कार्य करें

Commerce
MADHYA PRADESH P.S.C. STATE SERVICE (Pre.) EXAM., 2008

(Held on 11-1-2009)
Solved Paper
1. In double entry system of Bookkeeping
transaction means—
(A) Transfer of goods and services
from one person to another
(B) Transfer of goods and services
within the firm
(C) Producing and selling goods
(D) None of the above
2. Goods taken for personal use
will be posted in the credit of—
(A) Drawings Account
(B) Sales Account
(C) Purchases Account
(D) Cash Account
3. Which of the following equations
is correct ?
(A) Assets = Liabilities
+ Owner’s Equity
(B) Assets = Owner’s Equity
(C) Assets + Liabilities
= Owner’s Equity
(D) Assets = Liabilities
– Owner’s Equity
The 'basic accounting equation' is the foundation for the double-entry bookkeeping
system. For each transaction, the total debits equal the total credits.
Assets = Liabilities + Capital[1]
In a corporation, capital represents the stockholders' equity.
4. Carriage charges paid on purchase

of a new machine is
debited to—
(A) Carriage Inward A/c
(B) Cash A/c
(C) Plant & Machinery A/c
(D) Profit & Loss A/c
5. Depreciation on fixed assets is—
(A) Source of fund
(B) Use of fund
(C) No flow of fund
(D) All of these
6. All adjustment entries in Final
A/c are written at two places—
(A) Trading A/c and Balance
Sheet
(B) Profit & Loss A/c and
Balance Sheet
(C) Trading A/c, Profit & Loss
A/c and Balance Sheet
(D) Trading and Profit & Loss
A/c and Balance sheet
7. A and B are partners sharing
profit & loss in 2 : 5 ratio. They
admit C into partnership for a
1/4 share. C brings in goodwill
in cash which is shared by A and
B. New profit sharing ratio of A,
B, C will be—
(A) 15 : 6 : 7 (B) 6 : 7 : 15
(C) 6 : 15 : 7 (D) 7 : 6 : 15
Let the the total roit/loss be ‘x’
Hence, acc to share 5x +2x=7x
If c also shares from it than, c’s share = 7/4x,
Left =7x-7/4x=21x/4
This is shared bv/n A n B n 2:5 than
Y + 2.5y= 21/4x
y=3/2x
A’s share =3x
B’s share =15/2x
Now
3x +6+15/2x+6 +7/4x+6 = 12x +36 , 30x +54 , 7x +24
An ratio is if x =100,
1236 ,3054, 7024
1: 2.4760 : 5.6828
8. A, B and C are partners sharing

profit & loss in 2 : 2 : 1 ratio. C
dies on 31.3.2008. Profit for the
year 2007-08 (ending 31st March,
2008) is Rs. 64,000. The share of C
in those profits is—
(A) Rs. 9,600 (B) Rs. 8,200
(C) Rs. 12,800 (D) Rs. 5,800
X=64000/5=12800
C’s share is 12,800/- only
9. If a partner introduces additional

capital over and above his
normal share or gives loans to
the firm he is entitled to get
interest per annum at the rate
of—
(A) 9% (B) 6%
(C) 12% (D) Bank rate
A Partnership is defined by the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, as “the relations between
persons who have agreed to share profits of the business carried on by all are any of them
acting for all”. This Definitiongives three minimum requirements to constitute a
Partnership, viz:
• There must be an agreement entered into orally or in writing by the persons who
desire to form a Partnership,
• The object of the agreement must be to share the profits of business intended to be
carried on by the Partnership, and
The business must be carried on by all the partners or any of them acting for all of them.
 Every partner has a right to take part in the contact of the business,
 Every partner is bound to attend diligently to his duties in the contact of business,
 Any difference arising as to ordinary matters connected with the business may be
decided by a majority of partner and no change in the nature of the business shall be
made without the consent of all the partners,
 Every partner has as a right to have assess to and to inspect and copy any books of the
firm,
 A partner is not entitled to receive remuneration for taking part in the conduct of the
business,
 The partners are entitled to share equally the profits earned and shall contribute
equally to the losses sustained by the firm,
 Where the partners is entitled to interest on the capital subscribed by them, such
interest shall be payable only out of the profits,
•  A partner making, for the purpose of the business, any payment or advance
being the amount of capital he has agreed to subscribed, is entitled to interest
thereon at the rate of 6% P.A,
10. Trading on equity means—

(A) when company has issued
only the equity capital
(B) when company has issued
only debenture capital
(C) when company has issued
equity capital and debenture
capital both
(D) when company is ploughing-
back its profits
1. eqity the difference between the market value of a property and the claims held
against it
2. the ownership interest of shareholders in a corporation
3. conformity with rules or standards
4. Debenture : ऋण का सवीकार पत
5. the ability of a customer to obtain goods or services before payment, based on the
trust that payment will be made in the future
6. a certificate or voucher acknowledging a debt
InvestorWords.com
trading on the equity
Definition
Borrowing funds to increase capital investment with the hope that the business will be
able to generate returns in excess of the interest charges.
7. Share capital is funds raised by issuing shares in return for cash or other
considerations.
Debenture is any debt obligation backed strictly by the borrower's integrity, e.g.
an unsecured bond. A debenture is documented in an indent
11. Watered Capital of the company

means—
(A) Undercapitalisation
(B) Overcapitalisation
(C) That part of capital which is
not presented through assets
(D) Unissued capital
when the stock or capital of a company is not represented by issue of equivalent value,it
is termed as watered capital signifying presence of water in the capital of the company.
Water' is said to be present in the capital when a part of the capital is not represented by
assets. It is considered to be as worthless as water. Sometimes the services of the
promoters are valued at an unduly high price. Similarly, the concern may pay too high a
price for an asset acquired from a going concern. The capital becomes watered to the
extent of the excess price paid for an asset. Thus, if a company pays 1,25,000 on account
of goodwill, which if valued correctly is worth Rs. 50,000 only, the capital is watered to
the extent of Rs. 75,000. 'Watered capital' must be distinguished from 'over
capitalisation'. 'Water enters the capital usually in the initial period-at the time of
promotion. Over capitalisation can, however, be found out only after the company has
worked for sometime. Although watered capital can be a cause of over-capitalisation, yet
it is not exactly the same thing. If the earnings are up to the general expection, a concern
will not be over capitalized even though a part of its capital is watered.
12. Capital Gearing aims at—
(A) Establishing right type of

adjustment among different
types of securities
(B) Fair capitalisation
(C) Trading on equity
(D) All of the above
Capital gearing
Some collective investment schemes have the power to borrow money to make further
investments; a process known as gearing or leverage. If markets are growing rapidly this
can allow the scheme to take advantage of the growth to a greater extent than if only the
subscribed contributions were invested. However this premise only works if the cost of
the borrowing is less than the increased growth achieved. If the borrowing costs are more
than the growth achieved a net loss is achieved.
This can greatly increase the investment risk of the fund by increased volatility and
exposure to increased capital risk.
Gearing was a major contributory factor in the collapse of the split capital investment
trust debacle in the UK in 2002.[
A fundamental analysis ratio of a company's level of long-term debt compared to its

equity capital. Gearing is expressed in percentage form.
Companies with high gearing - more long-term liabilities than shareholder equity - are
considered speculative.
Also known as "financial leverage".

Investopedia explains Gearing
In simpler terms, gearing explains how a company finances its operations - either through
outside lenders or through shareholders.
13. Opportunity cost is used in—

(A) Ascertainment of cost of
production
(B) Cost control
(C) Managerial decision-making
(D) Fixing sale price
An opportunity cost is defined as the value of a forgone activity or alternative when
another item or activity is chosen. Opportunity cost comes into play in any decision that
involves a tradeoff between two or more options. It is expressed as the relative cost of
one alternative in terms of the next-best alternative. Opportunity cost is an important
economic concept that finds application in a wide range of business decisions.
Opportunity-cost evaluation has many practical business applications, because

opportunity costs will exist as long as resource scarcity exists. The value of the next-best
alternative should be considered when choosing among production possibilities,
calculating the cost of capital, analyzing comparative advantages, and even choosing
which product to buy or how to spend time. According to Kroll, there are numerous real-
world lessons about opportunity costs that managers should learn:
1. Even though they do not appear on a balance sheet or income statement,

opportunity costs are real. By choosing between two courses of action, you
assume the cost of the option not taken.
2. Because opportunity costs frequently relate to future events, they are often
difficult to quantify.
3. Most people will overlook opportunity costs.
• A person who has $15 can either buy a CD or a shirt. If he buys the shirt the
opportunity cost is the CD and if he buys the CD the opportunity cost is the shirt.
If there are more choices than two, the opportunity cost is still only one item,
never all of them.
• A person who invests $10,000 in a stock denies herself or himself the interest that
could have accrued by leaving the $10,000 in a bank account instead. The
opportunity cost of the decision to invest in stock is the value of the interest.
• A person who sells stock for $10,000 denies himself or herself the opportunity to
sell the stock for a higher price (say $12,000) in the future, inheriting an
opportunity cost equal to the future price of $12,000 (and not the future price
minus the sale price). Note that in this case, the opportunity cost can only be
determined in hindsight.
14. The cost informations of a manufacturing
unit are as under—
Rs.
Cost of Material 20,000
Cost of Labour 10,000
Direct Expenses 5,000
Factory Overheads 15,000
Administration
Overheads 10,000
Sales and Distribution
Expenses 3,000
Cost of production in this case
will be—
(A) Rs. 35,000
(B) Rs. 50,000
(C) Rs. 60,000
(D) Rs. 63,000
15. In which of the following items
does the profit of financial set of
books decrease as compared to
cost books ?
(A) Rent of the factory building
(B) Selling overheads
(C) Payment of pension to the
former employees of the organisation
(D) Salary paid to the works
manager
16. Auditor submits his report to—
(A) Chief Executive Officer of
company
(B) Creditors of the company
(C) Shareholders of the company
(D) Company Registrar
PD/June/2010/2182
17. Management Audit means—
(A) Audit by management
(B) Audit of Management
Account Book
(C) Audit of Policies and Performance
of Management
management audit
A detailed audit that concentrates on analysis and evaluation of management procedures

and the overall performance of an organization. A management audit is undertaken to
discover weaknesses and to institute improvements within the organization. Also called
operational audit, performance audit.
18. Stock taking is not the liability of

auditor. In which of the following
cases was this decided ?
(A) Kingston Cotton Mill Co.
Ltd.
(B) The Westminster Road
Construction and Engineering
Co. Limited
(C) London and General Bank
19. In a formal organisation—
(A) Unity of command is
followed
(B) Division of labour is possible
(C) Organisation charts are
framed and used
1. he formal Organization refers to the formal relationships of authority and

subordinates withing a company. While the informal organization refers to the
network of personal and social relations that is developed spontaneously between
people associated with each other.
1. The formal Organization refers to the formal relationships of authority and

subordinates withing a company. While the informal organization refers to the
network of personal and social relations that is developed spontaneously between
people associated with each other.
Def – A formal organizationaI a relativey stable description of

the organization, the structure an the rules may be strictly
followed as well as organizational charts , they may be little
more than an empty formalization.
Organizational charts such as:

Top managemenmt
Hierarchical Structure
Line staff structure
Functional and department structure
Matrix structure
20. The difference between management

and administration was
given by— Employee1 employee2 employee3
(A) Mayo
(B) Oliver Sheldon
(C) Fayol
(D) F. W. Taylor
Mayo – 14 principles
Oliver Sheldon : His basic idea of diff between admin an management
as administration involved thinking while management involved doing.
Board of directors
Administra
tion
President
General Manager
manageme
nt
Work manager
Foreman
Time spent in Administration and managerial works at different levels

21. Span of Management/Control
means—
(A) Number of subordinates in
a department
(B) Number of subordinates
working under a supervisor
(C) Numbe of employees in a
department
(D) Number of superiors in a
Department
Principle of management stating the number of people a manager can supervise
effectively. The ability to supervise people depends on the job in question, whether the
employees are professionals, and on their location.
raicunas (Gulick and Urwick, 1937) distinguished three types of interactions – direct
single relationships, cross-relationships, and direct group relationships – each of them
contributing to the total amount of interactions within the organization. According to
Graicunas, the number of baw bags can be computed in the following way. Let n be the
number of subordinates reporting to a supervisor. Then, the number of relationships of
direct single type the supervisor could possibly engage into is
n.
The number of interactions between subordinates (cross relationships) he has to monitor

is
n(n − 1)
and the number of direct group relationships is
n(2n / 2 + n − 1)
The sum of these three types of interactions is the number of potential relationships of a
supervisor.
22. Clauses of the Articles of Association

can be altered—
(A) By ordinary resolution in an
Ordinary General Meeting
(B) By special resolution in the
General Meeting
(C) By ordinary resolution in an
Extraordinary General Meeting
(D) By special resolution in an
Extraordinary General Meeting
alter the articles, require a special resolution, which has to be passed by a three-quarters
majority of those who vote. At this meeting, each shareholder has the number of votes
conferred by the shares they hold (usually one vote per share). A frequently amended
provision is to fix the quorum as something other than two (the standard provision). This
can be very important as a means of protecting shareholders from an important meeting
being conducted without them.
23. Who among the following, has

no right to speak in the Annual
General Meeting ?
(A) Director (B) Auditor
(C) Proxy (D) All of these
24. Minutes should be signed by—
(A) Chairperson of the meeting
(B) Company Secretary
(C) Chairperson and Secretary
both
(D) All members present in the
meeting
25. A saree manufacturer marks 20%
higher price on his sarees. He
allows 10% discount to the
customer and earns a profit of
Rs. 56. The cost of the saree is—
(A) Rs. 700 (B) Rs. 600
(C) Rs. 800 (D) Rs. 1,000
Let the c.p = x,
Sp= x + .2x= 1.2x,
Discount on s.p @10% = 1.20x- 0.12x = 1.08x,
Profit = s.p- c.p = 1.08x – x =56
x
x = 56/.08 = 700/- only.
26. A bag contains 5-rupee, 2-rupee,

1-rupee and 50-paise coins. These
coins are in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2 : 1.
If the total coins amount to Rs.
285, find out the number of each
type of coins.
(A) 20 of 50 paise, 20 of Re. 1, 20
of Rs. 2 and 43 of Rs. 5
(B) 40 of Rs. 5, 30 of RS. 2, 20 of
Re. 1 and 10 of 50 paise
(C) Both (A) and (B)
4*10x + 3*4x + 2x + x =570
(40 + 12 + 2 + 1 )x = 570
X= 570/55 =
27. In how many years will Rs.
5,00,000 become Rs. 5,62,432 at a
rate of 4% compound interest ?
(A) 3·5 years (B) 4 years
(C) 3 years (D) 5 years
28. If trade credits are Rs. 10,000,
outstanding expenses are 10% of
creditor, current ratio being 2 : 1,
Stock is Rs. 7,000, then the
amount of other current asset
will be—
(A) Rs. 10,000 (B) Rs. 18,000
(C) Rs. 15,000 (D) Rs. 8,000
Credits = 10,000
Outstanding expenses = 10*10000/100 = 1000/-
Current ratio(चालू अनुपात) = Assets(संपित)/liability(दाइतव) =2/1 = x/(10000
+1000) = x/11000
Therefore net assets = 2*11000 = 22000;
Stocks or current assets = 7000/-
Current asset = 22000-7000= 15000/-
29. When a right to purchase

securities is given, it is known
as —
(A) Call option
(B) Put option
(C) Call and put option
(D) All of these
Call options :
An agreement that gives an investor the right (but not the obligation) to buy a stock,
bond, commodity, or other instrument at a specified price within a specific time period.
Put options:
An option contract giving the owner the right, but not the obligation, to sell a specified
amount of an underlying security at a specified price within a specified time. This is the
opposite of a call option, which gives the holder the right to buy shares.
30. The important credit rating

agencies working in India are—
(A) CRISIL
(B) ICRA
(C) CARE
(D) All of these
Credit Rating and Information Services of India Ltd. (CRISIL) (BSE: 500092) is
India's leading Ratings, Research, Risk and Policy Advisory Company based in Mumbai.
[2]
CRISIL’s majority shareholder is Standard & Poor's, a division of The McGraw-Hill
Companies and the world's foremost provider of financial market intelligence.
ICRA, the Internet Content Rating Association
CARE
Care Analysis and REsearch ltd.
31. Which of the following is not
included in Financial Statements
?
(A) Profit and Loss A/c also
known as Income Statement
(B) Balance Sheet (Statement of
Affairs)
(C) Cash Flow Statement
(D) Directors’ Report
A financial statement (or financial report) is a formal record of the financial activities
of a business, person, or other entity.
1. Balance sheet: also referred to as statement of financial position or condition,

reports on a company's assets, liabilities, and Ownership equity at a given point in
time.
2. Income statement: also referred to as Profit and Loss statement (or a "P&L"),
reports on a company's income, expenses, and profits over a period of time. Profit
& Loss account provide information on the operation of the enterprise. These
include sale and the various expenses incurred during the processing state.
3. Statement of retained earnings: explains the changes in a company's retained
earnings over the reporting period.
4. Statement of cash flows: reports on a company's cash flow activities, particularly
its operating, investing and financing activities.
32. Which of the accounting concepts

does not concern revenue
recognition ?
(A) Matching concept
(B) Realisation concept
(C) Separate entity concept
(D) Conservatism concept
The matching concept is an accounting principle that requires the identification and
recording of expenses associated with revenue earned and recognized during the same
accounting period. Accordingly, under the matching concept the expenses of a particular
accounting period are the costs of the assets used to earn the revenue that is recognized in
that period. It follows, therefore, that when expenses in a period are matched with the
revenues generated for the same period, the result is the net income or loss for that
period.
33. As per Indian Companies Act,

1956 the Balance Sheet of a Company
shall be drawn in—
(A) Horizontal order only
(B) Vertical order only
(C) Either horizontal or vertical
(D) Horizontal and vertical both
34. The trade discount allowed at the
time of sale is recorded in—
(A) Sales Book
(B) Journal Proper
(C) In discount column of Cash
Book
(D) Not recorded in the Book of
Account
35. Which of the following is an item
of capital expenditure ?
(A) Insurance Premium paid for
plant and machinery
(B) Sales Tax paid in connection
with purchase of office equipments
(C) Interest on loan taken for
purchasing office furniture
(D) Monthly rent instalment
paid for the machine taken on
hire-purchase system
Capital expenditures (CAPEX or capex) are expenditures creating future benefits. A
capital expenditure is incurred when a business spends money either to buy fixed assets
or to add to the value of an existing fixed asset with a useful life that extends beyond the
taxable year
To assist you with your deduct-or-capitalize analysis, we've put together the following
list of items that the IRS or the courts have determined to be capital expenditures under
certain circumstances.
• abstracts of title costs

• appraisal costs paid in obtaining possession of premises
• asbestos removal costs
• author's publishing costs
• basement repair and waterproofing
• boiler patching and welding costs
• burglar alarm installation charges
• business facility improvement costs (for example: waterproofing; replacing a
roof; planning, designing, and constructing an addition; remodeling costs)
• cable replacement costs upon sudden failure
• copyright development costs
• credit card, membership fees
• display cases, remodeling costs
• drainage costs
• electric wiring, costs (new wiring, replacement, and rearrangement)
• electrical system replacement costs
• Federal Communications Commission (FCC) license preparation fees
• fire escapes
• flood protection costs (such as costs of raising floors, or rearranging bins)
• insulation costs
• irrigation system costs
• merger negotiation costs
• mutual fund setup costs incurred by investment advisors
• office, cost of changing location and equipment
• package design costs
• performance bond premiums
• Security Exchange and Commission (SEC) statement preparation cost
• settlement costs for threatened lawsuit
• well (water) costs
• zoning change costs that increase the value of property beyond the tax year
36. Fixed assets received as a gift

will be credited to—
(A) Donor’s A/c
(B) Capital Reserve A/c
(C) Capital A/c
(D) Profit & Loss A/c
a. Donations of assets, which meet capitalization criteria, shall be
debited to the appropriate asset account and credited to Donated
Revenue.
the market price at which these were purchased or as per the actuary’s valuation by making a
corresponding credit to the Capital Reserve Account with a note to the accounts of the accounting
treatment followed, or
37. On the death of a partner the
amount of joint life insurance
policy should be credited to the
Capital A/c of—
PD/June/2010/2183
(A) All partners (including
deceased one) in their profit
sharing ratio
(B) Remaining partners in their
old profit sharing ratio
(C) Remaining partners equally
(D) All partners (including
in the profit sharing ratio.
deceased) in their capital ratio
Joint life policy is a precautionary measure to protect the firm from financial crisis,
on account of death of a partner. This is a life insurance policy by which more
than one life is insured. In case of a partnership firm all partners are covered
usually by a single life insurance policy. The firm, not the partner, pays the
premium on this policy. In the event of death of any one of the partners,
the insurance company will pay the full amount assured sum to the
firm. This amount will be regarded as a special income to the firm and
credited to capital accounts of all partners
38. In the absence of any other
agreement, the interest on the
capital of partners—
(A) Is not paid
(B) Is paid at bank rate if profit
is available
(C) @ 6% profit or no profit
(D) @ 6% only if profit available
39. A partner of a firm has gone
insolvent. The loss so caused
according to Indian Partnership
Act will be shared by solvent
partners—
(A) Equally
(B) Profit Sharing Ratio
(C) Capital Ratio
(D) Agreement Basis
40. The following balances appeared
in the books of a company on 31
March 2008—
Rs.
1. Capital Redemption
Reserve
1,50,000
2. Share Premium
A/c
50,000
3. General Reserve 20,000
4. Debit Balance of
P&L A/c
20,000
Company wants to issue bonus
shares. The amount available
would be—
(A) Rs. 2,00,000
(B) Rs. 2,20,000
(C) Rs. 2,40,000
(D) Rs. 1,50,000
41. The following information is
available about a company—
Stock turnover 10
Average collection
period
20 days
The ratio of cash to
credit sale
0·8
Closing stock Rs. 9,000
Assume that a year is of 360 days.
The amount of trade debtors is—
(A) Rs. 2,480 (B) Rs. 2,778
(C) Rs. 2,760 (D) Rs. 2,800
42. A company has a capital of Rs.
10,00,000. Its turnover is 3 times.
Margin on sale is 6%. The Return
on Investment will be—
(A) 20% (B) 15%
(C) 18% (D) 23%
43. If production increases, the fixed
cost per unit—
(A) Remains constant
(B) Increases
(C) May increase, may decrease
(Anything may happen)
(D) Decreases
44. The cost records of an organisation
are as under—
1. Raw materials used Rs. 80,000
2. Wages 50% of Raw Material
3. Direct Expenses 10% of Raw
Material
4. Works overhead 40% of
Labour Cost
5. Office overhead 50% of Works
overhead
Unit produced 4,000
The cost per unit would be—
(A) Rs. 40 (B) Rs. 38
(C) Rs. 42 (D) Rs. 50
45. Which of the following is not the
objective of preparing Reconciliation
Statement of Cost and
Financial Account ?
(A) To ascertain causes of differences
of profits
(B) To ascertain accuracy of cost
accounts
(C) To ascertain completion of
cost accounts
(D) To ascertain accuracy and
completion of Financial Books
46. The first auditors of the company
are appointed—
(A) By the Government
(B) By the Board of Directors
(C) In the Statutory Meeting
(D) By the Shareholder having
largest amount of capital
invested in the company
47. ‘An auditor is a watch dog, not
the bloodhound.’ This was
commented by an honourable
Judge in the case of—
(A) Kingston Cotton Mill Co.
(B) Imperial Tobacco Co.
(C) Mohri Bibi Vs. Dharmo Das
Ghosh
(D) Keshav Bharti Vs. Govt. of
India
48. If an auditor is not satisfied he
will give—
(A) Clean Report
(B) Qualified Report
(C) Partial Report
(D) Interim Report
49. The Delegation of Authority
means—
(A) Delegation of Powers
(B) Delegation of Responsibility
(C) Delegation of powers and
responsibility both
50. Strategy formulation is a part
of—
(A) Planning
(B) Directing
(C) Control
(D) Communication
51. In testing the difference between
two means, the null hypothesis
is—
(A) There is no significant difference
between two means
(B) There is significant difference
between two means
(C) Both means are independent
(D) Both means are interdependent
52. The responsibility of the Company
Secretary is—
(A) Statutory only
(B) Contractual only
(C) Only civil
(D) Statutory and Contractual
both
53. A Company Secretary is not
authorised for—
(A) Directing, supervising and
controlling the departmental
activities
(B) Borrowing in the name of
company
(C) Filing representation on
behalf of the company
(D) Signing the documents that
need certification from the company
PD/June/2010/2184
54. The appointment of Company
Secretary is made by—
(A) Government of India
(B) Board of Directors
(C) Shareholders
(D) Institute of Company
Secretaries of India
55. Due to reduction of interest rate
from 8% to 7·5% by bank, one
man got Rs. 600 less as compared
to early annual receipts. The
amount deposited in the bank
is—
(A) Rs. 1,00,000
(B) Rs. 1,50,000
(C) Rs. 1,20,000
(D) Rs. 2,00,000
56. A, B and C are partners in a
business. A invested Rs. 10,000
for 5 months, B invested Rs.
20,000 for 3 months and C
invested Rs. 25,000 for 4 months.
In the end business resulted in a
profit of Rs. 6,300. The share of
partners will be as under—
(A) A Rs. 2,000, B Rs. 1,300, C
Rs. 3,000
(B) A Rs. 1,500, B Rs. 1,800, C
Rs. 3,000
(C) A Rs. 3,000, B Rs. 1,500, C
Rs. 1,800
(D) A Rs. 1,800, B Rs. 1,500, C
Rs. 3,000
57. Net working capital means—
(A) Total of all current assets
(B) Total of all liquid assets
(C) Excess of current assets over
current liabilities
(D) Cash at bank + cash in hand
58. Which of the following is not Ecommerce
?
(A) E-marketing
(B) E-banking
(C) E-governance
(D) All of these
59. The functions of SEBI includes—
(A) Registration of market
players
(B) Regulation of primary and
secondary markets
(C) Protection of investors
60. Which of the following statements
is true ?
(A) Mutinational Corporations
come into existence as a result of
international Politics
(B) The volume of business of
Multinational Corporation in
India has widened after accepting
the new economic policy
encompassing liberalisation,
globalisation and privatisation
(C) There are number of Multinational
Corporations originated
and registered in India and
making business outside the
country
61. Accounting is—
(A) An Art
(B) A Science
(C) A Profession
(D) All of these
62. The Institute of Chartered
Accountants of India was established
in the year—
(A) 1947 (B) 1949
(C) 1951 (D) 1956
63. Accounting Standard Board
issuing Accounting Standards in
India belongs to—
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Company Law Board
(C) The Institute of Chartered
Accountants of India
64. Which of the following Accounting
Standards relates to
accounting for fixed assets ?
(A) AS 3 (B) AS 10
(C) AS 14 (D) AS 16
is true ?
(A) Accounting and Bookkeeping
are synonymous
(B) Book-keeping and Accounting
are complementary to each
other
(C) Accounting starts from
where Book-keeping ends
(D) Both (B) and (C)
66. The Generally Accepted Accounting
Principles (GAAP) aim at—
(A) Uniformity in accounting
practices
(B) Uniform accounting practices
in all enterprises
(C) Acceptance of globalisation,
liberalisation and privatisation in
the field of accounting
67. Revenue is realised—
(A) when sales order is received
(B) when goods are sold
(C) when cash is received
(D) when goods are received by
the purchaser
68. Personal Account relates to—
(A) Persons
(B) All artificial and natural
persons
(C) Representative Personal
Accounts
69. The cost of erection of an old
machine will be posted in the
credit side of—
(A) Cash Account
(B) Machinery Account
(C) Repairs and Renewal
Account
70. Outstanding Wages is—
(A) Nominal Account
(B) Real Account
(C) Personal Account
(D) Current Account
71. Adjustment Entry for rent received
in advance would be—
(A) Cash A/c Dr.
To Rent Received in
Advance A/c
(B) Cash A/c Dr.
To Rent A/c
(C) Rent A/c Dr.
To Rent Received
Advance A/c
(D) Advance Rent A/c Dr.
To Rent A/c
72. Accounting treatment of a
Capital Expenditure as Revenue
Expenditure creates—
(A) General Reserve
(B) Revenue Reserve
(C) Capital Reserve
(D) Secret Reserve
73. Partnership comes into existence
through—
(A) Introduction
(B) Promotion
PD/June/2010/2185
(C) Contract
(D) Situation
74. Partnership Deed is always—
(A) Written
(B) Oral
(C) Written or Oral
(D) Written and Oral
75. The number of partners in a
partnership firm is—
(A) Uncertain
(B) Unlimited
(C) Decided by partners
(D) Limited
76. In the absence of partnership
agreement the profit is shared by
the partners—
(A) equally
(B) on the basis of capital
invested
(C) on the basis of decision of
the court
(D) on the basis of time spent
77. At the time of admission of a
new partner the capital brought
by him is shared among existing
partners—
(A) equally
(B) on the basis of capital of the
older partners
(C) on the basis of sacrifice done
(D) untrue statement
78. Because of Retirement/Death of
a partner—
(A) Partnership is dissolved
(B) Partnership firm is dissolved
(C) Partnership and partnership
firm both are dissolved
79. The minimum amount called on
application for issue of shares is
……… of face value.
(A) 5% (B) 25%
(C) 30% (D) 40%
80. Shares can be issued—
(A) At par
(B) At discount
(C) At premium
81. After re-issue of forfeited shares
the balance of forfeited share
account is transferred to—
(A) General Reserve
(B) Profit & Loss A/c
(C) Capital Reserve
(D) None of these
82. The debentureholders of a company
are company’s—
(A) Owners
(B) Creditors
(C) Customers
(D) All of these
83. Which of the following is not a
current asset ?
(A) Land and Building
(B) Debtors
(C) Stock
(D) Cash at bank
84. The analysis of published
accounts benefits—
(A) Shareholders
(B) Debentureholders
(C) Employees
(D) All of these
85. The object of cost accounting is—
(A) Ascertainment of Cost
(B) Valuation of Stock
(C) Cost Control
(D) All of these
86. Which of the following does not
constitute part of costing ?
(A) Prime cost
(B) Factory cost
(C) Opportunity cost
(D) Office and Administration
cost
87. Direct costs are those which vary
directly with—
(A) Sales
(B) Profit
(C) Production
(D) Time
88. Which of the following is not an
indirect expense ?
(A) Factory Overhead
(B) Direct Labour
(C) Office Overhead
(D) Advertisement
89. Which of the following appears
in Cost Accounts and not in
Profit and Loss Account ?
(A) Raw Materials
(B) Rent of hosue of the owner
of business
(C) Works overhead
(D) Selling and distribution
expenses
90. Tender Price means—
(A) Quotation Price
(B) Probable Sale Price
(C) Price informed to the customer
91. The audit of a Joint Stock Public
Company is done—
(A) compulsorily
(B) voluntarily
(C) at the direction of Government
(D) on demand of shareholders
92. The audit aims at—
(A) Examination of correctness
of books of accounts
(B) Examination of truthfulness
of books of accounts
(C) Examination of the authenticity
of books of account
93. Current audit is also known as—
(A) Internal Audit
(B) Periodic Audit
(C) Continuous Audit
(D) Interim Audit
94. Vouching relates to—
(A) Cash receipts
(B) Cash payments
(C) Credit transactions
(D) All of these
95. The status of the auditor in a
company is that of—
(A) an employee
(B) a trustee
(C) an independent professional
(D) all of these
96. To submit the audit report is—
(A) Right of Auditor
(B) Liability of Auditor
(C) Duty of Auditor
(D) All of these
97. F. W. Taylor is known as a father
of—
(A) Scientific Management
(B) Management by Objectives
(C) Human Relation based
Management
(D) Management by Motivation
PD/June/2010/2186
98. The person who propounded
theory X and theory Y in Management,
is—
(A) Abraham Maslow
(B) Henry Fayol
(C) Elton Mayo
(D) Douglas McGregor
99. Management Planning process
begins with—
(A) Policies
(B) Programme
(C) Goals and objectives
(D) Procedure
100. Decision-making is—
(A) A mental process
(B) An intellectual process
(C) A universal functional process
101. Which of the following is a nonverbal
communication ?
(A) Body language
(B) Letter
(C) Speech
(D) Poem
part of managerial process ?
(A) Planning
(B) Accounting
(C) Coordination
(D) Directing
103. A company secretary has to be—
(A) Firm or body corporate
(B) Registered with Securities
& Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(C) Person with desired professional
degree
(D) Part of any Secretarial
agency
104. Annual General Meeting can be
called by—
(A) Managing Director
(B) Shareholders
(C) Board of Directors
(D) Company Secretary
105. A share certificate is required to
be signed by—
(A) Company Secretary
(B) Two Directors
(C) Two directors and Company
Secretary
(D) All directors and Company
Secretary
106. A Company Secretary should
have sound knowledge of—
(A) Company Law
(B) Tax Laws
(C) Labour Laws
(D) All of these
107. The duties of Company Secretary
regarding company meetings are
restricted upto—
(A) Before company meeting
(B) During company meeting
(C) After company meeting
(D) In all the above situations
108. Transmission of shares takes
place in the following case—
(A) Sale of shares
(B) Theft of shares
(C) Operation of any law
(D) All of these
109. Statistics is the—
(A) Science of Counting
(B) Science of Averages
(C) Arithmetic of human
welfare
110. The average of the nos. 2, 4, 6, 8,
10, 12, 14 and 16 is—
(A) 9 (B) 10·2
(C) 8·6 (D) 11
111. In a symmetrical distribution the
relationship of averages is—
(A) Mean < Median < Mode
(B) Mean > Median > Mode
(C) Mean = Median = Mode
(D) Could be anything
does not hold true in the
case of ratio ?
(A) Ratio dentoes the relation
between the same two quantities
(B) Ratio has a definite unit
(C) Ratio remains unchanged
on multiplying or dividing both
qualities by a number
(D) Ratios can be expressed in
fraction also
113. In how many years will Rs. 9,000
become Rs. 10,890 at the rate of
6% simple interest ?
(A) 3 years
(B) 3 years 6 months
(C) 4 years
(D) 2 years
114. A sum of money placed at a
compound interest doubles itself
in 5 years. In how many years
will this amount become 16
times ?
(A) In 15 years
(B) In 40 years
(C) In 16 years
(D) In 20 years
115. Entrepreneurship is—
(A) An Art
(B) A Science
(C) A Profession
(D) All of these
116. On Stock Exchange the following
are transacted—
(A) Only securities
(B) Only commodities
(C) Listed securities only
(D) Commercial papers
117. Multi-national Corporations—
(A) support the cause of
Swadeshi
(B) develop Swadeshi Movement
(C) oppose Swadeshi Concept
(D) benefit Swadeshi Cause
related with Business Environment
?
(A) International Economic
Environment
(B) ISO 14000
(C) Political Circumstances
(D) Economic Policies of the
Government
119. Which of the following terms is
E-commerce ?
(A) B2B
(B) B2C
(C) C2C
(D) All of these
120. The application of computers in
business has enhanced—
(A) Productivity of workers
(B) Profitability of organisation
(C) The promptness in disposal
of work
Answers with Hints
PD/June
Agriculture
UTTAR PRADESH LECTURERS EXAM., 2009
(Held on 24-1-2010)
(Based on Memory)
Solved Paper
61. Jalpriya is a variety of—
(A) Maize (B) Jowar
(C) Paddy (D) Barley
62. Sugarcane + Potato is an intercropping
system of—
(A) Autumn season
(B) Zaid season
(C) Spring season
(D) Rainy season
63. Seed-rate of potato per hectare
is—
(A) 25 quintal/hectare
(B) 10 quintal/hectare
(C) 15 quintal/hectare
(D) 40 quintal/hectare
64. Deficiency symptoms of calcium
on plants first appear at—
(A) Lower leaves
(B) Middle leaves
(C) Terminal leaves
(D) All leaves
65. Which weedicide is used to kill
broad leaf weeds in wheat ?
(A) 2, 4 - D.S.S. (WPSS)
(B) 2, 4, 5 - T
(C) 2, 4 - DB
(D) None of these
66. Maya is the variety of—
(A) Potato (B) Gram
(C) Pea (D) Mustard
67. The weed that causes Asthma
is—
(A) Hirankhuri
(B) Bathua
(C) Parthenium
(D) Krishna Neel
68. Which crop requires maximum
amount of nitrogen ?
(A) Potato (B) Wheat
(C) Barley (D) Sugarcane
69. First dwarf variety of paddy
developed in India is—
(A) Jaya (B) Saket-4
(C) Govind (D) Narendra-97
10. Sprinkler irrigation is suitable,
where the soil has—
(A) Clayey texture
(B) Loamy texture
(C) Undulating topography
(D) All of these
11. Endosulphan is also known as—
(A) Lindane (B) Thiodan
(C) Aldrin (D) B.H.C.
12. Which of the following is
systemic poison ?
(A) Metasystox
(B) Phosphomidan
(C) Phorate
(D) All of these
13. DDVP is known as—
(A) Nuvan (B) Malathion
(C) Thiodan (D) Sulfex
14. Seed treatment with Vitavex is
the main controlling method of—
(A) Loose smut
(B) Rust
(C) Downy mildew
(D) All of these
15. Covered smut of barley is a
disease of—
(A) Externally seed-borne
(B) Internally seed-borne
(C) Air-borne
(D) None of these
16. Which of the following cakes is
not edible ?
(A) Castor cake
(B) Mustard cake
(C) Sesame cake
(D) Groundnut cake
17. In India, about 142 million
hectare land is under—
(A) Cultivation
(B) Waste land
(C) Forest
(D) Eroded land
18. The headquarters of Indian
Meteorological Department was
established in 1875 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Pune
(D) Calcutta
19. Moisture condensed in small
drops upon cool surface is
called—
(A) Hail (B) Dew
(C) Snow (D) Fog
20. How many agro-climatic zones
(ACZ) are found in India ?
(A) 16 (B) 18
(C) 15 (D) 20
21. Tilt angle of a disc plough is
generally—
(A) 10° (B) 15°
(C) 20° (D) 45°
22. Pudding is done to—
(A) Reduce percolation of water
(B) Pulverise and levelling soil
(C) Kill weeds
23. The Community Development
Programme (CDP) was started in
India on—
(A) 2nd October, 1950
(B) 2nd October, 1952
(C) 2nd October, 1951
(D) None of these
24. The main unit of Integrated Rural
Development Programme is—
(A) Family (B) Village
(C) Block (D) District
25. Element of Communication is—
(A) Message (B) Feedback
(C) Channel (D) All of these
26. The first Kshetriya Gramin Bank
(KGB) was opened in India is—
(A) 1972 (B) 1980
(C) 1975 (D) 1969
PD/June/2010/2190
27. The main function of NABARD
is—
(A) Farmers' loaning
(B) Agricultural research
(C) Refinancing to agricultural
financing institutions
(D) Development of agriculture
28. Rent theory of profit was given
by—
(A) Hawley (B) C.P. Blacker
(C) Tanssig (D) F.A. Walker
29. In L.D.R., the profit will be maximum
when—
(A) MC = MP (B) MC > MP
(C) MP = TP (D) MP > TP
30. The period of 11th Five Year Plan
is—
(A) 2000-2005 (B) 2002-2007
(C) 2007-2012 (D) 2008-2012
31. Acid rain contains mainly—
(A) PO4 (B) NO2
(C) NO3 (D) CH4
32. Cell Organelle found only in
plants are—
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Golgi complex
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Plastids
33. Proteins are synthesized in—
(A) Centrosomes
(B) Ribosomes
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Golgi bodies
34. Milk fever is caused due to the
deficiency of—
(A) P (B) Ca
(C) Mg (D) K
35. Milk sugar is a type of—
(A) Glucose (B) Sucrose
(C) Lactose (D) Fructose
36. Muriate of Potash is—
(A) K2SO4 (B) KCl
(C) K2HPO4 (D) KNO3
37. Azotobacter fixes atmospheric
nitrogen in the soil by—
(A) Symbiotically
(B) Non-symbiotically
(D) None of these
38. The chemical formula of iron
pyrites is—
(A) FeSO4 (B) FeS
(C) FeS2 (D) Fe2(SO4)3
39. Rock phosphates are used in—
(A) Saline soil
(B) Sodic soil
(C) Acidic soil
(D) Neutral soil
40. Intervenous chlorosis is caused
due to the deficiency of—
(A) N (B) Mg
(C) S (D) Fe
41. Kinnow is the hybrid variety
of—
(A) Citrus (B) Orange
(C) Mandarin (D) Lemon
42. The permanent preservative,
which is used for preservation of
fruit and vegetables, is—
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Potassium metabisulphate
(C) Potassium sulphate
(D) Sugar
43. Whip tail disease of cauliflower
is caused by deficiency of—
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Boron
(C) Molybdenum
(D) Zinc
44. The word ‘Agriculture’ is derived
from—
(A) Greek (B) Latin
(C) Arabic (D) French
45. Motha (Grass nut) belongs to the
family of—
(A) Cruciferae
(B) Tiliaceae
(C) Cyperaceae
(D) Graminaceae
46. Which of the followings are short
day crops ?
(A) Maize, Lobia, Bajra
(B) Wheat, Mustard, Gram
(C) Moong, Soybean, Bajra
(D) Wheat, Soybean, Bajra
47. What is the sequence of C4
plants ?
(A) Sudangrass – Sugarcane –
Paddy – Bajra
(B) Sugarcane – Maize – Sudan
grass – Bajra
(C) Sugarcane – Cotton – Paddy
– Maize
(D) Cotton – Maize – Bajra –
Sugarcane
48. Match List-I (crops) with List-II
(water requirement) and select
your answer from the code given
below—
List-I
(a) Jowar (b) Soybean
(c) Cotton (d) Groundnut
List–II
1. 140 mm – 300 mm
2. 350 mm – 450 mm
3. 200 mm – 300 mm
4. 300 mm – 350 mm
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
49. In which state, are there biggest
area, highest production and
number of Sugar Mills in relation
to Sugarcane ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Andhra Pradesh
50. Which is not prepared by potato ?
(A) Acetic Acid
(B) Paper
(C) Wine
(D) Fanina
51. Uttar Pradesh is occupying which
place in India, for Guava production
?
(A) Second (B) First
(C) Third (D) Fifth
52. Which of the following is TPS
variety of Potato ?
(A) JH 222 (B) Chipsona-II
(C) Anand (D) HPS-1/113
53. What is VAM ?
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria
(C) Algae (D) Fungi
54. What is the main function of zinc
in the plants ?
(A) Synthesis of nitrogen
(B) Synthesis of phosphorus
(C) Required for synthesis of
Tryptophos
(D) To increase activity of the
boron
55. What is the area in floriculture
(in 000 hectare) in India ?
PD/June/2010/2191
(A) 40 – 50
(B) 60 – 80
(C) 100 – 120
(D) None of these
56. Which of the following factors
does not affect the nitrification ?
(A) Air
(B) Seed
(C) Temperature
(D) Moisture
57. Which is the correct sequence of
soil erosion ?
(A) Rill – Sheet – Gulley
(B) Gulley – Sheet – Rill
(C) Sheet – Rill – Gulley
(D) Sheet – Gulley – Rill
58. Zinc Sulphate (ZnSO4) should
not be mixed with—
(A) D.A.P.
(B) Compost fertilizer
(C) Ammonium Chloride
(D) Urea
59. Insecticides are specific inhibitors
of—
(A) Excretory system
(B) Digestive system
(C) Nervous system
(D) Blood Circulatory system
60. The credit for the success of
Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK)
goes to—
(A) Dr. R. S. Paroda
(B) Dr. Chandrika Prasad
(C) Dr. Mohan Singh Mehta
(D) Dr. Mangla Rai
61. Cauliflower belongs to the
family—
(A) Cruciferae
(B) poacae
(C) Malvaceae
(D) Leguminaceae
62. Which type of soil is best for
knolkhol ?
(A) Loam
(B) Clayey loam
(C) Silty clayey loam
(D) Clay
63. Which of the following soil type
is most suitable for garlic cultivation
?
(A) Loamy sand
(B) Sandy loam
(C) Loam
(D) Clay
64. Average planting distance (R ⋅ P)
of guava is—
(A) 5 m ⋅ 5 m (B) 6 m ⋅ 6 m
(C) 8 m ⋅ 8 m (D) 10 m ⋅ 10 m
65. Which of the following soil type
has the highest field capacity ?
(A) Loam
(B) Silty loam
(C) Clayey loam
(D) Clay
66. The trade name of phorate is—
(A) Temic (B) Thiodan
(C) Phortox (D) Metasystox
67. The sprayers are cleaned before
use by—
(A) 1% chlorine water
(B) 1% hydrochloric acid
(C) 1% ammonia water
(D) 1% bromine water
68. The cyanogas pump is a /an—
(A) Duster (B) Fumigator
(C) Sprayer (D) Emulsifier
69. The main reason of Irish Famine
in Potato was—
(A) Late Blight disease
(B) Bacterial Blight disease
(C) Blast disease
(D) Ear Cockle disease
70. The instrument, which is used
for sowing of seed with
fertilizer together at a time, is—
(A) Seed drill
(B) Dibbler
(C) Seed sowing behind plough
(D) Ferti-cum Seed drill
71. Seed treatment is done to control—
(A) Soil-borne disease
(B) Air-borne disease
(C) Seed-borne disease
(D) None of these
72. Salt tolerant crop is—
(A) Cowpea (B) Field pea
(C) Garlic (D) Longmelon
dairy breed of cattle ?
(A) Sahiwal (B) Sindhi
(C) Nagore (D) All these
74. Stored grains can be saved from
insect damage, if the grain
moisture content is—
(A) < 10%
(B) > 10%
(C) 10%
(D) None of these
75. Which of the following pesticides
has been banned in India ?
(A) Rogor
(B) DDT
(C) Metasystox
(D) Dimecron
76. Pulses fit well in cropping
system as they are—
(A) Short duration crops
(B) Disease resistant crops
(C) Long duration crops
(D) Moisture stress resistant
crops
77. Wheat is a—
(A) Cash crop
(B) Cereal crop
(C) Covered crop
(D) None of these
78. Autumn sugarcane is planted in
month of—
(A) February-March
(B) July
(C) October
(D) December
79. Seed-rate for timely sown wheat
is—
(A) 75 kg/ha (B) 100 kg/ha
(C) 125 kg/ha (D) 150 kg/ha
80. Most critical stage in wheat for
irrigation is—
(A) C.R.I. (B) Flowering
(C) Milk (D) Dough
81. Name of most popular variety of
wheat in Uttar Pradesh is—
(A) PBW – 343
(B) U.P. – 2338
(C) K – 7903
(D) K – 9107
82. KPG – 59 (Udai) is a variety of—
(A) Field pea
(B) Vegetable pea
(C) Lentil
(D) Gram
83. In plain, Rajma is cultivated
during—
(A) Kharif
(B) Rabi
(C) Zaid
(D) None of these
PD/June/2010/2192
84. Which crop is recommended for
Zaid season cultivation in Uttar
Pradesh ?
(A) Vegetable pea
(B) Groundnut
(C) Barley
(D) Lentil
85. The most efficient use of potassium
is achieved by—
(A) Broadcasting at the sowing
time
(B) Top dressing after one
month of sowing
(C) Basal placement at the sowing
time
(D) Foliar spray
86. The term ‘Extension’ was first
used in—
(A) U.K. (B) U.S.A.
(C) India (D) France
87. The first K.V.K. (Krishi Vigyan
Kendra) in India was established
in—
(A) Bombay
(B) Port Blair
(C) Pondicherry
(D) Madras
88. ATMA is related to—
(A) NARP
(B) NAARM
(C) NREP
(D) None of these
89. Albert Mayer is the name associated
with—
(A) Nilokheri Development
Project
(B) Firka Development Project
(C) Etawah Pilot Project
(D) Shriniketan Project
90. Co-operative Credit Societies Act
was passed in India in—
(A) 1902 (B) 1904
(C) 1906 (D) 1912
91. Maximum photosynthesis takes
place in—
(A) Blue light
(B) Red light
(C) Violet light
(D) Green light
92. Farm Planning means—
(A) Farm Budgetting
(B) Cropping pattern
(C) Type of enterprises
(D) None of these
93. The first product of photosynthesis
in C3 plant is—
(A) Pyruvic acid
(B) Phospho-glyceric acid
(C) Oxalo-acetic acid
(D) Succinic acid
94. Bending of plants towards light
is called—
(A) Phototropism
(B) Vernalisation
(C) Photo-respiration
(D) None of these
95. Germination is inhibited by—
(A) Red light (B) Blue light
(C) U.V. light (D) I.R. light
96. The best method of milking is—
(A) Knuckling method
(B) Fisting method
(C) Stripping method
(D) None of these
97. Line breeding is a type of—
(A) Inbreeding
(B) Outbreeding
(C) Natural breeding
(D) None of these
98. Match List-I with List-II and
select answer from the codes
given below—
List-I
(a) White Revolution
(b) Grey Revolution
(c) Blue Revolution
(d) Green Revolution
List-II
1. Fertilizer production
2. Fish production
3. Cereal production
4. Milk production
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
99. ‘Tharparkar’ breed of cow is—
(A) Milch breed
(B) Working breed
(C) Dual purpose breed
(D) None of these
100. Cow and buffalo belong to the
family—
(A) Bovidae (B) Suidae
(C) Equidae (D) Cammelidae
101. What is the contribution of
Animal Husbandry Sector in the
agricultural growth ?
(A) 10% (B) 12% – 15%
(C) 7% – 9% (D) 5%
102. How many labourers are
required to run a 30 cows milch
herd ?
(A) 8 (B) 6
(C) 4 (D) 10
103. What is the availability of per
day per capita milk in India
presently (2008-09) ?
(A) 229 gram
(B) 239 gram
(C) 219 gram
(D) 252 gram
104. Which place is occupied by India
in egg production ?
(A) First (B) Second
(C) Third (D) Fourth
105. How much calories (cal) may be
obtained from 100 gram chicken
egg ?
(A) 175 cal (B) 180 cal
(C) 160 cal (D) 130 cal
106. Main function of biofertilizer is—
(A) To increase chemical process
(B) To increase physiological
process
(C) To increase biological
process
(D) To increase photosynthesis
process
107. How much tomato average production
(q.) may be yield from
one hectare ?
(A) 100 (B) 105-150
(C) 250 (D) 160-275
108. Which type of soil is found near
the canal banks ?
(A) Acidic and alkaline
(B) Acidic
(C) Alkaline
(D) None of these
109. Which one is not biofertilizer ?
(A) Multiflex
(B) PSB
(C) Vermicompost
(D) NADEP
110. In which form is nitrogen absorbed
by paddy under waterlogged
condition ?
PD/June/2010/2193
(A) NH4 ion (B) Nitrate ion
(C) NO2 ion (D) N2
111. Which one of the following do
not relate to groundnut ?
(A) Brazil
(B) 2n = 40
(C) Pink disease
(D) Tikka disease
112. Which of the following is produced
highest in India ?
(A) Mango (B) Banana
(C) Papaya (D) Grapes
113. The optimum temperature for
the Banana crop is—
(A) 30°C (B) 23°C
(C) 21·5°C (D) 26·5°C
114. Which one of the following
varieties has been selected to
develop Narendra Aonla-6
variety ?
(A) Chakaiya
(B) Hathijhool
(C) Banarasi
(D) Narendra Aonla-6
115. Red soil is poor in which of the
following nutrients ?
(A) Phosphorus and Sulphur
(B) Phosphorus and Nitrogen
(C) Nitrogen and Zinc
(D) Nitrogen and Potassium
116. A farming system in which
airable crops are grown in alleys
formed by trees or shrubs, to
establish soil fertility and to
enhance soil productivity, is
known as—
(A) Relay cropping
(B) Multiple cropping
(C) Alley cropping
(D) Mixed cropping
117. The cropping intensity of
Groundnut + Arhar – Sugarcane
is—
(A) 200% (B) 300%
(C) 150% (D) 250%
118. The scented variety of paddy
is—
(A) Jaya (B) Bala
(C) Type-3 (D) Type-1
119. From which language is the word
‘Agronomy’ taken ?
(A) Latin (B) Greek
(C) French (D) German
120. Tarameera is belonged to which
family ?
(A) Cruciferae
(B) Linaceae
(C) Compositae
(D) Graminae
121. The size of clay particles are—
(A) 1·0 mm
(B) 0·2 – 0·02 mm
(C) < 0·02 mm
(D) < 0·002 mm
122. When one plant has both male
and female flowers separately, is
called—
(A) Monophrodits
(B) Monoecious
(C) Hermaphrodite
(D) Apomixis
123. Aamrapali is the cross of—
(A) Neelam ⋅ Dashaheri
(B) Dashaheri ⋅ Langra
(C) Langra ⋅ Dashaheri
(D) Dashaheri ⋅ Neelam
124. Seed-plot technique is adopted
in—
(A) Onion (B) Potato
(C) Sugarcane (D) Tomato
125. The origin of litchi is—
(A) India (B) Philippines
(C) China (D) Burma
Answers with Hints
PD/June/2010/2194
P.Darpan
Continued from
Geography
UGC-NET/JRF EXAMINATION, 2007
(Held in Dec. 2007)
Paper-II
(Based on Memory)
Solved Paper
Note—This paper contains fifty
objective-type questions, each question
carrying two marks. Attempt all
of them.
forces is responsible for syncline
formation ?
(A) Crustal faulting
(B) Crustal rifting
(C) Crustal compression
(D) Crustal sinking
62. Pediplains and inselbergs are
features of the old stage of which
cycle of erosion ?
(A) Glacial (B) Karst
(C) Arid (D) Marine
(′ped·ə′plān)
. Pediplains geology) A rock-cut erosion surface formed in a desert by the coalescence

of two or more pediments. Also known as desert peneplain; desert plain; panfan.
A mountain or rocky mass that has resisted erosion and stands isolated in an essentially
level area. Also called inselberg.
An extensive erosion surface, interrupted by the occasional kopje or inselberg, and found
in semi-arid and savanna landscapes, especially those of Africa. Pediplain formation, or
pediplanation, is thought to result from the coalescence of neighbouring pediments. It is
regarded as the last stage in an arid cycle of erosion or pediplanation cycle. In the early
stages of the cycle, streams are rejuvenated and start eroding headwards from the coast.
Scarps then retreat away from the drainage lines. Compare with peneplanation.
Ultimately, the pediplain comprises an intricate assembly of pediments which slope down
to the local drainage systems, and of basins.
63. Which of the following terms
does not indicate similar processes
?
(A) Diastrophism
(B) Folding
(C) Exfoliation
(D) Warping
64. In which of the following the
direction of flow of streams is
controlled by rock structure ?
(A) Consequent
(B) Subsequent
(C) Insequent
(D) Obsequent
(hydrology) A stream that flows in the general direction of the strike of the underlying
strata and is subsequent to the formation of the consequent stream of which it is a
tributary. Also known as longitudinal stream; strike stream.
• Consequent streams are streams whose course is a direct consequence of the

original slope of the surface upon which it developed, i.e., streams that follow
slope of the original land.
• Subsequent streams are streams whose course has been determined by selective
headward erosion along weak strata. These streams have generally developed
after the original stream. Subsequent streams developed independently of the
original relief of the land and generally follow paths determined by the weak rock
belts.
• Resequent streams are streams whose course follows the original relief, but at a
lower level than the original slope (e.g., flows down a course determined by the
underlying strata in the same direction). These streams develop later and are
generally a tributary to a subsequent stream.
• Obsequent streams are streams flowing in the opposite direction of the
consequent drainage.
• Insequent streams have an almost random drainage often forming dendritic
patterns. These are typically tributaries and have developed by a headward
erosion on a horizontally stratified belt or on homogeneous rocks. These streams
follow courses that apparently were not controlled by the original slope of the
surface, its structure or the type of rock.
mark the correct answer in the
codes given below—
List-I
(a) Wind erosion
(b) Ground water depletion
(c) Glacial Deposition
(d) River erosion
List-II
1. Drumlins
2. Stalagmites
3. Barkhans
4. Peneplains
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
Barchan dune A crescent. shaped dune, the tips or horns of which point downwind.
Barchan dunes form in desert areas where sand is scarce.
Drumlin A smooth, glacially streamlined hill that is elongate in the direction of ice
movement. Drumlins are generally composed of till.
Peneplain An extensive erosion surface worn down almost to sea level. Subsequent
tectonic activity can lift a peneplain to higher elevations.
Stalagmite A conical deposit of drips tone built up from a cave floor.
66. What is recorded with the help

of a hydrograph ?
(A) Wind velocity
(B) Vapour retention
(C) Relative humidity
(D) Water discharge
A hydrograph is a graph of the flow in a stream over a period of time. Below is a
picture of a hydrograph, with stream flow (discharge) in cubic feet per second on the
y-axis and time in months on the x-axis. Peaks in the hydrograph are usually a result
of precipitation events, while troughs represent drier times.
07. The increase in the chloroflurocarbon

in the atmosphere is
associated with—
(A) Ozone depletion
(B) Sea level rise
(C) Aquatic life depletion
(D) Intense sonic pollution
68. What is the point of origin of an
earthquake called ?
(A) Quake centre
(B) Epicentre
(C) Seismic focus
(D) Tectonic point
The place located deep within the Earth where rocks suddenly break, causing an
earthquake, and from where seismic waves propagate.
Earthquake damage is
caused by intense vibrations of the ground generated by seismic waves which spread out
from their point of origin, the focus, or hypocentre. Located at depth, often within the
upper 60 kilometres of the crust, this is the place where rocks suddenly break along a
fault , thus releasing a considerable amount of energy.
69. Surface inversion of temperature
is a phenomenon related to—
(A) Increase in temperature with
increase in elevation
(B) Decrease in temperature
with increasing elevation
(C) Decrease in temperature
with decreasing elevation
(D) Increase in temperature
with decreasing elevation
A layer in the atmosphere in which temperature increases with altitude; the principal
characteristic of an inversion layer is its marked static stability, so that very little
turbulent exchange can occur within it; strong wind shears often occur across inversion
layers, and abrupt changes in concentrations of atmospheric particulates and atmospheric
water vapor may be encountered on ascending through the inversion layer. Also known
as thermal inversion.
(oceanography) A layer of a large body of water in which temperature increases with
depth.
10. Who had used the concept of
evapo transpiration in climate
classification ?
(A) Thornthwaite
(B) Koppen
(C) Kendrew
(D) Austin Miller
11. Eustatic changes in the sea levels
are caused by—
(A) Ice ages
(B) Epirogenic movements
(C) Orogenic movements
(D) Isostatic changes
Sea level change on a global scale. Causes include the switching between ice age and
interglacial periods and changes in the global ocean volume due to plate tectonic
movement. Combined with the isostatic changes make a relative sea level change.
12. Which of the following is a coral
island ?
(A) Tasmania
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Maldives
(D) Rameswaram
lakshadweep islands are called coral islands as polyps, over the years when die forms
layers of land. it is a natural and slow phenomena. thus, like this Lakshadweep is formed
13. In which of the following States

the Chipco movement was
started ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Uttaranchal
(D) Rajasthan
The Chipko movement or Chipko Andolan (literally "to stick" in Hindi) is a socio-
ecological movement that practised the Gandhian methods of satyagraha and non-violent
resistance, through the act of hugging trees to protect them from being felled. The
modern Chipko movement started in the early 1970s in the Garhwal Himalayas of
Uttarakhand,[1]
14. Which one of the following is

Taiga biome ?
(A) Sub-Arctic biome
(B) Sub-Saharan biome
(C) Savanna grass
There is only one Taiga in the world, and it expands from Finland to Russia, Alaska,
Sweden, Canada, and Norway. It is a subarctic evergreen forest and it is the largest biome
in the world.
15. Match List–I with List–II and
select the correct answer from
the codes given below—
List–I
(a) Coral Reef
(b) Shoal
(c) Abyssal Plain
(d) Continental Slope
List–II
1. Organic ocean deposit
2. Deep, relatively flat surface
of the ocean floor
3. Steep descent from the shelf
break
4. Detatched elevation with
shallow depths
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 1 3 2
PD/June/2010/2196
When surface waves move towards shallow water, such as a beach, they slow down, their
wave height increases and the distance between waves decreases. This behaviour is called
shoaling, and the waves are said to shoal. The waves may or may not build to the point
where they break, depending on how large they were to begin with, and how steep the
slope of the beach is. In particular, waves shoal as they pass over submerged sandbanks
or reefs. This can be treacherous for boats and ships.
The deepest part of the ocean is known as the abyssal plain. Because the abyssal plain is
so deep, it is difficult to explore, since it presents some unique challenges including
extreme pressures. As a result, much of the abyssal plain has not been mapped or
extensively studied, and it considered the great unknown of the Earth; some scientists
believe that we may know more about Mars than we do about the abyssal plain.
Several things characterize the abyssal plain, distinguishing it from other ocean features
like the continental shelf. The extreme depth is obviously the first, but the abyssal plain is
also very flat, with an extremely gentle slope. The flat plain is covered in millions of
years of sediment washed from the continents and deposited by various sea creatures.
Since the abyssal plain is so deep, there is no light, and oxygen saturation levels are also
very low.
The continental slope is a submarine geological feature which connects the continental
shelf to the abyssal plain, beginning at a depth of around 460 feet (140 meters). Together,
the continental slope and the continental shelf are often referred to as the “continental
margin,” in a reference to the fact that the combined features are found at the margins of
the Earth's continent. The continental slope also happens to mark the boundary between
the part of the world's ocean scientists are familiar with and the mysteries of the deep sea.
16. Given below are two statements,
one labelled as Assertion (A) and

the other lebelled as Reason (R).
Select your answer from the
Assertion (A) : Ritter did not
state the relationship between
history and geography as clearly
as Humboldt.
Reason (R) : Immanual Kant
understood the relationship
between history and geography
much more clearly than Ritter.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct
and (R) explains (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct,
but (R) does not explain (A)
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
17. The book ‘COSMOS’ of
Alexander Von Humboldt was
based on his travel to one of the
following continents—
(A) Asia
(B) North America
(C) Europe
(D) South America
In 1829 at age 60, Humboldt suddenly had another great opportunity--a whirlwind
expedition through Asia, across Russia and Siberia to Mongolia. A modest 3-volume
work on Asie Centrale was published as the result several years later. The remainder of
his life was consumed in writing his monumental masterpiece, Cosmos, a 5-volume
encyclopedia in which he developed the unity of all natural and human phenomena. This
"last great work of the last great universal man" enhanced his reputation enormously as
the greatest natural scientist of his day.
the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Humboldt had no
immediate followers in academic
circle in Germany, since he never
occupied any academic position.
Reason (R) : The real followers of
Humboldt scientific travellers.
Codes :
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct
19. “Nature does not drive man
along a particular road, but it
offers a number of opportunities
from among which man is free to
select”. This statement implies—
(A) Deterministic approach
(B) Possibilistic approach
(C) Deterministic and possibilistic
both approach
(D) Probabilistic approach
Greek Herodotus philosophy
20. Match the following List–I with
List–II and select the correct
answer from the codes given
below—
List-I
(Name of Geographers)
(a) Alexander Von Humboldt
(b) Ellen Churchil Semple
(c) Peter Haggett
(d) Jean Brunhes
List-II
(Name of Country)
1. France 2. U.K.
3. U.S.A. 4. Germany
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 2 3 1 4
21. Urban environmental degradation
is caused by various
factors—
1. Suspended Particular Matter
(SPM)
2. Polluted Water
3. Carbondioxide
4. Vehicular emission
Choose the correct answer—
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(B) 2 and 4 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 1 and 4 are correct
22. An increase in urban population
takes place at a rate much faster
than rural populations because—
(A) Urban population has high
birth rate
(B) Rural population has high
death rate
(C) Large number of people
migrate to urban centres
(D) Urban centres offer better
scope for employment
23. The most important criterion for
classification of towns is—
(A) Population
(B) Site
(C) Shape
(D) Functions
24. A high and gradually declining
fertility of over 30 per thousand
and a sharply reduced mortality
rate of over 15 per thousand is
characteristic of demographic
transition of—
(A) First stage
(B) Second stage
(C) Third stage
(D) Last stage
25. When the population density of
an area is obtained through
division of the total population
by the total agricultural area it is
termed—
(A) Arithmetic density
(B) Agricultural density
(C) Economic density
(D) Physiological density
26. North Atlantic Oceanic route is
the World's most important
route because—
(A) There is Labrodor coldwater
current
(B) There are developed nations
on both sides
(C) There is U.S.A. on the west
coast
(D) It is a safe navigation route
27. Which one of the following is not
related to Plantation Agriculture
?
(A) Tea cultivation
(B) Coffee cultivation
(C) Rubber latex production
(D) Soyabean cultivation
the other lebelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Weber's theory
hinges on transportation costs
but ignores the fact that freight
rates may not always increase in
direct proportion to the distance.
Reason (R) : The freight rates,
however, may not be similar for
raw material and finished goods.
Codes :
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is
wrong
(D) (A) is wrong, but (R) is
correct
PD/June/2010/2197
29. Which one of the following is a
large scale map ?
(A) 1 : 2,50,000
(B) 1 : 10,00,000
(C) 1 : 25,000
(D) 1 : 50,000
30. The best-suited soil for cotton
cultivation is—
(A) Lateritic soil
(B) Regur soil
(C) Sandy soil
(D) Loamy soil
Assertion (A) : Virgin soils newly
cleared off forests account for
highest yield of coffee.
Reason (R) : Coffee is a soil
exhaustive crop.
Codes :
(C) (A) is right, but (R) is wrong
(D) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right
32. Cultural landscape shows—
(A) Human impact on environment
(B) Dominance of nature
(C) Impact of ecological factors
(D) Association of fauna and
flora
districts is dominated by tribal
population ?
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Bastar
(C) Rohtak
(D) Karnal
34. The primitive people who live in
Kalahari desert are known as—
(A) Pigmies (B) Bantus
(C) Bushman (D) Todas
35. Which one of the following has
no caste in the scheduled category
?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(D) Pondicherry
36. Which of the Indian states has
the maximum number of common
borders with other Indian
States ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Karnataka
attributes is not a measure of
Human Development ?
(A) Literacy
(B) Life expectancy
(C) Per capita income
(D) Consumer expenditure
Assertion (A) : The levels of
urbanization in the Advanced
countries followed an elongated
‘S’ shaped curve.
Reason (R) : The levels of urbanization
in India has followed
almost a straight line.
Codes :
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is
wrong
(D) (A) is wrong, but (R) is
correct
39. Which of the following is the
most suitable term to define a
metropolitan region ?
(A) Formal
(B) Functional
(C) Economic
(D) Generic
40. Who among the following suggested
the triad of mutual relationship
among “Place, work and
folk” ?
(A) Le play
(B) Clarence Stein
(C) Le Corbusier
(D) Ebenezer Howard
41. Factors that contribute to minimisation
of regional imbalances
in development are many. Which
one of the following is the most
relevant ?
(A) Increasing accessibility
(B) Strengthening forward and
backward linkages of regional
economies
(C) Investment in less developed
regions
(D) Planning the development
of metropolitan centres
42. Which one of the following states
is the leading one in terms of
total fish catch ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamilnadu
(C) West Bengal
(D) Gujarat
43. Which river out of the following
is older than the Himalayas ?
(A) Sutlej (B) Ganga
(C) Beas (D) Ravi
44. Which one of the following states
experienced heavy snowfall
during February, 2005 ?
(A) Assam (B) J & K
(C) Mizoram (D) Sikkim
correct ?
(A) Arithmetic mean is a
numerical value
(B) Arithmetic mean is not
affected by the variability in the
data set
(C) Arithmetic mean is always a
positive number
(D) Arithmetic mean is not
useful for any further statistical
analysis of the data
appropriate method for study of
dispersion ?
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) Standard deviation
47. Isochrone Map shows lines connecting—
(A) Equal travel time
(B) Equal transport costs
(C) Equal travel distance
(D) Areas with similar accessibility
48. Dasymetric map is an improved
version of choropleth map as it
effectively shows the following—
PD/June/2010/2198
(A) The homogeneity and rapid
change
(B) The differences and uniqueness
(C) The gradual areal changes
(D) The random distribution
Human geography has used
absolute, relative and relational concepts
of space. In the absolute conception,
space is considered a distinct
physical, empirical and real entity. In
the relative conception space is a
relation between events and thus
related to time and process. In the
relational conception space is not
viewed in term of its geometry, but in
terms of how spatial relations are
carved out through human practice,
that is through spatial organization.
49. Morphological studies adopt
which concept of space ?
(A) Absolute
(B) Relational
(C) Relative
(D) Both (A) and (C)
50. Spatial organization is primarily
based on—
(A) Spatial geometry
(B) Spatial process
(C) Spatial relations
(D) Spatial-Social dialectic
Answers with Explanations
P.Darpan
Continued from Page 2170
cement, 36% of crude steel and 47%
of pig iron. The leading companies of
China by market capitalization in
April 2009 were Petro China, China
Mobile (Hong Kong) and Industrial
and Commercial Bank of China. In
November 2007 Petro China became
the world’s largest company for a
period of five months after its floatation
on the Shanghai stock market.
Tourist Places
Important tourist places in China
include the Great Wall of China,
Zhoukodian, the Peking Man site,
Imperial Palaces of the Ming and
Qing Dynasties in Beijing and
Shenyang, Taishan Mountain, Magao
Caves, Mount Huangshan, Huanglong
Scenic Reserve, Chengde Mountain
Resort, Potala Palace Lhasa Qufu
temple, cemetry and mansion of
confucius, Mount Emei Scenic
Reserve, South China Karst, Fuijian
Tulou and Mount Sanquingshan
National Park. P.Darpan
PD/June/2010/2199
General Knowledge
COMBINED DEFENCE SERVICES EXAM., 2010
(Held on 14-2-2010)
Solved Paper
1. A boy throws four stones of
same shape, size and weight
with equal speed at different
initial angles with the horizontal
line. If the angles are 15°, 30°, 45°
and 60°, at which angle the stone
will cover the maximum distance
horizontally ?
(A) 15° (B) 30°
(C) 45° (D) 60°
Range = uSin2/g
2. The cleaning of dirty clothes by

soaps and detergents is due to a
type of molecules called surfactants,
which are present in soaps
and detergents. The surfactant
molecules remove the dirt by—
(A) making the cloth slippery
(B) producing some gases between
the dirt and the cloth
(C) dissolving the dirt
(D) forming some aggregates of
themselves and take away the
dirt in the core of the aggregates
3. The most familiar form of radiant

energy in sunlight that causes
tanning and sunburning of
human skin, is called—
(A) ultraviolet radiation
(B) visible radiation
(C) infrared radiation
(D) microwave radiation
4. The polymeric fibre used as a
substitute for wool in making
synthetic blankets, sweaters, etc.,
is—
(A) Nylon (B) Teflon
(C) Orlon (D) Bakelite
5. Which one of the following plants
is used for green manuring in
India ?
(A) Wheat (B) Sunhemp
(C) Cotton (D) Rice
6. Which among the following are
the major reasons behind preferring
Eucalyptus tree in the
planned forestation process ?
1. Plantation grows very fast.
2. Plantation makes the soil
more fertile.
3. Wood from Eucalyptus tree is
easily converted into pulp for
paper industry.
Select the correct answer using
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
select the correct answer using
the codes given below the Lists—
List-I
(Alloy)
(a) Solder (b) Brass
(c) Bronze (d) Steel
List-II
(Constituent)
1. Iron and Carbon
2. Copper and Zinc
3. Copper and Tin
4. Lead and Tin
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
8. Consider the following statements—
1. Iodine is necessary for the
thyroid gland to make adrenaline.
2. Iodine deficiency leads to
goiter in human beings.
3. Iodine is secreted by pancreas
and helps in regulating
cholesterol level.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 only
1. A person with myopia can
see distant objects distinctly
but cannot see nearby objects
clearly.
2. A person with hypermetropia
cannot see distant objects
clearly.
3. A person with presbyopia
can see nearby objects without
corrective glasses.
above is/are not correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 only
the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(Item)
(a) CFL lamp
(b) Automobile battery
(c) Polymer
(d) Diesel engine
List-II
(Toxic substance)
1. Nitrogen oxides
2. Phthalates
3. Lead
4. Mercury
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 3 2 4
11. Some statements about the
benefits of organic farming are
given below. Indicate whether
they are true or false using the
codes given below the statements—
PD/June/2010/2200
(a) It reduces CO2 emission.
(b) It does not lead to toxic
effect.
(c) It improves the waterretention
capacity of the soil.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c)
(A) False True False
(B) True False False
(C) False True True
(D) True True True
chemicals is commonly used by
farmers to destroy weeds ?
(A) DDT
(B) Malathion
(C) Methyl bromide
(D) 2, 4-D
1. Clear sky appears blue due to
poor scattering of blue wavelength
of visible light.
2. Red part of light shows more
scattering than blue light in
the atmosphere.
3. In the absence of atmosphere,
there would be no scattering
of light and sky will look
black.
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
14. Which one among the following
plants cannot be multiplied by
cuttings ?
(A) Rose
(B) Bryophyllum
(C) Banana
(D) Marigold
15. Hair of a shaving brush cling
together when the brush is
removed from water due to—
(A) viscosity
(B) surface tension
(C) friction
(D) elasticity
16. An underwater meeting held
recently has drawn attention
world over. The meeting was
held by—
(A) some Somali pirates to make
a new strategy for capturing
ships for ransom
(B) some environmental
scientists for promoting awareness
for saving water
(C) some environmental
activists for promoting awareness
against air pollution
(D) the Cabinet of a country to
highlight the threat of rising sea
level for the country
17. Which Asian team will be out of
the next FIFA Football World
Cup for the first time after a gap
of 20 years ?
(A) Saudi Arabia
(B) South Korea
(C) Japan
(D) Iran
a football tournament ?
(A) I-League
(B) Irani Trophy
(C) Bardoloi Trophy
(D) Durand Cup
19. Consider the following paragraph
and identify the person
referred to therein with the help
of the codes given below—
After training under Ustad
Abdul Rehman Khan of Patiala
Gharana, he turned to Ustad
Ghulam Mustafa Khan.
‘Memories come Alive’ is his
autobiography. He was awarded
Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
Codes :
(A) S. D. Burman
(B) Bhupen Hazarika
(C) Manna Dey
(D) Bhimsen Joshi
20. Which one of the following is the
central theme of the Chipko
Movement, started by Sunderlal
Bahuguna in 1973 ?
(A) Conservation of river water
(B) Protection of birds
(C) Protection of cheetahs
(D) Conservation of forests
21. Which one of the following is the
solitary aircraft carrier of the
Indian Navy that turns 50 in 2009
and has the distinction of being
the oldest floating airfield in
service ?
(A) INS Viraat
(B) INS Trishul
(C) INS Godavari
(D) INS Vikramaditya
22. In the year 2009, Japan launched
its first satellite to monitor greenhouse
gases. What is the name of
the satellite ?
(A) Tadami (B) Yasushi
(C) Kyoto (D) Ibuki
23. Which one of the following pairs
with respect to computer is not
correctly matched ?
(A) 1 megabyte : (1024) ⋅ (1024)
bytes
(B) Compiler : A program which
translates a high-level language
program into machine language
(C) Liveware : The users working
on the system
(D) Plotter : An electronic device
used to convert digital electronic
signals to communication channel
electronic signals and vice
versa
24. Who among the following were
jointly awarded the Rajiv Gandhi
Khel Ratna Award for the year
2008 ?
(A) M. C. Marykom, Vijender
Singh, Sushil Kumar
(B) M. C. Marykom, Vijender
Singh, Saina Nehwal
(C) Vijender Singh, Sushil
Kumar, R. S. Rathore
(D) M. C. Marykom, Sushil
Kumar, R. S. Rathore
25. If the earth did not have an
atmosphere, temperature extremes
between day and night
would—
(A) increase
(B) decrease
(C) stay the same
(D) fluctuate rapidly
26. Which one of the following statements
on biosphere reserves is
not correct ?
(A) In 1973, UNESCO launched
a worldwide programme on man
and biosphere
(B) Biosphere reserves promote
research on ecological conservation
(C) Nanda Devi Biosphere
Reserve is located in Madhya
Pradesh
(D) Biosphere reserves are
multipurpose protected areas to
preserve the genetic diversity in
ecosystems
PD/June/2010/2201
is not correct regarding
the Himalayas ?
(A) Himalayas have nappe and
recumbent folds
(B) Himalayas rose up from the
Tethys Sea
(C) Himalayas contain three
mountain ranges—Siwaliks,
Great Himalayas and Kunlun
Ranges
(D) The orogeny took place in
the Tertiary Era
associated with monsoon climate
in India ?
(A) El Nino temporary warm
currents
(B) South-equatorial warm
currents of Indian Ocean
(C) Western disturbances
(D) Cyclones of Bay of Bengal
29. On the above map of India, the
shaded districts are those in
which a particular tribal group
constitutes more than 50% of the
tribal population. What is that
particular tribal group ?
(A) Gonds (B) Bhil
(C) Nagas (D) Santhals
places is not located on the bank
of river Ganga ?
(A) Uttarkashi (B) Kanpur
(C) Fatehpur (D) Bhagalpur
31. Prominent Indian social activist
Deep Joshi was awarded the
prestigious Ramon Magsaysay
Award for the year 2009 for his—
(A) philanthropic work in the
form of the Lok Biradari Prakalp
amongst the Madia Gonds in
Gadehiroli district of Maharashtra
and the neighboring
States of Andhra Pradesh and
Madhya Pradesh
(B) extensive work in applying
wireless technologies to develop
remote areas of the Himalayas
(C) vision and leadership in
bringing professionalism to the
NGO movement in India
(D) dedicated service for cancer
patients and intensive research in
the prevention and cure of the
disease
about Gangubai Hangal,
who died in July 2009, is not
correct ?
(A) She was a Hindustani
classical singer of Kirana Gharana
(B) She was awarded Bharat
Ratna in 2002
(C) She was a campaigner to
increase awareness for organ
donation
(D) She had the rare honour of
being felicitated by nine Prime
Ministers and five Presidents of
India
about WADA (World
Anti-Doping Agency) code is not
correct ?
(A) The code is the core document
that provides the framework
for harmonized anti-doping
policies, rules and regulations
within sport organizations and
among public authorities
(B) The code entered into force
from January 1, 2004
(C) Under the code, the use of
any prohibited substance by an
athlete for medical reasons is not
possible
(D) Under the code, a sanction
could be applied in cases where
there is evidence that an antidoping
rule violation has
occurred, but where there is no
positive doping-control test
34. Consider the following statements
about lawn tennis court—
1. Hard courts are faster than
clay courts but not a fast as
grass courts.
2. The French Open is played
on a hard court, but the US
Open is played on a clay
court.
3. An approximate north/south
orientation of the court is
desirable during evening
play.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
35. If a limestone piece is dipped in
water, a bubble evolves. The
bubbling is due to—
(A) Hydrogen
(B) Oxygen
(C) Water vapour
(D) Carbon dioxide
Rajdhani trains covers the
longest distance ?
(A) 2433 Chennai Central
(B) 2431 Trivandrum Central
(C) 2435 Dibrugarh Town
(D) 2429 Bangalore City Junction
37. On which one of the following
grounds, in August 2009, Scottish
authorities released to return
home Abdel Basset al-Megrahi, a
former Libyan agent, Jailed for
life for the bombing of Pan Am
Flight 103 on December 1988 that
killed 270 people, most of whom
were US nationals ?
(A) UN requested the Scottish
authorities to release him
(B) He was dying of cancer
(C) Charges against him could
not be established in the Scottish
Court of Law
(D) US granted pardon to him
38. Consider the following paragraph—
He was seriously injured in police
lathi charge in Lahore during
demonstrations against Simon
Commission for which he
subsequently died in November
1928. Later on the British officer,
who was responsible for the lathi
charge on him, was shot dead by
Bhagat Singh and Rajguru.
The revolutionary referred to in
the above paragraph is—
(A) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Mangal Singh
(D) Motilal Nehru
PD/June/2010/2202
can be provided under RTI Act,
2005 ?
(A) Information leading to
incitement of an offense
(B) Information leading to disclosure
that may constitute
contempt of court
(C) Conditional disclosure relating
to information on intellectual
property
(D) Information relating to
Cabinet Papers recording deliberations
of Council of Ministers
40. In the month of October 2009, the
Indian Air Force in Mumbai
airport forced a flight of North
American Airlines Boeing 767 to
land. Which of the following
statements in this respect is/are
correct ?
1. It was forced to land, because
the Indian Air Force was
reported that there was a
bomb planted in the plane.
2. The plane was travelling to
Bangkok, Thailand from Fujiriah,
United Arab Emirates.
3. The plane was carrying US
troops.
the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
about Tata Steel—
1. It is Asia’s first privately
owned integrated iron and
steel plant.
2. It is the first company outside
Japan to get the Deming
Application Prize in 2008 for
excellence in total quality
management.
3. Immediately after the enactment
of Provident Fund Law
in India, Tata Steel introduced
provident fund for its
employees.
4. It is the first company in the
world to get Social Accountability
8000 certification
from Social Accountability
International, USA.
above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
about the Queen’s Baton
Relay—
1. The helix shape of the Baton
for the 2010 Commonwealth
Games, created out of
aluminium, is coated with a
graded and layered soil
pattern in black, yellow and
red to represent the diversity
of Commonwealth nations.
2. This Relay traditionally
begins with a commencement
ceremony at Buckingham
Palace, London, during
which, the Queen entrusts
the Baton containing her
message to the athletes to the
first honorary relay runner.
3. The Relay for the 1998 Games
in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia
was the first to travel to other
nations of the Commonwealth.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only
crops’ production has been
exceeding target since 2004-2005
in India, but its growers have
been committing suicide in large
numbers in many parts of the
country every year ?
(A) Pulse (B) Cotton
(C) Oilseeds (D) Wheat
1. The DRDO developed two
variants of Prithvi Missile.
2. Prithvi II is equipped with
features of maneuverability
to deceive the enemy defence
system.
3. Induction of Prithvi Missile
enhances the capability of the
Indian Army to attack multiple
targets simultaneously.
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
45. High Altitude Warfare School of
the Indian Army is located at—
(A) Gulmarg (B) Siachin
(C) Leh (D) Manali
with regard to Statutory
Liquidity Ratio (SLR)—
1. To meet SLR, commercial
banks can use cash only.
2. SLR is maintained by the
banks with themselves.
3. SLR restricts the banks’ leverage
in pumping more money
into the economy.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 2 only
regarding the Fundamental
Duties contained in the
Constitution of India are correct ?
1. Fundamental Duties can be
enforced through writ jurisdiction.
2. Fundamental Duties have
formed a part of the Constitution
since its adoption.
3. Fundamental Duties became
a part of the Constitution in
accordance with the recommendations
of the Swaran
Singh Committee.
4. Fundamental Duties are
applicable only to the citizens
of India.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4
48. When Lord Mountbatten became
the first Governor-General of
India, who among the following
became the Governor-General
for Pakistan ?
(A) Lord Mountbatten
(B) M. A. Jinnah
(C) Liaquat Ali Khan
(D) Shaukat Ali
PD/June/2010/2203
49. ‘Diarchy’ was first introduced in
India under—
(A) Morley-Minto Reforms
(B) Montford Reforms
(C) Simon Commission Plan
(D) Government of India Act,
1935
50. The major thrust of Jawahar
Rozgar Yojna (JRY) is on—
(A) removal of poverty among
the Scheduled Castes in rural
areas
(B) creating additional wage
employment opportunities in
rural areas
(C) creating employment opportunities
in urban areas
(D) providing training to rural
youth for self-employment
51. Which of the following was/
were the main feature(s) of the
Government of India Act, 1919 ?
1. Introduction of separate
electorates for Muslims
2. Devolution of legislative
authority by the Centre to the
Provinces
3. Expansion and reconstitution
of Central and Provincial
Legislatures
Codes :
(A) 2 only (B) 1 and 3
(C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3
52. For which one of the following
judgments of the Supreme Court
of India, the Kesavananda
Bharati Vs. State of India case is
considered a landmark ?
(A) The religion cannot be
mobilised for political ends
(B) Abolishing untouchability
from the country
(C) The basic structures of the
Constitution, as defined in the
Preamble, cannot be changed
(D) Right to life and liberty
cannot be suspended under any
circumstance
53. Who among the following Indian
Prime Ministers resigned before
facing a vote of no-confidence in
the Lok Sabha ?
(A) Chandra Shekhar
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(D) V. P. Singh
statements related to the Boston
Tea Party of 16th December, 1773
during the American War of
Independence is correct ?
(A) The revolutionaries stealthily
entered into the ships and
threw all the chests of tea into the
water
(B) The revolutionaries hosted a
Tea Party in the honour of
Charles Townshend, the British
Chancellor of the Exchequer in
order to place their grievances
before him
(C) It marked a celebration
when Lord North, the successor
of Townshend, repealed some of
the duties imposed by Townshend
(D) It was a protest against the
Quebec Act
1. The total elective membership
of the Lok Sabha is distributed
among the States on
the basis of the population
and the area of the State.
2. The 84th Amendment Act of
the Constitution of India lifted
the freeze on the delimitation
of constituencies imposed by
the 42nd Amendment.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Human Right as well as a
Fundamental Right under the
Constitution of India ?
(A) Right to information
(B) Right to education
(C) Right to work
(D) Right to housing
57. Which one of the following Commissions/
Committees was
appointed by the British Government
to investigate into the
massacre in Jalianwalla Bagh ?
(A) Welby Commission
(B) Hunter Committee
(C) Simon Commission
(D) Butter Committee
referred to therein with the help
of the codes given below—
During his stay in England, he
endeavored to educate the British
people about their responsibilities
as rulers of India. He delivered
speeches and published
articles to support his opposition
to the unjust and oppressive
regime of the British Raj. In 1867,
he helped to establish the East
India Association of which he
became the Honorary Secretary.
Codes :
(A) Pherozeshah Mehta
(B) Mary Carpenter
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) Ananda Mohan Bose
59. Which two of the following plays
did Kalidasa write before writing
Abhigyanashakuntalam ?
1. Vikramorvashiyam
2. Malavikagnimitram
3. Swapnavasavadattam
4. Kadambari
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
60. “Use of white marble, long legs
and slender frames, human
beings as central characters and
prominence of kings, princess
and palaces” were the characteristic
features of which one of
the following ancient art forms of
India ?
(A) Amaravati School of Art
(B) Gandhara School of Art
(C) Mathura School of Art
(D) Pahari School of Art
referred to therein using the
She joined the diplomatic corps
in 1949 and became the first
woman diplomat of India. She
was the Ambassador to Hungary,
Ghana and the Netherlands.
PD/June/2010/2204
Codes :
(A) C. B. Muthamma
(B) Nirupama Rao
(C) Chokila Iyar
(D) Meira Kumar
62. Consider the following features
of a border district of India and
identify the district using the
Situated at the height of 10000
feet, which is enchanted with
scenic beauty, the district is
surrounded by two nations in the
north and south-west. River
Nyamjang-chu runs through it.
Potato, maize and millet are the
main crops of the district. Besides
monasteries, tourist attractions of
the district and its surrounding
places include Sella Pass, P. Tso.
Lake, War Memorial, Jaswant
Garh, etc. Losar is one of the
prominent festivals of the district.
Codes :
(A) Lohit (B) Tawang
(C) Kangra (D) West Sikkim
63. ‘AVAHAN’—the Indian segment
of Bill and Melinda Gates
Foundation (BMGF) is engaged
in the prevention of—
(A) Dengue
(B) Polio
(C) HIV/AIDS
(D) Filariasis
referred to in it—
A Nobel Laureate in Literature,
she is a member of Romania’s
ethnic German minority who
was prosecuted for her critical
depictions of life ‘behind the Iron
Curtain’. She made her debut in
1982 with a collection of short
stories entitled ‘Niederungen’,
which depicted the harsh life in a
small, German-speaking village
in Romania. This book was
censored by the Communist
Government.
(A) Doris Lessing
(B) Gunter Grass
(C) Herta Mueller
(D) Imre Kertesz
65. Which of the following pairs are
correctly matched ?
1. Carlos
Ghosn
: Nissan Motor
Company
2. Bill Green : Accenture
3. Carol Bartz : Yahoo
4. Andy Bond : Vodafone
Code :
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3
66. Which one of the following Public
Sector banks’ emblem figures a
dog and the words ‘faithful,
friendly’ in it ?
(A) Punjab National Bank
(B) Syndicate Bank
(C) Oriental Bank of Commerce
(D) State Bank of India
67. Which one of the following countries’
Central Bank has procured
200 metric tons of gold from the
IMF in October 2009 ?
(A) China (B) Sri Lanka
(C) Singapore (D) India
the code given below the lists—
List-I
(Name of warhead)
(a) Teja (b) Arjun
(c) Dhanus (d) Astra
List-II
(Type)
1. Air-to-air missile
2. Ship-based missile
3. Main battle tank
4. Light combat aircraft
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
69. Piramal Life Science is a/an—
(A) Life insurance company
(B) Durg research company
(C) SEZ (Special Econmic Zone)
(D) PSU dealing with healthcare
amenities
70. Launched recently by the Central
Board of Excise and Customs,
‘ACES’ is a—
(A) New centralized, web-based
software application of the Board
(B) Service desk division of the
Board for collection of service
taxes
(C) New division of the Board
for disseminating information
about the direct tax sturcture in
force
(D) New form of service tax
return
71. Which one of the following States
has won the overall championship
title in the 63rd National
Aquatic Championship held in
Kerala in 2009 ?
(A) Kerala (B) Karnataka
(C) Assam (D) West Bengal
72. In the assembly polls that took
place in three States in October
2009, the Indian National Congress
got absolute majority in—
(A) All the three States of Maharashtra,
Haryana and Arunachal
Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra and Arunachal
Pradesh only
(C) Haryana and Maharashtra
only
(D) Arunachal Pradesh only
an issue straining Indo-China
relations ?
(A) Construction of a dam
across the river Brahmaputra in
Tibet
(B) Visit of Dalai Lama to
Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Stapling of Chinese visa for
the people of Jammu and
Kashmir
(D) Linking Kashmir valley with
the Indian Railways Network
States has seen a series of strong
public protests against the
Armed Forces Special Powers
Act in force in that State ?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Jammu and Kashmir
(D) Jharkhand
75. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan has
been jointly awarded the 2009
Nobel Prize in Chemistry for his
contributions in—
PD/June/2010/2205
(A) Identifying the molecular
ruler in ribosomal assembly
which ensures error-free
synthesis of protein in cells
(B) Synthesizing a group of lifesaving
antibiotics
(C) The work on green fluorescent
protein of jellyfish
(D) Successfully crystallizing
the large subunits of ribosome in
cells
76. Which is the correct arrangement
of the following rivers from
north to south ?
(A) Godavari, Penner, Kaveri,
Periyar
(B) Penner, Godavari, Periyar,
Kaveri
(C) Godavari, Kaveri, Penner,
Periyar
(D) Kaveri, Godavari, Periyar,
Penner
77. The time at Cairo is 2 hours
ahead of Greenwich. Hence, it is
located at—
(A) 30° W longitude
(B) 30° E longitude
(C) 28° E longitude
(D) 28° W longitude
78. Bolivar is the monetary unit of—
(A) Venezuela (B) Brazil
(C) Bolivia (D) Belarus
the codes given below the Lists
List-I
(Sphere of the earth)
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Hydrosphere
(c) Atomosphere
(d) Biosphere
List-II
(Main constituent of the sphere)
1. Living objects
2. Mixture of gases
3. Water
4. Soil
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
80. Which of the following seas are
enclosed ?
1. Andaman Sea
2. Aral Sea
3. Sea of Azov
4. Bering Sea
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 4
81. An earthquake epicentre is the—
(A) Point where the seismograph
is located
(B) Point within the earth where
the movement along the fault
occurs
(C) Approximate centre of a
group of related earthquakes
(D) Point on the surface directly
above where the rupture along
the fault zone occurs
82. The concept of sustainable development
relates to—
(A) Consumption levels
(B) Exhaustible resources
(C) Social equity
(D) Intergenerational equity
83. The jet streams are—
(A) Wind systems with a
pronounced seasonal reverse at a
direction
(B) Winds blowing from the
subtropical high-pressure belts
towards the subpolar lowpressure
belts
(C) Narrow meandering bands
of swift winds which blow in the
midlatitudes near the tropopause
and encircle the globe
(D) Winds blowing from the
subpolar low-pressure belts
towards the subtropical highpressure
belts
84. If the movement of the earth’s
crust or a major climatic change
makes an old stream young, it is
called—
(A) Consequent stream
(B) Rejuvenation
(C) Subsequent stream
(D) Aggradation
85. Tsunamis are not caused by—
(A) Hurricanes
(B) Earthquakes
(C) Undersea landslides
(D) Volcanic eruptions
with regard to rainfall in
India is/are correct ?
1. Most of the rainfall in India is
due to the south-west monsoon.
2. In South India, rainfall
decreases away from the
Eastern Ghats.
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
87. Deltas are common in India for
the east-flowing river systems,
whereas they are nearly absent
on the west coast, because westflowing
rivers—
(A) Are few
(B) Have lesser water volume
and carry less run-off silt
(C) Originate in dry areas
(D) Originate largely in the
Western Ghats and have a short
distnace to cover to the sea
projects of the NHPC (National
Hydroelectric Power Corporation)
has the largest power
genration capacity (installed) ?
(A) Baira-Siul (B) Chamera-I
(C) Loktak (D) Salal
trains/railways passes through
Germany, France, Austria, Hungary
and Romania ?
(A) Trans-Siberian
(B) Cape-Cairo
(C) Orient Express
(D) Union and Central Pacific
90. Which one of the following does
not have a heavy water plant ?
(A) Narora (B) Sriharikota
(C) Kakrapar (D) Kota
91. Who drafted the Constitution of
Muslim League, ‘The green
Book’ ?
(A) Rahamat Ali
(B) Muhammad Iqbal
(C) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Maulana Muhammad Ali
Jauhar
PD/June/2010/2206
92. October 26, 1947 is an important
date in the Indian History,
because of—
(A) Maharaja Hari Singh’s
signing of Instrument of
Accession
(B) Ceasefire with Pakistan
(C) Merger of Sind
(D) Declaration of war over
India by Pakistan
93. The Nehru-Liaquat Pact between
India and Pakistan was signed in
1950 to resolve the issue of—
(A) The protection of minorities
(B) The accession of Princely
States
(C) The border disputes
(D) The problem of refugees
relating to the famous
Muzaffarpur murders (1908)—
1. The bomb, which was hurled
at the carriage of Mrs. Pringle
and her daughter, was
actually intended for Mr.
Kingsford, the District Judge
of Muzaffarpur.
2. The revolutionaries wanted
to kill Mr. Kingsford, because
he had inflicted severe
punishments on Swadeshi
activists.
3. Khudiram and Prafulla Chaki
had to pay the penalty for
their action by death.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
95. The ‘Dual Government’ recommended
by Lord Clive provided
that the—
(A) Criminal justice would be
left to the Nawabi officials, while
civil and fiscal matters would be
controlled by the Company
(B) Company will look after
fiscal matters and all the rest
would be dealt by the Indian
rulers
(C) Indian rulers will deal with
all the matters of administration
under the supervision of a Company
official
(D) Indian rulers will be only
titular heads and all the powers
shall be diectly dealt by the
Company
96. After the death of Raja Rammohan
Roy, the Brahmo Samaj
split into two sections; the
Brahmo Samaj of India and the
Adi Brahmo Samaj. Who were
the leaders of the two sections
respectively ?
(A) Keshab Chandra Sen and
Debendranath Tagore
(B) Radhakanta Deb and
Debendranath Tagore
(C) Keshab Chandra Sen and
Radhakanta Deb
(D) Debendranath Tagore and
Radhakanta Deb
UNESCO’s World Heritage
mission is to—
1. Take over the management,
maintenance and preservation
of World Heritage sites.
2. Encourage State parties to the
Convention concerning the
Protection of the World
Cultural and Natural Heritage
to nominate sites within
their national territory for
inclusion on the World
Heritage List.
3. Provide emergency assistance
for World Heritage sites in
immediate danger.
Which one the statements given
above are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
statements regarding Harappan
civilization is correct ?
(A) The standard Harappan
seals were made of clay
(B) The inhabitants of Harappa
had neither knowledge of copper
nor bronze
(C) The Harappan civilization
was rural-based
(D) The inhabitants of Harappa
grew and used cotton
99. Under which of the following
conditions can citizenship be
provided in India ?
1. One should be born in India.
2. Either of whose parents was
born in India.
3. Who has been ordinary
resident of India for not less
than five years.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) Either 1 or 2 or 3
1. The current global economic
crisis owes its genesis to the
subprime crisis in the United
States.
2. The Indian economy is
showing a faster recovery
from the economic crisis
than its western counterparts.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
inscriptions mentions Pulakesin
II’s military success against
Harashvardhana ?
(A) Allahabad Pillar Inscription
(B) Aihole Inscription
(C) Damodarpur Copperplate
Inscription
(D) Bilsad Inscription
102. The Constitution (74th) Amendment
Act mentions of the—
(A) Composition of the
National Development Council
(B) The Municipalities
(C) Functions of the State
Finance Commission
(D) Functions of the Kaveri
Water Authority
International Human Rights
Instruments has been signed by
India but not yet ratified ?
(A) Convention on the rights of
the child
(B) Convention on the elimination
of all forms of discrimination
against women
PD/June/2010/2207
(C) Convention on the political
rights of women
(D) Convention on the
nationality of married women
1. The gross revenue from the
telecom sector in India
accounts for 3% of the GDP
(2009).
2. Centre for Development of
Telematics is better known
as C-DOT.
3. The switch from digital technology
to the analog system
revolutionized telephony in
India.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 (D) 2 and 3
about Concordat—
1. It is an agreement between
the Roman Catholic Church
and the State.
2. The President of Brazil did
not sign a Concordat during
the Pope Benedict XVI’s visit
to Brazil in 2007.
3. Concordat of 2009 was
signed between the Holy See
and Portugal.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 1 and 3 only
106. Bluetooth technology allows—
(A) Wireless communication between
equipments
(B) Signal transmission on
mobile phones only
(C) Landline to mobile phone
communication
(D) Satellite television communication
107. At high altitudes, pressure
cooker is preferable for cooking,
because the boiling point of
water—
(A) Reduces due to higher
atmospheric pressure
(B) Reduces due to lower
atmospheric pressure
(C) Increases due to reduced
gravitational force
(D) Reduces due to increased
ozone content in the atmosphere
108. The vitamin(s), which is/are
generally excreted in urine,
is/are—
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamins D and K
is a major source of sugar ?
(A) Watermelon
(B) Beetroot
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Date
110. Itching due to insect bite is
caused by—
(A) Formic acid
(B) Acetic acid
(C) Lactic acid
(D) Maleic acid
111. If excess fertilizer is applied to a
plant without water, the plant
will—
(A) Be stunted in growth
(B) Develop modifications
(C) Die due to plasmolysis
(D) Remain unaffected
112. Tips of leaves in grasses and
common garden plants show
water drop in early morning
hours. This water accumulation
is obtained from—
(A) Atmosphere
(B) Stomata
(C) Vascular bundles
(D) Hydathodes
biodegradable ?
(A) Woollen mat
(B) Silver foil
(C) Leather bag
(D) Jute basket
114. Which among the following
elements is abundant on the
lunar surface and holds the
potential to put an end to the
energy crisis of the earth ?
(A) Helium-I
(B) Helium-II
(C) Helium-III
(D) Helium-IV
115. The equipment SONAR is used
to determine the—
(A) Depth of the seabed
(B) Intensity of an earthquake
(C) Cruising altitude of an
aircraft
(D) Speed of a moving object
116. A milkman puts banana leaf in
milk jar, because banana leaf—
(A) Gives a fresh flavour to milk
(B) Makes the milk acidic and
resistant to yeast
(C) Makes the milk basic and
resistant to yeast
(D) Increases the whiteness of
milk
117. The coil in a heater is made of—
(A) Nichrome
(B) Tungsten
(C) Copper
(D) Iron
the codes given below the
Lists—
List-I
(a) Wine (b) Beer
(c) Whisky (d) Rum
List-II
1. Barley
2. Sugarcane juice
3. Grapes
4. Molasses
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
plants is popularly grown along
the road for absorbing vehicular
pollutants ?
(A) Nerium
(B) Neem
(C) Bougainvillea
(D) Calotropis
commonly used as a flavouring
agent during the preparation of
noodles ?
(A) Saffron (B) Cinnamon
(C) Olive oil (D) Ajinomoto
Continued on Page 2223
PD/June/2010/2208
General Studies
UTTAR PRADESH P.C.S. (Mains) EXAM., 2008
(Held on 16-12-2009)
Paper-II
Solved Paper
1. CENVAT is related with—
(A) Custom Duties
(B) Value Added Tax
(C) Union Excise Duties
(D) Central Sales Tax
2. Due to rusting, the weight of
iron—
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains the same
(D) Uncertain
3. Land Development Banks form
part of—
(A) Commercial Banks
(B) IDBI
(C) FCI
(D) Cooperative Credit Structure
4. Gujarat is one of the main
producers of which one of the
following crops ?
(A) Wheat (B) Sugarcane
(C) Bajra (D) Coconut
5. The substance used for artificial
rain is—
(A) Silver Bromide
(B) Ammonium Nitrate
(C) Silver Iodide
(D) All the above
6. The proportion of labour in GNP
(Gross National Product) becomes
low due to the following
reason—
(A) Price lag behind wages
(B) Profit lags behind prices
(C) Prices lag behind profit
(D) Wages lag behind prices
7. Two variables x and y are related
by the relation 2x + 3y – 5 = 0,
and the median of x is 2. Then
the median of y is—
(A) 13
(B) 23
(C) 1 (D) 2
8. Sum of the absolute deviations is
minimum when deviations are
taken from—
(A) Arithmetic Mean
(B) Median
(C) Geometric Mean
(D) Mode
9. An aeroplane flies around a
square of sides 100 km each. It
covers the first side at a speed of
100 km/hr, the second side at a
speed of 200 km/hr, the third at
300 km/hr, and the fourth at 400
km/hr. The average speed will
be (km/hr)—
(A) 181 (B) 189
(C) 192 (D) 201
10. Let A, G, H denote respectively
the arithmetic mean, geometric
mean, and the harmonic mean,
then which one of the following
is true ?
(A) AH = G2
(B) A
H = G2
(C) A + H = G2
(D) A + G = H
11. A bag contains 8 black and 5
white balls. Two balls are drawn.
The probability that both of them
are white is—
(A) 5
13 (B) 5
24
(C) 5
39 (D) 5
18
12. Four samples of sizes 50, 100, 150
and 200 have mean height respectively
as 40·4, 45·2, 48·4 and
50·0 cms. Their combined mean
height is (cm)—
(A) 47·6 (B) 46·7
(C) 49·4 (D) 49·7
13. A fair coin is tossed a number of
times. If head appears on all the
five tosses, what is the probability
that a tail appears on the
sixth toss ?
(A) ( ) 12
6
(B) 12
(C) 25
(D) 14
14. A child has a block in the shape
of a cube with letters written on
the faces as
A, B, C, D, E, A
The cube is thrown once. The
probability of getting A is—
(A) 13
(B) 16 (C) 15
(D) 23
15. If P(A) = 38
, P(B) = 12
and
P(A ∩ B) = 1
4 , then P(A ∪ B) is—
(A) 47(B) 58
(C) 59
(D) 37
16. Let A, H, G denote respectively
the arithmetic, harmonic and geometric
mean of positive numbers,
then which one of the following
is true ?
(A) A > G > H
(B) A > G < H
(C) A < H < G
17. An unbiased coin is tossed three
times. The probability of getting
two heads and one tail is—
(A) 38
(B) 37
(C) 18
(D) 58
18. The price of a commodity which
was Rs. 250 three years ago is
Rs. 2,000 now. The annual rate of
increase in the price is—
(A) 100%
(B) 200%
(C) 266 23
%
PD/June/2010/2209
19. Three dice are thrown. The probability
of getting the “sum on
the dice is greater than 14” is—
(A) 5
54 (B) 11
54
(C) 17
54 (D) 28
54
20. A fair coin is tossed three times.
The probability of getting three
heads is—
(A) 38
(B) 17
(C) 14
(D) 18
21. If the total number of students is
3000, then the number of students
in section A and B together is—
20%
12%
8%
22%
25%
13%
A
B
C
D
E
F
(A) 840 (B) 960
(C) 720 (D) 880
22. The arithmetic mean of 15 numbers
is 41·4. Then the sum of
these numbers is—
(A) 414 (B) 420
(C) 620 (D) 621
23. A bag contains 5 red marbles and
some white marbles. If the
probability of drawing a white
marble is double that of red
marble, the number of white
marbles in the bag is—
(A) 10 (B) 5
(C) 20 (D) 15
24. Sum of the absolute deviations
from arithmetic mean—
(A) is always zero
(B) is always positive
(C) is always negative
(D) All the above
25. Sum of square deviations will be
minimum, when deviations are
taken from—
(A) Median (B) A. M.
(C) G. M. (D) Mode
26. A batsman makes a score of 84
runs in the 21st innings and then
increases his average by 2 runs.
His average after 21st innings
is—
(A) 44 (B) 34
(C) 24 (D) 54
27. Four years ago the average age of
a family of four members was 18
years. During this period a new
baby was born. If at present the
average age of the family is the
same as it was four years ago,
then the present age of the baby
is (yrs.)
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
28. Ram and Shyam appeared for
certain test. The probability that
Ram is selected is 1
5 and that
Shyam is selected is 1
7. The probability
that at least one of them
is selected, is—
(A) 12
35 (B) 15
(C) 11
35 (D) 16
35
29. Following data show the population
(in lakh) of two places A
and B in a year in specified age
groups—
Below 20 20-39 40-59 above 60
Place A 8 12 16 4
Place B 16 64 56 24
For representing the data by piechart
to compare the two population,
the ratio of radius of pie
charts for A and B will be—
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 4
30. The number of monthly sale of
cars at a shop for the last six
months are to be shown through
(i) bars, (ii) circles, (iii) squares,
(iv) 3-dimensional pictures of
car :
Choose the correct way of preparing
the diagram from the following—
(A) Bar should be of equal width
and height should be proportional
to the number of cars sold
in that month.
(B) The radius of the circle and
side of the square should be
proportional to the number of
cars sold in that month.
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
31. A man buys petrol from three
filling stations where the prices
are 20, 25 and 33
1
3 Rs./litre respectively.
If he buys petrol worth
Rs. 100 from each station, the
average price of petrol (Rs./litre)
will be—
(A) 24 (B) 25
(C) 26 1
4 (D) 28
32. In a certain factory there are five
workers A, B, C, D and E. A can
complete a work in 4 minutes, B
in 5 minutes, C in 6 minutes, D in
10 minutes and E in 12 minutes.
The average number of units of
work completed per worker per
minute will be—
(A) 0·16 (B) 0·172
(C) 0·80 (D) 0·87
33. The median of 3, x, 10 and 4 is 5.
The value of x is—
(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) 8 12
34. The area of a frequency polygon
is equal to—
(A) The area of the histogram
(B) The area between the cumulative
frequency polygon (More
than) and the x-axis.
(C) The area bounded by the
cumulative frequency polygon
(Less than), axis of x and ordinate
corresponding to the upper
limit of the last class.
35. The diagram below shows the
number of valid votes obtained
by four students who contested
for the general secretary of a
union. The total number of valid
votes polled was 1440. By how
many votes the winner defeated
the nearest candidate ?
60° 80°
100° 120°
CA
M
R
(A) 40 (B) 80
(C) 220 (D) 120
36. The arithmetic mean of first
eleven natural numbers is—
(A) 5·0 (B) 5·5
(C) 6·0 (D) 6·2
PD/June/2010/2210
37. Wetland day is observed on—
(A) 2nd February
(B) 2nd April
(C) 2nd May
(D) 2nd March
38. Biochip contains—
(A) RNA
(B) DNA
(C) RNA and DNA
(D) RNA, DNA and Protein
39. The Sunrays can penetrate the
clear ocean water to a maximum
depth of—
(A) 200 metres (B) 400 metres
(C) 600 metres (D) 800 metres
40. Solecshaw is a—
(A) Computer Programme
(B) Moon Buggy
(C) Soft sole of a footwear
(D) Solar rickshaw
41. The least distance of distinct
vision is (cms.)—
(A) 25 (B) 5
(C) 75 (D) 100
42. The base of Consumer Price
Index for industrial workers has
been shifted from 1982 to—
(A) 2002 (B) 2001
(C) 2000 (D) 1998
43. Red light is used as danger signal
because it—
(A) is scattered least
(B) is comfortable for eyes
(C) produces least chemical reaction
(D) absorbed least in air
44. A myopic eye can be corrected
by using a—
(A) Convex lens
(B) Concave lens
(C) Cylindrical lens
(D) Plane Convex lens
45. A sudden drop in atmospheric
pressure indicates—
(A) Storm
(B) Rain
(C) Clean weather
(D) Cold wave
46. The basis of determining dearness
allowance to Government
employees in India is—
(A) National Income
(B) Consumer Price Index
(C) Standard of Living
(D) Per Capita Income
47. Sound above what level (decibels)
are considered hazardous
noise pollution ?
(A) 30 dB (B) 100 dB
(C) 80 dB (D) 120 dB
48. Which one of the following pairs
is not correctly matched ?
(A) Goiporia Committee
—Banking Service Improvement
(B) Nanjundappa Committee
—Railway fare
(C) Rangrajan Committee
—Balance of Payments
(D) Rekhi Committee
—Simplification of Export &
Import
49. Plasma membrane is built up
of—
(A) Protein
(B) Lipid
(C) Carbohydrate
(D) Both (A) and (B)
50. In AIDS virus, there is—
(A) DNA + Protein
(B) RNA + DNA
(C) RNA + Protein
(D) DNA only
51. If interest payments are subtracted
from gross fiscal deficit,
the remainder will be—
(A) Gross primary deficit
(B) Budgetary deficit
(C) Monetized deficit
(D) Revenue deficit
52. Which of the following is a common
adulterant of mustard oilseeds
?
(A) Prickly seeds
(B) Poppy seeds
(C) Cumin seeds
53. Which of the following disease is
caused by protozoa ?
(A) Malaria
(B) Cholera
(C) Jaundice
54. Which of the following vitamin
is effective in blood clotting ?
(A) Vitamin K (B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin B (D) Vitamin C
55. Who was the author of the book
“Indian Economy : A Gandhian
Blue Print” ?
(A) Ch. Charan Singh
(B) Shri Jai Prakash Narain
(C) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(D) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
56. Which of the following is/are a
petro plant ?
(A) Jatropha
(B) Pongamia
(C) Aak
(D) All the above
57. Mushroom used in curry is—
(A) Fungus
(B) Alga
(C) Green vegetable
(D) Flesh of animal
58. National Food Subsidy Mission
in India has become effective
with effect from—
(A) Rabi Season 2007-08
(B) Kharif Season 2007-08
(C) Rabi Season 2005-06
(D) Kharif Season 2006-07
59. MRI is a diagnostic tool, which
means—
(A) Magnetic Resonance Index
(B) Magnetic Resolution Information
(C) Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(D) All the above
60. Carbon Nano Tubes (CNTS)
were prepared by—
(A) Fuller (B) Iijiman
(C) Faraday (D) Raman
61. Itai-Itai disease is caused by
chronic poisoning of—
(A) Mercury (B) Nickel
(C) Cadmium (D) Lead
62. The bear commonly performing
on streets is—
(A) Sloth bear
(B) Sun bear
(C) Brown bear
(D) Cat bear
63. The pulse in the human wrist
beats—
PD/June/2010/2211
(A) Faster than the heart
(B) Slower than the heart
(C) At the same rate as the heart
(D) Independently of the heart
64. Which of the following disease is
caused by the excessive use of
alcoholic beverage ?
(A) Appendicitis
(B) Viral hepatitis
(C) Gall stones
(D) Liver cirrhosis
65. Which of the following parasites
is responsible for 65% of the
cases of malaria in India ?
(A) P. malariae
(B) P. vivax
(C) P. falciparum
(D) P. ovale
66. The strongest muscle in human
body is found in—
(A) Jaws (B) Thighs
(C) Neck (D) Hands
67. Which of the following minerals
is necessary to control heart beat ?
(A) Sodium (B) Potassium
(C) Iron (D) Sulphur
68. Hydrophobia is caused by—
(A) Bacteria (B) Fungus
(C) Virus (D) Protozoan
69. As per the recommendations of
the Twelfth Finance Commission,
the revenue deficit of the Centre
and States by the year 2009-10
should be—
(A) zero % (B) 1 %
(C) 2 % (D) 3 %
70. Which among the following is
the largest trading Government
Company of India ?
(A) Food Corporation of India
(B) Mineral and Metal Trading
Corporation
(C) Khadi & Village Industries
Corporation
(D) Trade Fair Authority of
India
71. The interest rate at which the
Reserve Bank of India lends to
Commercial banks in the shortterm
to maintain liquidity is
known as—
(A) Interest rate
(B) Repo rate
(C) Bank rate
(D) Reverse repo rate
banks give Long term loans to
agriculture ?
(A) State Cooperative Bank
(B) Commercial Bank
(C) Primary Credit Society
(D) Land Development Bank
73. In calculation of index of wholesale
prices which one of the
following sectors is assigned
maximum weightage ?
(A) Food articles
(B) Non-food articles
(C) Fuel, power, light and lubricants
(D) Manufactured products
74. During Tenth Five Year Plan,
growth rate was highest in—
(A) Pulses and oilseeds
(B) Fruits and vegetables
(C) Cereals
(D) Other crops
75. Inclusive growth would necessitate—
(A) Development of infrastructural
facilities
(B) Revival of agriculture
(C) Increased availability of
social services such as education
and health
(D) All the above
76. In India, M3 includes—
(A) Time deposits with banks
(B) Demand deposits with banks
(C) Currency with the public
(D) All the above
77. Poverty in India has been defined
in terms of—
(A) Standard of living of the
people
(B) Income of the family
(C) Calorie intake
(D) Number of members in a
family
78. As compared to revenue deficit,
fiscal deficit will always remain—
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same
(D) All the above
79. Mid-day Scheme was launched
in 1995 to promote—
(A) Adult literacy
(B) Universalization of primary
education
(C) Secondary education
80. Under Gadgil-Mukerjee formula,
the higher weightage is given to—
(A) Performance
(B) Per Capita Income
(C) Population
(D) Special problems
81. Fiscal responsibility and Budget
Management Act was enacted in
India in the year—
(A) 2007 (B) 2005
(C) 2002 (D) 2003
82. The last term of the series
1, 4, 7, ……,
is 55. The number of terms in the
series are—
(A) 11 (B) 19
(C) 21 (D) 22
83. If x = y – y
10 where y is a positive
integer which increases in value,
then x—
(A) First increases in value then
decreases
(B) Decreases in value
(C) Increases in value
(D) First decreases then increases
in value
84. The next number in the series
21, 12, 11, ……
is—
(A) 11 (B) 12
(C) 21 (D) 13
85. One fourth of the sum of prime
numbers, greater than 4 but less
than 16, is the square of—
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 7
86. The number 729 is the square
of—
(A) 22 (B) 25
(C) 27 (D) 29
87. If 3
16 of a water tank is filled in 15
minutes, the rest of the tank will
be filled in—
(A) 61 minute (B) 65 minute
(C) 79 minute (D) 81 minute
PD/June/2010/2212
88. Select the odd-one out in the
following—
(A) Frying (B) Drying
(C) Sweeping (D) Crying
89. Two numbers x and y are in the
ratio 5 : 7 and their sum is 36.
Then x is—
(A) 12 (B) 15
(C) 18 (D) 19
90. The angles of a triangle are in the
ratio 1 : 2 : 3, then the smallest
angle is—
(A) 21° (B) 28°
(C) 30° (D) 42°
91. The sum of all two-digit numbers
is—
(A) 3999 (B) 4070
(C) 4900 (D) 4905
92. The radius of a circle is increased
by 200%, then its area will increase
by—
(A) 800% (B) 400%
(C) 200% (D) 900%
93. Complete the number series from
the alternatives given below—
165, 195, 255, 285, 345, ?
(A) 375 (B) 390
(C) 420 (D) 435
94. The next number in the following
series :
35, 32, 34, 31, 33, ……
is—
(A) 30 (B) 32
(C) 31 (D) 35
95. The value of x in the following
series
23
, 47
,7
13 , 11
21 , x is—
(A) 17
31 (B) 15
28
(C) 13
24 (D) 16
31
96. A man walks along a rectangle
whose perimeter is 6 km. If the
area of the rectangle is 2 sq km.,
then the difference between the
length and the breadth is (km)—
(A) 12
(B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 112
97. Which of the following figures
has the longest perimeter ?
(A) A square of side 10 cm.
(B) A rectangle of sides 12 and
9 cm.
(C) A circle of radius 7 cm.
(D) A rhombus of sides 9 cm.
98. The ratio of volumes of two
spheres, whose radii are in the
ratio 1 : 2, is—
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 8
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 2 : 7
99. In the given figure, AC = AB
= BC = 2r.
A
B
C
D
E
2r
r
r
A circle of radius r with centre A
is drawn. Then the area of the
shaded portion is—
(A) (√3 – )
6
r2
(B) √ 3 r2
(C)
5
6 r2
(D) (√3 + )
6
r2
100. Let the nth term of a series is
Tn = an + b
Then the series is—
(A) an A. P.
(B) a G. P.
(C) a H. P.
101. If a GP has common ratio – 1
2 and
the first term is ‘a’, then the 5th
term is—
(A) – 16a (B) 8a
(C) – 18
a (D) a
16
102. The sum of the series
a, ar, ar2, ……, arn – 1
is—
(A) a rn + 1
r – 1 (B) a rn + 1
r+1
(C) a rn – 1
r – 1 (D) a rn – 1
r+1
103. As Genuine is to Authentic, so is
mirage to—
(A) Image
(B) Illusion
(C) Transpiration
(D) Reflection
true for the sets ?
(A) A ∩  = 
(B) A ∩ A = A
(C) A ∩ B = B ∩ A
(D) (A ∩ B) ∩ C ≠ A ∩ (B ∩ C)
105. Out of 100 students in a class, 60
take tea, 40 take coffee and 25
take both. The number of students
not taking either tea or
coffee is—
(A) 28 (B) 25
(C) 30 (D) 32
106. In nP4 : nP5 = 1 : 3, then n is equal
to—
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 9 (D) 11
107. The Constituent Assembly set-up
a Drafting Committee under the
Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
on—
(A) 13th December, 1946
(B) 22nd January, 1947
(C) 3rd June, 1947
(D) 29th August, 1947
an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Forest Service
(B) Indian Police Service
(C) Indian Economic Service
(D) Indian Administratives
Service
109. The Indian Constitution can be
amended under the provisions
of—
(A) Article 368 (B) Article 360
(C) Article 356 (D) Article 352
110. Which of the following Committee
recommended for according a
constitutional Position to Panchayati
Raj ?
(A) L. M. Singhvi Committee
(B) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(C) Rao Committee
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee
111. Salaries of the Judges of the
Supreme Court are determined
by—
(A) Pay Commission appointed
by the President
(B) Law Commission
(C) Parliament
(D) Council of Ministers
PD/June/2010/2213
112. The President can be impeached
on the grounds of violating the
Constitution by—
(A) The Chief Justice of India
(B) The Vice-President of India
(C) The Speaker of the Lok
Sabha
(D) The two Houses of Parliament
113. The first female Speaker of Lok
Sabha is—
(A) Vijay Laxmi Pandit
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Tarkeshwari Sinha
(D) Meira Kumar
114. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
addresses his letter of resignation
to the—
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Deputy Speaker of Lok
Sabha
(D) Vice-President of India
115. In the Federation under the Act
of 1935 residuary powers were
given to the—
(A) Federal Legislature
(B) Provincial Legislature
(C) Governor General
(D) Provincial Governor
116. Which one of the following cannot
be suspended or restricted
even during national emergency
?
(A) Right to reside and settle in
any part of the country
(B) Right to life and personal
liberty Right
(C) Right to move freely throughout
the territory of India
(D) Right to carry on any profession
or business
liberty is not embodied in the
Preamble to the Constitution of
India ?
(A) Liberty of Thought
(B) Liberty of Expression
(C) Liberty of Belief
(D) Economic Liberty
118. The Indian Legislature was made
bi-cameral for the first time by—
(A) Indian Council Act of 1892
(B) Indian Council Act of 1909
(C) The Government of India
Act of 1919
(D) Government of India Act of
1935
119. Who was the Chairman of the
Provincial Constitution Committee
of the Constituent Assembly ?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Patel
120. Public Interest Litigation has
been introduced by—
(A) A Parliamentary Act
(B) A Constitutional Amendment
(C) Judicial Initiative
121. Which of the following is an
extra constitutional body ?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Election Commission
122. Which one of the following writs
examines the functioning of
subordinate courts ?
(A) Quo Warranto
(B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Habeas Corpus
123. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) Social equality is not guaranteed
in our Constitution
(B) Social equality already existed
in our country
(C) Social equality is guaranteed
in our Constitution
124. Who conducts the State Assembly
Elections ?
(A) Chief Justice of High Court
(B) State Election Commission
(C) Election Commission of
India
(D) Governor of the State
125. The Attorney General of India is
a legal advisor to—
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) Lok Sabha
(D) Government of India
126. The power to carve out a new
State is vested in—
(A) The Parliament
(B) The President
(C) The Council of Ministers
(D) States’ Reorganisation Commission
127. Finance Commission is constituted
after every—
(A) 3 years (B) 2 years
(C) 5 years (D) 4 years
128. The Golden Jubilee of Indian
Parliament was celebrated on—
(A) 1-1-1997 (B) 15-8-1997
(C) 26-1-2002 (D) 13-5-2002
129. Which of the following courts in
India is/are known as the court(s)
of Records ?
(A) The High Courts only
(B) The Supreme Court only
(C) The High Courts and the
Supreme Court
(D) The District Courts
130. Which of the following official
documents is related with India ?
(A) Green Paper
(B) White Paper
(C) Yellow Book
(D) Blue Book
131. The decision to hold Panchayat
Elections under the Constitutional
Provisions is taken by—
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) The Election Commission of
India
(D) The State Election Commission
132. The power of the President to
issue ordinance is a relic of—
(A) G.O.I. Act of 1919
(B) G.O.I. Act of 1935
(C) G.O.I. Act of 1909
(D) Indian Independence Act,
1947
133. Who is called the Guardian of
Public Purse ?
(A) President
(B) Comptroller and Auditor
General
(C) Parliament
(D) Council of Ministers
PD/June/2010/2214
134. All the executive powers in
Indian Constitution are vested
with—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Council of Ministers
(C) President
(D) Parliament
135. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
can be removed by—
(A) A resolution of the Lok
Sabha passed by a majority of the
Members of the House
(B) Two third majority of the
members of the House
(C) Order of the President
(D) Simple majority of the
Parliament
136. Which one of the following Constitutional
Amendments introduced
the anti-defection provision
in the Constitution for the
first time ?
(A) 54th Amendment
(B) 53rd Amendment
(C) 52nd Amendment
(D) 51st Amendment
component of Bharat Nirman ?
(A) Agro-based industries
(B) Rural electrification
(C) Rural housing
(D) Rural telephony
most important component of
the liabilities of commercial banks
in India ?
(A) Demand deposits
(B) Time deposits
(C) Inter-bank liabilities
(D) Other borrowings
139. At which temperature density of
water is maximum ?
(A) 4°C (B) 0°C
(C) – 4°C (D) – 8°C
140. In the Eleventh Five Year Plan
highest allocation has been made
for—
(A) Energy section
(B) Physical infrastructure
(C) Agriculture and irrigation
(D) Education
an apex institution ?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) SIDBI
(D) State Cooperative Bank
142. Among the colours mentioned
below the eye is most sensitive to
colours between—
(A) Red and green
(B) Orange and yellow
(C) Green and blue
(D) Yellow and green
143. Which of the following is used to
take 3-dimensional pictures ?
(A) Photography
(B) Holography
(C) Radiography
144. National Rural Employment Guarantee
Act (NREGA) does not—
(A) Promote inclusive growth
(B) Guarantee 100 days employment
in a year to every adult
member of a rural household
(C) Enhances livelihood security
to rural households
(D) Guarantee wage employment
145. The largest increase of employment
opportunities during the
Eleventh Five Year Plan has been
expected in—
(A) Agriculture
(B) Construction
(C) Manufacturing
(D) Transport and communication
146. A pyrometer is used to measure—
(A) Atmospheric pressure
(B) Humidity
(C) High temperature
(D) Density
147. The colour of a star indicates
its—
(A) Weight
(B) Size
(C) Temperature
(D) Distance
148. The most popular measure of
inflation in India is—
(A) General price rise
(B) Wholesale price index
(C) Consumer price index
(D) Consumer price index for
industrial workers
149. The theme of the Approach
Paper of the Eleventh Five Year
Plan has been—
(A) Indicative Planning
(B) Growth with Social Justice
(C) Towards faster and more
Inclusive growth
(D) Planning for prosperity
a function of Reserve Bank of
India ?
(A) Credit control
(B) As apex body of Scheduled
Commercial Banks
(C) Formulation of monetary
policy
(D) Credit creation
Answers with Hints
PD/June/2010/2218
Computer Knowledge
ALLAHABAD BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM., 2010
(Held on 21-2-2010)
(Based on Memory)
Solved Paper
1. A………typically connects personal
computers within a very
limited geographical area,
usually within a single building.
(A) LAN (B) BAN
(C) TAN (D) NAN
(E) None of these
2. Computers manipulate data in
many ways, and this manipulation
is called—
(A) utilizing
(B) batching
(C) upgrading
(D) processing
(E) None of these
3. An e-mail address typically
consists of a user ID followed by
the ……… sign and the name of
the e-mail server that manages
the user’s electronic post office
box.
(A) @ (B) #
(C) & (D) *
(E) None of these
4. Software applies……, also called
algorithms, to process data.
(A) arithmetic
(B) procedures
(C) objects
(D) rules
(E) None of these
5. A file extension is separated from
the main file name with a(n)
……, but no spaces.
(A) question mark
(B) exclamation mark
(C) underscore
(D) period
(E) None of these
6. An ad hoc query is a—
(A) pre-planned question
(B) pre-scheduled question
(C) spur-of-the-moment
question
(D) question that will not return
any results
(E) None of these
7. A Web ……… consists of one or
more Web pages located on a
Web server.
(A) hub (B) site
(C) story (D) template
(E) None of these
8. A computer ……… is a set of
program instructions that can
attach itself to a file, reproduce
itself, and spread to other files.
(A) worm
(B) virus
(C) trojan horse
(D) phishing scam
(E) None of these
9. The desktop contains small
graphics called—
(A) windows (B) logos
(C) icons (D) pictures
(E) None of these
10. C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are
examples of ……… languages.
(A) low-level
(B) computer
(C) system programming
(D) high-level
(E) None of these
11. A(n)………camera is a peripheral
device used to capture still
images in a digital format that
can be easily transferred into a
computer and manipulated using
graphics software.
(A) digital (B) analog
(C) classic (D) film
(E) None of these
12. ……makes it possible for shoppers
to make purchases using
their computers.
(A) E-world (B) E-commerce
(C) E-spend (D) E-business
(E) None of these
13. Networks are monitored by
security personnel and supervised
by ………who set(s) up
accounts and passwords for
authorized network users.
(A) IT managers
(B) the government
(C) network administrators
(D) password administrators
(E) None of these
14. Application software is designed
to accomplish—
(A) real-world tasks
(B) computer-centric tasks
(C) gaming tasks
(D) operating system tasks
(E) None of these
15. A telephone number, a birth
date, and a customer name are
all examples of—
(A) a record (B) data
(C) a file (D) a database
(E) None of these
16. The human-readable version of a
program is called—
(A) source code
(B) program code
(C) human code
(D) system code
(E) None of these
17. A ……… computer (also referred
to as a laptop), is a small,
lightweight personal computer
that incorporates the screen, the
keyboard, storage, and processing
components into a single
portable unit.
(A) notebook (B) journal
(C) diary (D) briefcase
(E) None of these
18. ……… is the result produced by
a computer.
(A) Data (B) Memory
(C) Output (D) Input
(E) None of these
PD/June/2010/2219
19. Programs such as Internet
Explorer that serve as navigable
windows into the Web are
called—
(A) Hypertext
(B) Networks
(C) Internet
(D) Web browsers
(E) None of these
20. A ……… is a device that not only
provides surge protection, but
also furnishes your computer
with battery backup power
during a power outage.
(A) surge strip
(B) USB
(C) UPS
(D) battery strip
(E) None of these
21. When you save to ………, your
data will remain intact even
when the computer is turned off.
(A) RAM
(B) motherboard
(C) secondary storage device
(D) primary storage device
(E) None of these
22. The motherboard is the—
(A) circuit board that houses
peripheral devices
(B) same as the CPU chip
(C) the first chip that is accessed
when the computer is turned on
(D) circuit board that contains a
CPU and other chips
(E) None of these
23. A computer-intensive problem
runs on a—
(A) server
(B) main frame
(C) supercomputer
(D) super PC
(E) None of these
24. A(n)……converts and executes
one statement at a time.
(A) compiler
(B) interpreter
(C) converter
(D) instructions
(E) None of these
25. The term ……… designates
equipment that might be added
to a computer system to enhance
its functionality.
(A) digital device
(B) system add-on
(C) disk pack
(D) peripheral device
(E) None of these
26. Approximately how many bytes
make one megabyte ?
(A) One thousand
(B) Ten thousand
(C) One hundred
(D) One million
(E) None of these
27. What is MP3 ?
(A) A mouse
(B) A Printer
(C) A Sound format
(D) A Scanner
(E) None of these
28. All the deleted files go to—
(A) Recycle Bin
(B) Task Bar
(C) Tool Bar
(D) My Computer
(E) None of these
29. ……… this is the act of copying
or downloading a program from
a network and making multiple
copies of it.
(A) Network piracy
(B) Plagiarism
(C) Software piracy
(D) Site-license piracy
(E) None of these
30. A directory within a directory is
called—
(A) Mini Directory
(B) Junior Directory
(C) Part Directory
(D) Sub Directory
(E) None of these
31. Which is the best definition of a
software package ?
(A) An add-on for your computer
such as additional memory
(B) A set of computer programs
used for a certain function such
as word processing
(C) A protection you can buy
for a computer
(D) The box, manual and license
agreement that accompany
commercial software
(E) None of these
32. In MICR, C stands for ……….
(A) Code
(B) Colour
(C) Computer
(D) Character
(E) None of these
33. Fax machines and imaging
systems are examples of—
(A) bar-code readers
(B) imaging systems
(C) scanning devices
(D) pen-based systems
(E) None of these
34. When writing a document, you
can use the ……… feature to find
an appropriate word or an
alternative word if you find
yourself stuck for the right word.
(A) dictionary
(B) word finder
(C) encyclopedia
(D) thesaurus
(E) None of these
35. Which key is used in combination
with another key to perform
a specific task ?
(A) Function (B) Control
(C) Arrow (D) Space bar
(E) None of these
36. A disk’s content that is recorded
at the time of manufacture and
that cannot be changed or erased
by the user is—
(A) read-only
(B) memory-only
(C) run-only
(D) write-only
(E) None of these
37. In an information system, alphanumeric
data normally takes the
form of—
(A) Sentences and paragraphs
(B) Numbers and alphabetical
characters
(C) Graphic shapes and figures
(D) Human voice and other
sounds
(E) None of these
38. A Website’s main page is called
its—
(A) home page
(B) browser page
(C) search place
(D) bookmark
(E) None of these
PD/June/2010/2220
39. When installing ………, the user
must copy and usually decompress
program files from a CDROM
or other medium to the
hard disk.
(A) programming software
(B) system hardware
(C) applications hardware
(D) applications software
(E) None of these
40. A collection of interrelated files
in a computer is a—
(A) file manager
(B) field
(C) record
(D) database
(E) None of these
41. A ……… computer is a large and
expensive computer capable of
simultaneously processing data
for hundreds or thousands of
users.
(A) server (B) mainframe
(C) desktop (D) tablet
(E) None of these
42. The trend in computer systems
is toward the use of graphical
user interfaces (GUIs). In these
operating systems, a trackball is
described as—
(A) a roller ball which moves
the cursor
(B) a pen-shaped device which
allows data to be entered
through the CRT screen
(C) a figure which resembles a
familiar office device
(D) an outdated input device
(E) None of these
43. Various applications and documents
are represented on the
Windows desktop by—
(A) Symbols (B) Labels
(C) Graphs (D) Icons
(E) None of these
44. What is usually used for displaying
information at public
places ?
(A) Monitors
(B) Overhead Projections
(C) Monitors and Overhead
Projections
(D) Touch Screen Kiosks
(E) None of these
45. The real business and competitive
value of information technology
lies in—
(A) The software applications
that are used by many companies
(B) The capabilities of the software
and value of the information
a business acquires and uses
(C) The infrastructure of hardware,
networks, and other IT
facilities that are commonly used
by many companies
(D) The capabilities of the
hardware and the speed at which
it processes information
(E) None of these
46. Companies use which of the
following vendors to provide
access to software and services
rather than purchasing the
applications and maintaining the
applications themselves ?
(A) Open source vendors
(B) Alliances
(C) Application service providers
(E) None of these
would be considered as a way
that a computer virus can enter a
computer system ?
(A) Opening an application
previously installed on the
computer
(B) Borrowed copies of software
(C) Viewing a website without
causing any additional transactions
(D) Running antivirus programs
(E) None of these
48. Collecting personal information
and effectively posing as another
individual is known as the crime
of—
(A) spooling (B) dentity theft
(C) spoofing (D) hacking
(E) None of these
49. The first step in the transaction
processing cycle is—
(A) database operations
(B) audit
(C) data entry
(D) user inquiry
(E) None of these
50. In the information systems concept,
the output function
involves—
(A) Capturing and assembling
elements that enter the system to
be processed
(B) Transformation processes
that convert input into output
(C) Transferring elements that
have been produced by a
transformation process to their
ultimate destination
(D) Monitoring and evaluating
feedback to determine whether a
system is moving toward the
achievement of its goal
(E) None of these
Answers
P.Darpan
PD/June/2010/2221
General Awareness
NEW INDIA ASSURANCE CO. LTD. (A.O.) EXAM., 2009
(Held on 25-10-2009)
(Based on Memory)
Solved Paper
1. Which of the following is not the
name of an Insurance Scheme
launched by the Government of
India ?
(A) Janashree Bima Yojana
(B) Krishi Shramik Samajik
Suraksha Yojana
(C) Shiksha Sahyog Yojana
(D) Varsha Bima Yojana
(E) National Saving Scheme
Programme
2. Which of the following insurance
companies writes its punch
line in the advertisements—
“Insurance is the subject matter
of solicitation” ?
(A) GIC
(B) LIC
(C) ING Vysya Life Insurance
Co.
(D) Tata AIG Life Insurance Co.
(E) None of these
3. How much Foreign Institutional
Investment is allowed in
insurance sector at present ?
(A) 20% (B) 46%
(C) 59% (D) 63%
(E) None of these
4. How many public sector companies
in India are in Insurance
Business ?
(A) Only one (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
(E) More than ten
5. Which of the following was the
parent company of New India
Assurance ?
(A) LIC
(B) GIC
(C) Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd.
(D) United India Insurance
(E) None of these
6. Which of the following organizations
of the workers of unorganized
sector has adopted an
insurance scheme for all its workers
and has become a model
organization for the workers of
the unorganized sector ?
(A) SERC (B) SEWA
(C) VSNL (D) SEBI
(E) MTNL
7. Which of the following projects
of the ISRO was recently insured
by the New India Assurance
Company ?
(A) MATSAT–II
(B) Aryabhatt
(C) PSLV
(D) Chandrayaan
(E) INSAT–2E
8. Which of the following industrial
groups of India is Not in any
type of Insurance Business in
India ?
(A) Tatas
(B) Birlas
(C) Jaipurias
(D) Mahindras
(E) All are in Insurance Business
9. Which of the following words/
terms is closely associated with
the insurance business ?
(A) Archives
(B) Donation
(C) Actuary
(D) Quest
(E) All are associated with
insurance
abbreviated name of the agency/
organization which is the regulator
of insurance business in
India ?
(A) NHB (B) IRDA
(C) IBA (D) IDFC
(E) ICRISAT
11. Insurance services are normally
not provided for which of the
following ?
(A) Health
(B) Life
(C) Jobs
(D) House & Property
(E) It is available for all
12. The New India Assurance Company
was established in 1919
by—
(A) Dorab Tata
(B) G. D. Birla
(C) Jamunalal Bajaj
(D) Kamlapat Singhania
(E) None of these
13. Which of the following is largest
Non Life Insurance Company in
India ?
(A) ICICI Lombard General
Insurance Company Ltd.
(B) United India Insurance
Company Ltd.
(C) General Insurance Company
Ltd.
(D) New India Assurance Company
Ltd.
(E) None of these
14. Ramesh Pokhriyal has taken over
as the new—
(A) Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh
(B) Chief Minister of Uttarakhand
(C) Governor of Haryana
(D) Governor of Uttarakhand
(E) Governor of Chhattisgarh
15. As per the announcement made
by the Govt. of India, which of
the following organizations is
set up by it for a very specific
purpose of providing a personal
identity card to all its citizens ?
(A) National Remote Sensing
Agency
(B) Unique Identification
Authority of India (UIA)
(C) National Spot Exchange
(D) Trade Development Authority
(E) People’s Union for Civil
Liberties
PD/June/2010/2222
16. Which of the following Insurance
Companies was launched with
NABARD as one of its promoter’s
with 30% stake in it ?
(A) General Insurance Corporation
Ltd.
(B) National Insurance Company
Ltd.
(C) Agriculture Insurance Company
Ltd.
(D) SBI Life Insurance Company
Ltd.
(E) None of these
17. Who amongst the following is
new Foreign Secretary of India ?
(A) Nirupama Rao
(B) Goolam E. Vahanvati
(C) Brindeshwar Pathak
(D) Naveen Chawla
(E) None of these
18. Which of the following correctly
describes what the ‘Bancassurance’
is ?
1. It is an arrangement whereby
the branches of a bank
sell/distribute insurance
products of an insurance
company.
2. It is a new product developed/
launched by the banks
in which the risks of the
high value customers are
covered for any losses to
their property and/or lives
through an insurance cover.
3. It is a new product launched
by some banks by which
they are providing insurance
cover to exporters/ importers
for the losses, if any due
to high fluctuations in the
exchange rates of dollars
and other major currencies.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
abbreviated name of the organizations
which provides credit
guarantee to exporters ?
(A) FICCI (B) NABARD
(C) SIDBI (D) ECGC
(E) SEBI
20. The Railway Budget 2009-10 was
presented in the Lok Sabha (in
July 2009) by—
(A) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(B) Kapil Sibal
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Mamata Banerjee
(E) Pranab Mukherjee
21. ‘Satyam’ the well known company
which has been in the news
in recent past, is now known
with its new name as—
(A) Mahindra Satyam
(B) Birla Satyam
(C) Reliance Satyam
(D) Tata Satyam
(E) None of these
22. The Economic Survey which was
presented in the Lok Sabha in
July 2009, was the survey for the
year/period of—
(A) 2007–08
(B) 2008–09
(C) 2009–10
(D) Tenth five year plan
(E) None of these
23. The Government of India has
recently decided to allow about
2,200 items to come to Indian
markets with a tag of ‘Duty Free
Items.’ These items are imported
from—
(A) China (B) Singapore
(C) Sri Lanka (D) Nepal
(E) Pakistan
24. Who amongst the following is
not one of the IIFA Award
winners of 2009 ? (Under any one
of the categories).
(A) Priyanka Chopra
(B) Asin
(C) Farhan Akhtar
(D) Karishma Kapoor
(E) Hrithik Roshan
25. Saina Nehwal is a famous—
(A) Badminton player
(B) Table Tennis Player
(C) Lawn Tennis Player
(D) Hockey Player
(E) Chess Player
26. ‘No Tobacco Day‘ is observed
every year on—
(A) 1st May (B) 1st June
(C) 31st May (D) 30th June
(E) None of these
27. India has recently appointed a
new Attorney General. Attorney
Generals are advisers to the
Government of India in—
(A) Defence related matters
(B) Diplomatic matters
(C) Legal matters
(D) Financial matters
(E) None of these
28. The presidential election in
which of the following countries,
held in June 2009, created a controversy
as one of the candidates
who was declared defeated
refused to accept the results of
the same ?
(A) Iran (B) Pakistan
(C) Nepal (D) Sri Lanka
(E) USA
29. Which of the following awards is
given for excellence in the field
of Literature ?
(A) N. Borlaug Award
(B) Kalinga Prize
(C) Kishor Kumar Award
(D) Saraswati Samman
(E) Dronacharya Award
30. The parliamentarian elections of
which of the following organizations
were held in June 2009 ?
(A) European Union (EU)
(B) Oil & Petroleum Exporting
Countries (OPEC)
(C) Shanghai Corporation
(D) South Asian Association for
Regional Cooperation (SAARC)
(E) None of these
31. The 79th Amendment to the
Indian Constitution done in 1999
was associated with the—
(A) reservation of seats in the
Parliament and State Assemblies
for SC/ST candidates
(B) creation of three new states
Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and
Jharkhand
(C) land reforms in many states
(D) giving more powers to
Panchayats
(E) None of these
32. Which of the following books is
written by Arundhati Roy ?
(A) The Last Hero
(B) Stolen Harvest
(C) A Himalayan Love Story
(D) Freedom From Fear
(E) God of Small Things
33. Which of the following schemes
was launched recently to make
Indian cities free from slums ?
PD/June/2010/2223
(A) Bharat Nirman
(B) Indira Vikash Yojana
(C) Indira Awas Yojana
(D) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(E) None of these
34. Admiral Gorshkov Aircraft
carrier Refit Project is a deal
between India and—
(A) China (B) South Korea
(C) Russia (D) Iran
(E) None of these
35. The sex ratio in India is higher in
which of the following states ?
(Females (1058) are more than
per thousand males)—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerala
(C) Manipur
(D) Assam
(E) Karnataka
36. Which of the following countries
in Not a member of ASEAN ?
(A) Myanmar (B) Singapore
(C) China (D) Vietnam
(E) Malaysia
37. Tipaimukh Dam which was in
news recently is located in which
of the following states ?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Manipur
(E) Assam
38. Which of the following states
has highest Literacy Rate in
country ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Delhi
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Kerala
39. Which of the following cups/
trophies is closely associated with
the game of Hockey ?
(A) Mardeka Cup
(B) Wimbledon Trophy
(C) Ranji Trophy
(D) Durand Cup
(E) Agha Khan Cup
40. Which of the following diseases
is caused by a virus ?
(A) Plague
(B) Cholera
(C) Whooping cough
(D) Tetanus
(E) Chicken pox
Answer with Hints
P.Darpan
Answers with Hints
P.Darpan
P.Darpan
PD/June/2010/2224
Reasoning
IDBI BANK EXECUTIVE EXAM., 2009
(Held on 13-12-2009)
(Based on Memory)
Solved Paper
1. If ‘M’ denotes ‘+’, ‘N’ denotes ‘÷’,
‘R’ denotes ‘–’ and Q denotes ‘.’
then—
15 M 12 Q 5 R 40 N 8 = ?
(A) 70 (B) 130
(C) 45 (D) 60
(E) None of these
2. How many meaningful English
words can be formed using the
third, fifth, ninth and eleventh
letters of the word ‘COMMANDMENT’
using each letter only
once ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
3. Seema correctly remembers that
she took leave after 21st October
and before 27th October. Her
colleague Rita took leave on 23rd
October but Seema was present
on that day. If 24th October was
a public holiday and 26th October
was Sunday, on which day in
October did Seema take leave ?
(A) 22nd October
(B) 25th October
(C) 22nd or 25th October
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 4 and 5) The
following questions are based on the
five three letter words given below—
PUN SAD CRY FOE STY
If each of the words is rearranged
in alphabetical order then—
4. If it is possible to make only one
meaningful English word using
each letter only once, from the
first letters of each of the five
words after the letters of each
word are rearranged in alphabetical
order, the last letter of that
word is your answer. If more
than one word can be formed, ‘X’
is the answer and if no such
word can be formed then ‘W’ is
the answer.
(A) E (B) N
(C) X (D) W
(E) S
5. How many words will remain
unchanged even after their rearrangement
in alphabetical order ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
6. How many pairs of letters are
there in the word ‘VERIFIED’
each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as in
the English alphabet ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three'
7. The fare paying capacity of
people who travel on routes
connecting to small towns is very
low. Most successful airlines
which operate in such regions
have a large number of seats.
Which of the following can be
inferred from the above information
?
(A) Regional airlines are quite
profitable.
(B) People from cities are increasingly
travelling to small towns.
(C) Regional airlines have to
charge low fares in order to be
profitable.
(D) The number of people travelling
from small towns to cities is
massive.
(E) None of these
8. If ‘A . D’ means ‘A is the sister of
D’, ‘A + D’ means ‘D is the daughter
of A’ and ‘A ÷ D’ means ‘A
is the mother of D’, then how
will N is the aunt of M be
denoted ?
(A) M + L . N (B) M ÷ L + N
(C) L . N ÷ M (D) N . L ÷ M
(E) None of these
9. M earns more than X and less
than T. V earns more than M and
T. R earns more than only X.
Who earns the least among the
five of them ?
(A) X
(B) V
(C) M
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
10. The Court has stayed proceedings
against the stockbroker. He
can now return to the country.
Which of the following can be
assumed from the given information
?
(A) The stockbroker is innocent.
(B) The police cannot arrest the
stockbroker.
(C) The judge has been bribed.
(D) Complaints filed against the
stockbroker have been withdrawn.
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 11–15) Read
the following passage carefully and
answer the questions given below it.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
sitting around a circular table, facing
the centre. A sits third to the left of C
and second to the right of E. B sits
second to the right of D who is not an
immediate neighbour of E. H sits
second to the left of F. G is not an
immediate neighbour of D.
11. Which of the following pairs has
only one person sitting-between
them, if the counting is done in
clockwise direction ?
(A) F, G (B) H, G
(C) H, C (D) H, B
(E) None of these
12. Who sits third to the right of E ?
(A) D (B) G
(C) F (D) B
(E) None of these
PD/June/2010/2225
13. What is the position of G with
respect to A’s position ?
(A) Immediately to the right
(B) Second to the left
(C) Third to the right
(D) Third to the left
(E) Fourth to the right
14. Who sits between E and A ?
(A) F (B) D
(C) G (D) B
(E) None of these
15. Starting from A’s position, if all
the eight are arranged in alphabetical
order in clockwise direction,
the seating position of how
many members (excluding A)
would remain unchanged ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) Four
Directions—(Q. 16–23) In each of
the questions below are given four
statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III and IV. You
have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at
variance with commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
16. Statements :
Some stoves are ovens.
All ovens are cylinders.
Some engines are stoves.
Some metals are cylinders.
Conclusions :
I. Some ovens are metals
II. Some cylinders are stoves
III. Some ovens are engines
IV. No engine is a cylinder
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II follows
17. Statements :
Some cars are buses.
Some buses are trains.
All airplanes are trains.
All trucks are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some airplanes are trucks.
II. Some cars are trains.
III. Some trucks are airplanes.
IV. No truck is train.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and IV follow
(C) Only III and IV follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) None of these
18. Statements :
Some tools are hammers.
All tools are trees.
Some trees are flowers.
No hammer is flower.
Conclusions :
I. All hammers are tools.
II. No tool is flower.
III. Some hammers are trees.
IV. Some flowers are tools.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I and either II or IV
follow
(C) Only II and IV follow
(E) None of these
19. Statements :
Some bags are pockets.
Some pockets are trousers.
All skirts are pockets.
Some belts are bags.
Conclusions :
I. Some trousers are belts.
II. Some skirts are bags.
III. No trouser is belt.
IV. Some skirts are trousers.
(A) All follow
(B) Only II and IV follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only either I or III follows
(E) None of these
20. Statements :
Some cats are tigers.
All lions are cats.
Some horses are lions.
All horses are animals.
Conclusions :
I. Some lions are tigers.
II. No horse is tiger.
III. Some horses are cats.
IV. Some horses are tigers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III and either II or IV
follow
(E) None of these
21. Statements :
Some clocks are radios.
No radio is laptop.
Some fridges are clocks.
Some clocks are laptops.
Conclusions :
I. Some fridges are laptops.
II. No radio is fridge.
III. Laptops are either fridges or
clocks.
IV. No laptop is fridge.
(A) Only II follows
(B) Only IV follows
(C) Only either I or IV follows
(E) None of these
22. Statements :
Some notes are coins.
Some papers are plastics.
All coins are papers.
No note is cardboard.
Conclusions :
I. Some notes are papers.
II. Some coins are plastics.
III. No paper is cardboard.
IV. No note is plastic.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
23. Statements :
All stools are desks.
No desk is shelf.
All shelves are cupboards.
Some cupboards are mirrors.
Conclusions :
I. No mirror is shelf.
II. No stool is shelf.
III. No cupboard is desk.
IV. No mirror is desk.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
PD/June/2010/2226
Directions—(Q. 24–28) Study
the following arrangement carefully
and answer the questions given
below—
M?2DB7A4★96$T+N5@
VEW#U8F©3
24. How many such prime numbers
are there in the given arrangement
each of which is immediately
followed by a symbol and
preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
25. If the places of the symbols are
interchanged with those of the
numbers immediately following
them in the given arrangement
then which of the following will
be the eleventh from the right
end ?
(A) V (B) @
(C) 5 (D) N
(E) None of these
seventh letter to the left of # ?
(A) A (B) N
(C) T (D) B
(E) None of these
27. What should come in place of the
question mark (?) in the
following series based on the
above arrangement ?
27B469T5N?
(A) @ W E (B) 5 E V
(C) V U # (D) V # W
(E) None of these
28. If the symbols and numbers are
dropped from the given arrangement
and then the letters are
rearranged in alphabetical order
which of the following will be
the sixth from the left end ?
(A) M (B) F
(C) N (D) E
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 29–33) Below in
each question are given two statements
(I) and (II). These statements
may be either independent causes or
may be effects of independent causes
or a common cause. One of these
statements may be the effect of the
other statement. Read both the statements
and then decide which of the
following answer choice correctly depicts
the relationship between these
two statements. Mark answer—
(A) If statement I is the cause
and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause
and statement I is its effect.
(C) if both statements I and II
are independent causes.
(D) if both statements I and II
are effects of independent
causes.
(E) if both statements I and II
are effects of some common
causes.
29. I. There has been mass recruitment
of IT professionals by
Indian IT companies
II. Many developed countries
are increasingly outsourcing
IT related functions to India
and China.
30. I. Many farmers have given up
jute cultivation as it is no
longer economically viable.
II. The textile ministry has proposed
a hike in the Minimum
Support Price of jute.
31. I. The government is considering
changes in the Land
Acquisition Act.
II. Several large infrastructure
development projects have
been stalled due to unavailability
of land.
32. I. The Government is considering
the possibility of involving
private sector companies
in highway construction projects.
II. The implementation of many
highway projects undertaken
by government agencies is
behind schedule in various
states.
33. I. The price of aircraft fuel has
risen during the past few
months.
II. Many passenger airlines in
India have been forced to cut
their air fares by about 10 per
cent.
Directions—(Q. 34–40) In each
question below is given a group of
letters followed by four combinations
of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to find out
which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based
on the coding system and mark the
letter of that combination as your
answer. If none of the combinations
correctly represents the group of
letters, mark (E) i.e., ‘None of these’
as your answer.
Letter :
WRAPGBMUSEFTND
Digit/Symbol Codes :
$8!27#9@?5 4★6
Conditions :
I. If the middle letter is a
vowel, the codes for the first
and the fourth letters are to
be interchanged.
II. If the first two letters are consonants,
the first letter is to
be coded, no code may be
given to the second letter and
the remaining three letters
are to be coded.
III. If the first letter is a vowel
and the last letter is a consonant
both are to be coded as
the code for the consonant.
34. NEAST—
(A) ?5!★4 (B) ?5!4★
(C) 4★!5? (D) 45!?
(E) None of these
35. DAEWP—
(A) 6!5$2 (B) $!562
(C) 6!52$ (D) $265!
(E) None of these
36. PEFTG—
(A) 2542 (B) 24G
(C) 2547 (D) 4725
(E) None of these
37. SMGBE—
(A) ?975# (B) 97#5?
(C) ?97#5 (D) ?#79?
(E) None of these
38. UGREN—
(A) ★785@ (B) ★785★
(C) @785@ (D) @85★
(E) None of these
39. RBMFN—
(A) 8#94 (B) ★98#
(C) 89★ (D) 8#9★
(E) None of these
40. MUTWA—
(A) 9@$4! (B) 94$!
(C) 94@!$ (D) 9@4$!
(E) None of these
PD/June/2010/2227
Directions—(Q. 41–50) Study the
following information carefully and
answer the questions which follow—
A bank is disbursing educational
loans to meritorious students. Loans
will be made available to applicants
who possess the following criteria.
The candidate must—
I. Be a citizen of India
II. Have secured admission to a
post graduate course (Masters
or P. G. Diploma) offered
by an Indian or foreign
university in India.
III. Have secured 60 per cent
marks in the entrance examination
for the course.
IV. Have security (property/LIC
policy) equivalent to the
loan amount.
However if the applicant fulfils
the above mentioned criteria except—
(1) At (II) above the case may be
referred to the Loan committee.
(2) At (IV) above guarantee of a
third party who has an account
with the bank may be
obtained.
Mark answer :
(A) If the loan is to be sanctioned.
(B) If the loan is to be rejected.
(C) If the loan is to be referred to
the loan committee.
(D) If guarantee from an account
holder is needed.
(E) If the data provided is inadequate
to take a decision.
41. Shruti has secured admission to
MNV University in Chennai for a
post-graduate degree in management.
She obtained 65 per cent in
the entrance test for the course.
She has an Indian passport.
42. Milind has applied and secured
admission for a post-graduate
degree in advertising at MIC
University Ahmedabad. He has
an LIC policy equivalent to the
loan amount. He secured 70 per
cent in his graduation and is an
Indian citizen.
43. Prakash has applied for a postgraduate
course in IT and Animation
which will commence
from January in Kolkata. He
has secured admission to the
course having obtained 60 per
cent in the written entrance test.
His uncle who has an account
with the bank is willing to
stand guarantor.
44. Anil is an Indian science graduate
who has secured admission
for a Masters degree in Computer
Science from a prestigious
Indian University. He stood first
in the entrance test with 82 per
cent marks. His family is willing
to use their house, which is
equivalent in value to the loan
amount, as security. He will stay
with his uncle in Dubai during
the course.
45. Nikhil’s part time P.G. Diploma
in Management will begin in
December. He secured 65 per
cent in the All India entrance
exam and has secured admission
to a college in Mumbai. He has
requested a transfer for the
duration of the course. He has an
LIC policy equivalent to the loan
amount. Nikhil holds an Indian
passport.
46. Maria secured 75% in the
entrance exam to NVT College
Pune and has obtained admission.
An Indian national she has
the necessary property to offer as
security for the loan amount. The
duration of her undergraduate
degree course in Computer
Applications is 3 years.
47. Deepa obtained 70 per cent in
her engineering entrance exam
for her Masters and has secured
admission to the college of her
choice. She has an LIC policy
equivalent in value to the loan
amount. Her interview to obtain
a visa for her course in the U.S. is
on November 25. She is an
Indian citizen.
48. Sudhir has applied for a postgraduate
degree in Pharmacy at
All India Institute at New Delhi.
He is an Indian citizen and having
secured 60 per cent in his
entrance exam, he has been
granted admission. He does not
have any property to use as
security. His father who has an
account with the bank is willing
to guarantee the loan.
49. Anandi has secured admission
for a P.G. Diploma in Management
at a University in Allahabad
with 72 per cent in the entrance
examination. She has an LIC
Policy amounting to the loan
amount. She is an Indian citizen.
50. Ravi has obtained admission to
the Indian Institute of Research
at Chandigarh for a Masters in
Mathematics offered only to
Indian citizens. He secured 68
per cent in the entrance test. He
does not have any security
against the loan. However his
employer who has an account
with the bank is willing to
guarantee the loan.
Answers with Hints
PD/June/2010/2229
Quantitative Aptitude
INDIAN BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM., 2010
(Held on 17-1-2010)
(Based on Memory)
Solved Paper
Directions—(Q. 1–5) What will
come in place of question-mark (?) in
the following questions ?
1. 343 ⋅ 49
216 ⋅ 16 ⋅ 81
=?
(A) 75
67 (B) 75
68
(C) 76
67 (D) 74
68
(E) None of these
2. 23 ⋅ 15 – 60 + ? ÷ 31 = 292
(A) 218 (B) 186
(C) 217 (D) 201
(E) None of these
3. 15% of 578 + 22·5% of 644 = ?
(A) 231·4
(B) 233·6
(C) 231·8
(D) 231·6
(E) None of these
4. 52 ⋅ 14 – 6 ⋅ 7 + (4)? = 18
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
(E) None of these
5. 334
+4
2
5–3
18
=?
(A) 4 1
40 (B) 5 1
40
(C) 6 1
40 (D) 5 3
40
(E) None of these
6. What would be the compound
interest accrued on an amount of
Rs. 7,400 @ 13·5 p.c.p.a. at the
end of two years ? (rounded off
to two digits after decimal)
(A) Rs. 2,136·87
(B) Rs. 2,306·81
(C) Rs. 2,032·18
(D) Rs. 2,132·87
(E) None of these
7. Sonu invested 10% more than
Mona. Mona invested 10% less
than Raghu. If the total sum of
their investment is Rs. 5,780, how
much amount did Raghu invest ?
(A) Rs. 2,010
(B) Rs. 2,000
(C) Rs. 2,100
(D) Rs. 2,210
(E) None of these
8. The ratio of the ages of Tina and
Rakesh is 9 : 10 respectively. Ten
years ago the ratio of their ages
was 4 : 5 respectively. What is
the present age of Rakesh ?
(A) 25 years
(B) 20 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 24 years
(E) None of these
9. The circumference of two circles
is 132 metre and 176 metre
respectively. What is the difference
between the area of the
larger circle and the smaller
circle ?
(A) 1048 sq. metre
(B) 1076 sq. metre
(C) 1078 sq. metre
(D) 1090 sq. metre
(E) None of these
10. In how many different ways can
the letters of the word ‘OFFICES’
be arranged ?
(A) 2520
(B) 5040
(C) 1850
(D) 1680
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In the
following number series only one
number is wrong. Find out the wrong
number.
11. 850, 600, 550, 500, 475, 462·5,
456·25
(A) 600 (B) 550
(C) 500 (D) 462·5
(E) None of these
12. 2, 10, 18, 54, 162, 486, 1458
(A) 18 (B) 54
(C) 162 (D) 10
(E) None of these
13. 13, 25, 40, 57, 79, 103, 130
(A) 25 (B) 40
(C) 57 (D) 79
(E) None of these
14. 8, 12, 24, 46, 72, 108, 152
(A) 12 (B) 24
(C) 46 (D) 72
(E) None of these
15. 142, 119, 100, 83, 65, 59, 52
(A) 65 (B) 100
(C) 59 (D) 119
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 16–20) In the
following questions two equations
numbered I and II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and
give answer. If—
(A) x > y
(B) x ≥ y
(C) x < y
(D) x ≤ y
(E) x = y
or the relationship cannot be
established
16. I. x2 – 7x + 12 = 0
II. y2 + y – 12 = 0
17. I. 2x2 + 11x + 14 = 0
II. 4y2 + 12y + 9 = 0
18. I. x4 – 227 = 398
II. y2 + 321 = 346
19. I. x2 – 4 = 0
II. y2 + 6y + 9 = 0
20. I. x2 = 729
II. y = 729
PD/June/2010/2230
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Study the table carefully to answer the
questions
that follow—
Percentage of Marks Obtained by Six Students in Six Different
Subjects
Subject
Student Hindi English Science Mathematics Social Studies
Sanskrit
(out of
175)
(out of
80)
(out of
125)
(out of 100) (out of 120) (out of 35)
A 87 84 91 66 39 84
B 58 68 87 74 57 79
C 63 71 81 94 44 86
D 48 57 70 79 68 44
E 83 83 49 77 55 50
F 74 68 42 63 61 58
21. What are the average marks
obtained by all the students in
Science ?
(A) 87 (B) 86·5
(C) 90 (D) 87·5
(E) None of these
22. What are the average marks
obtained by student F in Hindi,
English and Science subjects
together ?
(A) 78 (B) 82·4
(C) 78·8 (D) 84
(E) None of these
23. If a minimum of 101 marks in
Science subject are required for
opting science stream in the
next academic year, how many
students will not able to opt
science stream due to insufficient
marks in Science subject ?
(A) None (B) Two
(C) Four (D) Five
(E) Three
24. What are the total marks obtained
by D in Hindi, E in Social Studies
and C in Mathematics together ?
(A) 258 (B) 244
(C) 235 (D) 210
(E) None of these
25. What is the respective ratio of the
marks scored by E in Science and
Hindi ?
(A) 35 : 83 (B) 61 : 75
(C) 83 : 35 (D) 75 : 61
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 26–30) What
approximate value should come in
place of the question mark (?) in the
following questions ? (You are not
expected to calculate the exact value.)
26. 3942 ÷ 64 ÷ 3 = ?
(A) 29 (B) 32
(C) 21 (D) 17
(E) 11
27. 16·978 + 27·007 + 36·984
– 12·969 – 9·003 = ?
(A) 72 (B) 42
(C) 60 (D) 51
(E) 65
28. 18% of 609 + 27·5% of 450 = ?
(A) 220 (B) 233
(C) 267 (D) 248
(E) 274
29. 2
3
10 ⋅ 4
6
7⋅ 7
1
2=?
(A) 68 (B) 72
(C) 93 (D) 84
(E) 101
30. 12·564 ⋅ 22·009 ⋅ 17·932 =?
(A) 4901 (B) 4895
(C) 4800 (D) 4959
(E) 4350
information carefully to answer the
questions that follow—
On the occasion of an opening
ceremony of a Sports events, in a
stadium there are total of 600 players
who are participating in four different
events viz. Athletics, Table tennis,
Kho-Kho and Lawn Tennis. The ratio
between male to female players is
11 : 4 respectively. 30% of the female
players out of total female players
are participating in athletics. 10% of
female players out of total female
players are participating in table
tennis. The remaining female players
are participating in kho-kho and lawn
tennis in the ratio of 1 : 3 respectively.
The ratio of male players who are
participating in athletics and other
events together is 3 : 5 respectively.
4% of those male players who are not
participating in athletics are participating
in lawn tennis. Remaining
male players are participating in table
tennis and Kho-Kho in the ratio of
5 : 3 respectively.
31. What is the ratio between the
female players participating in
lawn tennis to table tennis respectively
?
(A) 9 : 5 (B) 4 : 7
(C) 7 : 4 (D) 9 : 2
(E) None of these
32. What is the difference between
male players participating in khokho
and female players participating
in lawn tennis ?
(A) 27 (B) 31
(C) 83 (D) 76
(E) None of these
male players participating in
Lawn tennis and female players
participating in table tennis respectively
?
(A) 11 : 72 (B) 11 : 38
(C) 11 : 16 (D) 16 : 13
(E) None of these
34. What is the total number of
female players who are participating
in athletics and Kho-Kho
together ?
(A) 68 (B) 72
(C) 58 (D) 67
(E) None of these
35. What is the total number of
players (both males and females
together) participating in table
tennis and athletics together ?
(A) 360 (B) 358
(C) 374 (D) 396
(E) None of these
following table carefully to answer
the questions that follow—
Production of Sugar (in tonne)
of Three Different States over
the years
Year
State
2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
P 4·3 4·9 5·6 5·8 6·7 7·4
Q 3·1 3·7 4·4 5·1 6·0 6·2
R 3·9 4·7 5·8 6·6 7·3 8·3
Total 11·3 13·3 15·8 17·5 20 21·9
36. What is the average production
of sugar of all the three states in
2003 and 2004 together ?
(A) 4·1 tonne (B) 4·7 tonne
(C) 5·1 tonne (D) 4·8 tonne
(E) None of these
PD/June/2010/2231
37. What is the ratio between total
production of sugar of all the
three states in year 2006 and 2007
respectively ?
(A) 7 : 9 (B) 6 : 7
(C) 8 : 7 (D) 7 : 8
(E) 11 : 12
38. What i s the average production
of sugar of State R for all the
years together ?
(E) None of these
the total production of sugar of
all the three states together in
2008 and 2005 respectively ?
(E) None of these
40. What is the approximate percentage
increase in production of
sugar in state Q from 2006 to
2007 ?
(A) 12 (B) 18
(C) 24 (D) 10
(E) 21
following Pie-chart carefully to
answer these questions.
Total Expenditure : Rs. 60 Lac
8%
24%
15%
Purchase of
overhead projectors
for Ph.D.
Classes
Medical facility
for students 7%
Research work
Psychology
laboratory
Computer
laboratory
Sports
Purchase of books
for library 6%
Publication of
Journals
10%
18%
12%
Expenditure of funds by university
for various purposes
41. What is the total sum of expenditure
on Research work, Purchase
of overhead projectors for
Ph.D. Classes and Purchase of
books for Library together ?
(A) Rs. 22·6 lac
(B) Rs. 22·8 lac
(C) Rs. 23·4 lac
(D) Rs. 20·8 lac
(E) None of these
the expenditure made by university
for Publication of Journals
and Psychology Laboratory ?
(A) Rs. 4 lac
(B) Rs. 3 lac
(C) Rs. 4·2 lac
(D) Rs. 3·8 lac
(E) None of these
43. What is the respective ratio between
the expenditure made by
university on research work and
purchase of books for library ?
(A) 4 : 5 (B) 5 : 4
(C) 8 : 3 (D) 8 : 5
(E) None of these
44. If the expenditure on purchase of
overhead projectors for Ph.D.
Students is decreased by 7%,
what will be the expenditure on
the same after the decrease ?
(A) Rs. 1,33,920
(B) Rs. 13,39,200
(C) Rs. 1,02,000
(D) Rs. 1,08,000
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following is definitely
true ?
(A) Ratio between expenditure
of university for the purchase of
library books and expenditure
on computer laboratory is 3 : 1
respectively
(B) Expenditure on medical facilities
for students is Rs. 4·6 lac
(C) Difference between the
expenditure on research work
and medical facilities for student
is Rs. 60,000
(D) All are true
(E) None of these
following graph carefully to answer
these questions.
No. of students in College A and
College B over the years
College A College B
Years
No. of students (in thousands)
0
20
10
2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008
40
30
60
50
80
90
70
46. Number of students of College B
in year 2008 is what per cent of
total students of College B in all
the years together ? (Round off to
two digits after decimal)
(A) 20·61 (B) 23·79
(C) 21·79 (D) 17·29
(E) None of these
47. What is the average number of
students in College A for all the
years together ?
(A) 45,000 (B) 50,000
(C) 52,000 (D) 48,000
(E) None of these
48. What is the approximate percentage
rise in number of students
of college B from 2005 to 2006 ?
(A) 8 (B) 12
(C) 4 (D) 15
(E) 20
49. For which college(s) and in
which year was the percent rise
in num-ber of students from the
previous year the highest ?
(A) College A in year 2004 and
College B in year 2005
(B) Only College B in year 2004
(C) College A in year 2004 and
(D) College A in year 2007 and
(E) None of these
total number of students of
College A in year 2004, 2006
and 2007 together and the total
number of students of College B
in year 2003, 2004 and 2008
respectively ?
(A) 35 : 32 (B) 33 : 37
(C) 34 : 31 (D) 32 : 35
(E) None of these
Answers with Hints
PD/June/2010/2234
English Literature
HARYANA SCHOOL TEACHERS ELIGIBILITY TEST (For Lecturer),
2009
(Held on 25-7-2009)
(Based on Memory)
Solved Paper
1. I left the bag where I found it.
The bold sentence is a—
(A) Noun phrase
(B) Noun clause
(C) Adjective clause
(D) Adverb clause
2. The real revolutionary transformation
in Indian history is that—
(A) The Indian women, once
enjoying a good status in the
ancient times were later on
treated badly
(B) Indian culture now suffered
from several evils like illiteracy
among women folk, child marriage,
widowhood and sati
(C) On Gandhiji’s call, the Indian
women asserted themselves and
made a respectable place for
themselves in Independent India
(D) The Britishers freed India
from slavery
3. The proverb ‘Rome was not built
in a day’ states that—
(A) Time, patience and hard
work are needed to complete
important and difficult tasks
(B) It took years to build the
boundary of Rome
(C) It is impossible to complete
difficult tasks
(D) The people of Rome were
very hard working
4. As a young boy, Barin used to
steal because—
(A) It had become his habit
(B) It made him happy
(C) He had developed an inclination
to rob people of the things
they liked
(D) He had become a regular
thief
5. ‘Ecumenical’ means—
(A) Very cynical about religious
doctrines
(B) Orthodox, sticking to one’s
religion
(C) Secular, involving or uniting
members of all religions
(D) Considerate and helpful
person
6. ‘And much it grieved my heart
to think what man has made of
man.’ These lines are full of—
(A) Warmth (B) Neglect
(C) Irony (D) Passion
7. ‘Beat one’s brain’ means—
(A) Start beating one’s head
(B) Curse yourself
(C) Think hard
(D) Sit back and relax
Directions—(Q. 8–12) Read the
following extract carefully and answer
the questions that follow by choosing
correct answer :
The second dimension is the
intellectual. We live in a highly competitive
age of science and technology,
and can no longer afford the
luxury of mediocrity if we are to
forge ahead. This rapidly changing
nuclear age requires our youth to be
intellectually far more alert and
competent than their predecessors,
and therefore every young man and
woman today studying in schools,
colleges and universities must aim at
academic ability of the highest order.
In a developing nation like ours,
where large numbers are still unable
to acquire even primary education,
those undergoing higher education
constitute a privileged elite. They
must therefore, repay their debt to
the society by not wasting a single
moment of academic life in futile or
disruptive pursuits, but strain every
nerve to become able and efficient in
their respective fields of study, so
that they can serve India with greater
efficiency. In this context the futility
of students getting involved in party
politics and intrigues is too obvious
to need any reiteration.
8. The rich are ndebted to the
society—
(A) Because it is their social and
moral responsibility to the society
(B) Because they can afford high
education
(C) Because they have become
rich by exploiting the poor
(D) Because they are born rich
9. Intellectuals amongst Youth are
essential—
(A) For development of the
nation
(B) Because we need intellectuals
(C) Intellectualism is in vogue
(D) Nations with intellectuals
are respected
10. ‘The luxury of mediocrity’ means—
(A) Intellectualism
(B) Advanced knowledge of
science and technology
(C) Secondary or insufficient
knowledge
(D) Sufficient knowledge
11. The futility of students getting
involved in politics needs no
reiteration because—
(A) It is well evident that their
potential would be wasted thus
(B) They strain every nerve to
become good students
(C) They need to divert their
energy for defence purpose
(D) They do not have time for
politics
12. Not many go in for higher education
because—
(A) It is the privilege of the rich
class
(B) Only rich people are intellectuals
(C) Poor people are debarred
from taking higher education
(D) Not all Indians can afford it
PD/June/2010/2235
13. ‘The righteous shall flourish as
the Palm tree’.
The figure of speech in this
sentence is—
(A) Metaphor (B) Simile
(C) Antithesis (D) Epigram
14. The narrator considered Mourad–
(A) A good person
(B) An unworthy descendent of
his late uncle
(C) A crazy fellow
(D) A delightful and mysterious
dream
15. Strike the iron while it is hot.
(A) Noun phrase
(B) Adverb clause
(C) Adverb phrase
(D) Noun clause
16. ‘Yes quaint and curious War is !
You shoot a fellow down you’d
treat
If you met where any bar is,
Or help to half a crown.
These lines express the poets—
(A) Helplessness
(B) Shows the futility of life
(C) Shows the hollowness of life
(D) The irony and incongruity of
life
17. ‘The Tale of the Melon City’ is a
poem by—
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(D) T.S. Eliot
18. The Melon was made the king of
the city because—
(A) The deceased king decided it
(B) The wisemen of the king’s
court decided this
(C) The majority of the public
wanted it so
(D) The idiot passing the city
gate decided it
19. ‘Better fifty years of Europe, than
a cycle of Cathay.’
The figure of speech used in this
sentence is—
(A) Antithesis (B) Hyperbole
(C) Simile (D) Metaphor
20. ‘The child is the father of man’.
sentence is—
(A) Epigram (B) Antithesis
(C) Metaphor (D) Simile
21. The mangoes of Hosahalli are—
(A) Very delicious
(B) Typical to their village
(C) Raw or ripe, very sour
(D) Big like watermelons
22. The police arrested and released
‘Many Harnam Singh’ because—
(A) They could not get hold of
the real Harnam Singh
(B) Many people were called
Harnam Singh
(C) Many people came forward
to get themselves arrested in his
place
(D) There was no real freedom
fighter called Harnam Singh
23. ‘Search his pockets and you will
find the watch.’
(A) Simple sentence
(B) Assertive sentence
(C) Compound sentence
(D) Complex sentence
24. John Gresham would be let off in
the court if Baldwin would, as a
witness—
(A) Pretend to have forgotten
everything because of a poor
memory
(B) Says that the Bank was going
at a loss
(C) Says that he and Gresham
were accomplice
(D) Says that Gresham is innocent
25. Choose the odd answer :
Capital punishment should be
done away with because—
(A) It is immoral and anti-Christian
(B) It aims at taking away the
life which God has given
(C) It is inhuman
(D) It relieves men of a sinful life
26. Before his return to India, the
author hesitated to see Mrs.
Clifford because—
(A) He had lied to Mrs. Clifford,
that her son was alive and he had
seen him in the ring
(B) He knew Mrs. Clifford was
seriously ill and craving for her
son
(C) Mrs. Clifford and Maggie
were in a miserable condition
(D) He did not have time to visit
them
27. ‘He is so poor that he can’t buy a
meal—
(A) Complex sentence
(B) Simple sentence
(C) Interrogative sentence
(D) Superlative sentence
28. ‘He is too weak to run fast.’
(A) Negative sentence
(B) Superlative sentence
(C) Simple sentence
Shahid ignored the author’s reassurances
and insisted that he
should write about him because—
(A) Shahid had no other friends
(B) Shahid wanted the author to
remember him through his own
writings
(C) He wanted the world to
know about him after his death
(D) He knew that the author will
certainly fulfil his wish
30. The complexities of the science of
linguistics can be studied better
in India because—
(A) India is a land of multiple
languages
(B) Sanskrit is a complicated
language
(C) Indians of ancient India
were very literate
(D) Indian languages transformed,
modified and developed
through the ages, alongwith
history
31. The synonym of ‘Abate’ is—
(A) Amplify
(B) Subside
(C) Aggravate
(D) Add to augment
32. Mrs. Clifford was eager that the
author should see the ring
because—
(A) It was her son’s ring
(B) It was a magical ring given
by a yogi, in which one could see
a distant person
(C) She had previously seen her
son in the ring
(D) It was a precious ring
PD/June/2010/2236
33. During the narrator’s bad attack
of influenza, and his stay in the
room all the time—
(A) He in his loneliness started
talking to the face
(B) The face became more realistic
and dominating
(C) The face started merging
with the other patches on the
wall
(D) It faded completely
34. Portia wins the case because—
(A) Shylock is a jew and jews
were a hated community
(B) Shylock’s daughter wants to
marry a Christian in service of
Bassanio, Portia’s husband
(C) Portia is a lady
(D) Portia is intelligent and witty
35. ‘It is hotter than it should be’—
(A) Exclamatory sentence
(B) Demonstrative sentence
(C) Compound sentence
36. ‘Buffoonery’ means—
(A) Fooling
(B) Foolish behaviour
(C) Stupidity
(D) Fun
37. ‘The news was a dagger to his
heart.’
sentence is—
(A) Metaphor (B) Antithesis
(C) Simile (D) Hyperbole
38. ‘The Address’ is not a story
about—
(A) Marconi Street, Number 46
(B) Lost Silver Cutlery
(C) The human dilemma of getting
back what one has lost
(D) How people take advantage
of others, and usurp their belongings
39. ‘Hard and fast’ means—
(A) Very tight (B) Strict
(C) Tough (D) Stone-like
40. The golden plate turned into lead
because—
(A) All men who had assembled
there were greedy people, wanting
the golden plate
(B) It was the temple’s property
(C) The people in the temple did
not belong to Benaras
(D) They did not need it
41. The patches of dampness and discolouration
resembling a human
face was peculiar because—
(A) It was in the narrator’s room
(B) The contours of the face
never changed
(C) It soon merged with the
other patches on the wall
(D) It resembled the face of the
narrator’s best friend
42. The face on the wall disappeared
because—
(A) The dampness spread
around it
(B) The author scratched the
contours of the face, as it kept
haunting him
(C) The wall were painted
(D) The real owner of the face
met with an accident
43. ‘Here’s the smell of blood still;
All the perfumes of Arabia will
not sweeten this little hand.’
sentence is—
(A) Hyperbole (B) Antithesis
(C) Metaphor (D) Simile
44. ‘The primrose path’ means—
(A) The path of pleasure
(B) The garden where primroses
bloom
(C) To praise
(D) To lead, to result in
45. Choose the incorrect answer :
The homecoming of Ranga was a
big event because—
(A) Ranga was the first villager
to go to Bangalore for education
(B) He had come home after
learning English
(C) People wanted to see if he
was the same person
(D) His hands, legs, eyes, infact
his features had changed
46. Albert Einstein was sad
because—
(A) Mr. Braun had scolded him
(B) The school authorities had
given him a warning
(C) His father, though very
poor, still wanted his son to get a
diploma
(D) His father was very poor
and could not afford his fees
The two Armenian boys belonged
to the tribe which—
(A) Was a branch of the Garoghlanian
family
(B) Were living in extreme
poverty
(C) Were once very wealthy
(D) Did not believe in right and
wrong
In the ancient times, our ancestors
disowned the handicapped
because—
(A) They lacked compassion and
humanity
(B) They lacked sufficient
resources to take care of the
invalid
(C) Danger of being exterminated
by flood, famine or enemy
was always there
(D) Superstitions and superstitious
attitudes dominated society
49. A handicapped or disabled
person is happy because—
(A) In his ignorance he is not
aware of what he misses, and
learns to be happy, as life is with
him
(B) Being deprived of some
human privileges is happiness
for him
(C) Envy and regret are of no
use to him
(D) For him light and darkness
are alike
50. “He is telented enough to compose
his own songs.”
(A) Superlative sentence
(B) Imperative sentence
(C) Complex sentence
(D) Simple sentence
51. ‘The speech was too long a talk
to hold the interest of the listeners.’
(B) Simiple sentence
(C) Interrogative sentence
(D) Comparative sentence
52. My deeds upon my head ! I crave
the law, The penalty and forfeit
of my bond.s
(A) Shylock speaks these lines to
the Duke
PD/June/2010/2237
(B) Portia appeals to Shylock
(C) Antonio pleads to the Duke
(D) Shylock speaks these lines as
an argument to Portia
53. ‘Complacently’ means—
(A) Self-satisfied (B) Confident
(C) Devoted (D) Devout
54. The poem ‘Once upon a Time’ is
a poem by—
(A) T.S. Eliot
(B) Leigh Hunt
(C) Gabriel Okara
(D) W.B. Yeats
55. The antonym of ‘Banish’ is—
(A) Deport (B) Accept
(C) Expel (D) Exile
56. The Women in ancient India
were—
(A) Ill-treated and uneducated
(B) Confined in the interiors of
the house
(C) Were literate poets, administrators
and scholars
(D) Hated education
57. Gandhiji decided to teach all the
children together because—
(A) He gave first place to the
culture of the heart and believed
that moral training could be
given to all children together
(B) They had all been brought
up in different conditions and
environment
(C) They belonged to different
religions
(D) Nation and culture of each
child was different
58. ‘Words are like leaves.’
sentence is—
(A) Metonymy
(B) Antithesis
(C) Personification
(D) Simile
59. The synonym of ‘yield’ is—
(A) Submit
(B) Dumb
(C) Aggravate
(D) Reckless
60. ‘Revenge is a kind of wild justice.’
sentence is—
(A) Metaphor
(B) Oxymoron
(C) Epigram
(D) Personification
61. ‘Why man, if the river were dry,
I am able to fill it with tears.’
sentence is—
(A) Epigram (B) Oxymoron
(C) Antithesis (D) Hyperbole
The accountant of the village
Hosahalli—
(A) Was a rigid and outdated
man
(B) Was an enlightened man
who sent his son to Bangalore for
studies
(C) Was courageous and literate
fellow
(D) Was a son called Ranga
63. ‘Calumnies’ means—
(A) Statements
(B) Slanderous statements
(C) Callousness
(D) Cadence
64. ‘He is strong enough to push the
trunk.’
(A) Superlative sentence
(B) Simple sentence
(D) Negative sentence
65. Gandhiji decided to teach the
children in the Tolstoy farm
because the prime factor dominating
his mind was—
(A) He did not have much funds
(B) Qualified teachers were not
available
(C) Teachers were not ready to
travel long distances
(D) He did not believe in the
existing system of education and
wanted to devise a new one by
experiment and experience
66. The main cause of Gandhiji’s
success as a teacher was—
(A) His simplicty and devotion
(B) His audacity
(C) Because he never disguised
his ignorance and was always
willing to learn
(D) The handbooks he had
acquired during his voyage and
in jail
67. ‘The camel is the ship of the
desert.’
sentence is—
(A) Euphemism (B) Metaphor
(C) Hyperbole (D) Simile
68. ‘He had to sign or be executed.’
(B) Simple sentence
(C) Imperative sentence
(D) Compound sentence
Directions—(Q. 69–73) Read the
following extract carefully and answer
the questions that follow by
choosing correct answer :
I would like to address a few
words in particular to our young men
and women. If they are to be effective
in the service of the nation, it is
essential that they must fit themselves
in every way for this task. The
building up of a vast and pulsating
democratic nation is no mean undertaking,
and a mere desire to be in the
service of the nation is not enough : it
must be accompanied by the ability to
do so effectively.
There are several distinct dimensions
in which our youth must equip
themselves. The first is the physical.
Building a great democracy and
defending it from predatory aggressors
requires a young generation that
is physically strong, with muscles of
iron and nerves of steel, and for this
it must equip itself by undertaking
physical training and developing
physical fitness to the maximum
extent possible. Despite technological
advances and mechanisation, defence
is still to a large extent, a matter of
dogged physical endurance and
courage as our Officers and Jawans
have so magnificently proved on the
battle-field and they emerged victorious
against superior and more
sophisticated war equipment. In this
context the National Cadet Corps, the
Physical Fitness Scheme, and other
similar organisations play valuable
role in building up the strength of
our youth, and these opportunities
must be fully availed of. Along with
physical fitness the qualities of
discipline and teamsmanship are
essential, particularly for those planning
to join the proud ranks of our
defence forces, because what is
required is not only individual
achievement but corporate progress.
PD/June/2010/2238
69. The mere desire to be in the
service of the nation is useless,
unless—
(A) Because building up a vast
democratic nation is not an easy
task
(B) All forces of the youth are
mobilized in the correct direction
(C) Youth are highly educated
(D) Mere desire without energy
is inactive involvement and
useless
70. Physical fitness is very much
required because—
(A) Illness would hamper prosperity
(B) More hospitals would be
required
(C) It is needed to defend the
nation from any threat or aggression
(D) Finance of the nation would
be drained for medical purposes
71. Technological advances and
mechanisation are not in themselves
sufficient because—
(A) Defence of the nation should
be strong
(B) Defence is more important
(C) Major youth potential would
go in defence
(D) Without power to defend
the nation, peace is not possible
and thus technological advances
impossible
72. In the battle-fields our armies
have—
(A) Never won due to lack of
physical fitness
(B) Sometimes won and sometimes
lost
(C) Proved their ability by winning
over more sophisticated
armies
(D) Shown lack of physical fitness
73. For those joining the defence
forces—
(A) Physical fitness is required
(B) Besides physical fitness,
discipline and teamsmanship are
required and very necessary
(C) Facilities of NCC are of
prime importance
(D) Just a willingness to join
defence forces is needed
74. ‘She is weaker than she should
be.’
(A) Interrogative sentence
(B) Imperative sentence
(C) Simple sentence
75. ‘The fault is in ourselves, not in
the stars’ means—
(A) Do not blame stars for your
destiny and deeds
(B) Never leave everything to
the fate
(C) Stars are stronger and decide
everything
(D) Stars cannot decide our fate
76. The ‘Tale of the Melon City’ is
named thus because—
(A) It is the tale of a land where
melons grew in abundance
(B) A melon was crowned the
King of the city
(C) The King of the city was
fond of melons
(D) Melons are delicious and the
poet is fond of them
77. ‘Dubiously’ means—
(A) Two-sided (B) Hesitantly
(C) Confused (D) Cheating
78. Mr. Berrie, the jailor regarded
himself the emperor because—
(A) The prisoners in jail were
lifetime convicts, and he was the
only person to whom they could
appeal
(B) He was the wholesole master
there
(C) The convicts regarded him
their God
(D) He was a Britisher
79. I wish that I shall get a medal—
(A) Noun phrase
(B) Noun clause
(D) Adverb clause
80. ‘The budding twigs spread out
its fan.’ ‘Fan’ is a—
(A) Metaphor
(B) Simile
(C) Hyperbole
(D) Oxymoron
81. Spiritual training was given to
the children through—
(A) Religious books
(B) Religious scriptures
(C) Developing the spirit and
enabling one to work towards
the knowledge of God and
towards self-realization
(D) Teaching them superstitions
82. ‘Variety is the spice of life.’
sentence is—
(A) Oxymoron
(B) Metaphor
(C) Epigram
(D) Personification
83. The antonym of ‘Benevolence’
is—
(A) Malevolence
(B) Beneficence
(C) Bounty
(D) Charity
84. ‘Man proposes, God disposes’.
sentence is—
(A) Euphonism (B) Epigram
(C) Hyperbole (D) Antithesis
85. ‘Give every man thy ear, but few
thy voice’.
sentence is—
(A) Epigram
(B) Antithesis
(C) Apostrophe
(D) Metaphor
86. Ranga did not want to get
married in the village because—
(A) He did not find any suitable
match in the village
(B) He wanted to get married to
a mature girl
(C) He wanted to get married to
the girl, whom he was in love
with
(D) He thought that a man
should marry a girl whom he
admires
87. Maggie was under the impression
that all Indians are vegetarians
because—
(A) Only Britishers are nonvegetarians
(B) She had heard that mostly
Indians do not eat meat and
India is a land of yogis
(C) The author himself looked
like a yogi
(D) Author had expressed his
dislike for non-vegetarian food
PD/June/2010/2239
88. Mr. Baldwin is persuaded by his
family to say, ‘he does not
remember anything’, because—
(A) He has forgotten everything
(B) He will get a very huge
amount in return for saying this,
from Mr. Gresham
(C) Mr. Baldwin’s own son is
also named John
(D) He needed to refresh his
memory for accuracy
89. While teaching the children
Gandhiji found that the children
easily remembered—
(A) Things that they learnt from
books
(B) What was taught to them
independently and verbally
(C) Whatever was written on the
blackboard
(D) When they were scolded for
studies
90. The incident of beating the
boy taught Gandhiji a better
way of correcting the students
because—
(A) He found that though the
youngsters thus punished forgot
it, but they never showed any
improvement
(B) He learnt that students
should be dealt with firmly
(C) Cases of misconduct become
less frequent
(D) Students cannot improve
without corporal punishment
91. ‘The Assyrians came down like a
wolf on the fold.’
sentence is—
(A) Simile
(B) Metaphor
(C) Oxymoron
(D) Epigram
92. Mourad defended his act of
stealing the horse by saying—
(A) Someone had given it to him
(B) It would not become stealing
unless he offered to sell the
horse
(C) He had borrowed it
(D) It was his friend’s horse
93. ‘The Hour of Truth’ reflects the—
(A) Political situation of those
days
(B) Psychology of present man
(C) Social evils of the society
(D) Ethical background
94. The study of mythology assumed
a new character because—
(A) Light has been thrown on it
by ancient Vedic mythology of
India
(B) It has become a fashion to
study mythology
(C) Even the fables of India are
full of mythology
(D) Buddhism has been its
principal source
Hosahalli is
(A) A small village in Mysore
(B) To Mysore what the filling is
to Karigadabu
(C) Its people are like a flock of
sheep
(D) The Sahibs of England have
praised it in their writings
96. Brain Bhowmik, today a celebrity,
was trying to avoid the glance of
his fellow passenger because—
(A) He appeared to be an
unfriendly fellow
(B) His glance was very piercing
(C) He recognized that he was
the same man whose clock he
had stolen years ago
(D) They had met in bitter
circumstances
97. Barin consoled himself with the
thought that the man failed to
recognize him because—
(A) He had a bad memory
(B) Barin’s physical appearance
had changed
(C) He was like Animesh-da
(D) He had forgiven Barin
98. ‘Genius is an infinite capacity for
taking pains’, means—
(A) Very intelligent person
(B) Excellent capacity to memorize
(C) Exceptional capacity is the
result of inexhaustable willingness
to work and take great
trouble
(D) Excellent understanding
power
99. ‘Turn a deaf ear’ means—
(A) Ignore
(B) Turn away from somebody
(C) Refuse to listen to something
or somebody
(D) Refuse to go with
100. The king became angry because—
(A) The arch was built too low
(B) The arch was not built artistically
(C) The arch was built at the
wrong place
(D) The crowd disapproved of
the arch
101. Mr. Braun became angry because
Einstein—
(A) Refused to study in his class
(B) Replied that learning from
books is not true education
(C) Insulted Mr. Braun
(D) Was a bad, mannerless boy
102. Mr. Box comes face to face with
Mr. Cox when—
(A) Both were given a holiday
(B) Mr. Box was at home, and
Mr. Cox also returned because he
had been given a holiday by his
employer
(C) It was a national holiday
and both were at home
(D) Mr. Cox came back early
because he wanted to meet Mr.
Box
103. Give one word for : ‘A big round
open dish for holding water or
liquids’.
(A) Bowl (B) Bin
(C) Container (D) Basin
104. The narrator dominated by the
face on the wall—
(A) Left the room, as it became
haunting
(B) Began to search for a similar
face
(C) Had the walls painted
(D) Left the city, altogether
105. The word ‘apologetically’ means–
(A) Sorry
(B) Confess of having been
wrong
(C) Expressing or showing
regret
(D) An apology
106. ‘Not that I loved Caeser less, but
that I loved Rome more.’
sentence is—
(A) Personification
(B) Simile
(C) Antithesis
(D) Metaphor
PD/June/2010/2240
107. ‘Honesty is the best policy’
means—
(A) Honest men are rewarded
(B) It is best and safe to be
honest
(C) Dishonest men are bad
(D) Dishonest men do not have
any policy
108. ‘The Hour of Truth’ by Percival
Wilde is from his volume
entitled—
(A) Brothers
(B) A Question of Morality and
other Plays
(C) First is Last
(D) Little Shot
109. ‘That you are drunk aggravates
your offence.’
(A) Negative sentence
(B) Compound sentence
(D) Simple sentence
110. When Einstein told his cousin
about his inability to memorise,
Elsa advised him—
(A) To learn by heart, as a parrot
does by repeating again and
again
(B) To take up tuition classes
(C) Drop the examinations
(D) Change the institution
111. The Indian women gained social
recognition and respect in
society—
(A) By participating in the freedom
struggle
(B) By a suffragette movement
(C) By feminism
(D) By social discontent and
revolution
112. ‘Shall I falter in my vengeance’
are the lines spoken when—
(A) Mr. Box finds that Mrs.
Bouncer has been misuing his
leniency
(B) He suspects that she had
been using his things in his
absence
(C) He finds that even in his
presence, his bacon has been
removed from fire and a chop is
being roasted
(D) He confronts Mr. Cox
113. The most recent threat to the
village of Wangs was—
(A) The floods of the Yellow
river
(B) The Japanese
(C) The social unrest within the
village
(D) Dispute with neighbouring
villages
114. Mrs. Wang opened the watergate,
and let the water into the
village because—
(A) The village was burning and
the water could extinguish it
(B) The crops could be watered,
because the villagers had fled
(C) The Japanese army would be
swept away by the floods
(D) The gate would break, due
to the increasing water pressure
115. The priest declared that those
who think that they deserve the
gold plate should assemble in the
temple and declare their
virtues—
(A) So that they could count the
virtues of all people
(B) To choose the right owner of
the Heaven’s gift
(C) It was s o instructed in
writing, on the plate
(D) The priests declared so as to
complete the formalities and
keep the plate themselves
116. ‘The Address’ is not a story
about—
(A) Familiar things in strange
surroundings
(B) Human predicament that
follows war
(C) Mrs. Dorling’s cunningness
(D) Searching one’s lost home
117. Mrs. Dorling was—
(A) The author’s aunt
(B) Their neighbour
(C) An old acquaintance of the
author’s mother
(D) Her mother’s friend
118. The narrator gave the example of
a Japanese student who liked
raw fish because—
(A) He wanted to tell the people
present that give the handicapped
children freedom to
decide what they enjoy
(B) It’s very delicious and he
liked it
(C) It is healthy to eat raw fish
(D) It was his student’s favourite
dish
Enlgish was a priceless commodity
because—
(A) People of Hosahalli did not
know English
(B) There were no English
teachers in Hosahalli
(C) Native language was more
popular
(D) People were not interested
in learning English
120. According to Talish and Mulla,
the North-Eastern region of India
was—
(A) A difficult land
(B) A strange and terrible country
: ‘another world’
(C) A hilly region
(D) A monsoon-hit region
121. In the poem ‘Written In Early
Spring’ the poet is chiefly—
(A) Talking about happy nature
(B) Talking about the various
melodious songs and sounds in
the grove
(C) Talking about the inherent
link between nature and soul
(D) Lamenting the fact that
though human soul and nature
are interlinked, yet, while nature
has retained it’s beauty, man has
spoilt his life
122. ‘Keep one’s chin up’ means—
(A) Keep your head up in all
circumstances
(B) Remain adamant even when
you are wrong
(C) Make faces
(D) Remain cheerful in difficult
situations
123. The synonym of ‘Abscond’ is—
(A) Elope (B) Arrive
(C) Emerge (D) Stay back
124. ‘Accoutrements’ means—
(A) Remnants of accounts
(B) Remaining facts
(C) Other things that were
needed for the activity
(D) Accountable facts
125. ‘The Voice of Rain’ is a poem
by—
PD/June/2010/2241
(A) Walt Whitman
(B) William Wordsworth
(C) Lord Tennyson
(D) Coleridge
126. The poet calls the war quaint and
curious because—
(A) Individuals fight for their
leaders
(B) Nobody invites war
(C) Nobody likes war
(D) During war, you shoot
people, whom you do not know
or have any enmity with them.
But they cannot be your friends,
because you meet them in
unfriendly circumstances
127. ‘Ask for’ does not mean—
(A) Invite
(B) Ask to speak to or see
(C) Request
(D) Enquire or demand
128. Fill in the blank :
Giving …… training to the kids
was the most difficult task.
(A) Medical (B) Acting
(C) Cooking (D) Literary
129. ‘Bewildered’ means—
(A) Puzzled (B) Confusion
(C) Chaos (D) Perceived
130. ‘He makes no friends, who never
made a foe’.
sentence is—
(A) Oxymoron (B) Hyperbole
(C) Epigram (D) Antithesis
131. ‘Make a clean breast of’ means—
(A) Confession of a wrong doing
(B) Clear the breast of a chicken
(C) Clear facts
(D) Never confess
132. ‘Rather an expensive complement’
was an outburst by John
when—
(A) Baldwin said that Gresham
had asked him to pretend, he has
a poor memory
(B) The papers wrote unfair
things about Baldwin
(C) The bank crashed, and the
depositors lost all their money
(D) Baldwin refused to accept
the huge amount Mr. Gresham
was offering him
133. ‘To fall of one’s lot’ means—
(A) To make a vigorous beginning
(B) To happen to one
(C) To break up
(D) To go back to one’s group
134. ‘Indignantly’ means—
(A) Aggressiveness
(B) Showing hostility
(C) Confused
(D) Disobedient
135. The identity between Nature’s
fair works and soul are—
(A) The inherent truth and
beauty in both
(B) Nature’s products had
influenced man
(C) Nature’s beauty overwhelms
men and influences him
(D) Both natural objects and soul
were created together
136. The author thought that they had
been forcibly dragged from the
steps of Heaven to Hell because—
(A) They were deprived of good
food
(B) They were subjected to
extreme torture continuously
(C) They were locked in darkness
(D) They had to submit to the
British
the following extract carefully and
answer the question that follow by
Our Freedom was won with great
struggle and sacrifice after centuries
of servitude to foreign rule, and it is
important that those of us who belong
to the post-independence generation
should not fall into the error of taking
our freedom for granted. The maintenance
and strengthening of freedom
is a task even more onerous than its
attainment.
In any nation the youth necessarily
forms the vanguard in most
spheres of activity, and it is essential
that at this critical juncture its power
must be mobilised further to strengthen
our integrity and our capacity to
resist aggression. What is required is
an immense burst of idealism and
energy among our youth, who must
be deeply committed to the task of
safeguarding this great nation of ours
founded on the twin ideals of secularism
and democracy. In particular our
young men and women studying in
schools, colleges and universities have
a special responsibility, for while they
are no longer children they have yet
not got fully involved in the routine
of adult life. They constitute an
immense reservoir of strength which
if properly canalised, can prove to be
a source of great power to the nation.
Indeed it is these young Indians who
will soon be called upon to provide
leadership in all walks of national
life, and they must train themselves
to fulfil their future responsibilities
with distinction.
137. The ‘twin ideas’ on which
our nation is based are—
(A) Democracy and secularism
(B) Struggle and sacrifice
(C) Maintain and strengthen
democracy
(D) Strength and integrity
138. ‘The consolidation of freedom’,
means—
(A) Loosing it
(B) Servitude
(C) Struggle and sacrifice
(D) Maintaining and strengthening
it
139. Freedom should be consolidated
by today’s youth because—
(A) Freedom is indispensable
(B) Freedom was gained by
paying a huge price
(C) It was gained after a lot of
struggle and sacrifice
(D) It was given to us as charity
140. Youth power should be mobilized
for the good of the nation
because—
(A) Immense deposits of strength
and potential are in it
(B) They are students
(C) They are children needing
gudiance
(D) They are responsible
141. ‘Youth necessarily forms the
vanguard’ means—
(A) Shield
(B) The front part
(C) Main force, leader
(D) Protection
142. No one would suspect that the
lawyer had met with an ‘unnatural
death’ because—
PD/June/2010/2242
(A) The lawyer’s frustrations
could have led him to commit
suicide
(B) He was on the verge of death
(C) Lawyer was very sick and
his condition was critical
(D) He had grown very thin and
weak, and already appeared half
dead
143. Einstein did not try to learn
because—
(A) He did not believe in formal
education
(B) He was very intelligent
(C) He did not have learning
capacity
(D) He was a complete duffer
144. ‘Bully for your Governor !’ are
the lines spoken by—
(A) Gresham (B) Martha
(C) John (D) Evie
145. Ethnology is a—
(A) Study of people
(B) A study of relationship between
living things and their
environment
(C) A study of human races and
their characteristics
(D) The study of causation
146. The synonym of ‘Abhorrence’
is—
(A) Detestation
(B) Adoration
(C) Likeness
(D) Fascination
147. The antonym of ‘Besiege’ is—
(A) Attack (B) Defend
(C) Beset (D) Confine
Shahid knew that the author
would make excuses such as—
(A) He was incapable of waiting
any more
(B) He was not a poet
(C) Their friendship was quite
recent
(D) There were others who knew
him much better and could write
with greater understanding
149. The gold plate was meant for—
(A) The priests of the temple
(B) A person who loved all best
(C) The social workers
(D) For charity
150. ‘Has his heart in the right place’
means—
(A) His heart is on the correct
side
(B) He is of a kindly and sympathetic
disposition
(C) He has fallen in love with
the right girl
(D) He is very easily blackmailed
151. It was so hot that we couldn’t go
out.
(A) Adverb phrase
(B) Noun clause
(D) Adverb clause
152. The unruly boy modified his
behaviour—
(A) Because he was punished
(B) Because he realized
Gandhiji’s pain in being driven
to this violent recourse
(C) Because he realized that he
should be a good boy
(D) Because he found that all the
other children were well behaved
Agha Shahid Ali talked about his
death because—
(A) The author knew that Shahid
was going to die soon
(B) He wanted the author to
know that he was seriously ill
and going to die soon
(C) Shahid had become quite
friendly with the author
(D) He was suffering from
Cancer
154. ‘Unless you do as I tell you, you
will regret.’
(A) Affirmative sentence
(B) Negative sentence
(D) Compound sentence
155. Whether we can start tomorrow
seems uncertain.
(A) Adverb phrase
(B) Adjective clause
(C) Noun clause
(D) Adverb clause
156. Never make a disabled person
aware of his handicaps because—
(A) You can also become disabled
due to accident
(B) All men have some handicaps
and miss some good things
in life, but they do not know it
(C) It will make him sad
(D) They will become disappointed
and loose hope in life
157. Choose the incorrect answer—
(A) Mourad was a member of
the Garoghlanian tribe
(B) Mourad was the son of
Khosrove
(C) Mourad had a crazy streak
in him
(D) Mourad had stolen a horse
just for a ride
All writers avoid writing about
loss and bereavement because—
(A) Things become real to them
while writing
(B) They are impractical
(C) Authors are highly sensitive
(D) Authors are very emotional
159. Archaeology is the study of—
(A) The past
(B) Stone tools
(C) A fibula, a knife or a flint
(D) Earlier civilizations through
their material remains
160. The poem ‘Once upon a Time’ is
full of—
(A) Ridicule (B) Satire
(C) Anguish (D) Tragedy
161. The girl Maggie was inquisitive
about the author because—
(A) He appeared to have a
familiar face
(B) He was an Indian and
Indians are peculiar
(C) The author was an Indian
and since her brother is also in
India, she wanted to meet him
(D) For the English, India is a
wild land
162. During freedom struggle
Gandhiji appealed to the women
of India to come forward and—
(A) Neglect their homes and its
security
(B) Participate in the Freedom
Movement
(C) Sacrifice physical comforts
(D) Defy all social restrictions
and norms
PD/June/2010/2243
163. Mrs. Bouncer is taken aback,
when cross-questioned by both
Mr. Box and Mr. Cox because—
(A) She is innocent
(B) She is a fraud
(C) She is cheating both Mr. Box
and Mr. Cox
(D) She, in great need of money
is doing this
Ranga had become a source of
attraction because—
(A) He had come home after
studying in Bangalore
(B) People were happy to see a
fellow villager back, who had
gone out to study
(C) He had become ill-mannered
and proud
(D) He had not forgotten his
culture
165. The banker tried to dissuade the
young lawyer by saying that—
(A) He will have to give him
two millions after fifteen years,
in an impulsive bet
(B) Voluntary imprisonment is
heavier than enforced imprisonment
(C) He had placed the bet in a
fluke
(D) The lawyer was young and
impulsive
166. Brain, not bothering about the
results, decided to return Pulak
Chakraborty his clock because—
(A) He had started liking him
(B) Barin had become a true and
honest person
(C) A sense of guilt encircled
him
(D) He was now in a position
where he could buy several such
clocks
167. Mrs. Wang had lost her husband
in—
(A) The fight with the Japanese
(B) Drought
(C) Floods
(D) Accident
The creepers of Hosahalli
(A) Grow in village ponds
(B) Also grow on land
(C) Its flowers are extremely
beautiful
(D) Its leaves are big enough for
serving the afternoon meal
169. ‘Laugh with their teeth’ means—
(A) Grinning
(B) Open-hearted laugh
(C) Emotionaless laugh
(D) Effortless laugh
170. Find out if the teacher is in his
office.
(A) Adverb clause
(B) Adjective phrase
(C) Noun clause
(D) Noun phrase
171. The antonym of ‘Blemish’ is—
(A) Blot (B) Stain
(C) Chaste (D) Stigma
172. ‘Astounded’ means—
(A) Taken aback
(B) Assured
(C) Amazed
(D) Surrouded
173. ‘The Man He Killed’ is a poem
which describes—
(A) How innoncent people are
killed in war
(B) How humanity is destroyed
in an urge of revenge
(C) How men, who do not hate
each other and can be friends,
kill each other in battlefield
(D) The consequences of
enemity
174. She never complained though
the work was hard—
(A) Adjective phrase
(B) Adjective clause
(C) Adverb clause
(D) Noun phrase
175. A hall for lectures, concerts etc. is
called—
(A) Auditorium (B) Cabin
(C) Stadium (D) Gymnasium
176. Mrs. Wang feared the floods
because—
(A) They brought with it misery
and destruction
(B) They brought with it, the
Japanese invaders
(C) She had lost her husband in
the floods
(D) They damaged the dike
which had to be repaired every
year
177. Shahid’s finest works were
centred in and about Kashmir
because—
(A) He was a Kashmiri
(B) Kashmir is a beautiful place
(C) He wanted to return to
Kashmir
(D) The political situation of
Kashmir was steadily deteriorating
178. ‘Hard work never hurts anybody’
means—
(A) Be hard-working and quit
idleness
(B) Hard work is painless
(C) One’s hard-work will not
hurt anybody else
(D) Hard-working people do not
cause injury to others
179. A leather or plastic case for
carrying paper, books, etc—
(A) Briefcase (B) Folder
(C) Suitcase (D) Bag
The bet was a useless one
because
(A) It was made in a party
(B) The lawyer will lose his
precious years in jail, for the gold
(C) The bankers’ caprice had
made him do it
(D) It will fail to convince the
people whether capital punishment
is better or worse than life
imprisonment
181. Mrs. Dorling used to visit the the
author’s mother—
(A) Because she cared for them
(B) Because she was her
mother’s aunt
(C) Because she belonged to
their native town
(D) Because she was greedy and
wanted all their possessions
182. Although Kashmir centred
Shahid’s works, he was not a
political poet by inclination
because—
(A) He was secular
(B) He had left Kashmir years
ago
(C) He believed that even if you
are writing about you birthplace,
then too you should respect your
art and form, otherwise stop
writing
(D) He lived abroad, far away
from India and Kashmir
PD/June/2010/2244
183. ‘Conforming smiles’ means—
(A) Genuine smiles
(B) Mincing smiles
(C) Customary or conventional
smiles
(D) Rigid Smiles
the following extract carefully and
answer the questions that follow by
The third is the dimension of
patriotism. I am concerned here not so
much with the routine meaning of
this term as with that deeper
patriotism which transcends all pettiness
and exclusivism, and creates in
our youth a deep urge for national
unity and progress. This alone can
eradicate corruption and nepotism
from our land and galvanise our
whole process of economic development,
which is so crucial to the
success of our democracy. The youth
of a nation is always the fountainhead
of its idealism, and our young
men and women must have a full
realisation that it is up to them to
provide a new moral impetus to India
at this crucial juncture in her history
as a free nation. In this context I
cannot resist the temptation to quote
from a speech delivered over half-acentury
ago by one of our great
nationalist leaders, Sri Aurobindo
Ghosh, to students of the Bengal
National College. He said :
“There are times in a nation’s
history when Providence, places
before it one work, one aim, to which
everything else, however high and
noble in itself, has to be sacrificed.
Such a time has now arrived for our
Motherland when nothing is dearer
than her service, when everything
else is to be directed to that end. If
you will study, study for her sake;
train yourselves, body and mind and
soul for her service. You will earn
your living that you may do service
to her. Work that she may prosper.
Suffer that she may rejoice.”
184. A new moral impetus to India
can be given—
(A) By preaching morality in
society
(B) By giving ethical and moral
values to the youth, who is the
fountain head of the nation
(C) By making literacy popular
in the nation
(D) By declaring India an Ideal
Nation
185. In his speech Sri Aurobindo
spoke—
(A) Lines in order to remind the
youth to study more
(B) Telling the youth to become
ideal individuals
(C) Study and work for the
service of the nation
(D) To become nationalists
186. Patriotism is essential for the
success of a democracy because—
(A) It would transcend pettiness
and selfishness
(B) It would lead to unity of the
nation
(C) It helps in consolidation and
progress of the nation at large
(D) It would eradicate corruption
187. ‘Patriotism’ means—
(A) Feeling of goodwill for one’s
nation
(B) Loving one’s nation
(C) Loving one’s fellow citizens
(D) A deep desire for the unity
and progress of one’s nation
188. The youth, according to Sri
Aurobindo—
(A) Must be infused with the
spirit of complete devotion to
their motherland
(B) Must be highly educated
(C) Must work first for his own
self
(D) Make a good earning after
high studies
189. The land had its impact on the
character of the people because—
(A) Though a hilly and woody
region, it was full of scenic
beauty and it made the people
tough but aesthetic
(B) The harsh life made the
people harsh
(C) The people, being cut-off
from the rest of the world
became isolated and self-centred
(D) They had become superstitious
190. ‘Panegyric’ means—
(A) Verbal praises
(B) A piece of written or spoken
praise
(C) Slanderous words
(D) Rumours
191. ‘He speaks more loudly than he
should—
(A) Compound sentence
(B) Passive voice
(C) Simple sentence
192. The two men had met in a—
(A) Bar
(B) Inn
(C) Battle-field
(D) While taking training in the
army
193. ‘Commutation of our sentences’
means—
(A) Sentencing us
(B) Cancelling the sentences
(C) Trespassing order of the
court
(D) Making less severe
194. A bottle for carrying liquids—
(A) Kettle (B) Flask
(C) Can (D) Camphor
195. This was how the company
made profits. The bold sentence
is a—
(A) Noun phrase
(B) Adjective phrase
(C) Adverb phrase
(D) Noun clause
196. ‘Embarrassed’ means—
(A) Ashamed/awkward
(B) Shameful
(C) Encompass
(D) Flustered
197. Cox says that he has ‘had it
mowed’ because—
(A) He wanted a short haircut
(B) The barber to whom he went
for the haircut, had cut it
extremely short
(C) He liked very short hair
(D) Short haircuts were in
fashion
198. “Richard fought like a lion.”
sentence is—
(A) Hyperbole (B) Apostrophe
(C) Simile (D) Metaphor
PD/June/
199. ‘Lay down’ means—
(A) Reserve
(B) Decide
(C) Surrender/fix
(D) Impose
200. ‘Polemical’ means—
(A) Around the pole
(B) Revolving talks
(C) Discussions
(D) Verbal attacks/controversial
discussions
Answers with Hints
CONCENTRIC QUIZ
(States of India Special)
TRIPURA
1. Which of the following states of
India is historically called the
Rice Bowl of India ?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Uttar Pradesh
2. The first general election to the
Assembly of which of the
following states was held in
February 1978 ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Goa
(D) Himachal Pradesh
3. Assam became a British protectorate
in the year—
(A) 1840 (B) 1725
(C) 1826 (D) 1726
4. With which of the following
states is the scheme/project
CHOICE associated ?
(A) Bihar
(B) West Bengal
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Orissa
5. Jesuit priest Francis Xavier
arrived in Goa in—
(A) 1544 (B) 1542
(C) 1554 (D) 1564
6. Which of the following states
has been adjudged number one
state in Primary Education and
teacher student ratio ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Tamil Nadu
7. In how many zones can Jammu
and Kashmir be divided geographically
?
(A) Five Zones
(B) Six Zones
(C) Four Zones
(D) Seven Zones
located in Jharkhand ?
(A) Ichagarh Bird Sanctuary
(B) Bhagwan Birsa Zoological
Garden
(C) Tatoloi Hot Water Stream
(D) Karna Lake and Oasis
9. The scheme ‘FRIENDS’ is being
implemented by the state of—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka
10. Coconut is the most important
cash crop of—
(A) Goa (B) Meghalaya
(C) Kerala (D) Assam
11. The religious festival of
Nongkrem dance is annually
celebrated in—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
12. The first well known rulers of
Maharashtra are—
(A) Vakatakas
(B) Chalukyas
(C) Rashtrakutas
(D) Satavahanas
13. Which Indian state is the only
spot on Earth where the Browantlered
deer is found ?
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Manipur
(C) Tripura
(D) Mizoram
14. By which of the following
Constitution Amendment Acts
was the legislature for Tripura
created ?
(A) The Constitution Tenth
Amendment Act, 1961
(B) The Constitution Fourteenth
Amendment Act, 1962
(C) The Constitution Fifteenth
Amendment Act, 1963
(D) The Constitution Sixteenth
Amendment Act, 1963
15. Vantawng Falls is the highest
waterfall of—
(A) Mizoram
(B) Manipur
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Tripura
16. This Indian state lies between
the parallels of 98 degree and 96
degree East Longitude and 26·2
degree and 27·4 degree latitude
north of the Equator ? Which
state is this ?
(A) Manipur
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Nagaland
(D) Tripura
17. The most brilliant epoch in the
history of Orissa began with
which of the following ascending
to the throne ?
(A) Narasingha Dev
(B) Mahasivagupta Yajati II
(C) Akbar the Great
(D) Marathas
18. The mountain which is
regarded as the guardian duty
of Sikkim is—
(A) Mt. Everest
(B) Tibetan Plateaux
(C) Chumbe Valley
(D) Khang Chendzonga
19. Which Indian state is known
as Dev Bhoomi (Land of the
Gods) ?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Tamil Nadu
20. At the time of Alexander’s
invasion a powerful kingdom
called Gangaridai ruled over—
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) West Bengal
(D) Andhra Pradesh
P.Darpan
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Commerce

MADHYA PRADESH P.S.C. STATE SERVICE (Pre.) EXAM., 2008

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(A) Establishing right type of

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Organizational charts such as:

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and the number of direct group relationships is

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33. As per Indian Companies Act,

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07. The increase in the chloroflurocarbon

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14. Which one of the following is

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