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by
Keerti Vardhan Madahar
(keerti1vardhan@gmail.com)
Panjab University, Chandigarh
q2
q1
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Notice that for any rational number q the set is precisely the
set of all rational numbers and , for an irrational number r, is the set
of irrational numbers which are at a rational distance from r. Let O = (a, b)
be a base element of the usual topology for and let x be a real number in
the complement of O then there is a real number y in O which is at a
rational distance from x. It follows because we can choose a rational number
q such that x (a+q, b+q) then y = x - q (a, b) is at a rational distance
from x. This implies that the set is equal to for every base
element O . This further implies that is open in for every base
element O, so is an open map.
Since every open subset of contains infinitely many rational
numbers so for any two distinct points x and y of the open
neighbourhoods Nx and Ny, of x and y respectively, must contain the
equivalence class of the set of rational numbers i.e. their intersection is
always non empty. So is a non-Hausdorff space.
Let [U] = U + = { [r] : r U is an irrational number} be a proper
subset of then will be a proper subset of the set of irrational
numbers. Certainly it is not an open subset of because every open subset
of contains rational numbers also. Moreover even if [U] contains the
equivalence class of the rational numbers then also the set = {a
proper subset of irrational numbers} is not an open set of because it is not
a union of open intervals. Notice that the set will be open in
when [U] = . Hence by definition of the quotient topology there is only
one non empty open set in , which is itself. This shows that the
quotient space has indiscrete topology.