anshu Vaish e. None of these
198. Who is the Chief Information Commissonar of India?

a. Wajahet Habibullah b. Ajay Bulaji c. Nemi Kumar
d. Nur Mohammad e. None of these
199. Who is the author of The Idea of Justice?

a. Amartya Sen b. Soli Sorabjee c. K.G. Balakrishnan
d. Raghuram Rajan e. Arun Shourie
200. Which of the following personalities is the chairman of the National Human Rights
Commission(NHRC)?
a. A.S. Anand b. K.G. Bala Krishnan c. B.N. Kirpal
d. S. R. Pandiyan e. Y.K. Sabbarwal

Test Prep

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IRMA

BOOKLET. WAIT FOR THE SIGNAL TO Section-I: 40 Q:, Section-II: 50 Q:,

1. a. imposed b. blessing c. enlightening d. dependent e. ruling

2. a. of b. among c. between d. defying e. denying

3. a. rely b. pronounce c. question d. decide e. either (b) or (c)

4. a. direction b. understanding c. application

5. a. considered b. rejected c. ignored d. filtered e. given

6. a. restricted b. confined c. free d. released e. retained

7. a. liberty b. feeling c. suspension d. ignorance e. harmony

8. a. suitable b. worthy c. unworthy d. unacceptable e. acceptable

9. a. easy b. obvious c. hard d. wrong e. correct

10. a. blunder b. discovery c. destruction d. revolution e. transformation

IRMA – FLT MBA Page 1

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IRMA – FLT MBA Page 3

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14. The draft Constitution aims at

15. According to Fitoussi,

19. According to the passage,

IRMA – FLT MBA Page 5

27. A. The CEO’s stubborn stance upset the players.

Page 6 MBA IRMA – FLT

a. ABCD b. CABD c. CADB d. ABDC e.ACDB

a. CDAB b. ABCD c. CBAD d. DCBA e.BDCA

IRMA – FLT MBA Page 7

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IRMA – FLT MBA Page 9

0.7 + 0.07 × 777 + 77 ÷ 7 − 0.007

 0.000001 + 0.0004   0.0025 + 0.0036 

339 329 319 309

Page 10 MBA IRMA – FLT

 0.027 − 1   0.027 + 0.09 + 0.3 

(1331 + 121 + 33 × 12 + 22) + 2

0.16 + 0.09 + 0.24

IRMA – FLT MBA Page 11

59. If (52% of 212) + (26% of x) = 310,then what is the value of x?

60. 0, 15, 48, 105, _____

61. 4, 11, 22, 37, 56, _____

62. 3, 7, 19, 55, 163, _____

63. 87, 303, 951, 2895, _____

64. 122, 146, 172, 200, _____

65. What is the value of y if y is an integer?

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69. What is the nature of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c?

Sales Expenditure Equity

IRMA – FLT MBA Page 13

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Table 1: Readership (2002)

Categories Business Today Business India Business world

Table 2: Growth in Readership (over 2001)

Categories Business Today Business India Business world

IRMA – FLT MBA Page 15

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91. Bomb : Destruction

92. Treaty : Bond

93. Sunlight : Photosynthesis

94. Neophyte : Immature

95. Taunts : Unpleasantness

96. Green : Leaves

97. Needle : Stitch

98. Height : Depth

99. a. Quagmire b. Predicament c. Paradox

100. a. Revelment b. Merriment c. Reverberate