BSNL TTA Exam Pattern

BSNL recently published the advertisement regarding the recruitment of Telecom Technical Assistant. This is job of great responsibility.
BSNL TTA Exam Pattern : In order to clear the exam, you must know the exam pattern so that you can prepare accordingly. The selection
procedure is based on written test. Those who qualifies this will have to undergo medical test to be appointed. There are 3 papers in written
exam which are as follows :

1. Paper I : This is the General Ability Test. The test will be of 100 marks. The candidates have to attempt it in 2 hrs.
2. Paper II : The questions will be on Basic Engineering. The whole paper will be of 500 marks which has to be solved in 3 hrs.
3. Paper III : This is Specialization paper carrying 500 marks. So the time allotted will be 3 hrs.BSNL alsorecruits junior Accounts
Officer. you can look for the notification if interested.

Syllabus for BSNL TTA Exam

Part I:

General ability test (20 Marks)

The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested thorough simple exercises such as
provision of antonyms and synonyms, fill in the blanks and multiple choice exercise etc. This shall also include questions
on current events & General knowledge and such matters of everyday observation and experience as may be expected of
Diploma holder.

Part II:

Basic Engineering (90 Marks)

Applied Mathematics:

* Co-ordinate Geometry
* Vector Algebra
* Matrix and Determinates
* Deferential Calculus
* Integral Calculus
* Differential equation of second order
* Fourier Series
* Laplace Transform
* Complex Number
* Partial Differentiation.

Applied Physics:

* Measurement-Units and Dimensions

* Waves
* Acoustics
* Ultrasonic
* Light
* Laser and its applications
* Atomic Structure and Energy Levels
Basic Electricity:

* Electrostatics
* Coulomb’s law
* Electric field
* Gauss’s theorem
* Concept of potential differences
* Concept of capacitance an capacitors
* Ohm’s law
* Power and energy
* Kirchoffs voltage
* current laws and their applications in simple DC circuits
* Basic Magnetism
* Electro Magnetism
* Electromagnetic induction
* Concept of alternating voltage & current Cells and Batteries
* Voltage and Current Sources
* Thevenin’s theorem, Norton’s theorem and their applications.

Electronics Devices and Circuits:

* Classification of materials into conductor, Semi conductor insulator etc.

* Electrical properties
* Magnetic materials
* Various types of relays
* Switches and connectors conventional representation of electric and electronic circuit elements.
* Active and passive components semi conductor Physics
* Semiconductor Diode
* Bipolar Transistor & Their circuits
* Transistor Biasing and Stabilization of operating point
* Single stage transistor amplifier field effect transistor
* Mosfet circuits applications
* Multistage Transistor Amplifier
* Transfer Audio power Amplifiers
* Feedback in Amplifier
* Sinusoidal Oscillators
* Tuned Voltage Amplifiers
* Opto electronics Devices and their applications
* Operational amplifier
* Wave shaping and Switching circuits.
* Block diagram of I.C. timer (such as 555) and its working.
* Motivation Circuit
* Time base circuits
* Thyristory and UJT Regulated power supply.

Digital Techniques:

* Applications and advantages of digital systems

* Number system (binary and hexadecimal)
* Logic Gates
* Logic Simplification
* Codes and Parity
* Arithmetic Circuits Decoders
 * Display Devices and Associated Circuits
* Multiplexers and De-multiplexers
* Latches and Flip Flops
* Counters
* Shift Register
* Memories
* A/D and D/A converters.

Part III:

Specialization (90 Marks)

1 . Electrical:

* 3 Phase VS
* Single-phase supply
* Star Delta connections
* Relation between phase & line voltage power factor and their measurements
* Construction and principles of working of various types of electrical measuring instruments. All types of motor and
generator AC & DC transformers
* starters
* rectifiers
* inverters battery charges
* batteries
* servo and stepper motors
* contactor control circuits
* switchgear
* relays
* protection devices and schemes
* substation
* protective relaying
* circuit breaker
* generator protection transformer protection feeder and lightening protection
* feeder & bus bar protection
* lightening arrestor
* earthing
* voltage stabilizer & regulators
* power control devices & circuits
* phase controlled rectifiers
* inverters
* choppers dual converters
* cycloconverters
* power electronics application in control of drivers
* refrigeration & air-conditioning.

2. Communication:

* Modulation and demodulation - Principles and operation of various types of AM

* FM and PM modulators/demodulators. Pulse modulation TDM, PAM, PPM, PWM, Multiplexing.
* Principles and applications of PCM.
* Introduction of Basic block diagram of digital and data communication systems
* Coding error detection and correction techniques
* Digital Modulation Techniques - ASK, IGW, FSK, PSK
 * Characteristics/ working of data transmission circuits
* UART, USART
* Modem
* Protocols an their functions
* Brief idea of ISDN interfaces
* Local Area Network
* Carrier Telephony - Features of carrier telephone system.
* Microwave Engineering
* Microwave Devices
* Wave guides
* Microwave Components
* Microwave Antennas
* Microwave Communication Systems - Block diagram & Working principles of microwave communication link.

3. Network Filters and Transmission Lines:

* Two port network

* Attenuations
* Filters
* Transmission Lines and their applications
* Characteristic impedance of Line
* Concept of reflection and standing waves on a transmission lines
* Transmission line equation
* Principle of Impedance matching Bandwidth consideration of a transmission line.

4. Instruments and Measurements:

* Specifications of instruments-accuracy
* Precision
* Sensitivity
* Resolution range
* Errors in measurement and loading effect
* Principles of voltage current and resistance measurements
* Transducers
* measurement of displacement & strain
* forces & torque measuring devices
* pressure measuring devices
* flow measuring devices
* power control devices & circuits.
* Types of AC mili voltmeters.
* Amplifier rectifier and rectifier amplifier. Block diagram explanation of a basic CRO and a triggered sweep oscilloscope
* Front panel controls
* Impedance Bridges and Q - Meters.
* Principles of working and specifications of logic probes. Signature analyzer and logic analyzer
* signal generator
* distortion factor meter
* spectrum analyzer.

5. Control Systems:

* Basic elements of control system

* open and closed loop system
* concept of feedback. Block diagram of control system
 * Time lag
* Hysterisis
* Linearity concepts
* self - regulating and non - self regulating control systems
* Transfer function of simple control components
* Single feedback configuration
* Time response of system
* Stability Analysis-Characteristic equation
* Routh’s table Nyquist criterion
* Relative stability
* Phase margin and gain margin
* Routh Hurwitz criterion
* Root locus technique Bode plot
* Power plot
* Gain Margin and phase margin.

6. Microprocessors:

* Typical organization of a microcomputer system & functions of its various blocks

* Architecture of a Microprocessor
* Memories and I/O Interfacing
* Brief idea of M/C & assembly language
* Machines & Mnemonic codes
* Instruction format and Addressing mode
* concept of Instruction set
* programming exercises in assembly language
* concept of interrupt
* Data transfer techniques - sync data transfer, interrupt driven data transfer
* DMA
* serial output data
* serial input data .

7. Computers:

* Computer and its working

* Types of computers
* Familiarization with DOS and Window concept of file directory
* Number system
* Data representation
* Programming Elements of a high level programming language
* PASCAL C: Use of basic data structures
* Fundamentals of computer architecture
* Processor design control unit design
* Memory organization
* I/O system Organization
* Microprocessors-microprocessor architectures
* Instruction set and simple assembly level programming
* Microprocessor based system design typical examples
* Personal computers and their typical uses
* Data Communication Principles
* Types and working principles of modems
* Network principles
* OSI model
 * Functions of data link layer and network layer
* Networking components communication protocols as X-25, TCP /IP.
* Database Management System-basic concepts entity relationship model relational model DBMS based on relational
model.

Read more: http://discuss.itacumens.com/index.php/topic,43810.0.html#ixzz1DTV1w7J9

BSNL TTA Question Paper: Network Filters and Transmission Lines

Exam Name: TTA (Telecom Technical Assistant)
Specialization: Section C - Network Filters and Transmission Lines
Conducted By: BSNL (Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited)
Conducted In: December 2007
Number of Questions: 50
Maximum Marks: 250
Time Allowed: 90 Minutes
Negative Marking: Yes
Type of Questions: Objective Type (Multiple Choice)
Section (Network Filters and Transmission Lines)
1. Pick up wrong statement
(a) A group of interconnected individual components known as circuit elements is called a network.
(b) A humped network is an arrangement of physically separate resistors, inductors and capacitors.
(c) Distributed network is one, which the resistive, inductive and capacitive effects are inseparable for network analyses.
(d) A branch is a network having four elements.

2. Kirchoff’s laws for networks are:

(a) The algebraic sum of branch currents meeting at any node is zero.
(b) The algebric sum of voltage drops in any set of branches forming a closed circuit or loop must be equal to zero.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) and (b)

3. Mutually coupled circuit is a circuit which is:

(a) Bilateral
(b) Unilateral
(c) None of these
(d) Either (a) or (b)

4. Duality is a
(a) Transformation in which current and voltages are interchanged
(b) Active sources become passive sources
(c) Passive sources become active sources
(d) Both (b) and (c)

5. Combined inductance of two inductors L1 and L2 connected and voltages are interchanged
(a) L1 + L2
(b) (L1 + L2)/ L1
(c) (L1 + L2) / (L1 X L2)
(d) (L1 X L2) / (L1 + L2)

6. Normal analysis techniques are based on

(a) Thevenin’s theorem
(b) Tellegan’s theorem
(c) Superposition theorem
(d) Kirchoff’s Law

7. Two voltage sources can be connected in parallel when they are equal in
(a) Magnitude
(b) Frequency
(c) Phase
(d) All the above

8. The kirchoff’s law fail in

(a) Linear circuits
(b) Non-linear circuits
(c) Lumped parameter circuits
(d) Distributed parameter circuits

9. Which of the following is a nonreciprocal network ?

(a) A network consisting of all resistances
(b) A network consisting of all capacitances
(c) A network consisting of all inductances
(d) A transistor model

10. When two systems obey equations of the same form the systems are said to be
(a) Similar system
(b) Identical system
(c) Analogous system
(d) Digital system

11. For a highly selective circuit

(a) It must have large value of Q
(b) It must have high value of capacitance to produce resonance at fixed frequency
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

12. A network consisting of four terminals is called a

(a) One port network
(b) Two port network
(c) Four port network
(d) None of the above

13. Driving point of a network is

(a) A port where voltage or current source is connected
(b) A terminal where load is connected
(c) A port where load is connected
(d) None of the above

14. Ceramic filters are similar in construction to

(a) Crystal filters
(b) Crystal ladder filters
(c) Crystal lattice
(d) Mechanical filters

15. When two port networks are connected in parallel the resultant
(a) Z parameters are the some of individual parameters
(b) Y- parameters are the some of individual parameters
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

16. Electric wave filters

(a) Allow electric signals with specified frequency range
(b) Suppress signals outside a specified range
(c) Both (a) and (b) occurs simultaneously
(d) Either (a) or (b) occur at a time

17. A cascade connection of low pass filter and high pass filter is called
(a) Band pass filter
(b) Band elimination filter
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

18. The response of a network is decided by the location of

(a) Its poles
(b) Its zeros
(c) Either (a) nor (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

19. Example of two port network is

(a) Transformer
(b) Transmission line
(c) Bridge circuit and transistor circuit
(d) All of the above

20. The circuit whose properties are same in either direction is called
(a) Universal circuit
(b) Reversible circuit
(c) Unilateral circuit
(d) Bilateral circuit

21. Distortion in transmission line is due to

(a) Delay distortion
(b) Phase distortion
(c) Frequency distortion
(d) All the above

22. The general parameters distributed along a transmission line are

(a) R&L only
(b) L&C only
(c) C&G only
(d) R, L, C&G

23. Phase distortion is prominently caused by

(a) circuit transients
(b) non linear characteristics
(c) linearity
(d) none

24. The voltage or current from the receiving end towards the sending end, decreasing in amplitude with increasing
distance from the load is called
(a) incident wave
(b) medium wave
(c) reflected wave
(d) none of above

25. E.M. Waves of UHF is propagated efficiently via

(a) parallel wire transmission lines
(b) open wire transmission lines
(c) wave guides
(d) coaxial cables

26. Norton theorem is valid for network containing only

(a) linear elements
(b) no linear elements
(c) resistance
(d) reactance
27. The maximum power is absorbed by one network from other, joined to it at two terminals when the impedance of one
is
(a) complex conjugate of other
(b) square root of other
(c) same as other
(d) none of above

28. The decrease in effective conductor cross section at high frequencies

(a) decrease the conductor resistance
(b) increase the conductor resistance
(c) no change in conductor resistance
(d) none of above

29. Voltage standing wave ratio lies in the range

(a) 0 to 1
(b) 1 to infinity
(c) 0 to infinity
(d) -1 to +1

30. Attenuators have applications

(a) in AC circuits only
(b) in DC circuits only
(c) in AC as well DC circuits
(d) in low frequency circuits only

31. In an network
(a) the number of tree branches is equal to the number of links
(b) the number of tree branches cannot be equal to the number of links
(c) the number of tree branches has no relation with the number of links branches
(d) none of these

32. In open line transmission systems, attenuation is more at

(a) lower frequencies
(b) medium frequencies
(c) higher frequencies
(d) remains constant

33. a power ratio 100 is equivalent to

(a) 10 dB
(b) 20 dB
(c) 50 dB
(d) 100 dB

34. The velocity factor for small widely spaced conductors such as open wire line in air is very nearly
(a) 0.66
(b) 0.98
(c) 0.82
(d) 0.76

35. Transmission of power to a load over a transmission line achieves optimum value when standing wave ratio (SWR)
becomes
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 10

36. The VSWR in a short circuited loss less transmission line equals
(a) infinity
(b) unity
(c) zero
(d) none of above

37. The velocity factor of a transmission line

(a) is always greater than unity
(b) depend upon the permittivity of the surrounding medium
(c) is lease for air medium
(d) is governed by skin effect

38. Which of the following is not correct

(a) voltage source is an active element
(b) current source is a passive element
(c) resistance is a passive element
(d) conductance is a passive element

39. A network is said to be nonlinear if it does not satisfy

(a) superposition condition
(b) homogeneity condition
(c) both superposition and homogeneity conditions
(d) associative condition

40. An capacitor with zero initial condition at t = 0+ act as a

(a) short circuit
(b) open circuit
(c) current source
(d) voltage source

41. An inductor stores energy in

(a) electrostatic field
(b) electromagnetic field
(c) magnetic field
(d) core

42. In series LCR circuits, at resonance,

(a) current is maximum, power factor is zero
(b) current is maximum, power factor is unity
(c) current is minimum, power factor is unity
(d) none of above

43. In an RCL series circuit, during resonance, the impedance will be

(a) zero
(b) minimum
(c) maximum
(d) none of above

44. When a source is delivering maximum power to load, the efficiency of the circuit is always
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 100%
(d) None of above

45. In a linear network, when the ac input is doubled, the ac output becomes
(a) two times
(b) four times
(c) half
(d) one forth

46. A passive network has

(a) current sources but no voltage sources
(b) voltage sources but no current sources
(c) both current and voltage sources
(d) no voltage or current sources

47. Two resistances are connected in parallel and each dissipates 50 waits. The total power supplied by the source is
(a) 25 watts
(b) 50 watts
(c) 100 watts
(d) 200 watts

48. Three bulbs of 60 watts each are connected is parallel across 220v, 50 Hz supply. If one bulb burns out
(a) only remaining two will operate
(b) remaining two will not operate
(c) all of three will operate
(d) there will be heavy current from the supply

49. The amplitude of an audio signal is 10 and that of carrier wave is 50. Percentage modulation is:
(a) 0.2
(b) 20
(c) 5
(d) 60

50. The main advantage of PCM system is:

(a) lower bandwidth
(b) lower power
(c) lower noise

Detailed Syllabus for TTA (Telecom Technical Assistant) Exam

Buzz up!3 votes
Time Duration: 3 Hours
Number of Question: 200
Maximum Marks: 200
The written test is divided into three parts. The Part I is to test General Knowledge of the candidate. The Second Part will evaluate basic
engineering skills, which is common for all streams. The part III is Specialization test which checks how well verse is the candidate with his
area of knowledge.
Details of the topics is given below:
Part I: General ability test (20 Marks)
The candidate's comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested thorough simple exercises such as provision
of antonyms and synonyms, fill in the blanks and multiple choice exercise etc. This shall also include questions on current events &
General knowledgeand such matters of everyday observation and experience as may be expected of Diploma holder.
Part II: Basic Engineering (90 Marks)
Applied Mathematics:

• Co-ordinate Geometry

• Vector Algebra

• Matrix and Determinates

• Deferential Calculus

• Integral Calculus

• Differential equation of second order

• Fourier Series

• Laplace Transform

• Complex Number
 • Partial Differentiation.

Applied Physics:

• Measurement-Units and Dimensions

• Waves

• Acoustics

• Ultrasonic

• Light

• Laser and its applications

• Atomic Structure and Energy Levels

Basic Electricity:

• Electrostatics

• Coulomb's law

• Electric field

• Gauss's theorem

• Concept of potential differences

• Concept of capacitance an capacitors

• Ohm's law

• Power and energy

• Kirchoffs voltage

• current laws and their applications in simple DC circuits

• Basic Magnetism

• Electro Magnetism

• Electromagnetic induction

• Concept of alternating voltage & current Cells and Batteries

• Voltage and Current Sources

• Thevenin's theorem, Norton's theorem and their applications.

Electronics Devices and Circuits:

• Classification of materials into conductor, Semi conductor insulator etc.

• Electrical properties

• Magnetic materials

• Various types of relays

• Switches and connectors conventional representation of electric and electronic circuit elements.

• Active and passive components semi conductor Physics

• Semiconductor Diode

• Bipolar Transistor & Their circuits

 • Transistor Biasing and Stabilization of operating point

• Single stage transistor amplifier field effect transistor

• Mosfet circuits applications

• Multistage Transistor Amplifier

• Transfer Audio power Amplifiers

• Feedback in Amplifier

• Sinusoidal Oscillators

• Tuned Voltage Amplifiers

• Opto electronics Devices and their applications

• Operational amplifier

• Wave shaping and Switching circuits.

• Block diagram of I.C. timer (such as 555) and its working.

• Motivation Circuit

• Time base circuits

• Thyristory and UJT Regulated power supply.

Digital Techniques:

• Applications and advantages of digital systems

• Number system (binary and hexadecimal)

• Logic Gates

• Logic Simplification

• Codes and Parity

• Arithmetic Circuits Decoders

• Display Devices and Associated Circuits

• Multiplexers and De-multiplexers

• Latches and Flip Flops

• Counters

• Shift Register

• Memories

• A/D and D/A converters.

Part III: Specialization (90 Marks)

1 . Electrical:

• 3 Phase VS

• Single-phase supply

• Star Delta connections

 • Relation between phase & line voltage power factor and their measurements

• Construction and principles of working of various types of electrical measuring instruments. All types of motor and generator AC
& DC transformers

• starters

• rectifiers

• inverters battery charges

• batteries

• servo and stepper motors

• contactor control circuits

• switchgear

• relays

• protection devices and schemes

• substation

• protective relaying

• circuit breaker

• generator protection transformer protection feeder and lightening protection

• feeder & bus bar protection

• lightening arrestor

• earthing

• voltage stabilizer & regulators

• power control devices & circuits

• phase controlled rectifiers

• inverters

• choppers dual converters

• cycloconverters

• power electronics application in control of drivers

• refrigeration & air-conditioning.

2. Communication:

• Modulation and demodulation - Principles and operation of various types of AM

• FM and PM modulators/demodulators. Pulse modulation TDM, PAM, PPM, PWM, Multiplexing.

• Principles and applications of PCM.

• Introduction of Basic block diagram of digital and data communication systems

• Coding error detection and correction techniques

• Digital Modulation Techniques - ASK, IGW, FSK, PSK

 • Characteristics/ working of data transmission circuits

• UART, USART

• Modem

• Protocols an their functions

• Brief idea of ISDN interfaces

• Local Area Network

• Carrier Telephony - Features of carrier telephone system.

• Microwave Engineering

• Microwave Devices

• Wave guides

• Microwave Components

• Microwave Antennas

• Microwave Communication Systems - Block diagram & Working principles of microwave communication link.

3. Network Filters and Transmission Lines:

• Two port network

• Attenuations

• Filters

• Transmission Lines and their applications

• Characteristic impedance of Line

• Concept of reflection and standing waves on a transmission lines

• Transmission line equation

• Principle of Impedance matching Bandwidth consideration of a transmission line.

4. Instruments and Measurements:

• Specifications of instruments-accuracy

• Precision

• Sensitivity

• Resolution range

• Errors in measurement and loading effect

• Principles of voltage current and resistance measurements

• Transducers

• measurement of displacement & strain

• forces & torque measuring devices

• pressure measuring devices

• flow measuring devices

 • power control devices & circuits.

• Types of AC mili voltmeters.

• Amplifier rectifier and rectifier amplifier. Block diagram explanation of a basic CRO and a triggered sweep oscilloscope

• Front panel controls

• Impedance Bridges and Q - Meters.

• Principles of working and specifications of logic probes. Signature analyzer and logic analyzer

• signal generator

• distortion factor meter

• spectrum analyzer.

5. Control Systems:

• Basic elements of control system

• open and closed loop system

• concept of feedback. Block diagram of control system

• Time lag

• Hysterisis

• Linearity concepts

• self - regulating and non - self regulating control systems

• Transfer function of simple control components

• Single feedback configuration

• Time response of system

• Stability Analysis-Characteristic equation

• Routh's table Nyquist criterion

• Relative stability

• Phase margin and gain margin

• Routh Hurwitz criterion

• Root locus technique Bode plot

• Power plot

• Gain Margin and phase margin.

6. Microprocessors:

• Typical organization of a microcomputer system & functions of its various blocks

• Architecture of a Microprocessor

• Memories and I/O Interfacing

• Brief idea of M/C & assembly language

• Machines & Mnemonic codes

 • Instruction format and Addressing mode

• concept of Instruction set

• programming exercises in assembly language

• concept of interrupt

• Data transfer techniques - sync data transfer, interrupt driven data transfer

• DMA

• serial output data

• serial input data .

7. Computers:

• Computer and its working

• Types of computers

• Familiarization with DOS and Window concept of file directory

• Number system

• Data representation

• Programming Elements of a high level programming language

• PASCAL C: Use of basic data structures

• Fundamentals of computer architecture

• Processor design control unit design

• Memory organization

• I/O system Organization

• Microprocessors-microprocessor architectures

• Instruction set and simple assembly level programming

• Microprocessor based system design typical examples

• Personal computers and their typical uses

• Data Communication Principles

• Types and working principles of modems

• Network principles

• OSI model

• Functions of data link layer and network layer

• Networking components communication protocols as X-25, TCP /IP.

• Database Management System-basic concepts entity relationship model relational model DBMS based on relational model.

Sample Question Paper - BSNL TTA Exam

Paper - II (Basic Engineering) BSNL TTA Exam
1. X2 - 4X - 2Y + Y2 = 4 represents a circle with
(a) radius = 3
(b) radius = 4
(c) radius = 2
(d) radius = 5
2. Which of these represent two parallel lines:
(a) Y - 4X - 4 = 0
(b) Y + AX - 4 = 0
(c) Y - 4X - 1 =0
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) None of these.
3. The conjugate of complex numbers 3 + 2j is
(a) 3 - 2j
(b) 2 + 3j
(c) 2 - 3j
(d) 3 + 4j
4. A Square matrix each of whose diagonal element is 1 and each of the non-diagonal element is zero is called
(a) Null matrix
(b) Unit matrix
(c) Diagonal matrix
(d) Orthogonal matrix
5. The determinant of matrix <image> is
(a) 1
(b) 9
(c) 15
(d) 21
6. The charge of an electron is equal to
(a) 1.6 x 10-16 C
(b) -1.6 x 10-16 C
(c) 1.6 x 1019 C
(d) -1.6 x 1019 C
7. The potential energy of a charged conductor is
(a) 1/2 CV2
(b) 1/2 QV
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
8. Capacitors are mainly used in
(a) Electrical instruments
(b) Storage of electrical energy
(c) Overcoming voltage fluctuations
(d) All the above
9. Two capacities of 4 µF and 12 µF are joined in parallel. The total capacitance is
(a) 8 µF
(b) 16 µF
(c) 3 µF
(f) 2 µF
10. What is the total resistance between points 'A' and 'B' in the given circuit
<image>
(a) 12/7 O
(b) 15 O
(c) 7 O
(d) 7/12 O
11. A current of 12 A is passing through a pure resistive circuit when the potential difference of 60 volts is applied across it, if the potential
difference applied is reduced to 12 V, the current would be
(a) 12/5 A
(b) 60 A
(c) 12 A
(d) 2 A
12. Which of these normally used household electrical bulbs will be having maximum resistance.
(a) 100 Watt bulb
(b) 50 Watt bulb
(c) 200 Watt bulb
(d) 25 Watt bulb
13.The distance of point P (4, 3) from the origin will be
(a) 7
(b) 1
(c) 5
(d) 9
14. The slope of the line passing from points (7, 3) and (5, 1) is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
15. A line perpendicular to line 3x + 4y + 5 = 0 can be
(a) 4x + 3y + 4 = 0
(b) 4x - 3y + 3 = 0
(c) 3x - 4y + 5 = 0
(d) 3x - 4y + 2 = 0.
16. The centre of the circle x2 + 6x - 4y + y2 + 12 = 0 will be at
(a) (-3, 2)
(b) (3, -2)
(c) (-2, 3)
(d) (2, -3)
17. The product of (3 + 4j) and its conjugate is
(a) 7
(b) 25
(c) 12
(d) 21
18. During charging of a lead acid cell, the specific gravity of electrolyte will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain constant
(d) Increase then Decrease
19. The decimal number '12' is represented in binary system as
(a) 1100
(b) 0110
(c) 1010
(d) 1110
20. What is the value of current that will flow when a p. d. 200 V is applied across a circuit of 50 O resistance?
(a) 4 A
(b) 0.4 A
(c) 10 A
(d) 1 A
21. If both the inputs to a Nand Gate are '1', the output would be
(a) 1
(b) 0
22. If input 'A' is 1 and input 'B' is 0, then output X will be
<image>
(a) 0
(b) 1
23. The truth-table of a Nand Gate is
(a)

A B X
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
(b)

A B X
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
(c)

A B X
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 0
1 1 1
(d) None of these
24. IC chip is usually made of
(a) Lead
(b) Silicon
(c) Chromium.
(d) None of these.
25. Below given network is connected to a 16 V battery with internal resistance of 1 O. What will be current drawn from the battery?
<image>
(a) 2 A
(b) 3 A
(c) 12/7 A
(d) 7/12 A
26.Determine the equivalent resistance of the following network:
<image>
(a) 6 O
(b) 12 O
(c) 3 O
(d) 9 O.
27. A Zener diode is
(a) Forward biased heavily doped silicon p-n junction
(b) Reversed biased heavily doped silicon p-n junction
(c) Forward biased diode operating at breakdown point
(d) Is used as rectifying device
28. Crystal oscillator is used when frequency required is
(a) High
(b) Low
(c) Constant
(d) Varying.
29. What is the energy in a quantum of radiation having a wave length of 5000 A?
(a) 3.98 x 10-19 J
(b) 3.98 x 10-9 J
(c) 2.9 x 10-19 J
(d) 7.9 x 10-19 J.
30. Which of these cannot store energy?
(a) Capacitor
(b) Inductor
(c) Resistance
(d) LC circuit.
31. A short bar of magnet placed with its axis at 300 with a uniform external magnetic field of 0.16 T experiences a torque of magnitude
0.032 J. What is the magnetic moment of the magnet?
(a) 0.40 JT-1
(b) 4.0 JT-1
(c) 0.04 JT-1
(d) 0.2 JT-1
32. The total force on a charge 'q' with velocity "V" in an electric field 'E' and magnetic field 'B' will be
(a) q (E + V x B)
(b) q(E + V.B)
(c) qE + VxB
(d) q(B + V x E)
33. The magnetic field B at the centre of a circular current loop of radius 'a' is given by
(a) B =µ0 I/2a
(b) B = µ0 I/a
(c) B = 2µ0 I/a
(d)B = µ0 a/2I
34. If f = x2 + 4xy + y2 + 9, then which of the following is not true:
(a) ?f/?x = 2x + 4y
(b) ?f/?y = 4x + 2y
(c) ?2f/?x2 = 2
(d) ?2f/?x?y = 4
35. A hollow metal ball 8 cm in diameter is given a charge of - 4 x 10-8 C. The potential on the surface of the ball is
(a) - 9000 V
(b) - 900 V
(c) - 90 V
(d) Zero.
36. The effective capacitance between X and Y is
<image>
(a) 8/3 µF
(b) 7/6 µF
(c) 5/6 µF
(d) 2 µF.
37. The amount of work done is joules in carrying a charge + Q alongwith path ABCD and back to A between two oppositely charged plates
is:
<image>
(a) Q
(b) 4Q
(c)Q/2
(d) Zero.
38. How many electrons are contained in 1C?
(a) 6.25 x 1018
(b) 6.25 x 1019
(c) 6.25 x 1020
(d) 6.25 x 1021
39. The phase angle between voltage and current in an a. c. circuit through a pure capacitance is
(a) 180°
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 0°
40. The permeability of a material is 0.998. It is:
(a) Diamagnetic
(b) Paramagnetic
(c) Ferromagnetic
(d) Anti ferromagnetic.
41. The ratio of the specific charge of an electron to that of a positron is
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 2:1
(d) 4:1.
42. With increase in temperature, the electrical conductivity of intrinsic semiconductor
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) First increases then decreases
(d) First decreases then increases.
43. In a common collector circuit, input resistance is:
(a) Very high
(b) Very low
(c) Zero
(d) Moderate.
44. A electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom. If R = 107/m, the frequency of emitted radiations will be
(a) 3/16 x 105 Hz
(b) 3/16 x 1015 Hz
(c) 9/16 x 1015 Hz
(d) 3/4 x 1015 Hz.
45. I amu. equals
(a) 1.67 x 10-27 g
(b) 1.67 x 10-28 g
(c) 1.67 x 10-29 g
(d) 1.67 x 10-27 kg
46. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec both with 50 and 40 cms of a stretched wire of a sonometer. The frequency of the tuning fork is
(a) 36 Hz
(b) 50 Hz
(c) 90Hz
(d) 110 Hz
47. A particle is executing SHM with an amplitude 4 cm. At what displacement its energy is half kinetic and half potential
(a) 2v2cm
(b) v2 cm
(c) 2 cm
(d) 1 cm.
48. An electron moves with a constant velocity V parallel to the direction of uniform magnetic field 'B'. The force experienced by the electron
is
(a) BeV
(b) eV/B
(c)B/eV
(d) Zero.
49.A charged particle is moving along the axis of X. If an electric field is applied along the axis of Y, the motion of the particle in Y-Y plane
will be
(a) Elliptical
(b) Parabolic
(c) Circular
(d) Linear
50. An electric or magnetic field cannot accelerate
(a) Electrons
(b) Protons
(c) Neutrons
(d) Alpha particles

BSNL TTA Exam Papers - Computer Related Question Papers

« on: December 22, 2008, 11:03:30 AM »
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BSNL TTA Exam Papers - Computer Related Question Papers

1. What is the name of the software that allows us to browse through web pages?

(a) Browser

(b) Mail Client

(c) FTP Client

(d) Messenger

2. What is the address given to a network called?

(a) System Address

(b) SYSID

(c) Process ID

(d) IP Address

3. Which one of the following is a valid DOS command?

(a) LIST *.*

(b) LIST???.

(c) RECOVER A:
(d) RENAME A:SAMPLE.TXT C:TEST.DOC

4. All system settings in WINDOWS are stored in:

(a) CONTROL.INI

(b) MAIN.INI

(c) SYSTEM.INI

(d) SETTING.INI

5. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer?

(a) 2

(b) 10

(c) 16

(d) 32

6. Which of the following is not an output device:

(a) Printer

(b) Scanner

(c) Flat Screen

(d) Touch Screen

7. A microprocessor is a processor with reduced

(a) instruction set

(b) power requirement

(c) MIPS performance

(d) none of the above

8. Which of the following is not an output of an assembler?

(a) executable program

(b) source listing with line numbers and errors

(c) a symbol table

(d) object program

9. Which layer of OSI model is responsible for routing and flow control:

(a) Presentation

(b) Transport

(c) Network

(d) Data Link

10. Arrays are passed as arguments to a function by

(a) value

(b) reference

(c) both a and b

(d) none of the above

11. Array is:

(a) linear data structure

(b) non-linear structure

(c) none of the above

12. A data structure in which elements are added and removed from only one end, is known as:

(a) Array

(b) Stack

(c) Queue

(d) None of the above

13. A diamond-shaped box in an Entity-Relationship diagram refers to:

(a) Entity

(b) Relationship

(c) Attribute

14. The principle means of identifying entities within an entity set is:

(a) Primary Key

(b) Record

(c) Attribute

(d) Tuple

15. Modem refers to:

(a) Modulator

(b) Modulation
(c) Demodulator

(d) Modulator and Demodulator

16. C language is available for which of the following Operating Systems?

(a) DOS

(b) Windows

(c) Unix

(d) All of the above

17. Which of the following have the fastest access time?

(a) Magnetic Tapes

(b) Magnetic Disks

(c) Semiconductor Memories

(d) Compact Disks

18. DMA stands for:

(a) Direct Memory Allocation

(b) Distinct Memory Allocation

(c) Direct Memory Access

(d) Distinct Memory Access

19. Array subscripts in C always start at:

(a):1
(b) 0

(c) 1

(d) Value provided by user

20. Which type of commands in DOS needs additional files for their execution?

(a) Batch Commands

(b) Internal Commands

(c) External Commands

21. Which of the following statements in regard to Directories is false?

(a) Directories can exist inside directories

(b) The root directory is always at the highest level

(c) Directories with files can be deleted

(d) Directories cannot be renamed

22. It is better to buffer a table when

(a) When a table is read infrequently

(b) When a table is linked to check tables

(c) When a table is read frequently and the data seldom changes

(d) When a single record is to be picked up

23. The Operating System is responsible for:

(a) Controlling peripheral devices such as monitor, printers, disk drives

(b) Provide an interface that allows users to choose programs to run and to manipulate files

(c) Manage users’ files on disk

(d) All of the above

24. A company whishes to connect two sites in different parts of the country together. It is decided to use the telephone

system. What device should be connected to the fileservers on each site?

(a) Router

(b) Modem

(c) Switch

(d) Hub

25. What is a file server?

(a) A computer that performs a service for other computers

(b) A computer that controls the printers on the network

(c) A computer that stores files that are created by network users

26. What is the Protocol used for the Internet?

(a) IPX/SPX

(b) NetBIOS/NetBEUI

(c) CDMA/CA

(d) TCP/IP

27. Which one of the following is not a Normal Forms (Normalization) rule with regards to the Relational Model?

(a) All fields within a table must relate to or directly describe the Primary Key.
(b) Repeating Groups must be eliminated from tables.

(c) Fields that can contain non-numeric data are to be removed and placed within their own tables with an associated

Primary Key.

(d) Redundant data is to be eliminated by placing the offending fields in another table.

28. Choose the answer which best describes the term Primary Key:

(a) The Primary Key is a field that contains data that can be duplicated.

(b) The Primary Key is a field that contains data that is unique.

(c) The Primary Key is a field that is never associated with any field in other tables.

(d) The Primary Key field is a concept used only in Microsoft Access.

29. Which technique is used to reduce the size of a file:

(a) Compression

(b) Decompression

(c) Encryption

(d) Decryption

30. BIOS stands for

(a) Binary Input Output Set

(b) Binary Input Output System

(c) Basic Input Output Set

(d) Basic Input Output System

31. A floppy disk is consisting of 40 tracks, each track contains 100 sectors, and the capacity of a sector is 512 bytes,

what is the approx. size of that disk?

(a) 1 MB

(b) 2 MB

(c) 4 MB

(d) 8 MB

32. What is the binary equivalent of a decimal number 68:

(a) 1000100

(b) 1100100

(c) 1000010

(d) 1000001

33. Assembly language to machine language translation is:

(a) One-to-One

(b) One-to-Many

(c) Many-to-One

(d) Many-to-Many

34. Maximum size of IP address is:

(a) 12 bits

(b) 24 bits

(c) 32 bits
(d) 48 bits

35. RAM stands for

(a) Read Access Memory

(b) Read After Memory

(c) Random Access Memory

(d) Random After Memory

36. What is the final value of sum?

main ()

int sum=1;

for(;sum<=9;)

printf(%d\n, ++sum);

(a) 9

(b) 10

(c) 11

(d) none of the above

37. If c is a variable initialized to 1, how many times the following loop be executed:

while(c>0 && c<60)

{

c++;

(a) 59

(b) 60

(c) 61

(d) none of the above

38. The declaration void fun(int) indicates the fun is a function which:

(a) has no arguments

(b) returns nothing

(c) both a and b

(d) none of the above

39. Out of the following which is not valid network topology:

(a) Bus

(b) Star

(c) Circle

(d) Tree

40. The overall logical structure of a database can be expressed graphically by:

(a) Data Flow Diagram

(b) Flow Chart

(c) Directed Graph

(d) Entity-Relationship Diagram

41. CARRY, in a half-adder, can be obtained using:

(a) OR gate

(b) AND gate

(c) EX-OR gate

(d) EX-AND gate

42. The memory that requires refreshing of data is:

(a) SROM

(b) DROM

(c) SRAM

(d) DRAM

43. The minimum number of bits required to represent numbers in the range:28 to +31 is-

(a) 5

(b) 6

(c) 7

(d) 8

44. Which bus carries information between processors and peripherals?

(a) Data bus

(b) Control bus

(c) Address bus

(d) Information bus

45. Which part of the computer perform arithmetic calculations?

(a) Control unit

(b) Registers

(c) ALU

(d) CPU

46. A gigabyte represents:

(a) 1 billion bytes

(b) 1000 kilobytes

(c) 230 bytes

(d) 10 megabytes

47. The minimum number of bits required to store the hexadecimal number FF is:

(a) 2

(b) 4

(c) 8

(d) 16
48. Cache memory enhances:

(a) memory capacity

(b) memory access time

(c) secondary storage capacity

(d) secondary storage access time

49. A UPS:

(a) increases the storage capacity of a computer system

(b) increases the processor speed

(c) provides backup power in the event of a power cut\

(d) none of the above

50. An RDBMS is a:

(a) Remote DBMS

(b) Relative DBMS

(c) Reliable DBMS

(d) Relational DBMS

Read more: http://discuss.itacumens.com/index.php?topic=44734.0#ixzz1DTUFm9qp

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Table of Contents:
The book has the following chapters:
PAPER I
GENERAL ABILITY TEST
1. General English
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1. Applied Mathematics
2. Applied Physics
3. Basic Electricity
4. Electronic Devices and Circuits
5. Digital Techniques
PAPER III
SPECIALIZATION
1. Electrical
2. Communication
3. Network, Filters and Transmission Lines
4. Instruments and Measurements
5. Control Systems
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BSNL Telecom Technical Assistant (TTA) Recruitment Test : Sample Paper

1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -

a) It is dimensionless

b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum

c)) It?s value for all substances is less than one

d)) None

2. Pure metals generally have-

a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient

b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient

c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient

d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is
a) Air

b) Ferrite

c) Powdered ion

d) Steel

4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-

a) C a V1/3

b) C a V-1/3

c) C a V1/2

d) C a V-1/2

5. A superconductor is a-

a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

b) A conductor having zero resistance

c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility

d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of ?2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-

a) Thermistor

b) Forward biased pn junction diode

c) Reverse biased pn junction diode

d) FET

7. The location of lightning arrestor is -

a) Near the transformer

b) Near the circuit breaker

c) Away from the transformer

d) None

8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -

a) Increased

b) Decreased

c) Neither a nor b

d) Both a and b

9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -

a) Are available locally

b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from

c) Have more electrons than holes

d) Have zero energy gaps

10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -

a) Channel resistance

b) Size of depletion regions

c) Voltage drop across channel

d) Gate reverse bias

11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -

a) 1010

b) 105

c) 10-4

d) 10-6
12. When biased correctly, a zener diode ?

a) acts as a fixed resistance

b) has a constant voltage across it

c) has a constant current passing through it

d) never overheats

13. The current amplification factor adc is given by ?

a) IC/IE

b) IC/IB

c) IB/IC

d) IB/IC

14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-

a) high input impedance

b) low input impedance

c) same input impedance

d) none

15. The source-drain channel of JFET is -

a) ohmic

b) bilateral

c) unilateral

d) both a and b

16. diac is equivalent to a -

a) Pair of SCRs
b) Pair of four layer SCRs

c) Diode and two resistors

d) Triac width

17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ? 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in

this sample is 2.5 ? 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be ?

a) 106/cm3

b) 103/ cm3

c) 1010/ cm3

d) 1012/ cm3

18. The statement ‘In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused

to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf’s reduced to zero? represents -

a) Kirchhoff’s law

b) Norton’s theorem

c) Thevenin’s theorem

d) Superposition theorem

19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at

icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is ?

a) TE1 mode

b) TM01 mode

c) TE01 mode

d) Higher order mode

20. A two-port network is symmetrical if ?

a) z11z22 ? z12z21 = 1

b) h11h22 ? h12h21 = 1
c) AD ? BC = 1

d) y11y22 ? y12y21 = 1

21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-

a) balun

b) broad band directional coupler

c) double stub

d) single stub of adjustable position

22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the

origin. It can be realised -

a) by an LC network

b) as an RC driving point impedance

c) as an RC driving point admittance

d) only by an RLC network

23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements ?

a) R and C

b) L and C

c) R and L

d) R, L and C

24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to ?

a) B

b) Z12

d) h12
25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-

a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.

b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.

c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.

d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental

length, other factors remaining constant.

26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -

a) 250 ?300 MHz

b) 150 ? 200 MHz

c) 90 ? 105 MHz

d) 30-70 MHz

27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -

a) Inductive loading

b) Resistive loading

c) Capacitive loading

d) Shielding

28. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -

a) 49 W

b) 60 W

c) 70 W

d) 140 W
30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input

impedance will be ?

a) 25W

b) 50W

c) 100W

d) 150W

31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ?f? in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-

a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m

b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m

c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m

d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f

32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will

be -

a) 0.4456 0

b) 1.44560

c) 2.44560

d) 3.44560

33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -

a) Polystyrene

b) Glass of low refractive index

c) Paraboloid surfaces

d) Dielectric media having large refractive index

34. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -

a) Electrodynamometer

b) PMMC

c) Electrostatic

d) Moving iron

35. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?

a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A

b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A

c) A dc ammeter will read 10A

d) A dc ammeter will read zero

36. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -

a) power factor of the circuit is high

b) impedance of the circuit is high

c) bandwidth is large

d) none of these

37. The resolution of a logic analyser is -

a) the maximum number of input channels

b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture

c) it’s internal clock period

d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display

38. A memoryless system is ?

a) causal

b) not causal
c) nothing can be said

d) none

39. An air capacitor is a ?

a) time variant

b) active device

c) time invariant

d) time invariant and passive device

40. Thermistors are made of -

a) pure metals

b) pure insulators

c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides

d) pure semiconductor

41. Pirani gauge is used to measure ?

a) very low pressures

b) high pressures

c) pressures in the region of 1 atm

d) fluid flow

42. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion ?

a) AC voltage controllers

b) Cyclo converters

c) Phase controlled rectifiers

d) Inverters
43. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from ?

a) off state to on state

b) on state to off state

c) on state to on state

d) off state to off state

44. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -

a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage

b) peak working off state forward voltage

c) peak working off state reverse voltage

d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage

45. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-

a) is a straight line passing through origin

b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg

c) is a curve between Vg and Ig

d) has a spread between two curves of Vg ? Ig

46. A four quadrant operation requires-

a) two full converters in series

b) two full converters connected back to back

c) two full converters connected in parallel

d) two semi converters connected back to back

47. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding

values for a single phase full bridge inverter are ?

a) Vs, P
b) Vs/2, P

c) 2Vs, 2P

d) 2Vs, P

48. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has ?

a) only an ohmic region

b) only a saturation region

c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages

d)an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

49. The energy gap in a semiconductor -

a) increases with temperature

b) remains constant

c) slightly increase with temperature

d) decrease with temperature

50. In an electronic circuit matching means -

a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance

b) selection of components which are compatible

c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.

d) RC coupled stages

51. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because

a) They have higher input impedance

b) They have high switching time

c) They consume less power

d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

52. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -

a) Increase in ICEO

b) Increase in ac current gain

c) Decrease in ac current gain

d) Increase in output resistance

53. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then

bandwidth with feedback is -

a) 13. 3 KHz

b) 30KHz

c) 10KHz

d) 40KHz

54. The output of a class B amplifier -

a) is distortion free

b) consists of positive half cycles only

c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier

d) comprises short duration current pulses

55. An amplifier with negative feedback -

a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency

b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency

c) increases its bandwidth

d) all of the above

56. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -

a) Block becomes redundant

b) A FM detector would be required

c) A high frequency signal generator

d) An additional local oscillator will be needed

57. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-

a) greater speed

b) slower speed

c) average speed

d) none of the above

58. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by ?

a) Dt = N ? Fc

b) Dt = N ? 1/Fc

c) Dt = 1/N ? Fc

d) Dt = N ? 1/Fc

59. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be ?

(y denotes don’t care)

a) y and 0

b) y and 1

c) 0 and y

d) 1 and y

60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of ?

a) a flip flop
b) a transistor acting as a capacitor

c) a transistor

d) a capacitance

61. The 2′s complement of 10002 is ?

a) 0111

b) 0101

c) 1000

d) 0001

62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of ?

a) two flip flops connected in series

b) two flip flops connected in parallel

c) a debouncer circuit

d) a-D- latch

63. Number of nybbles making one byte is ?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 16

64. The intrinsic impedance of free space-

a) is independent of frequency

b) decreases with increase of frequency

c) increases with increase of frequency

d) varies as square root of frequency

65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -

a) ?200 dB/decade

b) ?240 dB/decade

c) ?230 dB/decade

d) ?320 dB/decade

66. Considering the conditions-

1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing

3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin

System stability requirements would include

a) 1 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides ?

a) 24 hour orbit

b) stationary satellite

c) global communication

d) zero-gravity environs

68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of ?

a) space multiplexing

b) time multiplexing
c) frequency multiplexing

d) none of the above

69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a ?

a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone

b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF

c) A differentiator followed by a LPF

d) A clipper circuit by a LPF

70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using ?

a) AND gates

b) Band pass

c) differentiation

d) Integration

71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-

a) frequency shift keying

b) two ? tone modulation

c) pulse code modulation

d) single tone modulation

72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-

a) FM generation only

b) 100AM generation only

c) PM generation only

d) both PM and AM generation

73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-

a) reduce x-ray emission

b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots

c) increase screen brightness

d) provide degaussing for the screen

74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-

a) the keyed AGC amplifar

b) a clipper

c) an integrator

d) a sawtooth current

75. Band width of microwaves is-

a) 1GHz -103 GHz

b) 1GHz ?100 GHz

c) 1 GHz ?10 GHz

d) 1 GHz ? 106 GHz

76. In transverse Magnetic mode-

a) no electric line is in direction of propagation

b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation

c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation

d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation

77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to ?

a) Reforction of wave

b) Reflection of wave
c) Pierus through Inosphere

d) None

78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be ?

a) 600

b) 900

c) 1800

d) 3600

79. The transmission does not have -

a) Partition noise

b) Flicker noise

c) resistance

d) Short noise

80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -

a) capacitance

b) Inductance

c) Resistance

d) Is a linear device

81. Noise figure is calculated as ?

a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio

b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio

c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100

d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by ?

a) Nicholas chart

b) Nyquist plot

c) Bode plot

d) Root locus.

83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-

a) ?5, 1

b) ?2.5, 1

c) ?5,0-5

d) ?5, 2

84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by

The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-

a) zero and 1

b) zero and 10

c) 10 and zero

d) 70 and 80

85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ?

a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links

b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal

c) minimize free-space losses

d) maximize antenna gain

86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-

a) EIRP

b) Antenna size

c) Coverage area

d) Antenna gain

87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-

a) horizontal blanking

b) vertical blanking

c) the serrations

d) the horizontal retrace

88. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-

a) washed

b) inherited

c) admired

d) attempt

60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of ?

a) a flip flop

b) a transistor acting as a capacitor

c) a transistor

d) a capacitance

61. The 2′s complement of 10002 is ?

a) 0111

b) 0101
c) 1000

d) 0001

62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of ?

a) two flip flops connected in series

b) two flip flops connected in parallel

c) a debouncer circuit

d) a-D- latch

63. Number of nybbles making one byte is ?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 16

64. The intrinsic impedance of free space-

a) is independent of frequency

b) decreases with increase of frequency

c) increases with increase of frequency

d) varies as square root of frequency

65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -

a) ?200 dB/decade

b) ?240 dB/decade

c) ?230 dB/decade

d) ?320 dB/decade
66. Considering the conditions-

1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing

3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin

System stability requirements would include

a) 1 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides ?

a) 24 hour orbit

b) stationary satellite

c) global communication

d) zero-gravity environs

68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of ?

a) space multiplexing

b) time multiplexing

c) frequency multiplexing

d) none of the above

69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a ?

a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone

b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF

c) A differentiator followed by a LPF

d) A clipper circuit by a LPF

70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using ?

a) AND gates

b) Band pass

c) differentiation

d) Integration

71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-

a) frequency shift keying

b) two ? tone modulation

c) pulse code modulation

d) single tone modulation

72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-

a) FM generation only

b) 100AM generation only

c) PM generation only

d) both PM and AM generation

73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-

a) reduce x-ray emission

b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots

c) increase screen brightness

d) provide degaussing for the screen

74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-

a) the keyed AGC amplifar

b) a clipper

c) an integrator

d) a sawtooth current

75. Band width of microwaves is-

a) 1GHz -103 GHz

b) 1GHz ?100 GHz

c) 1 GHz ?10 GHz

d) 1 GHz ? 106 GHz

76. In transverse Magnetic mode-

a) no electric line is in direction of propagation

b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation

c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation

d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation

77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to ?

a) Reforction of wave

b) Reflection of wave

c) Pierus through Inosphere

d) None

78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be ?

a) 600

b) 900

c) 1800
d) 3600

79. The transmission does not have -

a) Partition noise

b) Flicker noise

c) resistance

d) Short noise

80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -

a) capacitance

b) Inductance

c) Resistance

d) Is a linear device

81. Noise figure is calculated as ?

a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio

b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio

c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100

d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by ?

a) Nicholas chart

b) Nyquist plot

c) Bode plot

d) Root locus.

83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-
a) ?5, 1

b) ?2.5, 1

c) ?5,0-5

d) ?5, 2

84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by

The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-

a) zero and 1

b) zero and 10

c) 10 and zero

d) 70 and 80

85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ?

a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links

b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal

c) minimize free-space losses

d) maximize antenna gain

86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-

a) EIRP

b) Antenna size

c) Coverage area

d) Antenna gain

87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-

a) horizontal blanking
b) vertical blanking

c) the serrations

d) the horizontal retrace

88. The son seems to have ——– from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-

a) washed

b) inherited

c) admired

d) attempt

89. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-

a) water

b) stone

c) air

d) hills

90. What is a collection of sheep called ?

a) bunch

b) flock

c) herd

d) comet

91. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :

You can buy a book. You can read it.

a) and

b) nor
c) either

d) neither

92. What is the opposite of Asperity ?

a) gentility

b) superiority

c) kindness

d) clarity

93. The Election Commission functions under-

a) Ministry of Home Affairs

b) Ministry of Law

c) Prime Minister’s Secretariat

d) None of these

94. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-

a) President’s Rule is to be imposed

b) Emergency is declared

c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry

d) A political party of national level is to be banned

95. Radio-activity was first discovered by-

a) Becquerel

b) Madam Curie

c) Rutherford

d) Jenner
96. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-

a) 1995-2000

b) 1996-2001

c) 1997-2002

d) 1998-2003

97. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?

a) 5,000 MW

b) 10,000 MW

c) 15,000 MW

d) 20,000 MW

98. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?

a) 1769

b) 1789

c) 1889

d) 1869

99. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?

a) 1/10th of total membership

b) 1/6th of total membership

c) 1/4th of total membership

d) 1/5th of total membership

100. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?

a) 6
b) 7

c) 9

d) 10