Aakash Aits

Test - 4 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
Time : 3 Hrs. T EST – 4 MM : 720
[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. Which of the following phenomena cannot take 6. With the propagation of longitudinal wave through
place with sound waves in air? a material medium, the quantities transmitted in the
(1) Refraction (2) Interference direction of propagation are
(3) Diffraction (4) Polarisation (1) Energy
2. The equation of a transverse wave is given by (2) Linear momentum and mass
y = 20 sin (0.02x – 2t), where y and x are in cm
and t in second. The wavelength in cm will be (3) Energy and linear momentum
(1) 50 (2) 100 (4) Energy, linear momentum and mass

(3) 200 (4) 5 7. Amplitude of a wave represented by the
3. The temperature at which speed of sound in helium 1 1
becomes double of its value at 27°C displacement equation y  sin t  cos t
a b
(1) 54°C (2) 327°C
will be
(3) 927°C (4) –123°C
4. decibel (dB) is ab a b
(1) (2)
(1) A musical instrument ab ab
(2) A measurement of sound level
a b ab
(3) A musical note (3) (4)
ab ab
(4) Wavelength of ultrasound wave
7⎞ 8. Angle between wave velocity and particle velocity of

⎛
5. The ratio of velocity of sound in hydrogen ⎜   ⎟ a transverse wave is
⎝ 5⎠
⎛ 5⎞ (1) 90° (2) 60°
to that in helium ⎜   ⎟ at the same temperature
⎝ 3⎠
(3) 0° (4) 180°
is
9. If a graph is plotted by velocity of particle in SHM
5 5 along y-axis and displacement from mean position
(1) (2)
42 21 along x-axis, then the nature of graph is a
(1) Straight line (2) Parabola
42 21
(3) (4) (3) Hyperbola (4) Ellipse
5 5
Space for Rough Work
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 4 (Code A)
10. The two waves having intensities in the ratio 1 : 9 16. Time period of small oscillations of the spring mass
produce interference. The ratio of maximum to system as shown in figure is
minimum intensities is equal to k
2k
(1) 10 : 8 (2) 9 : 1 m
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
k
11. Two waves of the same frequency and wavelength
2m m
travelling in the same medium but in opposite (1) 2 (2) 2
directions. Their superposition will give rise to k 2k
(1) Resonance (2) Harmonics m m

(3) 2 (4) 
(3) Beats (4) Stationary waves k k
12. A body is dropped into an imaginary frictionless 17. A simple pendulum is suspended from the ceiling of
bottomless well along the diameter of earth. Time a car at rest. If the car started accelerating
period of its oscillation along the tunnel is horizontally with acceleration a = g, then mean
position will shift through an angle  with vertical.
(1) Infinite (2) 84.6 minute  is equal to
(3) 84.6 second (4) 84.6 hour (1) 30° (2) 45°
13. At displacement antinodes (3) 60° (4) 53°
(1) Pressure is maximum and velocity is minimum 18. A source of frequency 150 Hz is moving in the
direction of a person at rest with a velocity of
(2) Pressure is minimum and velocity is maximum
110 m/s. The frequency heard by the person will be
(3) Pressure and velocity both are maximum ( = 330 m/s)
(4) Pressure and velocity both are minimum (1) 225 Hz (2) 200 Hz
14. A stretched wire of length 114 cm is divided into (3) 150 Hz (4) 100 Hz
three segments whose fundamental frequencies are 19. A tuning fork produces 4 beats per second in a
in the ratio 1 : 3 : 4, the length of the segments column of air at 57°C. When the temperature of air
must be in the ratio column is decreased by 9°C, the two produce
1 beat per second. The frequency of the tuning fork
(1) 18 : 24 : 72 (2) 24 : 72 : 18
(1) 103 Hz (2) 213 Hz
(3) 24 : 18 : 72 (4) 72 : 24 : 18
(3) 120 Hz (4) 37 Hz
15. The tension of a sitar wire is 160 N. What must be
20. If seventh harmonic is set-up in a string fixed on
the change in tension so as to produce a tone an both ends, number of displacement nodes and
octave lower? antinodes formed are
(1) 80 N (2) 320 N (1) 8, 7 (2) 7, 7
(3) 120 N (4) 40 N (3) 8, 9 (4) 9, 8
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21. A police jeep moving towards a cliff sounds its horn. 26. A particle executes SHM with a frequency  The
The driver observes that sound reflected from the frequency with which its kinetic energy oscillate is
cliff has a pitch one octave higher than the actual
sound of horn. If v is the velocity of the sound, 
(1) (2) 
velocity of jeep is 2
v v (3) 2 (4) 4
(1) (2)
2 2 27. Speed of a particle in SHM are 4 cm/s and 3 cm/s
v v at distances 3 cm and 4 cm from mean position.
(3) (4)
4 3 Amplitude of the SHM is
22. The fundamental frequency of a vibrating wire is . (1) 3 cm (2) 4 cm
If tension is doubled, density is halved and diameter
(3) 3.5 cm (4) 5 cm
is doubled, new fundamental frequency will be
28. A horizontal platform is made to execute SHM of
(1) 2 (2) 4
amplitude a in the vertical direction. An object
 placed on the platform will loose contact with it,
(3)  (4)
2 when frequency of oscillations exceeds
23. An observer moves towards a stationary source of
sound with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of 1 g
(1)
sound. Find the percentage increase in the  a
apparent frequency.
(1) Zero (2) 0.5% 1 g
(2)
2 a
(3) 5% (4) 20%
24. A simple pendulum in SHM has an amplitude A and
g
time period T. The time required by it to travel from (3) 2
a
A
x = A to x  is
2
a
T T (4) 2 
(1) (2) g
6 4
T T 29. Time period of a spring mass system is T. If this
(3) (4) spring is cut into two parts whose lengths are in the
3 2
ratio 1 : 3 and the same mass is attached to the
25. The kinetic energy and potential energy of a particle
longer part, the new time period will be
executing SHM with amplitude A will be equal,
when its displacement is
3 T
(1) T (2)
A 2 3
(1) A 2 (2)
2
A 2 3
(3) (4) A (3) T (4) 3T
2 3 2
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30. Which of the following represents the variation of 33. What is the kinetic energy of a molecule of a
acceleration (a) versus displacement (y) from mean diatomic gas at STP?
position of a particle is SHM?
kT
(1) (2) kT
a 2
a
3kT 5kT
(3) (4)
(1) y (2) 2 2
O
y
O 34. The relation between rms velocity and the most
probable velocity of a gas is
(1) vrms = vmp

a
a
3
(2) vrms = v
y 2 mp
(3) y (4) O
O
2
(3) vrms = v
3 mp
2
31. The pressure exerted on the walls of the container (4) vrms = v
3 mp
by an ideal gas is due to the fact that gas
molecules 35. The ratio of root mean square velocities of O3 and
O2 at same temperature is
(1) Losing their kinetic energy
(2) Sticking to the walls (1) 1 : 1
(3) Changing their momenta due to collision with (2) 2 : 3

the walls
(3) 3 : 2
(4) Getting accelerated towards the wall
(4) 2: 3
32. Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping
temperature constant. What is the effect of kinetic 36. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas, if its
energy of molecules?
(1) Pressure and temperature both are high
(1) Increase
(2) Pressure and temperature both are low
(2) Decrease
(3) Pressure is high and temperature is low
(3) No change
(4) Cannot be determined (4) Pressure is low and temperature is high
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37. At absolute zero, the kinetic energy of the gas 41. Equations of two simple harmonic motions are
molecules becomes
y1 = 0.4 m sin314t and y2 = 0.4 m cos314t
(1) Zero phase difference between these simple harmonic
(2) Double that at room temperature motions is
(3) Half that at room temperature (1) 45° (2) 60°

(3) 120° (4) 90°
(4) Same that at room temperature
42. The number of translational degrees of freedom for
38. The mean square speed of 4 molecules of a gas
a linear diatomic gas is
having speeds 1, 2, 3, 4 m/s is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 2.44 m2/s2
(3) 5 (4) 6
(2) 7.5 m2/s2
43. At what temperature the molecules of nitrogen will
(3) 2.5 m2/s2
have the same rms velocity as the molecules of
(4) 9 m2/s2 oxygen at 127°C?
39. An insulated box containing a diatomic gas of molar (1) 77°C (2) 350°C
mass M is moving with velocity v. The box is
(3) 273°C (4) 457°C
suddenly stopped. The resulting change in
temperature is 44. When the natural frequency of a body is same that
of the applied periodic force on it, then the body
mv 2 oscillates with largest amplitude. This phenomena is
(1)
2R explained in
(1) Free vibration
mv 2
(2)
3R (2) Forced vibration
(3) Damped vibration
mv 2
(3)
5R (4) All of these
45. If a simple pendulum of length l has maximum
2mv 2 angular displacement , then the maximum kinetic
(4)
5R energy of the bob of mass m is
40. Two mole helium is mixed with two mole nitrogen
at room temperature. Average degrees of freedom 1 l 1 mg
(1) m (2)
of molecules in the mixture of gases is 2 g 2 l
(1) 5 (2) 4
1
(3) mgl(1 – cos) (4) mgl sin 
(3) 3 (4) 6 2
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[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Nascent hydrogen can be obtained from 52. The correct statement/s is/are
(1) LiAlH4 + H2O (1) At the same temperature D 2 O has higher

density than H2O.
(2) Na + C2H5OH
(2) Temperature of maximum density is higher for
(3) Sn + dil. H2SO4
D2O than H2O.
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) At the same temperature H2O is more viscous
47. Which of the following hydride is neutral? than D2O
(1) PH3 (2) NaBH4 (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) HBr (4) CH4 53. Permanent and temporary hardness of water can
48. Volume strength of 5 M H2O2 will be be removed by boiling water with
(1) 28 V (2) 56 V (1) BaCl2 (2) Na2CO3
(3) 14 V (4) 11.2 V (3) SrSO4 (4) All of these
49. A solution of H2O2 is ‘15 Volume’. Its strength is 54. Water gets oxidized to form O2 when it
(1) 45.53 g/L (1) Is electrolysed
(2) 25.74 g/L (2) Reacts with Cr2O72– ion
(3) 15.92 g/L (3) Reacts with F2
(4) 52.79 g/L (4) Both (1) & (3)

50. 2 moles of Ca3P2 on reaction with H2O gives 55. Which of the following hydride is most ionic?
(1) 6 moles of Ca(OH)2 (1) LiH
(2) 4 moles of phosphine gas (2) MgH2
(3) 2 moles of H3PO2 (3) CaH2
(4) Both (1) & (2) (4) All are equally ionic
51. A blue coloured compound ‘Y’ is formed when H2O2 56. Which of the following oxide reacts with NaOH to
is added to acidified K2Cr2O7 solution. ‘Y’ is form a salt?
(1) CrO4–2 (2) CrO5 (1) ZnO (2) SnO
(3) Cr2O3 (4) CrO3 (3) PbO (4) All of these

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57. Nitrides of the following metal/s reacts with H2O to 63. Lowest hydration energy is observed in
form NH3. The metal/s is/are
(1) BeSO4 (2) CaSO4
(1) Na (2) Mg
(3) SrSO4 (4) BaSO4
(3) Al (4) Both (2) & (3)
64. When added to water, NaH produces
58. Highest oxidation potential is shown by
(1) Be (2) Ca (1) O2 gas (2) H2 gas
(3) Ba (4) Sr (3) NaOH (4) Both (2) & (3)

59. Which of the following hydroxide is least soluble in 65. The correct statements is/are
water?
(1) Sn forms SnS2 and Pb forms PbS when Sn and
(1) Mg(OH)2 (2) Sr(OH)2 Pb are allowed to react with sulphur
(3) Ba(OH)2 (4) Ca(OH)2
(2) PbCl2 is more stable than PbCl4
CO2 CO2
60. Lime water Milky Clear
(3) Both Sn2+ and Pb2+ containing compounds act
appearance solution
(A) (B) as reducing agents
The products (A) and (B) are respectively (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Ca(OH)2, Ca(HCO3)2 66. Hybrid state of aluminium in acidified aqueous
(2) Ca(HCO3)2, CaCO3 solution of AlCl3 is
(3) CaCO3, Ca(HCO3)2 (1) sp3 (2) sp3d

(4) CaCO3, Ca(OH)2 (3) sp3d2 (4) sp3d3
61. The gas liberated when sodium metal is heated in 67. Concentrated HNO3 cannot be stored in a container
dry NH3 is made up of
(1) N2 (2) H2
(1) Cu (2) Zn
(3) NO2 (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Al (4) Both (1) & (2)
62. Beryllium hydroxide is amphoteric in nature as it
reacts with acid and base both 68. The silicates which contain Si2O76– units are called
Be(OH)2 + 2HCl + 2H2O  (x) (1) Cyclic silicates (2) Chain silicates
Be(OH)2 + 2OH–  (y) (3) Pyro silicates (4) Ortho silicates
The covalency shown by beryllium in compounds
69. The neutral oxide is/are
(x) and (y) are respectively
(1) 2, 2 (2) 2, 4 (1) NO (2) N2O
(3) 4, 4 (4) 4, 6 (3) CO (4) All of these

7/22
70. Difference of atomic radii will be highest between 76. The quantitative estimation of O3 is based on
(1) P and As (2) N and P (1) Its reaction with PbS
(3) As and Sb (4) Sb and Bi (2) Its reaction with NO
71. HNO2 disproportionates in acidic medium to form (3) Its reaction with KI and titration of I2 liberated
with sodium thiosulphate
(1) HNO3
(4) Its reaction with H2O2 in presence of K2Cr2O7
(2) NO2
77. Which of the following does not decompose water?
(3) NO
(1) F2 (2) Br2
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) l2 (4) Cl2
72. Which of the following does not produce N2 gas on
heating 78. Anhydride of perchloric acid is
(1) NH2CONH2 (2) NaN3 (1) HClO2 (2) ClO2
(3) NH4 NO2 (4) Ba(N3)2 (3) Cl2O6 (4) Cl2O7
73. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect? 79. Cl2 gas is formed when HCl is allowed to react with
(1) N2O3 exists as a blue solid (1) PbO2 (2) MnO2
(2) NO is paramagnetic in gaseous state but (3) O3 (4) All of these
diamagnetic in liquid state.
80. Correct order of reactivity is
(3) Solid N2O5 exists as NO2+ NO3–
(1) ClF3 > BrF5 > IF7
(4) N2O5 can act as a reducing agent
(2) BrF5 > IF7 > ClF3
74. Brown ring test is used for the detection of NO3– ion. (3) lF7 > BrF5 > CIF3
The formula of compound forming brown ring is
(4) lF7 > ClF3 > BrF5
(1) [Fe(H2O)5 NO]2+
81. ‘Ferming’s salt’ is
(2) [Fe(H2O)5 NO]+
(1) KClO3 (2) KHF2
(3) [Fe(H2O)5NO2]SO4
(3) NaClO4 (4) CaOCl2
(4) [Fe(H2O)4(CN)2]2H2O
82. Which of the given compound does not possess
75. S – S linkage is not present in permanent dipole moment?
(1) H2S2O3 (2) H2S2O6 (1) XeF4 (2) XeF6
(3) H2S2O8 (4) All of these (3) XeOF4 (4) XeO3
8/22
83. The product/s formed in the given reaction is/are 87. The weakest acid amongst the following is
XeO2F2 + H2O ? (1) H2SO4 (2) H2SO3
(1) XeO3 (2) H2F2
(3) H2SeO4 (4) H2TeO4
(3) XeOF4 (4) Both (1) & (2)
88. SO2 reduces to sulphur when reacts with
84. Square pyramidal shape is exhibited by
(1) SF4 (2) SF6 (1) CO (2) H2
(3) XeOF4 (4) XeOF2 (3) H2S (4) All of these

85. When gold dissolves in aqua regia it forms 89. Which of the given halide fumes in air?
(1) Au(NO3)3 (2) AuCl3
(1) PCl3 (2) NF3
(3) [AuCl4]– (4) [AuCl2(NO3)2]Cl2
(3) CCl4 (4) CaCl2
86. Among HXO3 type acids, the most stable is
(1) HClO3 90. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy (with
negative sign) is
(2) HBrO3
(1) Se > S > O > Te (2) S > Se > Te > O
(3) HIO3
(4) All are equally stable (3) O > S > Se > Te (4) Te > Se > S > O
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Choose the correct set of statement w.r.t. diffusion 92. Maximum imbibition pressure is developed by
[D] and facilitated diffusion [FD] germinating seeds of
(1) D – Is important to plants and animals for (1) Maize (2) Castor
external gaseous exchange
(3) Sunflower (4) Pea
FD – Depends on the solubility of substance in
93. Fresh weight as dry matter of most herbaceous
water
plants is only about
(2) D – No energy expenditure takes place
(1) 92% (2) 10-15%
FD – Energy expenditure takes place
(3) 50% (4) Less than 2%
(3) D – Molecules move in random fashion
94. Which of the following equation is correct for a
FD – It allows cell to select substances for solution at atmospheric pressure?
uptake
(1) w = s
(4) D – Fast process and is not dependent on
“living system” (2) s = p
FD – Porins are proteins that form small pore (3) DPD = OP

in the outer membranes. (4) More than one option is correct
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95. Transport protein as control points to determine the 100. Which one of the following is not an advantage of
type and quantity of solutes in xylem, is present hydroponics?
on/in (1) To determine the essentiality of mineral
(1) Root hair cell membrane nutrients for plants
(2) Cortical cell membrane (2) For commercial production of vegetables such
as seedless cucumber
(3) Endodermal cell wall
(3) To identify pathogen born disease in cultivated
(4) Endodermal cell membrane plants
96. Increased positive pressure in herbaceous plant is (4) More than one option is correct
101. Plants growing near the site of nuclear test, may
(1) Responsible for guttation
have
(2) Possible when absorption occurs through (1) Gold (2) Strontium
apoplastic pathway
(3) Sodium (4) Selenium
(3) Developed under high transpiration
102. Match the column.
(4) Responsible for increased water absorption but Column I Column II
decreased mineral absorption
a. Silicon (i) Required for uptake of
97. Number and distribution of stomata affects Ca2+
(1) Rate of diffusion of gases b. Molybdenum (ii) Beneficial element
(2) Rate of transpiration c. Iron (iii) Required for nitrogen
metabolism
(3) Loss of water in liquid phase
d. Boron (iv) Most required out of all
(4) More than one option is correct micronutrients
98. Some elements that are ____ element/components (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
like _____ are not remobilised. (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(1) Storage, nitrogen 103. How many statements are correct for both
(2) Structural, calcium potassium and magnesium?
(A) Occurs in excess of 10m mole kg –1 of dry
(3) Critical, calcium
matter in plant tissue.
(4) Fertilizer, potassium (B) Helps to maintain the ribosome structure.
99. To begins pressure flow for bulk transport of organic (C) Helps to maintain the turgidity of cell.
solutes, hydrostatic pressure should _____ in ____. (D) Deficiency can cause chlorosis and necrosis in
(1) Increase, sieve tube same plants.
(2) Decrease, mesophyll cell (E) Not required for the activities of nitrate
reductase and nitrogenase.
(3) Decrease, xylem
(1) One (2) Two
(4) Increase, companion cell and mesophyll cell (3) Three (4) Four
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104. During eflux of K+; first phase of the process is 108. Which statement is not true for given diagrammatic
representation of biological process?
(1) Active from symplast
(2) Passive from symplast Substrate Product

[Ammonia (NH3)] H
[Nitrogen gas (N3)]
H
N
N H
(3) Passive from apoplast N Reduction
H N H
H H
H H
(4) Active from apoplast N
N
Reduction H
H
N
N
Reduction H N
H N
H N
H N
Release of
products
H H
H
105. Find the correct one w.r.t translocation of solutes Enzyme Binding of +2H +2H +2H Free nitrogenase
(Nitrogenase) substrate can bind another
molecule of N2
(1) Mineral salts are pulled down through the plant
by transpirational pull
(1) The enzyme is not operational in microbes
(2) An analysis of xylem exudates shows that under free living condition
some of the nitrogen travels in organic form
(2) Soyabean also contributes to form
(3) Mineral salts are translocated through xylem leghaemoglobin to protect enzyme
along with the ascending water streams (3) Ammonia synthesis by enzyme requires a very
(4) Use of radioisotopes of mineral element only high input of energy and releases H 2 per
ammonia formation
substantiate the view that mineral salts are
transported through the xylem (4) Microbes involved in this process can survive
without oxygen
106. Which one of the following processes is showing
biological nitrogen fixation? 109. Match the column.
Glutamate Column I Column II
(1) KGA + NH4  Glutamate + H2 O
+ dehydration
a. Jan Ingenhousz (i) First action spectrum of

Nitrosomonas
(2) 2NH3 + 3O2 
 2NO2 +
 2H + 2H2O photosynthesis
Nitrogenase
b. F. F. Blackman (ii) Water is a source of O2
(3) N  N  NH3 in photosynthetic
reaction in green plants
(4) 2NO2  7NADPH  7H  
Nitrite
Reductase
c. Joseph Priestley (iii) Law of limiting factor
2NH3 + 4H2O + 7NADP+
d. Julius Von Sach (iv) Essentiality of sunlight
107. Nitrate present in the soil is reduced to nitrogen by to plants
(1) Denitrification, carried by Pseudomonas e. T. W. Engelmann (v) Essential role of air in

the growth of green
(2) Ammonification, carried by plant plants
(3) Nitrification, carried by Nitrococcus (1) a(iv), c(v), d(i) (2) b(iii), d(v), e(i)
(4) Reductive amination, carried by plant (3) c(iv), d(v), e(ii) (4) a(iv), c(v), e(i)
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110. Find the correct one w.r.t. chloroplast of mesophyll 114. Choose the incorrect one w.r.t. high energy
molecules related to photochemical reaction
(1) Responsible for trapping the light energy and
synthesis of food in cytoplasm (1) Synthesis of energy always linked to
development of a proton gradient across a
(2) There is a clear division of labour within the
membrane
chloroplast
(2) Utilised in the biosynthetic reactions in stroma
(3) Light and dark reactions are directly light driven
(3) Utilisation of energy is dependent on the CO2
(4) Stroma lamellae do not show any important role and H2O availability
in trapping of light and synthesis of NADPH
(4) Utilisation of these molecules in CO2 fixation in
111. Chlorophyll a is mesophylls and bundle sheath cells in C4 plants
a. Bright and blue green in the chromatograph. 115. Find the correct match w.r.t. C3-cycle
b. Chief pigment of reaction centre. (1) Rice – PEP is the CO2 acceptor molecule
c. Involved in both cyclic and non-cyclic (2) Wheat – Occurs in bundle sheath cell
photophosphorylation. (3) Maize – CO 2 acceptor molecule is 5C
(1) All correct (2) All incorrect ketose sugar
(4) Sorghum – Occurs in mesophyll cell
(3) One correct (4) One incorrect
116. How many plants in the given list can produce 3C
112. Electrons transport system (ETS) consisting of
compound after carboxylation which enters into
cytochromes in plants mainly occurs
reduction step to produce glucose?
(1) In chloroplast, peroxysomes, mitochondria
Pineapple, Maize, Rice, Mustard, Sorghum,
(2) In chloroplast, mitochondria Opuntia, Gymnosperm, Wheat
(3) Only in chloroplast (1) Eight
(4) Only in mitochondria (2) Seven

(3) Three
113. Which one of the event is similar in cyclic and
non-cyclic photophosphorylation? (4) Four
(1) Oxidation of chlorophyll a and journey of 117. Available CO2 concentration in atmosphere and
electron from high redox potential to low redox higher temperature in tropical region is optimum for
potential (1) C3, C4 and CAM plants
(2) NADP reductase activity (2) C4 only
(3) Photolysis of H2O (3) C3 and C4 respectively
(4) Synthesis of ATP (4) C4 and C3 respectively

12/22
118. Choose incorrect one 123. How many ATP molecules formed during complete
oxidation of one molecule of fructose 1,6-
(1) Sucrose Glycolysis Partial To form two
oxidation molecules of biphosphate?
pyruvic acid
(1) 36 (2) 38
(2) Fatty  oxidation Complete Mitochondrial
acid oxidation matrix (3) 40 (4) 76
(3) Pyruvic Fermen- Incomplete Less energy 124. Which one of the following enzymes is required
acid tation oxidation formation during reduction of FAD in aerobic respiration?
(4) Glucose Kreb's Complete Intermediate (1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
cycle oxidation involves in
nitrogen (2) Succinate dehydrogenase
metabolism
(3) -ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
119. During respiration three carbon (3C) acid is formed
in (4) Malate dehydrogenase
(1) Mitochondrial matrix 125. Common pathway of aerobic respiration and
(2) Cytoplasm fermentation is
(3) Chloroplast of mesophyll cell (1) Formation of pyruvic acid in mitochondrial
(4) Inner membrane of mitochondria matrix
120. Find the odd one w.r.t. fermentation (2) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic acid
(1) Ethanol
(3) Oxidation of NADH2
(2) Phosphoglyceric acid
(4) More than one option is correct
(3) Oxaloacetic acid
(4) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate 126. Respiratory substrate in which less CO2 released as
compared to O2 consumption during respiration is
121. TCA cycle starts with
(1) Dehydrogenation (1) Organic acid (2) Malic acid
(2) Decarboxylation (3) Protein (4) Sugars

(3) Splitting of pyruvic acid 127. Choose the incorrect one w.r.t. growth in plant
(4) Condensation
(1) An irreversible permanent increase in size
122. Which one of the following is not required for
mitochondrial ETS? (2) Primary meristem mainly contributes to the
elongation
(1) ATP and H2O
(2) NADH + H+ and FADH2 (3) Only lateral meristem shows open form of
growth
(3) FMN and ADP
(4) Cytochrome and inorganic phosphate (4) Apical meristem does not show diffused growth
13/22
128. If cells are dividing in such a manner as shown in 131. Cytokinin is antagonistic to ABA in which one of the
diagram then find the incorrect statement w.r.t. following physiological effects?
growth (1) Stomatal movement
(2) Bolting effect
(3) Flowering in SDPs
(4) Tea plantation
132. Match the column
Column I Column II
a. GA (i) Promotes nutrient
mobilisation
(1) Growth occurs during initial development of b. CK (ii) Inhibitor of plant
embryo from zygote metabolism
c. ABA (iii) Amylase synthesis
(2) Cannot be exemplified by shoot elongation at a
constant rate d. C2H4 (iv) Root hair formation
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) If we plot parameter of growth against time,
then we get typical S-curve (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
133. Which phytohormone is used to initiate flowering
(4) Such growth is responsible for morphogenesis and synchronised fruit-set in pineapples?
in plant during embryo development
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinine
129. Tracheary elements are formed by (3) Ethylene (4) Gibberellin
(1) Differentiation 134. Choose the incorrect match.
(2) Dedifferentiation (1) Vernalisation – Applicable only for

Biennial plants
(3) Redifferentiation (2) Short day plants – Interruption of dark period
by light break inhibits
(4) More than one option is correct
flowering
130. Developmental heterophylly condition is shown by (3) Ethylene – Thinning of fruits stalk in
cotton
(1) Wheat and Maize
(4) Cytokinin – Furfurylaminopurine
(2) Rice and Canna
135. Most widely used PGR in agriculture is
(3) Cotton and Larkspur (1) Alkaline in nature (2) Mild acidic hormone
(4) Capsicum and Coriander (3) Gaseous hormone (4) Anti-ageing hormone
14/22
136. Read the following statements 139. All of the following are correct related to red
A. Stone or insoluble mass of crystallised salt like muscles fibres, except
oxalates formed within the kidney are known as
(1) High myoglobin content
renal calculi.
B. Analysis of urine helps in clinical diagnosis of (2) Plenty of mitochondria
many metabolic disorders as well as
(3) Large amount of O2 used for ATP production
malfunctioning of kidneys.
C. All movements are locomotion but all (4) The amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is high
locomotions are not movements. 140. Read the following statements :
D. Bones and few cartilages constitute human
A. Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water.
skeletal system.
How many above statements are correct? B. It is concentrating segment. Urine becomes
hypertonic.
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Two (4) One C. Reabsorption is minimum.
137. Sphenoid bone, Hyoid bone, Femur, Scapula, D. Lined by simple cuboidal brush border
Metacarpals, Patella, Vertebrochondral rib, Tibia, epithelium.
Occipital bone.
How many above statements are related to loop of
How many of the above bones can be included in
Henle?
axial skeleton?
(1) Four (2) Six (1) One
(3) Three (4) Two (2) Two

138. Consider the following statements : (3) Three
A. Cell body, dendrites and axon are the three
(4) Four
major parts of a neuron.
B. Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals which act 141. All of the following statements are incorrect related
as intracellular messenger and are produced in to thymus, except
trace amount.
(1) Human body has one pair of thymus gland
C. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are the
examples of amino acid derivatives hormones. (2) Thymus hormone play an important role in the
regulation of the basal metabolic rate
D. All mammals without any exception have seven
cervical vertebrae. (3) Thymus plays an important role in differentiation
How many above statements are incorrect? of B-lymphocytes
(1) One (2) Two (4) Thymus gland secretes the peptide hormone
(3) Three (4) Four called thymosin
15/22
142. 145. Consider the following functions?

(I) Anabolic hormone for protein and carbohydrate
Gland metabolism.
(II) Increases protein formation.
(III) Secreted by interstitial cells of testes.
(IV) Increases RBCs count.
All of the following are the functions of above gland, (V) Decreases libido.
except
(VI) Gametogenesis.
(1) It secretes the hormones which support the
process of erythropoiesis How many function can be related to male sex
hormone testosterone?
(2) It secretes the hormones which control the
metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats (1) One (2) Two
(3) It secretes iodothyronine hormones (3) Five (4) Six
(4) All the hormones iodothyronines and 146. Among bony fishes, Aquatic amphibians, Aquatic
thyrocalcitonin secreted by this gland interact insects, Mammals, Terrestrial amphibians, Reptiles
with intracellular receptors Birds, Land snail, Insects, Amoeba, Sharks.
143. Which labelled structure is always absent in How many above organisms are ammonotelic?
monosynaptic reflex action?
(1) 12 (2) 8
B
(3) 4 (4) 2
147. Which of the labelled structure is absent in
Stimulus non-mammalian brain?
C A
D
Response
A
B
(1) D (2) A
(3) C (4) B
144. The aqueous humor in the eye is secreted by C
D
(1) Iris
E
(2) Ciliary body
(3) Retina (1) D (2) E
(4) Sclera (3) C and A (4) B
16/22
148. The type of joint where the bones are very tightly (3) E. Area where rods and cones are present
held with the help of white fibrous connective tissue F. Area where only rods are present
is called
(4) G. It is highly vascular layer of eye
(1) Immovable joints (2) Synarthroses
H. It is optic nerve
(3) Cartilaginous joint (4) Both (1) & (2) 151. The hormones which stimulate gluconeogenesis,
149. Read the following statements lipolysis, proteolysis, inhibit cellular uptake and
utilisation of amino acids are secreted by
A. Scapula is a large triangular bone situated in
the ventral part of the thorax between the (1) Adrenal gland (2) Adrenal cortex
second and the seventh ribs. (3) Adrenal medulla (4) Supra renal gland
B. Each limb is made of 60 bones. 152. It is the diagramatic representation of the sectional
view of cochlea, find the option which include all
C. Skin, lungs and liver assist in excretion.
correct labelling.
D. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is known as
glomerulonephritis. B
(1) Both A & B statements are correct
(2) Both C & D statements are correct
D A
(3) Both C & D statements are incorrect
(4) Both A & C statements are incorrect F
150. Find the correct answer which include one correct
and one incorrect explanation of labelled structure.
C
Vitreous G E
A chamber
(1) A. Scala vestibuli
F B. Basilar membrane
Lens
E
Iris
H C. Tectorial membrane
B
(2) B. Basilar membrane
C G D. Scala tympani
D
G. Reissner’s membrane
(1) A. Aqueous chamber which contain aqueous
(3) A. Scala vestibuli
humor
C. Tectorial membrane
B. Its transplantation is most successful
transplantation E. Scala tympani
(2) C. Retina which include cones and rods (4) D. Scala tympani
E. Scala media
D. Outermost covering of eye, also called white
part of eye F. Organ of Corti
17/22
153. Read the following statements 157. Find the incorrect match related to accessory
A. The inner ear contains a complex system called excretory structures and their wastes.
vestibular apparatus located below the cochlea. (1) Liver – Bilirubin, biliverdin,
B. The hind brain comprises pons, cerebellum and cholesterol vitamins,
medulla oblongata. drugs
C. Rapid spasms in muscles due to high Ca++ in (2) Sweat gland – NaCl, urea, lactic acid
body fluid is known as tetany.
(3) Sebaceous gland – Sterols, hydrocarbons,
D. Cells of the human body exhibit three main waxes
types of movement, namely amoeboid, ciliary
and muscular. (4) Lung – CO 2 , water, urea, uric
acid
How many statements are correct?
158. Find the correct match related to animals excretory
(1) Three (2) Two
organ and excretory product.
(3) One (4) Four
(1) Cockroach  Tracheal system  Uric acid
154. The functioning of the kidney is efficiently monitored
and regulated by hormonal feedback mechanisms (2) Frog  Metanephric kidney  Urea
involving
(3) Parrot  Mesonephric kidney  Uric acid
(1) Hypothalamus (2) JGA
(4) Bony fish  Gill surfaces  Ammonium ion
(3) Heart (4) All of these
159. Given below is the diagrammatic view of ear.
155. The signal for micturition is initiated by Identify the labelled structure which is connected to
(1) The stretching in pelvis of kidney oval window of internal ear.
(2) The stretching in ureter E
(3) The stretching of the urinary bladder
D
(4) The stretching of the urethra C
156. Find out the incorrect statement related to human
excretory system.
B
(1) In humans the excretory system consists of a
pair of kidneys, one pair of ureters and paired A
urinary bladder and urethra
F
(2) Kidneys are situated between the levels of last
thoracic and third lumbar vertebra (1) A and B
(3) Each human kidney of an adult person (2) B and D

measures 10 – 12 cm in length, 5 – 7 cm in
(3) E and F
width and 2 – 3 cm in thickness
(4) Each kidney has nearly one million nephrons (4) C
18/22
160. Identify the endocrine gland which secretes a 162. The specific receptors of the ear responsible for
hormone that control the 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm maintenance of balance of the body and posture
of human body. are
(1) Crista ampullaris, organ of Corti
I H (2) Crista, macula
G
(3) Macula and organ of Corti
F (4) Crista, macula, organ of Corti
163. Find the odd group related to skeletal system.
E
(1) Frontal, Mandible, Zygomatic, Temporal
D (2) Atlas, Axis, Sacrum, Lumbar

C (3) Scapula, Femur, Occipital, Ethmoid
(4) Humerus, Radius, Femur, Tibia
164. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly
B
A due to genetic disorder is
(1) Myasthenia gravis
(2) Muscular dystrophy
(1) A (2) D
(3) Tetany
(3) H (4) G
(4) Tetanus
161. All of the following hormones are secreted by the
structure D, except 165. Find the correct sequence of bones of lower limb
from proximal end to distal end.
E (1) Femur, Patella, Tibia, Metatarsals, Tarsals,
D
Phalanges
(2) Femur, Fibula, Patella, Tarsals, Metatarsal,
Phalanges
(3) Phalanges, Metatarsals, Tarsals, Tibia fibula,
Patella, Femur
C
(4) Femur, Patella, Tibia fibula, Tarsals,
B Metatarsals, Phalanges
166. The joint between carpal and metacarpal of thumb
A is
(1) Vasopressin (2) GnRH (1) Pivot (2) Gliding
(3) Oxytocin (4) Prolactin (3) Saddle (4) Hinge

19/22
167. All of the following group of hormones act through 170. The following is a diagrammatic representation of a
following way (mechanism of action), except nephron showing duct and tubule
A G
Uterine cell
membrane
B
C
Hormone H
Nucleus I
Genome D
Receptor-hormone
complex
Proteins
F
Physiological responses
(Tissue growth and E J
differentiation)
(1) Cortisol, Estrone, Dihydroxytestosterone Which labelled structure in given diagram is

permeable to both water and urea and helps in
(2) Glucocorticoids, Aldosterone, Sex corticoids concentration of urine. It also plays a role in the
(3) Testosterone, Estriol, Progesterone maintenance of pH and ionic balance of the blood
by the selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions.
(4) Prolactin, Insulin, Oxytocin
(1) D (2) F
168. All of the following are the characteristics of cardiac
muscles fibres, except (3) E (4) J
(1) Uninucleated and branched 171. Find the odd one related to structure and their
functions.
(2) Intercalated disc joins the other fibres and
alternate dark and light bands are present (1) Hypothalamus – Control body
temperature, having
(3) Calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase are hunger and satiety centre
the regulatory protein in cardiac muscles fibres sexual behaviour
(4) Transverse tubules present and aligned with (2) PCT – Reabsorption of nearly all
each Z-line of the essential nutrients
169. After the application of stimulus when the outside of and 90-95% of electrolytes
the membrane becomes negatively charged and and water
inside positively charged, due to rapid influx of Na+ (3) Ear ossicles – Help in hearing, related
ions is called to amplification of sound
(1) Refractory period vibration
(2) Absolute refractory period (4) Medulla oblongata – Contains centres which
control respiration,
(3) Polarised state reflexes, cardiovascular
(4) Depolarisation phase reflex
20/22
172. Read the following statements related to diagram 174. Which structure in the diagram given below is
given below having simple squamous epithelium in the wall?
B
C
E
A. It is a diagram of skull which includes 29 bones.
B. In skull immovable joints are present. D
C. It is having only one movable bone.

D. The bones of skull are also known as investing (1) A & B only
bone.
(2) A, B, C & E
How many statements are correct?
(3) A, C & D only
(1) All statements are correct
(4) C & D only
(2) All statements are correct except A
175. All of the following are the functions of human
(3) All statements are correct except B kidney, except
(4) All statements are correct except C (1) Regulation of water and inorganic ion balance,
173. Following is the diagram of human urinary system. removal of metabolic waste from the blood and
Find out the labelled structures which are lined by their excretion in the urine
transitional epithelium? (2) Removal of foreign chemical from the blood and
F their excretion in the urine
E (3) Kidneys help in excretion and osmoregulation
G
(4) PCT, DCT and collecting duct help to maintain
the pH and ionic balance of the body fluids by
tubular secretion which always occurs passively
D
C 176. All of the following are examples of neurotransmitter
which belong to category biogenic amines, except
B (1) Dopamine
(2) Norepinephrine
(1) D and E (2) B and C (3) Epinephrine
(3) C and D (4) D and F (4) Thyroxine
21/22
177. The major organs that remove hormones from the 179. The cytoplasmic structure which have
plasma by metabolizing or excreting them are characteristics similar to Z line in skeletal muscles
fibres found in smooth muscle is
(1) Brain (2) Liver
(1) Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
(3) Kidney (4) Both (2) & (3)
(2) Sarcolemma
178. Following is the list of hormones, how many of them
(3) Dense bodies
act by a mechanism similar to epinephrine?
(4) Motor end plate
Thyroxine, Triiodothyronine, Aldosterone, Cortisol,
Androgen, Testosterone, Estradiol, Oxytocin, 180. Which of the following option correctly include parts
of limbic system?
Vasopressin, Prolactin, Somatostatin,
Adrenocorticotropic hormone, Growth hormone, (1) Amygdala, hippocampus only
Luteinizing hormone, Follicle stimulating hormone (2) Hippocampus, cerebellum only
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) Hippocampus, amygdala, hypothalamus
(3) 10 (4) 5 (4) Hypothalamus, amygdala only

22/22
Test - 3 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014
T EST – 3
ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (3) 73. (4) 109. (4) 145. (1)
2. (1) 38. (2) 74. (2) 110. (4) 146. (3)
3. (3) 39. (4) 75. (3) 111. (1) 147. (1)
4. (2) 40. (1) 76. (2) 112. (3) 148. (3)
5. (1) 41. (2) 77. (4) 113. (4) 149. (3)
6. (4) 42. (4) 78. (3) 114. (3) 150. (1)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (4) 151. (3)
8. (1) 44. (3) 80. (3) 116. (3) 152. (1)
9. (3) 45. (3) 81. (4) 117. (3) 153. (1)
10. (3) 46. (3) 82. (4) 118. (3) 154. (1)
11. (4) 47. (2) 83. (3) 119. (1) 155. (1)
12. (2) 48. (2) 84. (4) 120. (3) 156. (1)
13. (4) 49. (4) 85. (4) 121. (1) 157. (3)
14. (3) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (3) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (4) 87. (2) 123. (3) 159. (4)
16. (2) 52. (2) 88. (3) 124. (4) 160. (2)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (4) 125. (2) 161. (2)
18. (2) 54. (4) 90. (4) 126. (3) 162. (3)
19. (1) 55. (4) 91. (1) 127. (2) 163. (1)
20. (2) 56. (1) 92. (4) 128. (4) 164. (2)
21. (2) 57. (1) 93. (3) 129. (2) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (1) 94. (3) 130. (4) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (1) 95. (3) 131. (3) 167. (1)
24. (4) 60. (3) 96. (2) 132. (1) 168. (4)
25. (1) 61. (4) 97. (3) 133. (1) 169. (2)
26. (1) 62. (4) 98. (1) 134. (4) 170. (1)
27. (4) 63. (2) 99. (3) 135. (2) 171. (1)
28. (2) 64. (3) 100. (4) 136. (1) 172. (4)
29. (1) 65. (2) 101. (2) 137. (1) 173. (3)
30. (4) 66. (4) 102. (4) 138. (3) 174. (3)
31. (3) 67. (4) 103. (4) 139. (3) 175. (1)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (2) 140. (3) 176. (1)
33. (3) 69. (2) 105. (4) 141. (2) 177. (4)
34. (4) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (1) 178. (2)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (3) 143. (2) 179. (4)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (2)
1/9
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014 Test - 3 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (1) GMm ⎛ 1 ⎞
W  
4 2R ⎜⎝ 6 ⎟⎠
g G R
3 mgR
W 
g A RA 2 12
 
gB RB 1 7. Answer (3)
2. Answer (1) 8. Answer (1)
v e  2gR
GMm 3 GMm 1
   mv 2
GM 2R 2 R 2
ve  2
R
3. Answer (3) v  2gR
g 9. Answer (3)
g  2
⎛ h⎞
⎜1  R ⎟
⎝ ⎠
h=R
P shell
g 3r
g 
4
1
T 
g OP = 2r
4. Answer (2) Gm Gm
vp   
T2  R3 2r 3r
3/2
T2 ⎛ 3.5 ⎞ 5 Gm
 vp  
T1 ⎜⎝ 7 ⎟⎠ 6 r
24 10. Answer (3)
T2   8.484
2 2 P
 3
5. Answer (1) V  
V 2
A L

t 2m P

L ⎛ A ⎞ T
 2⎜ ⎟
m ⎝ t ⎠ 2P
T 
⎛ 7  10 22 ⎞ 3
 2⎜ ⎟⎟
⎜ 3.5  107 11. Answer (4)
⎝ ⎠
= 4 × 1015 m2/s B = P
6. Answer (4) B = 2P
GMm ⎛ GMm ⎞ 1
W  ⎜ ⎟ P
2(3R ) ⎝ 2(2R ) ⎠ v2
GMm ⎛ 1 1 ⎞ 1
W  
2R ⎜⎝ 3 2 ⎟⎠ B
v2
2/9

Q = mst F  32 C

When equal amount of heat is given, temperature 9 5
change will be more for hollow sphere hence it will C = 0.01°C
expand more. 19. Answer (1)
13. Answer (4)
 H

dT 1 x KA
 
dt ms  1
At steady state, 
dT 1 1 x K
  
dt m V 20. Answer (2)
CCube VSphere 4 (10) 3
T1 T2  T1
  4   1 
CSphere VCube 3 (10)3 T2 T2
14. Answer (3) T1 = T1 – x
R ⎛ 1⎞ T2 = T2 – x
C  Cv  ⎜n  2 ⎟
n 1 ⎝ ⎠ T1  x T2  T1
  1  
T2  x T2  x
3 R
C R  > 
2 1
1
2 21. Answer (2)
8 3 32 5
3R 7  RT0   R(3.2T0 )
C  2R  R T  4 2 32 2
2 2 ⎛8 3 32 5 ⎞
⎜ 4  2 R  32  2 R ⎟
15. Answer (3) ⎝ ⎠
22. Answer (2)
1 50
(8.4  10 –3 )(200)2   m  80  4.2
2 100 CP
1
W nRdT R C  CV CV  1
m = 0.25 g    P  
Q nCP dT CP CP CP 
16. Answer (2) CV
1 23. Answer (1)
P
4 24. Answer (4)
17. Answer (4)
Q = U + W
P = nCVT + W
(P, V)
Isothermal
⎛ 3 ⎞ ⎛ 4P 3V 2P 2V ⎞
= 2⎜ R ⎟⎜ 0 0  0 0 ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠⎝ 2R 2R ⎠
(P2, V ) P2 > P1
+ Area of AB on y-axis
(P1, V )
Adiabatic Wiso > Wadi = 12P0V0 + 3P0V0
V
= 15P0V0
T
25. Answer (1)
T1 Iso W = 25 J
T2 < T1 nRT = 25
Adi QP = nCPT = n(4R)T
T2 = 4 × 25 = 100 J
V
V2 26. Answer (1)
3/9
MgL 35. Answer (2)
Y 
A R V n
 (no. of moles)
(L )L T p
Y 
Al n
l  L2 Slope 
p
Y  x2 mA nA PB
28. Answer (2)  
mB nB PA
P tan 60 2nB pB
B  
⎛ V ⎞ tan30 nB pA
⎜ V ⎟
⎝ ⎠
pA 2
0.1 8

h  g  9  10  pB 3
100
36. Answer (3)
29. Answer (1)
37. Answer (3)
30. Answer (4)
59  10 C 0
31. Answer (3) 
80  10 100  0

C = 70°C
A F
 38. Answer (2)
t1 12
 2 2
Fcos t2 2  1
F cos 
Shearing stress = t2 = 3t1
A
39. Answer (4)
Asin = A
V  r2, m  r3
F cos 
Shearing stress = sin  v2 = 4v1
A
40. Answer (1)
F
 2cos .sin  l1 – l2 = l1 – l2
2A
F l1(1 + 1t) – l2(1 + 2t) = l1 – l2
(sin2) 
2A l11 = l22
Maximum when sin2 = 1 41. Answer (2)
 = 45° 42. Answer (4)
32. Answer (2)
v  2gh
4T ⎛ 4 ⎞ 4T ⎛ 4 3 ⎞ 4T ⎛ 4 3 ⎞
R 3 ⎟  ⎜ r1 ⎟  r ⎜ 2 r2 ⎟ Independent of density.
R ⎜⎝ 3 ⎠ r1 ⎝ 3 ⎠ 2 ⎝ ⎠
43. Answer (1)
R r12  r22 Shear strain × length = radius × twisting angle
33. Answer (3) 
Shear strain =
w = T [n(4r2) – 4R2] l
R 44. Answer (3)
r  1/3
n Y = 2S(1 + )
⎡ n ⎤
w  ⎢ 2/3 R 2  R 2 ⎥ 45. Answer (3)
⎣n ⎦ 100 × 80 > 300 × 1 × (20 – 0)
w  (n – 1)
1/3
Temperature will be 0°C.
4/9
[ CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3)
1.54  2.86
R   2.2 atm
4 r 3 2
Fraction of occupied space = 2 
3 a3
60. Answer (3)
8 r 3
Fraction of empty space = 1 
3 a3 w B 1000
47. Answer (2) Molality = m  w
B A
Magnetite Fe3O4 shows ferrimagnetism

z 1000
48. Answer (2) mB  
y (x  z)
a = b  c and  =  =  = 90° is tetragonal lattice
is present in TiO2
z 1000
49. Answer (4) y 
mB (x  z)
50. Answer (3)
61. Answer (4)
In HCP number of atoms per unit cell is 6
62. Answer (4)
 Number of octahedral voids = 6
and tetrahedral voids = 2  6 = 12 All these solutions shows negative deviation.
Total number of voids = 6 + 12 = 18 63. Answer (2)
18 150  30
Total number of voids per atom = 3 Mass of solute in 150 g solution =  45 g
6 100
in 0.45 mole compound, total number of voids
= 3  0.45  6.023  1023 300  45
Mass of solute in 300 g solution =  135 g
100
= 8.13  1023 voids
51. Answer (4) Total mass of solute = 45 + 135 = 180 g
52. Answer (2) 180

Mass % in mixture =  100  40%
53. Answer (4) 450
Statement (A) & (B) are correct.
1 5
55. Answer (4) 1 g Acetone =  ml, 2 g H2O = 2 ml
0.6 3
Depression of freezing point TR – TP is incorrect
5 11
56. Answer (1) Total volume =  2  ml
3 3
CO2 < O2 < He.
57. Answer (1) 5/3
% of acetone =  100  45%
11/ 3
van't Hoff factor for Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 = 7
van't Hoff factor for K2[HgI4] = 3 65. Answer (2)
7 66. Answer (4)

Ratio of colligative properties =  2.33
3 All of these are correct.
59. Answer (1) Ammonia produced due to reaction
1v1 + 2v2 = R(v1 + v2) MnO2 + NH4+ + 1e–  MnO(OH) + NH3
1.54  1 + 2.86  1 = R(1 + 1) Combines with Zn+2 ions to form [Zn(NH3)4]2+
5/9
68. Answer (4) x

Total pressure = 140 – x + +x
Constant ‘A’ depends on charges on cation and 2
anion produced on the dissociation of electrolyte in x
the solution. = 140 + = 160
2
69. Answer (2) x = 40 mm
Electrical energy = Charge  potential 40
Rate of disappearance of A 2   4 mm/min
= 2  150  125 = 37.5 kJ 10
Ecell is intensive property. All relation are true.
Number of moles of Cd+2 before electrolysis 79. Answer (4)

All graphs are correct for first order reaction.
M  V 500  0.2
= 
1000 1000 80. Answer (3)
Number of moles of Cd+2 after electrolysis Large Ea and Low T has smallest rate constant.
M  V 500  0.1 81. Answer (4)
=   0.05
1000 1000 82. Answer (4)
Moles of Cd+2 electrolysed = 0.1 – 0.05 = 0.05 First order at low concentration of NH3 and zero
it order at high concentration of NH3.
Moles =
n  96500 83. Answer (3)
96.5  t The collodion solution is 4% solution of nitrocellulose
0.05   t = 100 s
2  96500 in alcohol and ether used to form filter papers for
72. Answer (2) ultrafiltration.
Increase in concentration of cathodic product emf of 84. Answer (4)
cell decreases. Micelles formation takes place only above CMC and
73. Answer (4) above kraft temperature.
All methods are use to prevent corrosion. 85. Answer (4)
74. Answer (2) Haemoglobin is positively charged sol.
Only A & B are correct statements. 86. Answer (2)
75. Answer (3) At intermediate pressure in freundlich adsorption
x
2 5 isotherm  kp1/n
Rate = K(A)1 (B)2/3, order of reaction 1   m
3 3
87. Answer (2)
(dx / dt) mol litre 1 time 1 88. Answer (3)

Rate constant = 5/3

(reactant) (mol litre –1 )5/3 ZSM-5 is a shape selective catalyst called zeolite.
89. Answer (4)
= mol–2/3 litre+2/3 time–1
1 nm= 10–9 m
76. Answer (2)
= 10 Å to 1000 nm
1
A 2 (g) 
 B(g)  C(g) = 10000 Å
2
= 10–6 m
t=0 140 mm 0 0
90. Answer (4)
1
t = 10 min 140 – x x x Fact
2
6/9
[ BIOLOGY ]
Shoot apical meristem. Three components - Filament, hook, basal body.
Intercalary meristem. Prokaryotes possess gas vacuole.
Gymnosperms – Tracheids, sieve cells, albuminous Bacteria Plant

cells. Wall Peptidoglycan Cellulose
Angiosperms – Tracheids, sieve tube, companion
cells. Capsule + –
94. Answer (3) Plastids – +

95. Answer (3) Plasma membrane Lipid bilayer Lipid bilayer
Companion cells control activities of sieve tube.
111. Answer (1)
96. Answer (2)
Protein formed by ER are released in luminal
Living mechanical tissue. compartment for modification.
Collenchyma, aerenchyma, chlorenchyma - Living. 70 S ribosomes,
98. Answer (1) Outer and inner membranes have their own specific
enzymes.
Subsidiary cells.
Enzymes for protein synthesis.
99. Answer (3)
Single circular DNA.
100. Answer (4)
113. Answer (4)
Endodermis.
A – Plasma membrane
101. Answer (2)
D – Central microtubule
Endodermis Pericycle Vascular bundle.
E – Radial spokes
102. Answer (4)
114. Answer (3)
Internal (physiological) and external (environmental) A – Golgi bodies.
factors.
115. Answer (4)
103. Answer (4)
Membrane-less organelles.
Conduction is done by sap wood.
116. Answer (3)
104. Answer (2)
p – Small arm
105. Answer (4)
q – Long arm
Monocot plants possess undifferentiated mesophyll. 117. Answer (3)
106. Answer (3) Chromatin + Nucleolus + Nuclear matrix
Robert Hooke – Dead cells 118. Answer (3)
Leeuwenhoek – Living cells A – Protein synthesis, carbohydrate synthesis
Purkinje – Protoplasm B – Light reaction
107. Answer (3) 119. Answer (1)
Plasmid – Bacteria Food vesicle/phagasome+lysosomeFood vacuole.
7/9
120. Answer (3) 142. Answer (1)

121. Answer (1) Pepsin is endopeptidase so net product is peptide.
G1 phase. 143. Answer (2)
122. Answer (3) Water absorption is by osmosis.
Quiescent phase. 144. Answer (3)
123. Answer (3)
145. Answer (1)
Under genetic control.
Brunners glands produce alkaline mucus and are
124. Answer (4) present in the sub-mucosa of duodenum.
Cell cycle duration in human cell– 24 hours. 146. Answer (3)
125. Answer (2) 147. Answer (1)
126. Answer (3)
148. Answer (3)
127. Answer (2)
Pacreatic lipase/steapsin is the principal enzyme for
128. Answer (4) the digestion of fats.
Telophase is reverse of prophase. 149. Answer (3)
129. Answer (2) Trypsinogen to trypsin conversion is in the presence
During S phase DNA content double so that G2 and of enterokinase.
anaphase possess 80 Pg of DNA.
150. Answer (1)
130. Answer (4)
151. Answer (3)
131. Answer (3)
152. Answer (1)
Recombinase is involved in crossing over.
Major part of oxygen i.e., 97% is carried in the form
132. Answer (1) of chemical combination with hemoglobin.
Karyokinesis, cytokinesis, centriole duplication,
153. Answer (1)
condensation of chromatin.
154. Answer (1)
133. Answer (1)
134. Answer (4) High temperature and low pH shift the curve towards
right.
135. Answer (2)
155. Answer (1)
Each tetrad or bivalent contains pair of chromosome.
(i) VC = TV + IRV + ERV
136. Answer (1)
(ii) IC = TV + IRV
137. Answer (1)
EC = TV + ERV
Monophyodont are 8 premolar and 4 molars.
138. Answer (3) EC = 1500 ml
The innermost layer lining the lumen of alimentary TV = 500 ml

canal is mucosa. This layer forms irregular folds So ERV = 1000 ml
(Rugae) in stomach.
156. Answer (1)
139. Answer (3)
157. Answer (3)
140. Answer (3)
158. Answer (4)
Hepatic artery supplies oxygenated blood to the liver.
141. Answer (2) 159. Answer (4)
Hepato pancreatic duct get secretions of bile from Pulling of ribs upwards and outward increase the
liver, gall bladder and pancreatic juice. volume of thoracic cavity that occurs in inspiration.
8/9
160. Answer (2) 169. Answer (2)

The primary effect of pneumotaxic centre is to control 170. Answer (1)
the “switch off” point of inspiratory signal.
171. Answer (1)
161. Answer (2)
If there is a complete obstruction of coronary artery,
162. Answer (3) it leads to myocardial infarction.
163. Answer (1) 172. Answer (4)
164. Answer (2) Left lymphatic duct = Thoracic duct.
Upper part of lungs loose elasticity in occupational 173. Answer (3)
diseases.
174. Answer (3)
165. Answer (3)
175. Answer (1)
In thoracic breathing, breathing is more dependent
on the intercostal muscles. Each ventricle pump out 5 L/min during cardiac
output.
166. Answer (2)
176. Answer (1)
The expression of pulse can be measured as blood
pressure. 177. Answer (4)
167. Answer (1) 178. Answer (2)
Larger the size of organism, lesser is the metabolic 179. Answer (4)
rate. Blood from lungs enters into left atrium through the
168. Answer (4) pulmonary veins.
Left ventricle has thickest musculature. 180. Answer (2)

9/9

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Test - 4 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2014

Time : 3 Hrs. T EST – 4 MM : 720

(1) 50 (2) 100 (4) Energy, linear momentum and mass

7⎞ 8. Angle between wave velocity and particle velocity of

(1) Resonance (2) Harmonics m m

(1) vrms = vmp

(3) Changing their momenta due to collision with (2) 2 : 3

Space for Rough Work

(3) Half that at room temperature (1) 45° (2) 60°

(1) LiAlH4 + H2O (1) At the same temperature D 2 O has higher

(1) 28 V (2) 56 V (1) BaCl2 (2) Na2CO3

(3) 14 V (4) 11.2 V (3) SrSO4 (4) All of these

(1) 45.53 g/L (1) Is electrolysed

(2) 25.74 g/L (2) Reacts with Cr2O72– ion

(3) 15.92 g/L (3) Reacts with F2

(4) 52.79 g/L (4) Both (1) & (3)

(1) CrO4–2 (2) CrO5 (1) ZnO (2) SnO

(3) Cr2O3 (4) CrO3 (3) PbO (4) All of these

(3) Ba (4) Sr (3) NaOH (4) Both (2) & (3)

(3) CaCO3, Ca(HCO3)2 (1) sp3 (2) sp3d

(3) 4, 4 (4) 4, 6 (3) CO (4) All of these

(1) P and As (2) N and P (1) Its reaction with PbS

(3) As and Sb (4) Sb and Bi (2) Its reaction with NO

(1) H2S2O3 (2) H2S2O6 (1) XeF4 (2) XeF6

(3) H2S2O8 (4) All of these (3) XeOF4 (4) XeO3

Space for Rough Work

(3) XeOF4 (4) XeOF2 (3) H2S (4) All of these

FD – Porins are proteins that form small pore (3) DPD = OP

(2) Passive from symplast Substrate Product

a. Jan Ingenhousz (i) First action spectrum of

(1) Denitrification, carried by Pseudomonas e. T. W. Engelmann (v) Essential role of air in

(3) Only in chloroplast (1) Eight

(4) Only in mitochondria (2) Seven

(3) Photolysis of H2O (3) C3 and C4 respectively

(4) Synthesis of ATP (4) C4 and C3 respectively

(2) Decarboxylation (3) Protein (4) Sugars

Space for Rough Work

(2) Dedifferentiation (1) Vernalisation – Applicable only for

(3) Three (4) Two (2) Two

142. 145. Consider the following functions?

(3) Each human kidney of an adult person (2) B and D

Space for Rough Work

D (2) Atlas, Axis, Sacrum, Lumbar

(1) Vasopressin (2) GnRH (1) Pivot (2) Gliding

(3) Oxytocin (4) Prolactin (3) Saddle (4) Hinge

(1) Cortisol, Estrone, Dihydroxytestosterone Which labelled structure in given diagram is

C. It is having only one movable bone.

Space for Rough Work

Hints to Selected Questions

12. Answer (2) 18. Answer (2)

Magnetite Fe3O4 shows ferrimagnetism

Total number of voids = 6 + 12 = 18 63. Answer (2)

52. Answer (2) 180

7 66. Answer (4)

68. Answer (4) x

Ecell is intensive property. All relation are true.

71. Answer (4) 78. Answer (3)

Number of moles of Cd+2 before electrolysis 79. Answer (4)

(dx / dt) mol litre 1 time 1 88. Answer (3)

93. Answer (3) 110. Answer (4)

Gymnosperms – Tracheids, sieve cells, albuminous Bacteria Plant

94. Answer (3) Plastids – +

120. Answer (3) 142. Answer (1)