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HEMATOLOGY

1. Variation in shapes of RBC: Poikilocytosis 18. Large cell w/ single eccentric nucleus has
reticular chromatin and prominent nucleolus:
2. Variation in sizes of RBC: Anisocytosis Osteoblast

3. Leukoerythroblastosis is not associated with 19. Nutritional deficiency of Cobalamine, due to


______: Erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN) failure of gastric mucosa produce intrinsic
factors: Pernicious Anemia
4. Procedure employs blood w/ EDTA diluted with
0.105 M NaCitrate or NSS: Modified Westergren 20. During fetal life, all Rbc produce HbF, in
adults, 0.2-7% are HbF: TRUE
5. What is the T-cell growth factor and mast cell
activating factor effect in stimulating erythroid 21. Reticulocytopenia and ABN RBC are primary
and myeloid proliferation: Interleukin-9 or IL-9 findings, ABN granulocyte are rare and less than
1% blast cells: Refractory Anemia
6. Largest of all hematopoietic stem cells:
Polyploid megakaryocyte 22. Acute Myelocytic Leukemia seen in: M4

7. Which among RBC has figure of 8, loop 23. Earliest Thrombopoiesis w/ overlapping lobe
shaped: Cabot rings and small amount of basophilic cytoplasm:
Megakaryoblast
8. Which among cells is the earliest erythroid
recognizable precursor: pronormoblast 24. Degrades fibrin clot and retract fibrinogen
forms FDP: Plasmin
9. Which of the ff mononuclear cells are w/o
specific cytoplasmic granules: Lymphocytes 25. Content of eosinophilic specific granules toxic
to parasite that neutralize heparin and release
10. Which ff cell is larger than monocyte w/ histamine: Major Basic Protein
irregular cell membrane with blunts and
pseudopods: Megakaryoblasts 26. Pathway using 2,3-BPG: Rapaport-
Luebering Shunt
11. Common precursor for granulocytes,
monocytes, erythrocytes and megakaryocytes: 27. Cooper Cruick Shank method is for: Absolute
Myeloid stem cells Basophil Count

12. Rbc thinner than normal, peripheral rim of 28. Result of PT & PTT mixing studies: mixed
hemoglobin w/ dark Hgb containing area: plasma is normal, after 1-2 hrs it is prolonged,
Leptocytes suggestive of : Presence of FVIII inhibitor

13. Disintegrating RBC: Schistocytes 29. Lab findings of DIC: (increase D-dimer,
increase PT/PTT, decrease platelet count)
14. Cell that has deep purple and paler nucleus
which often nearly hidden by granules: Basophils 30. Conjugated protein serves as a vehicle of
oxygen and carbon dioxide: Hemoglobin
15. Last nucleated cell: Orthochromic
Normoblast 31. Absorbance of spectrophotometer for
determining Hgb using HCN: 540nm
16. Hematopoietic stem cells also known as CFU-
GEM expresses: CD34/CD33 32. Quantitative measure of Carboxy Hgb: Either
(Differential spectrophotometer, gas
17. Promotes differentiation and maturation of chromatography)
megakaryocytes: Thrombopoietin
33. Problem solving: memorize corrected WBC
count
34. Young cells w/ residual RNA 51. Autosomal dominant that failure normal
polychromatophilic RBC in air dried film stained segmentation of neutrophils: Pelger Huet
with __?: Brilliant Cresyl Blue and New Anomaly
Methylene Blue
52. AML w/ minimal differentiation: M0
35. Bilobed structure which recognized by size
and bright red granules: Eosinophil 53. A molecule of Hgb is consist of ___
polypeptide chain: 2
36. Abundant blue cytoplasm, eccentric round
nucleus w/ light vacuoles w/ well defined golgi 54. A mixture of oxidized denatured Hgb during
zone adjacent to nucleus: Plasma Cell oxidative hemolysis: SulfHgb

37. 1 g of Hgb carries ___ mg of Iron: 3.47 55. Principle involved in automated counting:
Electric Impedance
38. Reveals pancytopenia, decrease
hematopoietic cell lines resulting to low all blood 56. Measures fibrin clot from activation of F7 to
levels: Aplastic Anemia fibrin stabilizing clot: PT

39. Genetically impairment of globin synthesis: 57. Lymphoreticular neoplasm involved in skin:
Thallasemia mycosis fungoides

40. Which of the ff also called CSF-1: Monocyte 58. Global test adequacy of primary hemostasis:
macrophage CSF template BT

41. Fastest Hgb at pH 8.4 in alkaline medium: 59. Activator that initiates the fibrinolysis and
HbH convert plasminogen to plasmin: t-PA

42. Hgb not denatured by alkaline solution: HbF 60. Primary test in diagnosis of hairy cell
leukemia: ACP
43. Variety of Acute leukemia predominant blasts
cannot classify using morphologic, cytochemical, 61. Decrease function of F2, 7, 10 (Protein C,
ultrastructural and immunologic or DNA analysis: Protein S): warfarin
Acute undifferentiated Leukemia
62. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients
44. Normal value of reticulated platelet count: 3- with deficiencies in which factor in intrinsic factor:
20% F8,9, 11, 12

45. Term used if RBC is hypochromic and 63. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients
normochromic: Anisochromia with deficiencies in which factor in extrinsic
factor: F7
46. This are the Pro-Tcell markers except? CD3,
CD 7, CD2, CD17 64. Cofactor of required in activation of F2 by
activated F8: F5
47. Which of the ff refers to total red cell mass:
absolute polycythemia vera 65. Diluting fluid in platelet count in phase
contrast: 1%NH4Oxalate
48. Normal Retic count at birth? 3-7%
66. In phase contrast microscope, how many
49. Not required for RBC production: Folic Acid, squares in platelets in improved neubauer: 25
Iron, Protein or Vitamin E small squares

50. Rare autosomal dominant shows pale blue 67. Light angle scatter in laser-based cell
inclusion resembling Dohle bodies: May Hegglin counting chamber is used to measure:
Anomaly cytoplasmic granularity
68. Patients with infectious mononucleosis, this 81. Majority of iron bound to _____ which has
blood cell is infected: B-lymphocyte capacity to bind 331 mg of iron/dl: Transferrin

69. Inhibits factor 2,9,7,11,10, enhances the 82. Abnormal RBC due to abnormal radium
activity of anti-thrombin as natural anticoagulant: potassium ratio in the RBC: Stomatocytes
Heparin
83. F8 deficiency: Hemophilia A
70. Which of the ff not function of spleen as
hematopoietic origin: secretion of mitogen 84. Average concentration HgB in a given RBC:
MCHC
71. Immature non-nucleated RBC with RNA
granules: Reticulocytes 85. Not considered myeloproliferative disorder:
AML
72. Not associated with sickle cell: promotes
spleen destruction 86. Cytokines produced by macrophages and
kupffer cell: IL-18
73. Tissue extract with phospholipid and tissue
factor that activates F7 in extrinsic pathway: 87. HgB constituent that may degraded and
thromboplastin return to amino acid pool: Globin

74. Use to connote the appearance of neoplastic 88. Last stage of granulocytic that capable of
cell w/ non-hodgkins lymphoma: mitosis: Myelocyte
lymphosarcoma cell leukemia
89. Production of azurophilic granules:
75. This altered of immune response against host Promyelocyte
own immune system that produce Antibody
against itself: AutoImmune Hemolytic Anemia 90. Water soluble complex of ferric salt and
protein: Ferritin
76. Useful in identifying w/ Beta-Thalassemia trait
that elevated upto 7%: HbA2 91. Platelet survival: 8-11 days(in vivo) 3-5
days(in vitro)
77. Chronic progressive panmyelosis
characterized by triad findings vary in fibrosis in 92. Provides initial hemostasis due to injury:
the marrow, splenomegaly and platelet plug
leukoerythroblastic anemia: Myelofibrosis w/
93. Condition of panmyelosis with increase
myeloid metaplasia
megakaryocytes, granulocytes, erythrocytes:
78. Sensitive test in folate or cobalamine Polycythemia vera
deficiency. Measures ability of marrow cells in
94. General measure in intrinsic and common
vitro to utilize deoxyuridine in DNA synthesis:
pathway: PTT
deoxyuridine suppression test
95. General measure in extrinsic and common
79. Life span of basophil in bone marrow: 7 days
pathway: PT
80. Hematopoiesis begins at the 6 week of fetal
th
96. An 18- Kda produce by activated T-cell and
life: Liver
mast cell: IL-4
MICROBIOLOGY

1. Cell wall that has large amount lipids: 18. Voges-Proskauer test detects which end
Mycobacterium product of glucose fermentation: acetoin

2. Characteristic of lactose (-) citrate (-) urease 19. pH where methyl red test is +: pH 4.5
(-), non motile, lysine decarboxylase (-):
Shigella dysenteriae
20. Genera that is positive to Phenylalanine
3. Primary test to differentiate S. aureus and S. Deaminase: Morganella, Proteus, Providencia
epidermidis: Coagulase Test
21. Media used to isolate Brucella for blood
4. Helicobacter pylori is associated with: ulcer and bone marrow as specimen: Biphasic-
of gastric mucosa Castaneda with Brucella broth

5. Campylobacter is associated with: 22. Agent for conjunctivitis or known as


gastroenteritis pink eye: Hemophilus influenzae biotype III

6. Pulmonary form of anthrax is known as: 23. Majority of H. influenza infection are
Woolsorter’s Disease caused by capsular serotype: b

7. Eaton’s Agent is another name of what genus: 24. Which of the ff cause Lyme Disease:
Mycoplasma pneumonia Borrelia burgdorferi

8. Organism loss of ability to synthesize 25. Using Loeffler’s methylene blue, it


peptidoglycan cell wall: L-form shows various letter shapes and metachromatic
granules, it is most likely: Corynebacterium sp.
9. Freis Test is for: Lymphogranuloma
venereum 26. Which Clostridium sp. Can cause
pseudomembranous colitis: C. difficile
10. Method of typing Klebsiella is use in
clinical lab: K antigen 27. Antimicrobial susceptibility test for
anaerobes: Microtube broth dilution
11. Susceptible in ethylhydrocupreine HCl
is test for: Streptococcus pneumoniae 28. Mycobacterium that can grown in
MacConkey Agar: M. chelonae-fortuitum
12. Species that is soluble to Na- complex
Desoxycholate: Streptococcus pneumonia
29. Bacitracin test is susceptible which
13. Positive to gelatin reaction: Serratia group of streptococcus: Group A
liquefaciens
30. Mycobacterial catalase test differs from
14. Positive to malonate reaction: catalase test from S. aureus as it uses the
Enterobacter aerogenes reagent: 30% H2O2

15. Species that have buff(light brown) 31. Which of the ff is best rapid non cultural
colony: Flavobacterium meningosepticum test for G. vaginalis with vaginosis: 10% KOH

16. Strains of Mycoplasma that produce 32. Sulfone-Dapsone Test used to treat:
small colonies required urea and cholesterol for Leprosy
growth: T-strain
33. Concentration of Ca and Mg in
17. Selective medium in recovery of Vibrio susceptibility medium is significant when testing
cholera from stool: TCBS and alkaline
peptone water
the susceptibility of P. aeruginosa to: 50. Fungi where mycelium lacks septaceous
Gentamicin portion is: Coccidiodes, Trichophyton, Phizopus,
Candida sp.
34. Which antibiotic has cell wall inhibition:
Vancomycin 51. Fungi of dermataceous can be obtain
from skin by what method: scrap tissue from
35. Which antibiotic act inhibit protein the infected area
synthesis: Gentamicin
52. Germ tube test +: Candida albicans
36. Heat shocking of an original culture
may be needed for the recovery of : Anaerobic 53. Fungi grows into 2 different forms:
sporeforming G(+) bacilli Dimorphic fungi

37. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is: either 54. All genera are dermatophytes except:
toxigenic or non-toxigenic Sporothrix

38. Listeria monocytogenes is: catalase 55. Presence of encapsulated fungi in CSF:
+, motile, VP +, don’t produce acid from Cryptococcus neoformans
mannitol
56. Common is Gardeners or Rose Fever:
39. Confirmation of diagnosis of diphtheria, Sporothrix
it is essential to: demonstrate toxin
production 57. Tissue phase of Paracoccidiodes
braziliense is: yeast cell with multipolar
40. Pasteurization is process of in which: budding around the periphery
total bacterial count is lowered by heating
at 62 degree Celsius for 30 mins. 58. Chickenpox: Varicella Zoster virus

41. Paper strip for H2S producer is 59. Human herpes Type6: Roseola
impregnated with: Lead acetate
60. When should pregnant women concern
42. Flagellar staining technique: Leifson in Rubella infection: 1st trimester

43. Porphyrin test is for identification of: 61. Steps involved in replication of virus
Haemophilus sp. except: Mitosis

44. Selective Enrichment broth: Selenite 62. Kopliks spot: Measles


broth
63. Quellung Reaction: Capsule
45. Positive result of Arylsulfatase: Red
64. In bacterial growth, growth ceases,
46. Infectious jaundice is one symptoms of while toxic products accumulated in: stationary
Weil Disease : leptospirosis phase

47. Infectious body of Chlamydia: 65. Which of the ff Quality control for dry
Elementary body heat oven: B. subtilis v. niger

48. Which of the ff grow in artificial 66. Iodophores compose of iodine and:
medium: Rickettsia typhi, Chlamydia detergents
trachomata, R. rickettsii, Rochalimaea Quintana
67. Ordinary NH4disinfectants are easily
49. Chlamydospore structures seen in: inactivated by: organic material
Coccidiodes, Mucor, Microspores, Candida
albicans 68. Which of the ff is not G(-):
Peptococcus, Salmonella, Branhamella,
Aeromonas
69. Which of the ff is not anaerobe: Parainfluenza, human papilloma virus, respiratory
Veilonella, Fusobacterium, actinomyces, syncitial virus
Campylobacter
84. Among this bacteria, which is least
70. Most abundant normal flora in throat biochemically reactive of Enterobacteriacea:
cultures: Alpha hemolytic Streptococcus Shigella

71. Most common pathogen in throat 85. ff specimen accepted for anaerobic:
cultures: Group A streptococcus gastric washings, midstream urine, stool,
aspiration biopsy
72. Staphylococcal protein A coated with
Antiserum is used which of ff sero test in CSF: 86. each of the ff antibiotic is use to isolate
Coagglutination pathologic fungi from contaminants: penicillin-
streptomycin, vancomycin-nystatin,
73. Using sheep blood agar, it eliminates cycloheximide-chloramphenicol, nystatin-
beta hemolytic: Hemophilus streptomycin

74. UTI in old women: Staph. 87. quality control in monitor reagent in
Saprophyticus antibiotic disk is: container first open, once a
week, once a month
75. Differentiate of Thayer martin medium
and Modified Thayer: Nystatin 88. gram (–) anaerococcus seen as red
fluorescence under UV light: veilonella, neisseria,
76. Propionibacteria is: Aerobes gram + fusobacterium, peptococcus
rods
89. tubular cells of human kidney shed this
77. Viruses contain: either DNA or RNA virus: EBV, CMV, adenovirus, rubella

78. German measles: Rubeola 90. intracellular inclusion of epithelial cells


of urine of infants w/ symptoms jaundice,
79. The ff specimen is acceptable for neurologic defects, low birth rate: EBV infection,
microbiology culture: with swab and specimen CMV infection, Variola virus, Rubella virus
with catheter
91. HBV and HIV are similar in: nucleic acid
80. Grape-like microconidia: composition, mode of transmission, cross-reacting
Trichophyton mentagrophytes ag, req’d of reverse transcriptase

81. Media for pigment development for T. 92. Scalp infection in children are from this
rubrum: Cornmeal agar epidemic ringworm: trichophyton, dermaphitus,
microsporum gypseum, microsporum aldonei
82. Transport medium for Neisseria
gonorrhea 93. Concentration methods for AFBS:
digestion of bleach, centrifugation, digestive of
83. Most important cause of respiratory mucus alkali, AOTA
viral infection in children: Influenza,
94. + toxic subs for niacin test: Cyanogen
bromide