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I.E.S. (OBJ) - 2007 1 of 14

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER–II
1. Match List - I with List - II and select, the c. By interference fit
correct answer using the code given below d. None of the above
the lists 5. Consider the following statements in case
List I (Application) of belt drives:
A. Boiler Shell 1. Centrifugal tension in belt increases
B. Marine Shaft Coupling the transmitted
C. Crosshead and Piston Rod 2. Centrifugal tension does affect the
D. Automobile gear box (gears to shaft) driving tension
List - II (Joint) 3. Maximum tension in the belt is always
1. Cotter Joint three times the driving tension
2. Knuckle Joint Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
3. Riveted joint
a. 1, 2 and 3
4. Splines
b. 2 and 3 only
5. Bolted Joint
c. 1 and 3 only
Codes;
d. 1 only
A B C D
6. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack
a. 1 4 2 5
having square threads with friction angle 
b. 3 5 1 4 is:
c. 1 5 2 4
1  tan  / 2 
d. 3 4 1 5 a.
1  tan  / 2 
2. A single parallel fillet weld of total length
L and weld size h subjected to a tensile 1  tan 
b.
load P, will have what design stress? 1  tan 
p 1  sin 
a. Tensile and equal to c.
0.707 Lh 1  sin 
p
b. Tensile and equal to 1  sin  / 2 
Lh d.
1  sin  / 2 
p
c. Shear and equal to 7. In designing a shaft for variable loads, the
0.707 Lh
S.N. diagram can be drawn by:
p
d. Shear and equal to a. Joining the Sut at 0 cycles and Se at 106
Lh cycles by a straight line on an S.N.
3. How can shock absorbing of a belt be graph
increased? b. Joining the 0.9 Sut at 1000 cycles and
a. By tightening it properly Se at 106 cycles by a straight line on a
b. By increasing the shank log S — log N graph
c. By grinding the shank c. Joining the 0.9 Sut at 1000 cycles and
d. By making the shank equal to the core Se at 106 cycles by a straight line on an
diameter S.N. graph
4. How is the type of a railway wheel fitted? d. Joining the Sut at 1000 cycles and 0.9
a. By seam welding Se at 106 cycles by a straight line on a
b. By fillet welding log S — log N graph
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(Sut stands for ultimate tensile strength and solid shaft to transmit the same torque at
Se for the endurance limit) the same maximum stress. What should be
8. Match List - I with List - II and select the the diameter of the solid shaft?
correct answer using the code given below a. 30 mm
the lists b. 35 mm
List-I c. 10 × (60)1/3 mm
A. Worm gear d. 10 × (20)1/3 mm
B. Spur gear 12. Consider the following statements:
C. Herringbone gear For a journal rotating in a bearing under
D. Spiral level gear film lubrication conditions, the frictional
List II resistance is
1. Imposes no thrust load on the shaft 1. proportional to the area of contact
2. To transmit power between two non- 2. proportional to the viscosity of
intersecting shafts which are lubricant
perpendicular to each other 3. proportional to the speed of rotation
3. To transmit power when the shafts are 4. independent of the pressure
parallel Which of the statements given above are
4. To transmit power when the shafts are correct?
at right angles to one another a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Codes; b. 1 and 4 only
A B C D c. 2, 3 and 4 only
a. 1 2 3 4 d. 2 and 3 only
b. 2 3 1 4 13. Increase in values of which of the
c. 1 2 4 3 following results in an increase of the
d. 2 3 4 1 coefficient of friction in a hydrodynamic
9. The velocity ratio between pinion and gear bearing?
in a gear drive is 2.3, the module of teeth 1. Viscosity of the oil.
is 2.0 mm and sum of number of teeth on 2. Clearance between shaft and bearing.
pinion and gear is 99. What is the centre 3. Shaft speed
distance between pinion and the gear? Select the correct answer• using thc code
a. 49.5 mm given below
b. 99 m a. 1 and 2 only
c. 148.5mm b. 1 and 3 only
d. 198 mm c. 2 and 3 only
10. Compared to gears with 200 pressure d. 1, 2 and 3
angle involutes full depth teeth, those with 14. Average values of effective coefficients of
200 pressure angle and stub teeth have friction for bearings are described below:
1. smaller addendum 1. Spherical ball bearing — f1
2. smaller dedendum 2. Cylindrical roller bearing — f2
3. smaller tooth thickness 3. Taper roller bearing — f3
4. greater bending strength 4. Stable (thick film) sliding contact
Which of the statements given above are bearing — f4
correct? Which one of the following sequences is
a. 1, 2 and 3 correct?
b. 1, 2 and 4 a. f1  f 2  f3  f 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
b. f1  f 2  f 4  f3
d. 2, 3 and 4
11. A hollow shaft of outer dia 40 mm and c. f 2  f1  f 3  f 4
inner dia of 20 mm is to be replaced by a d. f1  f 4  f 2  f 3
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15. Which one of the following expresses the 20. What is the phenomenon of progressive
total elongation of a bar of length L with a extension of the material i.e., strain
constant cross-section of A and modulus increasing with the time at a constant load,
of Elasticity E hanging vertically and called?
subject to its own weight W? a. Plasticity
WL b. Creeping
a.
AE c. Yielding
WL d. Breaking
b.
2 AE 21. Which one of the following statements is
2WL correct?
c. If a material expands freely due to heating,
AE
it will develop
WL
d. a. thermal stress
4 AE
b. tensile stress
16. In a strained material one of the principal
stresses is twice the other. The maximum c. compressive stress
shear stress in the same case is max. Then, d. no stress
what is the value of the maximum 22. A cantilever beam of 2 m length supports a
principle stress? triangularly distributed load over its entire
a. max length, the maximum of which is at the
free end. The total load is 37.5 kN. What is
b. 2max
the bending moment at the fixed end?
c. 4max a. 50 × 106 N mm
d. 8max b. 125 × 106 N mm
17. For a general two dimensional stress c. 100 × 106 N mm
system, what are the coordinates of the
d. 25 × 106 N mm
centre of Mohr’s circle?
23. Which one of the following statements is
a.
 x  y 
,0
correct?
2 A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if

b. 0,
 x  y  a. the bending moment is the same
throughout the beam
2
b. the shear stress is the same throughout
   y  the beam
c.  x ,0
 2  c. the deflection is the same throughout

d. 0,
 x  y 
the beam
d. the bending stress is the same at every
2 section along its longitudinal axis
18. If the ratio G/E (G = Rigidity modulus, E 24. Which one of the following statements is
= Young’s modulus of elasticity) is 0.4, correct?
then what is the value of the Poisson ratio? When a rectangular section beam is loaded
a. 0.20 transversely along the length, shear stress
b. 0.25 develops on
c. 0.30 a. top fibre of rectangular beam
d. 0.33 b. middle fibre of rectangular beam
19. What are the materials which show c. bottom fibre of rectangular beam
direction dependent properties, called? d. every horizontal plane
a. Homogeneous materials 25. The diameter of a solid shaft is D. The
b. Viscoelastic materials inside and outside diameters of a hollow
c. Isotropic materials shaft of same material and length are
d. Anisotropic materials D/ 3 and 2D / 3 respectively. What is
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the ratio of the weight of the hollow shaft 1. 2 EI/4l2
to that of the solid shaft? 2. 42 EI/l2
a. 1 : 1 3. 22 EI/l2
b. 1 : 4 4. 2 EI/l2
c. 1 : 2 Codes;
d. 1 : 3 A B C D
26. Which one of the following statements is a. 2 1 4 3
correct?
b. 4 1 2 3
If a helical spring is halved in length, its
spring stiffness c. 2 3 4 1
a. remains same d. 4 3 2 1
b. halves 30. Which one of the following is the correct
ascending order of packing density for the
c. doubles given crystal structures of metals?
d. triples a. Simple cubic — Face centred cubic —
27. A solid circular shaft is subjected to a Body centred cubic
bending moment M and twisting moment b. Body centred cubic — Simple cubic —
T. What is the equivalent twisting moment Face centred cubic
Te which will produce the same maximum
shear stress as the above combination? c. Simple cubic — Body centred cubic —
Face centred cubic
a. M 2  T 2
d. Body centred cubic — Face centred
b. M  T cubic — Simple cubic
c. M 2 T2 31. Vibration damping in machinery is best
d. M  T achieved by means of base structures made
28. Consider the following statements: of which one of the following materials?
In a thick walled cylindrical pressure a. Low carbon steel
vessel subjected to internal pressure, the b. Nodular iron
tangential and radial stresses are c. Grey cast iron
1. minimum at outer side. d. White cast iron
2. minimum at inner side. 32. For a Rhombohedral space lattice, which
3. maximum at inner side & both reduce one of the following is correct?
to zero at outer wall. a.       90
4. maximum at inner wall but the radial b.       90
stress reduces to zero at outer wall.
c.     90  
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? d.       90
a. 1 and 2 33. Match List - I with List - II and select the
b. 1 and 3 correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
c. 1 and 4
List - I (Component)
d. 4 only
A. Blades of bulldozer
29. Match List - I with List -II and select the
correct answer using the code given below B. Gas turbine blades
the lists C. Drill bit
List - I (Long Column) D. Springs of auto-mobiles
A. Both ends hinged List -II (Required Property)
B. One end fixed, and other end free 1. High wear resistance and high
C. Both ends fixed toughness
D. One end fixed, and other end hinged 2. Low Young’s modulus and high
fatigue strength
List - II (Critical Load)
3. High wear and abrasion resistance
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4. High creep strength and good 3. SOLID1 .... SOLID1 + SOLID2
corrosion resistance 4. LIQUID + SOLID1 .... SOLID2
Codes; Codes;
A B C D A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4 a. 3 2 1 4
b. 1 4 3 2 b. 1 4 3 2
c. 3 4 1 2 c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1 2 3 4 d. 1 2 3 4
34. What is the approximate strain energy 38. Which of the following factors influence
expression for a dislocation of unit length, hardness in a plain carbon steel?
irrespective of its edge or screw character? 1. Percentage carbon
G 2b 2. Quenching media
a.
2 3. Work size
Gb 2 Select the correct answer using the code
b. given below:
2
a. 1 and 2 only
G 2b
c. b. 2 and 3 only
4
c. 1 and 3 only
Gb 2
d. d. 1, 2 and 3
4 39. Match List - I with List -II and select the
35. What is the movement of block of atoms correct answer using the code given below
along certain crystallographic planes and the lists:
directions, termed as? List - I (Material)
a. Glide A. Fibre reinforced plastics
b. Twinning B. Acrylics
c. Slip C. Phenolics
d. Jog D. Butadiene rubber
36. Which one of the following is the correct List-II (Application)
statement? Pearlite in iron-carbon system
1. Automobile tyres
is a
2. Aircraft
a. phase consisting of ferrite and
cementite at room temperature 3. Lenses
b. mechanical mixture of ferrite and 4. Electric switch cover
cementite at room temperature Codes
c. eutectic mixture of ferrite and A B C D
cementite at room temperature a. 1 4 3 2
d. All the above three are correct b. 2 3 4 1
37. Match List - I with List -II and select the c. 1 3 4 2
correct answer using the code given below d. 2 4 3 1
the Lists: 40. Which one among the following is the
List - I (Name of the Invariant Reaction) most effective strengthening mechanism of
A. Monotectic non-ferrous metal?
B. Eutectic a. Solid solution hardening
C. Eutectoid b. Strain hardening
D. Peritectic c. Grain size refinement
List-II (Invariant Reaction During d. Precipitation hardening
Cooling) 41. Wood is a natural composite consisting of
1. LIQUID SOLID1 + SOLID2 which of the following?
2. LIQUID1 .... LIQUID2 + SOLID a. Lignin fibres in collagen matrix
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b. Lignin fibres in apatite matrix d. Electro-hydraulic forming
c. Cellulose fibres in apatite matrix 48. What are the advantages of powder
d. Cellulose fibres in lignin matrix metallurgy?
42. Which one of the following is not a 1. Extreme purity product
ceramic? 2. Low labour cost
a. Alumina 3. Low equipment cost
b. Porcelain Select the correct answer using the code
c. Whisker given below
d. Pyrosil a. 1, 2 and 3
43. Cutting tool material 18-4-1 HSS has b. 1 and 2 only
which one of the following compositions? c. 2 and 3 only
a. 18% W, 4% Cr, 1% V d. 1 and 3 only
b. 18% Cr, 4% W, 1% V 49. Match List - I with List – II and select the
c. 18% W, 4% Ni, 1% V correct answer using the code given below
d. 18% Cr, 4% Ni, 1% V the lists
44. Which one of the following List - I (Casting Process)
elements/alloys exhibits season cracking? A. Die casting
a. Iron B. Investment casting.
b. Brass C. Shell moulding
c. Aluminium D. Centrifugal casting
d. Steel List - II (Principle)
45. Which metal forming process is used for 1. The metal solidifies in a rotating
manufacture of long steel wire? mould
a. Deep drawing 2. The pattern cluster is repeatedly dipped
b. Forging into a ceramic slurry and dusted with
refractory
c. Drawing
3. Molten metal is forced by pressure into
d. Extrusion
a metallic mould
46. Which one of the following is the correct
4. After cooling, the invest is removed
statement?
from the casting by pressure jetting or
a. Extrusion is used for the manufacture vibratory cleaning
of seamless tubes
Codes;
b. Extrusion is used for reducing the
A B C D
diameter of round bars and tubes by
rotating dies which open and close a. 2 1 3 4
rapidly on the work b. 3 4 2 1
c. Extrusion is used to improve fatigue c. 2 4 3 1
resistance of the metal by setting up d. 3 1 2 4
compressive stresses on. its surface 50. Consider the following statements in
d. Extrusion comprises pressing the metal respect of investment castings:
inside a chamber to force it out by high 1. The pattern or patterns is/are not joined
pressure through an orifice which is to a stalk or sprue also of wax to form
shaped to provide the desired form of a tree of patterns.
the finished part 2. The prepared moulds are placed in an
47. Which one of the following metals oven and heated gently to dry off the
forming processes is not a high energy rate invest and melt out the bulk of wax.
forming process? 3. The moulds are usually poured by
a. Electro-magnetic forming placing the moulds in a vacuum
b. Roll-forming chamber.
c. Explosive forming
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Which of the statements given above are 55. The coating material of an arc welding
correct? electrode contains which of the following?
a. 1 and 2 only 1. Deoxidising agent
b. 1 and 3 only 2. Arc stabilizing agent
c. 2 and 3 only 3. Slag forming agent
d. 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code
51. Which of the following are employed in given below
shell moulding? a. 1, 2 and 3
1. Resin binder b. 1 and 2 only
2. Metal pattern c. 2 and 3 only
3. Heating coils d. 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code 56. In MIG welding, the metal is transferred
given below into the form of which one of the
a. 1 and 2 only following?
b. 1 and 3 only a. A fine spray of metal
c. 2 and 3 only b. Molten drops
d. 1, 2 and 3 c. Weld pool
52. Which one of the following is the correct d. Molecules
statement? 57. Consider the following statements in
In a centrifugal casting method respect of the laser beam welding:
a. no core is used 1. It can be used for welding any metal or
b. core may be made of any metal their combinations because of very
high temperature of the focal points.
c. core is made of sand
2. Heat affected zone is very large
d. core is made of ferrous metal
because of quick heating.
53. Which one of the following is the correct
3. High vacuum is required to carry the
statement?
process.
Gate is provided in moulds to
Which of the statements given above is/are
a. feed the casting at a constant rate correct?
b. give passage to gases a. 1 and 2 only
c. compensate for shrinkage b. 2 and 3 only
d. avoid cavities c. 1 only
54. Consider the following statements in d. 1, 2 and 3
respect of oxy-acetylene welding:
58. Which of the following effects are possible
1. The joint is not heated to a state of due to residual stresses in welding?
fusion.
1. Reduce dimensional stability
2. No pressure is used.
2. Weld cracking
3. Oxygen is stored in steel cylinder at a
3. Effect on fatigue strength
pressure of 14 MPa.
4. Reduction in the creep strength V
4. When there is an excess of acetylene
used, there is a decided change in the Select the correct answer using the code
appearance of flame. given below
Which of the statements given above are a. 1 and 2 only
correct? b. 2 and 3 only
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4 59. During machining, excess metal is
d. 1, 2 and 4 removed in the form of chip as in the case
of turning Von a lathe. Which of the
following are correct?
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Continuous ribbon like chip is formed 64. Honing Process gives surface finish of
when turning what order?
1. at a higher cutting speed a. 10 m (CLA)
2. at a lower cutting speed 3. a brittle b. 10 m (CLA)
material c. 01 m (CLA)
3. a ductile material d. 001 m (CLA)
Select the correct answer using the code 65. What are the main components of an NC
given below machine?
a. 1 and 3 1. Part program
b. 1 and 4 2. Machine Control Unit
c. 2 and 3 3. Servo meter
d. 2 and 4 Select the’ correct answer using the code
60. Screw threads are produced on solid rods given below
by using which of the following? a. 1, 2 and 3
a. Dies b. 1 and 2 only
b. Punch c. 2 and 3 only
c. Mandrel d. 1 and 3 only
d. Boring bar 66. Flank wear occurs mainly on which of the
61. What is the process of removing metal by following?
a milling cutter which is rotated against the a. Nose part and top face
direction of travel of the work piece,
called? b. Cutting edge only
a. Down milling c. Nose part, front relief face, and side
relief face of the cutting tool
b. Up milling
d. Face of the cutting tool at a short
c. End milling distance from the cutting edge
d. Face milling 67. Which of the following are the mach
62. Which of the following methods are gear inability criteria?
generating processes? 1. Tool life
1. Gear shaping 2. Cutting forces
2. Gear hobbing 3. Surface finish
3. Gear milling Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below
given below a. 1, 2 and 3
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only d. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only 68. In strain gauge dynamometers, the use of
63. Among the following machining how many active gauges makes the
processes, which can be used for dynamometer more effective?
machining flat surfaces? a. Four
1. Shaping b. Three
2. Milling c. Two
3. Broaching Select the correct answer d. One
using the code given below
69. For increasing the material removal rate in
a. 1 and 2 only turning, without any constraints, what is
b. 1 and 3 only the right sequence to adjust the cutting
c. 2 and 3 only parameters?
d. 1, 2 and 3 1. Speed
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2. Feed a. Primary texture
3. Depth of cut b. Secondary texture
Select the correct answer using the code c. Lay
given below d. Flaw
a. 1—2—3 74. Which one of the following is not a
b. 2—3—1 purpose of long-term forecasting?
c. 3—2—1 a. To plan for the new unit of production
d. 1—3—2 b. To plan the long-term financial
70. Consider the following statements in requirement
relation to the unconventional machining c. To make the proper arrangement for
processes: training the personnel
1. Different forms of energy directly d. To decide the purchase programme
applied to work piece to have shape 75. Consider the following statements relating
transformation or material removal to forecasting:
from work surface. 1. The time horizon to forecast depends
2. Relative motion between the work and upon where the product currently lies
the tool is essential. in its life cycle.
3. Cutting tool is not in physical contact 2. Opinion and judgmental forecasting
with work piece. methods sometimes incorporate
Which of the statements given above are statistical analysis.
correct? 3. In exponential smoothing, low values
a. 1 and 2 only of smoothening constant, alpha result
b. 1, 2 and 3 in more smoothing than higher values
c. 2 and 3 only of alpha.
d. 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
correct?
71. According to the principle of location in
jigs and fixtures, how many degrees of a. 1, 2 and 3
freedom are to be eliminated to have a b. 1 and 2 only
body fixed in space? c. 1 and 3 only
a. 3 d. 2 and 3 only
b. 4 76. Consider the following statements:
c. 5 Exponential smoothing
d. 6 1. is a modification of moving average
72. Which one of the following is a clearance method
fit? 2. is a weighted average of past
+ 0015 -0.010 observations
+ 0005 + 0.000 3. assigns the highest weightage to the
a.  H 50 h 50 most recent observation
+0.010 -0025 4. Which of the statements given above
+0.000 +0.015 are correct?
b.  H 50 h 50 a. 1, 2 and 3
-0015 +0.025 b. 1 and 2 only
+ 0.000 +0.005 c. 2 and 3 only
c.  H 50 h 50 d. 1 and 3 only
- 0010 + 0030 77. Consider the following statements:
- 0000 +0.005 Scheduling
d.  H 50 h 50 1. is a general timetable of
73. What is the dominant direction of the tool manufacturing.
marks or scratches in a surface texture 2. is the time phase of loading.
having a directional quality called?
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3. is loading all the work in process on a. 1, 2 and 3
machines according to their capacity. b. 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above are c. 3 only
correct? d. 1 and 3 only
a. 1, 2 and 3 82. Which one of the following statements is
b. 1 and 2 only not correct?
c. 2 and 3 only a. PERT is probabilistic and CPM is
d. 1 and 3 only deterministic
78. In an assembly line, what is the balance b. In PERT, events are used and in CPM
delay? activities are used
a. Line efficiency × 100 c. In CPM, the probability to complete
b. 100 - Line efficiency (in percentage) the project in a given time-duration is
Line efficiency calculated
c. d. In CPM crashing is carried out
100
d. None of the above 83. Which of the following are the benefits of
inventory control?
79. If the fixed cost of the assets for a given
period doubles, then how much will the 1. Improvement in customer’s
break-even quantity become? relationship.
a. Half the original value 2. Economy in purchasing.
b. Same as the original value 3. Elimination of the possibility of
duplicate ordering.
c. Twice the original value
Select the correct answer using the code
d. Four times the original value given below
80. Match List - I with List – II and select the a. 1, 2 and 3
correct answer using
b. 1 and 2 only
List - I (Term)
c. 2 and 3 only
A. Dummy activity
d. 1 and 3 only
B. Critical path
84. Match List - I with List - II and select the
C. PERT activity correct answer using the code given below
D. Critical path method the lists :
List -II (Characteristics) List-I
1. Follows  distribution A. Procurement cost
2. It is built on activity-oriented diagram B. Carrying cost
3. Constructed only to establish sequence C. Economic order quantity
4. Has zero total slack D. Reorder point
Codes; List-II
A B C D 1. Cost of holding materials
a. 3 4 1 2 2. Cost of receiving order
b. 4 2 3 1 3. Procurement lead time
c. 3 4 2 1 4. Break-even analysis
d. 4 2 1 3 Codes;
81. Consider the following statements: A B C D
PERT considers the following time 85. In the EOQ model, if the unit ordering cost
estimates is doubled, the EOQ
1. Optimistic time a. Is halved
2. Pessimistic time b. Is doubled
3. Most likely time c. Increases 1.414 times
Which of the statements given above are d. Decreases 1.414 times
correct?
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86. Consider the following statements:
1. In C language, both data and the
function that operate on that data are
combined into a single unit called
object.
2. Almost every correct statement in C is
also a correct statement in C++,
although the reverse is not true.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
87. The arithmetic expression 2.4**3.0 will be
computed by the FORTRAN compiler as:
a. 2.4*2.4*2.4
b. 103.0 log 102.4
c. e3.0 log e2.4
d. 2.4*2.4*3.0
88. Which one of the following subroutines
does a computer implementation of the
simplex routine require?
a. Finding a root of a polynomial
b. Solving a system of linear equations
c. Finding the determinant of a matrix
d. Finding the eigen value of a matrix
89. Which one of the following is not the
characteristic of acceptance sampling?
a. This is widely suitable in mass
production
b. It causes less fatigue to inspectors
c. This is much economical
d. It gives definite assurance for the
conformation of the specifications for
all the pieces
90. If m is the number of constraints in a linear
programming with two variables x and y
and non-negativity constraints x  0, y  0;
the feasible region in the graphical
solution will be surrounded by how many
lines?
a. m
b. m + 1
c. m + 2
d. m + 4
91. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?
In the standard form of a linear
programming problem, all constraints are
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a. of less than or equal to, type
b. of greater than or equal to, type
c. in the form of equations
d. some constraints are of less than equal
to, type and some of greater than equal
to, type
92. Which one of the following causes the
whirling of shafts?
a. Non-homogeneity of shaft material
b. Misalignment of bearings
c. Fluctuation of speed
d. Internal damping
93. In order for a transpiration matrix which
has six rows and four columns, not to be
degenerate, how much must be the number
of allocated cells in the matrix?
a. 6
b. 9
c. 15
d. 24
94. Consider the following statements:
The assignment problem is seen to be the
special case of the transportation problem
in which
(The symbols have the usual meaning)
1. m = n
2. all ai = 1
3. xij = 1
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
95. If average arrival rate in a queue is 6/hr,
and the average service rate is 10/hr,
which one of the following is the average
number of customers in the line, including
the customer being served?
a. 03
b. 06
c. 12
d. 15
96. If the number of arrivals in a queue
follows the Poisson distribution, then the
inter arrival time obeys which one of the
following distributions?
a. Poisson’s distribution
b. Negative exponential law
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c. Normal distribution b. line of action and the pitch circle of the
d. Binomial driven gear
97. Consider the following follower motions c. dedendum circle of the driver gear and
in respect of a given lift, speed of rotation the addendum circle of the driven gear
and angle of stroke of a cam: d. addendum circle of the driver gear and
1. Cycloidal motion the pitch circle of the driven gear
2. Simple harmonic motion 102. Interference between the teeth of two
3. Uniform velocity motion meshing involutes gears can be reduced or
eliminated by:
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of the above in the descending 1. increasing the addendum of the gear
order of maximum velocity? teeth and correspondingly reducing the
addendum of the pinion.
a. 3—2—1
2. reducing the pressure angle of the teeth
b. 1—2—3
of the meshing gears.
c. 2—3—1
3. increasing the centre distance.
d. 3—1—2
Which of the statements given above is/are
98. If  = helix angle, and Pc = circular pitch; correct?
then which one of the following correctly
a. 1 and 2
expresses the axial pitch of a helical gear?
b. 2 and 3
a. pc cos 
c. 1 only
pc d. 3 only
b.
cos  103. What is the direction of the Coriolis
pc component of acceleration in a slotted
c.
tan  lever-crank mechanism?
d. pc sin  a. Along the sliding velocity vector
b. Along the direction of the crank
99. In a slider-bar mechanism, when does the
connecting rod have zero angular velocity? c. Along a line rotated 900 from the
sliding velocity vector in a direction
a. When crank angle = 0°
opposite to the angular velocity of the
b. When crank angle = 90° slotted lever
c. When crank angle = 45° d. Along a line rotated 90° from the
d. Never sliding velocity vector in a direction
100. The turning moment diagram for a single same as that of the angular velocity of
cylinder double acting steam engine the slotted lever
consists of +ve and -ye loops above and 104.
below the average torque line. For the +ve
loop, the ratio of the speeds of the
flywheel at the beginning and the end is
which one of the following?
a. Less than unity
b. Equal to unity
c. Greater than unity
d. Zero The controlling force curves for a spring-
101. Which one of the following is the correct controlled governor are shown in the
statement? above figure. Which curve represents a
In meshing gears with involutes gear teeth, stable governor?
the contact begins at the intersection of the a. 1
a. line of action and the addendum circle b. 2
of the driven gear c. 3
d. 4
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105. For a governor running at constant speed, b. 0.5
what is the value of the force acting on the c. 0.3
sleeve? d. 0.866
a. Zero 110.
b. Variable depending upon the load
c. Maximum
d. Minimum
106. What is the condition for dynamic
balancing of a shaft-rotor system?
a.  M = 0 and  F = 0
A rolling disc of radius ‘r’ and mass ‘m’ is
b.  M = 0
connected to one end of a linear spring of
c.  F = 0 stiffness ‘k’, as shown in the above figure.
d.  M +  F = 0 The natural frequency of oscillation is
107. given by which one of the following?
2k
a.  
3m
k
b.  
m
k
c.  
2m
2k
d.  
(W = Weight of reciprocating parts per m
cylinder) 111. In a 6 × 20 wire rope, No. 6 indicates the
For a three-cylinder radial engine, the a. diameter of the wire rope in mm
primary and direct reverse cranks are as b. number of strands in the wire rope
shown in the above figures.
c. number of wires
Which one of the following pairs is not
d. gauge number of the wire
correctly matched in this regard?
112. Which one of the following statements
3W 2
a. Primary direct force …  .r relating to belt drives is correct?
2g
a. The rotational speeds of the pulleys are
b. Primary reverse force … Zero directly proportional to their diameters
c. Primary direct crank speed …  b. The length of the crossed belt increases
d. Primary reverse crank speed …. 2 as the sum, of the diameters of the
108. A uniform bar, fixed at one end carries a pulleys increases
heavy concentrated mass at the other end. c. The crowning of the pulleys is done to
The system is executing longitudinal make the drive sturdy
vibrations. The inertia of the bar may be d. The slip increases the velocity ratio
taken into account by which one of the 113. A force ‘F’ is to be transmitted through a
following portions of the mass of the bar at square-threaded power screw into a nut. If
the free end? ‘t’ is the height of the nut and ‘d’ is the
a. 5/384 minor diameter, then which one of the
b. 1/48 following is the average shear stress over
c. 33/140 the screw thread ?
d. 1/3 2F
a.
109. A motion is aperiodic at what value of the  dt
damping factor? F
b.
a. 1.0 or above  dt
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F a. Both A and R are individually true and
c.
2 dt R is the correct explanation of A.
4F b. Both A and R are individually true but
d. R is not the correct explanation of A.
 dt
c. A is true but R is false
114.
d. A is false but R is true
118. Assertion (A): Greater force on the
plunger is required in case of direct
extrusion than indirect one.
Reason (R): In case of direct extrusion, the
direction of the force applied on the
plunger and the direction of the movement
of the extruded metal are the same.
In the compound gear train shown in the a. Both A and R are individually true and
above figure, gears A and C have equal R is the correct explanation of A.
numbers of teeth and gears B and D have b. Both A and R are individually true but
equal numbers of teeth. When A rotates at R is not the correct explanation of A.
800 rpm, D rotates at 200 rpm. The c. A is true but R is false
rotational speed of compound gears BC
d. A is false but R is true
would then be
119. Assertion (A): In a multispindle automatic
a. 300 rpm
lathe, the turret tool holder is indexed to
b. 400 rpm engage the cutting tools one by one for
c. 500 rpm successive machining operations.
d. 600 rpm Reason (R): Turret is a multiple tool
115. Under service conditions involving jarring, holder so that for successive machining
vibration and pulsation of the working operation, the tools needs not be changed.
load, the bolt of choice would be a a. Both A and R are individually true and
a. short bolt with high rigidity R is the correct explanation of A.
b. long bolt with increased elasticity b. Both A and R are individually true but
c. bolt with a dished washer R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. bolt with castle nut c. A is true but R is false
116. Gearing contact is which one of the d. A is false but R is true
following? 120. Assertion (A): Value engineering is a
a. Sliding contact technique applied to compete in the market
b. Sliding contact, only rolling at pitch only at the time of introduction of a
point product or service.
c. Rolling contact Reason (R): Increasing the functional
d. Rolling and sliding at each point of worth of a product appreciably, keeping
contact the cost almost constant, is the real
objective of value engineering.
117. Assertion (A): For drilling cast iron, the
tool is provided with a point angle smaller a. Both A and R are individually true and
than that required for a ductile material. R is the correct explanation of A.
Reason (R): Smaller point angle results in b. Both A and R are individually true but
lower rake angle. R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true