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PAPER NAME : MINOR 9

1) A drug X is having percentage compressibility of 27 . A pharmaceutical excepient Y is added to drug

in its usual concentration. Now the flow property of X comes in the range of 5-15. The excepient Y is& .

A) A lubricant

B) A glidant

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C) A Binder

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D) both a and b

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Correct Answer is B

EXP : Explanation: Glidant is used to enhance flow property. The percentage compressibility in 5-15 is

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excellent. (Table 8.4 Lachman). Glidants are talc-5%,corn starch 5-10 %, colloidal silica such as

Cab-o-Sil or aerosol 0.25-3 5 concentration. This part is important and to be studied with proper

attention.

2) Select the true statement for partition coefficient

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A) Ratio of unionized lipophilic and hydrophilic drug concentration

B) Ratio of ionized lipophilic and hydrophilic drug concentration

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C) Ratio of unionized hydrophilic and lipophilic drug concentration

D) Ratio of ionized hydrophilic and lipohilic drug concentration

.b

Correct Answer is A

3) A weakly acidic drug A with acid dissociation constant (pKa) 1.2 was administered orally. Calculate
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the theoretical percentage drug ionized present in stomach?

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A) 1%

B) 0%
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C) 1%

D) 1.00%

Correct Answer is B

EXP : Stomach pH is 1.2. According to Handerson Hasselbach Equation at pH equal to Dissociation

constant, the percentage ionized fraction is equal to unionized means both are equal i.e. 50%.

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4) In disperse systems flocculation occurs when Zeta potential:

A) Increases

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B) Decreases

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C) Remains as such

D) none of the above

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Correct Answer is B

EXP : When Zeta potential decreases flocculation occurs because of cohelesence of the particles due to
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reduced free energy.

5) Suspending agents commonly used in suspensions act through following most appropriate
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mechanism:
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A) Reducing interfacial tension

B) Increase zeta potential

C) Increases viscosity
.b

D) Decrease viscosity
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Correct Answer is C

EXP : Thickning agets are used as suspending agents to make particles suspended in the continuous
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phase.
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6) Which of the following is transparent sytem:

A) W/O emulsion

B) Microemulsion
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C) O/W emulsion

D) Emulsions never are transparent

Correct Answer is B

EXP : in microemulsion the globule size is in microrange that is not visible with naked eyes hence looks

transparent.

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7) An o/w emulsion is stabilized with sodium stearate; upon addition of calcium chloride lead to

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formation of w/o emulsion; the phenomenon is known as

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A) Breaking of emulsion

B) Creaming of emulsion

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C) Phase inversion

D) Coalescence

Correct Answer is C
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8) Which of the following type of surfactant category is commonly used to produce stable emulsions:
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A) Anionic surfactant

B) Cationic surfactant
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C) Nonionic surfactant

D) Surfactants are only used to prepare suspensions

.b

Correct Answer is C

9) HLB system is used to classify

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A) Surfactants
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B) Preservatives

C) Antioxidants
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D) Sequestering Agents

Correct Answer is A

10) Which of the following is not correct pair:

A) Crystal Growth-Ostwald ripening

B) pH scale-Sorenson

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C) HLB scale-Fick s Theory

D) Interparticular force-DLVO theory

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Correct Answer is C

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EXP : HLB scale is concerned with Griffin

11) Which of the following is causative organism of peptic ulcers:

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A) Salmonella typhi

B) S. aureus m
C) Helicobector pylori

D) All of these
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Correct Answer is C
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12) A patient suffering from glaucoma. He has to travel by ship in the sea. Which of the following

should be avoided:

A) Cyclizine
.b

B) Diphenhydramine
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C) Promethazine

D) Scopolamine
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Correct Answer is D
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EXP : All the drugs in this category are antiemetics and used in motion sickness. Scopolamine acts by

its anticholinergic action hence is contraindicated in glaucoma. Cyclizine, buclizine are antihistaminics

and are effective in motion sickness. Promethazine is the exception from Phenothiazine categorythat is
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having activity in motion sickness by virtue of probable antihistaminic activity. Other phenothiazine

derivatives like chlorpromazine, triflupromazine are ineffective in motion sickness that occurs during

ship travel, or sometimes in bus or in any motion.

13) Metoclopromide acts by following mechanism

A) Sedates CTZ

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B) Accelerates gastic emptying

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C) Both a and b

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D) Act on heart to reduce anxiety

Correct Answer is C

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EXP : Metoclopromide is acts by dual mechanism; sedates Chemoreceptor trigger Zone (CTZ) and

increase contractility of smooth muscles of upper GIT hence casuse antiemetic action

14) Which of the following is not effective in healing of peptic ulcers

A) Cimetidine
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B) Ranitidine

C) Cetrizine
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D) All are effective

Correct Answer is C
.b

15) Omeprazole act by following mechanism:

A) Inhibit Prostaglandin synthesis

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B) Antagonize action of H2 receptor

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C) Inhibit H+ Potassium ATPase pump

D) It neutralize the HCl

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Correct Answer is C

EXP : Omeprazole, lansoprazole, pantoprazole acts on (inhibit) H+ Potassium ATPase pump (proton

pump) system of the gastic parietal cells. It is ultimate step in gastic acid production.

16) Triple therapy regimen for eradication of Helicobactor pylori includes following therapy for seven

days

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A) A proton pump inhibitor, A macrolide and amoxicillin or metronidazole

B) A H2 blocker, A macrolide and amoxicillin or metronidazole

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C) A PG1 blocker, amoxicillin, metronidazole

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D) Sucralfate, amoxicillin and metronidazole

Correct Answer is A

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EXP : Triple therapy regimen includes A proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole, A macrolide like

clarithromycin and amoxicillin or metronidazole for eradication of H.pylori (FSK BARAR p.538)
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17) An ideal bronchodialator would act via

A) Stimulation of beta 2 adrenoreceptor

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B) Suppression of beta 1 receptor
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C) Stimulation of alpha 1 receptor

D) Stimulation of beta 1 receptor

Correct Answer is A
.b

18) Salbutamol is
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A) Beta 2 receptor antagonist

B) Beta 2 receptor agonist

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C) Alpha 1 receptor agonst

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D) An antiallergic

Correct Answer is B

19) Zafrileukast is an
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A) Beta 2 agonist

B) Muscarinic receptor antagonist

C) Leukotriene receptor antagonist

D) H1 receptor antagonist

Correct Answer is C

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EXP : Zafrileukast is an Cystenyl-leukotriene receptor antagonist. Other drug from this category is

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monteleukast.

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20) Usually in acute asthamatic attack the following is given along with a bronchodialator:

A) Aspirin

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B) Cetrizine

C) Adrenaline

D) Beclomethasone

Correct Answer is D
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EXP : Beclomethasone is usually given with bronchodialator like salbutamol/salmeterol. This acts as

non specific anti-inflammatory agent too provide relief from congestion and exudation.
ph

21) Bronchial asthma is treated with all approaches except....

A) Neutralization of reaginic antibodies reaction

.b

B) Prevention of Ag-Ab reaction

C) Suppresion of bronchial hyperreactivity

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D) Increasing bronchial secreation

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Correct Answer is D

22) Benzoin is best described as& .

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A) Balsamic resin

B) Oleo-resin

C) Balsam

D) Gum-resin

Correct Answer is A

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23) Clove contains volatile oil& .

A) Eugenol, a phenol

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B) Pinene, a sesquiterpene

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C) Eugenol, an aldehyde

D) Cineole, a ketone

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Correct Answer is C

24) The active constituent of Caraway& . m

A) Carvone (20%)

B) Limonene (30%)
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C) Carvone (60%)
ph

D) Eugenol (40%)

Correct Answer is C

25) Rhubarb mainly contain& .

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A) Gallitanins which are condensed tannins

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B) Ellagitanins which are condensed tannins

C) Gallitanins which are Hydrolysable tannins

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D) Ellagitanins which are Hydrolysable tannins

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Correct Answer is C

26) The IUPAC name of MYRISTICIN is& .

A) 4 allyl 6 methoxy 1,2 methylenedioxybenzene

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B) 2 allyl 4 methoxy 1,2 methylenedioxybenzene

C) 5 allyl 6 phenoxy 1,2 methylenedioxybenzene

D) 6 allyl 7 phenoxy 1,2 methylenedioxybenzene

Correct Answer is A

27) Wild cherry bark mainly contains& ..

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A) Condensed tannins

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B) Condensed & hydrolysable tannins

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C) Hydrolysable tannins

D) Complex tannins

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Correct Answer is A

28) Glycyrrhiza is available as....

A) Sodium and potassium salt of glycrrhizinic acid

B) Calcium & pottasium salt of glycrrhizinic acid

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C) Sodium and calcium salt of glycrrhizinic acid

D) Potassium salt of glycrrhizinic

ph

Correct Answer is B

29) Quantitatively the major constituent of Lemon is& .

.b

A) Citral

B) Limonene
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C) Both a & b
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D) Citronellal

Correct Answer is B
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30) Quercetin is.....

A) A flavonoid, Antiinflammatory & Antioxidant properties & derived from phenylalanine

B) An Alkaloid, Anti-inflammatory & Antioxidant properties & derived from phenylalanine

C) A flavonoid, Antiinflammatory & Antioxidant properties & derived from tyramine

D) A Volatile oil, Anti-inflammatory & Antioxidant properties & derived from phenylalanine

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Correct Answer is A

31) Clove contains& .

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A) Eugenol, a sesquiterpenoidal volalile oil

f.c
B) Eugenol, a diterpenoidal volalile oil

C) Eugenol, a monoterpenoidal volalile oil

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D) Eugenol, a polyterpenoidal volalile oil

Correct Answer is A m
32) The chemical nature of Eugenol is& .

A) Ester
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B) Ketone
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C) Aldehyde

D) Ether

Correct Answer is B
.b

33) Terminal sterilization is concerned with& .

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A) Alpha rays

B) Beta rays
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C) Gama Rays
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D) X-Rays

Correct Answer is C

34) Major neurotransmitter in sympathetic nervous system is

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A) Noradrenaline

B) Ephedrine

C) Acetylcholine

D) Adrenaline

Correct Answer is A

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35) O-Hydroxyl benzaldehyde in the presence of alkaline hydrogen peroxide gives Catechol, the

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reaction is known as....

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A) Diazen condensation

B) Dakin reaction

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C) Diels-Alder reaction

D) Dieckmann condensation

Correct Answer is A
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36) In Meerween-Ponndorf- Verly reduction reaction....
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A) Carbonyl compounds reduced to respective acid

B) Carbonyl compounds reduced to respective alcohol

ph

C) Carbonyl compounds reduced to both respective alcohol and acid

D) None of the above

.b

Correct Answer is B

37) Phenylketonuria is caused by....

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A) Lack of the enzyme needed to convert phenylalanine to tryptamine

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B) Lack of the enzyme needed to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine

C) Lack of the enzyme needed to convert phenylalanine to ketone

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D) Lack of the enzyme needed to convert phenylalanine to urea

Correct Answer is B

38) Select true statment for Niemann-pick disease....

A) Lysosomal storage disease

B) carbohydrate storage disorder

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C) non-heredity disease

D) All of the above

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Correct Answer is A

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39) Select the irrational evaluation parameters for volatile oils, specified in BP&

A) Examination of fixed oil based on residue after evaporation

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B) Foreign ester content based on residue after evaporation

C) Foreign ester content based on conversion to a crystalline deposits

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D) Presence of water content based on turbidity of a Carbon Disulfide solution

Correct Answer is B
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40) Fabry s Disease is& ..
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A) A lipid metabolic disorder & is caused by a buildup of glycolipid in tissues

B) A Nucleic acid metabolic disorder & is caused by a buildup of glycolipid in tissues

C) A Carbohydrate metabolic disorder & is caused by a buildup of glycogen in tissues

.b

D) A Protien metabolic disorder & is caused by a buildup of glycoprotien in tissues

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Correct Answer is A

41) Select the true statement for gluconeogenesis& .

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A) Reverse of glycolysis
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B) Generation of glucose from non-carbohydrate carbon substrates

C) Majority of enzymes for the process are found in cytoplasm

D) All of these
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Correct Answer is D

42) Krabbe's disease is caused by....

A) Mutation in the GALC gene

B)

C) Both a & b

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D) none of the above

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Correct Answer is

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43) Select the false statement for volatile oils& .

A) Chemically these are made up of unsaturated hydrocarbon

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B) These are evaluated for their optical roatation, refractive index & Relative density units:Isoprenoid
units

C) Their volatile oil content is commonly determined by steam distillation techniques

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D) Chemically these are made up of saturated hydrocarbons units:Isoprenoid units

Correct Answer is D
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44) Select a glycogen storage disease of type II disease

A) Phenylketourea
ph

B) Anderson s disease

C) Krabbe s disease
.b

D) All of these
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Correct Answer is B

45) Buildup of glucocerebrosides in tissues is result of& ..

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A) Gaucher's disease
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B) Anderson s disease

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C) Fabry s disease

D) Gluconeogenesis

Correct Answer is A

46) Site specific mutagenesis mechenism involves

A) UTPase deficiency strain of microbe

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B) Known Wild type gene sequence

C) Uracil deglycosidase

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D) All of these

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Correct Answer is A

47) Type II Restriction endonucleases

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A) cleave within or at short specific distances from recognition site

B) cleave at sites remote from recognition site m

C) cleave at sites a short distance from recognition site

D) target methylated DNA

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Correct Answer is A
ph

48) EcoRI is a restriction enzyme:Abbreviation "R" stands for

A) RY13:Strain

B) Order of identification
.b

C) Restriction
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D) none of the above

Correct Answer is A
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49) Select the RNA genetic codon for amino acid, leucine& ..
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A) UUA

B) UUC

C) CUG
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D) All of these

Correct Answer is D

50) In protien synthesis, the stop codon are& .

A) UAG,UGA & UAA

B) UAG & UGA

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C) UAG,UGA & UGG

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D) UAG & UGG

f.c
Correct Answer is A

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