Escolar Documentos
Profissional Documentos
Cultura Documentos
(Code: 6)
SOLUTIONS TO IIT-JEE 2011
Paper-I
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 240
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General:
1. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet.
2. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets are NOT allowed.
4. Write your name and registration number in the space provided on the back page of this
booklet.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided
separately.
6. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by
the invigilators.
8. This Question Paper contains 69 questions.
9. On breaking the seals, please check that all the questions are legible.
B. Filling the Right Part of the ORS:
10. The ORS also has a CODE printed on its Left and Right parts.
11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the codes do not
match, ask for a change of the booklet.
12. Write your Name, Registration No. and the name of centre and sign with pen in the boxes
provided. Do not write them anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble UNDER
each digit of your registration No. with a good quality HB pencil.
C. Question paper format and Marking Scheme:
13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics). Each part
consists of four sections.
14. In Section I (Total Marks: 21), for each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you
darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no
bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
15. In Section II (Total Marks: 16), for each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you
darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY and zero marks
otherwise. There are no negative marks in this section.
16. In Section III (Total Marks : 15), for each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you
darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no
bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
17. In Section IV (Total Marks: 28), for each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you
darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks otherwise.
There are no negative marks in this section.
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Note: Questions with (*) mark are from syllabus of class XI.
*1. Among the following compounds, the most acidic is
(A) p-nitrophenol (B) p-hydroxybenzoic acid
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(C) o-hydroxybenzoic acid (D) p-toluic acid
Sol.: o-Hydroxybenzoic acid is most acidic among the given compounds due to ortho effect and stabilization of its conjugate base
by intramolecular hydrogen bonding.
Correct choice: (C)
2. The major product of the following reaction is
O
C (i) KOH
NH
C (ii) Br CH2Cl
O
O O
C C
(A) N—CH2 Br (B) N CH2Cl
C C
O O
O O
C C
(C) N (D) N
O—CH2 Br O CH2Cl
O O
C C – +
Sol.: NH + KOH N K+ H2O
C C
O O
O O
C – + C
N K+ Br CH2—Cl N—CH2 Br
C C
O O
Correct choice: (A)
3. Extra pure N2 can be obtained by heating
(A) NH3 with CuO (B) NH4NO3
(C) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (D) Ba(N3)2
Sol.: Nitrogen gas is obtained in the following reactions:
∆
2NH3(g) + 3CuO(s) N2(g) + 3Cu(s) + 3H2O(g)
∆
(NH4)2 Cr2O7(s) N2(g) + Cr2O3(s) + 4H2O(g)
∆
Ba(N3)2(s) Ba(s) +3N2(g)
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Extra pure N2 is obtained by heating Ba(N3)2 in vacuum as no gaseous by-product is formed in the reaction.
Correct choice: (D)
4. Geometrical shapes of the complexes formed by the reaction of Ni2+ with Cl–, CN– and H2O, respectively, are
(A) octahedral, tetrahedral and square planar. (B) tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral.
(C) square planar, tetrahedral and octahedral. (D) octahedral, square planar and octahedral.
Sol.: Ni2+ forms [NiCl4]2– with Cl–, whereas it forms [Ni(CN)4]2– with CN– and [Ni(H2O)6]2+ with H2O. The hybridisation of Ni2+
in [NiCl4]2–, Ni(CN)4]2– and [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is sp3, dsp2 and sp3d2 respectively. Hence, the shapes of [NiCl4]2–, [Ni(CN)4]2– and
[Ni(H2O)6]2+ are tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral respectively.
Correct choice: (B)
5. Bombardment of aluminium by α-particle leads to its artificial disintegration in two ways, (i) and (ii) as shown. Products
X, Y and Z respectively are
27 (ii) 30
13 Al 15 P +Y
(i)
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30 30
14 Si +X 14 Si +Z
(A) proton, neutron, positron (B) neutron, positron, proton
(C) proton, positron, neutron (D) positron, proton, neutron
4
27 2 He 30
13 Al 15 P + 10 n
(Y)
Sol.: 4
2 He
0
30
14 Si + 11H 30
14 Si + +1
e
(X) (Z)
Correct choice: (A)
6. Dissolving 120 g of urea (molecular weight 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the
solution is
(A) 1.78 M (B) 2.00 M
(C) 2.05 M (D) 2.22 M
Sol.: Mass of solution = 1120 g.
1120 120
Volume of solution = ml . ; Number of moles of solute = = 2.
1.15 60
2 ×1000 ×1.15
Molarity of solution = = 2.05 M
1120
Correct choice: (C)
7. AgNO3 (aq.) was added to an aqueous KCl solution gradually and the conductivity of the solution was measured. The plot of
conductance (Λ) versus the volume of AgNO3 is
Λ Λ Λ Λ
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8. The correct statement(s) pertaining to the adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is (are)
(A) Adsorption is always exothermic.
(B) Physisorption may transform into chemisorption at high temperature.
(C) Physisorption increases with increasing temperature but chemisorption decreases with increasing temperature.
(D) Chemisorption is more exothermic than physisorption, however it is very slow due to higher energy of activation.
Sol.: Adsorption of a gas on the surface of a solid is generally exothermic but not always. e.g. adsorption of H2 on glass surface is
endothermic. Physiosorption may transform into chemisorption at high temperature because chemisorption involves energy
barrier. Chemisorption is more exothermic than physiosorption as the formation of covalent bonds in former case results in
release of energy.
Correct choice: (B) & (D)
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(A) carbon reduction of an oxide ore (B) self-reduction of a sulphide ore
(C) removal of copper impurity (D) removal of iron impurity
Sol.: SnO2 is reduced to the metal by heating with carbon at 1200–1300°C in an electric furnace. The crude tin contains impurities.
It is purified by liquation and poling. The crude metal is heated gently on a sloping hearth when pure tin flows down leaving
behind iron and copper as impurities.
Correct choice: (A), (C) & (D)
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Zn/H2O
CH3 CH3 CH3 Acetone
H3C OH H3C OH
(A) H–C–C–CH2CH3 (B) H3C–C–C–CH3
H3C H H3C H
H3C OH OH
(C) H–C–CH2CHCH3 (D) CH3CH2CH2CHCH2CH3
H3C
Correct choice: (B)
When a metal rod M is dipped into an aqueous colourless concentrated solution of compound N, the solution turns light blue.
Addition of aqueous NaCl to the blue solution gives white precipitate O. Addition of aqueous NH3 dissolves O and gives
an intense blue solution.
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*17. The total number of alkenes possible by dehydrobromination of 3-bromo-3-cyclopentylhexane using alcoholic KOH is
Sol.: The following possible alkenes will be formed for the given reaction:
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Br
CH3CH2–C–CH2CH2CH3
Alc. KOH
∴ The answer is 9.
18. A decapeptide (molecular weight 796) on complete hydrolysis gives glylcine (molecular weight 75), alanine and
phenylalanine. Glycine contributes 47.0% to the total weight of the hydrolysed products. The number of glycine units present
in the decapeptide is
Sol.: For hydrolysis of a peptide number of water molecules required = (n –1).
Where n is number of peptide linkages.
So, for a decapeptide total H2O molecules needed = 9.
Now total molecular mass of all amino acids forming the decapeptide = 796 + 9 (18)
= 796 + 162
= 958
Mass contribution of Glycine = 47 % of 958
= 450.26
450.26
Number of glycine units in the decapeptide = =6
75
∴ The answer is 6.
*19. To an evacuated vessel with movable piston under external pressure of 1 atm., 0.1 mol of He and 1.0 mol of an unknown
compound (vapour pressure 0.68 atm. at 0°C) are introduced. Considering the ideal gas behaviour, the total volume (in litre)
of the gases at 0°C is close to
Sol.: External pressure = 1 atm.
Vapour pressure of unknown compound at 0°C = 0.68 atm.
Partial pressure of He = 1 – 0.68 = 0.32 atm.
If V is the total volume of gases at 0°C then
0.32 × V = 0.1 × 0.0821 × 273
∴ V = 7 litres.
∴ The answer is 7.
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*20. The work function (φ) of some metals is listed below. The number of metals which will show photoelectric effect when light
of 300 nm wavelength falls on the metal is
Metal Li Na K Mg Cu Ag Fe Pt W
φ (eV) 2.4 2.3 2.2 3.7 4.8 4.3 4.7 6.3 4.75
*21. The maximum number of electrons that can have principal quantum number, n = 3, and spin quantum number, ms = –1/2, is
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Sol.: Total number of electrons in 3rd shell = 2 × (32) = 18.
Now, 9 electrons have ms = +1/2 and 9 electrons have ms = –1/2.
∴ The answer is 9.
22. Reaction of Br2 with Na2CO3 in aqueous solution gives sodium bromide and sodium bromate with evolution of CO2 gas.
The number of sodium bromide molecules involved in the balanced chemical equation is
Sol.: 3Na2CO3 + 3Br2 → 5NaBr + NaBrO3 + 3CO2
This is disproportionation reaction of bromine. Five molecules of NaBr are involved in the reaction.
∴ The answer is 5.
23. The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two types of sulphur atoms in Na2S4O6 is
O O
+ – o o – +
Sol.: Na2S4O6 (Sodium tetrathionate) has structure Na O—S—S—S—S—O Na
O O
+5 +5
Difference between oxidation numbers of the two different sulphur atoms = 5 – 0 = 5
∴ The answer is 5.
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Sol.: Effective length of the wire l0 = 100 + (1 + 2) = 103 cm
Balancing length (l) = 52 + 1 = 53 cm
Rl 10 × 53 530
X = = = = 10.6 Ω
l 0 − l 103 − 53 50
Correct choice: (B)
*26. A police car with a siren of frequency 8 kHz is moving with uniform velocity 36 km/hr towards a tall building which reflects
the sound waves. The speed of sound in air is 320 m/s. The frequency of the siren heard by the car driver is
(A) 8.50 kHz (B) 8.25 kHz (C) 7.75 kHz (D) 7.50 kHz
320 + 10
Sol.: ν′ = 8 kHz = 8.5 kHz
320 − 10
Correct choice (A)
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*27. 5.6 liter of helium gas at STP is adiabatically compressed to 0.7 liter. Taking the initial temperature to be T1, the work done
in the process is
9 3 15 9
(A) R T1 (B) R T1 (C) R T1 (D) R T1
8 2 8 2
γ −1 5
−1
V 5.6 3
Sol.: T2 = T1 1 = T1 = 4 T1
V2 0.7
5.6 3 9
W = |– nCv ∆T| = × R × (4T1 − T1 ) = RT1
22.4 2 8
Correct choice: (A)
r
28. Consider an electric field E = E0 xˆ , where E0 is a Z
constant. The flux through the shaded area (as shown in (a,0,a) (a,a,a)
the figure) due to this field is
(A) 2 E 0 a 2 (B) 2 E0 a 2
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E0 a 2 (0,0,0) (0,a,0)
Y
(C) E0 a 2 (D)
2
X
Sol.: Projected area on the y – z plane = a2
∴ flux = E0 a2
Correct choice: (C)
29. The wavelength of the first spectral line in the Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 6561 Å. The wavelength of the second
spectral line in the Balmer series of singly-ionized helium atom is
(A) 1215 Å (B) 1640 Å (C) 2430 Å (D) 4687 Å
1 2 1 1 5
Sol.: = R (1) − = R
λ1 4 9 36
1 1 1 3
= R (2)2 − = R
λ2 4 16 4
λ2 5
= ⇒ λ2 = 1215 Å
λ1 27
Correct choice: (A)
Sol.: Tcosθ = mg
T sinθ = ml sinθ ω2 ∴ T = mlω2
Tmax = mlω 2max L
θ
324 = 0.5 × 0.5 ω 2max T
324
ω 2max = × 100 m
25
ω max = 18 × 2 = 36
Correct choice: (D)
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31. An electron and a proton are moving on straight parallel paths with same velocity. They enter a semi-infinite region of
uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the velocity. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(A) They will never come out of the magnetic field region.
(B) They will come out traveling along parallel paths.
(C) They will come out at the same time.
(D) They will come out at different times.
πm
Sol.: Both follow semicircular path in the magnetic field for the time t =
qB
Correct choices: (B), (D)
32. A spherical metal shell A of radius RA and a solid metal sphere B of radius RB (< RA) are kept far apart and each is given
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charge ‘+Q’. Now they are connected by a thin metal wire. Then
(A) E Ainside = 0 (B) QA > QB
σ A RB
(C) = (D) E Aon surface < E Bon surface
σ B RA
Sol.: (A) Electric field inside the spherical shell is zero
RA RB
Q A C AV R +Q
(B) = = A
QB C BV RB
σ A RB
solid
(C) VA = VB ⇒ σ A RA = σ B RB ⇒ = shell
σ B RA
E A σ A RB
(D) = =
EB σ B RA
Correct choices: (A), (B), (C), (D)
Ql
(C) ∆T = QR = is least for E
KA
Correct choices: (A), (C), (D) (Option (B) can be correct)
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*34. A metal rod of length ‘L’ and mass ‘m’ is pivoted at one end. A thin disk of mass ‘M’
and radius ‘R’ (< L) is attached at its center to the free end of the rod. Consider two
ways the disk is attached: (case A) The disk is not free to rotate about its centre and
(case B) the disk is free to rotate about its centre. The rod-disk system performs SHM
in vertical plane after being released from the same displaced position. Which of the
following statement(s) is (are) true?
(A) Restoring torque in case A = Restoring torque in case B.
(B) Restoring torque in case A < restoring torque in case B.
(C) Angular frequency for case A > Angular frequency for case B.
(D) Angular frequency for case A < Angular frequency for case B.
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Correct choices: (A), (D)
SECTION − III (Total Marks: 15)
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based on the other
paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
36. Estimate the wavelength at which plasma reflection will occur for a metal having the density of electrons N ≈ 4 × 1027 m–3.
Take ε0 ≈ 10–11 and m ≈ 10–30, where these quantities are in proper SI units.
(A) 800 nm (B) 600 nm (C) 300 nm (D) 200 nm
Ne 2 c
Sol.: = ω p = 2πν = 2π
mε 0 λ
mε 0
λ = 2πc ≈ 600 nm
Ne 2
Correct choice: (B)
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Momentum
Position
*37. The phase space diagram for a ball thrown vertically up from ground is
Momentum Momentum
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(A) (B)
Position Position
Momentum Momentum
(C)
(D)
Position Position
Momentum
*38. The phase space diagram for simple harmonic motion is a circle
centered at the origin. In the figure, the two circles represent the same
oscillator but for different initial conditions, and E1 and E2 are the total E1
E2
mechanical energies respectively. Then
2a
(A) E1 = 2 E 2 (B) E1 = 2 E 2
a Position
(C) E1 = 4 E 2 (D) E1 = 16 E 2
p2
Sol.: E=
2m
p2 + x2 = a2
2mE + x2 = a2
2mE2 = a2
2mE1 = 4a2
E1
=4
E2
Correct choice: (C)
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*39. Consider the spring-mass system, with the mass submerged in water, as shown in the figure. The phase space diagram for
one cycle of this system is
Momentum Momentum
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(A)
(B)
Position
Position
Momentum Momentum
(D)
(C)
Position
Position
Sol.: From extreme positive position (of x), the momentum starts increasing in negative direction (with energy dissipation) and
gradually returns back to less positive position as pf < pi (due to energy dissipation).
Correct choice: (B)
SECTION − IV (Total Marks: 28)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The bubble
corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS.
µ0 I l
B=
L
Now, φ = BA
µ 0 I 0 cos(300t )× πr 2
φ=
L
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*41. Four solid spheres each of diameter 5 cm and mass 0.5 kg are placed with their centres at the corners of a square of side
4 cm. The moment of inertia of the system about the diagonal of the square is N × 10–4 kg-m2, then N is
2
2 a
Sol.: I = 4× MR 2 + 2M
5 2
2 5
I = 4 × × 0.5 × ×10 − 4 + 2 × 0.5 × 8 ×10 − 4 2a
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5 4 2
I = 9 ×10 −4 kg m2
∴ The answer is 9
42. The activity of a freshly prepared radioactive sample is 1010 disintegrations per second, whose mean life is 109 s. The mass
of an atom of this radioisotope is 10–25 kg. The mass (in mg) of the radioactive sample is
dN
Sol.: − = λN
dt
dN 1 1 –1
Given, − = 1010 , λ = = s
dt t av 10 9
1 dN 19
∴ N= − = 10
λ dt
Total mass = 10–25 × 1019 kg = 1 mg
∴ The answer is 1
*43. Steel wire of length ‘L’ at 40o C is suspended from the ceiling and then a mass ‘m’ is hung from its free end. The wire is
cooled down from 40oC to 30oC to regain its original length ‘L’. The coefficient of linear thermal expansion of the steel is
10–5 / oC, Young’s modulus of steel is 1011 N/m2 and radius of the wire is 1 mm. Assume that L >> diameter of the wire.
Then the value of ‘m in kg is nearly
Sol.: mg = YAα∆T
m=
( ) 2
αAY∆T 10 −5 × π 10 −3 × 1011 × 10
=
g 10
m = π kg = 3.14 kg
∴ The answer is 3
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44. Four point charges, each of +q, are rigidly fixed at the four corners of a square planar soap film of side ‘a’. The surface
1/ N
q2
tension of the soap film is γ. The system of charges and planar film are in equilibrium, and a = k , where ‘k’ is a
γ
constant. Then N is
kq 2 kq 2 kq 2 kq 2
Sol.: 2 +2 = 2 γa
a 2
2 2a 2
kq 2 a2 a2
kq 2
q 2 2a 2 2a 2
⇒ a3 ∝
γ kq 2 kq 2
1 a2 a2
q2 3
a ∝
γ
∴ The answer is 3
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*45. A block is moving on an inclined plane making an angle 45o with the horizontal and the coefficient of friction is µ. The force
required to just push it up the inclined plane is 3 times the force required to just prevent it from sliding down. If we define
N = 10 µ, then N is
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a10 − 2a8
*47. Let α and β be the roots of x 2 − 6 x − 2 = 0, with α > β. If a n = α n − β n for n ≥ 1, then the value of is
2a 9
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
a10 − 2a8
Sol.:
2a9
®
=
2( α 9 − β9 )
α8 (α 2 − 2) − β8 (β2 − 2)
=
2 ( α 9 − β9 )
=
α8 .6α − β8 .6β
2 ( α 9 − β9 )
[Q α 2
− 6α − 2 = 0 & β2 − 6β − 2 = 0 ]
=3
Correct choice: (C)
*48. A straight line L through the point (3, –2) is inclined at an angle 60º to the line 3 x + y = 1. If L also intersects the x-axis,
then the equation of L is
(A) y + 3 x + 2 − 3 3 = 0 (B) y − 3 x + 2 + 3 3 = 0 (C) 3 y − x + 3 + 2 3 = 0 (D) 3 y + x − 3 + 2 3 = 0
Sol.:
Equation will be y + 2 = 3 ( x − 3) y-axis
3x + y = 1
⇒ y − 3x + 2 + 3 3 = 0
Correct choice: (B) 2π/3 π/3
O π/3 x-axis
π/3 P (3, –2)
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ln 3
x sin x 2
50. The value of
∫
ln 2
sin x + sin(ln 6 − x 2 )
2
dx is
1 3 1 3 3 1 3
(A) ln (B) ln (C) ln (D) ln
4 2 2 2 2 6 2
Sol.: Put x 2 = t ⇒ 2 x dx = dt
ln 3
1 sin t
I=
2 ∫ sin t + sin(ln 6 − t ) dt
ln 2
b b
Using property
∫ f ( x)dx =∫ f (a + b − x)dx
a a
ln 3
1 1
⇒ 2I =
2 ∫ dt = 2 (ln 3 − ln 2)
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ln 2
1 3
⇒ I= ln .
4 2
Correct choice: (A)
r r r r r r
51. Let a = iˆ + ˆj + kˆ, b = iˆ − ˆj + kˆ and c = iˆ − ˆj − kˆ be three vectors. A vector v in the plane of a and b , whose projection on
r 1
c is , is given by
3
(A) iˆ − 3 ˆj + 3kˆ (B) − 3iˆ − 3 ˆj − kˆ (C) 3iˆ − ˆj + 3kˆ (D) iˆ + 3 ˆj − 3kˆ
r r r
Sol.: v = λa + µb
= (λ + µ)iˆ + ˆj (λ − µ) + kˆ(λ + µ)
rr
v .c 1
Now r = ⇒ (λ + µ ) − (λ − µ ) − ( λ + µ ) = 1 ⇒ µ − λ = 1
|c | 3
r
So v = (1 + 2λ)iˆ − ˆj + (1 + 2λ )kˆ
Then take λ =1
Correct choice: (C)
*52. { } { }
Let P = θ : sin θ − cos θ = 2 cos θ and Q = θ : sin θ + cos θ = 2 sin θ be two sets. Then
(A) P ⊂ Q and Q − P ≠ ∅ (B) Q ⊄ P (C) P ⊄ Q (D) P = Q
53. Let the straight line x = b divide the area enclosed by y = (1 − x) 2 , y = 0 and x = 0 into two parts R1 (0 ≤ x ≤ b) and
1
R 2 (b ≤ x ≤ 1) such that R1 − R 2 = . Then b equals
4
3 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 2 3 4
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b 1
1
Sol.:
∫
0
∫
( x − 1) 2 dx − ( x − 1) 2 dx =
b
4
1
b 1
3 3
( x − 1) ( x − 1) 1
⇒ − =
3 3 4
0 b 0 b 1
3
(b − 1) 1
⇒ 2 =−
3 12
−1 1
or b −1 = ⇒b= .
2 2
Correct choice: (B)
®
OR MORE may be correct.
54. Let M and N be two 3× 3 non-singular skew-symmetric matrices such that MN = NM . If P T denotes the transpose of P,
then M 2 N 2 ( M T N ) −1 ( MN −1 ) T is equal to
(A) M 2 (B) − N 2 (C) – M 2 (D) MN
Sol.: (The order can not be 3× 3 as it will be singular matrix. Solving the problem taking order as 2n × 2n , where n ∈ N )
M 2 N 2 ( M T N ) −1 ( MN −1 ) T
= − MN MN ( MN ) −1 ( MN −1 ) T (as MN = NM )
= − MN (( N T ) −1 M T )
= −M 2 .
Correct choice: (C)
55. The vector(s) which is/are coplanar with vectors iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ and iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ , and perpendicular to the vector iˆ + ˆj + kˆ is/are
Alternative
r
Let c is coplanar with vectors iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ and iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ .
r
So c = x(iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ) + y (iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ )
= ( x + y )iˆ + ( x + 2 y ) ˆj + (2 x + y )kˆ.
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r
Since, c is ⊥ to vector iˆ + ˆj + kˆ,
So x + y + x + 2 y + 2x + y = 0
⇒ y = −x
r
c = x(iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ) − x(iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ)
= x(− ˆj + kˆ)
If x = 1 = − ˆj + kˆ
If x = −1 = ˆj − kˆ
Correct choice: (A), (D)
x2 y2
*56. Let the eccentricity of the hyperbola 2
− = 1 be reciprocal to that of the ellipse x 2 + 4 y 2 = 4. If the hyperbola passes
a b2
through a focus of the ellipse, then
®
x2 y2
(A) the equation of the hyperbola is − =1 (B) a focus of the hyperbola is (2, 0)
3 2
5
(C) the eccentricity of the hyperbola is (D) the equation of the hyperbola is x 2 − 3 y 2 = 3
3
x2 y2 x2 y2
Sol.: Given equation of hyperbola 2
− 2
= 1, eccentricity of ellipse + = 1, where a 2 = 4, b 2 = 1
a b 4 1
3
e= , and foci (± 3 , 0)
2
2
So eccentricity of hyperbola e1 =
3
2
So b 2 = a 2 (e1 − 1)
4 a2
b 2 = a 2 − 1 =
3 3
a 2 = 3b 2
Since hyperbola passes through a focus
(± 3 , 0) of ellipse
3 0
So − =1 ⇒ a2 = 3
a2 b2
⇒ b2 =1
x2 y2
So equation of hyperbola is − =1
3 1
x 2 − 3y 2 = 3
Foci of hyperbola (± ae, 0)
2
⇒ (± 3 × , 0)
3
⇒ (±2, 0) .
Correct choice: (B), (D)
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®
f ' ( x) = f ' (0) ⇒ f ( x) = xf ' (0) + c
f ( 0) = 0 ⇒ c = 0 ⇒ f ( x ) = x f ' ( 0 )
⇒ f ' ( x) is constant ∀ x ∈ R.
Correct choice: (B), (C)
Let U 1 and U 2 be two urns such that U 1 contains 3 white and 2 red balls, and U 2 contains only 1 white ball. A fair coin is
tossed. If head appears then 1 ball is drawn at random from U 1 and put into U 2 . However, if tail appears then 2 balls are
drawn at random from U 1 and put into U 2 . Now 1 ball is drawn at random from U 2 .
58. The probability of the drawn ball from U 2 being white is
13 23 19 11
(A) (B) (C) (D)
30 30 30 30
1 C1 C 1 1 3C C1 × 2 C1 2
3 2 2 3
C 1
× 5 + 5 1 × + × 5 2 ×1 + 5 2 × + ×
2 C1 C1 2 2 C 2 C2 3 5
C2 3
1 3 1 3 1 12
= + + + +
2 5 5 10 30 30
23
=
30
Correct choice: (B)
59. Given that the drawn ball from U 2 is white, the probability that head appeared on the coin is
17 11 15 12
(A) (B) (C) (D)
23 23 23 23
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1 4
×
E1 2 5 12
Sol.: P = =
A
1 4 1 22 23
× + ×
2 5 2 30
Correct choice: (D)
60. If the point P(a, b, c), with reference to (E), lies on the plane 2 x + y + z = 1, then the value of 7 a + b + c is
(A) 0 (B) 12 (C) 7 (D) 6
1 9 7
®
Sol.: As 8 2 7 =0
7 3 7
⇒ 7a + b + c = 6
Correct choice: (D)
3 1 3
61. Let ω be a solution of x 3 − 1 = 0 with Im(ω) > 0 . If a = 2 with b and c satisfying (E), then the value of + + is
ωa ωb ωc
equal to
(A) –2 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) –3
Sol.: If a = 2 ⇒ b = 12, c = −14
3 1 3
+ + = 1 + 3(ω + ω 2 ) = −2 .
ω 2 12
ω ω −14
Correct choice: (A)
62. Let b = 6, with a and c satisfying (E). If α and β are the roots of the quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0, then
∞ n
1 1
∑ +
n =0
α β
6
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) (D) ∞
7
Sol.: b = 6 ⇒ a = 1, c = −7
x 2 + 6x − 7 = 0
1 1 −6 6
+ = =
α β −7 7
∞ n
∑ 6 1
⇒ = =7.
7 6
n =0 1−
7
Correct choice: (B)
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*63. The minimum value of the sum of real numbers a −5 , a −4 ,3a −3 , 1, a 8 and a 10 with a > 0 is
Sol.: a −5 + a −4 + 3a −3 + 1 + a 8 + a 10
1 1 3
⇒ 5
+ 4
+ + 1 + a 8 + a 10
a a a3
1 1 1 1 1
⇒ + + + + + a 8 + a 10 + 1 ≥ 8 (by using A.M. ≥ G.M.))
a5 a4 a3 a3 a3
Ans. 8
sin θ
64. Let f (θ) = sin tan −1 , where − π < θ < π . Then the value of d
( f (θ)) is
cos 2θ 4 4 d (tan θ)
®
sin θ
Sol.: tan −1 = sin −1 sin θ
cos 2θ 2
1 − sin θ
= sin −1 (tan θ)
sin θ π π
⇒ sin tan −1 −1
= sin(sin (tan θ)) = tan θ as θ ∈ − ,
cos 2 θ 4 4
d
⇒ ( f (θ)) = 1
d (tan θ)
Ans. 1
M (3, 2)
X
N
O (2, 0)
5/2
(3, –5/2)
x
66.
∫
Let f : [1, ∞ ) → [2, ∞ ) be a differentiable function such that f (1) = 2. If 6 f (t ) dt = 3 x f ( x) − x 3 for all x ≥ 1, then the
1
value of f (2) is
x
Sol.:
∫
*(To get the correct equation which satisfies f (1) = 2 , the question should have been 6 f (t )dt = 3 x f ( x) − x 3 − 5 )
1
Differentiate both sides w.r.t. x
we get
6 f ( x) = 3xf ' ( x) + 3 f ( x) − 3x 2
From differential equation
dy
6 y = 3x + 3 y − 3x 2
dx
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dy
⇒ 3x − 3 y = 3x 2
dx
dy y
⇒ − = x ⇒ f ( x) = x 2 + x
dx x
⇒ f (2) = 4 + 2 = 6
Ans. 6
1 1 1
*67. The positive integer value of n > 3 satisfying the equation = + is
π 2π 3π
sin sin sin
n n n
2π 3π
sin + sin
1 n n
Sol.: =
π 3π
2 π
sin sin . sin
n n n
4π 3π
⇒ sin − sin =0
n n
®
7π π
⇒ =
2n 2
n=7.
Ans. 7
p
*68. Let a1 , a 2 , a 3 , ..., a100 be an arithmetic progression with a1 = 3 and S p = ∑ a , 1 ≤ p ≤ 100.
i =1
i For any integer n with
Sm
1 ≤ n ≤ 20, let m = 5n. If does not depend on n, then a 2 is
Sn
m
Sm
{2a1 + (m − 1)d }
Sol.: = 2
Sn n
{2a1 + (n − 1)d }
2
6 + (5n − 1)d
= 5
6 + (n − 1)d
6 − d + 5nd
= 5
6 − d + nd
This will be independent of n if
d =6
∴ a2 = 3 + 6 = 9
Ans. 9
*69. Consider the parabola y 2 = 8 x. Let ∆ 1 be the area of the triangle formed by the end points of its latus rectum and the point
1
P , 2 on the parabola, and ∆ 2 be the area of the triangle formed by drawing tangents at P and at the end points of the
2
∆
latus rectum. Then 1 is
∆2
∆1
Sol.: = 2 since the area of the triangle formed by 3 points on a parabola is twice the area of the triangle formed by the
∆2
tangents at these points.
Ans. 2
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(Code: 2)
INSTRUCTIONS
®
A. General:
1. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet.
2. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets are NOT allowed.
4. Write your name and registration number in the space provided on the back page of this
booklet.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Optical Response Sheet (ORS), is provided
separately.
6. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MULTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by
the invigilators.
8. This Question Paper contains 60 questions.
9. On breaking the seals, please check that all the questions are legible.
B. Filling the Right Part of the ORS:
10. The ORS also has a CODE printed on its Left and Right parts.
11. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the codes do not
match, ask for a change of the booklet.
12. Write your Name, Registration No. and the name of centre and sign with pen in the boxes
provided. Do not write them anywhere else. Darken the appropriate bubble UNDER
each digit of your registration No. with a good quality HB pencil.
C. Question paper format and Marking Scheme:
13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics). Each part
consists of four sections.
14. In Section I (Total Marks: 24), for each question you will be awarded 3 marks if you
darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no
bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
15. In Section II (Total Marks: 16), for each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you
darken ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY and zero marks
otherwise. There are no negative marks in this section.
16. In Section III (Total Marks: 24), for each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you
darken ONLY the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks otherwise.
There are no negative marks in this section.
17. In Section IV (Total Marks: 16), for each question you will be awarded 2 marks for each
row in which you have darkened ALL the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s)
ONLY and zero marks otherwise. There are no negative marks in this section.
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Note: Questions with (*) mark are from syllabus of class XI.
®
1. Among the following complexes (K–P),
K3[Fe(CN)6] (K), [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (L), Na3[Co(oxalate)3] (M), [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 (N), K2[Pt(CN)4] (O) and [Zn(H2O)6](NO3)2 (P)
the diamagnetic complexes are
(A) K, L, M, N (B) K, M, O, P
(C) L, M, O, P (D) L, M, N, O
Sol.: E.C. Ligand Magnetic character
(K) Fe3+ 3d54s0 Strong field ligand Paramagnetic
3+ 6 0
(L) Co 3d 4s Strong field ligand Diamagnetic
(M) Co3+ 3d64s0 Strong field ligand Diamagnetic
2+ 8 0
(N) Ni 3d 4s Weak field ligand Paramagnetic
(O) Pt2+ 5d86s0 Strong field ligand Diamagnetic
2+ 10 0
(P) Zn 3d 4s Weak field ligand Diamagnetic
2. Passing H2S gas into a mixture of Mn2+, Ni2+, Cu2+ and Hg2+ ions in an acidified aqueous solution precipitates
(A) CuS and HgS (B) MnS and CuS
(C) MnS and NiS (D) NiS and HgS
Sol.: Cu2+ and Hg2+ belong to group II. So, on passing H2S gas, in acidified aqueous solution, they will precipitate as CuS and HgS
respectively because their solubility product values are low.
Correct choice: (A)
At [Fe2+] = 10–3 M, P(O2) = 0.1 atm and pH = 3, the cell potential at 25°C is
(A) 1.47 V (B) 1.77 V
(C) 1.87 V (D) 1.57 V
0.059 (10 −3 ) 2
Sol.: Ecell = 1.67 – log
4 (10 −3 ) 4 × 0.1
0.059
= 1.67 – log 107
4
0.059 × 7
= 1.67 – = 1.67 – 0.1
4
= 1.57 V.
Correct choice: (D)
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4. The freezing point (in °C) of a solution containing 0.1 g of K3[Fe(CN)6] (molecular weight 329) in 100 g of water
(Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1) is
(A) –2.3 × 10–2 (B) –5.7 × 10–2
(C) –5.7 × 10–3 (D) –1.2 × 10–2
Sol.: ∆Tf = i × Kf × m
0.1× 1000
∆Tf = 4 × 1.86 × = 2.26 × 10–2
329 × 100
≈ 2.3 × 10–2 ⇒ Tf = 0 – 2.3 × 10–2 °C.
Correct choice: (A)
5. Amongst the compounds given, the one that would form a brilliant colored dye on treatment with NaNO2 in dil. HCl
followed by addition to an alkaline solution of β-naphthol is
N(CH3)2 NHCH3
(A) (B)
®
NH2 CH2NH2
(C) (D)
H3C
OH
HO
NH2 N 2+ Cl − N=N CH3
NaNO2 + HCl
Sol.:
H3 C H3 C Red dye
O H+ (anhydrous)
H
–H ⊕
⊕
O OCH2R O O—CH2R
Acetal
H
Correct choice: (B)
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*8. Oxidation states of the metal in the minerals haematite and magnetite, respectively, are
(A) (II), (III) in haematite and (III) in magnetite. (B) (II), (III) in haematite and (II) in magnetite.
(C) (II) in haematite and (II), (III) in magnetite. (D) (III) in haematite and (II), (III) in magnetite.
III
Sol.: Haematite: Fe 2 O 3
III II
Magnetite: Fe3O4 → Fe2O3 + FeO
Correct choice: (D)
SECTION – II (Total Marks: 16)
(Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE may be correct.
9. The equilibrium
2Cu+ Cuo + Cu2+
®
in aqueous medium at 25oC shifts towards the left in the presence of
Sol.: Cuprous compounds can be obtained by passing SO2 through a solution containing copper sulphate and sodium salt.
2 N 2 O 5 (g )
→ 4 NO 2 (g ) + O 2 (g)
(A) the concentration of the reactant decreases exponentially with time.
(B) the half-life of the reaction decreases with increasing temperature.
(C) the half-life of the reaction depends on the initial concentration of the reactant.
(D) the reaction proceeds to 99.6% completion in eight half-life duration.
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11. The correct functional group X and the reagent/reaction conditions Y in the following scheme are
(i) Y
X—(CH2)4—X condensation polymer
O O
(ii) C—(CH2)4—C
HO OH
heat
H2/Ni/∆
Sol.: (A) CH3OOC—(CH2)4—COOCH3 HO—CH2—(CH2)4—CH2—OH
H2/Ni/∆
(B) H2NOC—(CH2)4—CONH2 H2N—CH2—(CH2)4—CH2—NH2
Br2/NaOH
(C) H2NOC—(CH2)4—CO—NH2 H H2N—(CH2)4—NH2
H2/Ni/∆
(D) NC—(CH2)4—CN H2N—CH2— (CH2)4—CH2—NH2
There is a formation of condensation products with acid and amine or alcohol.
®
Correct choice: (A), (B), (C) & (D)
12. Reduction of the metal centre in aqueous permanganate ion involves
(A) 3 electrons in neutral medium (B) 5 electrons in neutral medium
(C) 3 electrons in alkaline medium (D) 5 electrons in acidic medium
Sol.: In neutral and alkaline media
MnO 4− + 2H 2 O + 3e − → MnO 2 + 4OH −
In acidic medium
MnO 4− + 8H + + 5e − → Mn +2 + 4H 2 O
Correct choice: (A), (C) & (D)
SECTION−III (Total Marks: 24)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The bubble corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS.
*13. The volume (in mL) of 0.1 M AgNO3 required for complete precipitation of chloride ions present in 30 mL of 0.01 M
solution of [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2, as silver chloride is close to
Sol.: →[Cr ( H 2 O) 5 Cl]+2 + 2Cl −
[Cr (H 2 O) 5 Cl]Cl 2
∴ m moles of Cl − = 30 × 2 × 0.01
On adding AgNO3, m moles of Ag+ required to precipitate all Cl– ions is equal to m moles of Cl–.
∴ 0.1 × V = 30 × 2 × 0.01 ; ∴ V(AgNO3) = 6 ml
∴ The answer is 6.
*14. In 1 L saturated solution of AgCl [Ksp(AgCl)=1.6 × 10–10], 0.1 mol of CuCl [Ksp(CuCl) = 1.0 × 10–6] is added. The resultant
concentration of Ag+ in the solution is 1.6 × 10–x. The value of “x” is
S CuCl = K sp = 1× 10 −6 = 1 × 10–3 M
–
AgCl Ag+ + Cl–3
x 10 + (1.26 × 10–5)
≈10–3
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15. The number of hexagonal faces that are present in a truncated octahedron is
Sol.: The answer is 8.
16. The maximum number of isomers (including stereoisomers) that are possible on monochlorination of the following
compound, is
CH3
C
CH3CH2
H CH2CH3
CH3
CH3 CH2Cl *C CH3
CH3CH2 * *C—CH
C C CH 2— CH2Cl
Sol.: (i) CH3CH2 (ii) CH3CH2 (iii) H CH3 (iv) CH3CH2
Cl CH2CH3 H CH2CH3 Cl H
4-optical isomers 2-optical isomers
∴ The answer is 8.
*17. The total number of contributing structures showing hyperconjugation (involving C–H bonds) for the following carbocation is
H3C ⊕ CH2CH3
®
Sol.: Total number of hyperconjugation structures is one more than the total number of α-H atoms.
∴ The answer is 7.
18. Among the following, the number of compounds that can react with PCl5 to give POCl3 is
O2, CO2, SO2, H2O, H2SO4, P4O10
Sol.: PCl5 reacts with each of SO2, H2O, H2SO4 and P4O10 to form POCl3.
PCl5 + H2O (insufficient) → POCl3 + 2HCl
2PCl5 + H2SO4 or SO2(OH)2 → SO2Cl2 + 2POCl3 + 2HCl.
PCl5 + SO2 → SOCl2 + POCl3
6PCl5 + P4O10 → 10POCl3
∴ The answer is 4.
SECTION − IV (Total Marks : 16)
(Matrix − Match Type)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five
statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE or MORE
statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in
q and r, then for the particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
19. Match the reactions in column I with appropriate types of steps/reactive intermediate involved in these reactions as given in
column II.
Column I Column II
H3C O O (p) Nucleophilic substitution
O
aq. NaOH
(A)
O 18O
18
CH2CH2CH2OH H2SO4 (r) Dehydration
(C)
H 3C CH3
(t) Carbanion
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Sol.: (A) – (r), (s), (t) ; (B) – (p), (s) ; (C) – (r), (s) ; (D) – (q), (r)
*20. Match the transformations in column I with appropriate options in column II.
Column I Column II
(C) 2H •
→ H 2 (g ) (r) ∆H is positive
(t) ∆S is negative
Sol.: (A) – (p), (r), (s) ; (B) – (p), (r), (s) ; (C) – (t) ; (D) – (q), (t)
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*21. A satellite is moving with a constant speed ‘V’ in a circular orbit about the earth. An object of mass ‘m’ is ejected from the
satellite such that it just escapes from the gravitational pull of the earth. At the time of its ejection, the kinetic energy of the
object is
1 3
(A) mV 2 (B) mV 2 (C) mV 2 (D) 2mV 2
2 2
GMm
Sol.: To move object to infinity − +K =0
r
®
GMm GM
K= = mV 2 V =
r r
Correct choice: (B)
22. A long insulated copper wire is closely wound as a spiral of ‘N’ turns. The spiral has Y
inner radius ‘a’ and outer radius ‘b’. The spiral lies in the X-Y plane and a steady
current ‘I’ flows through the wire. The Z-component of the magnetic field at the center
of the spiral is
I a
µ0 N I b µ0 N I b + a
(A) ln (B) ln b X
2(b − a ) a 2(b − a ) b − a
µ0 N I b µ0 N I b + a
(C) ln (D) ln
2b a 2b b−a
µ 0 dNI N
Sol.: dB = , dN = dr dr
2r b−a
b r
µ IN dr µ NI b
⇒ dB = 0
2(b − a ) ∫
a
r
⇒ B= 0 ln
2(b − a ) a
r
Sol.: Fnet = 0 Aω2
r r r
⇒ a1 + a 2 + a 3 = 0 2π/3
By phasor addition φ Aω2
4π
∴ B = A and φ =
3 Bω2
Correct choice: (B)
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24. Which of the field patterns given below is valid for electric field as well as for magnetic field?
*25. A ball of mass 0.2 kg rests on a vertical post of height 5 m. A bullet V m/s
of mass 0.01 kg, traveling with a velocity V m/s in a horizontal
direction, hits the centre of the ball. After the collision, the ball and
bullet travel independently. The ball hits the ground at a distance of
20 m and the bullet at a distance of 100 m from the foot of the post.
The initial velocity V of the bullet is
®
(A) 250 m/s (B) 250 2 m/s
(C) 400 m/s (D) 500 m/s 0 20 100
2h
Sol.: R=u
g
2×5
⇒ 20 = u ball ⇒ u ball = 20 m/s
10
2×5
100 = ubullet ⇒ u bullet = 100 m/s
10
Now, by conservation of momentum
0.01 V = 0.01 u bullet + 0.2 u ball ⇒ V = 500 m/s
Correct choice: (D)
*26. The density of a solid ball is to be determined in an experiment. The diameter of the ball is measured with a screw gauge,
whose pitch is 0.5 mm and there are 50 divisions on the circular scale. The reading on the main scale is 2.5 mm and that on
the circular scale is 20 divisions. If the measured mass of the ball has a relative error of 2%, the relative percentage error in
the density is
(A) 0.9 % (B) 2.4 % (C) 3.1 % (D) 4.2 %
Pitch 0 .5
Sol.: LC = = = 0.01 mm
No. of div. on circular scale 50
Reading of diameter = MSR + LC × CSR = 2.5 + 0.01 × 20 = 2.70 mm
∆ρ ∆m 3∆d 0.01
×100% = ×100% + ×100% = 2% + 3 × × 100% = 3 .1 %
ρ m d 2.70
Correct choice: (C)
*27. A wooden block performs SHM on a frictionless surface with frequency, v0. The block E
r
carries a charge +Q on its surface. If now a uniform electric field E is switched-on as
shown, then the SHM of the block will be
+Q
(A) of the same frequency and with shifted mean position
(B) of the same frequency and with the same mean position
(C) of changed frequency and with shifted mean position
(D) of changed frequency and with the same mean position
Sol.: Electric field will shift the mean position and frequency will remain same.
Correct choice: (A)
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28. A light ray traveling in glass medium is incident on glass-air interface at an angle of incidence θ. The reflected (R) and
transmitted (T) intensities, both as function of θ, are plotted. The correct sketch is
100% 100%
T T
Intensity
Intensity
(A) (B)
R R
0 θ 90 0
0 θ 900
100% 100%
T T
Intensity
Intensity
(C) (D)
R R
®
0 θ 90 0 0 θ 900
29. A series R-C circuit is connected to AC voltage source. Consider two cases; (A) when C is without a dielectric medium and
(B) when C is filled with dielectric of constant 4. The current IR through the resistor and voltage VC across the capacitor are
compared in the two cases. Which of the following is/are true?
(A) I RA > I RB (B) I RA < I RB (C) VCA > VCB (D) VCA < VCB
1 1 X
Sol.: X1 = , X2 = ⇒ X2 = 1
ωC 4 ωC 4
X 12 E rms
Z 1 = R 2 + X 12 , Z 2 = R 2 + , I rms = , VC = I rms X C
16 R2 + X 2
∴ I RB > I RA and VCA > VCB
Correct choices: (B), (C)
Sol.: The work done by the external force in moving a unit positive charge from point A at potential VA to point B at potential VB is
(VB – VA) only when motion of charge particle is without acceleration. Since nothing is given about motion, so option (D) is
incorrect.
Correct choice: (C)
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*31. A thin ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is rolling without slipping on a
horizontal plane with velocity 1 m/s. A small ball of mass 0.1 kg, moving 10 m/s
with velocity 20 m/s in the opposite direction, hits the ring at a height of 20 m/s
0.75 m and goes vertically up with velocity 10 m/s. Immediately after the
collision 0.75m 1 m/s
(A) the ring has pure rotation about its stationary CM.
(B) the ring comes to a complete stop.
(C) friction between the ring and the ground is to the left.
(D) there is no friction between the ring and the ground.
*32. Two solid spheres A and B of equal volumes but of different densities dA
and dB are connected by a string. They are fully immersed in a fluid of
®
density dF. They get arranged into an equilibrium state as shown in the A
figure with a tension in the string. The arrangement is possible only if
(A) dA < dF (B) dB > dF
(C) dA > dF (D) dA + dB = 2dF B
Sol.:
F F
T
MAg MBg
F = T + M Ag …. (i)
F + T = MBg …. (ii)
(M A + M B ) g
From (i) & (ii), F = , as F = VdF g, MA = VdA and MB = VdB
2
V (d A + d B ) g d + dB
⇒ Vd F g = ⇒ dF = A …. (iii)
2 2
M −MA
Also, T = B g , Here, T > 0 ⇒ d B > d A
2
Also, from (iii) d B > d F and d A > d F
Correct choices: (A), (B), (D)
SECTION – III (Total Marks : 24)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The bubble
corresponding to the correct answer is to be darkened in the ORS.
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k x2
V = 2µg x + = 0.4 m/s
m
Q N = 10V = 4
∴ The answer is 4.
34. Two batteries of different emfs and different internal resistances are connected as shown. The voltage across AB in volts is
6V 1Ω
A B
3V 2Ω
E1 r2 + E 2 r1
®
Sol.: V= =5V
r1 + r2
∴ The answer is 5.
4 7
35. Water (with refractive index = ) in a tank is 18 cm deep. Oil of refractive index lies on water making a convex surface
3 4
of radius of curvature ‘R = 6 cm’ as shown. Consider oil to act as a thin lens. An object ‘S’ is placed 24 cm above water
surface. The location of its image is at ‘x’ cm above the bottom of the tank. Then ‘x’ is
S
µ=1.0
R = 6cm
µ=7/4
µ=4/3
36. A series R-C combination is connected to an AC voltage of angular frequency ω = 500 radian/s. If the impedance of the R-C
circuit is R 1.25 , the time constant (in millisecond) of the circuit is
Sol.: Z 2 = R 2 + X c2 ⇒ 1.25 R 2 = R 2 + X c2 ∴ X = 0.5 R
1
Also, = 0 .5 R
ωC
1
RC = = 4 × 10−3 s = 4 ms
0.5ω
∴ The answer is 4.
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37. A silver sphere of radius 1 cm and work function 4.7 eV is suspended from an insulating thread in free-space. It is under
continuous illumination of 200 nm wavelength light. As photoelectrons are emitted, the sphere gets charged and acquires a
potential. The maximum number of photoelectrons emitted from the sphere is A × 10Z (where 1 < A < 10). The value of ‘Z’ is
hc 1240
Sol.: E= = = 6.2 eV, E = φ + eV0 ⇒ 6.2 − 4.7 = eV0
λ 200
1 ne
V0 = 1.5 V = ∴ n = 1.04 × 107
4πε 0 r
This gives, Z = 7
∴ The answer is 7.
*38. A train is moving along a straight line with a constant acceleration ‘a’. A boy standing in the train throws a ball forward with
a speed of 10 m/s, at an angle of 60o to the horizontal. The boy has to move forward by 1.15 m inside the train to catch the
ball back at the initial height. The acceleration of the train, in m/s2, is
Sol.: u Xbt = u cos θ = 5 m/s, a Xbt = −a , X bt = 1.15 m
1 2u sin θ
From, = u Xbt T + a Xbt T 2 T = = 3 s ∴ a = 5 m/s2
®
X bt
2 g
∴ The answer is 5.
SECTION − IV (Total Marks : 16)
(Matrix-Match Type)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and five
statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more
statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q
and r, then for the particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
*39. Column I shows four systems, each of the same length L, for producing standing waves. The lowest possible natural
frequency of a system is called its fundamental frequency, whose wavelength is denoted as λf. Match each system with
statements given in Column II describing the nature and wavelength of the standing waves.
Column I Column II
(A) Pipe closed at one end (p) Longitudinal waves
0 L
(q) Transverse waves
(B) Pipe open at both ends
0 L
0 L
(s) λf = 2L
(D) Stretched wire clamped at both ends and at mid-point
0 L
L/2
(t) λf = 4L
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*40. One mole of a mono atomic ideal gas is taken through a cycle ABCDA as shown in the P-V diagram. Column II gives the
characteristics involved in the cycle. Match them with each of the processes given in Column I.
P
B A
3P
1P
C D
0 1V 3V 9V V
Column I Column II
®
(A) Process A → B (p) Internal energy decreases.
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®
⇒ α 2 + bα − 1 = 0 …(i)
2
And α +α+b = 0 …(ii)
Subtracting we get
b +1
(b − 1)α = 1 + b ⇒ α =
b −1
Substituting the value of α in equation (i)
2
b +1 b +1
⇒ + b −1 = 0
b −1 b −1
⇒ b 3 + 3b = 0 ⇒ b = ± 3i, 0
Correct choice: (B)
42. Let ω ≠ 1 be a cube root of unity and S be the set of all non-singular matrices of the form
1 a b
ω 1 c ,
ω2 ω 1
where each of a, b and c is either ω or ω 2 . Then the number of distinct matrices in the set S is
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 8
1 a b
Sol.: det ω 1 c
2
ω ω 1
= 1 − ωc + a (ω 2 c − ω) + b(ω 2 − ω 2 )
= 1 + acω 2 − ω(a + c)
Case IV : If a = ω 2 and c = ω 2 ⇒ 1 + 1 − 2ω 3 = 0
Hence, number of distinct matrices = 2
Correct choice: (A)
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*43. The circle passing through the point (–1, 0) and touching the y-axis at (0, 2) also passes through the point
3 5 3 5
(A) − , 0 (B) − , 2 (C) − , (D) (−4, 0)
2 2 2 2
Sol.: ( x − h ) 2 + ( y − 2) 2 = h 2
−5 (h, 2)
(h + 1) 2 + 4 = h 2 ⇒ h = (0, 2)
2
2
5 25
Circle is x + + ( y − 2) 2 =
2 4
Correct choice: (D)
[ ]
1
®
44. If lim 1 + x ln(1 + b 2 ) x = 2b sin 2 θ, b > 0 and θ ∈ ( − π, π] , then the value of θ is
x →0
π π π π
(A) ± (B) ± (C) ± (D) ±
4 3 6 2
[ ( )]
1
Sol.: lim 1 + x ln 1 + b 2 x
x →0
2 1
lim x ln(1+ b )× x
= e x →0 = 1+ b 2
⇒ 1 + b 2 = 2b sin 2 θ
1+ b2 1 1
⇒ sin 2 θ = = + b
2b 2b
1
⇒ +b ≥ 2
b
⇒ sin 2 θ ≥ 1
⇒ sin θ = ±1
π
⇒ θ=±
2
Correct choice: (D)
2
45. Let f : [−1, 2] → [0, ∞) be a continuous function such that f ( x) = f (1 − x) for all x ∈ [−1, 2] . Let R1 =
∫ x f ( x) dx , and R
−1
2
be the area of the region bounded by y = f ( x), x = −1, x = 2 , and the x-axis. Then
(A) R1 = 2 R2 (B) R1 = 3R2 (C) 2 R1 = R2 (D) 3R1 = R2
2
Sol.: R1 =
∫ x f ( x)dx
−1
⇒
∫
R1 = (1 − x) f ( x)dx
−1
2 2
⇒ 2 R1 =
∫
−1
f ( x)dx, R 2 =
∫ f ( x)dx
−1
Hence, 2 R1 = R 2
Correct choice: (C)
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46. Let f ( x) = x 2 and g ( x) = sin x for all x ∈ R . Then the set of all x satisfying ( f o g o g o f ) ( x) = ( g o g o f )( x ) ,
where ( f o g ) ( x) = f ( g ( x)) , is
®
*47. Let ( x, y ) be any point on the parabola y 2 = 4 x . Let P be the point that divides the line segment from (0, 0) to ( x, y ) in the
ratio 1 : 3. Then the locus of P is
(A) x 2 = y (B) y 2 = 2 x (C) y 2 = x (D) x 2 = 2 y
⇒ ( 4 k ) 2 = 4( 4 h )
⇒ k2 = h
⇒ Locus of P is y 2 = x
Correct choice: (C)
x2 y2
*48. Let P (6, 3) be a point on the hyperbola − = 1 . If the normal at the point P intersects the x-axis at (9, 0), then the
a2 b2
eccentricity of the hyperbola is
5 3
(A) (B) (C) 2 (D) 3
2 2
x−6 y −3
Sol.: 2
=−
6/a 3 / b2
6b
Since normal meet x-axis at (9, 0) so 9 = +6
a2
b2 1
∴ =
a2 2
1 3
e = 1+ =
2 2
Correct choice: (B)
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11
49. Let E and F be two independent events. The probability that exactly one of them occurs is and the probability of none
25
2
of them occurring is . If P (T ) denotes the probability of occurrence of the event T , then
25
4 3 1 2 2 1 3 4
(A) P ( E ) = , P( F ) = (B) P ( E ) = , P ( F ) = (C) P ( E ) = , P( F ) = (D) P ( E ) = , P( F ) =
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
Sol.: Let P( E ) = x and P( F ) = y
11
x (1 − y ) + y (1 − x) =
25
®
11
⇒ x + y − 2 xy = …(i)
25
2
and (1 − x)(1 − y ) =
25
23
⇒ x + y − xy = …(ii)
25
3 4
Solving, we get x = , y=
5 5
4 3
or x= , y= .
5 5
Correct choice: (A), (D)
*50. Let L be a normal to the parabola y 2 = 4 x . If L passes through the point (9, 6), then L is given by
(A) y − x + 3 = 0 (B) y + 3x − 33 = 0 (C) y + x − 15 = 0 (D) y − 2 x + 12 = 0
3
Sol.: Any normal is y = mx − 2m − m
⇒ 6 = 9m − 2m − m 3
⇒ m 3 − 7m + 6 = 0
⇒ m = −3, 1, 2
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π π
− x − 2 , x≤−
2
− cos x − π < x ≤ 0
52. If f ( x) = , then
2
x − 1, 0 < x ≤1
ln x, x >1
π
(A) f (x) is continuous at x = − (B) f (x) is not differentiable at x = 0
2
3
(C) f (x) is differentiable at x = 1 (D) f (x) is differentiable at x = −
2
π
Sol.: At x=− : LHL = RHL = 0,
2
π π
and f − = 0 ∴ f (x) is continuous at x = −
2 2
®
At x = 0 : LHD = sin 0 = 0
RHD = 1 ∴ f (x) is not differentiable at x = 0
At x = 1 : LHD = 1, RHD = 1
∴ f (x) is differentiable at x = 1
3 3
At x=− : LHD = RHD = sin −
2 2
−3
∴ f (x) is differentiable at x =
2
Correct choice: (A), (B), (C), (D)
f ' ( x) = 4 x 3 − 12 x 2 + 24 x + 1
f " ( x ) = 12 x 2 − 24 x + 24
= 12( x 2 − 2 x + 2) > 0
⇒ f (x) has exactly 1 point of minima and f (0) is – 1
⇒ f (x) has two distinct real roots.
Ans. 2
d f ( x)
54. Let y′( x ) + y ( x) g ′( x) = g ( x) g ′( x), y (0) = 0, x ∈ R , where f ′(x) denotes and g (x) is a given non-constant
dx
differentiable function on R with g (0) = g (2) = 0 . Then the value of y (2) is
dy
Sol.: + g ' ( x) y = g ( x) g ' ( x)
dx
∫
y e g ( x ) = e g ( x ) g ( x) g ' ( x )dx
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= ( g ( x) − 1)e g ( x ) + c
y = g ( x) − 1 + c e − g ( x )
Put x = 0
0 = −1 + c ⇒ c = 1
Put x = 2
y (2) = −1 + e −0 = −1 + 1 = 0
Ans. 0
®
Sol.: Let M be b1 b2 b3
c1 c2 c 3
0 − 1
∴ M 1 = 2
0 3
a 2 = −1
⇒ b2 = 2 …(i)
c 2 = 3
1 1
Again, M − 1 = 1
0 − 1
a1 − a 2 = 1
b1 − b2 = 1
c1 − c 2 = −1
⇒ a1 = 1 + a 2 = 1 + (−1) = 0
b1 = 1 + b2 = 1 + 2 = 3
c1 = −1 + c 2 = −1 + 3 = 2
Also c1 + c 2 + c 3 = 12
⇒ c 3 = 12 − c1 − c 2 = 12 − 2 − 3 = 7
∴ Required sum is
= a1 + b2 + c 3
= 0+2+7
=9
Ans. 9
r r r r r r r r r r
56. Let a = −iˆ − kˆ, b = −iˆ + ˆj and c = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ be three given vectors. If r is a vector such that r × b = c × b and r . a = 0 ,
r r
then the value of r . b is
r r r
Sol.: a = −iˆ − kˆ, b = −iˆ + ˆj , c = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ
r r r r
r ×b − c ×b = 0
r r r
(r − c ) × b = 0
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r r r
⇒ So r − c || b
r r r
So r − c = λb
r r r
r = c + λb = (iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ) + λ(−iˆ + ˆj )
rˆ = (1 − λ)iˆ + (2 + λ) ˆj + 3kˆ
rr
r .a = 0
⇒ −(1 − λ ) + 0 − 1× 3 = 0
⇒ −1 + λ − 3 = 0, λ = 4
r
r = (1 − 4)iˆ + (2 + 4) ˆj + 3kˆ
r
r = −3iˆ + 6 ˆj + 3kˆ
rr
r .b = (−3iˆ + 6 ˆj + 3kˆ).(−iˆ + ˆj )
= 3+ 6 = 9
rr
®
So r .b = 9
Ans. 9
*57. The straight line 2x − 3y = 1 divides the circular region x2 + y2 ≤ 6 into two parts. If
3 5 3 1 1 1 1
S = 2, , , , , − , , , then the number of point(s) in S lying inside the smaller part is
4 2 4 4 4 8 4
Sol.: Only points
3 1 1 1 1
2, , , − and , lies inside the circle
4 4 4 8 4
Put value of O (0, 0) in equation 2 x − 3 y − 1 = 0
x2 + y2 = 6
So = 2 × 0 − 3 × 0 − 1 = − ve
Since points are in smaller region. 2x – 3y = 1
So points should be opposite to origin w.r.t. line 2 x − 3 y − 1 = 0
(0,0) (1/2, 0)
3 (0, –1/3)
Case I 2,
4
3 9
= 2× 2 − 3× − 1 = 3 − > 0 + ve
4 4
1 1
Case II , −
4 4
1 1
= 2× − 3× − −1
4 4
2 3
= + − 1 = + ve
4 4
1 1
Case III ,
8 4
1 1
= 2× − 3× −1
8 4
2 3
= − −1
8 4
2−6−8
= = − ve
8
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3 1 1
Out of these 3 points only 2, , , − lie inside the smaller part as origin (0, 0) and these points lie on opposite side of
4 4 4
line 2 x − 3 y − 1 = 0
Ans. 2
a + bω + cω2 = y
a + bω2 + cω = z .
| x |2 + | y |2 + | z |2
Then the value of is
| a |2 + | b |2 + | c |2
*Sol.: Value of this expression does not come out to be constant as it depends on choice of a, b, c.
®
17
(For example if a = b = c, x = 3, y = z = 1 + 3i then expression is equal to .
3
Similarly a = −1, b = 1, c = 1, x = 1, y = −1 + 3i, z = −1 + 3i then expression is equal to 3 etc.)
i 2π
But , If we take ω = e 3 then it is constant and equal to 3.
59. Match the statements given in Column –I with the intervals/union of intervals given in Column-II.
Column I Column II
2i z
*(A) The set Re 2
: z is a complex number, | z | = 1, z ≠ ±1 is (p) ( − ∞, − 1) ∪ (1, ∞)
1− z
8(3) x − 2
(B) The domain of the function f ( x) = sin −1 is (q) (− ∞, 0) ∪ (0, ∞)
1 − 32( x −1)
1 tan θ 1
π
*(C) If f (θ) = − tan θ 1 tan θ , then the set f (θ) : 0 ≤ θ < is (r) [2, ∞)
2
−1 − tan θ 1
(t) (− ∞, 0] ∪ [2, ∞)
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2i 2i
= Re = Re = − cosec θ
z−z − 2i sin θ
Real part ∈ (−∞, − 1] ∪ [1, ∞)
8 .3 x / 9 8 .3 x
(B) −1 ≤ ≤1 −1 ≤ ≤1
32x 9 − 32 x
1−
9
8 .3 x
Case I: +1 ≥ 0
9 − 32x
8.3 x + 9 − 3 2 x
≥0
(3 + 3 x )(3 − 3 x )
(3 2 x − 8.3 x − 9)
≥0
(3 + 3 x )(3 x − 3)
3 2 x − 9.3 x + 3 x − 9
≥0
®
3x − 3
3 x (3 x − 9) + (3 x − 9)
≥0
3x − 3
x ∈ ( −∞, 1) ∪ [ 2, ∞ ) …(i)
8 .3 x
−1 ≤ 0
9 − 32x
8 .3 x − 9 + 3 2 x
Case II: ≤0
9 − 32x
3 2 x + 83 x − 9
≤0
(3 + 3 x )(3 − 3 x )
3 2 x + 9 .3 x − 3 x − 9
≤0
3 − 3x
(3 x − 1)(3 x + 9)
≤0
3 − 3x
x ∈ ( −∞, 0] ∪ (1, ∞) …(ii)
So common solution is x ∈ (−∞, 0] ∪ [2, ∞)
(C) f (θ) = 1(1 + tan 2 θ) + tan θ(0) + 1(1 + tan 2 θ)
= 2 sec 2 θ
≥2
So solution is [2, ∞ )
(D) f ( x) = ( x) 3 / 2 (3 x − 10), x ≥ 0
f ( x) = 3.x 5 / 2 − 10 x 3 / 2
5 3/ 2 3 15 3 / 2 30 1 / 2
f ' ( x) = 3 × x − 10 × x 1 / 2 = x − x
2 2 2 2
Since f ( x) is an increasing function f ' ( x) ≥ 0
15
⇒ x ( x − 2) ≥ 0 ⇒ ( x − 2) ≥ 0 ⇒ x ≥ 2
2
x ∈ [2, ∞)
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60. Match the statements given in Column –I with the values in Column-II.
Column I Column II
r r r
(A) If a = ˆj + 3kˆ, b = − ˆj + 3kˆ and c = 2 3kˆ form a triangle, then the π
r r (p)
internal angle of the triangle between a and b is 6
b
π 2π
∫ ( f ( x) − 3x) dx = a
2
(B) If − b 2 , then the value of f is (q)
6 3
a
5/ 6
π2 π
(C) The value of
ln 3 ∫ sec(πx) dx is
7/6
(r)
3
1
*(D) The maximum value of Arg for | z | = 1, z ≠ 1 is given by (s) π
1− z
®
π
(t)
2
r r
So angle between a and b is r
a θ r
b
( ˆj + 3kˆ).( ˆj − 3kˆ ) = ( ˆj + 3kˆ) ( ˆj − 3kˆ) cos θ
r
1 2π c
cos θ = − ⇒ θ=
2 3
b
b2 − a2
(B)
∫
a
f ( x)dx =
2
⇒ f ( x) = x
π π
f =
6 6
−1 / 6
π2
(C) Let x = t + 1 ⇒
ln 3 ∫ sec(π + π t )dt
1/ 6
1/ 6
2π 2 2π
∫ sec πt dt = ln 3 | ln(sec πt + tan πt ) |
1/ 6
= 0 = π
ln 3
0
(D) Let z = e iθ
θ θ θ
⇒ 1 − z = 1 − cos θ − i sin θ = 2 sin sin − i cos
2 2 2
θ θ
sin + i cos
1 1 2 2 1 i θ
⇒ = = = + cot
1− z θ θ θ θ 2 2 2
2 sin sin − i cos 2 sin
2 2 2 2
1 1
∴ lies on x =
1− z 2
1 π θ
⇒ arg tends towards as cot → ± ∞ .
1 − z 2 2
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DIFFICULT
24% EASY
40%
MODERATE
36%
®
CHEMISTRY PAPER 2
DIFFICULT EASY
28% 24%
MODERATE
48%
CHEMISTRY COMBINED
DIFFICULT EASY
26% 32%
MODERATE
42%
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EASY
MODERATE 51%
34%
®
PHYSICS PAPER 2
DIFFICULT
10%
EASY
MODERATE
51%
39%
PHYSICS COMBINED
DIFFICULT
13%
EASY
MODERATE 50%
37%
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DIFFICULT
5% EASY
33%
MODERATE
62%
®
MATHEMATICS PAPER 2
DIFFICULT
5%
EASY
MODERATE 43%
52%
MATHEMATICS COMBINED
DIFFICULT
5%
EASY
38%
MODERATE
57%
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BREAK UP 2 (XI-XII)
CHEMISTRY PAPER 1
XI
XII 41%
59%
®
CHEMISTRY PAPER 2
XI
29%
XII
71%
CHEMISTRY COMBINED
XI
XII 35%
65%
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. Head Office: 12, Masilamani Street, T. Nagar, Chennai-600 017
Delhi Office: 50-C, Kalu Sarai (Behind Azad Apartments), New Delhi-110 016 Ph.: 2653 7392/93/94/95 Fax: 2653 7396
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BREAK UP 2 (XI-XII)
PHYSICS PAPER 1
XII
48%
XI
52%
®
PHYSICS PAPER 2
XII
42% XI
58%
PHYSICS COMBINED
XII XI
45% 55%
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. Head Office: 12, Masilamani Street, T. Nagar, Chennai-600 017
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BREAK UP 2 ( XI-XII)
MATHEMATICS PAPER 1
XII XI
55% 45%
®
MATHEMATICS PAPER 2
XI
XII 38%
62%
MATHEMATICS COMBINED
XI
XII
42%
58%
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. Head Office: 12, Masilamani Street, T. Nagar, Chennai-600 017
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BREAK UP 3 (TOPICWISE/PARTWISE)
CHEMISTRY PAPER 1
INORGANIC PHYSICAL
37% 33%
ORGANIC
30%
®
CHEMISTRY PAPER 2
INORGANIC
PHYSICAL
27%
37%
ORGANIC
36%
CHEMISTRY COMBINED
INORGANIC PHYSICAL
32% 35%
ORGANIC
33%
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BREAK UP 3 (TOPICWISE/PARTWISE)
PHYSICS PAPER 1
MODERN
OPTICS
PHYSICS
0%
16% MECHANICS
35%
ELECTRO‐
MAGNETISM
31%
HEAT &
THERMO‐
®
DYNAMICS SHM & WAVE
9% MOTION
9%
PHYSICS COMBINED
MODERN
OPTICS
PHYSICS
5%
11% MECHANICS
32%
ELECTRO‐
MAGNETISM SHM & WAVE
29% HEAT & MOTION
THERMO‐ 13%
DYNAMICS
10%
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BREAK UP 3 (TOPICWISE/PARTWISE)
MATHEMATICS PAPER 1
TRIGONO‐
METRY
CALCULUS CO‐
VECTORS & 14%
17% ORDINATE
3D
14%
9%
ALGEBRA
46%
®
VECTORS &
MATHEMATICS PAPER 2 TRIGONO‐
3D METRY
8% 3%
CALCULUS
ALGEBRA 41%
28%
CO‐
ORDINATE
20%
TRIGONO‐
METRY
MATHEMATICS COMBINED
9%
CALCULUS
VECTORS & 29%
3D
9%
ALGEBRA
CO‐
36%
ORDINATE
17%
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