IT Service Management

Foundation Level T T T Course

Mock Test Paper

Version 1.3

1. All 40 questions should be attempted.

2. There are no trick questions.
3. The choice of answer (a, b, c, d) is to be marked on the answer sheet
provided at the end.
4. Please do not mark anything on the question paper.
5. You have 1 hour to complete this paper.
6. You must get 26 or more correct to pass.
1. The ITIL core is structure around?
a. A Transition Lifecycle
b. An Operations Lifecycle
c. A Service Development Lifecycle
d. A Service Lifecycle

2. Good example of a service can be described as?

a. Firewall
b. Payroll Processing
c. Unix Server
d. Wide Area Network

3. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?

a. To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent Changes are made during particularly volatile
business periods
b. To assist the Change Manager in implementing Emergency Changes
c. To assist the Change Manager in evaluating Emergency Changes and to decide whether the
changes should be approved
d. To assist the Change Manager in speedier redressal change implementation issues within stakeholders

4. Functions are NOT described as?

a. A body of process knowledge
b. Self-Contained units of organizations
c. Comprises activities, inputs and outputs
d. Projects focusing on transformation

5. A service owner is responsible for which of the following?

a. Purchasing tools to support the service line
b. Ensuring that the ongoing service delivery and support meet agreed customer requirements
c. Carrying out activities defined in the process
d. Monitoring and improving the process

6. What is the purpose of the ‘Request Fulfillment Process?

a. Dealing with Service Requests from the users
b. Making sure all requests within an IT Organization are fulfilled
c. Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests
d. Making sure the service level agreement (SLA) are met
7. Consider the following statements:
1) CSI provides on how to improve process efficiency and effectiveness
2) CSI provides guidance on how to improve services
3) CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the Service Lifecycle
4) CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and services

Which of the above statements is correct?

a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. All of the above

8. Which of the following does the service pipeline consists of?

a. Complete set of services that are currently managed by a service provider
b. Resources engaged or released in various phases of the service lifecycle
c. Services under development for a given market space or customer
d. Set of business outcomes facilitated by a service

9. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve the services?
a. To validate, direct, justify and intervene
b. To validate, measure, monitor and change
c. To validate, plan, act and improve
d. To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people

10. Which of the following elements does the Service Design Package (SDP) consist of?
a. Infrastructure cost of adding new technology
b. Organizational readiness assessment
c. A database with information about the services
d. Reporting mechanism of all services

11. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following?
I. Incident Management
II. Problem Management
III. Access Management
IV. ?
V. ?
a. Event Management and Request Fulfillment
b. Event Management and Service Desk
 c. Facilities Management and Event Management
d. Change Management and Service Level Management

12. ‘If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented’ is a principle that applies to
which of the following?
a. The glossary of terms
b. A service level agreement (SLA)
c. An incident management record
d. A configuration Item (CI)

13. One of the important roles of the supplier manager can be,
a. Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreements
b. Ensuring that all non-operational service are recorded within the service catalogue
c. Ensuring value for money is from all IT suppliers
d. Assisting with the production and maintenance of an accurate service catalogue

14. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?

a. The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report Incidents
b. A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item (CI)
c. A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when handling the Incident
d. An Incident that is easy to solve

15. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Information Security Management?
a. How to implement the information security policies in the organization?
b. What type of security tests need to be performed?
c. How to create information security awareness in the organization?
d. What are the pricing or chargeback models?

16. Facilities Management refers to?

a. The Management of IT services that are viewed as “utilities”, such as printers or network access
b. The Management of an outsourcing contract
c. The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data Center
d. The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations staff to maintain the
infrastructure

17. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery
model options?
a. Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organization(s) resources
b. Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal resources
 c. Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d. Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application service provisioning

18. Which of the following can be considered as a direct benefit of using a service desk?
a. Usage of the Incident logging form to report Incidents
b. Managing the business relationships with the suppliers
c. Measuring, recording, analyzing and improving customer satisfaction
d. Enhanced focus and a proactive approach to service provision

19. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management process?
1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and support staff
3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services
4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the business
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. All of the above
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 3 and 4 only

20. The Goal for Service Level Management is to maintain and improve the IT service quality
through,
a. a constant cycle of agreeing, monitoring and reporting upon IT service achievements
b. measuring existing services and the potential future requirements
c. monitoring service failures, reduction of service risks
d. Reporting and management of all services

21. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?
a. They are used to create value in the form of output for production management
b. They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c. They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d. They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery

22. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
a. Master copies of software
b. Backups of application data
c. Software licenses
d. Master copies of controlled documentation
23. Which of the following Critical Success Factors (CSFs) are CORRECT for Continuous Service
Improvement (CSI) process?
1. Appointment of a CSI Manager
2. Adoption of CSI within the organization
3. Technology to support the CSI Initiative
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. All of the above
d. 2 and 3 only

24. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management.
What information is this?
a. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management can generate
Requests for Change (RFCs)
b. RFCs resulting from Known Errors
c. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management
d. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management

25. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?
a. The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action
b. The ability to implement monitoring tools
c. The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d. The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the uptime of infrastructure devices

26. The priority of an Incident refers to?

a. The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency
b. The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved
c. The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it is resolved in time
d. The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the incident

27. Which of these tasks is a task of Problem Management?

a. Co-ordination of all changes to the IT infrastructure.
b. Classification of Requests for Change (RFCs).
c. Approval of all changes / modifications made to the Known-Error database.
d. Recognizing user's requirements and subsequently implementing changes to the IT infrastructure.

28. The main objective of Availability Management is?

a. To monitor and report availability of services and components
b. To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met
c. To guarantee availability levels for services and components
 d. To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business

29. A Capacity Plan is used for,

a. Predict the impact of proposed changes.

b. Manage the resources required to deliver IT services

c. Identifying potential causes of problems
d. Planning the required support for a new or changed IT service

30. "...a change to the infrastructure that follows an established path, is relatively common, and is
the accepted solution to a specific requirement or set of requirements." Which change are we
referring to?
a. Standard Change
b. Urgent Change
c. Normal Change
d. Service Request

31. Which of the following is NOT the objective of the Release and deployment Management
process?
a. Ensure a Release package can be built, installed, tested and deployed efficiently to a deployment
group
b. Ensure there is a minimal unpredicted impact on the production services, operations and support
organization
c. Validate that a service is ‘fit for purpose’ – it will deliver the required performance with
desired constraints removed
d. Ensure Clear and comprehensive release and deployment plans

32. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service Strategy?
1. Perspectives
2. Positioning
3. Plan
4. ???
a. People
b. Product
c. Patterns
d. Partners

33. What is the first activity when implementing a release?

a. Designing and building a release
 b. Testing a release
c. Compiling the release schedule
d. Communicating and preparing the release

34. Which of the following is the BEST definition for ‘Underpinning Contract’?
a. A person, group, or Business that is not a part of the service level agreement for an IT service
b. A contract between an IT service provider and a third party
c. The third level in a hierarchy of support groups involved in the resolution of Incidents of problems
d. The process responsible for creating or modifying an IT service or Application

35. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual Service
Improvement (CSI)?
1. Process Metrics
2. Supplier Metrics
3. Service Metrics
4. Technology Metrics
5. Business Metrics
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 4 and 5
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4

36. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?
a. Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product
b. Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product
c. Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product
d. Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product

37. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?
a. Service Optimization
b. Service Transition
c. Service Design
d. Service Strategy

38. What is the RACI model used for?

a. Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity
b. Defining requirements for a new service or process
c. Analyzing the business impact of an incident
d. Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management
 39. Application Management is not responsible for?
a. Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support applications
b. Managing applications through their lifecycle
c. Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software
d. Developing functionality required by the business

40. ‘Post Implementation Review” means?

a. Completion of s scheduled activity
b. An activity responsible for creating one or more plans
c. A review that takes place after a change or a project has been implemented
d. Process responsible for managing the lifecycle of all problems

1. What is the RACI model used for?

a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity

b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management

2. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?

a) Service Optimization
b) Service Transition
c) Service Design
d) Service Strategy

3. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?

a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product

b) Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product
c) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product
d) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product

4. What does the Service V model represent?

a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Management projects

b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective utilization of
resources
 c) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service Capability
d) The business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user of services

5. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for customers, what attributes of the
service should be considered?

a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome

b) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metrics
c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectives
d) People, Products, Technology

6. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?

a) They provide structure and stability to organizations

b) They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources
c) They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control
d) They are costlier to implement compared to processes

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

7. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes, what is likely to
happen to support costs?

a) They are likely to increase gradually

b) They are likely to increase dramatically
c) They are likely to gradually reduce
d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current level

8. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?

a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it serves
d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses telecommunications and IT
systems to make it appear that they are in the same location

9. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?

a) The desired end state of a project

 b) A marker or starting point for later comparison
c) The current desktop models in use
d) The type of testing to be done for a release

10. Operations Control refers to?

a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management functions

b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational events and activities
c) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT Infrastructure and Applications
d) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure when
Operators are not available

11. Which of the following is a characteristic of every process?

a) It is measurable
b) It is timely
c) It delivers a specific result
d) It responds to a specific event
e) It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholder

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. All of the above

12. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Recommending improvements
b) Designing and documenting a Service
c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a Service
d) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of all Services

13. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?

a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics

b) They create value for stakeholders
c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes
14. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?

a) An Operations Lifecycle
b) An IT Management Lifecycle
c) A Service Lifecycle
d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle

15. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying opportunities for improvement?

a) Service Owner
b) Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager
c) Process Owner

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. All of the above
D. d) 2 and 3 only