Grade 7 Science Test Item PDF

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: I
Competency: Describe the components of a scientific
investigation (S7MT-Ia-1)
1. Sequencing Test
2. Directions: Arrange these scientific methods used in investigating a
3. natural occurrence by assigning numbers from 1-7.
4.
5. _______ Develop and follow a procedure which includes a detailed
6. material list and the outcome must be measurable
7. (quantifiable).
8.
9. _______ Include a statement that accepts or rejects the hypothesis.
Make recommendations for further study and possible
improvements to the procedure.
_______ Predict a possible answer to the problem or question.
_______ Be prepared to present the project and questions from the

audience.
_______ Develop a question or problem that can be solved through

experimentation.
_______ Collect, analyze the results and modify the procedure if

needed. Confirm the results by retesting including tables,
graphs, and photographs.
_______ Make observations and research your topic of interest. Gather

information and data.
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Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. When a scientist listens to the sound of the waves, what skill is used?
A. interpreting data
B. drawing conclusions
C. making observations
D. making a hypothesis
2. In Science, what is the term used for an educated guess?

A. question
B. conclusion
C. hypothesis
D. observation
3. Which of the following decides whether or not the data supports

the original hypothesis?
A. asking questions
B. drawing conclusions
C. making observations
D. forming a hypothesis
4. Which step of the scientific methods involves the use of graphs?

A. analyze data
B. asking questions
C. make a hypothesis
D. communicate results
2
5. Which scientific procedure makes a discovery, tests a hypothesis or
demonstrates a known fact?
A. law
B. theory
C. hypothesis
D. experiment
3
Matching Type
Directions: Match the DESCRIPTIONS with their corresponding STEPS.
Write your answer on the space provided.
DESCRIPTIONS STEPS
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: I
Competency: Investigate properties of unsaturated or saturated
solutions (S7MT-Ic-2)
Matching Type
Directions: Match the DESCRIPTIONS with their corresponding TERMS. Write
only the letter of the correct answer in your answer sheets.
DESCRIPTIONS TERMS
1. It is a dissolving medium. A. solute
2. It is substance that is being dissolved. B. solvent
3. It describes two liquids that are insoluble in C. miscible

one another D. solution
4. It is a solution having large amount of solute E. saturated

compared to solvent. F. immiscible
5. It contains more solute than solvent G. concentrated

at a given temperature and volume. H. supersaturated
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Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that corresponds
to the correct answer.
1. Which of the following is a saturated solution?

A. more solute than solvent
B. more solvent than solute
C. equal moles of solute and solvent
D. the maximum amount of solute dissolved in a solvent
2. What solution has a higher concentration than its solubility?

A. saturated
B. supercritical
C. unsaturated
D. supersaturated
3. A sample of potassium nitrate (50.0 g) is dissolved in 100 g of water at

100˚C, with precautions taken to avoid evaporation of any water. The
solution is cooled to 30.0˚C and a small amount of precipitate is
observed. What type of solution is described?
A. hydrated
B. saturated
C. unsaturated
D. supersaturated
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4. A solution is made at 25˚C. It is then slowly cooled to 20˚C with no
change to the appearance of the liquid. What term would be

associated with this solution?
A. saturated
B. unsaturated
C. oversaturated
D. supersaturated
5. A saturated solution is made by dissolving 36.8 g of solid in 200 mL of

water. A second solution is made by dissolving 19.1 g of the same solid in
100 mL of water. How would this solution be classified?
A. saturated
B. unsaturated
C. supersaturated
D. hypersaturated
7
True or False
Directions: In each item, circle letter T if the statement is correct, F if it is not.
T F 1. Solubility is the amount of solid dissolved in a solution.
T F 2. After a dilution takes place, the final solution is less concentrated

than the initial.
T F 3. An unsaturated solution has more dissolved solid than it should be.
T F 4. In a 10% methanol and 90% ethanol solution, the methanol is the

solvent.
T F 5. An equilibrium between dissociation and crystallization is

established in all saturated solutions.
Completion Test
Directions: Read each item carefully and choose from the options below
the correct term being described. Write your answer on the
space provided.
unsaturated saturated supersaturated
1. If a solution can hold more solute (it isn't full yet), it is ___________.
2. If a solution cannot hold any more solute (it is full) it is ___________.
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3. If a solution holds more solute than it should be able to (its over full) it is
___________.
4. A solution is saturated at 25 grams per 100g of H2O. If 25 grams is dissolved
in 100 grams of H2O, it is ___________.
5. A solution is saturated at 25 grams per 100g of H2O and holds 22 grams in

100 grams of H2O. It is ___________.
6. A solution is saturated at 25 grams per 100 grams of H2O and holds 31

grams in 100 grams of H2O. It is ___________.
7. A solution can hold 10 grams per 100 grams of H2O. If 8 grams is dissolved
in 100 grams of H2O of water, it is ___________.
8. A solution can hold 15 grams per 100 grams of H2O. If it holds 30 grams in
200 grams of H2O of H2O, it is ___________.
200 grams of H2O, it is ___________.
200 grams of H2O of water, it is ___________.
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Identification
Directions: In each item, identify the factor affecting the rate of solubility.
Choose your answers from the terms inside the box.
surface area polarity temperature
agitation catalyst pressure
1. Stirring the coffee and sugar after adding to the water
2. Powdered sugar will dissolve in water faster than rock candy.
3. Leaving the cap off the soda bottle will let the carbonation out.
4. Alcohol and sugar are miscible while oil and water are immiscible.
5. Sugar dissolves more readily in hot water, but CO2 dissolves better in
cold soda than warm soda.
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: I
Competency: Express concentrations of solutions quantitatively
by preparing different concentrations of mixtures
according to uses and availability of materials
(S7MT-Id-3)
Identification
Directions: Determine and write what is being described in each of the
following statements.
1. What type of percentage concentration is derived by dividing the

volume (V) of solute by the total volume of the solution and multiplying
them by 100?
2. What is the mathematical equation for question number 1?
3. What percentage concentration is expressed by dividing the mass in

grams of solute per 100 grams of the solution?)
4. What is the formula for the operational definition in item number 3?
5. What is being referred to the mass or volume of solute present in a

specified amount of solvent?
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Multiple Choice
1. What is the percent by mass of sodium hydrogen carbonate that has 20

grams of solute in 600 mL of water?
A. 3.22%
B. 3.33%
C. 3.45%
D. 3.68%
2. If you have 1500 grams of bleach and the percent by mass of bleach is
3.62%. What is the mass of NaOCl in the solution?
A. 0.543 g
B. 5.43 g
C. 54.3 g
D. 543 g
3. How many grams of solvent is present in 1500 grams of bleach? (Refer to

question number 2)?
A. 1446 g
B. 1495 g
C. 1557 g
D. 1597 g
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4. What is the percent by volume of ethanol that contains 35 mL of solute
dissolved in 115 mL of water?
A. 23.3%
B. 30.4%
C. 48%
D. 75.7%
5. If you have 100 mL of a 30% ethanol solution, what is the volume of

water in the solution?
A. 100 mL
B. 70 mL
C. 50 mL
D. 30 mL
6. If you have 100 mL of 30% ethanol solution, what is the volume of

ethanol in the solution?
A. 130 mL
B. 100 mL
C. 70 mL
D. 30 mL
7. What is the percent by volume of isopropyl alcohol in a solution that

contains 24 mL isopropyl alcohol in 1.1 L of water?
A. 2.18%
B. 2.14%
C. 2.12%
D. 2.11%
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8. A solution contains 28% phosphoric acid by mass. What does it
mean?
A. the density of this solution is 2.8 g/mL
B. 1 mL of this solution contains 28 g of phosphoric acid
C. 100 g of this solution contains 28 g of phosphoric acid
D. 1.0 L of this solution contains 28 mL of phosphoric acid
9. What is the percent by volume of 25 mL ethanol in 75 mL of water?

A. 75%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 12.5%
10. Describe how you would prepare 100 grams of solution that is
0.5% salt (NaCl) by mass. Dissolve ________________.
A. 100.0 g NaCl in 5.0 g distilled water
B. 50.0 g NaCl in 100 g distilled water
C. 0.5 g distilled water in 99.5 g NaCl
D. 0.5 g NaCl in 99.5 g distilled water
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Problem Solving
Directions: Solve each of the worded problems and answer the
questions that follow. Write your answers in your answer
sheet.
1. In order to maintain a sodium chloride (NaCl) concentration

similar to ocean water, an aquarium must contain 3.6 g NaCl per
100.0 g of water. What is the percent by mass of NaCl in the
solution?
I. What is the problem about?

II. What are the given data necessary to solve the problem?
III. What is the required formula for the problem?
IV. How will you solve the problem?
V. Why is the answer correct?
2. You have 1500.0 g of a bleach solution. The percent by mass of

the solute sodium hypochlorite, NaOCl, is 3.62%. How many grams
of NaOCl is in the solution?
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3. Suppose we mix 50.0 mL of alcohol with enough water to make
400ml. of solution. What is the percentage by volume of the
solution?
4. When we mix 2.0 g of iodine in carbon tetrachloride to make 80

ml. of solution, what will be the percent by mass-volume of the
solution?

5. What is the concentration of solution made by dissolving 158 g of

salt in 555 g of water?
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Essay
Directions: Read carefully the following situations and answer the
questions below. (5 points each)
1. Your mother told you to prepare a dip made from a vinegar. As you
looked at the label of the vinegar bottle it reads that it contains 22%
acetic acid. How is 100 mL of the vinegar solution that contains 22%
acetic acid by volume prepared?
2. You are planning to buy a rubbing alcohol, which one would you
choose, 30% ethyl alcohol at Php. 25.00 or 70% ethyl alcohol at Php.
30.00? Why? (Assume equal volume of the rubbing alcohol.)
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: I
Competency : Distinguish mixtures from substances based
on a set of properties (S7MT-Ie-f-4)
Identification
Directions: Identify each of the following as either Compound or
Mixture. Write your answer on the space provided.
1. salt (NaCl) _______________________
2. Pakbet _______________________
3. cement _______________________
4. sugar (C6H12O6) _______________________
5. salad dressing _______________________
6. water _______________________
7. salt water _______________________
8. Bagoong _______________________
9. air _______________________
10. milk _______________________
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Table Completion
Directions: Complete the table below by placing a check mark (/)
under the appropriate classifications (Compound,
Heterogeneous Mixture or Homogeneous Mixture) of the
given matter.
Heterogeneous Homogeneous
Matter Compound
Mixture Mixture
Iced tea
Chocolate ice
cream
Carbon
dioxide
Cake
Sodium
hydroxide
Identification
Directions: Identify the type of mixture being described in the
following examples. Choose your answer from the list
inside the box.
gas in gas liquid in liquid solid in solid liquid in gas
gas in liquid solid in liquid solid in gas liquid in solid
1. Alloys such as brass are made up of metals.

2. Saline solution is a mixture of salt and water.
3. Wine is a mixture of ethanol and water.
4. Smoke is a mixture of tiny solid particles in atmospheric gases.
5. Soft drinks such as cola are mixtures of mainly carbon dioxide gas
and water.
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Identification
Directions: On the space provided, write whether the property being
described by the statement is a Compound or Mixture.
_____________ 1. Composition is constant.
_____________ 2. The substance is always homogeneous.
_____________ 3. Components can be separated by filtering.
_____________ 4. Components keep their original properties.
_____________ 5. Properties are different from the elements they

compose.
_____________ 6. It has a varied boiling point.
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following is a mixture?

A. water
B. oxygen
C. sea water
D. iron sulfide
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2. Which of these statements is correct?
A. Air is a mixture while table salt is a compound.
B. Table salt is a mixture while carbon is a compound.
C. Table salt is a compound while carbon is a mixture.
D. Carbon dioxide is a mixture while air is a compound.
3. Which statement about mixtures is correct?

A. A mixture is made up of elements chemically combined.
B. A mixture must contain at least two different substances.
C. It is extremely difficult to separate a mixture into different
substances.
D. The different substances in a mixture are in definite
proportion to each other.
4. What substance can be split into simpler substances by chemical

means?
A. mixture
B. element
C. molecule
D. compound
5. Which of these is composed of two or more substances that are

mixed together but not chemically combined?
A. atom
B. mixture
C. molecule
D. compound
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: I
Competency: Recognize that substances are classified into elements

and compounds S7MT-Ig-h-5
Table Completion
Directions: Complete the table with the missing data.
Some Major Elements in the Human Body

ELEMENT SYMBOL %
1. O 65
Carbon 2. 18
3. H 10
Nitrogen 4. 3
5. Ca 2
Identification
Directions: Identify each of the following substances as either an
Element or a Compound. Write your answer on the space
provided.
________1. KBr
________2. N2,
________3. S8,
________4. H2O,
________5. CO2,
________6. F2
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Identification
Directions: From the DESCRIPTIONS given, determine the ELEMENTS
being referred and CLASSIFY each element as Metallic or
Non-metallic. Choose your answer from the box.
Copper Helium Iron

Mercury Carbon Calcium
DESCRIPTIONS ELEMENTS CLASSIFICATIONS

1. colorless, odorless gas _______________ _______________
2. that can be magnetized _______________ _______________
3. good conductor, shiny _______________ _______________
4. liquid at room temperature _______________ _______________
5. element present
in diamond and graphite _______________ _______________
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Completion Test
Directions: Analyze and complete each statement below. Choose
your answers from the box.
H Na O N
Cl NaOH H 2O N2O
1. If 2 nitrogen atoms combine with 1 oxygen atom, they will form

__________, dinitrogen oxide.
2. If __________ combines with __________, they will form NaCl, or sodium

chloride.
3. If 2 hydrogen atoms combine with 1 oxygen atom, they will form

__________ or water.
4. If 1 sodium atom combines with 1 oxygen atom and 1 hydrogen

atom, they will form _________ or sodium hydroxide.
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following statements about compounds is correct?

A. At least one of the elements in a mixture must be a gas.
B. The elements in a compound are always present in the same
ratio.
C. It is easy to separate a compound into the elements that
makes it up.
D. The properties of compound are the same as the properties
of the elements of which they made of.
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2. Of the four illustrations below, which best represent chemical
compounds only?
3. What substance is made up of only one type of atom?

A. gas
B. mixture
C. element
D. compound
4. When a substance is analyzed using an electron microscope, it is

found to contain only one type of atom. What substance is this?
A. a mixture
B. an element
C. a compound
D. neither of the three choices
5. Which of the following can be classified as a compound and as a

molecule?
A. Water
B. Sodium
C. Oxygen
D. Crude oil
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6. Marie Currie, the Nobel Prize Awardee for chemistry, showed the
existence of the element radium and she produced 0.1 g of
the compound radium chloride in 1902 by processing tons of
pitchblende ore obtained from mines in Bohemia. What is meant
by the term compound?
A. It is made up of only one type of atom.
B. It cannot be split up into simpler substances by chemical
means.
C. It is made up of two or more different types of atom
chemically combined.
D. It is made up of two or more different types of atom mixed
together but not chemically combined.
7. Which of the following represents the compound called carbon

dioxide?
A. Carbon and oxygen
B. Sodium and oxygen
C. Sodium and hydrogen
D. Chlorine and hydrogen
8. Which of these substances is a compound?

A. Iron
B. Oxygen
C. Hydrogen
D. Sodium fluoride
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9. How many types of atom are present in a compound?
A. one
B. any number
C. two or more
D. less than three
10. What is represented by this figure ?

A. mixture
B. element
C. molecule
D. compound
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Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: I
Competency: Investigate properties of acidic and basic
mixtures using natural indicators S7MT-Ii-6
Identification
Directions: Identify the following properties by writing A for an acid or
B for a base. Write your answer on the space provided.
___1. tastes bitter

___2. feels slippery
___3. has a sour taste
___4. reacts with metals
___5. turns blue litmus paper to red
___6. turns red litmus paper to blue
True or False
Directions: Indicate if the statement is correct by writing TRUE, if
incorrect FALSE.
_______1. A base is a compound that tastes sour and reacts with some
metals.
_______2. Properties of acids include being corrosive and having a
sour taste.
_______3. When the pH is high, the concentration of hydrogen ions is
low.
_______4. An alkali is an acid.
_______5. The neutral pH value is zero (0).
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Multiple Choice
1. What is being measured by the pH scale?

A. the strength of an acid
B. the strength of hydrogen ions
C. the concentration of hydrogen ions
D. the concentration of the solutions and mixtures
2. Which type of solution is one with a pH of 8?

A. acidic
B. basic
C. neutral
D. salt
3. Which range in pH level describes strong acids?

A. 1 - 3
B. 4-6
C. 7 - 9
D. 10 – 14
4. Which pH level indicates a basic solution?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 7
D. 12
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5. A normal rainfall is slightly acidic. What is its pH level?
A. 10 -12
B. 7 – 9
C. 5 – 7
D. 1 – 3
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read the following questions carefully and put a check (/)
mark for the correct word/phrase on each item. Write
your answer on the space provided.
1. Which of the following is the best description of a natural acid-base

indicator?
_____ indicates the pH of a solution
_____ is colorless in one solution but has a color in the other
_____ has one color in one solution but a different color in the other
_____ changes or does not change in color as tested on different
substances
2. What do we call it when a soap turned into green with red

cabbage as an indicator?
_____ salt
_____ acid
_____ base
_____ neutral
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3. Which of the following is NOT a natural indicator?
_____ pechay
_____ mayana leaves
_____ skin of eggplant
_____ red camote tops
4. What change is manifested in natural indicators like flowers,

leaves and fruits of the plants?
_____ size
_____ color
_____ stems
_____ number
5. Your class is going on a field trip at the local aquarium to test the
acidity of the various fish tanks. Which of the following is the
advantage of using the indicator paper?
_____ Easy to carry.
_____ Cleaning up is easier.
_____ No license is needed.
_____ Accurate result is shown.
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Fill In The Blank
Directions: Select the correct term inside the box that will complete
the paragraph below.
acid salt base
water neutralization
The interaction that occurs between acids and bases in which

the properties of each are cancelled out by the other is called (1)
__________. It is the reaction between (2) ________ and (3) _________. The
products of this reaction are (4) _________ and (5) ________.
Table Completion
Directions: Complete the table by putting a check (/) mark under the
appropriate classification of each given matter.
MATTERS ACIDIC BASIC NEUTRAL

Kalamansi juice
detergent
Distilled water
vinegar
baking soda
antacids
milk
ammonia
cement
tomato
32
Sequencing Test
Directions: Following is a list of items with their corresponding pH
values, rearrange the acids in order of increasing levels of
alkalinity (basicity). Write your answer on the appropriate
columns.
SAMPLES Ph LEVEL SAMPLES Ph LEVEL

Lemons pH 2
Seawater pH 8
Grapefruit pH 3
Urine pH 6
Saliva pH 6
Vinegar pH 2
Tomato Juice pH 4
Oven Cleaner pH 13
Gastric Acid pH 2
Soap pH 12
33
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: I
Competency: Describe some properties of metals and non-
metals such as luster, malleability, ductility, and
conductivity (S7MT-Ij-7)
Multiple Choice
1. A student is researching an element that is not a conductor of heat

or electricity but is shiny like a metal. Which category does the
metal belong?
A. metal
B. metalloid
C. non-metal
D. compounds
2. Which of these has a shiny luster?

A. metal
B. metalloid
C. non-metal
D. compounds
34
For items 3 and 4, refer to the table below.
Unknown Conducts Appearance Observation
Electricity
1 No Black and Snaps easily into small
gritty pieces
2 Yes shiny Bends easily
3 No blue Bends and snaps

back to original shape
4 Yes clear Shatters easily
3. Which of the observations will help you identify that a substance is

a metal?
A. shatters easily
B. is black and gritty
C. conducts electricity
D. does not conduct electricity
4. The unknown substances have properties for their identification.

Which of them is most likely a metal?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
5. Which of following is true about nonmetals?

A. found along the stair step line
B. conductors of heat and electricity
C. on the left side of the periodic table
D. found to the right of the stair step line
35
6. Which property is true for metalloids?
A. They are not elements.
B. They never conduct electricity and is usually dull.
C. They always conduct electricity and is shiny
D. They are semiconductors with properties of both metals and
nonmetals.
For items 7-8, refer to the figure below.
1 4
3
2 2
2
2
7. Where is the location of metalloids in the periodic table?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 and 4
8. Which shows where metals can be found?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 and 4
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9. If an element is a semi-conductor, which classification correctly
describes it?
A. metal
B. nonmetal
C. metalloid
D. compound
10. Which of the following manifests the highest melting and boiling
point?
A. metal
B. nonmetal
C. metalloid
D. compound
Table Completion
Directions: Complete the table and distinguish the properties
between metals and non-metals. (The first one has been
done for you).
Properties Metals Non-metals
appearance Have metallic luster. Non-metals are dull.
hardness
malleability
ductility
heat conduction
conduction of electricity
37
Matching Type.
Directions: Match the substances with their uses. Write only the letter of
the correct answer in your answer sheets. (Note: Each
option
should only be used once.)
SUBSTANCES USES
1. iron A. fuel
2. gold B. perfume
3. carbon C. jewelry
4. copper D. machinery
5. mercury E. decoration
6. aluminum F. thermometer
G. electrical wire
H. wrapping food
Table Completion
Directions: Fill in the table with the appropriate property or properties
that exactly describe(s) each given element. Then, classify
each as metal or nonmetal.
Classification
Element Appearance Malleability Ductility
Metal/Non-metal
Aluminum
Carbon
Iodine
Iron
Silver
Sulfur
38
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: II
Competency: Identify the parts of the microscope and their
Functions. (S7LT-IIa-1)
Multiple Choice
1. Which part of the microscope would you use if you want to view the
specimen from one objective to another?
A. arm
B. coarse adjustment
C. draw tube
D. revolving nosepiece
2. Which parts of the light microscope magnify the image of a specimen?

A. eyepiece and mirror
B. eyepiece and objectives
C. objectives and mirror
D. objectives and diaphragm
3. Detailed structure of the specimen is best observed using _________.

A. high power objective
B. low power objective
C. oil immersion objective
D. scanning objective
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4. Which part of the microscope will you use if you want a clearer view
under LPO?
A. arm
B. draw tube
C. coarse adjustment
D. revolving nosepiece
5. Which objective will you use for observations of bacteria using a

compound microscope?
A. High Power Objective
B. Low Power Objective
C. Oil Immersion Objective
D. Scanner
Table Completion
Directions: Identify the parts and functions of a compound
microscope. Write your answers on the table below.
40
Short Answer Test
Directions: Using the words inside the box, classify the parts of a
compound microscope into mechanical, illuminating or
magnifying part.
arm LPO mirror stage clip

condenser mirror rack eyepiece coarse adjustment
scanner revolving nosepiece
Parts of a Compound Microscope

MAGNIFYING PART ILLUMINATING PARTS MECHANICAL PARTS
41
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: II
Competency: Focus specimens using the compound microscope.
(S7LT-IIb-2)
Multiple Choice
1. Arrange the generalized steps on focusing specimens under

compound microscope.
1. Switch to HPO.
2. Adjust mirror to obtain adequate light supply that reaches the
specimen.
3. View under LPO.
4. Place the prepared specimen on the stage.
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,3,4,2
C. 2,4,3,1
D. 2,3,4,1
2. A cell was magnified 450 x, if the eyepiece is marked 10x, what is

the magnifying power of the objective used?
A. 15X
B. 30x
C. 45x
D. 60x
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3. .How will the image be observed under a compound microscope as
you move the specimen to a particular direction (example away from
you)?
A. It goes with the direction where it is moved.
B. It goes to the opposite direction.
C. It goes upward or downward
D. It goes sideward
4. How will you illustrate letter “e” placed in this position “e” as seen
under the low power objective?
A. e
B. Ә
C. E
D.
5. How does the position of a specimen appear under the microscope?

A. upright
B. the same
C. reversed
D. inverted
43
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement about microscopy is correct and
FALSE if it is not. Write your answer on the space provided.
________ 1. The specimen being observed must be thin enough to allow

light to pass through it.
_________2. For wet mount preparation, specimens are placed on a

cover slip.
_________3. Bubbles are removed from a wet mount preparation by

means of blowing at the side of the slide.
__________4. Bubbles appear as black circular images in specimens in

slides being observed.
__________5. Stains are used to distinguish specimen parts more clearly.
44
Fill in the Blank
Directions: Supply the missing words to complete the sentences in the
paragraph below. Choose your answer inseide the
parenthesis.
In obtaining preliminary focus, the first step is to place the prepared

slide for observation in the ___1.____________ (stage, glass slide). The clips
must firmly hold the slides and the ____2.__________ (HPO, LPO) is
positioned using the revolving nosepiece, then carefully lower the body
tube until it almost touches the slide using the______ _3._________ (coarse,
fine) adjustment. The observer looks through the ____ 4. ______
(objective, eyepiece) and slowly turn the ______5.________ (coarse, fine)
adjustment upwards to raise the objective till a focus is obtained. If a
more detailed observation is desired, the observer switches to
_____6.____(HPO, LPO) and adjusts using ____7._____ (coarse, fine)
adjustment to obtain a clear view.
45
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: II
Competency: Describe the different levels of biological
organization from cell to biosphere. (S7LT-IIc-3)
Multiple Choice
1. What are organ systems made of?

A. cells
B. organelle
C. organs
D. tissues
2. Which statement best describes how organ systems work together?

A. they perform their respective functions to sustain life
B. they perform independently from each other
C. they perform with the same functions
D. they perform as needed
3. Which sequence correctly shows the level of biological organization

from the lowest level to the highest?
1. tissue 2. organs 3. cell 4. organism 5. organ systems
A. 3,1,2,5,4
B. 3,1,4,2,5
C. 3,1,5,4,2
D. 3,1,5,2,4
46
4. The brain controls many activities of the body. To what organ
system does it belong?
A. circulatory
B. digestive
C. nervous
D. respiratory
5. Which of the following statements best describe how organ systems

make up an organism?
A. Organisms are made up of tissues and cells present in
organs working independently.
B. Different organs work together to form an organism.
C. Different organ systems make up an organism.
D. Organs work together to form organism.
Matching Type
Directions: Match the ORGAN SYSTEMS with its PARTS. Write your answer
on the space provided.
ORGAN SYSTEMS PARTS
_____ 1. Nervous System a. lungs, nose, trachea
_____ 2. Circulatory System b. heart, blood vessels
_____ 3. Digestive System c. kidney, urinary bladder, ureter
_____ 4. Respiratory System d. brain, spinal cord, nerves
_____ 5. Excretory System e. stomach, intestines, liver
f. scrotum, vas deferens, epididymis
47
Picture Analysis
Directions: Study the picture below. Answer briefly the questions that
follows:
Picture credit: http://www.colscol.com/body-system/
1. A muscle tissue made up of ______________.
2. Heart is an organ that belongs to _____________ organ system.
3. What will happen to the heart if the specialized (cardiac) cells are
damaged?
_______________________________________________________________
4. What will happen to the organism if the circulatory system stops

working?
________________________________________________________________
5. Why do you think it is important for cells, tissues, organs, and organ
system to work together?
_____________________________________________________________________
48
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: II
Competency: Differentiate plant and animal cells according to
presence or absence of certain organelles. (S7LT-IId-4)
Matching Type
Directions: Match the DESCRIPTIONS with the corresponding CELL
PARTS. Write the letter of your answer on the space provided.
DESCRIPTIONS CELL PARTS

______1. This serves as the powerhouse of the A. Cytoplasm
cell.
B. Ribosome
______2. This part is the site of photosynthesis.
______3. It serves as system canals of the cell.
C. Vacuole
______4. It controls all the activities of the
different parts of the cell. D. Chloroplast
______5.It controls the passage of substances
E. Endoplasmic
going in and out of the cell.
______6. This part packs materials produced Reticulum
by the cell in vesicles. F. Mitochondrion

______7. This gives shape and protection to
plant cells. G. Cell wall
______8. This part plays a role in cell

H Nucleus
reproduction in animal cells.
______9. This part is where the different I. Cell Membrane
organelles are embedded.
______10. This part store water and nutrients J. Golgi apparatus
in cells.
K. Centriole
49
Short Answer Test (Venn Diagramming)
Directions: Place the cell parts contained in the box below with their
appropriate places in the Venn diagram.
nucleus cell wall plasma membrane centrioles

chloroplast lysosome vesicles cytoplasm
mitochondrion Golgi bodies smooth ER rough ER
vacuole ribosome
Table Completion
Directions: Place a check (/) mark if the cell part belongs to either
PLANT CELLS or ANIMAL CELLS and cross (x) mark if it does
not.
CELL PARTS PLANT CELLS ANIMAL CELLS
Chloroplast
Vacuole
Centrioles
Cell wall
Ribosomes
Golgi bodies
Nucleus
50
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain why the cell is considered the basic structural
and functional unit of all organisms. (S7LT-IIe-5)
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is not.
________1. Multicellular organisms are composed of many cells.
________2. Chloroplast is the site of photosynthetic reactions in the

cell.
________3. Unicellular organism is made up of one or two cells.
________4. Plant cells and animal cells have the same structures.
________5. All living organisms are composed of cells.
Multiple Choice
1. What is the structural and functional unit of all living organisms?

A. Cell
B. Organ
C. Organelle
D. Ribosome
51
2. Which is NOT a correct statement about cells as the structural and
functional unit of life?
A. They break down molecules.
B. They are the building blocks of life.
C. They form the structure of organism.
D. They perform the basic functions of life.
3. What is the main difference between animal and plant cells?

A. Plant cells have large vacuoles while animal cells have larger
vacuoles.
B. Animal cells have small vacuoles while plants cells has none at
all.
C. Cell wall is not found in plant cells but present in animal cells.
D. Rigid cell wall is absent in animal cell but present in plant cell.
4. When a cell is observed using a compound light microscope, which

of the following structures will be seen?
A. DNA and RNA
B. All cytoplasmic organelles.
C. Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins
D. Cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
5. Which of the following correctly matches a cellular structure with its

function?
A. Mitochondria-protein synthesis
B. Ribosomes –supply energy to the cell
C. Nucleus-controls the activities of the cell
D. Cytoplasm-gives shape and protection to plants
52
Essay
Directions: Read and answer the question below.
Why are cells important?
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
53
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: II
Competency: Identify beneficial and harmful microorganisms.
(S7LT-IIf-6)
Matching Type
Directions: Match the HARMFUL EFFECTS with the corresponding
ORGANISMS. Write the letter on the space provided.
HARMFUL EFFECTS ORGANISMS

_____ 1. Causes athlete’s foot A. Green algae or
& ringworm. “lumot”
_____ 2. Some are poisonous B. Parasitic fungi

when eaten.
_____ 3. Pests in aquarium and C. Bread mold

recreation beaches.
______4. Causes TB, diarrhea D. Mushroom

and pneumonia.
_____ 5. Causes food to spoil E. Mold
F. Bacteria
54
True or False
Directions: Write the word TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if
It is not. Write your answer on the space provided.
________1. Mushroom, molds & yeasts can make their own food.
________2. Mold is composed of an algal part which provides food

for the fungal part.
________3. Green algae like “lumot” serves as a food for fish in

ponds.
________4. Molds can be used in the fermentation of food.
________5. Lichens can serve as indicator of air pollution.
IDENTIFICATION
Directions: Write B if the disease is caused by bacteria, F if it is caused
by fungi and P if it is caused by protist. Write your answer on
the space provided.
________1. amoebiasis
________2. cholera
________3. athletes foot
________4. ringworm
________5. tuberculosis
55
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: II
Competency: Differentiate asexual from sexual reproduction in terms
of: number of individuals involved, similarities of offspring
to parents. (S7LT-IIg-7)
Matching Type
Directions: Match the DESCRIPTIONS with the MODES OF ASEXUAL
REPRODUCTION. Write the letter on the space provided.
DESCRIPTION MODES OF ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION

1. Plantlets grow along the leaf A. Regeneration
margin.
2. An individual may form as an B. Spore formation

outgrowth of the parent.
3. The cell divides to form C. Budding

two identical daughter cells.
4. Spores are released D. Vegetative

and may be carried Reproduction
by wind or water.
5. A part breaks off from E. Fission

the body and develops
into a new individual.
F. Fragmentation
56
Multiple Choice
1. A method that refers to the production of a new plant from a

portion of another plant is ___________.
A. vegetative state
B. active propagation
C. plant reproduction
D. vegetative propagation
2. Budding is a method of asexual reproduction taking place in

________.
A. bacteria
B. honeybee
C. hydra
D. virus
3. In yeasts, cell division results in small cells called _________.

A. branch
B. bud
C. clone
D. offspring
4. Sponges reproduce asexually by_________.

A. budding
B. binary fission
C. multiple fission
D. vegetative propagation
57
5. The “eyes” of a potato tuber are the_________.
A. buds
B. nodes
C. shoots
D. rhizomes
Table Completion
Directions: Differentiate the two types of reproduction by completing
the data on the table below.
Comparison of Sexual and Asexual Reproduction

CRITERIA SEXUAL ASEXUAL
No. of individuals (parent)
involved.
Similarity of offspring to
parents
Mode of reproduction
Sample organisms (that

undergoes this means of
reproduction)
58
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: II
Competency: Describe the process of fertilization. (S7LT-IIg-8)
Multiple Choice
1. In a plant, when a pollen grain lands on the stigma of it is pistil the

said plant has undergone __________.
A. conjugation
B. fertilization
C. regeneration
D. pollination
2. What is the reproductive organ in flowering plants?

A. flower
B. fruits
C. leaves
D. stem
3. What is the function of sepals in a bud/ unopened flower?

A. It attracts insects.
B. It stores food in the embryo.
C. It serves as protective covering.
D. It helps to conserve water for the developing embryo.
59
4. Where are the sperm cells produced in a Gumamela flower?
A. Anther
B. Filament
C. Stigma
D. Style
5. The following are agents of pollination EXCEPT____?

A. dusts
B. human
C. insects
D. wind
Sentence Completion
Directions: Complete the sentences about pollination and fertilization
by providing the appropriate word. Choose your answers
from the words listed below:
Endosperm ovary
Stigma flower
Zygote pistil
Pollination brings together the gametes of a (1)______. It occurs

when a pollen grain of the right kind lands on the (2)______ of the pistil.
Each pollen forms a tube that grows down through the pistil and reaches
the (3)______ in the ovary. One of the nuclei in the pollen tube unites with
egg nucleus in the ovule to form a (4) ______.The other sperm nucleus
combines with another bigger nucleus in the ovule which develops into
the (5)_______.
60
Sequencing Events
Directions: Sequence the events that describe the process of
fertilization in animals. Arrange the numbers from the
beginning up to the end of the process. Use numbers 1-5.
1. Sperm and egg cells unite.
2. Gametes are formed.
3. Sperm travels towards the egg.
4. Zygote is formed.
5. Gametes are released.
Sequence: ____, ____, ____, _____, _____
61
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: II
Competency: Differentiate biotic from abiotic components of an
ecosystem. (S7LT-IIh-9)
Multiple Choice
1. The following are examples of abiotic components, EXCEPT

a. air
b. bamboo
c. sunlight
d. water
2. Which of the following examples is NOT an abiotic component?

a. earthworm
b. rice hulls
c. rotten log
d. soil
3. Which example shows biotic-biotic interaction in the ecosystem?

a. birds on their nest
b. lichens on a tree trunk
c. moss on a rock
d. worm under the soil
62
4. Biotic-abiotic interaction can be defined as ____________.
a. interaction among living things
b. interaction among non-living things
c. interaction between living and non-living things
d. interaction between living and living things
5. The energy from the sun is usually absorbed by plants, this is an

example of ______________ interaction.
a. Abiotic-abiotic
b. Abiotic-biotic
c. Biotic-biotic
d. None of these
IDENTIFICATION
Directions: Below are statements describing the components of the
ecosystem. Write B if it tells about the biotic component and
AB if it tells about the abiotic component. Write your answer
on the space provided.
___1. It describes the non-living factors in the environment which

affects the ecosystem.
___2. It is consist of living things interacting in an ecosystem.
___3. This includes the organisms that are classified as autotrophs and
heterotrophs.
___4. Some examples of this component are water, light
and wind.
___5. It plays an important role in the survival and reproduction of
organisms in the environment.
63
Classification Test
Directions: Classify things found below either biotic or abiotic
components of an ecosystem. Write your answer on the
appropriate column.
stone plants water cats

flies bees soil air
ants sunlight algae dried leaves
(teacher may vary the given components of an ecosystem as needed)
Components of an Ecosystem
Biotic Abiotic
64
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: II
Competency: Describe the different ecological relationships found in
an ecosystem. (S7LT-IIh-10)
MATCHING TYPE
Directions: Match the examples found in column A with the
corresponding ecological relationships found in column B.
Write your answers on the space provided.
Photo Credits:
www.google.com/images/ecological/relationship
65
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it’s not.
________1. Parasitism is a relationship whereby one is benefited while

the other is harmed.
________2. In a prey and predator relationship, both organisms are

benefited.
________3. Mutualism can be illustrated in an area where organisms

compete for food and space.
________4. Tapeworm inside the human’s body is an example of a

relationship called Competition.
________5. One example of commensalism is an orchid attached to

the tree trunk.
66
Relational Diagram
Directions: Below are words/phrases about interactions in the
ecosystem. Organize the terms in the table to show how
the terms are related with each other.
Lice and human Mutualism Orchid and tree

Commensalism Ecological relationships
Bees and flowering plants Parasitism
+,+ Relationship +,0 Relationship +,- Relationship

(both are benefited) (one is benefited (one is benefited, the
d, other is neither other is harmed)
harmed or benefited)
67
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: II
Competency: Predict the effect of changes in one population on other
populations in the ecosystem. (S7LT-IIi-11)
Fill In The Blank

Directions: Use the words in the box to complete the statements below.
Intraspecific competition interspecific competition

predation Mutualism commensalism
parasitism
1. When a group of the same species live together in a particular

place, they manifest an interaction commonly referred as
______________.
2. The ecological interaction wherein animals kill another to meet

energy and nutrient requirements is called_______________.
3. When two populations use the same resources, they participate in

an ecological relationship called __________________.
4. An interaction in the ecosystem where two groups of species

support each other to survive is referred as ______________.
5. One ecological interaction where one group of species harm its

host’s body is commonly known as_____________.
68
Diagram Completion
Directions: Create a food chain out of the organisms listed below.
Essay
Directions: Given the following scenarios, predict some possible effects
to the population of organisms. (5 points each)
1. Insects like butterfly undergo metamorphosis. As its larvae

transforms into caterpillar, they feed on leaves of the plants.
Suppose plants will be damaged and eventually die, will it affect
the butterfly’s population? How?
2. Flies are usually eaten by frogs while frogs are eaten by the snakes.
If the population of the snakes will decrease in number, which
population of organism will be directly affected? How?
3. Mice can be eaten by the snakes. If the population of snakes

suddenly increased, what do you expect to happen on the
population of mice?
4. Due to the existing government laws that protect the welfare of

animals, many people stopped from hunting and eating
endangered animals. How did this law affect the population of
endangered animals particularly of whale sharks in our locality?
69
5. Mosquitoes can be found everywhere. It can even cause serious
diseases to human. Among the organisms in the ecosystem, which
do you think could help lessen the population of mosquitoes?
How?
70
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: II
Competency: Predict the effect of changes in abiotic factors in the
ecosystem. (S7LT-IIj-12)
Data Completion
Directions: Using the terms mentioned below, identify the abiotic change
and the effects they cause to the ecosystem. Link the abiotic
change (box A) to its possible effect (box B).
drought landscaping
loss of habitat polluted water
loss of native fish rip rap construction
dam construction floods
wildlife extinction soil erosion
Short Answer Test

Directions: Read each item below and supply what is asked. Write your
answer on the space provided.
71
1. Describe what happens when heavy rains occur before the
harvest season?
_______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________.
2. What happens to organisms in the grassland when the

temperature is high?
_______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________.
3. What usually happens to places with snow caps/glaciers if global

warming intensifies?
_______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________.
4. What are some possible harmful effects of mining activities to the

environment?
_______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________.
5. What are some possible effects of polluted water to the aquatic

organisms?
_______________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________.
Fill In The Blank

Directions: Supply the missing words to complete the sentences in the
paragraph. Choose your answer from the box below.
72
pollutants abiotic factors organisms
polluted acidic
Temperature, soil and light, are ______1______that can influence

the survival of organisms in an area. Thus, a change in the abiotic
components could also affect the conditions of _____2______ in an
ecosystem. Some human activities like mining oil, gas and coal could
alter the abiotic factors by exposing the groundwater to ______3______.
It causes water draining from mines to be extremely _____4____ and carry
heavy metals. As a result, the water released to the land surface
becomes _______5_____.
73
Subject Area: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Describe the motion of an object in terms of distance or
displacement, speed or velocity, and acceleration
(S7FE-IIIa-1)
Table Completion
Directions: The table below shows the quantities with their
corresponding definition and standard units used. Complete
the table with the appropriate information.
Quantity Definition Unit

Speed m/s
Velocity Speed plus direction
Distance Measures the length of the path travelled
by the object.
Displacement 50 m, NE
Acceleration Change in velocity over a time interval
74
Short Answer Test
Directions: Refer to the diagram below and answer the questions that
follow:
5 km
🚌
Start
5 km
5 km 🚩
Finish
1. What is the total distance travelled by the bus?
2. If it takes 1 hr. to travel from start to finish, how fast does the bus move?
3. How long does it take to cover a distance of 15 kilometers?
Problem Solving
Directions: Answer the following questions correctly.
1. How fast does a car travel if it covers a total distance of 120 km in 3hrs?
2. Calculate the speed of an object travelling a distance of 900 m in 60

second.
3. What is the speed of a jeepney moving along a 10 km highway in 15

minutes? Express the final answer in km/hr.
75
Identification
Directions: Tell whether the statement describes an object as

accelerating or not accelerating. Write your answer on the
space before the statement.
__________ 1. A ball rolling down along the ramp.
__________ 2. An automobile crossing a curve bridge.
__________ 3. A stone on top of the mountain.
__________ 4. Sports car moving at 80 km/hr on a straight road.
__________ 5. Debris falling from a high construction site.
76
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Differentiate quantities in terms of magnitude and
direction (S7FE-IIIa-2)
Matching Type
Directions: Match the QUANTITIES with their corresponding EXAMPLES.
Write the letter of your answer.
QUANTITIES EXAMPLES
1. distance a. 10 hours
2. displacement b. 100 meters
3. speed c. 100 meter/second
4. time d. 50 kilometers, Northeast
5. velocity E. 50 kilometer/hour, Northeast
F. 150 kilometer/hour2, downward
77
Completion Type
Directions: Identify the quantities appropriate to the given situation.

Choose your answer from the box below.
Velocity Speed Displacement Distance Time
1. A typhoon is about to fall to a certain province in the Philippines. A

father thinking about the safety of his family would like to know the
__________________ of the typhoon.
2. A miner aims to search for a treasure. He needed a map that would

tell him of the __________________ of the treasure from his camp.
3. A runner would like to test his limit. He practices every day in order to
achieve his desired _______________.
4. A contest is held to search for the fastest student in the class. The one
who arrives at the finish line at the shortest _______________ is declared
the winner.
5. Who would think that a disabled person can withstand the challenge
of the marathon race? He finished the long ________________ track
without the aid of another person.
78
Multiple Choice
1. What quantity tells us how fast an object is moving?

A. speed
B. velocity
C. distance
D. displacement
2. Which quantity gives us the actual length of the path taken by a

moving object?
A. distance
B. direction
C. dislocation
D. displacement
3. How does knowing the displacement of an object help in looking

for our destination?
A. it tells how far an object is
B. it gives the direction of the object
C. it gives the degree of the path to be taken
D. it tells the direction and the length of the path to be taken
4. Which of the quantities below shows the velocity of the object?

A. 40 km
B. 400 km/hr
C. 1000 m, NE
D. 600 m/s, downwards
79
5. Which of the quantities below shows the distance covered by a
moving object?
A. car covering 100 km
B. dog walking on a curve road
C. bus travelling at a rate of 40 km/hr
D. treasure found at 50 km, ne of Mt. Apo
80
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Create and interpret visual representation of the motion
of objects such as tape charts and motion graphs
(S7FE-IIIb-3)
Short Answer
Test A
Directions: Analyze the data on the motion of a moving object shown
on the table below. Answer the questions that follow.
Table: Time vs Distance
Time (sec) Distance Covered (m)

0 0
1 100
2 200
3 200
4 100
5 0
1. Plot the values in the table above as distance vs time graph.

Distance (m)
Time (sec)
2. What is the distance covered by the object at 2 seconds?

3. What is the total distance covered by the object at 5 seconds?
4. At the time interval 2 – 3 sec, what is the motion of the object?
5. What is the speed of the object at 0 to 2 sec?
81
Test B
Directions: Help the child find the way to her home. Trace the path she
needs to take from the given directions below and answer
the questions that follow.
1. 10 m, N
2. 20 m, E
3. 10 m, S
Questions:
1. What is the total distance traveled by the child?
2. What is the total displacement?
3. If it takes 20 mins for the child to reach home, how fast is the child
moving?
82
Test C
Directions: Refer to the graph below. Write your answer on the
questions that follow.
Graph of distance vs. time

50
Distance (m)
40
30
20
10
0
1 min 2 min 3 min 4 min
Car 1 car 2
1. What does the shape of the graph show about the motion of the
car?
2. Which car moves faster?
3. What time do the cars have the same speed?
4. What is the farthest distance travelled by car 1?
5. What is the farthest distance travelled by car 2?
83
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Infer that waves carry energy (S7FE-IIIc-4)
Multiple Choice
1. What do you call a disturbance that moves away from a source

and carries energy with it?
A. motion
B. period
C. vibration
D. wave
2. What evidence shows that wave carries energy?

A. wave can set things in motion
B. wave have its crest and trough
C. wave have vibrating pattern in its motion
D. wave is formed due to disturbing particles
3. How can mechanical waves be generated?

A. by creating disturbance in a body of water
B. by moving a piece of spring back and forth
C. by setting a rope in motion through up and down movement
D. all of the above
84
4. Which of the following situations shows that waves carry energy?
A. a lightning can strike anytime of the day
B. a loud thunder can be heard even from afar
C. two waves can combine to form greater wavelength
D. a big ship sailing in a stormy night rocks violently in the waters
5. Which statement describes what happen as wave passes by?

A. objects transfer with the wave as it travel
B. particles of the medium vibrate and move together with the
wave
C. particles of the medium vibrate transferring energy as wave
passes
D. objects on which wave passes absorbs energy and allow the
particles to transfer
Identification
Directions: Tell which situation shows that waves carry energy. Write YES
if it shows it carries energy, NO if it does not.
1. a rocking ship during a stormy night
2. the shaking of a building during an earthquake
3. damage brought by tsunami on the seashore
4. rock on top of the mountain
5. a vehicle park at the side of the road
85
True or False
Directions: Write True if the statement is correct and False if it is not.
1. A wave is created by a disturbance and carries energy with it.
2. Particles of the medium are transported together with the energy

carried by the wave.
3. A wave can be created even without an energy source.
4. Waves can cause objects in motion due to the energy it transfer.
5. The energy carried by the wave depends on the source of the

disturbance.
86
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Differentiate transverse from longitudinal waves, and
mechanical from electromagnetic waves (S7FE-IIIc-5)
Fill In The Blank

Directions: Complete the sentences below by supplying the correct
word/phrase in each blank.
1. When a piece of coil spring is moved back and forth, you

produced _____________ wave.
2. In a transverse wave, the particles of the medium move

______________ to the direction in which the wave travels.
3. A piece of rope that is move alternately up and down creates a

sinusoidal pattern of wave called ____________ wave.
4. In a longitudinal wave, the particles of the medium move

______________ to the direction in which the wave travels.
5. Sound wave is created by the disturbance of the particles of the

air which vibrates in the same direction in which the wave travels,
thus it is called a ______________ wave.
87
Identification
Test A
Directions: Identify if the example is a transverse or longitudinal wave
1. siren sound
2. bouncing coil spring
3. thunder
4. rope move up and down
5. wave in a string
Identification
Test B
Directions: Tell whether the statement describes a mechanical or
electromagnetic wave.
1. it needs a medium for wave propagation
2. it can travel in a vacuum
3. has varying speed with different types of medium
4. has a constant speed of 3 x 108 m/s
5. can propagate even without a medium
88
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Relate the characteristics of waves (S7FE-IIId-6)
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following characteristics of wave determines the

amount of energy it carries?
A. amplitude
B. frequency
C. wavelength
D. wave speed
2. Which of the following shows the effect of increasing the

frequency of the wave?
A. increase in the amplitude
B. increase in the wavelength
C. decrease on the speed
D. decrease in the wavelength
3. Through the same medium, what happens to the speed of the

wave as frequency increases?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. cannot be determined
89
4. What characteristic of wave is constant for all types of
electromagnetic wave?
A. amplitude
B. frequency
C. wavelength
D. wave speed
5. How does the wavelength affect the frequency of the wave?

A. as wavelength increases, frequency rises
B. as wavelength increases, frequency increases
C. as wavelength decreases, frequency increases
D. as wavelength decreases, frequency decreases
Problem Solving
Directions: Read the problems carefully. Show complete solution of

your answer. (5 points per item)
1. Waves 5 meter in length pass to a rock at 1.0 sec apart. What is its
wave speed?
2. A wave travelling at a speed of 6 m/s has a frequency of 2 Hz.
What is its wavelength?
3. How fast is a wave if it has a wavelength of 1.5meters and has a
frequency of 3 Hz?
4. What is the frequency of a wave with a speed of 3m/s and a
wavelength of 0.5meter?
5. A wave 1 meter in length travels at a frequency of 2 Hz. What is its
wave speed?
90
Short Answer Test
Directions: Refer to the wave diagram below and answer the questions
that follow.
Figure 1 Figure 2
1. Which figure shows wave with greater frequency?
2. Which wave figure has lesser wavelength?
3. Which of the figure possesses greater energy?
4. What is the frequency of the wave in Figure 1?
5. What is the frequency of the wave in Figure 2?
91
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Describe the characteristics of sound using the concepts
of wavelength, velocity, and amplitude (S7FE-IIId-7)
Matching type
Directions: Match the DEFINITIONS with the POPERTIES/
CHARACTERISTICS OF SOUND WAVE. Write the letter before
the number.
DEFINITIONS PROPERTIES/CHARACTERISTICS
OF SOUND WAVE
___1. it is the amount of energy a A. amplitude
sound wave carries
B. frequency
___2. the highness or lowness of
sound C. intensity
___3. it is how soft or intense a sound D. loudness
is as perceive by the brain

E. pitch
___4. it affects the highness or

F. quality
lowness of sound
___5. a distinct characteristic of

sound that varies with its source
92
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following produces the highest frequency of sound?

A. drum
B. falling debris
C. fire alarm
D. thunder
2. Which object possesses the greatest tendency to create a loud

sound?
A. birds
B. cellphone
C. jet plane
D. vehicle
3. Pitch is the highness or lowness of sound. Which of the following

characteristics of affect the pitch of sound wave?
A. amplitude
B. frequency
C. quality
D. wavelength
4. Which of the following statements is true about the loudness of

sound?
A. loud sound carries more energy
B. loudness may vary to some people
C. high intensity sound is usually loud sound
D. all of the above
93
5. Which of the following factors affect the pitch of the sound
produced by a guitar?
A. the number of vibrations created by its string
B. the thickness and tightness of its string
C. the person plucking the strings
D. the material of the guitar
Completion Test
word/phrase in the blank.
1. Sound waves travel fastest in solid and slowest in _______________.
2. Sound waves cannot travel in a vacuum because sound is a/an

______________ wave.
3. The velocity of sound in air increases as the temperature of air

__________________.
4. When sound travels in solid than in liquid, it is heard

__________________.
5. The speed of sound in hot air is faster than in ___________________.
94
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Explain sound production in the human voice box, and
how pitch, loudness, and quality of sound vary from one
person to another (S7FE-IIIe-8)
Multiple Choice
1. Which statement is true about how loudness of sound varies with

the person?
A. A very loud sound may destroy our eardrums.
B. Loud and soft sounds depend upon the source of sound.
C. A rock music may be pleasant to a teenager but unpleasant
to an old lady.
D. A loud sound is created by a large energy carried by the
sound wave.
2. How can we identify the voice of our mother even without seeing
her?
A. Mother always talks that makes us remember their voice.
B. The voice of our mother has a high pitch that makes it easy to
recognize.
C. Our mother creates a very loud sound that enables us to easily
identify her voice.
D. The voice of our mother has its distinct characteristic that
distinguishes her voice from others.
95
3. Different instruments are played at the same note. What enables
you to distinguish a piano from a flute?
A. The piano has higher pitch than a flute.
B. The flute has softer sound than the piano.
C. The flute has more intensity than the piano.
D. The piano and flute have different quality of sound.
4. Which of the following person do you think possesses a high pitch

voice?
A. a girl in a church choir
B. a boy singer on a band
C. a man singing at the stage
D. a teenage boy singing at the school program
5. Why do males generally have lower pitch than females?

A. Males have bigger throat than females.
B. Males have thicker vocal cords than females.
C. Males have greater sound intensity than females.
D. Males have generally bigger bodies than females.
96
Fill In The Blank
word/phrase in the blank.
1. A deeper tone of the male voice is due to the _________________

vocal cords of the voice box.
2. The females have generally higher pitch voice due to their

___________ vocal cords.
3. The sound produced by a guitar is dependent on its strings

tightness and ________________.
4. The more force is applied to produce sound from vibrating

objects the ____________ is the sound.
5. The loudness of the sound produced by musical instrument

depends upon the _____________ applied to create the vibration.
Identification
Directions: Put a check (/) mark on the instrument/object that produces
high pitch sound, cross (x) mark if it produces low pitch
sound.
________1. trumpet
________2. base guitar
________3. cymbals
________4. bass drum
________5. gong
97
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Describe how organisms produce, transmit, and receive
sound of various frequencies (infrasonic, audible, and
ultrasonic sound) (S7FE-IIIe-9)
Multiple Choice
1. What type of sound waves do whale produced to communicate

with each other deep in the ocean?
A. audible sound
B. infrasonic sound
C. ultrasonic sound
D. unpleasant sound
2. Human beings have a limit on the frequency of sound that the

ear can detect. What do you call the sound that is too low for the
ears to detect?
A. audible sound
B. infrasonic sound
C. ultrasonic sound
D. unpleasant sound
98
3. How does echolocation help bats in finding food even at night?
A. It enables the bats to know about the objects in its path by
use of echo.
B. The sound waves cause the bats to know the location of their
food.
C. Bats are nocturnal animal that only hunts at night.
D. both A & B
4. Why is it important for humans to protect the ears against very

intense or loud sound?
A. The human ears have certain limit that can withstand only
certain intensity of sound.
B. Loud sound can create permanent damage to the nerves in
the ear.
C. The loud sound may cause some brain damage.
D. all of the above
5. In the transmission of sound in air, why is it that during cold days,

sound is not easily transmitted compared during hot days?
A. The vibration of the particles in hot air is faster than in cold air.
B. There is lesser energy transfer in cold air than in hot air.
C. both A & B
D. only B
99
True or False.
Directions: Write True if the statement is true and False if the statement is
false.
1. There are certain animals that can detect very high frequencies
of sound.
2. During earthquake, infrasonic sounds are release that humans

cannot hear but felt in the form of vibration.
3. Ultrasonic sound is dangerous in the body because it may cause

disruption in cell function.
4. Sonar devices help scientist learn more about the deep

underwater by providing essential information of the ocean.
5. Animals with the ability to communicate using infrasonic and

ultrasonic sound are more sensitive to some environmental
changes.
Identification
Directions: Tell whether the following objects create infrasonic,
ultrasonic, or audible sound.
1. rodent and insect exterminator

2. sonar device
3. human voice
4. alarm clock
5. earthquake
100
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Relate characteristics of light such as color and intensity
to frequency and wavelength (S7FE-IIIf-10)
Short Answer Test

Directions: Refer to the table below and answer the questions that
follow. Write your answer on the space provided.
Wavelength λ Frequency, f
Color
nm (109 m) THz(1012 Hz)
red 780 - 622 384 - 482
orange 622 - 597 482 - 503
yellow 597 - 577 503 - 520
green 577 - 492 520 - 610
blue 492 - 455 610 - 659
violet 455 - 390 659 - 769
________1. Which color has the highest frequency?
________2. Which color has the lowest frequency?
________3. Which color registers the longest wavelength?
________4. Which color registers the shortest wavelength?
________5. What pattern do you notice on the frequency and

wavelength of the different colors?
101
Table Completion
Directions: Using the Spectrum Wheel, complete the table below:
Color Spectrum Frequency Wavelength Speed

(x 1012 /s) (x 10-9 m) (x 103 m/s)
Red 422
Orange 620 300, 080
Yellow 517
Green 530 299, 980
Blue 638
Violet 400
Completion Test
word/phrase in the blanks.
1. As the frequency of the colors of light increases, the wavelength

________________.
2. As the wavelength of the colors of light decreases, the frequency

________________.
3. The product of the frequency and wavelength of the colors of

light has a ____________ value.
4. As the frequency of the colors of light increases, its energy

______________.
5. The speed of the individual colors of light is equal to the

_____________ of light.
102
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Infer that light travels in a straight line (S7FE-IIIg-11)
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following is a luminous object?

A. headlight
B. mirror
C. planet
D. rock
2. A ray of light travels from the source to the object. What is the
direction of its path?
A. curve
B. parallel
C. opposite
D. straight
3. Which of the following statement is true about light as it travels?

A. Light travels at a decreasing speed in a straight line.
B. Light travels at an increasing speed in a straight line.
C. Light travels at a constant speed in a straight line.
D. Light travels at a constant speed in curve line.
103
4. Which situation/s show/s the path of light as it travels?
I. Shadows formed as light hits an opaque object
II. Mirrors showing image as a result of the reflection of light
III. The light rays from a laser pen
IV. The blocking of the sunlight by the clouds
A. I only
B. II & III only
C. I, II & III only
D. I, II, III, and IV
5. Which of the following proves that light travels in a straight line?

A. eclipses
B. shadows
C. mirror images
D. all of the above
True or False
Directions: Write True if the situation shows that light travels in a straight
line, False if it does not. Write your answer on the space
provided.
________1. eclipse of the sun

________2. rising of tides in the seawater
________3. looking at shadows formed by high mountains
________4. clouds covering the sky causing darkness in the
surrounding
________5. thunderstorms happening during bad weather
104
Short Answer Test
Directions: Refer to the figure below. Answer the questions that follow.
Object
Photo Credit By: CABihag, IReyes, RTipolo 2017 Photo Credit By: CABihag, IReyes, RTipolo 2017
Light Source
Figure 1 Figure 2
1. Describe what you see in Figures 1 & 2.
2. What is the light source in Figure 1? Figure 2?
3. Trace a line from the light source to the light rays in Figure 2. What
can you say about the path of light from its source?
4. Trace a certain point from the object to the shadow formed in

Figure 1. What can you say about the path of light?
5. What can you infer of the behavior of light as it travels?
105
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Infer the conditions necessary for heat transfer to occur
(S7FE-IIIh-i-12)
Matching Type
Directions: Match the DEFINITIONS with its TEERMS. Write the letter of
your answer before the number.
DEFINITIONS TERMS
___1. It is the measure of the hotness and A. conduction
coldness
B. convection
___2. An instrument use to measure the
C. heat
hotness and coldness of an object
D. radiation
___3. Heat transfer in fluid in which warm
parts move up and the colder parts E. temperature
move down
F. thermometer
___4. Heat transfer between objects in
contact with each other
___5. Heat transfer of energy from the sun

across empty space
106
Identification
Directions: Identify whether the heat transfer shown in each situation
below is Conduction, Convection or Radiation. Write your
answer on the space provided.
________1. drying laundry clothes under sunlight
________2. enjoying the morning sea breeze
________3. cooking a grilled fish
________4. ironing clothes
________5. using air conditioning units to cool down a room
Multiple Choice
1. What method of heat transfer is involved when you cook your

food using a cooking pan?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. induction
D. radiation
107
2. Which statement correctly describes how heat energy is
transferred?
A. Energy is transferred from an object of low temperature to an
object of high temperature.
B. Energy is transferred from an object of high temperature to an
object of low temperature.
C. Energy is transferred either ways from hot to cold or cold to
hot.
D. Energy is transferred from a colder object to a hotter object.
3. What do you call the ability of objects to conduct heat?

A. absorption
B. conductivity
C. malleability
D. reflection
4. Why do different materials conduct heat differently?

A. materials have different conductivity
B. materials have different characteristics
C. materials have different atoms
D. materials have different mass
5. Why does convection happen in fluids?

A. The particles in fluid help in absorbing energy from
environment.
B. The particles in fluid can easily flow that enables it to transfer
energy.
C. Fluid has no definite shape but has a volume.
D. Fluid can make a material float in it.
108
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Describe the different types of charging processes
(S7FE-IIIj-13)
Completion Test
Directions: Study and complete the sentences below by supplying the
correct word/phrase in the blank.
1. A material that gains electron is said to be _____________

charged.
2. A material that loses electron is said to be _____________ charged.
3. When two like charges are brought together they will

______________.
4. When unlike charges are brought together they will

_______________.
5. The law of conservation of charge says that total charge in a

system remains __________.
109
Multiple Choice
1. It is a charging process where an object can be charged without
actual contact to a charged object.
A. conduction
B. friction
C. grounding
D. induction
2. What do you call the discharging process by means of providing a

path between a charged object and the earth?
A. grounding
B. induction
C. lightning
D. polarizing
3. While combing your hair, it becomes attracted to the comb. What

charging process is involved?
E. conduction
F. friction
G. induction
H. polarization
4. The charging process that is between the direct contact of a

charged object to a neutral object.
A. conduction
B. friction
C. induction
D. polarization
110
5. Touching a door knob in a carpeted cold room gives you a
tingling sensation. What type of charging is involved?
A. conduction
B. friction
C. induction
D. polarization
Matching Type
Directions: Match the DEFINITIONS with the corresponding TERMS. Write
the letter of your answer on the space provided.
DEFINITIONS TERMS
___1. like charges repel, unlike charges A. electric force
attract
B. electrostatic law
___2. the force which acts on charges
C. insulator
___3. an object that has balance negative
and positive charges D. conductor
___4. materials that block the flow of E. neutral object

charges in it
F. charged object
___5. Material that permits charges to flow
freely
111
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: III
Competency: Explain the importance of earthing or grounding
(S7FE-IIIj-14)
Identification
Directions: Tell whether the material is conductor or insulator.
1. human body
2. ground
3. wood
4. rubber
5. steel
Fill In The Blank

Directions: Study the paragraph below and supply the missing word.
Refer to the choices inside the box.
neutralize prevent
grounding electrons
charging earth
Electrical devices and equipment carry excess charges. In order

to _______1.________ the build-up of these charges where it is not
needed, the process of ______2._________ is necessary. This is done by
providing a path from the charge object and the _________3._________.
The ground serves as the unlimited source of electron that is capable of
removing or transferring ______4._________ from or to a charge object in
order to ______5._________ it.
112
Essay Type.
Directions: Read and answer the questions that fallows. (3 points per
item)
1. Why is grounding necessary in electrical device?
2. Why is the earth capable of neutralizing a charge object?
3. How can grounding be done?
4. Will grounding make electrical devices safer?
5. What will happen if electrical devices will not be grounded?
113
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Demonstrate how places on Earth may be located
using a coordinate system (S7ES-IVa-1)
Matching Type
Directions: Match the DESCRIPTIONS with the PARTS of the globe by
writing the letter on the space provided before the number.
DESCRIPTIONS PARTS
____ 1. imaginary vertical lines in the globe A. Equator
____ 2. imaginary horizontal lines in the globe B. Latitude
____ 3. part of the globe between the North C. Longitude
Pole and equator

D. North Pole
____ 4. part of the globe between the South

E. Northern Hemisphere
Pole and equator
F. Prime Meridian
____ 5. starting point of longitude and it
divides the globe vertically
G. Southern Hemisphere
____ 6. starting point of latitude and it divides
the globe horizontally
114
Picture Analysis
Directions: Using the picture below, supply the answer to the given
questions on the space provided.
Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation.

All rights reserved.
I. What number represents the following:

_______________ 1. Tropic of Cancer
_______________ 2. Tropic of Capricorn
_______________ 3. Antarctic Circle
_______________ 4. Arctic Circle
II. What part of the globe is represented by the following

numbers:
_______________ 1. 7
_______________ 2. 2
_______________ 3. 5
_______________ 4. 4
115
Identification
Directions: Using the globe or map, identify the nearest city in the world
using the given coordinates. Write your answer on its
appropriate column.
COORDINATES (LATITUDE AND NEAREST CITY

LONGITUDE)
1. 41°N, 74°W
2. 56°N, 38°E
3. 12°S, 77°W
4. 36°N, 140°E
5. 39°S, 146°E
Multiple Choice
1. Which city in the Philippines is 100 18’ N and 1230 54’ E located?
A. Cebu
B. Davao
C. Manila
D. Tagaytay
A. Baguio
B. Davao
C. Manila
D. Zamboanga
116
A. Bataan
B. Cebu
C. Pampanga
D. Tacloban
4. In which body of water is 150 S, 750 E located?

A. Arctic
B. Atlantic
C. Indian
D. Pacific
5. In which body of water is 300 N, 450 W Located?

A. Arctic
B. Atlantic
C. Indian
D. Pacific
117
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Describe the location of the Philippines with respect to
the continents and oceans of the world
(S7ES-IVa-2)
Table Completion
Directions: Using the picture, list at least 3 landmasses and 3 bodies of
water surrounding the Philippines. Use the table provided
below.
Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved/map of the world/
LAND MASSES BODIES OF WATER

1. 1
2. 2.
3. 3.
118
Multiple Choice
1. In which continent is the Philippines located?

A. Africa
B. Asia
C. Australia
D. Europe
2. What landmass is located at the northern part of the Philippines?

A. Asian Continent
B. Malay Peninsula
C. Australian Continent
D. Indonesian Archipelago
3. In which surrounding part of the Philippines does the Indonesian

Archipelago located?
A. East
B. North East
C. South West
D. West
4. Which landmass is at the Southern part of the Philippines?

A. Isthmus of Kra
B. Malay Peninsula
C. Australian Continent
D. Indonesian archipelago
119
5. Where is Isthmus of Kra located with respect to the location of the
Philippines?
A. East
B. North East
C. South East
D. West
Cloze Test
Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct term that would complete
the thought of the paragraph.
The Philippines as a country is considered as a/an

______(1)________ because it is surrounded by water. The Philippines
together with Korea, China, Japan, Vietnam, Thailand and other
neighboring countries belong to ______(2)________ continent – the largest
continent in the world. This country is located in the Western part of the
______(3)________ with in the Malay Peninsula, an island grouping that
extends southward to include Indonesia and Malaysia. The Philippines
comprises more than ______(4)________ islands, but the 11 largest islands
form most of the country’s land area. The different bodies of water that
surrounds this country includes the Philippine Sea, South ______(5)________
and Indian Ocean.
120
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Recognize that soil, water, rocks, coal, and other fossil
fuels are Earth materials that people use as resources
(S7ES-IVb-3)
 Recognize water resources in the Philippines and
Biodiversity
Identification
Directions: Identify the specific water resources the following pictures
show.
http://ourss14blog.blogspots/2011/10/article-xii-national- http://interestingfactsaboutthephilippines.blogspot.com/2012/10/ http://wanderingcha.files.wordpress.com

economy-and.html about-philippines-natural-resources.html
1. 2. 3.
http://traveltips.usatoday.com/list-natural-resources- http://traveltips.usatoday.com/list-natural-resources-
philippines-54929.html philippines-54929.html
4. 5.
121
Cloze Test
Directions: Using the word/s inside the word pool, fill in the blanks with the
correct term that would complete the thought of the
paragraph.
Angat Dam La Mesa Dam South China Sea
Indian Sea rivers watershed
The Philippines boasts of different kinds of natural water forms such

as bays, ______(1)________, lakes, falls, gulfs, straits, and swamps. The two
big bodies of water on the west and east side of the country: the Pacific
Ocean in the east and ______(2)________ in the West. People need fresh
water for many purposes; for irrigation and generate electricity. A
______(3)________ is an area of land on a slope which drains its water into
a stream and its tributaries. There are many watersheds in the Philippines
because of abundant rainfall. Examples are ______(4)________ in Metro
Manila and, Pantabangan Dam in Pampanga, and ______(5)________ in
Bulacan. The main function of a watershed is the production of a
continuous water supply that would maintain the life forms within it and
in the area fed by its stream.
122
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
(S7ES-IVb-3)
 Identify the different factors affecting soil
Formation
Identification
Directions: Study carefully the process of soil formation and identify at
least five (5) factors that affect soil formation.
CO2 O2
http://image.slidesharecdn.com/grade8scienceteachersguide.co
m
FACTORS AFFECTING SOIL FORMATION
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
123
Cloze Test
Directions: Using the word/s inside the word pool, fill in the blanks with the
correct term that would complete the thought of the
paragraph.
acidic rainwater ground vegetation
climate nutrients water
______(1)_________ (temperature and rainfall) is a significant factor

not only in soil formation but also in sustaining diversity of plants and
animals in the country. On the other hand, ______(2)________ also directly
affects the movement of soluble soil nutrients from the top soil to deep
under the ground (leaching). These ______(3)________ may no longer be
available to shallow rooted plants. ________(4)_______ may also
contribute to the loss of minerals in soil resulting in low yield. So rainfall
determines the kind of _______(5)________ in an area.
124
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
(S7ES-IVb-3)
 Identify the rocks and mineral resources present in
the Philippines
Identification
Directions: Using the picture about metallic mineral deposits in the
Philippines, identify at least five different metallic minerals
and the region/province they are located.
http://image.slidesharecdn.com/grade8scienceteachersguide.com
Metallic minerals Region/Province
125
Short Answer
Directions: Study the picture about the distribution of trenches and
volcanoes in the Philippines and answer the questions that
follow.
http://image.slidesharecdn.com/grade8scienceteachersguide.com http://image.slidesharecdn.com/grade8scienceteachersguide.com
1. What geologic structures are found in the different metallic

deposits in the Philippines?
2. Write a statement to connect the presence of metallic deposits

with trenches and faults.
3. Write a statement to connect the presence of metallic deposits

with volcanic areas.
4-5. Explain briefly the reasons why metallic deposits are abundant
in places where there are trenches or volcanoes.
126
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
(S7ES-IVb-3)
 Determine the different energy resources in the
Philippines.
Matching Type
Direction: Match the DESCRIPTIONS with the ENERGY RESOURCES by

writing the letter of your answer on the space provided before
the number.
DESCRIPTIONS ENERGY RESOURCES
____ 1. uses water to generate electricity A. Fossil Fuels
____ 2. uses strong winds that produces B. Geothermal
Electricity
C. Hydrothermal
____ 3. formed from plants and animals that

D. Nuclear Plant
lived on earth million years ago
E. Solar Energy
____ 4. type of energy resources uses the
heat from the earth’s crust.
F. Wind Mills
____ 5. an energy resources comes from the

heat and energy of the sun
127
Identification
Directions: Examine the pictures shown below. Tell the specific energy
resource that each represent. Write your answer inside the
box.
Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft
Corporation. All rights reserved, Corporation. All rights reserved. Corporation. All rights reserved.
1. 2. 3.
http://upload.wikimedia.org/commons/7/74 http://media.-cdn.tripadvisor.com
/windmills/ilocosnorte.jpg
4. 5.
128
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Describe ways of using Earth's resources sustainably
(S7ES-IVc-4)
True or False
Direction: Write TRUE if the statement is showing the correct way of
using Earth’s resources sustainably and FALSE if not.
_________ 1. Offsetting the use of renewable resources.
_________ 2. Limiting waste material and energy at production.
_________ 3. Using the least amount of non-renewable resources.
_________ 4. Too much mining and quarrying for the purpose of getting
precious metals, stones and gravel.
_________ 5. More factories are built to keep up with the demands of the
fast growing population and industries.
129
Identification
Directions: Using the pictures below, tell the human activities that are
detrimental to natural resources preservation. Write your
answer on the box provided.
Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft http://sanitationupdates.wordpress.com/2014/11
Corporation. All rights reserved/illegal-logging/ Corporation. All rights reserved/mining/
1. 2. 3.
http://www.philstar.com/health-and- http://www.greenpeace.org/seaasia/news/we-have-the-
family/2016/09/07/1621377/ right-to-know/
4. 5.
130
Enumeration
Direction: As a student, enumerate at least five ways that you can do
to help in using earth’s resources sustainably.
Ways on how to help in using earth’s resources sustainably

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
131
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Discuss how energy from the Sun interacts with the
layers of the atmosphere (S7ES-IVd-5)
 Describe the characteristics of each layer of the
atmosphere
Multiple Choice
1. In which layer do virtually all weather phenomena take place?

A. Exosphere
B. Mesosphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Troposphere
2. What layer of the atmosphere merges to the outer space?

A. Exosphere
B. Mesosphere
C. Thermosphere
D. Troposphere
3. In what layer of the atmosphere aurora borealis can be found?

A. Mesosphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Thermosphere
D. Troposphere
132
4. What layer of the atmosphere protects us by burning up most meteors?
A. Mesosphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Thermosphere
D. Troposphere
5. In which layer of the atmosphere can we find the ozone layer?

A. Exosphere
B. Mesosphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Troposphere
Matching Type
Directions: Match the DESCRIPTIONS with the LAYERS of the atmosphere
by writing the letter on the space provided before the number.
DESCRIPTIONS LAYERS
____ 1. where the weather takes place A. Exosphere
____ 2. the layer where meteors burn up B. Ionosphere
____ 3. where the ozone layer is located C. Mesosphere
____ 4. layer of the atmosphere where D. Stratosphere

aurora is found
E. Thermosphere
____ 5. the layer of atmosphere that
merges the outer space F. Troposphere
133
Cloze Test
The five layers of the atmosphere consists of troposphere,

stratosphere, mesosphere, ______(1)________ and exosphere. The
troposphere is the layer ______(2)________to the earth’s surface where
weather takes place. The stratosphere is the layer of air that extends to
about 50 km from earth’s surface. Many jet aircraft fly in the stratosphere
because it is very ______(3)________. The layer between 50 and 80 km
above earth’s surface is the mesosphere. Air in this layer is very
______(1)_________ and cold. This is the layer where meteors or rock
fragments burn up. The thermosphere is between 80 km and 110 km
above the earth. Space shuttle fly in this area and it is also where the
______(5)________ are found. The upper limit of the atmosphere is the
exosphere. This layer of the atmosphere merges into space and has an
altitude of 500 km to 1000 km from earth.
134
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
 Compare the features of the five layers of the
atmosphere in terms of altitude and temperature.
Multiple Choice
Direction: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
1. Which layer of the atmosphere does the temperature decreases
as height increases?
A. Exosphere
B. Mesosphere
C. Stratosphere
D. Thermosphere
2. What is the estimated height of the thermosphere?

A. 20 to 50 km
B. 40 to 65 km
C. 60 to 85 km
D. 87 to 100 km
3. What is the relationship between temperature and height in the

exosphere?
A. It stays the same
B. Temperature and altitude are almost the same
C. Temperature increases as the altitude increases.
D. Temperature decreases as the altitude increases.
135
4. What is the relationship between temperature and height in the
troposphere?
A. It stays the same
B. Temperature and altitude are almost the same
C. Temperature increases as the altitude increases.
D. Temperature decreases as the altitude increases.
5. What is the estimated decrease of temperature in the

mesosphere?
A. From minus 2 to about minus 60 degrees Celsius
B. From minus 3 to about minus 70 degrees Celsius
C. From minus 4 to about minus 80 degrees Celsius
D. From minus 5 to about minus 90 degrees Celsius
136
Table Completion
Direction: Study the picture on the two features (temperature &
altitude) of the layers of the atmosphere. Fill in the table by
writing INCREASE or DECREASE of altitude and temperature
https:www.windows2universe.org/earth/imagesprofile.jpg.
LAYERS OF THE ATMOSPHERE ALTITUDE TEMPERATURE

1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Mesosphere
4. Thermosphere
5. Exosphere
137
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Multiple Choice
1. Why are scientists concerned about the greenhouse effect?
A. There is no technology that will keep the temperature of Earth
constant.
B. Planting trees in wider areas is not possible; Earth has many
desert areas.
C .Human activities like burning of fossil fuels and deforestation
enhance the greenhouse effect.
D.The human population is increasing rapidly; more carbon dioxide
will be released to the atmosphere.
2. What greenhouse gas has the highest percentage of greenhouse

gases in the atmosphere?
A. Ozone
B. Methane
C. Water vapor
D. Carbon Dioxide
3. What are greenhouse gases?

A. Gases that harm the Earth.
B. Gases that humans exhale when they breathe.
C. Gases that help the Earth stay cool despite the sun's rays.
D. Gases that trap some of the energy leaving the Earth’s surface
138
4. Which of the following groups are all greenhouse gases?
A. Carbon dioxide, methane, CFCs, and helium.
B. Carbon dioxide, methane, CFCs, and nitrous oxides.
C. Carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxides, and helium.
D. Carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxides, and oxygen.
5. Which statement best describes the ‘Greenhouse Gas Effect’?

A. Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere cause sunlight to scatter
so that the sky appears blue.
B. Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere trap the sun’s energy and
use it to warm up the Earth.
C. Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere lead to air pollution which
is harmful to the environment.
D. Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere trap some of the energy
leaving the Earth’s surface, therefore maintaining warm
temperatures which is essential for life on Earth.
139
Cloze Test
Direction: Using the word/s inside the word pool fill in the blanks with
the correct term that would complete the thought of the paragraph.
carbon dioxide fossil fuels methane

chlorofluorocarbons global temperature water vapor
There are different sources of greenhouse gases that contributes

to the atmosphere. ______(1)________ is naturally produced when people
and animals breathe. But this can also be produced from the burning of
______(2)________ such as coal, crude oil and natural gas. Methane
comes from grazing animals as they digest their food and from decaying
matter in wet rice fields. When lots of wastes are compressed, they
produce ______(3)________ . Another group of greenhouse gas includes
the ______(4)________ which are used in spray cans as propellants, in
refrigerators as refrigerants and making foam plastics. All these
greenhouse gases in very large amount is dangerous when released into
the atmosphere, depleting the ozone layer and causes increase in
______(5)________.
Essay
Directions: Given the picture below write an essay on the concept of
greenhouse effect.
https://www2.needham.k12.ma.us/eliot/technology/student.project/greenho 140
use/diagram.jpg
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Explain how some human activities affect the
atmosphere (S7ES-IVe-6)
Multiple Choice
1. The following are the effects of global warming EXCEPT,

A. earthquake
B. long droughts
C. rising sea levels
D. strong typhoon
2. What happens when too many greenhouse gases in the

atmosphere block heat from escaping into space and trap too
much heat next to the Earth’s surface?
A. earthquakes
B. global warming
C. another ice age
D. volcanic eruptions
3. What greenhouse gas is abundant in the atmosphere that makes

the temperature rise?
A. Oxygen Gas
B. Nitrogen Gas
C. Sulfur dioxide
D. Carbon dioxide
141
4. Which of the following human activities have greatly affected the
increase of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?
A. cutting down of trees
B. burning of fossil fuels
C. using spray propellants
D. collected wastes in dumpsites
5. Which of the following ways will help reduce the rising of

temperature in the atmosphere?
A. burning fossil fuels
B. planting more trees
C. burning plastic wastes in dumpsites
D. use spray propellants and appliances
142
Identification
Direction: Study the collage and list down at least five (5) human
activities that badly affects the atmosphere.
HUMAN ACTIVITIES THAT BADLY AFFECT THE ATMOSPHERE

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
143
Enumeration
Direction: Give at least five (5) activities that you will do as a student to
help decrease the amount of greenhouse gases in the
atmosphere.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
144
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Account for the occurrence of land and sea breezes,
monsoons, and Intertropical Convergence Zone
(ITCZ) (S7ES-IVf-7)
Identification
Directions: Write SEA if the statement describes sea breeze and LAND if
the statement describes land breeze. Write your answer on
the space provided before the number.
________1. Air blows in from the sea to the land to replace rising air.
________2. Air blows out from the land to the sea to replace rising
air.
________3. During night time the land will cool down faster than the
sea.
________4. Occurs during night time where both land and sea cool
down.
________5. Occurs during daytime where the sea heat up faster

than the land.
145
Diagram Completion
Directions: Fill in the VENN DIAGRAM to compare the occurrence of
Hanging Habagat to Hanging Amihan. Use the given
statements from the word pool.
Hanging Hanging
Amihan Habagat
Both
wind systems experiences from May to July
Northeast monsoon experiences from December to

February
Southwest Monsoon wind blows from Australia to the Asian

continent.
brings abundant rainfall wind blows from Asian continent toward

the south of the Philippines.
146
Cloze Test
Directions: Using the word/s inside the word pool, fill in the blanks with
the correct term that would complete the thought of the paragraph.
equator south western

Coriolis effect thunderstorms
Southern Hemisphere warm air
The Intertropical Convergence Zone or ITCZ appears as a band of

clouds, usually ______(1)________ that circle the globe near the equator
and it is where the trade winds in the northeast and southwest meet or
converge. In the Northern Hemisphere, the trade winds move in a
______(2)________ direction from the northeast, while in the
______(3)________ , they move north westward from the southeast. When
the ITCZ is positioned north or south of the equator, these directions
change according to the ______(4)________. In time, the rising
______(5)________ will form clouds, which may lead to heavy rains and
thunderstorm.
147
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Describe the effects of certain weather systems in the
Philippines (S7ES-IVg-8)
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following is a disadvantage during monsoons?

A. brings cold weather
B. comes around July to September
C. brings lots of rain which causes flooding
D. comes from the northeast and moves southward
2. What is the adverse effect of amihan to the country?

A. cold wind blows
B. it attracts many tourists
C. hot weather is experienced
D. it brings low pressure area closer to the Philippines
3. Which of the following describes that monsoon contribute good

effects to farmers?
A. easier life
B. frustrating yield
C. a lot of reserved water
D. high crop yield production
148
4. How do monsoon affect the livelihood of fisher folks?
A. way of living become easier
B. cannot produce good harvest
C. could not go fishing due to big waves
D. love to stay at home because of habagat
5. Monsoons bring lots of rain. As a Filipino farmer, what should Juan

do in order to increase his crop production and income?
A. demand monetary help from the government
B. choose a crop that is resilient and can grow on heavy rains
C. plant valuable crops such as apples, strawberries and grapes
D. wait for summer before cultivating crops in order to save
money
149
Identification
Directions: Using the pictures below, write the specific effect of ITCZ.
Use the box provided.
Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft

https://news.inquirer.net.file.2013 https://static.dnaindia.com/sites/default/files/style
Corporation. All rights reserved/lightning/
s/half/public/2016
1. 2. 3.
https://img.clipartfest.co https://kingofwallpapers.com/dam/dam-005.jpg
m
4. 5.
Essay
Directions: Read the statement carefully and answer.
Make a brief essay focusing on what we need to do in order to be safe

if the effects of ITCZ will occur in our locality.
150
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Using models,
 Relate the tilt of the Earth to the length of
daytime.
 Relate the length of daytime to the amount of
energy received;
 Relate the position of the Earth in its orbit to the
height of the Sun in the sky;
(S7ES-IVh-9)
Multiple Choice
1. How many degrees is the Earth tilted on its axis?

A. 23.30
B. 23.50
C. 25.30
D. 25.50
2. In which month is the North Pole tilted towards the sun?

A. March
B. June
C. September
D. December
151
3. When will the countries in Northern Hemisphere experience longer
days, shorter nights?
A. When the North Pole is tilted towards the Sun.
B. When the South Pole is tilted towards the Sun.
C. When the North Pole is tilted away from the Sun.
D. When the South Pole is tilted away from the Sun.
4. What happens to the length of daytime in the countries that

belongs to the Southern Hemisphere when the North Pole is tilted
towards the Sun? The countries in the Southern Hemisphere will
experience ___________________________.
A. longer days.
B. longer nights.
C. longer nights, shorter days.
D. longer days, shorter nights.
5. How does the tilting of the Earth affects the length of daytime or
night time in certain places? When the Earth is tilted with the
____________________________________________________________.
A. North Pole facing towards the Sun, it means countries in the
Northern Hemisphere experience longer nights, shorter days.
B. North Pole facing towards the Sun, it means countries in the
Northern Hemisphere experience longer days, shorter nights.
C. South Pole facing towards the Sun, it means countries in the
D. South Pole facing away from the Sun, it means countries in the
152
True or False
Direction: Study carefully the pictures and answer the questions that
follow. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is
not on the space provided before the number
https://i.ytimg.com/vi/WLRA87TKXLM/hydefault.jpg https://i.ytimg.com/vi/WLRA87TKXLM/hydefault.jpg
A B
__________ 1. The direct rays of the sun at 90 degrees angle in picture B

is on the tropic of cancer.
__________ 2. There is a 24 hours length of daylight in the south pole of
southern hemisphere in picture B.
__________ 3. In picture A the overhead sun is on the equator which
receives the greatest amount of energy in 12 hours of
daylight.
__________ 4. The northern and southern hemisphere in the picture A
receives equal amount of energy and length of daylight
in respect to the equator.
__________ 5. The overhead sun in picture B is on the tropic of
Capricorn which receives the greatest amount of energy
in 13 hours and 27 minutes daylight.
153
Short Answer Test
Directions: Study the pictures carefully and answer the questions that
follow. Write your answer on the space provided.
Spring Equinox (March 21 or 22) Summer Solstice (June 21 or 22)
Autumn Equinox (Sep 21or 22) Winter Solstice (December 21 or 22)
________1. Which position of the earth on its orbit is the Northern

Hemisphere tilted towards the Sun?
________2. Which position of the earth on its orbit is the Southern

Hemisphere tilted towards the Sun?
154
________3. Which positions of the earth on its orbit when both the
Northern Hemisphere and Southern Hemisphere
receives equal position and not tilted away from the sun?
Use the picture below to answer questions no. 4 and 5.
https://c.tadst.com/gfx/750x500/seasons.png.com
________ 4. Which position of the earth on its orbit to the height of the
sun in the sky perfectly describes summer season in the
Philippines?
________5. In which position we can observe “aphelion” when the

Earth is farthest away from the Sun in the sky?
155
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Using models,
 Relate the height of the Sun in the sky to the
amount of energy received
 Relate latitude of an area to the amount of
energy the area receives.
(S7ES-IVh-9)
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement correctly describes the height of
the sun in the sky to the amount of energy received and
FALSE if it is not.
________ 1. The closer the earth to the sun the higher the amount of
energy received.
________ 2. The farther the earth from the sun the higher the amount of
energy received.
________ 3. During the month of June the Southern Hemisphere receives

the direct rays of the sun and therefore higher amount of
energy.
________ 4. In Summer Solstice, July is the month we observe aphelion

where the earth is farthest from the Sun therefore the
Northern Hemisphere received higher amount of energy.
________ 5. In Winter Solstice, January is the month we observe

perihelion where the earth is closest to the Sun therefore the
Southern Hemisphere received higher amount of energy.
156
Multiple Choice
corresponds to the correct answer. Use the image below for
analysis.
https://i.ytimg.com/vi/WLRA87TKXLM/hydefault.jpg
1. Which region or part of the earth receives direct rays from the
Sun?
A. Arctic Circle
B. Antarctic Circle
C. Tropic of Cancer
D. Tropic of Capricorn
2. How many degrees is the angle of the equator as it receives

energy from the Sun?
A. 23.50
B. 430
C. 66.50
D. 900
157
3. Which statement differentiates direct rays from oblique or indirect
rays?
A. Direct rays hit 90⁰ angle while oblique/ indirect rays hit ground
lesser than 90⁰ angle
B. Direct rays hit 45⁰ angle while oblique/indirect rays hit ground
lesser than 45 ⁰ angle
C. Direct rays hit less than 90⁰ angle while oblique/indirect rays hit
ground equal to 90⁰ angle
D. None of these
4. Which region or part of the earth receives the lesser amount of

solar energy?
A. Arctic Circle
B. Antarctic Circle
C. Tropic of Cancer
5. Which region or part of earth receive greater amount of energy?

A. Arctic Circle
B. Antarctic Circle
C. Tropic of Cancer
158
Cloze Test
The North Pole is tilted toward the Sun in the month of

______(1)________ and naturally the Northern Hemisphere will also be
tilted. The Northern Hemisphere will then receive the ______(2)______from
the Sun. Direct rays means that the rays of the Sun hit the ground at
______(3)_______. After six months, in December it is the ______(4)____that
is tilted towards the Sun this time the Sun’s direct rays will fall on the
Southern Hemisphere. In temperate countries in the Northern Hemisphere
it will be ______(5)______, but in the Philippines, it is simply the cold season.
159
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Show what causes change in the seasons in the
Philippines using models (S7ES-IVi-10)
Identification
Directions: Given the following statements, write DRY if the statement
describes dry season and WET if it describes wet season in
the Philippines.
_________ 1. when the North Pole is tilted towards the sun
_________ 2. when the North Pole is tilted away from the sun
_________ 3. when the Northern hemisphere receives direct rays from

the sun in June
_________ 4. when the Southern hemisphere receives direct rays from

the sun in December
_________ 5. when the South Pole is tilted towards the sun
160
Enumeration
Directions: Study the various pictures below and enumerate five causes
of changes in seasons in the Philippines.
https://i.ytimg.com/vi/WLRA87TKXLM/hydefault.jpg
https://qph.ec.quoracdn.net/main-qimg-2d1.com https://i.ytimg.com/vi/WLRA87TKXLM/hydefault.jpg
CAUSES OF CHANGES IN SEASONS IN THE PHILIPPINES

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
161
Cloze Test
Direction: Fill in the blanks with the correct term that would complete
The shape of the earth is described as an oblate spheroid.

Because of the spherical shape of the earth, there is uneven
______(1)________distribution. As sunlight strikes the earth’s surface, the
part that face the sun receives ______(2)________, while part that curves
away from the sun receives slanting on ______(3)________. The earth’s axis
is slightly inclined or tipped compared to the plane of its orbit by 23.5⁰.
Consequently this also causes uneven solar distribution. The earth
revolves in its orbit in a ______(4)________manner. As the earth revolves
around the sun, the sun’s rays seem to sweep from northward to
______(5)________and back within the year and causing the alternate
change in the position of the vertical and slanting rays of the sun.
162
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Explain how solar and lunar eclipses occur (S7ES-IVj-
11)
True or False
Direction: Write TRUE if the statement describes solar eclipse and FALSE
if it is not.
_________ 1. A solar eclipse occurs during night time.
_________ 2. Those people in the umbra will see a total solar eclipse.
_________ 3. Those people standing in the penumbra will see a total

solar eclipse.
_________ 3. Solar eclipse occur when the moon is in between the sun
and the Earth.
_________ 4. A total solar eclipse covers the whole part of the sun
including the corona.
163
Multiple Choice
1. In what phase of the moon does lunar eclipse occur?
A. Full Moon
B. New Moon
C. First Quarter moon
D. Last Quarter moon
2. During a total lunar eclipse, what can an observer see on the
moon?
A. total darkness
B. photosphere of the sun
C. brightly illuminated ring of the Earth’s atmosphere
D. brightly illuminated ring of the moon’s atmosphere
3. Where on Earth can a lunar eclipse be observed?
A. daytime of northern hemisphere
B. night time of northern hemisphere
C. daytime of northern and Southern hemisphere
D. night time of northern and Southern hemisphere
4. When will a lunar eclipse occur?
A. When Earth passes through moon’s shadow
B. When Earth passes through the sun’s shadow
C. When the moon passes through sun’s shadow
D. When the moon passes through earth’s shadow
5. What is the correct alignment during a total lunar eclipse?
A. Sun, moon, earth
B. Earth, sun, moon
C. Sun, earth, moon
D. None of the above
164
Picture Analysis
Directions: Study the pictures carefully. Provide the appropriate word/s
that will make each statement correct. Write your answers on
the space provided.
http://encrypted- http://sciblogs.co.nz.com
tbn3.gstatic.com
SOLAR ECLIPSE LUNAR ECLIPSE
1. A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon comes directly

______________the Sun and the earth.
2. People located in the places where the umbra falls will experience
a ________________.
3. In lunar eclipse, total eclipse of the moon happens when the moon
crosses the ______________ of the earth’s shadow.
4. In places where the penumbra falls, the eclipse is called

________________.
5. When the moon revolves around the earth, it also passes on earth’s
shadow, an eclipse of the moon or ______________ occurs.
165
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 7
Quarter: IV
Competency: Collect, record, and report data on the beliefs and
practices of the community in relation to eclipses
(S7ES-IVj-12)
Identification
Directions: Determine if the statement is a FACT or BELIEF. Write your
answer in the space provided before each statement.
_________ 1. No pregnant woman is allowed to go outside the house

during solar eclipse.
_________ 2. An eclipse happen when the moon is in between the Sun

and the Earth.
_________ 3. Looking at the sun directly during solar eclipse can

damage your eyes.
_________ 4. People create much and loud noise during eclipse in order
to return the Sun in the sky.
_________ 5. Pregnant women wear bright red pants, with safety pins
are attached to avoid suffering from birth problems.
166
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following beliefs has a scientific bases?

A. Increase of harmful microorganisms
B. Sun and Moon being swallowed by big snake.
C. Looking directly to the Sun during eclipse will damage the
eyes.
D. Praying during eclipse because this event is the sign of the
apocalypse.
2. In which country of the world where people immerse themselves

in water up to the neck as an act of cleansing during eclipse.
A. China
B. India
C. Philippines
D. Thailand
3. In some parts of the Philippines, why do pregnant women wear

bright red pants to which safety pins are attached?
A. To avoid suffering from birth problems.
B. For the mother to become pregnant again.
C. So that the unborn child will possess some deformity.
D. The Gods will give the luck of good health to the baby
167
4. Laho is a myth of Ancient Tagalog where the Sun and the moon
are eaten by a big snake called Bakunawa. How do the villagers
make the Bakunawa frightened and bring the Sun and Moon
back?
A. They dance and sing.
B. They create a very loud noise.
C. They lock inside their homes and pray.
D. They offer animals and foods to the Bakunawa.
5. Why do Muslim people continue the tradition of praying during an

eclipse?
A. To give gratitude to Allah for the blessings received.
B. Because this astronomical event is the sign of apocalypse.
C. Because it purifies their bodies from the evil effects of a solar
eclipse.
D. To fight the monster or the demon that was believed to have
devoured the sun.
168
Cloze Test
Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct terms to complete the
thought of the paragraph.
Several people believe that a quick darkening during the day

(solar eclipse) conveys bad luck. Others say that it is also bad luck when
the Moon goes dark through a Full Moon (lunar eclipse). In Ancient
Tagalogs in the Philippines folks call eclipse as ______(1)________. They
believe that during laho or eklepse, the Sun and the Moon are eaten by
a big snake called ______(2)________. Meanwhile, it is also believed that
there is an increase of harmful ______(3)________for the period of an
eclipse. These believed are passed on by adults to young children.
Nevertheless, there are beliefs that have ______(4)________. An example
of which is it is bad to look directly at the Sun during a solar eclipse
because doing so will ______(5)________the eyes.
169
ANSWER KEY
Quarter I
Code: S7MT-Ia-1 (page 1)
Sequencing Ways of Acquiring Knowledge and Solving Problem:

1. ____4___Develop and follow a procedure. Include a detailed
materials list. The outcome must be measurable
(quantifiable).
2. ____6___Include a statement that accepts or rejects the

hypothesis. Make recommendations for further study and
possible improvements to the procedure.
3. ____3___Predict a possible answer to the problem or question.
4. ____7___Be prepared to present the project to an audience.

Expect questions from the audience.
5. ___1____Develop a question or problem that can be solved

through experimentation.
6. ____5___Collect and Analyze Results: Modify the procedure if

needed. Confirm the results by retesting. Include tables,
graphs, and photographs.
7. ____2___Make observations and research your topic of interest.

Gather information and data.
Multiple Choice:
1. C
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. D
Matching Type:
4, 3, 6, 5, 2, 1
170
Code: S7MT-Ic-2 (page 5)
Matching Type. 1. B 2. A 3. F 4. G 5. H
Multiple Choice. 1. D 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. C
True or False. 1. F 2. T 3. F 4. F 5. T
Completion Test.
1. unsaturated
2. saturated
3. supersaturated
4. saturated
5. unsaturated
6. supersaturated
7. unsaturated
8. saturated
9. supersaturated
10. unsaturated
Identification
1. agitation
2. surface area
3. pressure
4. polarity
5. temperature
Code: S7MT-Id-3 (page 11)
Identification
1. % mass
2. % volume = volume of solute / volume of solution x 100
3. % volume
4. % mass = mass of solute / mass of solution x 100
5. concentration
Multiple Choice
1. What is the percent by mass of sodium hydrogen carbonate that has

20 grams of solute in 600mL of water?
A: 3.22%
171
2. If you have 1500g of bleach and the percent by mass of bleach is
3.62%, then what is the mass of NaOCl in the solution?
C: 54.3g
3. How many grams of solvent are in the previous question?
A: 1446 g
4. What is the percent by volume of ethanol that contains 35mL of solute
dissolved in 115mL of water?
A: 23.3%
5. If you have 100mL of a 30% ethanol solution, what is the volume of
water in the solution?
B: 70 mL
6. If you have 100mL of a 30% ethanol solution, what is the volume of
ethanol in the solution?
D: 30 mL
7. What is the percent by volume of isopropyl alcohol in a solution that
contains 24mL isopropyl alcohol in 1.1L water?
B: 2.14%
8. A solution contains 28% phosphoric acid by mass. This means that
__________.
C) 100 g of ths solution contains 28 g of phosphoric acid
9. What is the percent by volume of 25mL ethanol in 75mL of water
C: 25%
10. Describe how you would prepare 100 g of a solution that iis 0.5% salt
(NaCl) by mass.
D: Dissolve 0.5 g NaCl in 99.5 g distilled water.
Problem Solving
Sample solution to a problem.
1. In order to maintain a sodium chloride (NaCl) concentration similar to
ocean water, an aquarium must contain 3.6 g NaCl per 100.0 g of
water. What is the percent by mass of NaCl in the solution?
I. What is the problem all about?

Answer: To solve for the percent by mass of NaCl in the
solution.
II. What are the given data necessary to solve the

problem?
Given: 3.6 g NaCl, mass of the solute; 100.0 g water,
172
mass of the solvent
Implied total mass of the solution is: 103.6 g
III. What is the required equation/formula for the problem?
Mass of NaCl/Total mass of the solution X 100 = percent by
mass of NaCl
IV. What is your analysis and how will you solve the problem?
3.6 g/103.6 g X 100 = 3.5% NaCl by mass
V. Why is your answer correct?
The answer make sense because: % by mass solute

mass of solute/total mass of solution x 100
3.5 % = 3.6 / 103.6 x 100
3.5 % = 3.6 / 103.6 x 100
3.5 % = 3.5 %
Essay
1. Volume percent means the number of milliliters of solute per 100 mL of

solution. In a measuring container available, dilute 22 mL acetic acid
with distilled water until it reaches 100 mL.
2. If effectiveness of an antiseptic or disinfectant is desired, it is better to

buy 70% ethyl alcohol at the price of P 30 pesos because it is
concentrated with the alcohol compared to the 30% ethyl alcohol. For
every 100 mL of alcohol, 70 mL is present in 70% while 30 mL only is present
in 30% ethyl alcohol.
Code: S7MT-Ie-f-4 (page 18)

Identification
1. Compound
2. Mixture
3. Mixture
4. Compound
5. Mixture
6. Compound
7. Mixture
8. Mixture
9. Mixture
10. Mixture
173
Table Completion
Heterogeneous Homogeneous
Matter Compound
Mixture Mixture
Iced tea /
Chocolate ice /
cream
Carbon dioxide /
Cake /
Sodium /
hydroxide
Identification
1. Solid in solid
2. Solid in liquid
3. Liquid in liquid
4. Solid in gas
5. Gas in liquid
Identification
1. compound
2. compound
3. mixture
4. compound
5. mixture
6. mixture
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. D
5. B
174
Code: S7MT-Ig-h-5 (page 22)
Table Completion
1. Oxygen
2. C
3. Hydrogen
4. N
5. Calcium
Identification
1. compound
2. element
3. element
4. compound
5. compound
6. element
Identification
1. helium, non-metallic
2. iron, metallic
3. copper, metallic
4. mercury, metallic
5. carbon, non-metallic
Completion
1. N2O 2. Na and Cl 3. H 2O 4. NaOH
Multiple Choice.
1. B
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. C
10. B
175
Code: S7MT-Ii-6 (page 28)
Identification
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. B
True or False
1. FALSE
2. TRUE
3. TRUE
4. FALSE
5. FALSE
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. C
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following is the best description of a natural acid-base

indicator?
_____ indicates the pH of a solution
_____ is colorless in one solution but has a color in the other
_____ has one color in one solution but a different color in the other
_____ changes or does not show changes in color as tested on different
substances
2. Soap turned green with red cabbage as an indicator, so it is
considered as a/an
_____ salt
_____ acid
_____ base
_____ neutral
3. The following are natural indicators EXCEPT
_____ pechay.
_____ mayana leaves.
_____ skin of eggplant.
_____ red camote tops.
176
4. What change is manifested in natural indicators like the flowers,
leaves and fruits of the plants?
_____ size
_____ color
_____ stems
_____ number
5. Your class is going on a field trip at the local aquarium to test the acidity
of the various fish
tanks. Which of the following is the advantage of using the indicator
paper?
_____ Easy to carry.
_____ Clean-up is easier.
_____ No license is needed.
_____ Accurate result is shown.
Cloze Test
The interaction that occurs between acids and bases in which the
properties of each are canceled out by the other is called (1)
neutralization. It is the reaction between (2) acid(s) and (3) base(s). The
products of this reaction are (4) salt and (5) water.
Table Completion
Matters Acidic Basic Neutral

Kalamansi juice /
detergent /
Distilled water /
vinegar /
baking soda /
antacids /
milk /
ammonia /
cement /
tomato /
177
Sequencing Test
Gastric Acid pH 2
Lemons pH 2
Vinegar pH 2
Grapefruit pH 3
Tomato Juice pH 4
Saliva pH 6
Urine pH 6
Seawater pH 8
Soap pH
12
Oven Cleaner pH
13
Code: S7MT-Ij-7 (page 34)

Multiple Choice
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. A
Table Completion
178
Matching Type
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. G
5. F
6. H
Table Completion
Classificat
ion
Element Appearance Malleability Ductility
Metal/No
nmetal
Aluminum has luster malleable ductile metal
Carbon dull not- not-ductile nonmetal
malleable
Iodine dull not- not-ductile nonmetal
malleable
Iron has luster malleable ductile metal
Silver has luster not- ductile metal
malleable
Sulfur dull malleable not-ductile nonmetal
179
Quarter II
Code: S7LT-IIa-1 (page 39)
Multiple Choice Test

1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. C
Table Completion
1. eyepiece- an opening where one view’s the specimen being
observed
2. body tube- it connects the eye piece to the objectives
3. Objectives- it magnifies the specimen in different levels
4. revolving nosepiece- allows one to switch from one objective to
another
5. Stage- flat platform where the specimen is placed
6. Stage clips: holds the glass slide in place
7. Arm- it connects the body tube to the base of the microscope
8. Coarse adjustment- adjustment to obtain focus under LPO
9. Fine adjustment- adjustment for focus under HPO
10. Inclination joint- allows one to tilt the microscope so viewing can be
possible while seated.
11. Mirror- supplies light
12. Condenser- regulates the amount light that pass through the
specimen
13. base –it supports the microscope
Short Answer Test

Magnifying Parts: LPO, eyepiece, scanner
Illuminating Parts: mirror, condenser
Mechanical Parts: Arm, coarse adjustment, stage clip, mirror rack,
revolving nosepiece.
180
Code: S7LT-IIb-2 (page 42)
Multiple Choice Test
1. C
2. C
3. B.
4. B
5. D
True or False
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True
Fill in the blank

1. stage
2. LPO
3. coarse
4. eyepiece
5. coarse
6. HPO
7. fine
Code: S7LT-IIc-3 (page 46)

Multiple Choice
1. C
2. A
3. A
4. C
5. C
181
Matching Type
1. D
2. B
3. E
4. A
5. C
Picture Analysis
1. muscle cell
2. circulatory
3. it will be impaired
4. the organism will die
5. They have to work together to sustain life.
Code: S7LT-IId-4 (page 49)

Matching Type
1. f
2. d
3. e
4. h
5. i
6. j
7. g
8. k
9. a
10. c
Short Answer Test (Venn Diagramming)
182
Table Completion
Cell Part Plant Animal
Chloroplast / x
Vacuole / /
Centriole x /
Cell wall / x
Ribosome / /
Golgi bodies / /
Nucleus / /
Code: S7LT-IIe-5 (page 51)

True or False
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. A
3. D
4. D
5. C
183
Code: S7LT-IIe-5
Essay
Sample Rubric for Rating the Essay
Rubric for Simple Essay
Criteria/Score 3 2 1 Score
Organization Relevant Ideas are Some ideas
and Content Ideas are adequately were
well presented presented.
presented and Organization
and organization was
organized of thought is somehow
evident. evident.
Mechanics Free from Few Evident
grammatical grammatical grammatical
errors. errors. errors were
observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Code: S7LT-IIf-6 (page 54)

Matching Type
1. B.
2. D.
3. A.
4. F.
5. C,E or F
True or False
1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True
Identification
1. P
2. B
3. F
4. F
5. B
184
Code: S7LT-IIg-7 (page56)
Matching Type
1. D
2. C
3. E
4. B
5. A
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. A
Code: S7LT-IIg-7
Table Completion
Comparison of Sexual and Asexual Modes of Reproduction

Criteria Sexual Asexual
No. of individuals 2 1
(parent) involved.
Similarity of Different from the Same from the parents
offspring to parents
parents
Ways of Fertilization Budding/Regeneration/
reproduction Spore
formation/Vegetative
reproduction
Sample Humans/Animals Yeast/Molds/Fungi

organisms (that
undergoes this
means of
reproduction)
185
Code: S7LT-IIg-8 (page 59)
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. A
Sentence Completion
1. flower
2. stigma
3. ovule
4. zygote
5. endosperm
Sequencing Events
2-5-3-1-4
Code: S7LT-IIh-9 (page 62)
Multiple Choice
1. b
2. a
3. b
4. c
5. b
Identification
1. AB
2. B
3. B
4. AB
5. B
Classification Test
 Biotic Components ( plants, cats, flies, bees, ants, algae)
 Abiotic Components (stone, water, soil, air, sunlight, dried leaves)
186
Code: S7LT-IIh-10 (page 65)
MATCHING TYPE
1. d
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. c
True or False
1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. FALSE
4. FALSE
5. TRUE
Relational Diagram
Ecological Relationships
Mutualism Commensalism Parasitism
+,+ Relationship +,0 Relationship +,- Relationship

(both are benefited) (one is benefited, (one is benefited, the
other is neither other is harmed)
harmed or benefited)
Bees and flowering Orchid and tree Orchid and tree

plants
Code: S7LT-IIi-11 (page 68)
Fill in the blank

1. Intraspecific competition
2. Predation
3. Interspecific competition
4. Mutualism
5. Parasitism
Diagram Completion
1. corn
2. mouse
3. snake
4. hawk
5. fungi
187
Simple essay test (Answers in every question may vary)
Rubric for Simple Essay

Criteria/Score 3 2 1 Score
Organization Relevant Ideas Ideas are Some ideas
and Content are well adequately were
presented and presented and presented.
organized organization of Organization
thought is was somehow
evident. evident.
Accuracy Free from Few Evident errors
grammatical grammatical in grammar
errors errors were
observed.
TOTAL SCORE
Code: S7LT-IIj-12 (page 71)
Data Completion
Short answer test

Answers Key: (Varied answers may be considered)
1. It will result to less crop yield for the farmers.
2. Organisms may suffer from food shortage and loss of habitat.
3. Snow caps/ glaciers would melt in an area with high temperature.
4. Mining activities could lead to the exposure of underground water to
pollutants, as a result, the water released to the land surface would
become acidic, salty and acidic.
5. Algal bloom usually occurs in polluted bodies of water. This can cause
red tide that greatly affects the consumers of aquatic foods. Polluted
water can even lead to death of aquatic organisms.
Fill in the blank

1. Abiotic factors
2. Organisms
3. Pollutants
4. Acidic
5. Polluted
188
Quarter III Code: S7FE-IIIa-2 (p. 77)
Code: S7FE-IIIa-1 (page 74) Matching Type
Table Completion 1. B
2. D
Quantity Definition Unit 3. C
Speed Distance over m/s 4. A
time 5. E
Velocity Speed plus m/s, NE
direction Completion Type
Distance Measures the
length of the 1. Velocity
path m 2. Displacement
travelled by 3. Speed
the object. 4. Time
Displacement Distance plus 50 m, NE 5. Distance
direction
Acceleration Change in m/s2 Multiple Choice Item
velocity over
a time 1. B
interval 2. A
3. A
4. D
Short Answer Test 5. B
Code: S7FE-IIIc-4 (p. 84)

1. 15 km
2. 15 km/hr
Multiple Choice Item
3. 1 hr
1. D
Problem-Solving
2. A
3. D
1. 40 km/hr
4. D
2. 15 m/s
5. C
3. 40 km/hr
Identification
Identification
1. YES
1. Accelerating
2. YES
2. Accelerating
3. YES
3. Not accelerating
4. NO
4. Not accelerating
5. NO
5. Accelerating
189
Code: S7FE-IIIb-3 (page 81) True or False
Short Answer Test A 1. True

2. False
1. 3. False
4. True
5. True
Code: S7FE-IIIc-5 (p. 87)
Fill in the Blanks
1. Longitudinal
2. Perpendicular
2. 200 m 3. Transverse
4. Parallel
3. 400 m 5. Longitudinal
4. object is not moving Identification A
5. 100 m/s 1. Longitudinal

2. Longitudinal
3. Longitudinal
4. Transverse
Short Answer Test B 5. Transverse
1. 40 m (total distance) Identification B

2. 20 m, E (total displacement)
3. 2 m/min 1. Mechanical
2. Electromagnetic
3. Mechanical
4. Electromagnetic
Short Answer Test C 5. Electromagnetic
1. The cars are moving at increasing speed

2. Car 1
3. 1 min
4. 40 m
5. 20 m
190
Code: S7FE-IIId-6 (page 89) Code: S7FE-IIIe-8 (p. 95)
Multiple Choice Item Multiple Choice Item
1. A 1. C
2. D 2. D
3. C 3. D
4. D 4. A
5. C 5. B
Problem Solving Fill in the Blanks
1. 5 m/s 1. Thick
2. 3m 2. Thin
3. 4.5 m/s 3. Thickness
4. 6 /s or Hz 4. Louder
5. 2 m/s 5. Force
Short Answer Test Identification
1. Figure 1 1. ̷
2. Figure 1 2. X
3. Figure 1 3. ̷
4. 8 Hz 4. X
5. 3 Hz 5. x
Code: S7FE-IIId-7 (page 92) Code: S7FE-IIIe-9 (p. 98)
Matching Type Multiple Choice Item
1. C 1. C
2. E 2. B
3. D 3. D
4. B 4. D
5. F 5. C
Multiple Choice Item True or False
1. C 1. True
2. C 2. True
3. B 3. False
4. D 4. True
5. B 5. True
191
Completion Test Identification
1. Gas 1. Ultrasonic
2. Mechanical 2. Ultrasonic
3. Increases 3. Audible
4. Faster 4. Audible
5. Cold air 5. Infrasonic
Code: S7FE-IIIf-10 (page 101 Code: S7FE-IIIg-11
Short Answer Test (page 103)
1. violet Multiple Choice Item

2. red
3. red 1. A
4. violet 2. D
5. high frequency have low wavelength 3. C
and vice-versa 4. D
5. D
Table Completion
True or False
Color Frequency Wavelength Speed
Spectrum (x 1012 /s) (x 10-9 m) (x 103 1. True
m/s) 2. False
Red 422 700 295, 3. True
400 4. True
Orange 484 620 300, 5. False
080
Yellow 517 580 299,
860
Short Answer Test
Green 566 530 299,
980
1. Shadows
Blue 638 470 299,
2. Sun, Flashlight
860
3. Straight path
Violet 744 400 297, 4. Straight path
600 5. Light travels in
a straight line.
Note: round off the final answer for speed to
show constant values
192
Completion Test Code: S7FE-IIIh-i-12
(page 106)
1. Decreases
2. Increases Matching Type
3. Constant
4. Increases 1. E
5. Speed 2. F
3. B
Code: S7FE-IIIj-13 (page 109) 4. A
5. D
Identification
Fill in the Blanks
1. Radiation
1. Negatively charge 2. Convection
2. Positively charge 3. Conduction
3. repel 4. Conduction
4. attract 5. Convection
5. constant
Multiple Choice Item
1. A
Multiple Choice Item 2. B
3. B
1. D 4. A
2. A 5. B
3. B
4. A Code: S7FE-IIIj-14
5. A (page 112)
Identification
Matching Type 1. Conductor

2. Conductor
1. B 3. Insulator
2. A 4. Insulator
3. E 5. Conductor
4. C
5. D Fill in the Blank
1. Prevent
2. Grounding
3. Earth
4. Electron
5. Neutralize
193
Essay
Note: Answer may

vary. Possible answer
only
1. To prevent the
build-up of
charges in
electrical
appliance.
2. The earth
provides
unlimited
source of
electron and
act as
conductor
neutralizing the
build-up of
charges.
3. Grounding can
be done by
providing a
path between
the appliance
and the earth.
4. Yes, because it
prevents the
accumulation
of excess
charge.
5. People using
the appliance
may possible
be
electrocuted.
194
Quarter IV
Code: S7ES-IVa-1 Picture Analysis Identification
(page 114) I. 1. 1 1. NEW YORK
Matching Type 2. 8 2. MOSCOW
1. B 3. 3 3. LIMA
2. C 4. 6 4. TOKYO
3. E II. 1. Prime Meridian 5. MELBOURNE
4. G 2. Equator Multiple Choice
5. F 3. North Pole 1. A
6. A 4. South Pole 2. B
3. C
4. C
5. B
Code: S7ES-IVa-2 (page 118)
Table Completion Multiple Choice

Landmasses 1. B
1. Philippine Archipelago 2. A
2. Asian Continent 3. C
3. Malay Peninsula 4. C
4. Indonesian Archipelago 5. D
5. East Kalimantan
Bodies of Water Cloze Test
1. Philippine Sea 1. archipelago
2. Pacific Ocean 2. Asian
3. Celebes Sea 3. Pacific Ocean
4. South China Sea 4. 7,107
5. Indian Ocean 5. China Sea
195
Code: S7ES-IVb-3 (page 121)
A. Recognize water Resources in the Philippines and Biodiversity
Identification
1. Water Falls
2. Ocean/Sea
3. Lake
4. River
5. Sea
Cloze Test
1. rivers
2. South China Sea
3. watershed
4. La Mesa Dam
5. Angat Dam
B. Identify the different factors affecting soil formation
Identification
1. Exposure to the heat of the sun. (Expansion)
2. Cooling at night time
3. Water
4. Oxygen in the Air
5. Bacteria and other microorganisms
6. Small plants starts to grow
7. Climate (temperature and rainfall)
Cloze Test
1. Climate
2. water
3. nutrients
4. acidic rainwater
5. vegetation
196
C. Identify the rocks and mineral resources present in the Philippines
Identification
1. Iron (Fe) – Leyte
2. Chromium (Cr) – Samar
3. Gold (Au) – Bohol
4. Manganese (Mn) – Cagayan De Oro
5. Nickel (Ni) – Zambales
Note: There are still other answers based on the picture.
Short Answer
1. Fault and Trenches and Volcanoes
2. There are abundant of metallic deposits where the trenches and
faults are located.
3. There are abundant of metallic deposits near the volcanic areas.
4-5. Because metallic deposits are found beneath earth’s crust and
mantle where trenches and volcanoes are found.
A. Determine he different energy resources in the Philippines

B. Matching Type
1. C
2. F
3. A
4. B
5. E
Identification
1. Geothermal Energy
2. Solar Energy
3. Fossil Fuel
4. Wind Mills
5. Hydroelectric
197
Code: S7ES-IVc-4 (page 129)
True or False
1. TRUE
2. TRUE
3. TRUE
4. FALSE
5. FALSE
Identification
1. Illegal Logging
2. Mining
3. Waste Disposal in Sea/Throwing garbage anywhere
4. Smoke belching vehicles
5. Chemical waste from factories
Enumeration
1. Throw garbage/wastes properly.
2. Turning off of lights/appliances if not in use.
3. Turning off of faucets if not in use.
4. Planting more trees
5. Stop burning plastics and other garbage.
Note: There are still other possible answers.
Code: S7ES-IVd-5 (page 132)
A. Describe the characteristics of each layer of the atmosphere
Multiple Choice Matching Type Cloze Test
1. D 1. F 1. thermosphere
2. A 2. C 2. closest
3. C 3. D 3. stable
4. A 4. E 4. thin
5. C 5. A 5. aurora
198
B. Compare the features of the layers of the atmosphere in terms of
altitude and temperature
Multiple Choice Table Completion
1. B 1. INCREASE - DECREASE
2. D 2. INCREASE - INCREASE
3. C 3. INCREASE - DECREASE
Code: S7ES-IVd-5
A. Explain the greenhouse effect
Multiple Choice Cloze Test
1. D
1. carbon dioxide
2. D
3. D 2. fossil fuels
4. B
3. methane
5. D
4. chlorofluorocarbons
5. global temperature
Essay
Greenhouse effect is the natural warming from the earth attributable to
the presence of atmospheric gases. This natural thermal insulation raises
global temperature. The temperature gets higher as the concentration
of greenhouse gases increases. Solar radiation reaches the earth’s
atmosphere some of these reflected back into the space. The rest of the
sun’s energy is absorbed by the land and oceans, heating the earth.
Some of this heat is trapped by greenhouse gases in the atmosphere,
keeping the earth warm enough to sustain life. Human activities such as
burning of fossil fuels increases the amount of greenhouse gases and
traps extra heat. This trapping of heat causing the earth temperature to
rise.
(Answers may vary)
199
Rubric for Essay
Traits 4 3 2 1
Focus & There is one There is one clear, There is one topic. The topic and
Details clear, well well focused topic. Main ideas are main ideas are
focused Main ideas are somewhat clear. not clear.
topic. Main clear but are not
ideas are well supported by
clear, well detailed
supported by information.
detailed
information.
Organiz The The introduction The introduction There is no clear
ation introduction is states the main states the main introduction,
inviting, states topic and topic. structure.
the main provides an
topic, overview of the
Information is paper.
relevant and
presented in a
logical order.
Senten All sentences Most sentences Most sentences Sentences
ce are well are well are well sound
Structur constructed constructed The constructed, The awkward,
e, and The student makes a student makes difficult to
student makes few errors in several errors in understand. The
Gramm
no errors in grammar, grammar, student makes
ar,
grammar, mechanics, mechanics, numerous errors
Mecha mechanics, and/or spelling, and/or spelling in grammar,
nics, & and/or but they do not that interfere with mechanics,
Spelling spelling. interfere with understanding. and/or
understanding. spelling that
interfere
with
understandi
ng.
Note: The teacher may use or provide his/her own rubric in scoring. Using
the rubric, score the students’ essay focusing on the concept of
greenhouse effect.
200
Code: S7ES-IVe-6 (page 141)
Multiple Choice Identification Enumeration

1. C 1. Smoke belching vehicles 1. I will plant more
2. B 2. Illegal logging trees.
3. D 3. Deforestation 2. Not burn plastics
4. Use of appliances that and other garbage.
4. B
has CFC’s 3. Place
5. B
5. Burning of plastics wastes/garbage
6. Throwing wastes/garbage properly.
anywhere 4. Limit the use of
7. Using coals/fossil fuels in appliances and
factories gadgets.
5. Not use motor that
emits bad smoke.
Note: There are still
other possible
answers.
Code: S7ES-IVf-7 (page 145)

Identification
1. SEA
2. LAND
3. LAND
4. LAND
5. SEA
Diagram Completion
HABAGAT
AMIHAN
1. Southwest Monsoon BOTH 1. Northeast Monsoon

2. Experiences from May to 2. Experiences from
1. Wind system
July December to February
2. Brings
3. Wind blows from Australia 3. Wind blows from Asian
abundant
to the Asian continent continent toward the south
rainfall
of the Philippines
201
Cloze Test
1. thunderstorm
2. south western
3. Southern Hemisphere
4. Coriolis Effect
5. warm air
Code: S7ES-IVg-8 (page 148)
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. A
3. D
4. C
5. B
Identification
1. Thunderstorm/Lightning
2. Flooding
3. Landslides
4. Cough/colds/fever
5. Reserved water in Dam/watershed
Essay
The ITCZ is a zone of convergence at the thermal equator. It is a low
pressure belt, migrating with the thermal equator, resulting in a band of
heavy precipitation around the globe. The effects of ITCZ includes the
thunderstorm, lightning and heavy rains. Heavy rains causes flash floods
and even landslides. In the locality, we must be aware of flash floods,
move immediately to higher grounds. Listen to radio or television stations.
202
Make sure your emergency/first aid bags are ready. Evacuate if house is
located in a landslide prone area. Stay updated and think for the safety
of all.
(Answers may vary)
Traits 4 3 2 1
Focus There is one There is one There is one The topic and
& clear, well clear, well topic. Main main ideas
Details focused focused topic. ideas are are not clear.
topic. Main Main ideas are somewhat
ideas are clear but are clear.
clear, well not well
supported supported by
by detailed detailed
information. information.
Organ The The The There is no
ization introduction introduction introduction clear
is inviting, states the main states the introduction,
states the topic and main topic. structure.
main topic, provides an
Information overview of the
is relevant paper.
and
presented
in a logical
order.
Sente All Most sentences Most Sentences
nce sentences are well sentences are sound
Struct are well constructed well awkward,
ure, constructed The student constructed, difficult to
and The makes a few The student understand.
203
Gram student errors in makes several The student
mar, makes no grammar, errors in makes
Mech errors in mechanics, grammar, numerous
anics, grammar, and/or spelling, mechanics, errors in
& mechanics, but they do not and/or spelling grammar,
Spellin and/or interfere with that interfere mechanics,
g spelling. understanding. with and/or
understanding. spelling that
interfere with
understandin
g.
Note: The teacher may use or provide his/her own rubric in scoring.
Using the rubric, score the students’ essay focusing on the concept of
being safe if the effects of ITCZ occurs in our locality
Code: S7ES-IVh-9 (page 151)

Multiple Choice Short Answer Test True or False
1. B 1. Summer Solstice 1. TRUE
2. B 2. Winter Solstice 2. FALSE
3. A 3. Spring and Autumn 3. TRUE
4. B Equinox 4. TRUE
5. B 4. A 5. FALSE
5. A
204
Code: S7ES-IVh-9
True or False Multiple Choice Cloze Test

1. TRUE 1. C 1. June
2. FALSE 2. C 2. direct rays
3. FALSE 3. A 3. 90 degrees
4. TRUE 4. B 4. South Pole
5. TRUE 5. A 5. winter
Code: S7ES-IVi-10 (page 160)
Identification Enumeration
1. DRY 1. Earth’s axis is slightly inclined
2. WET 2. 23.5 degrees tilted on its axis
3. DRY 3. The revolution of the earth
4. WET around the Sun
5. WET 4. Earth’s rotation on its axis
5. Because of the shape of the
Cloze Test earth as oblate spheroid
1. solar
2. vertical rays
3. oblique rays
4. counter clockwise
5. southward
205
Code: S7ES-IVj-11 (page 163)
True or False Multiple Choice Picture Analysis

1. FALSE 1. A 1. between
2. TRUE 2. C 2. total solar eclipse
3. FALSE 3. D 3. umbra
4. TRUE 4. D 4. partial solar eclipse
5. TRUE 5. C 5. lunar eclipse
Code: S7ES-IVj-12 (page 166)
Identification Multiple Choice Cloze Test

1. BELIEF 1. C 1. laho
2. FACT 2. B 2. bakunawa
3. FACT 3. A 3. microorganisms
4. BELIEF 4. B 4. scientific bases
5. BELIEF 5. B 5. damage
206
REFERENCES
Books
Acosta, H. D., et.al., (2015). Science 7 Leaner’s Material. Rex Printing

Company, Inc., Pasig City, Philippines.
Acosta, H. D., et.al., (2015). Science 7 Teacher’s Guide. Rex Printing

Company, Inc., Pasig City, Philippines.
Valdoz, M. P., et.al. (2015). Science Links Work text for Scientific and
Technological Literacy. Rex Printing Company, Inc., Manila,
Philippines.
Electronic Sources
http://www.markedbyteachers.com. Date retrieved 7/20/17.
http://study.com. Date retrieved 7/19/17.
https://wwwthoughtco.com. Date retrieved 7/19/17
http://volcano.oregonstate.edu. Date retrieved 7/20/17.
http://peter-mulroy.squarespace.com. Date retrieved 11/18/17.
207
List of Writers, Editors and Division Focal Persons
WRITERS EDITORS
1. Raphi T. Anover 1. Evangeline Catayoc

Granja-Kalinawan National High School Palo N H S –Pawing Annex
2. Christie Anne D. Bihag 2. Myrna M. Borqueta

Palo National High School Palo I Central School
3. Jason D. Caande 3. Zaira G. Escobedo

Burauen Comprehensive National Palo National High School-
High School Pawing Annex
4. Chona A. Kierulf 4. Maryjean T. Susaya

Tanauan National High School Granja-Kalinawan National
High School
5. Allan V. Garnace
Alang-alang National High School
6. Efleda Villaflor
Matlang National High School
7. Fructuolina Vilbar
Hilongos National Vocational High School
DIVISION FOCAL PERSONS:
SOCORRO B. AUSA
EPS- Science
FELICIDAD T. ESPINOSA
Chief- Curriculum Implementation Division
RONELO AL K. FIRMO, Ph.D., CESO V

SCHOOLS DIVISION SUPERINTENDENT
208

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Subject: Science

_______ Predict a possible answer to the problem or question.

_______ Be prepared to present the project and questions from the

_______ Develop a question or problem that can be solved through

_______ Collect, analyze the results and modify the procedure if

_______ Make observations and research your topic of interest. Gather

2. In Science, what is the term used for an educated guess?

3. Which of the following decides whether or not the data supports

4. Which step of the scientific methods involves the use of graphs?

2. It is substance that is being dissolved. B. solvent

3. It describes two liquids that are insoluble in C. miscible

4. It is a solution having large amount of solute E. saturated

5. It contains more solute than solvent G. concentrated

1. Which of the following is a saturated solution?

2. What solution has a higher concentration than its solubility?

3. A sample of potassium nitrate (50.0 g) is dissolved in 100 g of water at

change to the appearance of the liquid. What term would be

5. A saturated solution is made by dissolving 36.8 g of solid in 200 mL of

T F 1. Solubility is the amount of solid dissolved in a solution.

T F 2. After a dilution takes place, the final solution is less concentrated

T F 3. An unsaturated solution has more dissolved solid than it should be.

T F 4. In a 10% methanol and 90% ethanol solution, the methanol is the

T F 5. An equilibrium between dissociation and crystallization is

unsaturated saturated supersaturated

2. If a solution cannot hold any more solute (it is full) it is ___________.

5. A solution is saturated at 25 grams per 100g of H2O and holds 22 grams in

6. A solution is saturated at 25 grams per 100 grams of H2O and holds 31

surface area polarity temperature

agitation catalyst pressure

1. Stirring the coffee and sugar after adding to the water

2. Powdered sugar will dissolve in water faster than rock candy.

1. What type of percentage concentration is derived by dividing the

2. What is the mathematical equation for question number 1?

3. What percentage concentration is expressed by dividing the mass in

4. What is the formula for the operational definition in item number 3?

5. What is being referred to the mass or volume of solute present in a

1. What is the percent by mass of sodium hydrogen carbonate that has 20

3. How many grams of solvent is present in 1500 grams of bleach? (Refer to

5. If you have 100 mL of a 30% ethanol solution, what is the volume of

6. If you have 100 mL of 30% ethanol solution, what is the volume of

7. What is the percent by volume of isopropyl alcohol in a solution that

9. What is the percent by volume of 25 mL ethanol in 75 mL of water?

1. In order to maintain a sodium chloride (NaCl) concentration

100.0 g of water. What is the percent by mass of NaCl in the

I. What is the problem about?

2. You have 1500.0 g of a bleach solution. The percent by mass of

4. When we mix 2.0 g of iodine in carbon tetrachloride to make 80

I. What is the problem about?

5. What is the concentration of solution made by dissolving 158 g of

1. salt (NaCl) _______________________

4. sugar (C6H12O6) _______________________

5. salad dressing _______________________

7. salt water _______________________

10. milk _______________________

1. Alloys such as brass are made up of metals.

_____________ 1. Composition is constant.

_____________ 2. The substance is always homogeneous.

_____________ 3. Components can be separated by filtering.

_____________ 4. Components keep their original properties.

_____________ 5. Properties are different from the elements they

_____________ 6. It has a varied boiling point.

1. Which of the following is a mixture?

3. Which statement about mixtures is correct?

2. that can be magnetized _ _

3. good conductor, shiny _ _

4. liquid at room temperature _ _

2. If combines with , they will form NaCl, or sodium