Practice Test

1. Which of the following tests BEST measures muscular strength?
A. 10-repetition-maximum bench-press test

B. YMCA push-up test
C. Half sit-up test
D. YMCA bench-press test
D10-repetition maximum bench-press test
This is the best test for measuring muscular strength because it is safer than a 1-repetition maximum
bench-press test and most people can complete 10 repetitions with 75% of their maximum resistance.
While a 1-repetition maximum bench-press test is considered a more accurate measure of strength, the
risk of injury outweighs the benefits of performing the test for most personal training clients. Therefore, the
10-repetition test is considered an appropriate substitute for assessing strength.
YMCA push-up test
This response is incorrect because this test most effectively assesses muscular endurance in most
individuals. There are exceptions when a participant is exceptionally weak in the upper-body and has
difficulty performing anywhere from 1 to 8 push-ups. In this situation, the YMCA push-up test is assessing
the participant’s strength (or lack thereof). However, this test is traditionally thought of as an endurance
assessment.
Half sit-up test
This response is incorrect because this test most effectively assesses muscular endurance in most
individuals. There are exceptions when a participant is exceptionally weak in the trunk and has difficulty
performing anywhere from 1 to 8 half sit-ups. In this situation, the half sit-up test is assessing the
participant’s strength (or lack thereof). However, this test is traditionally thought of as an endurance
assessment.
YMCA bench-press test
This response is incorrect because the YMCA bench-press test assesses the number of repetitions an
individual can perform before exhaustion. The protocol calls for the weight on the bar to remain fixed
regardless of the individual performing the test (a 35 lb barbell for women and an 80 lb barbell for men).
This test most effectively assesses muscular endurance in most individuals. There are exceptions when a
participant is exceptionally weak in the upper-body and has difficulty performing anywhere from 1 to 8
presses. In this situation, the half sit-up test is assessing the participant’s strength (or lack thereof).
However, this test is traditionally thought of as an endurance assessment.
2. Which strategy will BEST ensure agreement between the client and trainer with respect to motivation and
goals?
A. The client should be allowed by the trainer to plan the initial training activities.
B. The trainer should establish a basic program for the client to start their regimen.
C. The trainer should explore the client's expectations and prior experience.
D. The client's present level of physical fitness should be determined.
The client should be allowed by the trainer to plan the initial training activities
This response is incorrect because it undermines the concept that the trainer is a professional with the
knowledge and experience of creating safe and effective exercise programs. While it is important to allow
the client to be involved in the goal-setting process and for the trainer to choose activities that the client
enjoys, it is inappropriate for the client to plan the initial training activities. The trainer has more knowledge
about the level of intensity and modes of exercise that are appropriate for the initial stages of a training
program.
The trainer should establish a basic program for the client to start their regimen
This response is incorrect because it fails to acknowledge the client's expectations and desires. While it is
important for the trainer to take the lead when designing the exercise program, it is equally important for
the trainer to fully explore the client's preferences for exercise as well as any time constraints the client has
in his/her daily schedule. The more tailored to the client the exercise program is, the more likely the client
will be motivated to adhere.
DThe trainer should explore the client's expectations and prior experience
This response will best ensure agreement between the client and trainer with respect to motivation and
goals. Finding out where a client is mentally and experientially with respect to exercise allows a trainer to
develop a specific exercise program tailored to exactly what the client wants and needs. When a program
is designed with client expectations and prior experience in mind, the client's motivation increases because
the client was a contributor to the process.
The client's present level of physical fitness should be determined
This response is incorrect because it does not take into account the client's psychological readiness for,
and prior experience with, exercise. While it is important to assess the client's current level of fitness prior
to designing an exercise program, it is equally important to understand the client's readiness to commit to
exercise. Without this understanding, the trainer has no clue about the client's expectations and prior
exercise experience, which are necessary when developing a program that promotes adherence.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 378-386; 2nd ed., 358-365
3. Cardiorespiratory fitness is BEST evaluated by which of the following?

A. Rating of perceived exertion
B. Maximal oxygen uptake
C. Submaximal exercise heart rate
D. Heart-rate recovery rate
Rating of perceived exertion

This response is incorrect because rating of perceived exertion (RPE) is a client's subjective rating of how
hard he/she is working. While this information is valuable because it gives the personal trainer a client's
status during the test, it does not evaluate the maximum amount of oxygen consumed for exercise activity.
RPE is not the best method for evaluating a client's cardiorespiratory fitness, but when utilized during a
submaximal cardiorespiratory fitness test, it is useful for determining a training heart-rate range after the
test.
DMaximal oxygen uptake

This is the best method for evaluating cardiorespiratory fitness because it measures maximal oxygen
uptake during an exercise activity. Since cardiorespiratory fitness is defined by an individual's ability to take
in and use oxygen during physical activity, maximal oxygen uptake (also known as VO2max) is the best
method for evaluation. Depending on the age and cardiovascular risk of the client, this method is often
limited to clinical or research facilities and is usually performed in the presence of a physician trained in
advanced cardiac life support.
Submaximal exercise heart rate

This response is incorrect because this method represents an estimation of maximal oxygen uptake
through means of measuring equivalent heart rates at submaximal workloads. Submaximal
cardiorespiratory tests are less accurate than maximal oxygen uptake tests but are still valid
measurements of relative change in aerobic fitness. These tests are often appropriately used by personal
trainers to estimate VO2max. However, the best method for evaluating cardiorespiratory fitness is maximal
oxygen uptake.
Heart-rate recovery rate
This response is incorrect because it does not result in an estimation of maximal oxygen consumption.
Heart-rate recovery tests, such as the YMCA 3-minute step test, compare established norms to a one-
minute recovery heart rate. This test provides the personal trainer with information about how quickly the
client recovers after a submaximal effort, but it does not evaluate the volume of oxygen consumed during
the activity.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 175-176; 2nd ed., pgs. 175-176
4. Client: Male
Age: 39
Physician Clearance: Yes
Medical/Health Concerns: Smokes 30+ cigarettes per day
Blood pressure: 136/94 mmHg
Past Activity Levels: Played high-school soccer and rugby
Current Activity Levels: Walks dog and walks 10 minutes to work everyday
Main Fitness Goal: To improve stamina and feel more fit
Given the information above, which of the following fitness tests is contraindicated for a personal trainer
to perform?
A. 3-minute step test
B. Submaximal cycle ergometry test
C. Maximal graded treadmill test
D. 1-mile walk test
3-minute step test
This test is not contraindicated because it is a submaximal fitness test. The client’s information places him
in the moderate risk category for experiencing a cardiac event during exercise. He has two risk factors,
current cigarette smoker and hypertension, but has no symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease. Therefore,
he may exercise at a moderate intensity and undergo submaximal fitness testing.
Submaximal cycle ergometer test
This test is not contraindicated because it is a submaximal fitness test. The client’s information places him
in the moderate risk category for experiencing a cardiac event during exercise. He has two risk factors,
current cigarette smoker and hypertension, but has no symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease. Therefore,
he may exercise at a moderate intensity and undergo submaximal fitness testing.
DMaximal graded treadmill test

This response is correct because this is a maximal fitness test and, therefore, contraindicated. The client’s
information, given in the stem of the question, places him in the moderate risk category for experiencing a
cardiac event during exercise. He has two risk factors, current cigarette smoker and hypertension, but has
no symptoms of cardiopulmonary disease. Therefore, he may exercise at a moderate intensity and
undergo submaximal fitness testing.
1-mile walk test
This test is not contraindicated because it is a submaximal fitness test. The client’s information, given in the
stem of the question, places him in the moderate risk category for experiencing a cardiac event during
exercise. He has two risk factors, current cigarette smoker and hypertension, but has no symptoms of
cardiopulmonary disease. Therefore, he may exercise at a moderate intensity and undergo submaximal
fitness testing.
5. Which of the following methods is MOST accurate for assessing body composition?
A. Bioelectrical impedance analysis
B. Body mass index
C. Waist-to-hip ratio
D. Skinfold thickness measurement
Bioelectrical impedance analysis
This response is incorrect because in order for this analysis to be accurate there are several factors that
must be controlled. For example, the subject must lie still, with wrist and ankle electrodes accurately
placed. The client must be well-hydrated and not have exercised in the past 6 hours or consumed alcohol
in the past 24 hours. The quality of the analyzer and the formula used to compute body density also are
contributing factors for accuracy. Additionally, the body-fat scales that are now available are not accurate
enough to be reliable measurement tools
Body mass index
This response is incorrect because BMI uses total body weight (not estimates of fat and lean body mass
separately) in the calculation of body composition. This assessment does not discriminate between the
overfat and the athletic or more muscular body type. Therefore, BMI should be used in conjunction with
other body composition assessments because of its inaccurate estimations for certain body types.
Waist-to-hip ratio
This response is incorrect because WHR does not estimate body composition. Rather, it estimates body-fat
distribution. This assessment is a reliable and easy measurement for determining abdominal obesity, which
is known to increase certain cardiovascular disease health risks, but it does not assess overall body
composition.
DSkinfold thickness measurement

Of all the responses listed for this question, the skinfold measurement method is the most accurate for
assessing body composition provided the measurements are taken properly. If the technician/personal
trainer performing the assessment has ample experience locating and measuring the standard sites, the
results are both valid and reliable for estimating body composition.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 187; 2nd ed., pgs. 187-189
6. When designing a program, the personal trainer should identify client goals by _______________.
A. Interviewing using close-ended questions
B. Training the client for a week before assessment
C. Using a lifestyle questionnaire
D. Creating a formal contract with the client
Interviewing using close-ended questions
This response is incorrect because it directs the client to give a short response such as "yes" or "no." The
personal trainer should avoid this type of question when trying to get the client to open up and give more
details.
Training the client for a week before assessment
This response is incorrect on more than one level. A personal trainer should never use the first week of
training a new client as a form of initial assessment. Not only does the trainer risk potentially injuring the
client due to recommending exercises without knowing the client's health/exercise/injury history, the trainer
also risks exposing the new client to exercises or situations with which he/she may not be comfortable.
Additionally, exercise, like other behaviors, is strongly influenced by its immediate consequences. Often the
immediate feelings and consequences surrounding actions, rather than long-term beliefs or views, have the
most powerful effect on daily activities. Therefore, if the personal trainer conducts workout sessions prior to
understanding the client's true goals, there is the possibility that after one week the client will be so
discouraged that he/she may not want to continue with the program.
DUsing a lifestyle questionnaire

This response is correct because using a lifestyle questionnaire prior to training is an excellent way to
uncover a client's preferences, needs, exercise history and motivational readiness for change. With this
information the personal trainer, together with the client, can develop realistic and relevant goals tailored
specifically to the client's motivational needs.
Creating a formal contract with the client
This response is incorrect because a formal contract should be created between the personal trainer and
the client after the goals have already been clearly defined. Contracts are written agreements signed by the
client and the personal trainer that clearly spell out the exercise goals and the reward associated with
achieving them. The stem of the question implies that the client goals have yet to be identified.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 397; 2nd ed., pg. 376-380
7. If a client has an increased risk for injury during exercise, the trainer should obtain a physician's medical
release form prior to training because it _______________.
A. Releases the trainer from liability if the client is injured following the exercise program
B. Guarantees the client's success in reaching his or her goals
C. Allows the physician to direct modifications in the exercise program
D. Prevents the trainer from being sued by the client for acts of negligence
Releases the trainer from liability if the client is injured following the exercise program
This response is incorrect because the purpose of a physician's medical release form is to provide the
personal trainer with clarification of a client's status and to explain any limitations to physical activity. It also
enables the physician to direct modifications to the exercise program. The form described in this response
is a Liability Waiver (also known as a Release of Liability).
Releases the trainer from liability if the client is injured following the exercise program
This response is incorrect because the purpose of a physician's medical release form is to provide the
personal trainer with clarification of a client's status and to explain any limitations to physical activity. It also
enables the physician to direct modifications to the exercise program. The form described in this response
is a Liability Waiver (also known as a Release of Liability).
DAllows the physician to direct modifications in the exercise program This response is correct. The
purpose of a physician's medical release form is to provide the personal trainer with clarification of a client's
status and to explain any limitations to physical activity. It also enables the physician to direct modifications
to the exercise program.
Prevents the trainer from being sued by the client for acts of negligence This response is incorrect
because the purpose of a physician's medical release form is to provide the personal trainer with
clarification of a client's status and to explain any limitations to physical activity. It also enables the
physician to direct modifications to the exercise program. Nothing prevents a personal trainer from being
sued by a client. Even proper documentation such as Informed Consent and Release of Liability forms prior
to engaging in training, can't stop a legal action from being carried out against a trainer. However, having
these documents signed and in the client's file definitely benefits the personal trainer in the event he or she
is taken to court.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 155; 2nd ed., pg. 156
8. Your new client, who is 34 years old, smokes 10 cigarettes per day, has a triglyceride level of
200 mg/dL, and a total cholesterol/HDL ratio of 3.5. Before training him, you should _______________.
A. Recommend he see a registered dietitian to help him reduce his dietary fat
B. Recommend he see a registered dietitian to help him reduce his dietary cholesterol
C. Require a physician's approval
D. Have him sign an informed consent form
Recommend he see a registered dietitian to help him reduce his dietary fat
This response is incorrect because at this time you have no knowledge of his dietary habits. The
information given is not enough to trigger a recommendation from you that he sees a registered dietician.
His triglyceride level of 200 mg/dL is considered borderline high. However, individuals with borderline high
triglyceride levels can help to bring them down into a healthy range through physical activity and weight
reduction. These two areas are well within your scope of practice as a personal trainer. Therefore, referring
him to a registered dietitian is unnecessary at this time.
Recommend he see a registered dietitian to help him reduce his dietary cholesterol
This response is incorrect because at this time you have no knowledge of his dietary habits. The
information given is not enough to trigger a recommendation from you that he sees a registered dietician.
His total cholesterol/HDL ratio of 3.5 is considered good (any ratio less than 4 is ideal). Therefore, referring
him to a registered dietitian is unnecessary at this time.
Require a physician's approval This response is incorrect because he only presents one cardiovascular
disease risk factor (smoking) and he is a young male (under age 45). Therefore, referring him to a
physician is unnecessary at this time.
DHave him sign an informed consent form This response is correct. The client does not need to be
referred to another health professional prior to training. Therefore, having him sign prerequisite paperwork,
such as informed consent and release of liability, is appropriate at this time.
9. During the initial interview with your new client, you discover that he has a thyroid disease and is
currently taking medication. Your FIRST course of action should be to _____________.
A. Research the effects of his medications on exercise capacity and design his program accordingly.
B. Obtain appropriate exercise parameters from his primary care provider.
C. Incorporate an extended warm-up and cool-down period at a low-intensity level.
D. Refer him to a registered dietitian since his condition is nutrition related.
Research the effects of his medications on exercise capacity and design his program accordingly
This response is incorrect because it is outside the scope of practice for a personal trainer to design an
exercise program for a client with a metabolic disorder without first gaining clearance and guidelines from a
physician. However, researching the effects of his medications for the personal trainer's own knowledge is
appropriate. The ACSM Initial Risk Stratification places individuals with known thyroid disorders in the high
risk category, indicating that they should receive medical clearance prior to engaging in an exercise
program.
DObtain appropriate exercise parameters from his primary care provider

This response is correct. It is outside the scope of practice for a personal trainer to design an exercise
program for a client with a metabolic disorder without first gaining clearance and guidelines from a
physician. The ACSM Initial Risk Stratification places individuals with known thyroid disorders in the high
risk category, indicating that they should receive medical clearance prior to engaging in an exercise
program.
Incorporate an extended warm-up and cool-down period at a low-intensity level

This response is incorrect because it is outside the scope of practice for a personal trainer to continue with
an exercise program for a client with a metabolic disorder without first gaining clearance and guidelines
from a physician. The ACSM Initial Risk Stratification places individuals with known thyroid disorders in the
high risk category, indicating that they should receive medical clearance prior to engaging in an exercise
program.
Refer him to a registered dietitian since his condition is nutrition related

This response is incorrect. Clients with thyroid disorders should be referred to their primary care
physicians. Thyroid disorders are metabolic conditions, not "nutrition" conditions. The client may need
nutrition counseling from a registered dietitian, but the initial assessment needs to be performed by a
physician. Additionally, since the client in this scenario is already taking prescription medication for his
disorder, the primary care physician is the first line of contact for anything related to his disorder.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 496.
10. A lifestyle information form is helpful in developing _______________.

A. Rapport, program design, and goals
B. A treatment plan for special populations
C. The fitness components of rehabilitation program
D. A relapse prevention strategy
DRapport, program design, and goals

This response is correct because a lifestyle information questionnaire includes the following important
components: (1) physical activity feelings, barriers, preferences, and history, (2) family history and social
support, (3) occupation, (4) stressors, (5) dietary patterns, and (6) hobbies and leisure activities. This
information aids the personal trainer in developing a sound program for the client. Additionally, it provides
an opportunity for rapport-building as the client and personal trainer discuss and clarify any concerns
associated with the training program.
A treatment plan for special populations
This response is incorrect because the purpose of a lifestyle information form is to address the following
support, (3) occupation, (4) stressors, (5) dietary patterns, and (6) hobbies and leisure activities.
Additionally, it should be clear that it is outside the scope of practice for a personal trainer to develop a
"treatment plan." Personal trainers may be involved in post-rehabilitation of clients, but they never "treat"
any condition.
The fitness components of rehabilitation program

Additionally, it should be clear that it is outside the scope of practice for a personal trainer to "rehabilitate"
a client. Personal trainers may be involved in post-rehabilitation of clients, but they should not promote
themselves as rehabilitation therapists unless they hold an accredited credential in this area.
A relapse prevention strategy
support, (3) occupation, (4) stressors, (5) dietary patterns, and (6) hobbies and leisure activities. While
some of the information on a client's lifestyle information questionnaire (such as physical activity barriers)
may be helpful in developing a relapse-prevention strategy, the form is used more appropriately for
rapport, program design, and goal development.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 163
11. Which of the following must be known in order to perform a comprehensive evaluation of a client’s
lifestyle?
A. Stressors
B. Gender
C. Education
D. Income
DStressors
This response is correct because a lifestyle information questionnaire includes the following important
Gender
gender is an important aspect of a client's make-up, it does not factor in as a primary concern when
evaluating his/her lifestyle.
Education
education is an important aspect of a client's make-up, it does not factor in as a primary concern when
Income
income is an important aspect of a client's make-up, it does not factor in as a primary concern when
12. Once the trainer obtains personal goals and health data from the client, the gathered information should
be________________.
A. Posted as a motivational incentive measure
B. Attached to the program card found in the training area
C. Entered on the general client database
D. Filed in a secured data storage area
Posted as a motivational incentive measure
This response is incorrect. Every client has the right to expect all personal data and discussion with an
ACE-certified professional will be safeguarded and not disclosed without the client's express written
consent or acknowledgment. Any breach of confidentiality potentially harms the productivity and trust of
the client. This puts the personal trainer at risk for potential litigation and puts the client at risk of public
embarrassment and fraudulent activity such as identity theft. It is considered a breach of confidentiality to
allow anyone (besides the personal trainer and the client) access to the client's personal information
without the client's express written consent.
Attached to the program card found in the training area

This response is incorrect because all client data should be stored in a secured area within the fitness
facility. This limits the access to the client's personal data to the personal trainer. Every client has the right
to expect all personal data and discussion with an ACE-certified professional will be safeguarded and not
disclosed without the client's express written consent or acknowledgment.
Entered on the general client database

This response is incorrect because all client data should be stored in a secured area within the fitness
facility. This limits the access to the client's personal data to the personal trainer. Every client has the right
to expect all personal data and discussion with an ACE-certified professional will be safeguarded and not
disclosed without the client's express written consent or acknowledgment.
DFiled in a secured data storage area

This response is correct. All client data should be stored in a secured area within the fitness facility. This
limits the access to the client's personal data to the personal trainer. Every client has the right to expect
all personal data and discussion with an ACE-certified professional will be safeguarded and not disclosed
without the client's express written consent or acknowledgment.
13. Which of the following is a component of a well-stated goal?

A. Competitive
B. Precise
C. Flexible
D. Time-bound
Competitive
This response is incorrect because a well-stated goal is a SMART goal. The components of a SMART
goal are: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound. Using competition to help in the
development of a client's goal may be detrimental if the client is an individual who is intimidated by
competing with others. Being competitive isn't necessarily a negative mind-set as long as the client is
accepting of it. However, keeping with the SMART goal strategy ensures that all clients receive the most
out of the goal-setting process.
Precise
goal are: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound. While being precise during the
goal-setting process isn't a negative attribute, it is clearly not one of the words that make up the SMART
acronym. This question is assessing whether or not the test-taker knows the components of a SMART
goal.
Flexible
goal are: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound. Being flexible when initially
discussing client goals and when developing a program design is appropriate. Furthermore, being flexible
when reassessing progress and establishing new goals is appropriate. However, a well-stated goal, once
it is developed and written down, should be adhered to until the first re-evaluation.
DTime-bound
This response is correct because it is one of the components of a well-stated goal (a SMART goal). The
components of a SMART goal are: Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound. SMART
goals are effective because they translate clients' vague statements about what they want into precise
goals.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 396-397; 2nd ed, pgs. 376-377
14. A client informs you that he has been prescribed beta-blockers to control his blood pressure. In response
to this prescription, you should_____________________.
A. Use the rating of perceived exertion to measure intensity
B. Adjust target heart rate to prevent overexertion
C. Reduce training intensity to minimize pulse pressure
D. Use a heart rate monitor to measure heart rate
DUse the rating of perceived exertion to measure intensity

This response is correct because beta-blockers decrease an individual's resting, exercise, and maximal
heart rates. This reduction in heart rate requires modifying the method used for determining exercise
intensity. Using the Borg Scale of Perceived Exertion or the newer modified 0 - 10 scale of perceived
exertion is appropriate for monitoring an aerobic exercise program for someone on beta-blockers.
Adjust target heart rate to prevent overexertion
This response is incorrect because it assumes the personal trainer knows exactly how much to adjust the
client's target heart rate based on the fact that the client is taking beta-blockers. It is outside the scope of
practice for a trainer to speculate about the specific effects of a prescription medication on a client's heart
rate. Furthermore, since the medication affects the client's heart rate, any standardized formula used to
recommend training intensity becomes invalid because the formula is based on an average person not
taking heart-rate altering drugs. However, it is appropriate for a personal trainer to understand a
medication's general effects on heart rate (such as beta-blockers decreasing resting, exercise, and
maximal heart rates) and then to adjust the client's program based on this general information. A personal
trainer's only option here is to have the client monitor his/her intensity using a rating of perceived exertion
scale.
Reduce training intensity to minimize pulse pressure

This response is incorrect because the fact that the client is now on beta-blockers does not affect his
ability to work at a specific intensity. Most important, the client should not decrease his intensity if he has
achieved a certain level of fitness. This would cause his cardiorespiratory fitness level to regress, which
would ultimately do more harm than good.
Use a heart rate monitor to measure heart rate

taking heart-rate altering drugs. In other words, measuring heart rate for a person taking beta-blockers is
an inappropriate form of monitoring exercise intensity. The most appropriate alternative is having the
client use a rating of perceived exertion scale.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 162, 221-222; 2nd ed., pgs. 162 & 217
15. Your client has started taking beta-blocker medication after eight weeks of training. Which of the
following should you do?
A. Reduce the target heart-rate training zone by 20%.
B. Keep the target heart-rate training zone the same.
C. Increase intensity level in order to elevate heart rate.
D. Have his physician recommend appropriate exercise intensities.
Reduce the target heart-rate training zone by 20%.
taking heart-rate altering drugs. Using a rating of perceived exertion scale to monitor intensity is an
acceptable alternative.
Keep the heart-rate training zone the same.

This response is incorrect because beta-blockers decrease resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates.
Therefore, any standardized formula used to recommend training intensity becomes invalid because the
formula is based on an average person not taking heart-rate altering drugs. Using a rating of perceived
exertion scale to monitor intensity is an acceptable alternative.
Increase intensity level in order to elevate heart rate.

This response is incorrect because beta-blockers decrease resting, exercise, and maximal heart rates.
Increasing intensity level at this time is inappropriate and may be harmful to the client, particularly since
hypertension (the condition for which individuals are prescribed beta-blockers) is considered a major
cardiovascular disease risk.
DHave the physician recommend appropriate training intensities.

This is the most appropriate response listed. Since this is a newly-prescribed medication, it is best to
communicate with the client's physician regarding appropriate exercise intensities as well as any other
limitations that may now be present. Additionally, using a rating of perceived exertion scale to monitor
intensity is an acceptable alternative to heart-rate monitoring.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 241-242; 2nd ed., pg. 235
16. The risk of hypotension in the pregnant exerciser can be minimized by _______________.
A. Encouraging the exerciser to perform supine abdominal work
B. Replacing supine positions with semirecumbent and prone positions
C. Using the Valsalva maneuver during strength training
D. Introducing the client to Kegel exercises
Encouraging the exerciser to perform supine abdominal work

This response is incorrect because in the supine position the weight of the uterus presses against the
blood vessels, especially the inferior vena cava. This pressure causes a restriction in blood flow, which
may cause a reduction in blood pressure, cardiac output, and blood flow to the fetus. Clients should be
advised to avoid the supine position after the first trimester of pregnancy.
DReplacing supine positions with semi-recumbent and prone positions

This response is correct. The supine position allows the weight of the uterus to press against the blood
vessels, especially the inferior vena cava. This pressure causes a restriction in blood flow, which may
cause a reduction in blood pressure, cardiac output, and blood flow to the fetus. Clients should be
advised to avoid the supine position after the first trimester of pregnancy. Supine positions may be
replaced with semirecumbent positions, and prone positions replaced with an all-fours position or an
elbows-and-knees position.
Using the Valsalva maneuver during strength training

This response is incorrect. The Valsalva maneuver results in increased pressure in the thoracic cavity
caused by forced exhalation with the breath held. The Valsalva maneuver should be avoided to prevent
blood pressure from rising to dangerous levels, as it is not a healthy practice for dealing with hypotension.
The client should breathe throughout each exercise.
Introducing the client to Kegel exercises

This response is incorrect because performing Kegel exercises has no effect on blood pressure.
17. Which of the following is a well-stated goal for an overweight client?

A. I will lose 55 lb (25 kg) in 6 months by exercising and strength training.
B. I will start dieting and strength training 3-5 days a week.
C. I will lose 3 lb (1.5 kg) a week by dieting and exercising 5-7 days a week.
D. I will lose 1 lb (0.5 kg) a week by dieting and exercising 3-5 days a week for the next 3 months.
I will lose 55 lb (25 kg) in 6 months by exercise and strength training.
This response is incorrect because a well-stated goal is more specific. This response has no mention of
the frequency of the exercise required to reach the goal. Frequency is important because it helps the
client see that the program is realistic and attainable. The client also is more likely to schedule exercise
when it is broken down into a days-per-week format. Additionally, this goal is unrealistic because it targets
the client to lose more than 2 lb per week to achieve the 55 lb-loss in 6 months.
I will start dieting and strength training 3-5 days a week.

This response is incorrect because a well-stated goal is more specific. This goal is lacking in the amount
of weight loss to achieve as well as the time frame in which to achieve it. Weight loss stated in pounds
makes the goal more tangible for the client and gives him/her a specific target. Keeping the goal time-
bound allows the client to know there is a definitive end-point at which time reassessment will occur.
Clients look forward to reassessment for gauging their progress and for establishing new goals and
programs. Additionally, this goal is stated somewhat ambiguously. Instead of stating "I will start dieting
and strength training…," the goal should be stated more definitively, as in "I will diet and strength train…"
I will lose 3 lb (1.5 kg) a week by dieting and exercising 5-7 days a week.
This response is incorrect because although the goal is specific, it is unrealistic and falls outside of the
guidelines for safe and effective weight loss. It also lacks a time commitment to reach the goal. The
recommendations are to lose no more than 2 lb per week and to exercise at a frequency of 3-5 days per
week. Keeping the goal time-bound allows the client to know there is a definitive end-point at which time
reassessment will occur. Clients look forward to reassessment for gauging their progress and for
establishing new goals and programs.
DI will lose 1 lb (0.5 kg) a week by dieting and exercising 3 - 5 days a week for the next 3 months.
This response is correct. The goal is well-stated and follows the ACSM guidelines for safe and effective
weight loss.
18. You are reviewing lifestyle information of the potential client described below:
Male, age 40
Height: 5'7" (170 cm)
Weight: 200 lb (90 kg)
RHR: 70
BP: 124/76
Occupation: Finance Manager
Highest education completed: college
Marital status: married, two children
Physical activity history: wrestler in high school
Goal: Would like to lose 40 lb and increase functional strength
Submaximal exercise test result: VO2max of 40 mL/kg/min (fair)
Push-ups test: Fair
Half sit-ups test: Fair
Based on this information, which of the following is the MOST realistic goal for the first two
months?
A. Increase VO2max by 5% and achieve a scale weight of 175 lb.
B. Increase local muscular endurance and decrease weight by 8%.
C. Achieve an aerobic fitness rating of "excellent" and increase local muscular endurance.
D. Increase VO2max by 10% and achieve a scale weight of 175 lb.
Increase VO2max by 5% and achieve a scale weight of 175 lb.

This response is incorrect because achieving a weight loss of 25 lb in 8 weeks is an unrealistic goal. The
ACSM recommends losing no more than 1-2 lb per week. This scenario has the client losing more than 3
lb per week. While the increase in VO2max by 5% is a realistic goal, as a typical initial improvement for
previously inactive middle-aged adults is 15-20% over 10-20 weeks, his stated goal is to lose weight and
increase functional strength. Therefore, focusing on a percent increase in cardiorespiratory fitness is
irrelevant to this client.
DIncrease local muscular endurance and decrease weight by 8%.

This response is the most realistic goal for this client. It addresses the fact that he only scored a "fair" on
his endurance assessments by focusing on increasing local muscular endurance. Additionally, the
reduction in weight by 8% is within the ACSM guidelines for weight loss of losing no more than 1-2 lb per
week. This scenario has the client losing 2 lb per week. Finally, it is recommended that the initial weight
loss goal be set at no more than 10% of the client's total body weight. The goal of 8% body weight
reduction falls within this recommendation.
Achieve an aerobic fitness rating of "excellent" and increase local muscular endurance.
This response is incorrect because achieving a rating of "excellent" for aerobic fitness in 8 weeks is most
likely unrealistic for this client. His lifestyle information indicates that he is a finance manager with two
children. While it is not impossible for him to achieve a rating of "excellent" for aerobic fitness, it would
require a minimum VO2max increase of 8%. He probably would not have the time availability with regards
to exercise frequency to reach this goal. Also, keep in mind that his stated goal is to lose weight and
increase functional strength. Therefore, focusing on a percent increase in cardiorespiratory fitness is
irrelevant to this client.
Increase VO2max by 10% and achieve a scale weight of 175 lb.
This response is incorrect because it is unrealistic. His lifestyle information indicates that he is a finance
manager with two children. While it is not impossible for him to increase his aerobic fitness by 10%, he
probably would not have the time availability with regards to exercise frequency to reach this goal. Also,
keep in mind that his stated goal is to lose weight and increase functional strength. Therefore, focusing on
a percent increase in cardiorespiratory fitness is irrelevant to this client. Finally, achieving a weight loss of
25 lb in 8 weeks is an unrealistic goal. The ACSM recommends losing no more than 1-2 lb per week. This
scenario has the client losing more than 3 lb per week.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed. pgs. 170 - 207 & pg. 238; 2nd ed. pgs. 170 - 205 & pg. 232.
19. A new member of your health club has been cleared by his physician to exercise after recently
celebrating his 63rd birthday. Which of the following exercise parameters is MOST appropriate for an
initial program?
A. Strength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions
B. Moderate to vigorous aerobic activity 5-7 days per week, 30-60 minutes
C. Strength training with free weights to maximize neurological adaptations
D. Functional training emphasizing dynamic balance exercises
DStrength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions
This response is most appropriate for an initial program because it addresses the loss of muscle mass
and bone density as one ages. To promote strength gains and increases in bone density, a program with
more resistance and fewer repetitions is required. However, because this individual is more than 50 years
old, the ACSM recommends he begins his program with low resistance and high repetitions. This is the
recommendation for older individuals due in part to the fact that as people age their blood pressures tend
to rise. Low resistance and high repetitions is the recommendation for resistance training for hypertensive
clients as well. After several months of training a more intense program may be appropriate.
Moderate to vigorous aerobic activity 5–7 days per week, 30–60 minutes
This response is inappropriate for an older individual initiating an exercise program. Cardiac output and
maximal oxygen uptake decline with age. Therefore the recommendation is to keep the intensity level
near the lower end of the heart-rate range (40–65%) and begin with daily exercise in shorter duration.
After several months of training a more intense program may be appropriate.
Strength training with free weights to maximize neurological adaptations

This response is inappropriate because training with free weights may pose risks to an older individual
starting a resistance training program. While it is true that neurological function declines with age and free
weights are an acceptable method of enhancing neurological response, it is unwise to initiate an older
person’s exercise program with this type of training. A better approach is to begin the resistance training
utilizing selectorized machines to promote motor unit recruitment and hypertrophy without the risk of the
older individual dropping the free weight or using incorrect body mechanics. After several months of
training a more intense program utilizing free weights may be appropriate.
Functional training emphasizing dynamic balance exercises

This response is inappropriate because dynamic balance training may pose risks to an older individual.
While it is true that neurological function declines with age and dynamic balance training is an acceptable
method of enhancing neurological response, it is unwise to initiate an older person’s exercise program
with this type of training. A better approach is to begin resistance training utilizing selectorized machines
to promote motor unit recruitment and hypertrophy without the risk of the older adult using incorrect body
mechanics. After several months of training, a program incorporating balance training may be
appropriate. However, balance exercises should progress from static to dynamic.
20. Bertha is a fit middle-aged woman. She has received medical clearance to exercise and has been
prescribed diuretic medication for 6 months. Which of the following recommendations is MOST
appropriate?
A. Refrain from performing high-intensity exercise.
B. Consume fluids before, during, and after exercise.
C. Minimize duration to no more than 30 minutes per session.
D. Monitor intensity using RPE instead of heart rate.
Refrain from performing high-intensity exercise
This response is inappropriate because Bertha is already fit. She is taking a prescription diuretic
medication, which is typically prescribed for hypertension, but this does not preclude her from exercising
at a high intensity, especially since she has already attained some level of fitness.
DConsume fluids before, during, and after exercise

This response is the most appropriate because diuretic medications increase the excretion of water and
electrolytes through the kidneys, which may lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Since diuretics
decrease blood volume, they may predispose an exerciser to dehydration. Therefore, adequate fluid
intake before, during, and after exercise is important.
Minimize duration to no more than 30 minutes per session

This response is inappropriate because Bertha is already fit. She is taking a prescription diuretic
medication, which is typically prescribed for hypertension, but this does not preclude her from exercising
for more than 30 minutes, especially since she has already attained some level of fitness.
Monitor intensity using RPE instead of heart rate

This response is inappropriate because diuretic medication has no effect on resting or exercise heart rate.
Therefore, while using RPE isn't necessarily a poor method of monitoring intensity, especially while using
it in conjunction with percent VO2max or heart rate reserve, it is not the best response to this question.
Consuming fluids before, during, and after exercise is the most appropriate response for this question.
21. Which of the following is among the possible side effects of diuretic medication?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased blood volume
C. Water retention in the extremities
D. Electrolyte imbalance
Decreased heart rate
This response is incorrect. The primary effect of diuretic medication is increased excretion of water and
electrolytes through the kidneys, which may cause electrolyte imbalances and cardiac arrhythmias. Since
the diuretics may also decrease blood volume, they may predispose an exerciser to dehydration.
Decreased heart rate

Water retention in the extremities

DElectrolyte imbalance
This response is correct because the primary effect of diuretic medication is increased excretion of water
and electrolytes through the kidneys, which may cause electrolyte imbalances and cardiac arrhythmias.
Since the diuretics may also decrease blood volume, they may predispose an exerciser to dehydration.
22. A reduction in peripheral vascular resistance is a primary benefit of exercise in controlling

____________.
A. Peripheral vascular disease
B. Diabetes
C. Hypertension
D. Asthma
Peripheral vascular disease
This response is incorrect because the primary benefits of exercise for individuals with peripheral
vascular disease are that it helps to lower overall coronary artery disease risk factors and improves blood
flow and overall cardiovascular endurance. The correct response is a condition that is benefited by a
reduction in peripheral vascular resistance. Since high blood pressure is a condition that causes
increased peripheral resistance, hypertension is the correct answer.
Diabetes
This response is incorrect because the primary benefits of exercise for individuals with diabetes are
(when combined with diet) weight loss and weight control, improved circulation and cardiorespiratory
fitness, a reduced need for insulin, improved self-image, and an improved ability to deal with stress. As
stated in the stem of the question, the correct response is a condition that is benefited by a reduction in
peripheral vascular resistance. Since high blood pressure is a condition that causes increased peripheral
resistance, hypertension is the correct answer.
DHypertension
This is the correct response because high blood pressure is a condition that causes increased peripheral
resistance. Regular aerobic exercise appears to reduce both systolic and diastolic blood pressure by an
average of 10 mmHg, thereby reducing peripheral vascular resistance.
Asthma
This response is incorrect because among the primary benefits of exercise for individuals with asthma is
that it helps to reduce the ventilatory requirement for various tasks, making it easier to participate in
normal daily activities with less shortness of breath and fewer asthma attacks. The correct response is a
condition that is benefited by a reduction in peripheral vascular resistance. Since high blood pressure is a
condition that causes increased peripheral resistance, hypertension is the correct answer.
23. To experience a significant improvement in fitness, unfit individuals require a _______________.

A. Higher training dose than fit individuals
B. Lower training dose than fit individuals
C. Longer training duration than fit individuals
D. Higher training intensity than fit individuals
Higher training dose than fit individuals

This response is incorrect. Unfit individuals require a lower training dose than fit individuals. Most unfit
individuals need lower intensity, duration, and frequency programming than their more fit counterparts to
give their unconditioned bodies adequate time to adapt to the higher demands of exercise. Additionally,
unfit individuals experience higher gains in fitness improvements through lower doses of exercise than do
fit exercisers. This is a result of the fact that fitter individuals are closer to reaching their fitness potential
than unfit exercisers and have a less room for improvement.
DLower training dose than fit individuals

This response is correct. Most unfit individuals need lower intensity, duration, and frequency
programming than their more fit counterparts to give their unconditioned bodies adequate time to adapt to
the higher demands of exercise. Additionally, unfit individuals experience higher gains in fitness
improvements through lower doses of exercise than do fit exercisers. This is a result of the fact that fitter
individuals are closer to reaching their fitness potential than unfit exercisers and have less room for
improvement.
Longer training duration than fit individuals This response is incorrect because there is an increased
risk for musculoskeletal injuries with increased exercise duration, even at low intensities. Initially, aerobic
training duration should be kept low for unfit exercisers as low as 5-, 10-, or 15-minute bouts of exercise
depending on how unfit they are. As fitness improves, it is appropriate to gradually increase the training
duration.
Higher training intensity than fit individuals This response is incorrect. Unfit individuals require a lower
training intensity than fit individuals. Most unfit individuals need lower intensity, duration and frequency
programming than their more fit counterparts to give their unconditioned bodies adequate time to adapt to
the higher demands of exercise. Additionally, unfit individuals experience higher gains in fitness
improvements through lower doses of exercise than do fit exercisers. This is a result of the fact that fitter
individuals are closer to reaching their fitness potential than unfit exercisers and have a less room for
improvement.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 218, 2nd ed, pg. 318-319
24. You have just checked your client's heart rate after a 5-minute warm-up on the stationary bicycle and
noticed that her heart rate is 15 beats per minute higher than usual. She informs you that she is taking a
decongestant for her cold. You should _______________.
A. Refer her to a physician for medical clearance
B. Have her finish the remainder of her workout at the same intensity
C. Reduce the exercise intensity and monitor the session using rating of perceived exertion
D. Terminate the workout and reschedule the session when she is over her cold
Refer her to a physician for medical clearance

This response is incorrect because there is nothing in the stem of the question that indicates the
necessity to refer the client to a physician. In order to make a decision to refer a client to a physician, the
personal trainer needs information such as cardiovascular disease risk factors, cardiovascular disease
symptoms, or acute musculoskeletal injury.
Have her finish the remainder of her workout at the same intensity This response is incorrect
because it ignores the fact that the client's heart rate is elevated, which will affect the client's performance
and ability to work at her regular intensity level. Since her heart rate is elevated, the formula used to
determine exercise intensity is no longer valid. The best approach is to reduce exercise intensity and
monitor exercise using rating of perceived exertion.
DReduce the exercise intensity and monitor the session using rating of perceived exertion
This response is correct. The client's heart rate is elevated, which will affect her performance and ability
to work at her regular intensity level. Since the formula used to determine exercise intensity is no longer
valid due to her altered exercise heart rate, the best approach is to reduce exercise intensity and monitor
exercise using rating of perceived exertion.
Terminate the workout and reschedule the session when she is over her cold
This response is incorrect because it is unnecessary to terminate the workout at this time. Although she is
taking decongestant medication, as long as she can breathe with no problem and is not experiencing a
fever, she should be able to perform exercise at a reduced intensity without any problem.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 163 &242; 2nd ed., pg. 164 & 220
25. To assist your potential client's transition from the contemplation stage of change to the preparation stage
of change, which intervention should be used?
A. Formal contract
B. Periodic goal evaluation
C. Health-risk appraisal
D. Relapse prevention strategies
Formal contract
This response is incorrect because it assumes that the personal trainer and the client have already
developed clearly defined goals and are ready to embark on a training program by signing a formal
contract. Individuals in the contemplation stage of change are in the process of weighing the costs and
benefits of lifestyle modification. They are not yet ready to commit. This stage is often characterized by
ambivalence about changing.
Periodic goal evaluation
initiated a training program and have discussed or are contemplating the re-evaluation of the client's
goals as the program progresses. Individuals in the contemplation stage of change are in the process of
weighing the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. They are not yet ready to commit. This stage is
often characterized by ambivalence about changing.
DHealth-risk appraisal
This response is the best intervention because it assists the potential client in the process of weighing the
costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. Completing a health-risk appraisal and consulting with a
personal trainer about the results may initiate the motivation needed to progress to the preparation stage
of change. Often individuals in the contemplation stage are unaware of their own health risks and may be
motivated to change upon discovering their shortcomings.
Relapse prevention strategies
initiated a training program and have discussed or are contemplating strategies to address the client's
potential relapses. Individuals in the contemplation stage of change are in the process of weighing the
costs and benefits of lifestyle modification. They are not yet ready to commit. This stage is often
characterized by ambivalence about changing.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 411-412; 2nd ed, pg. 376
26. Which of the following programs is MOST appropriate to improve a client’s initial level of
conditioning?
A. 5-6 times per week, 30 minutes, 80% of VO2max
B. 2-4 times per week, 20-40 minutes, 65% of VO2max
C. 3-4 times per week, 20-30 minutes, 80% of VO2max
D. 3-5 times per week, 25 minutes, 70% of VO2max
5-6 times per week, 30 minutes, 80% of VO2max
This response is incorrect because the frequency is too aggressive. According to the ACSM guidelines for
cardiorespiratory endurance progression, the improvement conditioning stage consists of an intensity of
50-85% of VO2max, a frequency of 3-5 days per week and a duration of 20-60 minutes per session.
2-4 times per week, 20-40 minutes, 65% of VO2max

This response is incorrect because the frequency is too modest. According to the ACSM guidelines for
3-4 times per week, 20-30 minutes, 80% of VO2max

This response is incorrect because the frequency is too modest. According to the ACSM guidelines for
D3-5 times per week, 25 minutes, 70% of VO2max

This is the most appropriate program to improve a client's initial level of conditioning. All parameters fall
within the ACSM guidelines for cardiorespiratory endurance progression in the improvement conditioning
stage. These guidelines consist of an intensity of 50-85% of VO2max, a frequency of 3-5 days per week
and a duration of 20-60 minutes per session.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed. pg. 226; 2nd ed. pg. 221
27. When exercising in a hot environment, it is recommended that a person drink approximately
__________.
A. 2 to 4 fluid ounces of a sports drink every 10-15 minutes
B. 3 to 6 fluid ounces of water every 10-15 minutes
C. 32 fluid ounces of water within 30 minutes prior to, and following exercise
D. 1 ounce of fluid for every ounce of weight lost during exercise
2 to 4 fluid ounces of sports drink every 10-15 minutes

This response is incorrect. Consuming a sport drink is recommended when for individuals whose
workouts last longer than 60 minutes provided the drink is formulated with 6-8% carbohydrates plus at
least 100 mg of sodium per 8 ounces. The guideline for fluid replenishment while exercising in a hot
environment is to drink at least 3-6 ounces of water every 10-15 minutes during exercise. Additionally,
drink 8 ounces of water 20-30 minutes prior to exercise and 8-10 ounces of water in the 30 minutes
following exercise.
D3 to 6 fluid ounces of water every 10-15 minutes

This response is correct. The guideline for fluid replenishment while exercising in a hot environment is to
drink at least 3-6 ounces of water every 10-15 minutes during exercise. Additionally, drink 8 ounces of
water 20-30 minutes prior to exercise and 8-10 ounces of water in the 30 minutes following exercise.
32 fluid ounces of water within 30 minutes prior to, and following, exercise
This response is incorrect. The guideline for fluid replenishment while exercising in a hot environment is
to drink at least 3-6 ounces of water every 10-15 minutes during exercise. Additionally, it is advised to
drink 8 ounces of water 20-30 minutes prior to exercise and 8-10 ounces of water in the 30 minutes
following exercise.
1 ounce of fluid for every ounce of weight lost during exercise
This response is incorrect. The guideline for fluid replenishment while exercising in a hot environment is
to drink at least 3-6 ounces of water every 10-15 minutes during exercise. Additionally, drink 8 ounces of
water 20-30 minutes prior to exercise and 8-10 ounces of water in the 30 minutes following exercise. If
weighing the client before and after strenuous exercise, the amount of fluid consumed should equal 100-
150% of the fluid lost in sweat, that is, for every pound of body weight lost due to sweating, about 15-23
ounces of fluid need to be consumed.
28. When using a medicine ball for upper-body plyometric training, which of the following is activated when
the muscular contraction is initiated by catching a medicine ball?
A. Pacinian corpuscles
B. Muscle spindles
C. Extrafusal fibers
D. Golgi tendon organs
Pacinian corpuscles This response is incorrect because Pacinian corpuscles are mechanoreceptors
that are found in the tissues around joints that adapt rapidly following initiation of movement. They
presumably help detect the rate of joint rotation. Therefore, while they are active in joint movement, they
are not necessarily activated by muscular contraction when catching a medicine ball.
DMuscle spindles
This response is correct. The muscle spindle responds to a quick stretch of its associated muscle fibers
by creating a sudden, reflexive, protective muscular contraction. In the case of catching a medicine ball,
the muscle fibers of the anterior shoulder girdle and triceps are quickly stretched as they are called into
eccentric action to decelerate the velocity of the incoming ball. The muscle spindles are activated by this
quick movement and respond by calling on the muscles of the anterior shoulder girdle and triceps to
quickly contract, which results in the participant throwing the ball in return.
Extrafusal fibers
This response is incorrect because extrafusal fibers are regular muscle fibers. The muscle spindle is
composed of several thin muscle cells called intrafusal fibers that are surrounded by a connective tissue
sheath. The muscle spindles insert into connective tissue within the muscle, running parallel with the
muscle (extrafusal) fibers. The muscle spindle is activated when catching a medicine ball but the
extrafusal fibers are not. However, muscle spindle activation causes the extrafusal fibers to contract.
Golgi tendon organs

This response is incorrect because the Golgi tendon organ monitors tension produced by muscle
contraction and acts by inhibiting muscle contraction if excessive force arises. The Golgi tendon organ
plays an important role in strength activities but is not activated when a participant catches a medicine
ball.
29. What is the prime mover involved during flexion of the knee joint?
A. Rectus femoris
B. Biceps femoris
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Vastus medialis
Rectus femoris
This response is incorrect. The rectus femoris has two major actions hip flexion and knee extension. It is
included as one of the muscles that make up the quadriceps group.
DBiceps femoris
This response is correct. The biceps femoris has two major actions hip extension and knee flexion. It is
included as one of the muscles that make up the hamstrings group.
Vastus lateralis
This response is incorrect. The vastus lateralis has one major action knee extension. It is included as one
of the muscles that make up the quadriceps group.
Vastus medialis
This response is incorrect. The vastus medialis has one major action knee extension. It is included as one
of the muscles that make up the quadriceps group.
30. Your client has plateaued in her progress levels. Upon further review of the exercise record, you notice
that she has been averaging only two sessions per week over the last four weeks. Your BEST
recommendation is to _______________.
A. Suspect "burnout" and tell her to take a week off from training
B. Increase the frequency of training to three times per week
C. Tell her that exercise should be a priority and that she must attend more sessions
D. Lower her intensity level by 10% to increase compliance
Suspect "burnout" and tell her to take a week off from training
This response is incorrect because the personal trainer assumes/suspects that the client is experiencing
burnout without any communication from the client. It is best to discuss the client's behavior with her and
then reaffirm the programming components, as they are designed to help her reach her goals. The client
may or may not be experiencing "burnout." If she is, discussing alternative program options with her may
be more helpful than telling her to take a week off from training.
DIncrease the frequency of training to three times per week

This is the best recommendation as it will bring her up to the minimum recommended guideline for
frequency of physical activity and perhaps help her progress through her plateau. The personal trainer
also may want to discuss the reasons for the client's two-session-per-week average. Perhaps the client's
work or family obligations are getting in the way. If this is the case, the personal trainer may need to come
up with more convenient alternatives for exercise for the client.
Tell her that exercise should be a priority and that she must attend more sessions
This response is incorrect because it doesn't address the circumstances surrounding the client's lack of
exercise frequency. The personal trainer may want to discuss the reasons for the client's two-session-per-
week average. Perhaps the client's work or family obligations are getting in the way. If this is the case, the
personal trainer may need to come up with more convenient alternatives for exercise for the client.
Additionally, telling the client how she should feel about exercise may cause her to feel like a failure if her
feelings don't exactly match the trainer's. New clients sometimes have to shape their behavior and "learn"
to enjoy exercise gradually over time.
Lower her intensity level by 10% to increase compliance

This response is incorrect. While it is true that research shows more compliance with lower intensities, it
doesn't address the client's plateau issue. Lowering her intensity by 10% may cause her to regress, which
may be even more de-motivating to the client. At this time the best option is for the personal trainer to
recommend she increase her frequency to three days per week to help her progress through her plateau.
The personal trainer also may want to discuss the reasons for the client's two-session-per-week average.
Perhaps the client's work or family obligations are getting in the way. If this is the case, the personal
trainer may need to come up with more convenient alternatives for exercise for the client.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 226; 2nd ed, pg. 220-221
31. The results of a client's re-evaluation step test show a similar recovery heart rate to the initial evaluation.
This indicates _______________.
A. Improved cardiorespiratory fitness
B. No change in cardiorespiratory fitness
C. Low initial cardiorespiratory fitness
D. A need to refer the client to his or her physician
Improved cardiorespiratory fitness
This response is incorrect. In order for the client to have experienced an improvement in cardiorespiratory
fitness, the recovery heart rate would have had to decrease. The rate at which the pulse returns to normal
after exercise is a good measure of cardiorespiratory capacity; heart rate remains lower and recovers
faster in people who are more physically fit due to the body's improved ability to provide oxygen and
nutrients to the working muscles.
DNo change in cardiorespiratory fitness

This response is correct. In order for the client to have experienced an improvement in cardiorespiratory
fitness, the recovery heart rate would have had to decrease. The rate at which the pulse returns to normal
after exercise is a good measure of cardiorespiratory capacity; heart rate remains lower and recovers
faster in people who are more physically fit due to the body's improved ability to provide oxygen and
nutrients to the working muscles. Since the re-evaluation results showed no change in recovery heart
rate, the client's fitness level has not changed.
Low initial cardiorespiratory fitness This response is incorrect because it implies that initially the client
was at one fitness level and now the client has progressed to another fitness level. In order for the client
to have experienced an improvement in cardiorespiratory fitness, the recovery heart rate would have had
to decrease. Additionally, the stem of the question does not give enough information to assume that the
client started at a low cardiorespiratory fitness level. We have no information about the level at which the
client initiated the program.
A need to refer the client to his or her physician

This response is incorrect because there is nothing that indicates the necessity to refer the client to a
physician. In order to make a decision to refer a client to a physician, the personal trainer needs
information such as cardiovascular disease risk factors, cardiovascular disease symptoms, or acute
musculoskeletal injury.
32. The 1996 Surgeon General's Report on Physical Activity and Health and ACSM's guidelines (2000)
emphasize that the public can obtain heath benefits from a MINIMUM of _______________.
A. 20 minutes or more of low-intensity physical activity, 3-5 days a week
B. 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity, on most, preferably all, days of the week
C. 30 consecutive minutes of moderate-to-high-intensity exercise, 4-5 days a week
D. 20 consecutive minutes of structured, moderate-intensity exercise at least 3-5 days a week
20 minutes or more of low-intensity physical activity, 3-5 days a week This response is incorrect
because it is too modest in its recommendations for duration, intensity, and frequency. The guideline is 30
minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week.
D30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the
week
This response is correct. These guidelines were established because previous public health efforts to
promote physical activity overemphasized the importance of high-intensity exercise. The ACSM
recognized that most people prefer a less technical, more informal approach to exercise programming
and developed this guideline to help exercise appear less intimidating to the general public. Additionally,
the ACSM's latest recommendation allows for the physical activity to be accumulated throughout the day
in shorter bouts of exercise as long as 30 minutes total is accomplished by the end of the day.
30 consecutive minutes of moderate to high-intensity exercise, 4-5 days a week This response is
incorrect because it is too aggressive in its recommendations for consecutive duration and intensity and
not aggressive enough in its recommendation for frequency. The guideline is 30 minutes or more of
moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week. Additionally, the ACSM's
latest recommendation allows for the physical activity to be accumulated throughout the day in shorter
bouts of exercise as long as 30 minutes total is accomplished by the end of the day.
20 consecutive minutes of structured, moderate-intensity exercise at least 3-5 days a week

This response is incorrect because it is too modest in its recommendation for consecutive duration and
frequency. The guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably
all, days of the week. Additionally, the ACSM's latest recommendation allows for the physical activity to
be accumulated throughout the day in shorter bouts of exercise as long as 30 minutes total is
accomplished by the end of the day.
33. According to ACSM and the Centers for Disease Control, the MINIMUM amount of physical activity
required for health benefits is _______________.
A. 20 minutes of high-intensity activity, 3 days per week
B. 40 minutes of low-intensity activity, 5 to 7 days per week
C. 30 minutes of moderate-intensity, 5 to 7 days per week
D. 60 minutes of moderate-intensity, 3 days per week
20 minutes of high-intensity activity, 3 days per week
This response is incorrect because it is too aggressive in its recommendation for intensity and not
aggressive enough in its recommendations for duration and frequency. The guideline is 30 minutes or
more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week.
40 minutes of low-intensity activity, 5 to 7 days per week

This response is incorrect because it is too modest in its recommendation for intensity and too aggressive
in its recommendation for duration. The guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical
activity on most, preferably all, days of the week.
D30 minutes of moderate-intensity, 5 to 7 days per week

This response is correct. Stated another way, the guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity
physical activity on most, preferably all, days of the week.
60 minutes of moderate-intensity, 3 days per week This response is incorrect because it is too
aggressive in its recommendation for duration and not aggressive enough in its recommendation for
frequency. The guideline is 30 minutes or more of moderate-intensity physical activity on most, preferably
all, days of the week.
34. What should be emphasized during the first 6 to 12 weeks of a beginner's exercise program?
A. Attendance
B. Long-term goals
C. Increasing muscular strength and power
D. Improving anthropometric measurements
DAttendance
This is the most appropriate response because behavior change works best when the final objective can
be reduced to component parts that the client can address one step at a time. Research suggests that
focused, rather than broad multi-component programming yields better initial outcomes. Therefore,
emphasizing the attendance behavior in the first 6-12 weeks will help the client to feel successful
immediately without focusing on performance measures that take several weeks to improve.
Long-term goals
This response is incorrect because research suggests that focused, rather than broad multi-component
programming yields better initial outcomes. A long-term goal is too broad and too far off into the future to
motivate compliance to the program. Clients may see their immediate failure to change as reflective of
poor motivation or insufficient ability. Short-term,behavior-focused goals work best during the initial 6-12
weeks of a beginner’s exercise program.
Increasing muscular strength and power

This response is incorrect because performance goals, such as muscular strength and power, take
several weeks, if not months, to improve. Clients may see their immediate failure to change as reflective
of poor motivation or insufficient ability. Short-term, behavior-focused goals work best during the initial 6-
12 weeks of a beginner’s exercise program.
Improving anthropometric measurements

This response is incorrect because anthropometric assessments, such as circumference measurements
and body composition, take several weeks, if not months, to improve. Clients may see their immediate
failure to change as reflective of poor motivation or insufficient ability. Short-term, behavior-focused goals
work best during the initial 6-12 weeks of a beginner’s exercise program.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 415-417; 2nd ed, pg. 336-341
35. Reducing exercise intensity is recommended in which of the following situations?

A. In 70% humidity at room temperature
B. In 50% humidity at near freezing
C. At an altitude of 1500 feet (455 meters)
D. Following a 2-week period of complete rest
In 70% humidity at room temperature
This response is incorrect. Due to the fact that muscle fatigue accelerates while exercising in hot, humid
environments, reducing exercise intensity is indicated when relative humidity approaches more than 80%
and air temperature is greater than skin temperature (which is approximately 89.6 degrees Fahrenheit
when the air is still). Therefore, 70% humidity and room temperature (which ranges from 70 to 80 degrees
Fahrenheit) are not indications of reducing exercise intensity.
In 50% humidity at near freezing

This response is incorrect. Exercising in a cold environment enhances an individual's ability to lose heat
and therefore greatly reduces the chance of heat injury. In general, the combination of metabolic heat
production and warm clothing prevents the development of hypothermia during short-term exercise in the
cold. Therefore, 50% humidity and a near freezing temperature are not indications of reducing exercise
intensity.
At an altitude of 1500 feet (455 meters)

This response is incorrect. The physiological effects of altitude usually are seen at elevations above 4,900
feet (1,500 meters). These effects are brought on by the fact that there is less oxygen in the air at higher
altitudes resulting in a faster heart beat at any given submaximal intensity. Therefore, it is appropriate to
decrease exercise intensity at higher altitudes, but at an elevation of 1,500 feet it is not necessary.
DFollowing a 2-week period of complete rest
This response is correct. Studies have demonstrated that within two weeks after the cessation of regular
physical activity, significant reductions in VO2max can occur. This is an important concept for personal
trainers to understand as they may train clients who return after being ill or from being on vacation for
several weeks. Lowering exercise intensity and gradually increasing it to pre-rest levels is appropriate.
36. Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?

A. "What do you hope to achieve from an exercise program?"
B. "Do you enjoy exercising?"
C. "Are you more interested in weight training or flexibility training?"
D. "Have you had success in previous exercise programs?"
D"What do you hope to achieve from an exercise program?"
This response is correct because it allows the client to explore his/her own thoughts without being
hemmed in to a short response such as "yes" or "no." This is the best type of question for a personal
trainer to ask when trying to get a deeper understanding of what the client is trying to express.
"Do you enjoy exercising?"
This response is incorrect because it is a closed-ended question. It directs the client to give a short
response such as "yes" or "no." The personal trainer should avoid this type of question when trying to get
the client to open up and give more details.
"Are you more interested in weight training or flexibility training?"
response. When the client responds by simply choosing weight training or flexibility training, the personal
trainer has no idea why the client is interested in one activity more than the other. The personal trainer
should avoid this type of question when trying to get the client to open up and give more details.
"Have you had success in previous exercise programs?"
response such as "yes" or "no." The personal trainer should avoid this type of question when trying to get
the client to open up and give more details.
37. Which exercise is considered high-risk for a client with a history of impingement syndrome?
A. Seated row
B. Lateral raise below shoulder height
C. Incline shoulder press
D. Decline chest press
Seated row This response is incorrect because this exercise does not require abducting the arms above
shoulder level or lifting the arms overhead. Shoulder impingement syndrome is caused by swollen rotator
cuff muscles that get pinched between the shoulder bursa and the scapula when the arm is abducted.
Therefore, exercises such as overhead presses, military presses, lat pull-downs, and incline presses may
aggravate this condition. Lateral raise below shoulder height
This response is incorrect because this exercise does not require abducting the arms above shoulder
level or lifting the arms overhead. Shoulder impingement syndrome is caused by swollen rotator cuff
muscles that get pinched between the shoulder bursa and the scapula when the arm is abducted.
aggravate this condition.
DIncline shoulder press This response is considered high-risk for a client with a history of shoulder
impingement because it requires the client to lift the arms above shoulder level and overhead. Shoulder
impingement syndrome is caused by swollen rotator cuff muscles that get pinched between the shoulder
bursa and the scapula when the arm is abducted. Therefore, exercises such as overhead presses,
military presses, lat pull-downs, and incline presses may aggravate this condition.
Decline chest press
This response is incorrect because this exercise does not require abducting the arms above shoulder
level or lifting the arms overhead. Shoulder impingement syndrome is caused by swollen rotator cuff
muscles that get pinched between the shoulder bursa and the scapula when the arm is abducted.
aggravate this condition.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 60 & 431; 2nd ed., pg. 61
38. A client has achieved his goal of running a 10K (6.2 miles) in 50 minutes but now would like to improve
his time. His program consists of runs of 30-50 minutes, three to four times per week. How should the
personal trainer modify the client's program to help him achieve his new goal?
A. Incorporate a strength-training program to increase quadriceps strength
B. Increase the duration of his runs to 60 minutes each
C. Substitute two days per week of cross training with cycling
D. Incorporate a running interval training program
Incorporate a strength-training program to increase quadriceps strength

This answer is incorrect because to improve performance the client needs to train with respect to the
principle of specificity. While strength-training is important for developing a base level of conditioning in
the quadriceps, which are heavily involved in running, it is not specific to endurance activities such as
running. Strength-training emphasizes fast-twitch Type IIb muscle fiber recruitment, whereas
cardiorespiratory endurance training recruits primarily slow-twitch muscle fibers. However, research
shows it is possible to increase the oxidative capacity of fast-twitch Type IIa muscle fibers, which have
slightly more endurance capabilities than fast-twitch Type IIb fibers. This is most effectively accomplished
through an anaerobic interval training program. Therefore, a program to help the client achieve his new
goal should focus on running with anaerobic intervals.
Increase the duration of his runs to 60 minutes each

This response is incorrect because to improve performance the client needs to train with respect to the
principle of specificity. His goal is to decrease his running time, which currently stands at 50 minutes. This
response has the client increase his running time, ignoring the fact that the client needs to pick up his
pace and shorten his time to achieve his goal.
Substitute two days per week of cross training with cycling

This response is incorrect because to improve performance the client needs to train with respect to the
principle of specificity. Having the client perform cross training via a non-weightbearing activity such as
cycling two days per week is not specific enough to his competition mode of activity, which is running.
However, cross training is important for decreasing injury risk and boredom for the participant. A better
option for cross training for a competitive runner would be different terrains or other land-based
weightbearing activities.
DIncorporate a running interval training program
This is the most appropriate program to help the client reach his new goal. Anaerobic interval training is
effective in increasing speed, lactate threshold, and overall aerobic power. The probability of
musculoskeletal injury is greater because of the high muscle contraction velocities and forces associated
with this type of training. Therefore, this type of training should be reserved for clients in the higher
cardiorespiratory fitness classifications and should be limited to a frequency of approximately two times
per week.
39. Compared to performing exercise at sea level, an individual training at the same intensity at 5000 feet
(approx. 1500 meters) will experience a _______________.
A. Higher VO2max
B. Higher lactic acid threshold
C. Higher exercise heart rate
D. Decrease in respiratory rate
Higher VO2max
altitudes, resulting in a faster heart beat at any given submaximal intensity. During exercise, the heart rate
at any given intensity may be as much as 50% higher than normal, which indicates a decrease in
cardiorespiratory function.
Higher lactic acid threshold

This response is incorrect because a higher lactic acid threshold would indicate an improvement in
cardiorespiratory function. The physiological effects of altitude usually are seen at elevations above 4,900
altitudes, resulting in a faster heart beat at any given submaximal intensity, which indicates a decrease in
cardiorespiratory function.
DHigher exercise heart rate

This response is correct. The physiological effects of altitude usually are seen at elevations above 4,900
altitudes, resulting in a faster heart beat at any given submaximal intensity.
Decrease in respiratory rate

altitudes, resulting in a faster heart beat at any given submaximal intensity. Additionally, to compensate
for the lack of oxygen at altitude the respiratory system increases breathing rate.
40. When scheduling your client for reassessment, you should inform your client to_______________.
A. Practice the assessment once before the actual reassessment
B. Refrain from taking any medication
C. Avoid the use of stimulants before the assessment
D. Refrain from eating for at least 8 hours before the assessment
Practice the assessment once before the actual reassessment

This response is incorrect because the protocols for standardized fitness testing do not call for a practice
assessment prior to the actual reassessment due to the possibility of undue fatigue. If, for example, a
practice assessment occurs immediately prior to a physical fitness reassessment, the client will have had
no opportunity to rest and may be fatigued while performing the actual assessment. This would skew the
results, therefore making the data unreliable.
Refrain from taking any medication

This response is incorrect because of the possibility that a client may be taking prescription medication or
over-the-counter medication per his/her physician's direction. It is outside the scope of practice for a
personal trainer to make recommendations about a client's medicinal use.
DAvoid the use of stimulants before the assessment

This is an appropriate recommendation for a personal trainer to give to a client. Stimulants such as
caffeine affect exercise heart rate and may skew the results of fitness testing. Therefore, the fitness
testing data is more reliable if the client avoids stimulants prior to the assessment. However, if a client is
taking a stimulant under the direction of a physician, the personal trainer must refrain from advising the
client to stop taking it before the assessment.
Refrain from eating for at least 8 hours before the assessment

This response is incorrect because fasting for 8 hours prior to assessment would leave a client with very
low blood sugar. Most fitness assessments require a client's all-out effort and having low blood sugar
could be detrimental to performance. The typical recommendation is for a client to refrain from eating
approximately 2 hours prior to the assessment.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 415-420, 2nd ed, pgs. 170-173
41. What type of body language BEST conveys empathy, warmth, and genuineness to a potential client?
A. Forward lean and crossed arms
B. Open position with arms and legs uncrossed
C. Backward lean and squared shoulders
D. Crossed arms and uncrossed legs
Forward lean and crossed arms This response is incorrect because having crossed arms may be
interpreted as a nonverbal cue meaning the personal trainer is closed off from communication and
unavailable for attentive listening. The best posture for communicating interest is one in which the
personal trainer is facing the client squarely at eye level and leaning toward the client in a relaxed manner
maintaining an open position with arms and legs uncrossed. This posture says "I am interested in you and
am ready to listen."
DOpen position with arms and legs uncrossed This response best conveys empathy, warmth, and
genuineness. The best posture for communicating interest is one in which the personal trainer is facing
the client squarely at eye level and leaning toward the client in a relaxed manner maintaining an open
position with arms and legs uncrossed. This posture says "I am interested in you and am ready to listen."
Backward lean and squared shoulders

This response is incorrect because the backward lean may be interpreted as a nonverbal cue meaning
the personal trainer is closed off from communication and unavailable for attentive listening. The best
posture for communicating interest is one in which the personal trainer is facing the client squarely at eye
level and leaning toward the client in a relaxed manner maintaining an open position with arms and legs
uncrossed. This posture says "I am interested in you and am ready to listen."
Crossed arms and uncrossed legs

This response is incorrect because the crossed arms may be interpreted as a nonverbal cue meaning the
personal trainer is closed off from communication and unavailable for attentive listening. The best posture
for communicating interest is one in which the personal trainer is facing the client squarely at eye level
and leaning toward the client in a relaxed manner maintaining an open position with arms and legs
uncrossed. This posture says "I am interested in you and am ready to listen."
42. Which of the following is MOST critical to the development of the client/trainer relationship?
A. A comprehensive contract
B. A flexible and accommodating schedule
C. A development of trust
D. A persistent expression of optimism
A comprehensive contract
This response is incorrect because the creation of a contract does nothing to address the development of
rapport between the personal trainer and the client. To establish rapport the personal trainer must exhibit
empathy, warmth, and genuineness toward the client. Rapport means a relationship of mutual trust,
harmony, or emotional affinity and it begins at first contact. Therefore, creating a comprehensive contract
comes much later in the personal trainer/client relationship.
A flexible and accommodating schedule

This response is incorrect. Having a flexible and accommodating schedule provides a good foundation for
enhancing the client's adherence potential, but it does nothing to address the development of rapport
between the personal trainer and the client. To establish rapport the personal trainer must exhibit
empathy, warmth, and genuineness toward the client so that a mutual trust can develop.
DA development of trust
This response is correct. In order to develop a strong personal trainer/client relationship, a good rapport
must be established. To establish rapport the personal trainer must exhibit empathy, warmth, and
genuineness toward the client. Rapport means a relationship of mutual trust, harmony, or emotional
affinity and it begins at first contact.
A persistent expression of optimism

This response is incorrect. While it is pleasant for the personal trainer to remain optimistic it does nothing
to address the development of rapport between the personal trainer and the client. To establish rapport
the personal trainer must exhibit empathy, warmth, and genuineness toward the client. Rapport means a
relationship of mutual trust, harmony, or emotional affinity and it begins at first contact.
43. Which of the following produces a stretch reflex when stimulated?

A. Muscle spindles
B. Sarcomeres
C. Golgi tendon organ
D. Motor end plates
DMuscle spindles This response is correct. The stretch reflex is the phenomenon associated with the
activation of the muscle spindle. The muscle spindle responds to a quick stretch of its associated muscle
fibers by creating a sudden, reflexive, protective muscular contraction. This protective muscular
contraction is called the stretch reflex.
Sarcomeres
This response is incorrect because sarcomeres are components of muscle fibers that, in and of
themselves, do not cause or activate the stretch reflex. However, they are involved once the stretch reflex
is initiated because they contain the contractile fibers of the muscle cell.
Golgi tendon organ

This response is incorrect because the Golgi tendon organ monitors tension produced by muscle
contraction and acts by inhibiting muscle contraction if excessive force arises. In extreme cases of muscle
stretch, the Golgi tendon organ may be called on to inhibit the contracting muscle and relax the entire
muscle to prevent rupture.
Motor end plates

This response is incorrect because the motor end plate is a pocket that surrounds the junction of the
motor neuron and muscle cell and is not responsible for producing the stretch reflex.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 26 & 309-310; 2nd ed., pg. 26 & 295-296
44. Exercise has been shown to be an effective stress-management technique because it _______________.
A. Causes the release of catecholamines
B. Provides a positive distraction
C. Suppresses T-cell function
D. Lowers resting heart rate
Causes the release of catecholamines
This response is incorrect. Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) act on the sympathetic
nervous system to cause an increase in heart rate and mobilization of fatty acids. Therefore, the release
of catecholamines does not effectively manage stress.
DProvides a positive distraction

This response is correct because, mentally, exercise provides an outlet for negative emotions such as
frustration, anger, and irritability, thereby promoting a more positive mood and outlook. Exercise also
allows individuals to focus on something other than the stressors in their lives. When people are
exercising, they are focusing on performance and breath, both of which are positive distracters from life's
daily stressors.
Suppresses T-cell function

This response is incorrect because a bout of moderate exercise boosts natural immune functions for up to
several hours. T-cells function to defend directly against viral and fungal infections and contribute to
regulating other important immune mechanisms. This would aid in stress management. Some research
has shown that exhaustive, high-intensity bouts of exercise can actually suppress the immune system.
However, this response is still not the best choice because there is no indication in the stem of the
question as to what intensity of exercise it is referring.
Lowers resting heart rate

This response is incorrect because although regular cardiorespiratory exercise has been shown to reduce
resting heart rate, this does not effectively manage stress.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 214 & 331; 2nd ed., pg 210
45. Which of the following statements provides the MOST specific feedback?
A. “Try again. You need to work on your body positioning.”
B. “Good job Brigitte. You have improved a lot since we first began last week.”
C. “Great. Your torso is much more stable with your spine in the neutral position.”
D. “Good biceps curls. You’re looking strong.”
"Try again. You need to work on your body positioning."
This response is incorrect because although it is specific, it does not address how to correct the body
position. The client needs specific instruction on exactly what to correct so that the next set of the
exercise can be performed with proper technique.
"Good job Brigitte. You have improved a lot since we first began last week."
This response is incorrect because it does not inform her exactly what about her performance has
improved. A better statement is, "Good job Brigitte. Since we first began last week you have increased
your bench press by 10 pounds and you have extended your treadmill time by 15 minutes."
D"Great. Your torso is much more stable with your spine in the neutral position."
This response provides the most specific feedback. It addresses the client's great performance and
provides a reason why the performance has improved over previous attempts. Now this client has a
better idea of how to perform the exercise with proper technique on future attempts.
"Good biceps curls. You're looking strong."

This response is incorrect. It addresses the fact that the client has performed good biceps curls, but it
does not indicate why the biceps curls were good. Additionally, the comment about looking strong does
not address the performance of the exercise. Appropriate, specific feedback addresses performance and
gives educational cues for performing the exercise with good technique.
46. Which of the following BEST describes a motor unit?

A. A neuron that provides information regarding length and tension of muscle fibers
B. The interface between the end of a myelinated motor neuron and a muscle fiber
C. A motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates
D. A nerve cell that conducts impulses from the central nervous system to a group of muscle fibers
A neuron that provides information regarding length and tension of muscle fibers
This response is incorrect. A motor unit is a motor nerve and all the muscle fibers it innervates. This
response is describing proprioceptors such as muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs; respectively.
The interface between the end of a myelinated motor neuron and a muscle fiber
response is describing the neuromuscular junction, where the sarcolemma forms a pocket that is called
the motor end plate.
DA motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates

This response is correct. A motor unit is a motor nerve and all the muscle fibers it innervates.
A nerve cell that conducts impulses from the central nervous system to a group of muscle fibers
response is describing a component of the peripheral nervous system, the efferent nerve fiber.
47. Weight loss during an exercise session is primarily the result of _______________.
A. Lactic acid accumulation
B. Fat metabolism
C. Dehydration
D. Glycogen depletion
Lactic acid
This response is incorrect because lactic acid accumulation does not affect body weight.
Fat metabolism
This response is incorrect because the oxidation of fat does not result in weight loss during a single
exercise session.
DDehydration
This response is correct. Any body weight lost during an exercise session is the result of respiration,
sweat, and urine production. In other words, a loss in body weight during exercise is due to water loss.
Glycogen depletion
This response is incorrect because glycogen depletion does not result in a loss of body weight during a
single exercise session.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 141-142; 2nd ed., pgs. 140-141
48. Which of the following environmental factors has the GREATEST impact on exercise safety?
A. Time of day
B. Humidity/heat
C. Wind speed
D. Visibility factors
Time of day
This response is incorrect because the time of day as an isolated factor has no consistent effect on
exercise safety. However, when combined with heat and humidity, the time of day is an important
environmental factor because outdoor exercisers should avoid training during the times of the sun's
highest radiation potential between 10 am and 2 pm.
DHumidity/heat This response poses the greatest impact on environmental exercise safety. Due to the
fact that muscle fatigue accelerates while exercising in hot, humid environments, reducing exercise
intensity is indicated when relative humidity approaches 80% and air temperature is greater than skin
temperature (which is approximately 89.6 degrees Fahrenheit when the air is still). The main concerns of
exercising in the heat and humidity are replenishment of water and allowing the maximum amount of
sweat to evaporate. If these two needs are not met, the internal body temperature may rise to dangerous
levels and heat exhaustion or heat stroke may occur.
Wind speed
This response is incorrect because wind speed as an isolated factor has no consistent effect on exercise
safety (unless of course the exerciser is training in a hurricane or tornado). However, when combined with
cold air, wind speed is an important environmental factor because the higher the speed, the more quickly
body heat is lost. Outdoor exercisers should dress in layers when exercising in the cold and protect their
hands, ears, and noses with the appropriate coverage.
Visibility factors This response is incorrect because although visibility is an important issue, particularly
for individuals exercising when it's dark outside, it is not likely to have as great of an impact on
environmental exercise safety as humidity and heat.
49. Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for a client who is at risk of relapsing?
A. You really need to work out four times a week while on vacation.
B. You must find time during your vacation for exercise.
C. If you discontinue your exercise, think of all the health benefits you will lose.
D. In case you don’t find a gym to work out, exercise by doing your sightseeing on foot.
You really need to work out four times a week while on vacation.
This response is incorrect because it does not take into account the fact that the client is on vacation.
When individuals vacation, their day-to-day behaviors are likely to change because their daily routines will
likely be altered. It is important for a personal trainer to understand this and provide alternatives for
exercise while on vacation. For example, working out in a gym may not be possible while on vacation so
the personal trainer should advise the client on activities such as walking and hiking that will likely be
more convenient. Additionally, since the client will have a vacation mind-set, instructing him/her to "work
out" may make it seem too much like work. Allowing the client to increase physical activity through other
means may help with adherence and prevent a relapse.
You must find time during your vacation for exercise.

This response is incorrect because it provides no options for the client. Adherence will likely increase if
the client feels they have a choice when planning their physical activity. It is important for a personal
trainer to understand this and provide alternatives for exercise while on vacation. For example, working
out in a gym may not be possible while on vacation so the personal trainer should advise the client on
activities such as walking and hiking that will likely be more convenient. Additionally, a relapse may be
prevented if the client engages in a new physical activity he/she has never tried before. For example, a
client might try kayaking for the first time on a vacation. The personal trainer should inform the client that
kayaking is a great way to get physical activity. It seems like play to the client, yet it is an acceptable form
of exercise.
If you discontinue your exercise, think of all the health benefits you will lose.
This response is incorrect because it places blame on the client which will result in feelings of guilt and
shame if the client does not work out while on vacation. This puts the client at risk for relapse because
he/she may decide there is no use in continuing because of failure to exercise while on vacation.
Understandably, when individuals are on vacation their exercise behaviors may decrease. It is important
for the personal trainer to let the client know that taking it a little easy on vacation is nothing to worry
about. Providing alternatives to traditional exercise such as walking, hiking, or bicycling for vacationing
clients is likely to increase adherence.
DIn case you don't find a gym to work out, exercise by doing your sightseeing on foot.
This is the most appropriate response for a client on the verge of a relapse. When individuals vacation,
their day-to-day behaviors are likely to change because their daily routines will likely be altered. It is
important for a personal trainer to understand this and provide alternatives for exercise while on vacation.
For example, working out in a gym may not be possible while on vacation so the personal trainer should
advise the client on activities such as walking and hiking that will likely be more convenient. Additionally,
since the client will have a vacation mind-set, instructing him/her to "work out" may, make it seem too
much like work. Allowing the client to increase physical activity through other means may help with
adherence and prevent a relapse.
50. The BEST method of maintaining client motivation is to _______________.

A. Administer monthly fitness evaluations
B. Establish realistic expectations and monitor progress
C. Compare the client's progress to established norms
D. Record weekly body-weight measurements
Administer monthly fitness evaluations

This response is incorrect because one month between fitness evaluations is not enough time for the
client to achieve progress toward his/her goals. Re-evaluating a client before significant results can be
seen may cause the client to feel that the effort put forth in his/her exercise program is not worth it. In
other words, if the personal trainer does not allow enough time to pass between fitness evaluations the
client may see little or no progress and become unmotivated to continue. A waiting period of three months
between fitness assessments is typically enough time for the client to achieve significant progress.
DEstablish realistic expectations and monitor progress

This response is the best method for maintaining client motivation. Expectations formalized as written
goals increase the client's personal responsibility and commitment to the exercise program. The goals
should be somewhat challenging, yet realistically achievable to promote success. Exercise goals should
be written in a manner that allows them to be objectively measured, thereby eliminating any questions
regarding goal attainment.
Compare the client's progress to established norms
The response is incorrect because it is not the best method for maintaining client motivation. While
comparing a client's progress to established norms can be effective with certain clients, other clients may
feel intimidated and ashamed of their lack of progress when compared to standardized norms. When
clients feel intimidated due to a lack of personal accomplishment, they are less likely to adhere to the
program.
Record weekly body-weight measurements This response is incorrect because one week between
body-weight measurements is not enough time for the client to achieve progress toward his/her goals.
Re-evaluating a client before significant results can be seen may cause the client to feel that the effort put
forth in his/her exercise program is not worth it. In other words, if the personal trainer does not allow
enough time to pass between fitness evaluations the client may see little or no progress and become
unmotivated to continue. Additionally, measuring body weight alone does not provide the personal trainer
or the client with information regarding progress in body composition. A waiting period of three months
between body composition assessments is typically enough time for the client to achieve significant
progress.
51. Distributing photocopies of articles found in popular fitness magazines without prior consent from the
publisher is a violation of ______________ law.
A. Publication
B. Copyright
C. Trademark
D. Contract
Publication
This response is incorrect. Copyright law is an intellectual property law requiring that for copyrighted
material to be reproduced, the user must obtain express written consent from the copyright holder for
distribution and/or adaptation.
DCopyright
This response is correct. Copyright law is an intellectual property law requiring that for copyrighted
distribution and/or adaptation. A copyright gives the owner the exclusive right to reproduce, distribute,
perform, display, or license his or her work.
Trademark
distribution and/or adaptation. Trademarks are generally distinctive symbols, pictures, or words that
sellers affix to distinguish and identify the origin of their products.
Contract
distribution and/or adaptation. Contract law deals with two parties making a verbal or non-verbal
agreement where both parties contribute to the action detailed in the agreement.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pgs. 494-495; 2nd ed, pg 453
52. What type of insurance would protect a facility in the event it was sued by a member who lost his balance
on a stair-stepping machine and strained his lower back?
A. General liability
B. Professional liability
C. Personal injury
D. Medical insurance
DGeneral liability
This response is correct. General liability insurance guarantees financial protection to an owner who
might be required to pay damages resulting from negligent conduct that causes personal injury, death, or
property damage. One study reported that slips and falls accounted for 31% of total claims filed against
fitness facilities and 48% of the claims cost. To implement loss control measures, it is advised that fitness
facilities give all members instruction on proper usage of cardiovascular equipment.
Professional liability
This response is incorrect because professional liability insurance protects personal trainers from
allegations claiming injury to clients due to improper supervision of fitness activities, failure to adequately
instruct, improper use or recommendation of equipment, and exposure to injury from substandard
facilities. This response would be more correct if the client was under the care of a personal trainer acting
as an independent contractor during a training session.
Personal injury
This response is incorrect because the type of insurance that would protect the facility in this situation is
general liability. Disability insurance is the type of coverage that provides income protection should the
personal trainer become injured. This type of insurance is typically purchased by an individual and
provides income even if the injury occurs outside of work (unlike worker's compensation).
Medical insurance
This response is incorrect because the type of insurance that would protect the facility in this situation is
general liability. Medical insurance provides hospitalization and major medical coverage and is often
provided to employees by employers. Independent contractors are rarely granted this benefit.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 483.
53. The husband of a client training under your supervision calls to request progress information so that he
can evaluate the cost-effectiveness of the program. Your client has been doing well and states that she
enjoys working with you. You should ________________.
A. Discuss the inquiry with your client before responding to her husband
B. Tell him that she is making very good progress and appears to enjoy the sessions
C. Politely decline to discuss his wife's progress and suggest he communicate directly with her
D. Ask your client for permission before you provide her husband progress information
Discuss the inquiry with your client before responding to her husband
embarrassment and fraudulent activity such as identity theft.
Tell him that she is making very good progress and appears to enjoy the sessions
DPolitely decline to discuss his wife's progress and suggest he communicate directly with her
This response is correct. Every client has the right to expect all personal data and discussion with an
Ask your client for permission before you provide her husband progress information
This response is incorrect. Although it is appropriate to ask the client permission to disclose her personal
information, the best course of action for the personal trainer is to remove oneself from the
communication process between the husband and wife. Politely declining to discuss his wife's progress
and suggesting he communicates directly with her helps to keep the personal trainer separate from the
client's personal life and issues.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 495; 2nd ed., 399-400
54. Which of the following BEST describes an informed consent form?

A. It releases the personal trainer from liability for injuries sustained during an exercise program
B. It acknowledges the risks involved in the activity in which one is about to engage
C. It is an understanding that the personal trainer's actions must be appropriate for the age and condition
of the client
D. It replaces a physician's release form to absolve the personal trainer of liability for injury
It releases the personal trainer from liability for injuries sustained during an exercise program
This response is incorrect. An informed consent form is primarily intended to communicate the dangers of
the exercise program or testing procedures to the client. When a client signs an informed consent form,
he/she is acknowledging to have been specifically informed about the risk associated with the activity in
which he/she is about to engage. The document described in this response is a Release of Liability.
DIt acknowledges the risks involved in the activity in which one is about to engage
This response is correct. An informed consent form is primarily intended to communicate the dangers of
which he/she is about to engage.
It is an understanding that the personal trainer's actions must be appropriate for the age and
condition of the client
which he/she is about to engage. This response is describing a personal trainer's Standard of Care, which
is evaluated against the current professional standards (i.e., what other fitness professionals of similar
training would do in the same situation).
It replaces a physician's release form to absolve the personal trainer of liability for injury
which he/she is about to engage. Additionally, it is important to note that nothing replaces a physician's
release form!
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 476-481; 2nd ed., pgs. 439-444
55. Which of the following represents the MOST responsible risk-management protocol?
A. Waiver of liability, medical screening, liability insurance, program guidelines, re-evaluation
B. Progression of activities, fitness testing, informed consent, identification of risks, waiver of liability
C. Identification of risks, evaluation of risks, selection of approach for managing each risk,
implementation, evaluation
D. Medical screening, identification of risks, liability insurance, fitness testing, waiver of liability
Waiver of liability, medical screening, liability insurance, program guidelines, re-evaluation
This response is incorrect because it does not follow guidelines set forth for the process of risk
management. Most authorities recommend a five-step risk management protocol: (1) identification of
risks, (2) evaluation of each risk, (3) selection of an approach for managing each risk, (4) implementation,
and (5) evaluation. These steps allow the facility manager to reduce costly injuries by periodically
reviewing programs, facilities, and equipment to evaluate potential dangers to clients. While the forms
and processes stated in this response are important for any fitness-related program, they are not the
most responsible means for assessing risk management.
Progression of activities, fitness testing, informed consent, identification of risks, waiver of

liability
This response is incorrect because it does not follow guidelines set forth for the process of risk
management. Most authorities recommend a five-step risk management protocol: (1) identification of
risks, (2) evaluation of each risk, (3) selection of an approach for managing each risk, (4) implementation,
and (5) evaluation. These steps allow the facility manager to reduce costly injuries by periodically
reviewing programs, facilities, and equipment to evaluate potential dangers to clients. While the forms
and processes stated in this response are important for any fitness-related program, they are not the
most responsible means for assessing risk management.
DIdentification of risks, evaluation of risks, selection of approach for managing each risk,
implementation, evaluation
This response is correct. Most authorities recommend a five-step risk management protocol: (1)
identification of risks, (2) evaluation of each risk, (3) selection of an approach for managing each risk, (4)
implementation, and (5) evaluation. These steps allow the facility manager to reduce costly injuries by
periodically reviewing programs, facilities, and equipment to evaluate potential dangers to clients.
Medical screening, identification of risks, liability insurance, fitness testing, waiver of liability This
response is incorrect because it does not follow guidelines set forth for the process of risk management.
Most authorities recommend a five-step risk management protocol: (1) identification of risks, (2)
evaluation of each risk, (3) selection of an approach for managing each risk, (4) implementation, and (5)
evaluation. These steps allow the facility manager to reduce costly injuries by periodically reviewing
programs, facilities, and equipment to evaluate potential dangers to clients. While the forms and
processes stated in this response are important for any fitness-related program, they are not the most
responsible means for assessing risk management.
56. A participant at the fitness facility suddenly goes into seizure. The FIRST course of action is to
_______________.
A. Position the individual so that she does not cause any injury to herself
B. Contact emergency medical services
C. Hold the victim’s arms and legs down to control spastic movements
D. Place a pad in the victim’s teeth to prevent tongue biting
DPosition the individual so that she does not cause any injury to herself
This response is correct. The first task in aiding an individual experiencing a seizure is to protect the
victim from injury that might result from flailing head and extremities. The simplest method is to put
something soft under the victim's head and move all objects out of the way.
Contact emergency medical services

This response is incorrect because, while it is appropriate to contact emergency medical services, the first
course of action is to position the individual so that she does not cause injury to herself during the
seizure.
Hold the victim's arms and legs down to control spastic movements
This response is incorrect because, restraint may inadvertently cause a fracture or dislocation. The most
appropriate action is to put something soft under the victim's head and move all objects out of the way.
Place a pad in the victim's teeth to prevent tongue biting

This response is incorrect because, while it is appropriate to place a padded tongue blade or bite block
between the victim's teeth, the first course of action is to position the individual so that she does not
cause injury to herself during the seizure. However, a personal trainer should avoid placing fingers or a
pencil into the victim's mouth for fear of damage. If a specially made device, such as a padded tongue
blade, is available it is appropriate to insert it into the seizure victim's mouth.
57. If a personal trainer arrived at a client's home for a fitness session and found the bench press machine to
have a worn cable, the personal trainer should _______________.
A. Lighten the weight load and continue with the planned workout
B. Refrain from using the equipment and instruct the client to obtain a replacement part from the
manufacturer
C. Test the cable to determine if the client can still safely use the bench press
D. Offer to install a new cable if a new cable is available
Lighten the weight load and continue with the planned workout
This response is incorrect because it is a personal trainer's responsibility to ensure a hazard-free
environment to maximize client safety. Using the faulty machine, even with a lighter load, presents a
hazard to the client.
DRefrain from using the equipment and instruct the client to obtain a replacement part from the
manufacturer
This is the most appropriate response because it prevents the client from using a hazardous piece of
equipment. Additionally, having the client contact the manufacturer to repair the equipment is always the
safest action. Equipment should be repaired and maintained by trained repair technicians or the
manufacturer of the equipment. In other words, if the personal trainer and/or the client tried to repair the
faulty machine, liability rests solely on the individual who made the inadequate repair.
Test the cable to determine if the client can still safely use the bench press
environment to maximize client safety. Equipment should be repaired and maintained by trained repair
technicians or the manufacturer of the equipment. In other words, if the personal trainer tried to repair the
faulty machine and an injury occurred, liability would rest solely on the individual who made the
inadequate repair the personal trainer.
Offer to install a new cable if a new cable is available

environment to maximize client safety. Equipment should be repaired and maintained by trained repair
technicians or the manufacturer of the equipment. In other words, if the personal trainer tried to repair the
faulty machine and an injury occurred, liability would rest solely on the individual who made the
inadequate repair the personal trainer.
58. To properly secure client information, which of the following is MOST appropriate?
A. Provide access only to the fitness staff
B. Provide access to the client’s physician
C. Maintain separate files of all clients
D. Disclose information only to the client’s immediate family members
Provide access only to the fitness staff
This response is incorrect. Most breaches of confidentiality occur as a result of exposing or storing a
client's personal data in a location that is not secure. Breaches may also occur when personal trainers
have conversations regarding a client's performance or medical/health history with staff or others and the
client's first name or other identifying details are used. In other words, it is considered a breach of client
confidentiality when a personal trainer provides access to client information, even to fellow staff members.
Provide access to the client's physician

This response is incorrect. While it is appropriate to discuss a client's medical exercise risk factors and
fitness programming with the client's physician, it is a breach of confidentiality to allow anyone (besides
the personal trainer and the client) access to the client's personal information without the client's express
written consent.
DMaintain separate files of all clients

This is the most appropriate response. Maintaining separate files for all clients allows the personal trainer
to access client files individually and decrease the risk of a client or other individual seeing the personal
information of other clients.
Disclose information only to the client's immediate family members

embarrassment and fraudulent activity such as identity theft. It is considered a breach of confidentiality to
allow anyone (besides the personal trainer and the client) access to the client's personal information
without the client's express written consent.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 495, 2nd ed, pg. 400
59. After working with your new client for several sessions, you learn than she has been diagnosed with
bulimia nervosa. Which of the following professionals should she be referred to?
A. Registered dietitian
B. Eating disorders specialist
C. Physician
D. Psychiatrist
Registered dietitian
This response is incorrect because not all registered dieticians are trained in dealing with clients who
have eating disorders. Eating disorders are considered psychological disorders. Therefore, if you are
referring a client with an eating disorder to a registered dietitian it is important to ensure that he/she has a
specialization in eating disorders.
DEating disorders specialist This response is correct. Eating disorders are considered psychological
disorders. Therefore, when referring a client with an eating disorder to another health professional (most
likely a psychologist), it is important to ensure that he/she has a specialization in eating disorders.
Physician
This response is incorrect. Eating disorders are considered psychological disorders. Therefore, when
referring a client with an eating disorder to another health professional (most likely a psychologist) it is
important to ensure that he/she has a specialization in eating disorders.
Psychiatrist This response is incorrect. Eating disorders are considered psychological disorders.
Psychologists have training in behavior and psychotherapy counseling techniques. Psychiatrists are
medical doctors who have the authority to prescribe psychotropic medication, but do not necessarily have
a foundation in counseling. Therefore, when referring a client with an eating disorder to another health
professional (most likely a psychologist) it is important to ensure that he/she has a specialization in eating
disorders.
ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 496
60. An ACE-certified Professional is qualified to advise on which of the following areas?

A. Meal planning and caloric restriction recommendations
B. Exercise adherence strategies
C. Therapeutic exercises
D. Supplementation recommendations
Meal planning and caloric restriction recommendations This response is incorrect because specific
meal planning is outside the scope of practice for personal trainers. Recommending calorie guidelines is
appropriate as long as they are consistent with what is presented by the USDA Food Guide Pyramid
information. With respect to nutrition, it is within the scope of practice for a personal trainer to provide
general information on healthy eating, according to the USDA Food Guide Pyramid. If a client asks for a
specific meal plan, the personal trainer should refer the client to a registered dietitian for a specific diet
plan.
DExercise adherence strategies

This response is correct. Personal trainers are qualified to give advice on exercise adherence techniques.
It is important for a personal trainer to discuss the client's goals, expectations, and preferences. This
information can assist the personal trainer in developing sound adherence strategies.
Therapeutic exercises
This response is incorrect because therapeutic exercise implies the application of therapy. It is outside
the scope of practice for a personal trainer to rehabilitate a client. With respect to working with injured
clients, it is within the scope of practice for a personal trainer to design an exercise program once a client
has been released from rehabilitation.
Meal planning and caloric restriction recommendations This response is incorrect because specific
meal planning is outside the scope of practice for personal trainers. Recommending calorie guidelines is
appropriate as long as they are consistent with what is presented by the USDA Food Guide Pyramid
information. With respect to nutrition, it is within the scope of practice for a personal trainer to provide
general information on healthy eating, according to the USDA Food Guide Pyramid. If a client asks for a
specific meal plan, the personal trainer should refer the client to a registered dietitian for a specific diet
plan.

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1. Which of the following tests BEST measures muscular strength?

A. 10-repetition-maximum bench-press test

YMCA push-up test

Half sit-up test

YMCA bench-press test

The client's present level of physical fitness should be determined

3. Cardiorespiratory fitness is BEST evaluated by which of the following?

Rating of perceived exertion

DMaximal oxygen uptake

Submaximal exercise heart rate

Heart-rate recovery rate

3-minute step test

Submaximal cycle ergometer test

DMaximal graded treadmill test

Body mass index

DSkinfold thickness measurement

Training the client for a week before assessment

DUsing a lifestyle questionnaire

Creating a formal contract with the client

DObtain appropriate exercise parameters from his primary care provider

Incorporate an extended warm-up and cool-down period at a low-intensity level

Refer him to a registered dietitian since his condition is nutrition related

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 496.

10. A lifestyle information form is helpful in developing _______________.

DRapport, program design, and goals

A treatment plan for special populations

The fitness components of rehabilitation program

A relapse prevention strategy

ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 3rd ed., pg. 163

Attached to the program card found in the training area

Entered on the general client database

DFiled in a secured data storage area

13. Which of the following is a component of a well-stated goal?

DUse the rating of perceived exertion to measure intensity

Adjust target heart rate to prevent overexertion

Reduce training intensity to minimize pulse pressure

Use a heart rate monitor to measure heart rate

Keep the heart-rate training zone the same.

Increase intensity level in order to elevate heart rate.

DHave the physician recommend appropriate training intensities.

Encouraging the exerciser to perform supine abdominal work

DReplacing supine positions with semi-recumbent and prone positions

Using the Valsalva maneuver during strength training

Introducing the client to Kegel exercises

17. Which of the following is a well-stated goal for an overweight client?

I will start dieting and strength training 3-5 days a week.

Increase VO2max by 5% and achieve a scale weight of 175 lb.

DIncrease local muscular endurance and decrease weight by 8%.

Strength training with free weights to maximize neurological adaptations

Functional training emphasizing dynamic balance exercises

DConsume fluids before, during, and after exercise

Minimize duration to no more than 30 minutes per session

Monitor intensity using RPE instead of heart rate

Decreased heart rate

Water retention in the extremities

22. A reduction in peripheral vascular resistance is a primary benefit of exercise in controlling

23. To experience a significant improvement in fitness, unfit individuals require a _______________.

Higher training dose than fit individuals

DLower training dose than fit individuals

Refer her to a physician for medical clearance

Periodic goal evaluation

Relapse prevention strategies

2-4 times per week, 20-40 minutes, 65% of VO2max