PATHOLOGY

File Name: QUEST

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BOARD REVIEW
16. The following clinical manifestations are seen in a patient with
1. Viruses induce cell injury through: Down’s syndrome EXCEPT:
A. direct cytopathic effect A. dysplastic pelvis and middle phalanx of hand
B. immune – mediated reactions B. mental retardation
C. both A & B are correct C. microcephaly
D. neither A nor B is correct D. horizontal palmar crease

2. Process (es) involved in cell necrosis is (are): 17. Pathologic changes that have been described in AIDS include
A. denaturation of proteins cell of the following EXCEPT:
B. enzymic digestion of cells A. hypogammaglobulinemia
C. C. both A & B are correct B. viral inclusions in histiocytes of lymph nodes
D. neither A nor B is correct C. T4/T8 ratio is very low
D. Lymphoid depletion of cortical and paracortical areas of
3. The following statements are TRUE of caseous necrosis: lymph nodes
A. it is a combination of coagulation and liquefaction
necrosis 18. Thymectomy in new born infant will cause:
B. it is a characteristic feature of tuberculosis A. impaired cell-mediated immune response
C. both A & B are correct B. impaired antibody response
D. neither A nor B is correct C. heavy chain disease
D. no discenible immune dysfunction
4. Jaundice is due to the accumulation of this pigment:
A. bilirubin C. lipofuscin 19. Tuberculous lesions are brought about by:
B. hemosiderin D. melanin A. release of exotoxin C. hypersensitivity reaction
B. release of endotoxin D. activation of lysosomes
5. The sequence of cellular events in inflammation is:
A. margination  diapedesis  chemotaxis  20. Immunoglobulins are produced by:
phagocytosis A. neutrophils C. eosinophils
B. diapedesis  margination  chemotaxis  B. basophils D. lymphocytes
phagocytosis
C. chemotaxis  margination  diapedesis  21. The following are malignant conditions EXCEPT:
phagocytosis A. hepatoma C. melanoma
D. chemotaxis  diapedesis  margination  B. lymphoma D. adenoma
phagocytosis
22. This tumor belong to the category of blastoma:
6. The most effective means of microbial killing is via the: A. dermoid cyst C. squamous cell carcinoma
A. oxygen – independent mechanism B. adenocarcinoma D. Wilm’s tumor
B. myeloperozidase independed mechanism
C. hydrogen peroxide, myeloperoxidase and halide system 23. The following are non-neoplasia EXCEPT:
D. only A & C are correct A. hamartoma C. dysplasia
B. choristoma D. fibroma
7. The most important cause of delay in wound healing is:
A. infection 24. The following are suppressor genes EXCEPT:
B. presence of foreign bodies A. p53 C. APC
C. inadequate blood supply B. bcl-2 D. NF – I
D. mechanical factors
25. A 6-year-old boy develops abdominal pain and vomiting
8. Keloid is due to excessive: preceded by a 3-day period without bowel movements. A
A. granulation tissue C. amyloid deposition diagnosis of intestinal obstruction is made. Of the following,
B. granuloma formation D. collagen accumulation the most likely reason for the obstruction is a bolus of:
A. Taenia saginata C. Strongyloides tercoralis
9. Edema can result from any of the following mechanisms: B. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Onchocerca volvulus
A. increased hydrostatic pressure of the blood
B. increased osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid (sodium 26. The following is/are attributed directly or indirectly to
retention) schistosomiasis EXCEPT:
C. decreased oncotic pressure of plasma protein A. solitary liver abscess
D. all of the above are correct B. granulomatous around shcistosoma ova
C. dark (gray) color of the liver and spleen because of a
10. A patient with CHF has generalized edema. The operative hemoglobin-derived pigment that accumulate in
mechanism involved in edema are the following EXCEPT: reticulo-endothelial cells
A. increased aldosterone secretion D. urinary bladder malignancy, predominantly of the
B. increased central venous pressure squamous cell type
C. diminished CO
D. diminished ADH secretion 27. The morphologic changes in typhoid fever include the following
EXCEPT:
11. Periorbital edema is usually encountered in: A. accumulation of mononuclear phagocytes throughout
A. filariasis C. liver cirrhosis the lymphreticular system, with some lymphocytes and
B. nephritic syndrome D. inflammatory states plasma cells
B. enlargement of the liver with areas of focal necrosis
12. Fluid that collects during acute inflammation and that has a surrounded by mononuclear cell proliferation (typhoid
protein content in excess of 3.0 g/L and SG over 1.015 is nodules)
termed: C. oval ulcers in the ileum with their long axis along the
A. exudate C. hydropericardium long axis of the bowel
B. transudate D. wheal
28. A chronic carrier state of typhoid fever is most likely due to the
13. A segment of one chromosome transferred to another segment persistence of the organism in:
is known as: A. the appendix C. the gall bladder
A. mutation C. inversion B. the cortex of the kidney D. the ileum
B. translocation D. deletion
29. Function of thiamine:
14. The most common cause of the occurrence of Klinefelter’s A. co-enzyme in oxidative decarboxylation of alpha-
syndrome: ketoacids
A. non-disjunction in meiotic division in oogenesis B. synthesis of DNA and RNA
B. non-disjunction in meiotic division in spermatogenesis C. respiratory enzyme in the cytochrome enzyme
C. non-disjunction in meiotic division in embryogenesis D. all of the above are correct
D. translocation
30. The metabolism of calcium is closely regulated by:
15. The number of Barr bodies in a patient with 48 XXXY karyotype: A. vitamin D C. thyroid gland
A. none C. two B. parathyroid gland D. all of the above
B. one D. three
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31. The mechanism of clotting is affected by: D. pulmonary hypertension
A. Vitamin A C. Thiamine
B. Vitamin K D. Vitamin E 47. The following are possible morphologic changes in sickle cell
disease EXCEPT:
32. This/these pollutants is/are dangerous because once released A. Gamma Gandy bodies in the spleen
into the environment they are “forever” i.e. resistant to B. Papillary necrosis in the kidney due to capillary stasis
natural process of decay. C. Micro infarction in the brain
A. polychlorinated biphenyls D. Evidences of chronic glumerulonephritis
B. chloroform
C. carbon monoxide 48. A decrease in the number of platelets is seen in which condition
D. all of the above are correct EXCEPT:
A. polycythemia vera
33. Ethyl alcohol toxicity will cause: B. aplastic anemia
A. venous thrombosis C. fatty liver C. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. cheery-red discoloration of skin D. gingivitis D. acute leukemia

34. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect of 49. B-thalassemia major shows all of the following features EXCEPT:
smoking? A. hypochromic microcytic anemia
A. myocardial infarction C. cancer of the pancreas B. target cells and anisocytosis in peripheral blood smear
B. cancer of the bladder D. peptic ulcer disease C. diminished synthesis of the alpha chain hemoglobin
D. clinical necessity for multiple blood transfusions
35. Exposure to carbon particle in the ambient air will result to:
A. Anthracosis C. progressive massive fibrosis 50. The patterns of chronic lymphadenitis include the following
B. coal worker’s pneumoconiosis D. any of the above EXCEPT:
A. sinus histiocytosis
36. The leading cause of death in children between 5-14 years of B. paracortical hyperplasia
age is: C. follicular hyperplasia
A. malignant neoplasm C. injuries resulting from accidents D. suppurative lymphadenitis
B. congenital anomalies D. cardiac diseases
51. “Starry sky” pattern of lymph node is characteristic of:
37. The highest at risk period for intrauterine cytomegalovirus A. Burkitt’s lymphoma C. Histiocytic lymphoma
infection: B. Hodgkins lymphoma D. Sezary’s syndrome
A. 1st trimester of pregnancy
B. 2nd trimester of pregnancy 52. Lacunar cells are characteristics of this type of Hodgkin’s
C. C. 3rd trimester of pregnancy disease:
D. D. all of the above A. lymphocytic predominance C. mixed cellularity
B. lymphocyte depletion D. nodular sclerosis
38. Organogenesis is completed by:
A. 2nd trimester of pregnancy 53. The most common type of Histiocytosis X in infants is:
B. the end of 2nd trimester A. eosinophilic granuloma
C. the end of 1st trimester B. hand-schuller-christian disease
D. the middle of 1st trimester C. letterer-siwe syndrome
D. unifocal langerhans cell histiocytosis
39. Polyarteritis nodosa frequently affected organs include all of the
following EXCEPT: 54. Sinus histiocytosis are normally seen in nodes draining:
A. Kidney C. Lungs A. infection C. drug abuse
B. Heart D. GIT B. cancers D. immunologic disorders

40. All of the following are characteristic features of thromboangitis 55. A patient presents with hemoptysis and acute renal failure. A
obliterans (Buerger’s disease) EXCEPT: diagnosis worth considering in this clinical picture is:
A. lesions are sharply segmental A. Asbestosis C. Good pasture’s syndrome
B. only the lower extremities are affected B. primary atypical pneumonia D. tuberculosis
C. arteries of small and medium size are affected
D. both upper and lower extremities are affected 56. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is associated with:
A. panlobular emphysema
41. All of the listed anatomic changes are considered as important B. anthracosis
features in syphilitic aortitis EXCEPT: C. Wegener’s granulomatosis
A. longitudinal wrinkling (tree barking) D. bronchogenic carcinoma
B. dilatation of aortic valve ring
C. obliterative endarteritis of vasa vasorum 57. Enlargement of pulmonary alveolar spaces with destruction of
D. widening of coronary ostia septal walls is seen in:
A. chronic bronchitis C. pulmonary infarction
42. The histological hallmarks of temporal or giant cell arteritis are B. emphysema D. alveolar proteinosis
the following EXCEPT:
A. lymphocytic infiltrate in the intima and inner media 58. A chest x-ray that shows a shaggy cavity with a thick irregular
B. disruption of incarnal elastic lamira associated with border and satellite densities in the right lower lobe is most
giant cells compatible with:
C. patchy necrosis of the media A. bronchogenic carcinoma C. abscess
D. eosinophilic infiltration of all muscular coats B. tuberculosis D. histoplasmosis

43. Complicated or advanced atherosclerosis would most likely 59. Which statement about esophageal cancer is false?
affect this portion of the blood vessel: A. it is usually of squamous cell type
A. intima only C. intima and adventitia B. most common in the distal portion
B. intima and media D. adventitia C. primarily a disease of elderly males
D. characterized by dysphagia and painless weight loss
44. A biopsy of the femoral artery revealed calcification in the media
would be compatible with: 60. Macrophages with positive periodic acid-schiff-staining material
A. accelerated hypertension in intestinal lamina propia and lymph nodes are
B. young individuals, usually male characteristically found in:
C. usual complication of ischemia and gangrene A. Wilson’s disease
D. none of the above B. Elevated serum gastrin levels
C. Whipple’s disease
45. A vascular tumor associated with AIDS is: D. Gardener’s syndrome
A. Lymphaniosarcoma C. Angiosarcoma
B. Kaposi’s sarcoma D. Hemangiopericytoma 61. The Mallory-Weiss syndrome is due to laceration in the mucosa
of the:
46. The following are associated with cor pulmonale EXCEPT: A. Esophagus C. Pylorus
A. concentric left ventricular hypertrophy B. Stomach D. Small intestine
B. congestive heart failure
C. pulmonary valve dilatation
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62. Carcinoma of the GIT would be expected to occur with greatest 77. The following is caused by human papilloma virus type 6 (HPV-
frequency in patients with: 6):
A. familial polyposis of the colon C. Crohn’s disease A. Giant condyloma C. condyloma lata
B. villous adenoma of the colon D. gastric ulcer B. Condyloma acuminatum D. all of the above

63. Chronic obstruction of the cystic duct results to development of: 78. The following are TRUE about hypospadias and epispadias,
A. Choledochal cyst EXCEPT:
B. Porcelain gall bladder A. Commonly associated with failure of normal descent of
C. Hydrops of the gall bladder the testes and malformation of the bladder
D. Carcinoma of the gall bladder B. May lead to partial urinary obstruction
C. Possible cause of sterility
64. Which of the following condition(s) increase(s) the risk of bile D. There is no exception
duct carcinoma?
A. Choledochal cyst 79. The majority of ovarian neoplasms arise from:
B. Porcelain gall bladder A. germ cells C. sex-cord stroma
C. Hydrops of the gall bladder B. surface epithelial cell D. metastatic from GIT
D. Choledocholithiasis
80. The most common site of endometriosis:
65. Carcinoma of the pancreas: A. fallopian tube C. recto-vaginal septum
A. occurs most often in the body of the pancreas B. ovary D. vagina
B. is associated with hypocalcemia
C. arises from the pancreatic ductal cells 81. Choriocarcinoma is most often preceded by:
D. is usually cured by total pancreatectomy A. abortion C. normal pregnancy
66. All of the following pediatric conditions are characterized by B. ectopic pregnancy D. H. mole
unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia EXCEPT:
A. Hemolytic disease of the newborn 82. The most common primary malignant tumor of the ovary:
B. Physiologic jaundice of the newborn A. endometrioid carcinoma
C. Intrahepatic biliary atresia B. mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
D. Gilbert’s syndrome C. serous cystadenocarcinoma
D. yolk sac tumor
67. The least common type of gall bladder calculi are:
A. pure calcium bilirubinate C. pure cholesterol 83. Cord like ducts filled with necrotic and cheesy tumorous tissue
B. pure calcium carbonate D. mixed stone that can be readily extruded upon pressure is seen in:
A. mucinous carcinoma C. medullary carcinoma
68. Cholelithiasis is mainly due to: B. comedocarcinoma D. paget’s disease of the
A. Infection breast
B. supersaturation of bile with cholesterol
C. bile stasis 84. Lesions mistaken clinically as malignant are the following
D. inflammation EXCEPT:
A. fibroadenoma C. mammary duct ectasia
69. In addition to nephritic injury, the other main cause of acute tubular B. fat necrosis D. mastitis
necrosis is:
A. Sepsis C. severe hypocomplementemia 85. Sites of metastases of cystosarcoma phyllodes are usually:
B. Ischemia D. immune complex deposition A. axillary lymph nodes C. liver
B. lungs and bone D. brain
70. Of the complications of acute pyelonephritis enumerated below,
one does not belong: 86. The most frequent site of breast cancer is:
A. retroperitoneal abscess formation A. lower inner quadrant C. upper outer quadrant
B. renal papillary necrosis B. upper inner quadrant D. subareolar
C. acute episodes of paroxysmal HPN
D. pyonephrosis For numbers 87 to 89
87. A female patient presented with “moon facies,” truncal obesity
71. Of the risk factors for pyelonephritis enumerated below, one and hisrutism. Plasma cortisol was elevated. These
does not belong: features characterize:
A. diabetes mellitus A. Conn’s syndrome
B. male sex B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. congenital abnormalities of the urinary tract C. C. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
D. pregnancy D. Only B & C are correct

72. Chronic renal disease, pheochromocytoma, Conn’s syndrome, 88. If you suspect the presence of Cushing’s syndrome, you should
coarctation of the aorta and acromegaly are all conditions perform a:
that may lead to: A. low dose dexamethasone test
A. venous thrombosis C. Wegener’s granulomatosis B. high dose dexamethasone suppression test
B. hypersensitivity vasculitis D. hypertension C. both A & B are correct
D. neither A nor B is correct
73. Nests of urothelium may be found in the lamina propia of the
urinary bladder representing normal variation in the 89. If this were Cushing’s syndrome, one would expect:
morphology of the bladder. These nests of urothelium are A. suppression of cortisol secretion
called: B. suppression of ACTH secretion
A. Brunner’s nests C. Brunn’s nests C. no suppression of cortisol secretion
B. Burney’s nests D. Burner’s nests D. only A & B are correct

74. The following are implicated in the causation of bladder 90. Suppression of cortisol secretion with high dose dexamethasone
carcinoma, EXCEPT: suppression test indicates the presence of:
A. Beta naphthylamine C. Cyclophosphamide A. an adrenal neoplasm C. pituitary ACTH excess
B. S. Haemotobium D. There is no exception B. ectopic ACTH syndrome D. all of the above are correct

75. A newborn baby was noted to pass out urine through a small 91. Which of the following is a secondary lesion?
opening in the area of the umbilicus. This is most probably A. wheal C. erosion
due to: B. pustule D. bulla
A. Urachal cyst C. Exstrophy of the bladder
B. Patent urachusD. Any of the above 92. Psoriatic patients typically develop silvery:
A. excoriations C. papules
76. Transitional cell tumors that are more likely to behave as B. scales D. pustules
malignant are characterized by the following EXCEPT:
A. Induce angiogenesis 93. A patient presents with vesicles on the left side of his trunk. A
B. Manifest highly abnormal karyotypes simple lab procedure to do to support a diagnosis of herpes
C. Lack blood group antigens on their cell surface zoster is:
D. There is no exception A. gram stain C. Tzanck smear
B. KOH stain D. Patch test
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94. One of the etiologic factors in acne is the:

A. Pityrosporum C. Propionibacterium
B. Staphylococcus D. Enterococci

95. The paucibacillary therapy for Hansen’s disease is:

A. Rifampicin 600 mg; Ofloxacin 400 mg; Minocycline
100mg daily for 6 months
B. Rifampicin 600mg once a month for 6 months; Dapsone
100mg daily for 6 months
C. Rifampicin 600mg once a month for 2 years; Dapsone
100mg daily for 2 years; Clofazimine 50mg daily for 2
years
D. Rifampicin 600mg once a month for 6 months; Dapsone
100mg daily for 6 months; Clofazimine 50mg daily for 6
months

96. A child presents with an array of macules, papules, vesicles, and

bullae, reddish, with pale eroded center involving the
extremities, lips and oral mucosa in a symmetric pattern.
There was intake of penicillin and sulfonamides for urinary
tract infection. The patient most likely has:
A. erythema multiforme C. lichen planus
B. psoriasis D. porphyria

97. Most common primary malignant brain tumor:

A. Medulloblastoma C. Ganglioneuroma
B. glioblastoma multiforme D. ependymoma

98. Histologic criteria for glioblastoma multiforme:

A. vascular endothelial proliferation
B. anaplasia
C. both A & B are correct
D. neither A nor B is correct

99. Medulloblastoma most frequently occurs in:

A. age 60 and above C. children & young adults
B. middle adulthood D. no age predilection

100. Tuberculoma in children frequently occurs in:

A. Supratentorial C. Posterior fossa
B. Infratentorial D. Transtentorial