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ENGLISH
(1001CJA102118038) )1001CJA102118038)
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2018 - 2019)

JEE (Main + Advanced) : ENTHUSIAST COURSE


PHASE : TOAS & TNAS
Test Type : PRE-SCORE Test Pattern : JEE-Advanced
TEST DATE : 15 - 10 - 2018
Time : 3 Hours PAPER – 1 Maximum Marks : 201
READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY
GENERAL :
1. This sealed booklet is your Question Paper. Do not break the seal till you are told
to do so.
2. Use the Optical Response sheet (ORS) provided separately for answering the questions.

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR


3. Blank spaces are provided within this booklet for rough work.
4. Write your name, form number and sign in the space provided on the back cover of this
booklet.
5. After breaking the seal of the booklet, verify that the booklet contains 32 pages and
that all the 19 questions in each subject and along with the options are legible. If not,
contact the invigilator for replacement of the booklet.
6. You are allowed to take away the Question Paper at the end of the examination.
OPTICAL RESPONSE SHEET :
7. The ORS will be collected by the invigilator at the end of the examination.
8. Do not tamper with or mutilate the ORS. Do not use the ORS for rough work.
9. Write your name, form number and sign with pen in the space provided for this purpose
on the ORS. Do not write any of these details anywhere else on the ORS. Darken
the appropriate bubble under each digit of your form number.
DARKENING THE BUBBLES ON THE ORS :
10. Use a BLACK BALL POINT PEN to darken the bubbles on the ORS.

11. Darken the bubble COMPLETELY.

12. The correct way of darkening a bubble is as :

13. The ORS is machine-gradable. Ensure that the bubbles are darkened in the correct
way.
14. Darken the bubbles ONLY IF you are sure of the answer. There is NO WAY to erase
or "un-darken" a darkened bubble.
15. Take g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated.
Please see the last page of this booklet for rest of the instructions
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/15-10-2018/Paper-1

SOME USEFUL CONSTANTS


Atomic No. : H = 1, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9, Al = 13, P = 15, S = 16,
Cl = 17, Br = 35, Xe = 54, Ce = 58,
Atomic masses : H = 1, Li = 7, B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, Ca=40, Fe = 56, Br = 80, I = 127,
Xe = 131, Ba=137, Ce = 140,

· Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1


1
· Coulomb's law constant = 9 ×10 9
4 pe0
· Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67259 × 10–11 N–m 2 kg–2
· Speed of light in vacuum c = 3 × 108 ms–1
· Stefan–Boltzmann constant s = 5.67 × 10–8 Wm–2 –K–4
· Wien's displacement law constant b = 2.89 × 10–3 m–K
· Permeability of vacuum µ0 = 4p × 10–7 NA–2
1
· Permittivity of vacuum Î0 =
m0 c2
· Planck constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 J–s

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HAVE CONTROL ¾® HAVE PATIENCE ¾® HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PART-1 : PHYSICS
SECTION–I(i) : (Maximum Marks : 15)
˜ This section contains FIVE questions.
˜ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct.
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. In a continuous printing process, paper is drawn into the press at a constant speed v. Denoting
by 'r' the radius of the paper roll at any given time and by 'b' the thickness of the paper, what
is the angular acceleration of the paper roll.

b
v
a

bv 2 2bv 2 bv 2 4bv 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2pr 3 pr 3 4 pr 3 pr 3

Space for Rough Work

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2. In the diagram shown below, the rod is uniform having mass M and length L. When it is
making an angle q = 60°, the rod is released from the state of rest (and spring in its natural
length). The rod comes to state of rest when the angle q reduces to 30°. What should be the
initial compression in the spring (when q = 60°) so that the whole system can remain in the
state of rest? (there is no friction between any surfaces)

\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
q
\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\\
No Friction
Assume the initial deformation to be zero

(A)
( 3 -1 )l (B)
3 ( 3 -1 )l (C)
( 3 -1 )l (D)
2 ( 3 -1 )l
2 3 2 4 3 3
l
3. A uniform thin rod AB of mass M and length l attached to a string OA of length is placed
2
on a smooth horizontal plane and rotates with angular velocity w around a vertical axis through
O. A peg P is inserted in the plane in order that on striking it the bar will come exactly to rest
l
O l/2 A B

r w
Peg P

5l
(A) Location of peg for rod coming to rest is r =
6
3l
(B) Location of peg for rod coming to rest is r =
4
13
(C) Location of peg for rod coming to rest is r = l
12
2l
(D) Location of peg for rod coming to rest is r =
3
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4. An almost inertia-less rod of length l = 3.5 m can rotate freely around a horizontal axis passing
through its top end. At the bottom end of the rod a small ball of mass m and at the mid-point
another small ball of mass 3m is attached. Find the angular frequency (in SI units) of small
oscillations of the system about the equilibrium position. Gravitational acceleration is
g = 9.8 m/s2.

3m

(A) 2.0 rad/s (B) 2.5 rad/s (C) 3.0 rad/s (D) 3.5 rad/s
5. Particle A and B are moving with constant velocities along positive x and positive y-axis
respectively as shown in figure. The graph of separation between them with time is
represented by (assume that they will not collide)

A
x

s s s s

(A) (B) (C) (D)

t t t t
Space for Rough Work

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SECTION-I(ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
˜ This section contains SIX questions.
˜ Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
˜ For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
˜ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen
and it is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
˜ For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with
second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result
in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options),
without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks.
Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without
selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting
any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct
option(s) will result in –2 marks.
6. A bead is connected with a fixed disc of radius R by an inextensible massless string in a
smooth horizontal plane. If the bead is pushed with a velocity v0 perpendicular to the string,
the bead moves in a curve and consequently collapses on the disc. Then :

V0

v 20
(A) Initial angular acceleration of the particle is .
l2

v20 R
(B) Initial angular acceleration of the particle is
l3

l2
(C) Distance travelled by the particle till it collides with the disc is
2R

l2
(D)Distance travelled by the particle till it collides with the disc is
R
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7. A dumbbell constructed by affixing small identical balls each of mass m at the ends of a light
rod of length l stands vertically on a frictionless floor touching a frictionless wall as shown in
the figure. If the lower ball is gently pushed away from the wall, the dumbbell begins to slide.
Denoting acceleration due to gravity by g. Mark the CORRECT statements

(A) The maximum speed of the lower ball is attained when upper ball looses contact.
(B) The maximum speed of the lower ball is attained when tension in the light rod is zero.

8gl
(C) The maximum speed of the lower ball is .
27

10gl
(D) The speed of the upper ball when lower ball acquires maximum speed is .
27
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8. A small bob can slide downwards from point A to B along either of the two different curved
surfaces shown in cross-section in the diagram. These possible trajectories are circular arcs
in vertical plane, and they lie symmetrically about straight line AB. During the motion, bob
does not leave contact with surface.

II g

(A) If friction is neglected every where bob will take a smaller time through path I as compared
to time through path II.
(B) If friction is neglected every where bob will take a smaller time through path II as compared
to time through path I.
(C) If friction is neglected every where bob will reach point B with same speed through both
the paths.
(D) If friction is significant along both paths then bob will reach B with a smaller speed, if it
follows path II, as compared to if it follows path I.
9. A man can swim with a velocity v relative to water. He has to cross a river of width d flowing
with a velocity u (u > v). The distance through which he is carried down the stream by the
river is x. Which of the following statements are correct ?

du
(A) If he crosses the river in minimum time, x =
v

du
(B) x can not be less then
v

p ævö
(C) For x to be minimum, he has to swim in a direction making an angle of + sin -1 ç ÷ with
2 èuø
the direction of flow of river.
(D) x can not be equal to zero.
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r r
10. A cart moving with horizontal velocity v1 ejects a ball with a velocity v 2 in the vertical
direction relative to the moving cart. The ball must pass horizontally through a small
stationary hoop appropriately oriented and located at a height ‘h’ above the launch point.
Later the ball passes through a second hoop that is fixed horizontally on the cart and centered
at the launch point. You may ignore air resistance.

v2 h

v1 v1

d
Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT ?

æ v 22 ö
(A) The height h is ç ÷ (B) The cart has traveled a distance 2v1v2/g
è 2g ø
(C) The cart has travelled a distance v1v2/g (D) The height h is 2v22/g
11. The point particle of mass m interacts with the stationary Center. The potential energy is
a
U= + br . At the initial moment the point was at a distance r0 = 2 a , from the center and
r b
Had zero speed.
a
(A) The minimum distance rmin that the mass can approach the center is .
4b

a
(B) A stable equilibrium position of the material point is r = .
b
3b
(C) The magnitude of the force acting on the material point at the point r0 is
4
(D) The particle executes SHM about the stable equilibrium position.
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SECTION–I(iii) : (Maximum Marks : 12)
˜ This section contains TWO paragraphs.
˜ Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
˜ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D) ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct.
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
Paragraph for Questions 12 and 13
A small particle of mass m is fixed to the perimeter of a ring of same mass and radius r. The
system comprising of particle and ring is placed on a horizontal plane. Friction is negligible
on horizontal plane. Initially particle is at top most point, then the system is released from
rest. Answer next two questions when the particle is at the same height as the centre of ring
after being released from topmost point. Assume that the ring stays in vertical plane during
its motion under consideration.

12. Mark the INCORRECT option :


gr
(A) Speed of centre of mass of system is
4

g
(B) Angular velocity of system is w =
r
(C) Contact point of ring with ground is instantaneously at rest.
(D) Centre of ring is instantaneously at rest.
13. Mark the CORRECT option :-
g
(A) Instantaneous acceleration of the centre of ring is
2
(B) Acceleration of centre of ring initially points towards left and then towards right.
(C) The force exerted by the ring on the ground at the instant given is 3mg
(D) The force exerted by the ring on the ground at the instant given is 2mg
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Paragraph for Questions 14 and 15
When an object is seen from rotating frame of referance, coriollis force acts on the object
r r
which is equal to 2m(v ´ w) where vr is velocity of object with respect to rotating frame and w
is angular velocity of rotating frame.
14. A stone is dropped from ‘h’ height at a place at 60° Latitude on northern hemisphere. Where
will it land on ground (Ignore centrifugal force and consider height ‘h’ to be small in comparison
to radius of earth = R)
(A) To north of place (B) to south of place
(C) To east of place (D) to west of place
15. By what displacement stone is pushed due to coriolis force when it hits ground in previous
problem.
3/2 3/ 2 3/2 3/2
wg æ 2h ö wg æ 2h ö 3wg æ 2h ö wg æ 2h ö
(A) ç ÷ (B) ç ÷ (C) ç ÷ (D) ç ÷
12 è g ø 6 è g ø 4 è g ø 2 3è g ø

Space for Rough Work

SECTION –II : Matrix-Match Type


No question will be asked in section II
1001CJA102118038 E-11/32
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/15-10-2018/Paper-1
SECTION–III : (Maximum Marks : 16)
˜ This section contains FOUR questions.
˜ The answer to each question is a THREE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 111 to 333, both
inclusive.
˜ For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS.
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. A particle is moving with displacement varying as x = (2t3–15t2+36t) where x is in meters and
t is in seconds. Particle starts its motion at t = 0.
List–I List–II
(P) Magnitude of displacement at time t = 2 sec (in m) (1) 36
(Q) Distance travelled in time t = 0 to t = 2 sec (in m) (2) 28
(R) Speed of the particle at t = 5 sec (in m/s) (3) 30

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2. Given structures are lying in vertical plane and are hinged at x. Every structure is made up
of 2 identical rods with mass M & length L each. Initially all are at rest and released. Initially,
in every case, one of the rods of the structure is vertical and the other horizontal.
List- I List- II

æ 3g ö
(P) Initial angular acceleration about x is ç ÷ (1)
è 4L ø

(Q) Maximum kinetic energy acquired by the (2)

é 3 + 10 ù x
structure is 2Mg ê úL
ëê 4 ûú

(R) Angle turned by the structure till it acquires (3)

æp -1 1 ö
maximum kinetic energy is ç + tan x
è2 3 ÷ø

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3. A block of mass m lies on wedge of mass m. The wedge in turn lies on smooth horizontal
surface. Friction is absent every where. The wedge block system is released from rest. All
situation given in list-I are to be estimated in duration the block undergoes on vertical
displacement ‘h’ starting from rest. Match the statement in list-I with the results in list-II.
(g is acceleration due to gravity).

m
h m
60°

List–I List–II
(P) Work done by normal reaction acting on the block is (1) Positive
(Q) Work done by normal reaction (exerted by block acting on wedge) is (2) Negative
(R) Net work done by gravity on the wedge (3) Zero
4. A block of mass m is attached to a fixed position 'O' on a smooth inclined wedge of mass M.
The block oscillates along the incline with amplitude A and angular frequency w. The wedge
is located on a rough horizontal surface. The normal reaction by ground on the wedge is N. If
the wedge always remains at rest then match the List-I with List-II :-
O

m
M
th
oo

60°
Sm

Rough
List-I List-II
p m
(P) Force of friction on the wedge (1)
6 k
1
(Q) Time taken by the block to move from mean position to A/2. (2) mw2 A sin(wt +f)
2
p m
(R) Time taken by the block to move from A/2 to A. (3)
3 k
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PART-2 : CHEMISTRY
SECTION–I(i) : (Maximum Marks : 15)
˜ This section contains FIVE questions.
˜ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct.
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
1. pH of a 0.1M solution HCl is changed by 0.3 unit due to dilution, calculate change in osmotic
pressure if temperature of solution is 300K. (R = 1/12 litre atm/K/mole)
(A) 2.5 atm (B) 5 atm (C) 7.5 atm (D) 1.25 atm
2. A white crystalline solid (A) on boiling with caustic soda solution gave a gas (B) which when
passed through an alkaline solution of K2[HgI4] gave a brown precipitate. The substance
(A) on heating gave a gas (X) which rekindled a glowing splinter but does not give brown
fumes with nitric oxide. The gas (X) is:
(A) NH3 (B) O2 (C) O3 (D) N2O
3. A reagent is added to a solution of manganous salt in cold dil. HNO3. A purple
colour appeared due to the formation of permanganic acid. The reagent is :
(A) NaBiO3 (B) (NH4)2 C2O4 (C) H2O2 (D) KNO3

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4. The final product / product mixture in the reaction sequence :

SO3H

1. Fused NaOH
2. CH3COCl
3. AlCl3 /

(A) Mixture of o-hydroxy acetophenone & p-hydroxy acetophenone

OH OH
CO2H
(B) +

CO 2H

OH

(C)

OH OH
CHO
(D) +

CH=O

5. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(A) Lysine is example of basic & nonessential amino acid

(B) The IUPAC name of isoprene is 2-chloro-1,3-butadiene

(C) Lactose is example of disacchride which is formed by combination of C1 of b-D-galactose

& C4 of b-D-glucose followed by elimination of H2O

(D) Glucose gives +ve test with Tollen's ; Fehling ; schiff reagent & NaHSO3 solution

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SECTION-I(ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)


˜ This section contains SIX questions.
˜ Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
˜ For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
˜ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen
and it is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
˜ For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with
second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result
in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options),
without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks.
Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without
selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting
any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct
option(s) will result in –2 marks.
6. Which statement(s) is/are correct -
(A) When FeCl3 is added to excess of hot water, a positively charged colloidal solution form.
(B) Amount of electrolyte required to cause coagulation is higher for lyophobic than lyophillic
colloids
(C) High pressure is favaourable for physical as well as chemical adsorption
(D) Physical and chemical adsorption both decreases entropy of universe.
7. Incorrect statement(s) is/are from the following -
(A) Adsorption is always exothermic in nature
(B) CaCl2 cause more coagulation of gold sol than AlCl3
(C) Surface tension of associated colloids increase with increase in concentration
(D) With increase in concentration, molar conductance of strong electrolyte decreases rapidly
than associated colloids.
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8. Which of the following aqueous metal ions is/are correctly represented with proper

Observation on addition of NaOH?


(A) Cu2+ ® Blue precipitate is formed which is soluble in excess NaOH to gives dark blue

solution.

(B) Zn2+ ® At first white precipitate is formed which is dissolved in excess NaOH to give
colourless solution

(C) Cd2+ ® At first white precipitate is formed which is not dissolved in excess NaOH

(D) Ag+ ® At first brown precipitate is formed which is not dissolved in excess NaOH.
9. Which of the following is/are giving precipitate with Na 2S solution.
(A) Na 2[Fe(CN)5NO] (B) Ni+2
(C) Co+2 (D) Ba+2
10. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?

(A) Benzyl amine and aniline can be distinguished using CHCl3 & alcoholic KOH

(B) 1-butyne & 2-butyne can be distinguished using Tollen's reagent

(C) Peptide linkage is non planer

(D) Almost all amino acids in protein are in L-configuration


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Mixed Na(Hg) NaNO2 KCN SnCl2


11. P Q R S T
Acid + conc. H2SO4 + HCl , 0º-5ºC CuCN HCl
(Monosubsititued
benzene)

Correct statement are :

NH2
(A) Q is

CN
(B) S is

CH2–NH2
(C) T is

NHOH
(D) P is treated with Zn + NH4Cl , is formed

Space for Rough Work

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SECTION–I(iii) : (Maximum Marks : 12)
˜ This section contains TWO paragraphs.
˜ Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
˜ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D) ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct.
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
Paragraph for Questions 12 and 13
Two volatile liquids A and B are mixed in mole ratio 1 : 3, to form an ideal liquid solution.

Vapour pressure of pure A and B are 600 torr and 200 torr, respectively, at 300K. Volume of

container for vapour is 76 litre. (R = 1/12 litre atm/K/mole)

12. Calculate the mole of A in vapour phase at 300 K, assuming negligible amount of vapour is

present compared to liquid in container.

(A) 2 mole (B) 0.3 mole (C) 1.2 mole (D) 0.6 mole

13. The minimum number of distillation steps required, so that mole fraction of A become 0.9 in

distillate.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4


Space for Rough Work

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Paragraph for Questions 14 and 15
The most important copper oxide containing minerals are azurite {Cu3(OH)2(CO3)2}, malachite
{Cu2(OH)2(CO3)}, cuprite (Cu2O), tenorite (CuO). Extraction of copper from these low grade
ores involves leaching followed by reduction.
14. Some Cu is obtained just on leaching by dil.H2SO4 in :
(A) Malachite (B) Tenorite (C) Cuprite (D) Azurite

leached
Malachite
15.
with bacteria (solution)

Cu metal can be extracted from solution on treatment with :

(A) Ag (B) FeO (C) H2 (D) H2SO4


Space for Rough Work

SECTION –II : Matrix-Match Type


No question will be asked in section II

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SECTION–III : (Maximum Marks : 16)


˜ This section contains FOUR questions.
˜ The answer to each question is a THREE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 111 to 333, both
inclusive.
˜ For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS.
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. Component A and B are mixed to form a solution. Match correct nature of solution with
components mixed -
List-I (Components) List-II (Nature)
(P) Ethanol + cyclohexane (1) Negative deviation

(Q) Water + HNO3 (2) Ideal solution

(R) Ethyl bromide + ethyl iodide (3) Positive deviation

2. (I) Reaction Sequence in which final (II) Missing Reagent


product have ppt. of one metal ion
(NH4)2S ppt of Reagent...? volume of
(P) Zn+2, Mn+2 both ions (1) dil HCl
ppt decrease

(NH4)2S ppt of Reagent...? volume of


(Q) Cd+2, Hg+2 (2) CH3COOH solution
both ions D ppt decrease

(NH4)2S ppt of Reagent...? volume of


(R) +2
Zn , Cu
+2
(3) Conc. HNO3
both ions ppt decrease

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3. List-I List-II

(P) Nylon-6 (1) Computer disc

(Q) Bakelite (2) Tyre cords , Ropes

(R) HDPE (3) Buckets , Dustbins & Bottles, Pipes

4. List-I List-II

(Lassign test / Element) (Reagent / Observartion)

(P) S & N both (1) FeCl3 , blood red colouration

(Q) S only (2) Sodium nitropruside / Purple colour

(R) Cl only (3) AgNO3 / White curdy precipitate

Space for Rough Work

1001CJA102118038 E-23/32
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PART-3 : MATHEMATICS
SECTION–I(i) : (Maximum Marks : 15)
˜ This section contains FIVE questions.
˜ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct.
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases

ò f (x ) dx = F (x ), ò x f (x ) dx
3 2
1. If then is equal to

(A)
2
( ( )
1 2
( ) )
x F x 2 - ò F x 2 dx 2 (B)
2
( ( )
1 2
( ) )
x F x 2 - ò F x 2 dx

(C)
1æ 2

1
2
2
( )
ö
ç x F ( x ) - ò F x dx ÷ (D) None of these
ø
2. A number is chosen at random from the numbers 10 to 99. By seeing the number a man will
laugh if product of the digits is 12. If he choose three numbers with replacement then the
probability that he will laugh at least once is
3 2(452 + 432 - 45 ´ 43)
(A) 1 – æç 3 ö÷ (B)
è 5ø 453
3
98 æ 43 ö
(C) (D) 1 – ç ÷
125 è 45 ø

p
3. Number of complex numbers satisfying equation z 3 = z & arg (z + 1) = simultaneously is-
4
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
4. Area bounded by -8z - 8z + 20zz = 144 is (where z is a complex number)-
2 2

(A) p (B) 6p (C) 12p (D) 4p


5. Let A, B, C are 3 points on the complex plane represented by complex numbers a, b, c respectively
such that |a| = |b| = |c| = 1, a + b + c = 1 and abc = 1, then
(A) area of triangle ABC is 2 (square unit).
(B) triangle ABC is an equilateral triangle.
(C) triangle ABC is right isosceles triangle
(D) orthocentre of triangle ABC lies outside the triangle.
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SECTION-I(ii) : (Maximum Marks: 24)
˜ This section contains SIX questions.
˜ Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).
˜ For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.
˜ Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen,
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen
and it is a correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
˜ For Example : If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with
second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result
in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options),
without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks.
Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option), without
selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting
any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct
option(s) will result in –2 marks.
6. Consider a cube of side length 9 units. Let (x, y, z) be coordinates of points on or inside the
cube such that x, y, z Î I and 0 £ x, y, z £ 9. If total number of ways of selecting two distinct
points among these such that their mid-point is also having integral coordinates is N, then
(A) N is divisible by 30 (B) N is divisible by 31
(C) N is divisible by 32 (D) Number of factors of N is 40
7. ‘n’ similar balls each of weight w, are weighted in pairs. The sum of the weight of all the
possible pairs is 120. When weighted in triplets the sum of the weights is 480. Then n divides:
(A) 25 (B) 30 (C) 60 (D) 75
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8. Let z = a + ib (where a, b Î R and i = -1 such that |2z + 3i| = |z2|.


Identify the correct statement(s) ?
(A) |z|maximum is equal to 3.
(B) |z|minimum is equal to 1.
(C) If |z|maximum when z = a + ib (a, b Î R and i = -1 ) then (a3 + b3) is equal to 27.

(D) If |z|minimum when z = x + iy (x, y Î R and i = -1 ) then (x2 + 2y2) is equal to 2.


9. Consider two complex number z and w satisfying |z| = 1 and |w – 2| + |w – 4| = 2. Then which
of the following statement(s) is(are) correct ?
(A) Re(zw) can never exceed 4.
(B) If argz = argw, then |z + 2| is equal to 3.
(C) The minimum value of |z – w| is equal to 2.
(D) The maximum value of |z – w| is equal to 6.

ïì éa bù ïü
10. Let S be the set of 2 × 2 matrices given by S = í A = ê ú , where a, b,c,d Î I ý , such that
îï ëc dû þï
AT = A–1. Then -
(A) number of matrices in set S is equal to 6.
(B) number of matrices in set S such that |A – I2| ¹ 0 is equal to 3.
(C) symmetric matrices are more than skew-symmetric matrices in set S.
(D) all matrices in set S are singular.
11. If M and N are orthogonal matrices of order 3, then which of the following is (are) orthogonal
matrix ?
(A) M2017 (B) MTN (C) M2N2 (D) MN
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SECTION–I(iii) : (Maximum Marks : 12)
˜ This section contains TWO paragraphs.
˜ Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
˜ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D) ONLY ONE of these four options
is correct.
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
Paragraph for Questions 12 and 13

æ z + 3i ö p
Let z1 and z2 are two moving points such that iz1 - 3 + 4i = 5 and arg ç 2 ÷=
è z 2 - 2 + 3i ø 2
12. Number of complex numbers which satisfy z1 = z2 is/are
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
2 2
13. If z = z1 = z2 then z - 1 + 3i + z + 9 + 3i is

(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 225


Space for Rough Work

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Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/15-10-2018/Paper-1
Paragraph for Questions 14 and 15
N is a square matrix of order ‘n’ such that;
l = maximum number of distinct elements if N is triangular.
m = maximum number of distinct elements if N is diagonal.
p = minimum number of zeroes if N is triangular.
and l + 5 = p + 2m.
14. ‘m’ players of equal strength play one game each with each other. P(A) = probability that
at least one player wins all matches he(they) play. P(B) = probability that at least one player
losses all his (their) matches. Which of the following is not correct

5 7 5 15
(A) P(A) = (B) P(B) = (C) P ( A Ç B ) = (D) P ( A È B ) =
16 16 32 32
15. A man is known to speak the truth ‘p’ out of ‘l’ times. When a die is thrown he either says
3 has turned up or says 3 has not turned up. Now if a die is thrown & man says that the
outcome is '3'. If P(A) is the probability that outcome is actually 3, then

6 6
(A) P(A) = (B) P(A) = (C) p + l = 18 (D) p + l = 37
31 11
Space for Rough Work

SECTION –II : Matrix-Match Type


No question will be asked in section II

E-28/32 1001CJA102118038
Enthusiast Course(TOAS & TNAS)/Pre-Score/15-10-2018/Paper-1
SECTION–III : (Maximum Marks : 16)
˜ This section contains FOUR questions.
˜ The answer to each question is a THREE DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 111 to 333, both
inclusive.
˜ For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct integer in the ORS.
˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

é 1 ù é -1 ù é 1ù é 1ù æa bö
1. Let M is a 2 × 2 matrix such that M ê ú = ê ú and M2 ê ú = ê ú . If M = ç c d ÷ , a,b,c,d Î I
ë -1 û ë 2 û ë -1û ë0 û è ø
then match the entries of List-I to corresponding entries of List-II
List-I List-II
(P) a+d (1) 0
(Q) b (2) 1
(R) c (3) 4
y x
2. Let (x,y) be a pair of real number satisfying 56x + 33y = - and 33x - 56y = 2 .
x +y
2 2
x + y2
List-I List-II
(P) 65|x| (1) 4
1
(Q) 65|y| (2)
65
(R) x2 + y2 (3) 7
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Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2019/15-10-2018/Paper-1

a 2 + b2 ab + bc ac + ba
3. Let a, b & c are unequal natural numbers and ba + cb b2 + c 2 bc + ca = D
ca + ab cb + ac c2 + a2
List-I contains values of a,b,c and List-II contains corresponding values of D. Now match entries
of List-I with corresponding entries of List-II
List-I List-II
(P) a = 1, b = 2, c = 4 (1) 1
(Q) a = 1, b = 3, c = 5 (2) 2
(R) a = 1, b = 1, c = 2 (3) 0

é1 1 1 ù
4. If A and B are non-singular matrices of order three such that adj ( AB ) = ê1 p 1 ú and
ê ú
êë1 1 p úû
|B2 adj(A)| = p2 – 3, then p is
List-I List-II

(P) Values of |adj A B| (1) 2


(Q) Values of P (2) 0

adj ( AB )
(R) Sum of all possible values of is (3) 1
AB
Note : |x| represents determinant value of matrix X.
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QUESTION PAPER FORMAT AND MARKING SCHEME :
16. The question paper has three parts : Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
17. Each part has two sections as detailed in the following table.

Que. No. Category-wise Marks for Each Question Maximum


Section Type of Full Partial Zero Negative Marks of the
Que. Marks Marks Marks Marks section
+3 0 –1
I(i) Single If only the bubble If none In all
correct option 5 corresponding to — of the other 15
the correct option bubbles is cases
is darkened darkened
+4 +1 0 –2
One or more If only the bubble(s) For darkening a bubble If none In all
I(ii) correct corresponding corresponding to each of the other
option(s) 6 to all the correct correct option, provided bubbles is cases 24
option(s) is(are) NO incorrect option darkened
darkened darkened
Paragraph +3 0 –1
Based If only the bubble If none In all
I(iii) (Single 4 corresponding to — of the other 12
correct the correct option bubbles is cases
option) is darkened darkened
+4 0
Three digit If only the bubble(s) In all
III Integer 4 corresponding — other — 16
(111-333) to correct answer cases
is darkened

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE ................................................................................................

FORM NO. .............................................

I have read all the instructions I have verified the identity, name and Form
and shall abide by them. number of the candidate, and that question
paper and ORS codes are the same.

____________________________ ____________________________
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator

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+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in
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