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____ 1. Networking was possible only after the invention of personal computers in the early 1980s.
____ 2. A network allows you to share individual files or groups of files but not folders.
____ 3. Windows XP is a network operating system as well as an operating system.
____ 4. Two systems on the same network may share the same MAC address.
____ 5. A charge on a wire represents a zero while no charge represents a one.
____ 6. A NIC is not concerned about the contents of the data part of a frame.
____ 7. Routers use MAC addresses as their unique identifier.
____ 8. A network protocol consists of a set of rules that define how data is split into packets and transmitted.
____ 9. There are six common types of network topologies.
____ 10. The most commonly used type of shielded twisted pair network cabling is CAT5.
____ 11. Fiber optic cable is immune to EMI.
____ 12. Thin Ethernet is also known as 10Base2.
____ 13. The great popularity of Ethernet networks is due primarily to their great ability to secure data frames to
prevent them from being intercepted by unauthorized hackers.
____ 14. A repeater also functions as an amplifier.
____ 15. The hub of a 10BaseT network analyzes the MAC address to see where the packet should be forwarded.
____ 16. Unlike the UTP specified with 10BaseT Ethernet networks, the Token Ring network standard specifies fiber
optic cabling.
____ 17. An ³upstream neighbor´ passes packets to the ³downstream neighbor.´.
____ 18. A Token Ring network with STP cabling uses the same RJ-45 connector that Ethernet uses.
____ 19. By examining the cable, wiring color code, and the connectors, one can distinguish a Token Ring network
that uses UTP from an Ethernet network using UTP.
____ 20. The ARCNET standard requires active hubs.
____ 21. Once you install horizontal cabling, it should never be moved.
____ 22. Patch cables should be solid core cables to provide extra strength and prevent the cables from breaking easily
when you move them.
____ 23. The EIA/TIA defines a straight-through wiring for patch cables.
____ 24. It is a good idea to place the equipment room in a high humidity area.
____ 25. If Windows installs the driver for a NIC, you should use it rather than using a driver that comes from the
manufacturer of the NIC.
____ 26. By default, Windows 2000 and XP show the status of disconnected networks in the task bar.
____ 27. If a user gets a ³No server is found´ error, it usually points to a problem with the network software.
____ 28. Wireless networks operate at the same OSI layers as wired networks.
____ 29. It is a good idea to install the driver before you install a USB device.
____ 30. If possible, you should use the drivers and configuration utilities supplied with your wireless adapter by the
vendor rather than those from the operating system itself.
____ 31. HomeRF uses the SWAP protocol.
____ 32. A network may use no more than one protocol.
____ 33. You can interconnect two or more TCP/IP networks and not be on the Internet.
____ 34. Routers cannot forward ARP requests because they are broadcasts.
____ 35. One of the downsides of subnetting is that you will have fewer host numbers in each new subnet.
____ 36. As the Internet grew, DNS was replaced with HOSTS.
____ 37. DNS allows individual client machines in an IP network to configure all their IP settings automatically.
____ 38. Since a server may run only one server program at a time, it is necessary to have two separate systems to run
both DNS and DHCP.
____ 39. In a client-server network, a client may also function as a server.
____ 40. Peer-to-peer applications such as a file-sharing program Kazaa act as both client and server.
____ 41. Windows 98 automatically installs Client for Microsoft Networks and TCP/IP, but requires manual
installation of IPX/SPX or NetBEUI.
____ 42. Windows NT does not include Plug and Play capabilities.
____ 43. A Windows 2000 domain includes at least one PDC and one or more BDC.
____ 44. Each domain must have its own dedicated authoritative DNS server.
____ 45. All versions of Windows support the NET SEND command.
____ 46. Every web server must include www as part of its name.
____ 47. POTS refers to a telephone system that has a permanent, hard-wire connection between two locations.
____ 48. DSL uses a regular telephone line, including the same RJ-45 connector.
____ 49. Both cable modems and satellites use PPPoE protocol.
____ 50. SONET requires a ring-based topology.


  
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____ 51. What is necessary for a personal computer to act as a terminal for a mainframe?
a. You must install a terminal emulation program on the PC
b. The PC must be from the same manufacturer as the mainframe
c. The PC must be located on the same LAN as the mainframe
d. A PC cannot act as a terminal for a mainframe
____ 52. If you access a shared resource such as a word processing document, you will run it by using ____.
 a. the word processing program on the server
b. the word processing program on the client
c. the word processing program on the remote computer
d. you cannot run it; you merely view it
____ 53. If you want to connect a personal computer to work as a terminal for a mainframe, you need ____.
a. a user name c. a server program
b. Permissions d. a terminal emulation program
____ 54. Which layer of the OSI model manages the connection between machines on the network?
a. Application c. Data Link
b. Session d. Transport
____ 55. When it receives data from the upper layers, which layer of the OSI model breaks the data into smaller pieces
called packets?
a. Data Link c. Network
b. Physical d. Transport
____ 56. Which layer of the OSI model adds source and destination MAC addresses to frames?
a. Network c. Transport
b. Data Link d. Presentation
____ 57. Which is the only layer that does not add its own header to data packets transmitted on the network?
a. Application c. Presentation
b. Session d. Physical
____ 58. What layer of the OSI model defines a set of tools or services that programs can use to access the network?
a. Application c. Session
b. Transport d. Presentation
____ 59. Which of these statements best describes an Application Program Interface?
a. It is the GUI interface that Windows uses to interact with the user.
b. It is the top layer of the OSI model of networking.
c. It is a set of commands provided by Microsoft that allows programmers to create
applications.
d. It is a protocol that allows web browsers to request data from a web server.
____ 60. Which kind of cabling provides the highest transfer rate?
a. Coax c. STP
b. UTP d. Fiber optic
____ 61. Which of the following is NOT a networking technology?
a. Hybrid c. FDDI
b. Ethernet d. Token Ring
____ 62. The original data transfer rate of Ethernet was only ____.
a. 3 Mbps c. 10 Mbps
b. 16 Mbps d. 56 Kbps
____ 63. A basic Ethernet frame contains how many pieces of information?
a. Four c. six
b. Five d. seven
____ 64. Which of the following statements best describes the preamble of an Ethernet frame?
a. It contains the CRC
b. It is a 64-bit of alternating ones an zeros that ends with 11 to notify the receiving NIC that
a frame is starting
c. It contains the MAC address of the source and the destination
d. It contains the IP address of the source and the destination and is used by routers to deliver
the frame to the proper location
____ 65. What kind of channel access method is CSMA/CD?
a. deterministic c. proprietary
b. chaotic d. assigned
____ 66. After a collision has occurred, how many times will a node attempt to resend a frame before it gives up and
sends an error message to the user?
a. 10 times c. 32 times
b. 16 times d. It never gives up
____ 67. What kind of connection does a 10Base5 NIC provide to connect to an external transceiver?
a. a 15-pin female DB connection called an AUI
b. a 9-pin female DB connection called an RS232
c. a BNC connector
d. an RJ-45 connector
____ 68. The specification for 10BaseT calls for UTP cabling using ____ pairs of wires.
a. 2 c. 6
b. 4 d. 8
____ 69. All of the following are advantages of fiber optic cabling  ____.
a. the signals travel farther
b. it has a longer maximum distance
c. it is easier and cheaper to install than UTP
d. it is immune to electrical interference
____ 70. The 5-4-3 rule says that no two nodes may be separated by more than ____.
a. 5 segments, 4 repeaters, 3 populated segments
b. 5 repeaters, 4 segments, 3 populated segments
c. 5 populated segments, 4 repeaters, 3 segments
d. 5 segments, 4 populated segments, 3 repeaters
____ 71. What is the maximum cable length for the 1000BaseT network?
a. 100 meters c. 400 meters
b. 200 meters d. 2000 meters
____ 72. 1000BaseT Ethernet is defined by the IEEE ____ standard.
a. 802.3 c. 802.11g
b. 802.11 d. 802.3ab
____ 73. ARCNET uses a ____ physical topology and a ____ logical topology.
a. star, bus c. ring, bus
b. star, ring d. star, star
____ 74. At what layers of the OSI model does WEP work?
a. All 7 layers c. Layer 3
b. Only the first two layers d. Layer 4
____ 75. Which statement correctly identifies HomeRF?
a. It uses the 802.11b wireless standard
b. It uses DSSS broadcast method
c. It uses WEP and WPA for security
d. It uses seven channels in the 2.4 GHz range with six of them dedicated to voice
communication and the other one for data
____ 76. At what layers of the OSI model does the set of protocols indicated by the TCP part of TCP/IP work?
a. The DataLink and Network layers c. The Application and Presentation layers
b. The Transport and Session layers d. The Transport and Network layers
____ 77. At which layer of the OSI model does NetBEUI work?
a. Session c. Network
b. Transport d. Data Link
____ 78. Which of the following statements best describes NBP?
a. Network BIOS Protocol resolves IP addresses to domain names for networks running
NetBIOS/NetBEUI
b. Novell Binding Protocol binds the IPX/SPX protocol to the NIC in a NetWare network
c. Network Basic Ports refers to the standard port number assignments for applications
d. Name Binding Protocol binds each system¶s name to its Apple Talk address to allow other
systems to see it
____ 79. Which 16th bit identification would indicate that a computer in a NetBIOS system is functioning as a client?
a. <00> c. <20>
b. <03> d. <BF>
____ 80. Which of the following is a valid IP address for an individual system expressed in decimal notation?
a. 0.0.0.0 c. 128-5EF-297
b. 255.255.255.255 d. 215.261.32.91
____ 81. If the first decimal value of an IP address is between 128 and 191, to what IP class does the network belong?
a. Class A c. Class C
b. Class B d. Class D
____ 82. What will a router do if it receives a packet that does not match any of the routes in its routing table?
a. It will discard the packet
b. It will forward the packet to its own default gateway (if one has been specified)
c. It will broadcast the packet¶s network ID
d. It will return the packet to its sending system.
____ 83. What command can you give to test the NIC¶s ability to send and receive packets?
a. ARP -a c. PING 127.0.0.1
b. PING 255.255.255.255 d. IPCONFIG
____ 84. Which of the following is not a designated private IP addresses?
a. 192.168.64.7 c. 153.6.2.1
b. 172.28.16.48 d. 10.164.19.5
____ 85. Which of the following is  a top level domain name?
a. .us c. .mil
b. .htm d. .net
____ 86. If your system receives packets on ports 110 and 25, where does it send them?
a. To the DHCP server c. To the web browser
b. To the DNS server d. To the e-mail application
____ 87. In an IPv6 address, each group is ____.
a. a decimal value between 0 and 255
b. an 8-bit binary number
c. a 16-bit group with a hexadecimal number with a value between 0000 and FFFF
d. a hexadecimal number with a value between 0 and F
____ 88. What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?
a. 255.0.0.0 c. 255.255.255.0
b. 255.255.0.0 d. 255.255.255.255
____ 89. Which of the following is  a server version of Windows 2000?
a. Windows 2000 Professional c. Windows 2000 Advanced Server
b. Windows 2000 Server d. Windows 2000 Datacenter Server
____ 90. When you install Windows 2000 Server, you may indicate that it functions as all of the following 
____.
a. a stand-alone server c. backup domain controller
b. a domain controller d. a member server
____ 91. Which of the following characters is not permitted in a DNS domain or host name?
a. upper- and lowercase letters c. numbers
b. spaces d. hyphens
____ 92. Which is the correct sequence according to the DNS naming convention?
a. root.domain.host c. host.domain.root
b. domain.host.root d. domain.root.host
____ 93. Including the separators, what is the maximum number of characters allowed by the DNS naming
convention?
a. 12 c. 80
b. 15 d. 255
____ 94. What is the DHCP scope?
a. all the network systems that the DHCP server handles
b. the pool of IP addresses that a DHCP server may allocate to clients in a specific subnet.
c. the procedure used by a client to request an IP address from a DHCP server
d. another name for a DHCP lease
____ 95. What is the server used to resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses?
a. DNS c. ARP
b. WINIPCFG d. WINS
____ 96. With a flat name space system, all names must ____.
a. be the same length c. include the domain name
b. have a common part d. be unique
____ 97. A telephone microphone converts sounds into electrical waveforms that cycle how many times per second?
a. 56K c. 1,024
b. 2,400 d. 300
____ 98. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the V.92 standard?
a. maximum download speed of 57,600 bps
b. maximum upstream rates of 56 Kbps
c. a Quick Connect feature for faster handshaking
d. a Modem On Hold feature that lets modems stay connected while a voice call is being
made
____ 99. SLIP and PPP are protocols that work at which layer of the OSI model?
a. Physical c. Application
b. Data Link d. Session
____ 100. What is the total throughput of a T1 line?
a. 9 Mbps c. 1,544 Mbps
b. 128 Kbps d. 64 Kbps
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1. ANS: F REF: 14
2. ANS: F REF: 15
3. ANS: T REF: 27
4. ANS: F REF: 30
5. ANS: F REF: 31
6. ANS: T REF: 32
7. ANS: F REF: 36
8. ANS: T REF: 36
9. ANS: F REF: 57
10. ANS: F REF: 63
11. ANS: T REF: 64
12. ANS: T REF: 73
13. ANS: F REF: 75
14. ANS: F REF: 88
15. ANS: F REF: 100
16. ANS: F REF: 121
17. ANS: T REF: 122
18. ANS: F REF: 124
19. ANS: F REF: 124
20. ANS: F REF: 127
21. ANS: T REF: 141
22. ANS: F REF: 143
23. ANS: T REF: 143
24. ANS: F REF: 145
25. ANS: F REF: 162
26. ANS: T REF: 164
27. ANS: F REF: 165
28. ANS: T REF: 174
29. ANS: T REF: 177
30. ANS: T REF: 177
31. ANS: T REF: 186
32. ANS: F REF: 208
33. ANS: T REF: 244
34. ANS: T REF: 246
35. ANS: T REF: 255
36. ANS: F REF: 259
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38. ANS: F REF: 262
39. ANS: F REF: 276
40. ANS: T REF: 277
41. ANS: T REF: 285
 42. ANS: T REF: 293
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44. ANS: F REF: 350
45. ANS: F REF: 367
46. ANS: F REF: 351
47. ANS: F REF: 405
48. ANS: F REF: 411
49. ANS: F REF: 414
50. ANS: F REF: 419

 

51. ANS: A REF: 11

52. ANS: B REF: 21
53. ANS: D REF: 11
54. ANS: B REF: 49
55. ANS: D REF: 49
56. ANS: B REF: 50
57. ANS: D REF: 50
58. ANS: A REF: 48
59. ANS: C REF: 48
60. ANS: D REF: 65
61. ANS: A REF: 58
62. ANS: A REF: 73
63. ANS: D REF: 74
64. ANS: B REF: 75
65. ANS: B REF: 78
66. ANS: B REF: 79
67. ANS: A REF: 83
68. ANS: A REF: 102
69. ANS: C REF: 103
70. ANS: A REF: 108
71. ANS: A REF: 111
72. ANS: D REF: 111
73. ANS: A REF: 127
74. ANS: B REF: 181
75. ANS: D REF: 186
76. ANS: B REF: 207
77. ANS: B REF: 219
78. ANS: D REF: 233
79. ANS: A REF: 220
80. ANS: D REF: 240
81. ANS: B REF: 251
82. ANS: B REF: 253-254
83. ANS: C REF: 257
84. ANS: C REF: 258
 85. ANS: B REF: 260
86. ANS: D REF: 265
87. ANS: C REF: 266
88. ANS: C REF: 267
89. ANS: A REF: 293
90. ANS: C REF: 294
91. ANS: B REF: 349
92. ANS: C REF: 349
93. ANS: D REF: 350
94. ANS: B REF: 360
95. ANS: D REF: 363
96. ANS: D REF: 347
97. ANS: B REF: 406
98. ANS: B REF: 408
99. ANS: B REF: 408
100. ANS: C REF: 418