ANATOMY 2nd LE Feedback D.

Rectus capitis posterior major

1. Which of the following curvatures starts to develop as a 10. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the
child learns how to walk? fascia lata?
A. Cervical A. It gives rise to the intermuscular septae of the thigh
B. Lumbar B. It has no attachments to the pelvis, sacrum, and the
C. Sacral coccyx
D. Thoracic C. It is the continuation of the superficial fascia of the
-A & B: secondary curvatures abdomen (continuation of Scarpa’s fascia)
-C & D: primary D. It thickens medially to form the iliotibial tract (should be
laterally)
2. Which of the following parts of the vertebra serves for
deep back muscle attachment? 11. Which of the following muscle pairs acts synergistically
A. Articular on the joints that they cross?
B. Spinous process A. Gluteus maximus & quadrator femoris
C. Body B. Iliopsoas & rectus femoris
D. Pedicle C. Soleus & tibialis anterior
D. Tibialis posterior & popliteus
3. Which of the following foramina transmits the spinal
nerves? 12. Which of the following muscle groups is primarily
A. Intervertebral affected when the calcaneal tendon is ruptured?
B. Transverse A. Foot dorsiflexors
C. Vertebral B. Foot plantar flexors
C. Leg extensors
4. Which of the following back muscles is a chief extensor of D. Leg flexors
the vertebral column?
A. Interspinalis 13. Choose the correct of arrangement of structures within
B. Longissimus the femoral triangle from MEDIAL to LATERAL:
C. Multifidus A. Femoral artery—femoral vein—femoral lymph nodes—
D. Splenius femoral
-Erector Spinae: chief extensor of the back, includes B. Femoral nerve—femoral artery—femoral vein—femoral
iliocostalis, longissimus, spinales (I Love Shopping/Sports) lymph nodes
C. Femoral lymph nodes—femoral vein—femoral artery
5. Which of the following is the only ligament that limits —femoral nerve
extension of the vertebral column? D. Femoral vein—femoral nerve—femoral artery—femoral
A. Anterior Longitudinal Ligament lymph nodes
B. Posterior Longitudinal Ligament
C. Ligamentum flavum 14. Which of the following ligaments prevents the
D. Supraspinous ligament tibia from sliding anteriorly under the femur?
A. Anterior Cruciate Ligament
6. Which of the following is the most distinguishing feature B. Fibular Collateral Ligament
of the axis vertebra? C. Posterior Cruciate Ligament
A. Bifid spinous process D. Tibial Collateral Ligament
B. Foramen transversarium 14. Which of the following tarsal bones is the
C. Lateral masses keystone of the medial longitudinal arch?
D. Odontoid process A. Calcaneum
B. Cuboid
7. Which of the following vertebral joints permits mainly C. Navicular
rotation? D. Talus
A. Atlanto-axial
B. Atlanto-occipital 14. Tendon of which of the following muscles does
C. Zygapophyseal not form the PES ANSARINUS?
A. Gracilis
8. Which of the following muscles belongs to the deep B. Sartorius
intrinsic muscle group? C. Semimembranosus
A. Iliocostalis (Intrinsic intermediate) D. Semitendinosus
B. Multifidus -A, B & D all insert to the medial surface of the superior part
C. Rhomboid (Extrinsic) of tibia
D. Splenius (intrinsic superficial) 14. To which structure of the femur does the
majority of the gluteal muscles insert?
A. Adductor tubercle
9. Which of the following muscles in the suboccipital region B. Greater tubercle
does not form the borders of the suboccipital triangle? C. Lesser tubercle
A. Obliquus capitis inferior D. Linea aspera
B. Obliquus capitis superior
C. Rectus capitis posterior minor
14. Integrity of the muscles of the foot is mainly B. Apex of femoral triangle
dependent to which of the following? C. Neck of fibula
A. Branching action of muscles of the foot D. Vastoadductor membrane
B. Presence of skin ligaments
C. Shape of the interlocking bones 28. Which artery connects the dorsal metatarsal arteries to
D. Strength of plantar ligaments the plantar metatarsal arteries?
14. Which part of the quadriceps femoris could not A. Arcuate artery
flex the thigh when the knee is fully extended? VOID B. Dorsal digital artery
A. Rectus femoris C. Perforating artery
B. Vastus intermedialis D. Plantar digital artery
C. Vastus lateralis 29. Which vein serves as the main communication between
D. Vastus medialis the great and small saphenous veins?
A. Accessory saphenous
14. Which muscle can be harvested to replace a B. Accompanying
damage tendon of the hand with least functional deficit of C. Perforating
the lower limb? D. Popliteal
A. Gracilis
B. Plantaris 30. The popliteal vein at the distal border of the popliteal
C. Popliteus area is the continuation of which of the following veins?
D. Semitendinosus A. Deep femoral vein
14. Which of the following is the most anterior in the B. Femoral vein
popliteal fossa? C. Fibular vein
A. Common peroneal nerve D. Posterior tibial vein
B. Popliteal artery
C. Popliteal vein 31. From which of the following lumbosacral plexus
D. Tibial Nerve divisions does the femoral nerve originate?
Note: superficial to deep (NVA) A. Preaxial division of L2-L4
B. Preaxial division of L4-S3
14. Which function will be compromised if the C. Postaxial division of L2-L4
muscles in the anterior leg compartment are dennervated? D. Postaxial division of L4-S2
A. Dorsiflexion of ankle
B. Eversion of foot (lateral leg) 32. Which of the following nerves is found at the lateral
C. Flexor of knee (posterior thigh) compartment of the leg?
D. Plantarflexion of ankle (posterior leg) A. Fibular
14. Which of the following ligaments is most B. Superficial fibular
commonly torn during sudden forceful inversion of the C. Sural
foot? D. Popliteal
A. Long plantar
B. Short plantar 33. Which nerve supplies the skin of the proximal aspect of
C. Talofibular the medial half of the great toe and that of the lateral 3 ½
D. Tibio digits?
14. Which of the following arteries will give rise to A. Deep fibular
the posterior retinacular artery to supply the head of the B. Lateral plantar
femur? C. Medial plantar
A. Deep femoral D. Superficial fibular
B. Internal pudendal
C. Lateral circumflex 34. A lesion of which specific nerve would most likely give
D. Medial circumflex rise to inability to dorsiflex the ankle?
14. Which of the following arteries supply the A. Deep peroneal
anterior compartment of the thigh? B. Medial plantar
A. Deep femoral C. Superficial fibular
B. Femoral D. Sural
C. Inferior gluteal
D. Obturator 35. Which of the following gluteal nerves emerges just above
Note: FOS (femoral for anterior, obturator for medial, sciatic the piriformis?
for posterior thigh compartment) A. Superior gluteal nerve
14. Which of the following arteries give rise to the B. Inferior gluteal nerve
dorsalis pedis artery? C. Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
A. Anterior tibial D. Pudendal nerve
B. Arcuate Note: for #’s 31-35, draw the lumbosacral plexus 
C. Lateral tarsal
D. Posterior tibial 36. Lymph from the superficial tissues of the gluteal region
drains initially into which of the following groups of lymph
27. Which of the following structures marks the beginning nodes?
of the popliteal artery? A. Deep inguinal
A. Adductor hiatus B. Popliteal
C. External iliac 44. Low back pain with numbness over the dorsum of the
D. Superior inguinal foot most likely points to compression of which of the ff
nerve roots?
37. Lymph from the superficial lymph vessels coming from
which areas drain into the popliteal lymph nodes? A. Lower lumbar
A. Lateral foot B. Lower sacral
B. Lateral thigh C. Lower thoracic
C. Medial foot D. Upper sacral
D. Medial thigh
45. A football player sustains injury to the head of his right
38. The primary ossification centers start to appear at the fibula while he was tackled on the outer side of his knee,
8th week of development in which part of the developing weakness of ankle dorsiflexion most likely suggest injury to
long bone? which of the ff nerves.
A. Diaphysis
B. Epiphyseal plate A. Saphenous
C. Epiphysis (secondary ossification center) B. Deep Peroneal
D. Metaphysis C. Sural
D. Tibial
39. Which f the following structures exerts an inductive
influence on the adjacent mesenchyme to promote growth 46. The large blood vessels of the scalp freely anastomose to
of the limb bud? which of the ff layers?
A. Apical ectodermal ridge
B. Neural crest A. Skin
C. Notochord B. Dense Connective Tissue (layer richly vascularized and
D. Somite innervated)
C. Aponeurosis (Epicranial)
40. During 7th week of development, how do the lower limb D. Pericranium
buds rotate as they extend ventrally placing the extensor Note: SCALP (skin, connective tissue, aponeurosis, loose
muscles and the knees anteriorly? areolar tissue, pericranium)
A. Do not rotate
B. Rotate 90 laterally 47.Which of the ff structures passes the middle cranial fossa
C. Rotate 90 medially by way of foramen spinosum?
D. Rotate 180
A. CN V3
41. A 15 yr old boy was observed to be walking abnormally B. CN XII
upon putting weight on the right lower extremity during C. IJV
mid stance in walking he would lean or lurch his torso to D. Middle Meningeal Artery
the right side rather than keep his torso straight up
perpendicular to the floor. This most likely points to 48. Which of the ff is the thickened part of the fibrous
weakness of which of the ff muscles? capsule of the temporomandibular joint that prevents
posterior dislocation of the joint.
A. Gastrocnemius (heel off)
B. Gluteus Medius (keeps pelvis stable) A. Lateral ligament of TMJ
C. Quadriceps Femoris (accepts weight) B. Sphenomandibular
D. Tibialis Anterior (heel strike) C. Stylomandibular

42. A patient sustains a fracture of the distal 3 rd of the right 49. Which of the ff muscles forms the floor of the
femur. Radiograph shows posterior displacement of the submandibular or digastric triangle?
distal bone fragment. This finding is due to the action of A. Geniohhyoid
which muscle? B. Mylohyoid
C. Omohyoid
A. Adductor Longus D. Stylohyoid
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Hamstrings 50. Which of the ff layers of the cervical fascia forms the
D. Tibialis Anterior sheath for the submandibular gland?
A. Investing
43. Aside from an injured knee joint, a positive anterior B. Pretracheal
drawer’s sign may also be elicited with injury to which of C. Prevertebral
the ff joints? D. Superficial Cervical

A. Hip 51. The condensation of the layers of the deep cervical fascia
B. Patella-femoral may be found in which of the ff cervical triangles?
C. Talocrural A. Carotid (condensation of investing, pretracheal and
D. Talo-metatarsal prevertebral fascia)
B. Digastric
C. Occipital
D. Submental C. Lingual
D. Superior Thyroid
52. The parotid duct opens into which part of the oral
cavity? 60. Which part of the Subclavian artery is most accessible
A. on both sides of the frenulum for compression to control bleeding in cases of trauma to
B. posterior 3rd of the tongue the upper limb?
C. soft palate
D. Vestibule opposite to the 2nd maxillary molar tooth. A. First
B. Second
53. Which of the following muscles of mastication retracts C. Third
the mandible?
61. Which of the following arteries does the Masseteric
A. Buccinator artery originate?
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Medial pterygoid A. Facial
D. Temporalis B. Maxillary (branch of ECA)
C. Occipital
*two muscles that retract the mandible– Masseter and D. Superficial Temporal
Temporalis
*Lateral pterygoid and Medial pterygoid – protrude the 62. With which of the following muscles is the External
mandible Jugular vein most closely associated?
54. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the
facial nerve? A. Sternocleidomastoid (EJV lies on top of SCM)
B. Sternohyoid
A. Geniohyoid C. Sternothyroid
B. Lateral pterygoid D. Trapezius
C. Orbicularis oris
D. Thyrohyoid 63. Which of the following veins is a tributary of the Internal
Jugular vein?
55. Which of the following muscles produces transverse
wrinkles in the forehead? A. Anterior Jugular
B. Brachicephalic
A. Corrugator supercilii (produces vertical wrinkles) C. Inferior petrosal sinus
B. Frontalis D. Inferior thyroid
C. Orbicularis oculi
D. Procerus 64. Which of the following structures is contained within the
Carotid Sheath?

56. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the
Ansa Cervicalis of the Cervical plexus?
A. Digastric
B. Mylohyoid
C. Omohyoid
D. Stylohyoid
Note: Ansa cervicalis (C1-C3) innervates infrahyoid muscles
57. Contraction of the LEFT Sternocleidomastoid would
produce which of the following?
A. LEFT lateral neck flexion and LEFT rotation of the head
B. LEFT lateral neck flexion and RIGHT rotation of the
head
C. RIGHT lateral neck flexion and LEFT rotation of the head
D. RIGHT lateral neck flexion and RIGHT rotation of the head
58. Branches of which of the following arteries supply the
Frontal belly of the Occipitofrontalis at the glabellar area?
A. External Carotid
B. Internal Carotid
C. Subclavian
A. Common Carotid artery
B. External Carotid artery
C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. Phrenic nerve
Note: other contents are vagus nerve, IJV,carotid sinus n,
carotid periarterial plexus)
65. Which of the following nerves exits the cranium via
foramen ovale?
A. Mandibular nerve
B. Maxillary nerve (exits via foramen rotundum)
C. Ophthalmic nerve (exits via superior orbital fissure)
D. Vagus nerve
66. The cervical plexus is found beneath the
sternocledomastoid and on top of which of the following
muscles?
A. Anterior scalene and levator scapulae
B. Anterior scalene and middle scalupae
C. Middle scalene and levator scapulae
D. Middle scalene and posterior scapulae

59. Which of the following arteries supply the larynx?

a. Ascending Pharyngeal
B. Facial
67. Which of the following superficial lymph node groups B. Eosinophil: heparin
will most likely be affected by infection of the lower lip? C. Monocytes: histamine
D. Neutrophil: collagenase
A. Buccal -heparin and histamine can be found in basophils
B. Parotid
C. Submandibular 75. Which of the following cells is characterized by a bilobed
D. Submental nucleus and the presence of many large refractile specific
granules?
68. Which of the following structures is found within the
danger triangle of the face? A. Basophil
B. Eosinophil
A. Eyes C. Neutrophil
B. Forehead D. Thrombocytes
C. Glabella
D. Upperlip 76. Which of the following statements is true of mature
erythrocytes?
69. Which of the following nerves carries cutaneous
sensation from the upper third of the face? A. Biconcave discs
B. Numerous mitochondria
A. CN VI C. Function intravascularly
B. CN V2 D. Basophilic cytoplasm
C. CN V3
D. CN VII 77. Which of the following does not have azurophilic
cytoplasmic granules?
70. Hematocrit is an estimation of the volume of which of
the following cellular elements of blood? A. Basophils
B. Erythrocytes
A. Agranular leukocytes C. Lymphocytes
B. Erythrocytes D. Monocytes
C. Granular leukocytes
D. Thrombocytes 78. Platelet concentrate is being prepared for blood
transfusion to a patient with dengue hemorrhagic fever, the
71. Which of the following statements best describes the blood bank technician should separate the cells from the
monocytes? whole blood that is:

A. Cytoplasm has metachromatic granules (granulocytes) A. 6 weeks old

B. Nucleus has Barr bodies (neutrophils)
C. Nucleus fills the cell (basophils)
D. Has nonspecific cytoplasmic granules
Note: Monocytes and lymphocytes are agranulocytes,
meaning they only have nonspecific/azurophillic granules.
Granulocytes (neutro, baso, eosinophils) have both non-
and specific granules
72. The carbohydrate determinants for ABO blood groups
are located at the plasmalemma of which of the following
cells?
A. Agranular leukocytes
B. Erythrocytes
C. Granular erythrocytes
D. Thromocytes
73. Which of the following proteins is found in the plasma
but not in the serum?
A. Albumin
B. Complements
C. Fibrinogen
D. Globulin
Note: (Plasma vs serum) Plasma- whole blood without
formed elements; serum- whole blood without formed
elements and clotting factors
74. Choose the correct cell and secretion pair
A. Basophil: major basic protein
B. 1 month old
C. 12 days old
D. Recently extracted
79. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
neutrophils?
A. have bilobed nucleus (eosinophils)
B. increased in allergic reactions (basophils)
C. arise form MEG-CFU (platelet)
D. They phagocytose and digest bacteria
80. Which of the following cells is the least differentiated?
A. Basophilic erythrocytes
B. Polychromatophilic erythrocytes
C. Proerythroblast
D. Reticulocyte
81. Due to the large amount of hemoglobin in the cytoplasm
which of the following cells exhibit acidophilia of the
cytoplasm?
A. Eosinophilic myelocyte
B. Orthochromatophilic erythrocytes
C. Polychromatophilic erythrocyte
D. Proerythroblast
82. Which of the following characteristics of the nucleus
indicates the developmental stage of granulocyte?
A. Chromatin pattern A. They have efferent vessels which are valveless
B. Color B. Lymphoid nodules are present in paracortex
C. Shape C. Cortex contains irregular aggregations of
D. Size lymphocytes
D. They are evenly distributed throughout the body
83. At which of the following stages of the granulopoiesis is
the morphologically recognizable type of granulocytes first
seen? 91. Which of the statements is true regarding the palatine
tonsil?
A. Band cells
B. Metamyelocyte A. Does not have lymphoid nodule
C. Myelocyte B. Filter lymph
D. Promyelocyte C. Have efferent and afferent vessels
D. Lined by stratified squamous epithelium
84. Which of the following features best differentiates a
promyelocyte from a myeloblast? 92. Which of the following features best describes innate
immune response?
A. Presence of nucleoli
B. Presence of granules A. Causes inflammation
C. Shape of the nucleus B. is medullated by T-lymphoctes
D. Size of the cell C. Slow and specific
D. Produces memory cells
85. Which of the following cells arise from a bipotential
progenitor cells? 93. Which of the following organs has afferent lymphatic
vessels?
A. Erythrocyte
B. Lymphocyte A. Lymph node
C. Monocyte (from GM-CFU: granulocyte-monocyte CFU) b.thymus
D. Thrombocyte c. tonsils
d. spleen
86. Which of the following cells is morphologically
indistinguishable from pluripotent stem cell? 94. Hassal’s corpuscles are found in which region of the
thymus?
A. Lymphoblast
B. Megakaryoblast A. Cortex
C. Myeloblast B. Medulla
D. Proerythroblast C. Trabeculae

87. Which of the following components of bone marrow is 95. Choose the correct statement regarding open circulation
greater in proportion in the red marrow than the yellow in the spleen
marrow?
A. Occurs primarily in white pulp
A. Adipose cells B. Lymphocyte recirculation is made possible
B. Hematopoietic cells C. Penicillar arteries drain blood directly into the sinuses
C. Reticular cells D. Plasma and healthy RBCs are released into the splenic
D. Sinusoids stroma

88. Which of the following organs or structures is a minor 96. Which of the following is an example of an
contributor in the 2nd phase of hemopoiesis during 2nd unencapsulated lymphoid tissue?
trimester of fetal development?
A. Lymph node
A. Bone marrow (third phase) B. Peyer’s patches (ileum)
B. Liver (main contributor) C. Spleen
C. Spleen D. Thymus
D. Yolk sac (first phase)
97. Which of the following cells become functional in the
89. Which of the following cells is the precursor cell of thymus?
platelets?
A. antigen-presenting cells
A. Colony forming unit-MEG B. B-lymohocytes
B. Megakaryoblast C. natural killer cells
C. Megakaryocyte D. T lymphocytes
D. Proplatelet
98. Which of the following allows for lymphocyte
90. Which of the following best describes the lymph node? recirculation?
A. High endothelial venules C. Found in thymic cortex
B. No sinuses D. Form white pulp of spleen
C. periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths
D. Stave cells 100. Thymus begins to undergo evolution during which
stage of development?
99. Which of the following is true regarding lymphoid
nodules? A. Birth
B. Infancy
A. Inactive nodules have germinal centers C. Puberty
B. T cells are predominant D. Adulthood