NCLEX Review Questions – Genitourinary System

October 31, 2010 By admin Leave a Comment

1. The nurse is aware that the following findings would be further evidence
of a urethral injury in a male client during rectal examination?

a. A low-riding prostate

b. The presence of a boggy mass

c. Absent sphincter tone

d. A positive Hemoccult

2. When a female client with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter insists

on walking to the hospital lobby to visit with family members, nurse Rose
teaches how to do this without compromising the catheter. Which client
action indicates an accurate understanding of this information?

a. The client sets the drainage bag on the floor while sitting down.

b. The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times.

c. The client clamps the catheter drainage tubing while visiting with the
family.

d. The client loops the drainage tubing below its point of entry into the
drainage bag.

3. A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata

(genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client?

a. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she
should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.

b. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should

eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.

c. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if

condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse.

d. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata,

can’t be transmitted during oral sex.
4. A male client with bladder cancer has had the bladder removed and an
ileal conduit created for urine diversion. While changing this client’s pouch,
the nurse observes that the area around the stoma is red, weeping, and
painful. What should nurse Katrina conclude?

a. The skin wasn’t lubricated before the pouch was applied.

b. The pouch faceplate doesn’t fit the stoma.

c. A skin barrier was applied properly.

d. Stoma dilation wasn’t performed.

5. The nurse is aware that the following laboratory values supports a

diagnosis of pyelonephritis?

a. Myoglobinuria

b. Ketonuria

c. Pyuria

d. Low white blood cell (WBC) count

6. A female client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is receiving a

hemodialysis treatment. After hemodialysis, nurse Sarah knows that the
client is most likely to experience:

a. hematuria.

b. weight loss.

c. increased urine output.

d. increased blood pressure.

7. Nurse Lea is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which

symptom most likely prompted the client to seek medical attention?

a. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

b. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis

c. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis

d. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

8. Nurse Agnes is reviewing the report of a client’s routine urinalysis. Which

value should the nurse consider abnormal?

a. Specific gravity of 1.03

b. Urine pH of 3.0

c. Absence of protein

d. Absence of glucose

9. A male client is scheduled for a renal clearance test. Nurse Maureen

should explain that this test is done to assess the kidneys’ ability to remove a
substance from the plasma in:

a. 1 minute.

b. 30 minutes.

c. 1 hour.

d. 24 hours.

10. A male client in the short-procedure unit is recovering from renal

angiography in which a femoral puncture site was used. When providing
postprocedure care, the nurse should:

a. keep the client’s knee on the affected side bent for 6 hours.

b. apply pressure to the puncture site for 30 minutes.

c. check the client’s pedal pulses frequently.

d. remove the dressing on the puncture site after vital signs stabilize.

11. A female client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure (CRF).
Nurse Juliet knows that this disorder increases the client’s risk of:

a. water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the

glomerular filtration rate.

b. a decreased serum phosphate level secondary to kidney failure.

c. an increased serum calcium level secondary to kidney failure.

d. metabolic alkalosis secondary to retention of hydrogen ions.

12. Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated

to treat a female client’s uremia. Which finding signals a significant problem
during this procedure?

a. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L

b. Hematocrit (HCT) of 35%

c. Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl

d. White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3

13. For a male client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), which
nursing intervention is most important?

a. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing

b. Promoting carbohydrate intake

c. Limiting fluid intake

d. Providing pain-relief measures

14. A female client requires hemodialysis. Which of the following drugs

should be withheld before this procedure?

a. Phosphate binders

b. Insulin

c. Antibiotics

d. Cardiac glycosides

15. A client comes to the outpatient department complaining of vaginal

discharge, dysuria, and genital irritation. Suspecting a sexually transmitted
disease (STD), Dr. Smith orders diagnostic tests of the vaginal discharge.
Which STD must be reported to the public health department?

a. Chlamydia

b. Gonorrhea

c. Genital herpes

d. Human papillomavirus infection

16. A male client with acute pyelonephritis receives a prescription for co-
trimoxazole (Septra) P.O. twice daily for 10 days. Which finding best
demonstrates that the client has followed the prescribed regimen?

a. Urine output increases to 2,000 ml/day.

b. Flank and abdominal discomfort decrease.

c. Bacteria are absent on urine culture.

d. The red blood cell (RBC) count is normal.

17. A 26-year-old female client seeks care for a possible infection. Her
symptoms include burning on urination and frequent, urgent voiding of small
amounts of urine. She’s placed on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
to treat possible infection. Another medication is prescribed to decrease the
pain and frequency. Which of the following is the most likely medication
prescribed?

a. nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)

b. ibuprofen (Motrin)

c. acetaminophen with codeine

d. phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

18. A triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted for continuous

bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate. In
addition to balloon inflation, the nurse is aware that the functions of the three
lumens include:
a. Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.

b. Intermittent inflow and continuous outflow of irrigation solution.

c. Continuous inflow and intermittent outflow of irrigation solution.

d. Intermittent flow of irrigation solution and prevention of hemorrhage.

19. Nurse Claudine is reviewing a client’s fluid intake and output record.
Fluid intake and urine output should relate in which way?

a. Fluid intake should be double the urine output.

b. Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output.

c. Fluid intake should be half the urine output.

d. Fluid intake should be inversely proportional to the urine output.

20. After trying to conceive for a year, a couple consults an infertility

specialist. When obtaining a history from the husband, nurse Jenny inquires
about childhood infectious diseases. Which childhood infectious disease most
significantly affects male fertility?

a. Chickenpox

b. Measles

c. Mumps

d. Scarlet fever

21. A male client comes to the emergency department complaining of

sudden onset of sharp, severe pain in the lumbar region, which radiates
around the side and toward the bladder. The client also reports nausea and
vomiting and appears pale, diaphoretic, and anxious. The physician
tentatively diagnoses renal calculi and orders flat-plate abdominal X-rays.
Renal calculi can form anywhere in the urinary tract. What is their most
common formation site?

a. Kidney

b. Ureter
c. Bladder

d. Urethra

22. A female client with acute renal failure is undergoing dialysis for the
first time. The nurse in charge monitors the client closely for dialysis
equilibrium syndrome, a complication that is most common during the first
few dialysis sessions. Typically, dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes:

a. confusion, headache, and seizures.

b. acute bone pain and confusion.

c. weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmias.

d. hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea.

23. Dr. Marquez prescribes norfloxacin (Noroxin), 400 mg P.O. twice daily,
for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). The client asks the nurse how
long to continue taking the drug. For an uncomplicated UTI, the usual
duration of norfloxacin therapy is:

a. 3 to 5 days.

b. 7 to 10 days.

c. 12 to 14 days.

d. 10 to 21 days.

24. Nurse Joy is providing postprocedure care for a client who underwent
percutaneous lithotripsy. In this procedure, an ultrasonic probe inserted
through a nephrostomy tube into the renal pelvis generates ultra–high-
frequency sound waves to shatter renal calculi. The nurse should instruct the
client to:

a. limit oral fluid intake for 1 to 2 weeks.

b. report the presence of fine, sandlike particles through the nephrostomy

tube.

c. notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine.

d. report bright pink urine within 24 hours after the procedure.

25. A client is frustrated and embarrassed by urinary incontinence. Which
of the following measures should nurse Bea include in a bladder retraining
program?

a. Establishing a predetermined fluid intake pattern for the client

b. Encouraging the client to increase the time between voidings

c. Restricting fluid intake to reduce the need to void

d. Assessing present elimination patterns

Answers:

NCLEX Review Questions – Genitourinary System Answers and Rationale

November 3, 2010 By admin Leave a Comment

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1. Answer B. When the urethra is ruptured, a hematoma or collection of

blood separates the two sections of urethra. This may feel like a boggy mass
on rectal examination. Because of the rupture and hematoma, the prostate
becomes high riding. A palpable prostate gland usually indicates a
nonurethral injury. Absent sphincter tone would refer to a spinal cord injury.
The presence of blood would probably correlate with GI bleeding or a colon
injury.

2. Answer B. To maintain effective drainage, the client should keep the

drainage bag below the bladder; this allows the urine to flow by gravity from
the bladder to the drainage bag. The client shouldn’t lay the drainage bag on
the floor because it could become grossly contaminated. The client shouldn’t
clamp the catheter drainage tubing because this impedes the flow of urine.
To promote drainage, the client may loop the drainage tubing above — not
below — its point of entry into the drainage bag.
3. Answer A. Women with condylomata acuminata are at risk for cancer of
the cervix and vulva. Yearly Pap smears are very important for early
detection. Because condylomata acuminata is a virus, there is no permanent
cure. Because condylomata acuminata can occur on the vulva, a condom
won’t protect sexual partners. HPV can be transmitted to other parts of the
body, such as the mouth, oropharynx, and larynx.

4. Answer B. If the pouch faceplate doesn’t fit the stoma properly, the skin
around the stoma will be exposed to continuous urine flow from the stoma,
causing excoriation and red, weeping, and painful skin. A lubricant shouldn’t
be used because it would prevent the pouch from adhering to the skin. When
properly applied, a skin barrier prevents skin excoriation. Stoma dilation isn’t
performed with an ileal conduit, although it may be done with a colostomy if
ordered.

5. Answer C. Pyelonephritis is diagnosed by the presence of leukocytosis,

hematuria, pyuria, and bacteriuria. The client exhibits fever, chills, and flank
pain. Because there is often a septic picture, the WBC count is more likely to
be high rather than low, as indicated in option D. Ketonuria indicates a
diabetic state.

6. Answer B. Because CRF causes loss of renal function, the client with this
disorder retains fluid. Hemodialysis removes this fluid, causing weight loss.
Hematuria is unlikely to follow hemodialysis because the client with CRF
usually forms little or no urine. Hemodialysis doesn’t increase urine output
because it doesn’t correct the loss of kidney function, which severely
decreases urine production in this disorder. By removing fluids, hemodialysis
decreases rather than increases the blood pressure.

7. Answer D. Symptoms of gonorrhea in men include purulent, foul-smelling

drainage from the penis and painful urination. Rashes on the palms of the
hands and soles of the feet are symptoms of the secondary stage of syphilis.
Cauliflower-like warts on the penis are a sign of human papillomavirus.
Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis may be a sign of the first stage
of genital herpes.

8. Answer B. Normal urine pH is 4.5 to 8; therefore, a urine pH of 3.0 is

abnormal. Urine specific gravity normally ranges from 1.002 to 1.035, making
this client’s value normal. Normally, urine contains no protein, glucose,
ketones, bilirubin, bacteria, casts, or crystals. Red blood cells should measure
0 to 3 per high-power field; white blood cells, 0 to 4 per high-power field.
Urine should be clear, its color ranging from pale yellow to deep amber.

9. Answer A. The renal clearance test determines the kidneys’ ability to

remove a substance from the plasma in 1 minute. It doesn’t measure the
kidneys’ ability to remove a substance over a longer period.

10. Answer C. After renal angiography involving a femoral puncture site,

the nurse should check the client’s pedal pulses frequently to detect reduced
circulation to the feet caused by vascular injury. The nurse also should
monitor vital signs for evidence of internal hemorrhage and should observe
the puncture site frequently for fresh bleeding. The client should be kept on
bed rest for several hours so the puncture site can seal completely. Keeping
the client’s knee bent is unnecessary. By the time the client returns to the
short-procedure unit, manual pressure over the puncture site is no longer
needed because a pressure dressing is in place. The nurse shouldn’t remove
this dressing for several hours — and only if instructed to do so.

11. Answer A. A client with CRF is at risk for fluid imbalance — dehydration
if the kidneys fail to concentrate urine, or fluid retention if the kidneys fail to
produce urine. Electrolyte imbalances associated with this disorder result
from the kidneys’ inability to excrete phosphorus; such imbalances may lead
to hyperphosphatemia with reciprocal hypocalcemia. CRF may cause
metabolic acidosis, not metabolic alkalosis, secondary to inability of the
kidneys to excrete hydrogen ions.

12. Answer D. An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably

resulting from peritonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the
peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the
peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal
dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client. Hyperglycemia
occurs during peritoneal dialysis because of the high glucose content of the
dialysate; it’s readily treatable with sliding-scale insulin. A potassium level of
3.5 mEq/L can be treated by adding potassium to the dialysate solution. An
HCT of 35% is lower than normal. However, in this client, the value isn’t
abnormally low because of the daily blood samplings. A lower HCT is common
in clients with chronic renal failure because of the lack of erythropoietin.

13. Answer C. During the oliguric phase of ARF, urine output decreases
markedly, possibly leading to fluid overload. Limiting oral and I.V. fluid intake
can prevent fluid overload and its complications, such as heart failure and
pulmonary edema. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing is important for
clients with various respiratory disorders. Promoting carbohydrate intake may
be helpful in ARF but doesn’t take precedence over fluid limitation.
Controlling pain isn’t important because ARF rarely causes pain.

14. Answer D. Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin should be withheld before

hemodialysis. Hypokalemia is one of the electrolyte shifts that occur during
dialysis, and a hypokalemic client is at risk for arrhythmias secondary to
digitalis toxicity. Phosphate binders and insulin can be administered because
they aren’t removed from the blood by dialysis. Some antibiotics are
removed by dialysis and should be administered after the procedure to
ensure their therapeutic effects. The nurse should check a formulary to
determine whether a particular antibiotic should be administered before or
after dialysis.

15. Answer B. Gonorrhea must be reported to the public health department.

Chlamydia, genital herpes, and human papillomavirus infection aren’t
reportable diseases.

16. Answer C. Co-trimoxazole is a sulfonamide antibiotic used to treat

urinary tract infections. Therefore, absence of bacteria on urine culture
indicates that the drug has achieved its desired effect. Although flank pain
may decrease as the infection resolves, this isn’t a reliable indicator of the
drug’s effectiveness. Co-trimoxazole doesn’t affect urine output or the RBC
count.

17. Answer D. Phenazopyridine may be prescribed in conjunction with an

antibiotic for painful bladder infections to promote comfort. Because of its
local anesthetic action on the urinary mucosa, phenazopyridine specifically
relieves bladder pain. Nitrofurantoin is a urinary antiseptic with no analgesic
properties. While ibuprofen and acetaminophen with codeine are analgesics,
they don’t exert a direct effect on the urinary mucosa.

18. Answer A. When preparing for continuous bladder irrigation, a triple-

lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted. The three lumens provide for
balloon inflation and continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.

19. Answer B. Normally, fluid intake is approximately equal to the urine

output. Any other relationship signals an abnormality. For example, fluid
intake that is double the urine output indicates fluid retention; fluid intake
that is half the urine output indicates dehydration. Normally, fluid intake isn’t
inversely proportional to the urine output.

20. Answer C. Mumps is the most significant childhood infectious disease

affecting male fertility. Chickenpox, measles, and scarlet fever don’t affect
male fertility.

21. Answer A. The most common site of renal calculi formation is the
kidney. Calculi may travel down the urinary tract with or without causing
damage and may lodge anywhere along the tract or may stay within the
kidney. The ureter, bladder, and urethra are less common sites of renal
calculi formation.

22. Answer A. Dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes confusion, a

decreasing level of consciousness, headache, and seizures. These findings,
which may last several days, probably result from a relative excess of
interstitial or intracellular solutes caused by rapid solute removal from the
blood. The resultant organ swelling interferes with normal physiologic
functions. To prevent this syndrome, many dialysis centers keep first-time
sessions short and use a reduced blood flow rate. Acute bone pain and
confusion are associated with aluminum intoxication, another potential
complication of dialysis. Weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmias suggest
hyperkalemia, which is associated with renal failure. Hypotension,
tachycardia, and tachypnea signal hemorrhage, another dialysis
complication.

23. Answer B. For an uncomplicated UTI, norfloxacin therapy usually lasts 7

to 10 days. Taking the drug for less than 7 days wouldn’t eradicate such an
infection. Taking it for more than 10 days isn’t necessary. Only a client with a
complicated UTI must take norfloxacin for 10 to 21 days.

24. Answer C. The client should report the presence of foul-smelling or

cloudy urine. Unless contraindicated, the client should be instructed to drink
large quantities of fluid each day to flush the kidneys. Sandlike debris is
normal due to residual stone products. Hematuria is common after lithotripsy.

25. Answer D. The guidelines for initiating bladder retraining include

assessing the client’s intake patterns, voiding patterns, and reasons for each
accidental voiding. Lowering the client’s fluid intake won’t reduce or prevent
incontinence. The client should actually be encouraged to drink 1.5 to 2 L of
water per day. A voiding schedule should be established after assessment.