Aviation Ordnanceman and Military Leadership Study Guide

IYAOYAS
Developed by LT Damon R. Sumerall
VP-4 / HSL-47 / USS INDEPENDENCE (CV 62) / USS TARAWA (LHA 1) PATROL AND RECONNAISSANCE WING TEN / USS NIMITZ (CVN 68) / VFA-25 HELICOPTER SEA COMBAT WING PACIFIC / USS PELELIU (LHA 5) and

LTJG Michael J. Dasch

USS INDEPENDENCE (CV 62) / USS KITTY HAWK (CV 63) / VX-1 USS KITTY HAWK (CV 63) / VFA-195

June 2009

Table of Contents
Publications Explosives Handling Qualification and Certification Ammunition Administration Explosives and Ammunition Cartridge Actuated Devices (CADs) GP Bombs/PGMs/Walleye/Firebombs Cluster Bombs Practice Bombs Fuzes Aircraft Rockets and Launchers Aircraft Missiles and Missile Launchers Pyrotechnics Torpedoes/Mines/Destructors/Quickstrike M61A1 Vulcan Gun System Aerial Targets Ammunition Handling Equipment Suspension and Releasing Equipment Flare Dispensers Expendable Countermeasures and Photoflash Cartridges Shipboard Magazines and Operations Shore Based Magazines and Operations Weapons Elevators Advanced Base Magazines and Operations Ammunition Shipping and Transportation Bomb and Rocket Assembly Loading/Downloading and Flightline Operations Aircraft Weapons Systems Test Equipment Corrosion Control and Preservation Aviation Maintenance Ratings/NAMP/3M Leadership Basic Military Requirements Military Requirements for Petty Officer Second and Third Class Military Requirements for Petty Officer First Class Military Requirements for Chief Petty Officer Evaluations and Fitness Reports Uniform Regulations Career Counselors Hand Book Anti-Terrorism/Force Protection Personal Financial Management Operational Risk Management Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy 1 5 7 11 13 15 19 21 23 27 31 39 43 47 51 53 61 65 67 69 73 77 79 81 83 85 87 91 95 99 105 109 127 131 139 153 155 157 159 161 163 165

List of Tables
AWSE Test Sets Table 1 Table 2

Foreword
This study guide is NOT all inclusive, meaning it was not developed as a singular resource for passing the Aviation Ordnanceman rating exam. It is meant to be used as a supplement to what can be learned from actually reading the relevant and most up to date publications and instructions listed in the bibliography. This study guide should be used as a supplement to the latest Advancement Bibliography which can be found at https://www.advancement.cnet.navy.mil. Some questions in this study guide may seem outdated and obsolete, however they still appear on the rating exam and as such remain valid. This study guide is a working document, it is only as good as the inputs that are received from Sailors like you after each exam cycle. If you remember questions and the answers -so they can be researched- after the exam and would like them to considered for incorporation into the study guide for the next update send them to the following email addresses: sumerald@lha5.navy.mil or damon.sumerall@navy.mil and michael.dasch@cvw5.navy.mil or michael.dasch@fe.navy.mil

GOOD LUCK ON THE EXAM!!!

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Manuals, Publications, and Instructions
If you want additional copies of a publication what form would you use to order it on? DD Form 1348 What Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC) is assigned to ordnance? 8000-8999 Aviation armament and ordnance accessories are detailed in what series of NAVIAR manuals? 11 What NAVAIR major category/series designation number is assigned to ordnance manuals? 11 Series NA 01-1A-509 Volume V What NAVAIR major category/series designation number is assigned to electronics manuals? 16 Series What NAVAIR major category/series designation number is assigned to ground support equipment manuals? 19 Series NA 19-01-500 What type of publication describes mandatory changes or modifications to a specific item of armament equipment? AAC (Aircraft Armament Change) What publication lists manuals stocked at the Naval Publications and Forms Center? NAVSUP 2002 A list of all Navy technical manuals, forms, and NAVAIR Technical Directives (TDs) is contained in what publication? NAVSUP 2002 Volume 3 An IPB for specific aircraft is identified by which of the following NAVAIR numbers 01-6JKD-503, 01-85ADF-4, 01-245FDA-1, or 01-85SGG-509? 01-85ADF-4 For information on the corrosion control program and corrosion theory you would look in what technical manual? NA 01-1A-509 Volume I What technical manual provides information on materials and procedures to prevent, control, and repair corrosion damage to aircraft on land or at sea? NA 01-1A-509 Volume II If you find corrosion on a LAU-7 guided missile launcher power supply and wanted to treat it, what publication would you go to? (New) (Old) NA 01-1A-509 Volume III NA 16-01-540 For a complete list and description of approved handling equipment for ordnance, refer to what publication? (NAVSEA and NAVAIR publication number) NAVSEA OP 2173 Volume 1 & 2 NA 19-100-1.1 & 1.2 What publication provides Navy traffic managers/supervisors with information on the regulations and procedures that govern the transportation and safe handling of hazardous materials and explosives? (New) (Old) NAVSEA SW020-AG-SAF-010 (Also known as the Navy Transportation Handbook) NAVSEA OP 2165 What publication prescribes the requirements and regulations for ammunition afloat? NAVSEA OP 4 What publication prescribes the requirements and regulations for ammunition ashore? NAVSEA OP 5 What volume of the OP 5 provides information about the safe handling and storage of ammunition and explosives at advanced naval bases? To determine requirements for control of corrosion in SE, instructions are provided in what NAVAIR manual? NA 17-1-125 Support equipment preservation is performed in accordance with what publication? What technical manual provides ordering information for consumable materials and equipment used to prevent, control, and repair corrosion damage to avionics? To provide ordering information for consumable materials and equipment used to prevent, control, and repair corrosion damage to aircraft AND avionics. The treatment of corrosion on avionics components is contained in what publication? (New) (Old) NA 01-1A-509 Volume III NA 16-01-540

What is the purpose of Volume IV NA 01-1A-509 Cleaning and Corrosion Control Manual?

What publication provides information on the general loading and unloading procedures for motor vehicles and rail cars? (New) (Old) NAVSEA SW020-AG-SAF-010 (Also known as the Navy Transportation Handbook) NAVSEA OP 2165

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What publication describes all pyrotechnic, screening, marking and countermeasures currently available and authorized for fleet use (NAVSEA and NAVAIR publication number)? NAVSEA SWO 50-AB-MAA-010 / NA 11-15-7 What publication contains descriptions of shipboard armament weapons support equipment? NAVSEA OP 2173 Volume 1 & 2 NA 19-100-1.1 & 1.2 What publication contains instructions and regulations that pertain to Navy explosive drivers? (New) (Old) NAVSEA SW020-AF-HBK-010 NAVSEA OP 2239 What publication provides information about conventional ordnance stockpile management? NAVSUP P724 To keep up with current fuzes, you should refer to what manual? NAVAIR 11-1F-2 Personnel who use loading manuals, checklists and Stores Reliability Cards (SRCs) should verify they are using the latest edition by checking it against what index? NAVAIR 01-700 Information in loading manuals must not be construed as the authority to load any weapon for flight, what manual must be consulted for this authorization? Applicable aircraft NATOPS/Tactical Manual What publication contains the authority to load various types of ordnance on a particular model of aircraft? The aircrafts NATOPS Flight/Tactical Manual During a loading evolution it is discovered that there is a conflict in loading procedures between the loading manual and the checklist, which takes precedence? The publication with the most current date shall take precedence. Do this by checking the A page or verifying both against the NA 01-700 What information is contained in section III of the airborne weapons/stores loading manual? Configuration data What information is contained in section V of the airborne weapons/stores loading manual? Common procedures What publication provides a Stocklist of Navy Ammunition? (New) (Old) NAVSUP P803 NAVSEA TW0-010-AA-ORD-010 and NAVAIR 11-1-116A What publication would you refer to for information on the assembly of bombs? NA 11-140-5 To what publication would you refer for information on the assembly of missiles? NA 11-140-6 series (New) (Old) NAVSUP P802 TW0-010-AA-0RD-030/NAVAIR 11-1-116B What information is contained in section V of the NA 11-140-5 Airborne Weapons Assembly Manual? Common procedures Unserviceable, Suspended and Limited Use Ammunition - Notice of Ammunition Reclassification (NAR Manual) What publication describes and illustrates aircraft general purpose bombs, practice bombs, fuzes and associated components? NAVAIR 11-5A-17 What is section 3 of the Weapons Assembly Manual? Configurations

What publication is a compilation of all ordnance safety precautions with which all naval personnel should be familiar? (New) (Old) NAVSEA SW020-AD-SAF-010 April 2005 NAVSEA OP 3347

In 2005 the NAVSEA SW020-AD-SAF-010 replaced the NAVSEA OP 3347 and OP 1014 To what publication would you refer if you were preparing lectures on general ordnance safety? (New) (Old) NAVSEA SW020-AD-SAF-010 April 2005 NAVSEA OP 3347

What publication contains information on the origins and necessities of Navy ordnance safety precautions? (New) (Old) NAVSEA SW020-AD-SAF-010 April 2005 NAVSEA OP 1014

What publication supplies data on HERO and the hazards of RF, LASER, and ionizing radiation (NAVSEA and NAVAIR pub number)? NAVSEA OP 3565/NAVAIR 16-1-529

What publication provides the Navy Ammunition Logistics Codes (NALCs)?

What is the NAVSUP P801 (New) and TW024-AA-ORD-010 (Old)?

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What section of the Airborne Weapons Assembly Manual contains information on support equipment configurations that are authorized for bomb assembly and pre-loaded accessory suspension equipment? Section 3 Weapons loading checklists are published under the direction of what command? NAVAIR Conventional weapons loading checklists are abbreviations of the procedures found in what manual? Airborne Weapons/Stores Loading Manual What item contains abbreviated procedures for aircraft loading in high tempo operations? Checklists In extreme situations what is allowed to be used in place of the loading manual or checklist? Stores Reliability Cards (SRCs) Stores Reliability Cards are abbreviations of procedures found in what? Airborne Weapons/Stores Checklists Although both checklists and SRCs are approved, their use must be authorized by whom? Type Commander (TYCOM) What facility has technical responsibility for loading manuals and checklists? NAVAIRSYSCOM What publication contains information on arming and safing signals? CV NATOPS NA 00-80T-105 (This information is also contained in the T/M/S loading manual, NA 00-80T-103 Conventional Weapons Handling Ashore and NA 00 80T-113 Aircraft Signals NATOPS) The NA 00-80T-105 CV NATOPS manual is issued by whom? CNO To emphasize safety precautions by using signs throughout the ship, signs may be obtained as cog 1 material through what publication? NAVSUP Pub 2002, Navy Stocklist of Forms and Publications What is the NA 00-80T-105? CV NATOPS What instruction is used as the basis for conducting investigations involving safety? OPNAVISNT 5102.1 For information on general aircraft hand signals you would refer to what manual? NA 00-80T-113 Aircraft Signals NATOPS What manual contains detailed information on handling, fueling, launching, recovering aircraft and weapons handling aboard CV(N) class ships? NA 00-80T-120 CV Flight/Hangar Deck NATOPS Manual For information about the Naval Ordnance Maintenance Management Program you would refer to what instruction/publication? OPNAVINST 8000.16 What manual provides a single-source reference for cook off characteristics and summarizes the current available data for in-service Naval air-launched weapons? NA 00-80R-114 U.S. Navy Aircraft Firefighting and Rescue Manual Which of the following NAVAIR publications contains the group assembly parts list? IPB (Illustrated Parts Breakdown) A Rapid Action Change (RAC) is issued for what reason? To expedite the issue of urgent safety information To report incorrect information in a publication, you should use which of the following documents? Technical Manual Deficiency/Evaluation Report (TMDER) via Naval message OR NAVGRAM (Depending on the severity or impact on safety of the incorrect information this applies to NAVSEA pubs, NAVAIR pubs use TPDRs using the OPNAV 4790/66) What OPNAVINST provides policies and guidelines for aviation safety for operations ashore and afloat? OPNAVINST 3750.6 Detailed information on the operation, testing, and troubleshooting of the gunnery system for a particular aircraft is provided in what publication? The Maintenance Instructions Manual (MIMs) What form is used to report technical manual errors? Technical Publication Deficiency Report (TPDR) OPNAV 4790/66 for NAVAIR Manuals Technical Manual Deficiency/Evaluation Report (TMDER) for NAVSEA manuals

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What manual contains information and procedures for support and control of aircraft, weapons handling, and includes relationships, responsibilities, training requirements, and selected normal and emergency procedures for conducting flight operations on and in the vicinity of the CV(N)? NAVAIR 00-80T-105 CV NATOPS Manual What manual contains detailed information and procedures for the handling of aviation fuels and includes information on loading ordnance while fueling? NA 00-80T-109 Aircraft Refueling NATOPS Manual What manual contains information and procedures for support and control of aircraft, weapons handling, and includes relationships, responsibilities, training requirements, and selected normal and emergency procedures on LHA/LHD class ships? NAVAIR 00-80T-106 LHA/LHD NATOPS Manual

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Explosives Handling Qualification and Certification
All DON personnel that handle or physically interact with ammunition and explosives must be qualified according to what publication? OPNAVINST 8020.14 / MCO P8020.11 NOTE: The OPNAVINST 8023.24A was issued in August 2007 as directed by the OPNAVINST 8020.14 and is now the lead instruction regarding Qual/Cert for the Navy. Who initiates, monitors and maintains the ordnance certification program? Commanding Officer or Officer In Charge (OIC) The Commanding Officer designates in writing, what person as the ordnance certification board chairman? Department Head, in a squadron normally the Maintenance Officer What is the minimum rank of an ordnance certification board member (without a waiver)? E-6 To conduct a post load inspection, an Ordnanceman must be qualified and certified at what minimum level? Quality Assurance What is the minimum level of certification you must be to work without supervision? Individual Newly assigned personnel are never permitted to work alone (unsupervised) until they have met what criteria? Are either certified at the level of Individual or Team Leader Qualification/certification board members must be appointed in writing by what individual? CO/OIC Ordnance used for classroom training should be which of the following types - expended, certified inert, expired or live? Certified inert Military personnel must meet the standards of NAVMED P117 every five years until they reach what age? 50 According to OPM standards, civilian personnel over age 60 should have medical exams at what specific interval? Every year/Annually Note: Recent changes in Aug 08 to the NAVMED P117 now require physicals for explosives drivers/handlers to be completed every two years. Additionally, OPNAV and BUMED developed standardized color coded OPNAV Forms/medical examiner cards for explosive drivers (white) and explosive handlers (yellow/off-white). What condition code is used for suspended in stock? Condition Code J - Ammunition that requires investigation, technical evaluation or analysis as a prerequisite to true condition determination and classification. What cert level do you need to build bombs with out supervision?

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Ammunition Administration
Ammo Transaction Reports (ATRs) pertaining to the movement, reclassification, or expenditure of complete rounds, missiles or torpedoes are transmitted under what classification? CONFIDENTIAL ATRs from ships and outside the continental United Stated (OCONUS) activities are transmitted under what classification? UNCLASSIFIED ATRs pertaining to the movement, reclassification, or expenditures of mines, mine components or Destructors are transmitted under what classification? CONFIDENTIAL ATRs submitted by submarine are transmitted under what classification? CONFIDENTIAL ATRs pertaining to a complete on-load/off-load or revealing complete onboard capabilities of major weapons systems are transmitted under what classification? CONFIDENTIAL ATRs having ordnance information pertaining to ships and OCONUS activities are transmitted as what security classification? UNCLASSIFIED DATA REPORTING TOTAL OR OPERATIONALLY READY QUANTITIES WOULD BE CONFIDENTIAL What system is used to automate information regarding Navy conventional ammunition inventory management and control? Ordnance Information System (OIS) What system serves as the single point of reference within the Navy for the worldwide status and visibility for conventional ammunition data and is the only inventory reporting system used by the CNO? OIS ATRs update which of the following systems AWARS, AWIS, ACES, ROLMS, CAIMS? (New) (Old) OIS-Wholesale CAIMS What is the definition of a NALC? A four digit code assigned by NOLSC What is the Conventional Ammunition Integrated Management Systems (CAIMS) also known as OIS Wholesale? A management tool for all echelons of the Navy that relate assets (ordnance) to requirements and inventory managers for item decision-making purposes What CAIMS/OIS subsystem is used to account for ammunition by the serial or lot number? Serial Lot Item Tracking (SLIT) What command maintains the CAIMS ammunition stock status files? (New) (Old) Naval Operational Logistics Support Command (NOLSC) Ships Parts Control Center (SPCC)

Deployed ships submit Ammunition Transaction Reports (ATRs) to whom? (New) (Old) Naval Operational Logistics Support Command (NOLSC) Ships Parts Control Center (SPCC)

Of the following - overseas base, station weapons, aircraft squadron or shipboard weapons department - which is not a CAIMS reporting activity for conventional ordnance? Aircraft squadron Ammo Transaction Reports (ATRs) should be submitted on what minimum basis? Daily - within 24 hours of an ammunition transaction - transfer, receipt, expenditure, or reclassification After an ammunition transaction occurs, you should submit an ATR within what maximum number of hours? 48 ATRs are submitted through the chain of command, via Naval message to whom? NOLSC Who issues instructions that provide detailed guidance for requisition and turn-in of ammunition within their jurisdiction? Each Fleet Commander issues instructions (COMPACFLT/COMLANTFLT) How many digits are in a Naval Ammunition Logistics Code (NALC)? Four digits What is the purpose of a NALC? It identifies Navy unique items of ordnance

For in-depth information on the ROLMS/OIS Retail system, you should refer to what publication? NAVSUP P-724 To report ATRs, what software system should you use? (New) (Old) OIS-Retail ROLMS

ATRs are forwarded by what means? Routine message

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What determines the routing system a ship must use when ordering ammunition? The ships geographic location and mission Who gives final authorization of changes to shipfill allowance requests? Chief of Naval Operations What ammunition allowance is used for the ships permanently installed armament? Shipfill allowance Define cargo load allowance? The allowance of ammunition carried by AE, AOE, AO, and AOR class ships issued to fleet units in support of their assigned mission Define mission load allowance? The allowance of ammunition carried by CV(N), LHD, and LHA class ships in support of their assigned mission (Bombs, air launched missiles, torpedoes, and 20MM etc.) exclusive of the ships own armament. Define shipfill allowance? The allowance of ammunition for the ships permanently installed armament (20MM for CIWS, RIM-7 for the Ships Point Defense System) Identify the cog in 2E 1425-00-940-1347-EO75? 2E Identify the Federal Supply Code (FSC) in 2E 1425-00-940-1347? 1425 Identify the check sum digit in E487/9? 9 An NSN has what total number of digits? 13 What makes up a National Stock Number (NSN)? A four digit Federal Supply Code (FSC) and nine digit National Item Identification Number (NIIN) What items make up the Department of Defense Ammunition Code (DODAC)? The four digit FSC and the four digit NALC What type of ammunition does the cog 8E represent? Air launched missile material What type of ammunition does the cog 2E represent? Conventional air ordnance What is MILSTRIP requisitioning based upon? The DD Form 1348 Of the following which cannot be done with a MILSTRIP message - requisition, modification, cancellation or follow up? You cannot modify a MILSTRIP message What does serial/lot item tracking (SLIT) provide? Complete tracking of certain ammunition items from manufacture to expenditure by their unique serial or lot number What document is used for turn-in of ammunition? DD Form 1348-1 What form should a squadron use to turn in bomb type ammunition to a NAS Weapons Department? DD Form 1348-1 What maximum number of NALCs can you list on a DD 1348-1? One - But multiple lot numbers under the same NALC may listed What does the FOSAMS system consist of? The FOSAMS system consists of a computer keyboard, video display terminal, disk drive and a printer What does the OPSCAN system consist of? The OPSCAN system consists of an OPSCAN label, portable data scanner, and a bar code label printer Ships are required to maintain 100 percent shipfill allowance with only what exception? Shipfill allowance can be reduced to 90 percent for training purposes What authority approves ammunition allowance lists? CNO A quantity of ammunitions assembled from uniform components under similar conditions is defined by what term? Lot What determines the serviceability of a weapon? The date of manufacture What term is used for the date weapon components require intermediate or depot level maintenance or testing? Maintenance Due Date (MDD) The missile serial number is located where on the missile? Leading component Where is the missile serial number located on the AGM-84 Harpoon missile? Warhead section

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What condition code is used for suspended in stock? Condition Code J - Ammunition that requires investigation, technical evaluation or analysis as a prerequisite to true condition determination and classification.

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Explosives and Ammunition
Military explosives are divided into what general classifications? High and low explosives Define brisance? The speed at which an explosive develops its maximum pressure Define hygroscopicity? The tendency of a material to absorb moisture Define stability? Explosives ability to remain unaffected by storage conditions Define booster? What are the types of non-service ammunition? The intermediate charge that builds up the initiating shock to obtain full detonation of the burster charge The rate of detonation of is also known as what? The explosives burning speed Dummy/drill inert What type of explosive is contained in a weapon with a yellow band around it? High explosives It is not feasible to use high explosives as a propellant for what reason? The rate of detonation cannot be controlled The United Nations has organized hazardous materials into different classes. From these classes, the DOD used what total number? Three (3)L What is used to assist in the identification of ammunition as to its use or explosive hazard? Color codes (e.g., Yellow/Brown) Of the following features letter designations, mark and mod, color codes, and construction and shape, which is used to assist in the identification of ammunition as to its use or explosive hazard? Color codes Smokeless powder (Cordite N and Ballastite) What is the most sensitive component of the explosive train? Primer The booster in a high explosive train serves what purpose? It detonates the main charge Non-service ammunition is used for what purpose? Training personnel Of the following items - H-6, PBXN-110, trytenol, and tetryl, which is considered an insensitive munition? PBXN-110 Of guncotton, ballastite, tetryl, and cordite N, which is not a form of smokeless powder? Tetryl You have installed the nose fuze in a bomb, what is the order of the explosive train you have just completed? Primer, detonator, booster, and main charge Describe the basic high explosive firing train order? Firing pin, primer, detonator and booster Though no longer used as a propellant or projectile bursting charge, black powder is still used where? In ammunition and ammunition components Due to their similar deterioration characteristics, rocket motors can be stowed in the same magazine with what other type of explosive? Ballistite What explosive is almost exclusively used as the propellant for gun and rocket ammunition? Practice/training, dummy drill/inert, and exercise/recoverable What ammunition is used to develop assembly, testing, and handling proficiency without actually firing or launching the ammunition? Of the following types of ammunition dummy drill, service, practice, and captive carry, which contains explosive material and is intended for operational training? Practice Of the following types of ammunition - drill, service, captive carry, and practice, which contains explosive material used and is intended for combat use? Service Ammunition used to develop assembly and handling proficiency of loading crews is known as what type of ammunition? Dummy/drill inert

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Define restricted burning? Where burning is restricted to the desired surface or surfaces Cordite N is used in what type of ammunition? Aircraft gun ammunition M50 series 20MM incendiary ammunition is stored in what type of magazine? In a fixed ammunition magazine What explosives will not burn under normal conditions, but will detonate when ignited? Initiating explosives What is the most powerful and brisant high explosive? RDX (Also known as cyclonite or hexogen) What explosive, because of its insensitivity to shock, is used as bursting charge for armor piercing projectiles? Ammonium picrate (Explosive D) What are the types of bomb ammunition? Bombs, mines, torpedo warheads, depth charges Define tetrytol? Tetrytol is a cast mixture of tetryl and TNT What explosive may secrete an oily brown liquid known as exudate? TNT What explosive is used in underwater weapons and missile warheads? HBX-1 and HBX-3 What filler is currently used in general purpose bombs? H-6 What is the standard bursting charge for general purpose bombs? H-6 (BLU series GP bombs use PBXN-109) What is the standard explosive filler in BLU series GP bombs? PBXN-109 What explosive is used in the booster of an M904 series fuze? Tetyrl The standard explosive used in boosters is? Tetryl What explosive is never used aboard ships? Minol 2 What symbol is used for plastic white phosphorus? PWP in light red

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Cartridge Actuated Devices (CADs)
When installed in the aircraft which of the following CADs - ejector rack cartridge, ejection seat cartridge, cable cutter for helicopter hoists, and lap belt actuator, which does NOT require log book entry? Ejector rack cartridge The typical impulse cartridge has what firing train? Primer, booster, and main charge Define the service life of a CAD? The specified period of time in which a CAD is allowed to be used. To determine service life expiration, both the shelf life and installed life must be computed How is the installed life of a CAD computed? Installed life begins the day the hermetic seal is broken the container. Look up the shelf life CAD and installed life of the CAD in the NA 11-100-1.1 then compare them, the one that expires first determines the installed life of the CAD. Immediately upon opening a hermetically sealed container of personnel escape device cartridges, you should take which of the following actions? Stencil each cartridge with the service life expiration date Of the following signal cartridges CCU-44/B, MK-4, MK-23, and CXU-3, which is primarily used for day time missions with practice bombs? CXU-3 240 What is to be done after you break the hermetic seal on a container containing cads? Mark the outside of the can and the CADs inside with the open date in indelible ink. CAD service life extensions are approved by what command? If less than 30 days, only Commanding Officer approval is needed, but if longer than 30 days approval will be granted by NAVWEPCEN Indian Head, MD, and NAVAIRSYSCOM Before issue, CADs are marked by an AO for what reason? To ensure that over age CADs are not used MK-9 and MK-124 At what time is the service life expiration date month and year- stenciled on a CAD? When its hermetically sealed container is opened When are electrically primed cartridges checked for continuity? Never What CAD is used to actuate a helicopter cable cutter to cut a cable in an emergency? MK-97 Mod 0 What impulse cartridge actuates the cable cutting device for helicopter tow reels? MK-23 The gases from which of the following impulse cartridges CCU-44/B, CCU-45/B, MK-19, and MK-4, eject the flare from the SUU-25F/A dispenser? CCU-44/B How many and what type cads does SUU-25 expend? Eight (8) CCU-44/B The CCU-45/B is used for what? Release and ejects stores The CCU-45/B is a replacement for what CADs? What CAD is used to actuate a refueling hose guillotine during an in-flight emergency, operates the release ejector mechanism or eject stores from an aircraft? MK-1 Mod 3 What is the CCU-44/B impulse cartridge used for? Releases and ejects stores from an aircraft in flight The CCU-44/B is a replacement for what CAD? MK-2 Mod 1 and MK-125 Mod 0 What impulse cartridges are used as an expelling charge in the AN/ALE-29A Dispenser? MK-131, CCU-41, CCU-63, and CCU-136 Installation of the MK-131 cartridges must be done in what location? Designated RF-free area In the AN/ALE-37A, what total number of MK-131 impulse cartridges is installed in the dispenser set? What is an AOs responsibility as far CADs used on personal escape devices? Properly stowing, handling, and issuing The service life expiration date (month and year) is stenciled on a cartridge actuated device at what time? When its hermetically sealed container is opened

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What CAD replaced the MK-9 and MK-124 CADs? CCU-45/B CCU-107 What CAD is used with the SUU-25 dispenser? CCU-44/B What CAD is used for emergency release of stores on the BRU-11 bomb rack? MK-19 What CAD is used to launch MK-46 decoy flares from the ALE-29 system? (New) (Old) CCU-136 MK-131 or CCU-63 (Decoy flares only) What CAD is used to eject stores from the BRU-32 CCU-45 What CAD is used for emergency release of stores on the BRU-32? MK-19 What CAD is used in the LAU-93 missile launcher ejector assemblies? MK-107 The MK-19 CAD used for what purpose? Emergency jettison/release of stores loaded on aircraft during flight What cartridge should you install in the MK-89 Mod 0 bomb spotting charge adapter? CXU-3A/B The MK-25 MLM is ejected from a sonobuoy launcher by what impulse cartridge? JAU-22 Of the following devices - electric squib, flexible linear shaped charge, impulse cartridge or ejection seat cartridge, which is classified as a detonating explosive? Flexible linear shaped charge Of the following - shaped charge assembly, CO2 cartridge, initiator, and actuator which one is classified for inflation? CO2 cartridge For launching the AIM-7 Sparrow, what impulse cartridge is used with the LAU-116 missile launcher? (New) (Old) CCU-45 MK-9 and MK-124 What CAD is used to eject stores from the BRU-42 ITER?

On the BRU-14 bomb rack, what cartridge actuates the secondary release system? MK-17 On the BRU-14 what CAD actuates the secondary/auxillary unlock? M55 What CAD is used to operate and eject stores from the BRU-65 bomb rack? CCU-107 What CAD is used to eject stores from the BRU-41 IMER? CCU-107

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GP Bombs / PGMs / Walleye / Firebombs
What is the loading factor (explosive content) of MK-80 series general purpose bombs? 45% The approximate loading factor of general purpose bombs is what percent? 45 BLU-116A/B What explosive is the standard bursting charge for GP bombs? H-6 What is the standard explosive filler in BLU series GP bombs? PBXN-109 A MK-82 thermally protected bomb body states thermally protected on it, what else is used to show that the bomb is thermally protected? Two yellow bands around the nose What markings identify a Non-Thermally Protected High Explosive General Purpose (NTP HE GP) bomb? A single yellow band around the nose What markings identify a TP HE Bomb? Two yellow bands around the nose BLU Series bombs can be identified by what markings? Three yellow bands around the nose What is the approximate amount of PBXN-109 explosive filler in the 500 lb class BLU-126/B bomb body? 27 lbs What special purpose bomb body is designated as a Low Collateral Damage Bomb (LOCO)? The BLU-126/B What is the weight class and explosive filler of the BLU-126/B Low Collateral (LOCO) Damage bomb? 500 lbs/PBXN-109 The BLU-126/B Low Collateral Damage special purpose bomb body can only be used with what type of kit? GBU (JDAM GBU-38V(4) or LGB GBU-51/GBU-52) Yes What markings identify the BLU-126/B Low Collateral Damage special purpose bomb body? Three yellow stripes on the nose and an extra yellow band around the aft end of the bomb body What is the approximate amount of PBXN-109 explosive filler in the 2,000 lb class BLU-109A/B bomb body? 525 The BSU-85/B fin is used with (a) what weapon and (b) is designed for what type of delivery? (a) MK-83/BLU-110 (b) Retarded Adapter boosters are normally used with what type of bomb? High Explosive (HE) To provide better penetration of hardened targets Can the MXU-735 be used with Paveway II Laser Guided Bombs? Color (The /B is olive drab and A/B is tactical gray) When used with MK-80 series bombs, what is the purpose of the MXU-735 solid nose plug? What is the approximate amount of PBXN-109 explosive filler in the 2,000 lb class BLU-116/B bomb body? Minimum of 115 lbs What is the difference between the BLU-117A/B and BLU-117C/B? BLU-117A/B contains PBXN-109 explosive filler BLU-117C/B contains AFX-795 What bomb suspension lugs should be used with a MK-84 bomb? MK-3 Mod 0 What suspension lug is compatible with 500 and 1,000 lb class MK-80 and BLU series bomb bodies? MS 3314 The fuze charging receptacle on the MK-84 Mod 7 NTP GP bomb has been moved so it can be electrically fuzed and used with what bomb rack/aircraft combination? BRU-32 with F/A-18 and F-14 What modification of the MK-84 TP GP bomb can be used with the F/A-18? Mod 6 (Fuze charging well has been moved aft 3.5 inches for use with the BRU-32 on the F/A18) What is the difference between the MXU-735/B and MXU-735A/B? What 2,000 lb class bomb body has been designated as a Hard Target Penetrator (HTP)? BLU-109A/B What 2,000 lb class bomb body has been designated as an Advanced Unitary Penetrator (AUP)?

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When a GP bomb is being configured with a mechanical fuze, what is required? Adapter booster What procedure is to be followed if during an underway replenishment a pallet of bombs is immersed in saltwater? Wipe down immediately and if time permits wash down with fresh water and then stow What amount of thermal coating may be missing in one area and cumulative - from the BLU-109A/B bomb body? 20 square inches in one area or 40 square inches total What amount of thermal coating may be missing in one area and cumulative- from the BLU-110/111 bomb body? 15 square inches in one area or 56 square inches total What type of ammunition is considered most hazardous because of its tendency when detonated, to set off all explosive materials near it? Bomb ammunition The decals on the fin of a GP bomb are used for what purpose? To identify the fuzing configuration (MK-344 and MK-376 fuzes had stickers that were packaged with them and were attached to the fin during assembly) An electric fuze is installed in a MK-80 series bomb at what point in the assembly process? Before the tail fin is installed You should install the electrical tail fuzes in MK-80 series bombs at what point in during assembly and at what location? Before the bomb leaves the assembly area, below decks So that a bomb can be released in either an armed or safe configuration, what device is used to retain or release the swivel loop of a fuze arming wire? Arming solenoid (The ZRF on the BRU-32 serves the same purpose) Of the MK-1, MK-3, MK-5, and MK-8 arming wires, which is made of brass? MK-1 Which arming wire is not made of brass? MK-3 stainless steel What arming wire should be used with electric fuzes? MK-3 What permits a method of indirect rigging of GP bombs so that no arming wires will remain hanging from the bomb rack after the weapon releases? The use of MAU-166 and MAU-182 Ring and Swivel Assemblies What is the difference between the MAU-166 and MAU-182 ring and swivel assemblies? Breaking strength (220 lbs for the MAU-166 and 100-150 lbs for the MAU-182) The decals on the fin of a GP bomb provide you with what information? They identify the fuzing combination What mod of the MK-15 Snakeye fin does not have a guide tube as an integral part of the fin? MK-15 Mod 1 The MK-15 Mods 3 & 4 fin is attached to the bomb by what? Eight set screws What Mod(s) of the MK-15 Snakeye fin uses eight set screws for attachment to a MK-80 series bomb? MK-15 Mod 3 and MK-15 Mod 4 As a member of the fuzing crew you are directed to remove the set screw from the M904 mechanical nose fuze, what type of fin and mode of delivery should be used? Snakeye/retarded mode Snakeye fin assemblies are used to provide aircraft with which of the following delivery capabilities? High speed and low altitude The MAU-93/B provides a low drag configuration for what general purpose bomb? MK-82 Mods (Can also be attached to the BLU-111 and BDU-45 which were also distracters on the exam, MK-82 Mods is the first bomb body listed in the pub) The MAU-91B/B fin assembly is attached to what bomb? MK-83/BLU-110 What bomb body uses the BSU-85 air inflatable retardable fin? MK-83/BLU-110 What is the shelf life of the BSU-85? 20 years The MAU-91A/B and B/B are retarded tail fins used with what bomb body? MK-83

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What adapter is used to attach the MAU-91 fin to the MK-83 bomb body? ADU-320/B The conical fin is used for what mode of delivery? Unretarded - low drag What publication is used for receiving, unpackaging, inspecting, maintenance, disassembly, testing and troubleshooting, assembly, packaging, shipping, storage and maintenance of components of Laser Guided Bombs? NA 01-15MGD-1 What are the sections of a Laser Guided Bomb? Computer Control Group (CCG), bomb body, and Air Foil Group (AFG) What publication is used to assemble LASER guided bombs? NA 11-140-10 A laser guided bomb uses electric tail fuzing only because of which of the following units controller, destructor, fin assembly, and computer control group? Computer Control Group (CCG) GBU-51/B Fin extenders are attached to what assembly on the laser guided bomb? Computer Control Group/Forward Adapter Assembly (MAU-169 OR MAU-209) Where do the wing extenders go on a GBU/LGB? Air Foil Group (MXU-650, MXU-667, MXU-651) What is the color of the MXU-650? Gray (As per the pub, but they are fleet issued in olive drab and gray) Laser guided bombs use what type(s) of tail fuzes? Electrical only Why is only an electrical tail fuze used in a Laser Guided Bomb? The Computer Control Group (CCG) mounts on the nose of the bomb body, precluding the use of a nose fuze What Air Foil Group AFG is used to stabilize the 500 lb Paveway II weapon? MXU-650 What Air Foil Group is used to stabilize the 1,000 lb Paveway II weapon? MXU-667 What is the weight of the GBU-16 Laser Guided Bomb? 1,100 lbs (1,000 lb class) The GBU-38 JDAM uses what bomb body and guidance kit? MK-82/BLU-111/BLU-126 with KMU-572 To assemble a GBU-32 you would use what bomb body and guidance kit? MK-83/BLU-110 with KMU-559 What bomb body and guidance kit is used to assemble the GBU-31(V)2? MK-84/BLU-117 with KMU-556 What bomb body and guidance kit is used to assemble the GBU-31(V)4? BLU-109 with KMU-558 What 2,000 lb class bomb body is used to assemble GBU-24 series bombs? BLU-109/BLU-116 What 2,000 lb class bomb body is used to assemble the GBU-24E/B?? BLU-116A/B The GBU-52/B laser guided bomb uses what bomb body and CCG to obtain dual mode laser/GPS guidance? BLU-126/B (LOCO) bomb body and WGU-53/B CCG What Air Foil Group is used to stabilize the 2,000 lb Paveway II weapon? MXU-651 The Laser Guided Training Round (LGTR) simulates what weapon? GBU-16 (The correct answer for the exam, but LGTRs simulate the GBU-10/12/16 and the LGTR II simulates the GBU-24) What the weight of the BDU-59 LGTR? 89 lbs What cartridge(s) is/are installed in the LGTR to indicate the impact point? CXU-3 or MK-4 A spring-operated ejector assembly provides what amount of force to separate the LGTR from the ejector unit once the hooks are opened? 300 lbs What version of the GBU-12 is dual mode utilizing both laser and GPS guidance? GBU-12F/B What single mode laser guided bomb uses the BLU-126/B (LOCO) bomb body?

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What air foil group is used with the GBU-24? BSU-84 AN-M173A1 fuze and the AN-M23A1 Igniter The BSU-84B/B wing assembly incorporates a small cant for what purpose? Reduce rotation of GBU-24 series dual mode bombs to allow the GPS to operate What Guidance Control Unit does the GBU-24 incorporate? WGU-39 The Walleye guided weapon uses what type(s) of suspension? 14 or 30 inch What are the three basic series of walleye weapons? Walleye I small scale, Walleye II large scale, Walleye Extended Range Data Link (ERDL) What is the weight class of the Walleye I series weapons? 1,000 lbs What is the weight of the Walleye II? 2,000 lbs After launch what guides the Walleye weapon to its target? The pilot Where is the video recorder located in the MK-4 Mod 1 Walleye training weapon? Warhead section What type of propulsion system, if any, does the Walleye guided weapon contain? None The MK-77 Mod 4 Fire Bomb contains how many gallons of fuel gel mixture? 75 gallons What is the weight of the MK-77 Mod 4 Fire Bomb? Approximately 500 lbs The MK-77 fire bomb has two filler holes that are how many degrees down from the top of the container? 31 degrees What is the suspension of the MK-77 Fire Bomb? 14 inch What is the primary fuzing system used on the MK-77 fire bomb? MK-273 Mod 0 Igniter with a M918 fuze or the MK-13 Initiator Gives a minimum of 3 percent airspace in the bomb to prevent rupture because of expansion of the fuel gel mixture What is the total weight of the BLU-73 FAE bomb? 132 lbs How many BLU-73s are contained in a FAE bomb? Three The BLU-73 FAE bomb contains what type of fuze? FMU-95/B The FMU-83 fuze is used with what weapon? CBU-55A/B Fuel-Air Explosive (FAE) Bomb Cluster MK-77 Fire Bomb cases are filled to within 1 1/2 inches of the bottom of the filler holes, with the filler at the 12 O Clock position for what reason? What is the alternate fuzing system used on the MK-77 firebomb?

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Cluster Bombs
What air-launched, conventional free fall weapon is used against armored vehicles, light materiel, and personnel targets? MK-20/CBU-99/CBU-100 Rockeye Anti-Tank Cluster Bomb What bomb dispenser is used with the MK-20 Rockeye Cluster Bomb Unit (CBU)? MK-7 bomb dispenser What color are the warning labels on cluster bomb dispensers? White/black writing or gray/black writing While inspecting a MK-20 CBU, you discover that the red indicator in the fuze has pierced the green foil and is extended into the plastic bubble. What is the condition of the fuze? Armed What colors are used on the MK-20 Rockeye Cluster Bomb? White dispenser body, yellow stripes around nose, red nose cover A MK-20 dispenser case is color coded in what manner? A white body with yellow bands What fuze is used in the CBU-20? You should not pull the aft arming wire on a MK-20 CBU for what reason? Spring loaded fins can cause personal injury What type of fuze is used in a Rockeye II? What is the weight of the MK-20 Rockeye Cluster Bomb? 490 lbs What type and how many bomblets are contained in the MK-20 Rockeye Cluster Bomb? 247 MK-118 Anti-Tank bomblets What Cluster Bomb Unit (CBU) has 45 BLU-91s or 15 BLU-92s? CBU-78 Gator The CBU-78 Gator weapon is delivered from the factory with what fuze installed? MK-339 Mod 1 or FMU-140 depending on the version What conventional freefall, folding fin, airburst weapon is designed to provide quick-strike, anti-armor, and anti-personnel mine emplacement through aerial delivery? CBU-78 Dispenser and Mine Aircraft Weapon (Gator) What container should be used to ship or store one fully assembled MK-20 or CBU-59 Cluster Bomb? MK-427 FMU-140 Dispenser Proximity Fuze (DPF) What is the purpose of the linear shaped charges secured longitudinally inside the walls of the MK-7 dispenser? Cuts the dispenser in half, from front to rear to spread the bomblets in a freefall trajectory The CNU-208/E has how many view ports? Three (3) MK-339 Mechanical Time Fuze or FMU-140 Dispenser Proximity Fuze What type and how many bomblets are contained in the CBU-78 Gator? 45 BLU-91 Anti-Tank/Anti-Vehicle (AT/AV) with armor piercing warhead 15 BLU-92 Anti-Personnel (AP) with fragment type warhead What is the weight of the CBU-59 Anti-Personnel Anti-Material (APAM) Cluster Bomb? 750 lbs What type and how many bomblets are contained in the CBU-59 APAM? 717 BLU-77/A What is the identifying feature of the CBU-59 APAM? Lightning bolt on the side of the dispenser What type of fuze is used in a MK-20 Rockeye cluster bomb? A mechanical time fuze (MK-339) What fuze is used with the MK-20 and CBU-59 Cluster Bombs? MK-339 Mods 0 and Mods 1 or the FMU-140

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Practice Bombs
The Navy has what type of sub-caliber practice bomb types? MK-76, BDU-33, BDU-48/B, and MK-106 Of the following, MK-106 Mod 5, BDU-48/B, BDU-33D/B, and BDU-45/B, which is not a sub-caliber practice bomb? BDU-45/B What is the primary purpose of practice bombs? Safety when training new or inexperienced pilots and ground-handling crew What practice bomb is used to simulate tactical laser guided bombs? Laser Guided Training Round (LGTR) Of the following types of signal cartridges MK-2, MK-4, CXU-6, and CXU-3, which is used with practice bombs primarily for day operations? CXU-3 Of the following cartridges - MK-1, MK-2, MK-3, and MK-4, which is used in a MK-76 practice bomb? MK-4 What cartridge is used in practice bombs during daytime operations? CXU-3 What is the normal display emitted from a MK-4 Mod 3 practice bomb cartridge? Yellow flash and white smoke What cartridge is used in practice bombs during night time operations? MK-4 Of the following signal cartridges CCU-44/B, MK-4, MK-23, and CXU-3A/B, which is used primarily for daytime missions with practice bombs? CXU-3A What bomb spotting charge is used in the tail fuze well of MK-80 series inert bombs? MK-89 Spotting Charge What practice bomb is used to simulate retarded drops? MK-106 and BDU-48 What practice bomb is used to simulate a MK-82 retarded bomb? BDU-48 What practice bomb is used to simulate tactical laser guided bombs? Laser Guided Training Round (LGTR) Of the following types of ammunition drill, practice, exercise, and service, which contains explosive material and is/are intended for operational training? Practice Of the following types of ammunition - drill, exercise, practice, and service, contain explosive material used and is/are intended for combat use? Service What is the designation of the lug used in the MK-76? MK-14 The Navy has what type of sub-caliber practice bomb? MK-76, MK-106, BDU-33, and BDU-48/B What practice bomb has a single retractable lug? MK-106 and BDU-48 What holds the firing device in the blast tube of the MK-106? Cotter pin

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Fuzes
What are the two basic classes of fuzes? Mechanical and electrical Define functioning time? The time required for a fuze to detonate after impact or a preset time Define detonator safe? Fuzes that do not have the elements of their firing train in the proper position for firing until the fuze is fully armed What adapter booster is used with a mechanical nose fuze on a MK-80 series bomb? M148E1 You are conducting a fuze inspection and see a green background with the numbers 6 and 18 on both settings of an M904E4 fuze. What arming condition is indicated? Safe What total number of functioning delays are available in a M904 (series) fuze? Six (6) Partially armed On bomb fuzes the term detonator safe has what meaning? The elements of the firing train are out of line What component determines the functioning time of an M904E4 fuze? The installed delay element You can establish the functioning time of an M904E4 bomb fuze by taking what action? Installing the desired delay element before the fuze is installed in the bomb What explosive is used in the booster of an M904 series fuze? Tetyrl What fuze was designed for use with thermally protected bombs? M904E4 FMU-140 Dispenser Proximity Fuze (DPF) What are the settings on the M904 fuze? 2 to 18 seconds in 2 second increments The arming delay for the M904E4 fuze has (a) what time setting range and (b) in what time increments? (a) 2 to 18 sec (b) 2 sec What fuze(s) come(s) installed in the weapon and does not require assembly or setting? MK-339 and FMU-140 in MK-20 and CBU-78/99/100 series Rockeye CBUs The CBU-78/B gator weapon is delivered from the factory with what fuze installed? MK-339 Mod 1 or FMU-140 If a green background without the number 6 or 18 appears in the upper window when the arming delay is set on 6 or 18, or if the number in the upper window does not match the arming delay setting, the fuze is considered? Partially armed On the M904 fuze, when the set screw is removed and the 2 and 4 second arming times are selected what type of weapon must be used? Retarded - high drag fin - MK-15 or BSU-86 for 500 lb or BSU-85 for 1,000 lb bombs What is the purpose of the second arming wire when used on the M904 fuze with retarded - high drag fin? Prevents fuze arming in the event that the fin does not open What is the only bomb proximity fuze in the current Navy inventory? 0.00 second non-delay (Instantaneous) or 0.025 second What will happen to the bomb if the M-9 delay element is not installed? The bomb may dud Why do personnel have to be especially careful when handling the M-9 delay element? It is percussion initiated If the indication in the lower window on the M904 is vacant or dark in color the fuze is in what condition? Safe The M904 has what total number of observation windows to determine the safe/armed condition? Two (2) On the M904 fuze if a white stripe is visible at any other setting than 6 or 18 seconds what does this mean? The M904 fuze is shipped with what delay element installed?

How many different functioning delay times are available for the M-9 delay element? Six delay times

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If in-flight the option wire is pulled on the MK-339 fuze, what mode/setting is the fuze committed? Option What are the functioning delay settings for the MK-346 Mechanical Tail Fuze? 30 minutes to 33 hours in 15 minute increments What fuze is used in the MK-115 Mod 0 Helicopter Trap Weapon? MK-374 What type of fuze is used in a MK-20 Rockeye cluster bomb? Mechanical-time fuze What are the primary and option time settings on the MK-339 Mod 0 and 1 fuze? 1.2 primary and 4.0 option What type of fuze comes installed in the CBU-59 APAM? MK-339 Mod 0 and 1 How can you tell if first stage arming has occurred in the MK-346 fuze? Red band covering all or part of the safe-arm observation window on the body of the fuze When does second stage arming occur in the MK-346 fuze? First stage arming has completed before impact, and impact is sufficient to initiate second stage arming When is the anti-removal cam released? When the arming shaft moves forward at impact to initiate the timer mechanism If a hung weapon returns and you notice that the MK-346 tail fuze is hard to remove, what may have happened? Second stage arming may have occurred What color is the MK-43 target detecting device? Dark green What color is the nose cone of a MK-43 TDD? The MK-43 Target Detecting Device (TDD) must be used with what? MK-122 arming safety switch and electrical tail fuze Before removing the safety clip, what item must be installed in the MK-43 TDD? The arming wire What fuze is restricted for use in inert bomb bodies? MK-376 electrical tail fuze Green The MK-43 TDD is installed in a low drag bomb with an electric fuze for which of the following reasons? To provide detonation by proximity influence What VT element gives airburst capability to electrically fuzed MK-80 series bombs? MK-43 Electrical fuzes are installed in what location in MK-80 series bomb? Tail Once MK-344 or MK-376 electrical tail fuzes have been removed from their packaging they must be used within how many days? 180 days What is to be done if during weapons assembly the pop out pin on the MK-344 or MK-376 electrical tail fuze accidentally pops out? Push the pin back in until the two holes align and reinstall the safety pin Charging of an electrical fuze normally occurs after? The weapon is released from the aircraft For proximity functioning of the fuze, an electrically fuzed MK-83 bomb has what device installed in the nose? Sensing element Which electrical tail fuze is restricted to unretarded delivery only? MK-344 Mod 0 and 1 What arming wire is used with the MK-344/376 electrical tail fuze? MK-3 stainless steel What is done if during weapons loading the MK-122 safe arm device lanyard is pulled out? Reject weapon so the entire MK-122 arming safety switch can be discarded What adapter booster is used with the MK-344 electrical tail fuze? None What is used to install electrical tail fuzes? Spanner wrench The MK-122 Mod 0 arming safety switch must be installed in what type of environment? RADHAZ free

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When building electrically fuzed MK-82 bombs, what type of arming wire should you use with an electrical tail fuze? MK-3 At what point is an electric bomb fuze energized by an electrical charge? After rack release, but while still connected electrically Electric fuzes should be installed in the MK-80 series bombs at what point in the assembly process and at what location? Before the bomb leaves the assembly area below deck What type of pattern does the MK-43 VT element produce? Right angles to the longitudinal axis of the weapon How much voltage is needed to initiate the MK-43 TDD when used with a MK-344 electrical tail fuze? +300 volts DC What fuze has a firing train that remains in line at all times? AN/M173A1 Why must caution be used when handling the AN/M173A1 fuze? Because the firing train is aligned at all times When is the firing train considered aligned in the AN/M173A1 fuze? At all times What initiator has uses a turbine generator to supply voltage to arm the FMU-143 electrical tail fuze? FZU-32 What initiator uses a turbine alternator to generate power used for arming the FMU-139 fuze? FZU-48/B What fuzing system is used exclusively with BLU-109 or BLU-116 bomb bodies to assemble a GBU-24? FMU-143 Electronic tail fuze with FZU-32 Initiator What are the available arming times and functioning delay settings on the FMU-139 electrical tail fuze? Low drag arming: X, 4, 6, 7, 10, 14 and 20 seconds High drag arm (seconds)/delay (mili-seconds): 2.6/Inst, 2.6/10, 2.6/25 and 2.6/60 What is the shelf life of the FMU-139 electrical tail fuze? 10 years for the FMU-139A/B 20 years for the FMU-139B/B from the original manufacture date as indicated in the "modified from" block not the "lot no." block on the identification plate

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Aircraft Rockets and Launchers
For component information on rockets refer to what manual? (New) (Old) NAVAIR 11-75A-92 NAVAIR 11-85-5 What distance may a rocket motor be dropped before it cannot be used? Two (2) feet or more What may be the result if a rocket motor is accidentally dropped and the propellant grain is cracked? The crack in the grain will increase the burning surface and could cause the motor to explode from excessive pressure Why is the stabilizing rod salt coated? Fully assembled rockets with live warheads and fuzes are what classification of explosive? Class A When a rocket does not fire when the firing circuit is energized, this is known as? Misfire How are rocket propellants classified? Single base, double base and composite (As smokeless powders) What is the purpose of the igniter? Heats the propellant grain to ignition temperature What controls/restricts the burning speed of a propellant in a rocket motor? Inhibitors Define thrust? The force exerted by the gases produced by the burning of the rocket motor propellant What is the purpose of the venturi-type nozzle on rocket motors? Decreases the turbulence of escaping gases and increases the thrust Gas pressure inside the rocket motor container provides about what percent of the force necessary to move the rocket forward? 70% What type of smokeless powder is used as rocket propellant? Ballistite and cordite N (SPCG) What type of propellant grain is used in rocket motors? Internal burning, star perforation, double-base solid propellant What is the purpose of the inhibitor in a rocket motor? Restrict or control burning on the propellant Prevent unstable burning of the propellant surface and reduces the flash and afterburning in the rocket motor When is the shielding band removed from the rocket motor? Not until it is actually loaded into a launcher The scarfed nozzles on the MK-40, 2.75 inch LSFFAR motor are used for what primary purpose? They impart a stabilizing spin Which rocket motor has scarfed nozzle inserts? MK-40/MK-14 On the MK-40 rocket motor what opens the fins after the rocket has left the launcher? Gas pressure exerted on the heels of the fins pushes the fins open The fins are locked in-flight by what? Spring loaded pawls What is the purpose of the flutes on the steel nozzle expansion cone on a MK-71 rocket motor? Causes the rocket to spin during free flight/imparts a stabilizing spin What opens the fins on the 5.0 inch MK-71 rocket motor? Spring pressure What type of explosives can be stored with rocket motors? Cordite N Which of the following rocket motors is used with a 5.0 inch Zuni rocket? MK-71 What rocket motor, because of its fluted nozzle can be launched from high speed aircraft, aircraft, helicopters and low speed aircraft? MK-71 What characteristics are incorporated in a MK-71 ZUNI rocket motor? Spring loaded, wrap around fins

List the three components of a rocket? Motor, warhead, and fuze What hazard class is a rocket warhead? 1.1 - Class 1, Division 1 - Mass detonating

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When MK-66 rocket motors are out of the launcher tube, what safety device must be installed? Shielding and fin restraint bands What explosive filler is used in high explosive rocket warheads? Comp B What color are high explosive rocket warheads? Olive drab and may have narrow yellow band around the nose What rocket warhead is used against personnel and light material targets such as trucks and parked aircraft? Flechette warheads What warhead is used against armored targets such as tanks, bunkers, and armored vehicles? HEAT warheads Of the following - MK 24, MK-32, WDU-4, and WTU-1, which one is a high-explosive Anti-Tank/Anti-Personnel (AT/APERS) warhead? MK-32 What is the designation of the flechette warhead? WDU-4/A and WDU-4A/A What rocket warhead is painted olive drab and has a brown band around the nose and white diamonds in the band? Flechette warhead What is the designation of the smoke warhead for 2.75 inch and 5.0 inch rockets? M156 and MK-67 2.75 inch and MK-34 5.0 inch What warhead is a compromise between the armor piercing and the fragmentation design? General purpose Which of the of the following rocket fuzes MK-5, MK-93, MK-352, and M414A1, is impact firing? MK-352 What are the two classifications of fuzes? Nose and base When located in the nose of the warhead, impact firing fuzes are defined by what term? Point detonating What warhead(s) have fuzes permanently installed? MK-193 mechanical time fuze Of the following rocket fuzes - MK-188, MK-176, MK-193, and FMU-90/B, which is permanently installed in the nose of the MK-33 Mod 1 flare warhead? MK-193 Mod 0 A Model 113A rocket fuze has what classification and is used in what application? Acceleration-deceleration - 2.75-inch What fuze used in 5.0 inch warheads is of the base detonating type? MK-191 What type of 5.0 inch rocket warhead uses the MK-191 base detonating fuze? MK-24 GP warhead The Model 113A fuze in WDU-4 flechette warhead is armed and detonated in what manner? Acceleration-deceleration What type of fuze is the 5.0 inch ZUNI MK-93 Mod 0/M414A1? Proximity What is the base detonating (BD) fuze used with 5.0 inch warheads? MK-191 What fuze is used in the flare warhead? MK-193 What adapter can be used to adapt 2.75 inch fuzes with 5.0 inch warheads? BBU-15/B What is the breaker switch used for on a rocket launcher? A safe-arm device that prevents loaded rockets from firing What is done with metal tube launchers after firing? They are reused The LAU-32 2.75 inch rocket launcher is made of what material? Aluminum When is a stray voltage check performed on a rocket launcher? Just prior to flight When a rocket launcher comes back with unfired rounds how do you safe it? Install the safe-arm detent pin

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When does the rockets electrical connector come in contact with the electrical connector on the launcher? When the rocket is completely seated in the launcher To prevent possible explosion, do not expose rockets or loaded launchers to what minimum distance from jet exhaust or gas turbine compressors? Ten feet or the indicated minimum distance on the unit When rockets are assembled, extra precautions are necessary for which of the following reasons? The propellant grain is easily broken When should you remove the shielding band from a 5.0-inch rocket motor? Just before the contact band enters the launcher during loading An uncrated rocket motor has to be rejected if dropped from what minimum distance onto a hard surface? Two (2) feet A rocket motor may not be used after it has been dropped what distance? Two (2) feet What distance may a rocket warhead be dropped before it cannot be used? Five (5) feet The major hazard of rocket motor stowage in ready service magazines is? Missile and fire hazards What procedure is to be followed if you receive a go indication on the test set while performing stray voltage checks on a rocket pod just prior? Connect the launcher - it is a good check

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Aircraft Missiles and Missile Launchers
When missiles in containers are received aboard ships, what components are installed after the missiles are received? Wings and fins What are the two types of guided missiles? Service and non-service Organizational level activity personnel enter captive flight data in what software system? ACES Service and non-service Missile logbook data is maintained in what software system? AWARS What types of guided missiles are used in naval aviation? Service/Non-service The service life of an AUR missile begins at what point? After the missiles components are received and assembled at a Naval Ammunition Depot or Naval Weapons Station The service life of an AUR missile begins at what location? The Naval Ammunition Depot or a Naval Weapons Station What section of the missile guides the missile toward the point of intercept? Guidance Launch environment What is the brain of an air-to-air guided missile? The guidance section A guided missile course change is executed by what missile component section? Control No matter what configuration the missile is in what number is used to track the missile? Serial number What number is used to track a missile during its service life? Serial number off the leading component Ship intercept-aerial guided missile What item determines the serial number of an air launched missile? The leading serialized component The date when a component of a weapon requires Intermediate level maintenance or testing is defined by what term? Maintenance Due Date (MDD) When a missile is de-canned and placed in the ready service magazine, what is done with the missile log book? Turned into the Aviation Ordnance Control Center (AOCS) until expended or off loaded Surface attack, a vehicle designed to destroy enemy land or sea targets In the guided missile designator AIM-54C, the letter C indicates what? The third modification of the missile The missile serial number normally located where on a missile? Leading component What does the missile designation RIM indicate? In the missile designation AGM-88 what does the G indicate? In an aircraft, what type of missile guidance system should the operator use to keep a missile on the line of sight to the target? Passive What type of missile guidance system depends upon the natural radiation of the target for its guidance? Passive What section provides the internal routing for the interconnecting cable between the guidance section and other parts of the missile? Warhead In the missile designation AIM-54C, what does the letter A indicate? Launching environment In a missile designation, what information does the first letter indicate? Guided missiles are classified using which of the following factors? Range, speed, launch environment, mission, and vehicle type Guided missiles are divided into what two groups? What are the primary purposes of a guided missile? To destroy and damage

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When does the service life of an All Up Round (AUR) missile begin? From the date the AUR is put into ready for issue (AUR) condition or date of manufacture Repository information on missile logbooks is to be directed to what command? Yorktown, VA High explosive warheads used in missiles contain what range of explosives? 10 - 18 pounds of H6/HBX/PBX(N) (Per the AO NRTC, but can vary greatly depending on the type of missile) What color codes are significant when used in missile identification? Brown - rocket motor Blue inert Yellow - warhead The Phoenix missile uses what homing system type(s)? Active, passive, and semi-active Of the following missiles - AGM-65E, AIM-7, AIM-120, and AIM-54, which is launched only from the F-14 aircraft? AIM-54C What type of homing/guidance is employed by the AIM-54 phoenix missile? Active, semi-active, and passive The AIM-54C air-to-air guided missile employs what type(s) of homing capability? Passive, active, and semi-active What is the approximate weight of the AIM-54C Phoenix missile? 1,020 lbs The Phoenix missile is used with what type of airborne missile control system (AMCS)? AWG-9 When modified, which of the following missiles - Phoenix, Shrike, Sidewinder, and Sparrow, can used as a surface-to-air missile? Sparrow Of the following missiles AIM-54 Phoenix, AIM-7 Sparrow, AIM-9 Sidewinder or AIM-120 AMRAAM which can be converted to a surface to air missile? AIM-7 Sparrow into RIM-7 How much does an AIM-7 Sparrow weigh? The parent aircraft 500 lbs What type of homing system illuminates targets with a component carried in the missile, such as a radar transmitter? Active What is the major difference between semiactive and passive guidance? Passive guidance receives its target information from the natural radiations of the target (Normally heat or RF radiation from radar) Where does semi-active homing receive its target information? From an external source such as the aircraft What type of homing system may not be effective during inclement weather conditions? Passive Infrared and Semi-Active LASER What piece of gear inside an aircraft keeps a missile on a straight line to the target? Transmitter How many AIM-7 Sparrow missiles can be carried by an F-14 aircraft? Six What type of homing/guidance is utilized by the AIM-7 Sparrow missile? Semi-Active What type of warhead is used by the AIM-7 Sparrow missile? Continuous rod or blast/fragmentation design Of the following aircraft - EA-6B, F-14D, SH-60B, and F/A-18, which is capable launching a Harpoon guided missile? F/A-18 Of the following missiles - Phoenix, Harpoon, HARM, and Maverick, which uses a turbojet engine for propulsion? Harpoon

What are the major sections of a missile? Guidance, control, armament, and propulsion Of the following - directing, steering, computing, and tracking which does the guidance section not do? Steering What is considered to be the brain of the missile? Guidance In a semi-active homing system, the targetilluminating transmitter is in which of the following locations - parent aircraft, target aircraft, within the missile, or airborne control aircraft?

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What is the designation of the Harpoon missile? AGM-84 What features make the AGM-84 less susceptible to radar detection? Low-level cruise trajectory and over the horizon range The AGM-84 Harpoon missile uses what type of homing/guidance? Active What is the weight class of the AGM-84E SLAM? 1,400 lbs How many sections to the AGM-84E SLAM? Four - guidance, warhead, sustainer, control Semi-active only What missile has all weather capability and is an anti-ship attack weapon? AGM-84A-1 Harpoon AGM-65E Maverick What type of warhead/explosive is contained in the warhead section of the AGM-84 Harpoon missile? Penetration blast What missile uses a turbojet type engine? AGM-84 Harpoon What type of fuel is used in the motor of the Harpoon missile? Jet fuel (JP-5 or JP-10) Penetrating/Blast fragmentation (300 lbs) Where is the missile serial number located on the AGM-84 Harpoon missile? Warhead What type of homing/guidance is used in the AIM-9 Sidewinder missile? Passive infrared What type of warhead is used with the AIM-9 Sidewinder missile? Annular blast fragmentation (WDU-17) Radar emplacements When a plane returns to the flight deck with a CATM-9 Sidewinder missile, what has to be done to safe the missile? Insert detent wrench into the LAU-7 launcher and turn rocket motor arming T handle to safe position The five major components of the AIM-9 Sidewinder missile are? Guidance and control, target detector, safe and arm device, warhead, rocket motor What missile when used in conjunction with the aircrafts launching avionics, detects, identifies, and locates enemy radar? AGM-88 HARM What missile is used against surface targets that radiate electromagnetic energy? AGM-88 HARM What missile(s) did the AGM-88 HARM replace? AGM-45 Shrike and AGM-78 Standard Arm What is the approximate weight of the AGM-65? AGM-65E - 634 lbs AGM-65F - 685 lbs The AGM-65 is propelled by what type of motor? Dual thrust (boost/sustain) solid propellant rocket HARM missiles are best suited for use on which of the following targets? The AGM-65E Maverick missile uses what type of guidance? LASER/Semi-Active Of the following, Shrike, Maverick, HARM and Harpoon, which is a LASER guided, air to ground missile? AGM-65E Maverick What type of warhead is used in the AGM-65? What missile is air to ground, LASER guided, and rocket propelled? What missile can be configured with either laser or infrared guidance? AGM-65 Maverick What type of guidance system is used in the AGM-65E Maverick missile? What component in the guidance and control section of the AIM-9 Sidewinder missile converts electrical guidance commands into mechanical movement of the control fins? Gas servo assembly What missile is laser guided, rocket propelled, and designed for use against fortified ground installations, armored vehicles and surface combatants? AGM-65E

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What missile is a passive homing, air to ground, anti-radar, guided missile? HARM What type of warhead is used in the AGM-88 HARM? Directed fragmentation What is the approximate weight of the AGM-88? Between to warhead and electronics assembly 800 lbs What provides thrust for the AGM-88? A low smoke, solid propellant, Dual Thrust Rocket Motor (DTRM) How does the AGM-45 Shrike missile receive its homing signals? Enemy radar What air to surface missile has short to medium range and infrared guidance? AGM-65F Maverick What is the approximate weight of the AIM-120? What is the prescribed range of the AGM-119B Penguin missile? Short to medium The AGM-119 Penguin missile uses what kind of homing? Infrared terminal homing What air to ground missile has short to medium range, infrared guidance and is used against ships? AGM-119 Penguin What missile is an anti-armor, laser guided, air-to-ground weapon that uses a shaped charge warhead to defeat hard point targets with minimal exposure of the launch helicopter to enemy fire? AGM-114 Hellfire The AGM-114 Hellfire missile uses what type of guidance? Laser What is the approximate weight of the AGM-114 Hellfire missile? 100 lbs What type of warhead is used in the AGM-114 Hellfire series missile? Shaped charge or blast fragmentation with incendiary or thermobaric capability depending on the version What versions of the AGM-114 are approved for shipboard use? AGM-114B and AGM-114K (The is due to the addition Safe Arm Device (SAD) to these versions) 350 lbs What type of warhead is used in the AIM-120? Fragmentation There are how many different Configurations of the TALD? Three A/B-37U-1(V)-1 Chaff Vehicle A/B-37U-1(V)-2 RF Vehicle ADM-141A/B RF Vehicle Where is the electronics assembly located on the AIM-120? Aft of the seeker and servo assemblies The missile umbilical located where on the AIM-120? Between the rocket motor and warhead Where are the seeker and servo assemblies located on the AIM-120? Forward of the electronics assembly What guided missile is a supersonic, medium range, air-to-air weapon with active radar target detection and on-board inertial navigation guidance? AIM-120 Advance Medium Range Air to Air Missile (AMRAAM) Where is the TDD assembly located on the AIM-120?

What is the designation of the Tactical Air Launched Decoy (TALD) used for Radio Frequency (RF) emissions? A/B-37U-1(V)2 or ADM-141A/B What is the designation of the Tactical Air Launched Decoy (TALD) that uses chaff as a decoy? A/B-37U-1(V)1 What is the nominal weight of the TALD chaff vehicle? 382 lbs What is the nominal weight of the TALD RF vehicle? 400 lbs What decoy has turbojet propulsion, low-level navigation and provides the Navy operational elements with an effective radar decoy capability? ADM-141C Improved Air Launched Tactical Decoy (ITALD) What is the weight of the ADM-141C ITALD? 375 lbs (This includes 47 lbs (6 gallons) of JP-10 fuel)

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What missile is an air-to-ground glide weapon that can be employed against a variety of land and sea targets, can incorporate a 500 pound warhead or cluster munition and uses GPS for navigation? AGM-154 Joint Stand-Off Weapon (JSOW) What configuration of the JSOW delivers a 500 pound warhead derived from the MK-80 series of weapons? AIM-154C What is the weight of the AIM-154C? 1965 lbs What configuration of the JSOW delivers cluster munitions bomblets? AIM-154A The AIM-154A contains (a) what number and (b) type of bomblets? (a) 145 (b) BLU-197 What holds the AIM-9 in place on the LAU-7 launcher while in-flight? Detents and snubbers Longitudinal and lateral movements of a missile loaded on a LAU-7/A missile launcher are prevented by what components? Forward and aft snubbers The nitrogen system in a LAU-7 missile is used for what purpose? Cools the missiles infra-red detector What missile launcher requires an Eddy current inspection? LAU-7 What missile launcher incorporates a countermeasures dispenser, which provides a countermeasure capability against radar homing and infra-red seeking missiles? LAU-138 BOL/Chaff (Modification of the LAU-7/A-6 launcher) What missile is compatible with the LAU-118 guided missile launcher? AGM-88 HARM Of the following launchers - LAU-116, LAU-118, LAU-115, and LAU-117, which is capable if carrying and launching the Maverick missile? LAU-117 What component of the LAU-117A launcher prevents accidental release of the missile? Missile Restraint Device (MRD) holdback pin What manual contains LAU-117A(V)2/A missile launcher intermediate level maintenance information? NAVAIR 11-75A-79 What component of the LAU-117A launcher prevents accidental release of the missile? Missile Restraint Device (MRD) holdback pin On the LAU-117A guided missile launcher, the hold back pin on the MRD can be retracted by moving the bell crank shaft in what direction? Clockwise The LAU-118 is used to carry and launch what missile? AGM-88 HARM Of the following components - forward retainer assemblies, sway braces, aft detent blocks, and snubbers, which is used on the LAU-7 launcher prevent movement of a missile in flight? Snubbers

What is the weight of the AGM-154A? 1,065 lbs For the LAU-7 nitrogen receiver, what pressure indicator color contains the range 2.2 to 2.8 psi? Yellow The LAU-7/A guided missile launcher nitrogen receiver store what maximum amount of high pressure nitrogen? 3,200 psig How many psi should be indicated on the LAU-7 nitrogen receiver assembly? 3,200 To cool a missiles IR detector in the guidance system, a LAU-7/A guided missile launcher nitrogen receiver stores what specific amount of high pressure nitrogen? 3,200 psig The PP-2581/A power supply is a single phase power supply used in what launcher? LAU-7 What is done to complete the cooling circuit on the LAU-7A missile launcher? Load missile/connect the umbilical For information on the LAU-7 launcher refer to what publication? NA 11-75A-54 What adapter allows suspension of the LAU-7A launcher to the aircraft bomb rack? ADU-299/E

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Of the following - LAU-7, LAU-93, Aero 7A-5, and Aero 5B-1, which is suspended from a bomb rack? Aero 5B-1 What guided missile launcher provides a rail to carry a single AGM-45 Shrike missile? Aero 5B-1 Of the following guided missile launchers LAU-92, LAU-93, Aero 5B-1, and the LAU-77A, which is a rail launcher? Aero 5B-1 During missile loading/unloading, how do you manually unlock the detent on the Aero 5B-1 guided missile launcher? Pull detent handle up and out lifting the detent clear of the missile Of the following launchers - LAU-117, LAU-118, LAU-116, and LAU-127, which is capable of launching the AIM-9 series Sidewinder missile? LAU-127 The LAU-127 missile launcher carries and launches what missile system(s)? AIM-120 or AIM-9 On an F/A-18, what missile is launched from a LAU-116A? AIM-7 Sparrow or AIM-120 AMRAAM The LAU-115 launcher is capable of suspending and launching all EXCEPT which of the following missiles - AIM-120, AGM-120, AIM-7, and AIM-9? AGM-122 How many and what type cads are used with a LAU-116 to shoot a AIM-7 Sparrow missile? Two (2) CCU-45 The LAU-115 missile launcher used on the F/A-18 provides suspension capabilities for what missile? AIM-7 Sparrow What launcher used on the F/A-18 can carry two AIM-9s or one AIM-7? LAU-115 configured with two LAU-127s The LAU-116/A missile launcher used on the F/A-18 provides suspension for what missile? AIM-7 Sparrow On the F/A-18 which of the following launchers - LAU-117/A, LAU-116/A, LAU-93/A or LAU-92/A is used to suspend and launch a Sparrow missile? LAU-116A On the LAU-116/A, the AIM-120 missile umbilical connection point in what location? Aft of the forward snubber 3 inches - Raise missile to within 3 inches of launcher and connect and LOCK missile motor fire connector to missile What is the I-Level maintenance publication for the LAU-116? AW-394AC-750-010 What missile launcher on the F-14 aircraft carries and launches the AIM-7 Sparrow missile? LAU-92 The LAU-93 is used to carry and ejector launch what missile? AIM-54 Phoenix What guided missile launcher carries and launches the AIM-54 missile? LAU-93 (F-14A/B) and LAU-132 (F-14D) How many ejectors are on the LAU-93/A missile launcher? Two (2) What CAD is used in the LAU-93 missile launcher ejector assemblies? MK-107 During an emergency situation, do both the LAU-77 launcher and the missile jettison from the Aero 7A ejector rack? Yes What adapter is used to adapt the LAU-7 missile launcher to the parent rack of an A-6 providing sidewinder missile capability? ADU-299 What is the only test that can be performed on an all up round missile? Missile On Aircraft Test (MOAT) Forward firing ordnance is always loaded where? Authorized loading areas facing uninhabited areas What guided missile launcher was developed specifically for the AGM-114 Hellfire missile and provides the electronic and mechanical interface between the missile and helicopter? M272 (Marines Analog) M299 (Navy Digital) What missile launcher suspends and launches the AGM-114 Hellfire missile? M299 When weapons are loaded on an aircraft that is on deck, when, if ever, should you activate the master arm? Never What distance is the AIM-7 Sparrow held, in inches, from the LAU-115 to connect the motor fire connector?

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A single M299 can carry up to how many Hellfire missiles? Four

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Pyrotechnics
What publication describes pyrotechnic, screening, marking, and countermeasure devices currently available for Fleet use? NA 11-15-7.1 / NAVSEA SW020 AB-MMA-010 A fire occurs in a pyrotechnic magazine and you are the first person on scene. Which of the following means should you used to extinguish or contain the fire - CO2, foam type, CO2 and foam, or water? Water Cock firing pin Of the following extinguishing agents chemical, water, sand, and carbon dioxide, which should you use to combat a pyrotechnic fire? Water How do you fight a pyrotechnic fire? Flooding quantities of water What are the three classes of pyrotechnic ammunition? Marking, screening, illumination Navy pyrotechnic devices contain what type of material? Combustible chemicals 3,000 feet Pyrotechnic devices generally are initiated by means of an ignition train, which typically consists of what? An igniter, a delay element, and a starting mix By what means is the night end of the MK-13 distress signal identified? Raised projections The MK-13 smoke and illumination marker emits ____________ smoke for day use and ___________ flame for night use? Orange\Red What color smoke is emitted from the MK-13 smoke and illumination marker during night use? None. Red flame is emitted during night What fuze is shipped installed in the MK-45 flare? MK-346 Mod 0 What are the 15 functional settings of the MK-45 flare? 1,000 ft - 14,000 ft - in 1,000 ft increments 500 ft and safe Regardless of launch method the MK-45 flare is initiated by doing what? Exerting pull on the lanyard What releases the parachute shroud lines on the MK-45 flare? Explosive bolt What is to be done with MK-45 parachute flares in a launcher that has just returned from flight? Download from launcher and stow in jettison locker What aircraft launched flare is used for nighttime illumination of surface areas in search and attack operations? LUU-2A/B and B/B Day and night signaling What is the difference between the LUU-2A/B and LUU-2B/B? The LUU-2A/B is limited to use on land based aircraft only What is the maximum/minimum height of the star when shot from the MK-79? 650 feet/250 feet How long does the star burn in the MK-80 signal? 4 1/2 seconds What is the difference between the maximum altitude settings of the MK-45 and LUU-2B/B flares? When fired from ground level, the star in the MK-80 signal rises to what maximum height? 650 ft The MK-79 signal kit has a bandoleer holding how many MK-80 signals? Seven What has to be done before screwing the MK-80 signal device into the MK-31 projector? What does the MK-79 signal kit consist of? MK-31 signal projector and plastic bandoleer that holds 7 MK-80 Signals

What is the method of ignition for the MK-13? Flip pull ring, break seal, hold away from face, ignite with pull on ring What is the burning time for each end of the MK-13? 20 seconds What is the intended use of the MK-124 signal?

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What methods are currently used to launch the LUU-2B/B Parachute flare? Hand launched or configured for launch from IMER or ITER What flare did the LUU-2B/B flare replace? MK-24 Mods and MK-45 Mods What is the major difference between the MK-45 and the LUU-2B/B? The candle is not ejected from case of the LUU-2 How many and what are the sections of the LUU-2B/B flare? Four - Mechanical timer assembly, parachute suspension system, out-of-line igniter and case assembly with tamped candle The LUU-2B/B parachute flare candle is ignited by what means? The pull force exerted on the ignition lanyard What is the approximate burn time of the LUU-2B/B and LUU-19? 420 seconds or seven minutes Is the mechanical timer on the LUU-2B/B explosive or non-explosive? Non-explosive On the LUU-2B/B, the white plastic timer knob is pre-set in the safe position for what reason? It prevents the timer from starting should the knob be inadvertently removed On the LUU-2B/B what is provided to make it easier to set in the dark? Phosphorescent plastic decal with calibrated markings The LUU-2 parachute flare has what maximum number of functional settings? 14 (250, 500, 1,000 to 11,000 ft in 1,000 ft increments) What is the diameter of the cruciform shaped parachute used on the LUU-2B/B? 18 feet What is the minimum drop distance of the LUU-2B/B parachute flare? 250 ft What device ignites a MK-25 MLM? The 250 ft setting on the LUU-2B/B is primarily intended for what type of operations? Helicopter What is the maximum distance that the LUU-2B/B parachute flare can be dropped? 11,000 ft Electric squib On the MK-25 MLM, smoke and flame emit from what location? A valve assembly fitted into the projecting chimney at the markers nose end What is used to set the desired drop distance on the LUU-2B/B flare? White, plastic dial timer knob What is the minimum altitude setting of the LUU-2B/B parachute flare? 250 ft What is the maximum altitude setting of the LUU-2B/B parachute flare? 11,000 ft What are the altitude settings of the LUU-2B/B flare? 250, 500 and 1,000 11,000 ft and safe What initiates the candle pyrotechnic firing train in the LUU-2B/B flare? Firing pin On the LUU-2B/B how many pounds of pull does it take to pull the timer knob out of the timer? 30 lbs On the LUU-2B/B the ignition lanyard must exert a pull force in excess of how many pounds to pull the slider assembly in line? Excess of 90 lbs What is the purpose of the drogue tray? Used to dispense launch LUU-2B/B parachute flares What is used to provide stability for the LUU-2B/B after launch? Parachute suspension system consisting of an 18 foot diameter cruciform shaped canopy After parachute deployment what is the average descent rate of the LUU-2? Eight feet per second, descending approximately 2,400 feet while burning What aircraft parachute flare is an Infra-Red (IR) variant of the LUU-2 and provides covert illumination of the battle space while using Night Vision Goggles (NVGs)? LUU-19 After parachute deployment what is the average descent rate of the LUU-19? 14 feet per second, descending approximately 5,880 feet while burning

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MK-25 MLMs that have been made ready should never be re-stowed in what location? In a magazine having a functional sprinkler systems What methods are currently used to launch the MK-25 MLM? Sonobuoy launcher and by hand The MK-34 marine marker adapter kit is used for what purpose? It seals the armed MK-25 marker for launching MK-25 MLMs can be launched from what type of craft? Air or surface What are the methods of launch for the MK-25 MLM? Hand or sonobuoy What is the only difference between the MK-25 Mod 2 and 3 MLM? Mod 2 has 2 sea batteries (2 squibs) and Mod 3 has 1 sea battery (1 squib) On the MK-25 MLM the rigid cover (arming plate) is held in place by what? Retainer ring What helps identify the armed position of the MK-25 MLM during night use? Machined notch in ht rim at armed position On the MK-25 MLM what physically blocks the base plugs internally to prevent them from being accidentally pushed in? Arming plate How is the MK-25 MLM ignited? Electric squib and power supplied by salt water batteries What is the burning time of the MK-25 MLM? 13.5 to 18.5 minutes What is the purpose of the MK-34 adapter kit? CNO (Regulated by the EPA) Launch from sonobuoy or water tight integrity of battery cavity The MK-58 MLM contains what total number of pyrotechnic candles? Two The MK-58 MLM produces flame and smoke for what prescribed length of time? 40 to 60 minutes How many pyrotechnic candles and of what composition are contained in the MK-58 Mod 1 MLM? Two red phosphorus pyrotechnic candles There is a fire in a pyrotechnic magazine, you are the first person on scene, what would you use to fight the fire? Water in flooding quantities at low pressure The MK-58 MLM contains and burns what total number of phosphorous candles? Two Because of environmental concerns, under no circumstances, other than extreme emergency, should ammunition, explosives, or other related hazardous materials be dumped at sea by a naval vessel, aircraft or activity without prior approval of whom? CNO Approval for dumping pyrotechnic ammunition at sea is granted by what authority? The ignition end of the MK-58 MLM has three holes, what are they for? Two for smoke and flame emission and one for water entry What is the nomenclature of the seawater battery in the MK-58 MLM? MK-72 Mod 1 The MK-58 MLM may be hand launched, externally launched from a suitable bomb rack or by what other means? Sonobuoy launched When launched from a Sonobuoy Launch Container (SLC), what secures the MK-58 MLM inside? Foam spacers What is the burn time of the MK-58 MLM? 40 to 60 minutes In addition to being used for ASW, the MK-58 MLM may be used for search and rescue operations, man-overboard marking and? Target bombing at sea What is the MK-58 MLM not to be used for what purpose? Helicopter landings How is the MK-58 MLM activated? Sea water activates battery which ignites squib

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Torpedoes / Mines / Destructors / Quickstrikes
What type of air stabilizer is used on aircraft launched torpedoes? Parachute Exposure to Otto Fuel II can cause what effects on the human body? Headache, dizziness, and nasal congestion Exercise torpedoes are identified by what color code markings? An orange nose and after-body with a blue stripe around the ballast section The MK-31 Mod 1 air stabilizer is used for torpedoes configured for which of the following aircraft - F/A-18, P-3, S-3, or SH-60? SH-60B How are mines classified? After the torpedo is released, release wires unlatch the suspension bands, allowing them to break away, what is the reason for this? So the torpedo goes into the water slick Mines classified by method of delivery are? You are about to load a torpedo, during the acceptance inspection you check for all but which of the following - suspension bands aligned, air stabilizer installed, 30 inch lug holes ready for loading or arming lanyard in safety switch? 30-inch lug holes (Torpedos have 14 inch suspension) What is the weight of the MK-46 torpedo? Acoustic, pressure, and magnetic 568 lbs What is used as the propellant in the MK-46 torpedo? Otto II fuel What is the nomenclature of the suspension bands used on the MK-46 torpedo? MK-78 MK-55, MK-62, and MK-63 are what type of mines? What is the exercise head used on the MK-46 exercise torpedo? MK-85 What is the purpose of the stabilizer on the MK-46 torpedo? Ensure predictable air trajectory and water entry What reduces the speed of the MK-46 torpedo after high speed launch? Air stabilizer/parapack Which anti-submarine torpedo is lightweight, high speed and uses a steam turbine to generate propulsion? MK-50 Acoustic, magnetic, and pressure Air-laid When an MK-60 Captor mine detects an enemy submarine, it launches what anti-submarine weapon? A homing torpedo (MK-46) Approximately what total range of explosive load is in an air laid mine in pounds? 160 to 1300 What is the main element of a mine? Mine case What are the three classifications of influence actuated mines? Of the following - hydrostatic, pressure, magnetic, and acoustic, which is NOT a general category of influence actuated mines? Hydrostatic Moored mines are what type of mines? Buoyant Submarine, air, surface laid Mines classified by the position they take in the water after being laid are? Moored and bottom What types of influence operated mechanisms are currently in aircraft laid mines? Intended use, method of delivery, position assumed when laid, method of actuation or weight What section of the MK-50 torpedo provides propulsion and control functions? After-body What is the approximate weight of the MK-50 torpedo? 775 to 800 lbs Which anti-submarine torpedo is lightweight, variable speed, and is a hybrid of the MK-46 and MK-50 torpedoes? MK-54 Torpedo Aircraft laid mines should be handled in the same manner as which type of explosive? Bombs and assemblies

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What means can detonate an acoustic mine? Sound waves generated by a ships screws Air laid What type of explosives (filler) are used as the main charge of mines? Comp B, TNT, H6 or HBX MK-56 What is the delay time range for implanted air laid mines? 8 minutes to 10 days Air laid The detonation of a mine caused by the shock of explosions set off in attempts to sweep acoustic mines is prevented by what component? Anti-counter mine device Which of the following is not a principal mine safety feature - clock delay, flat nose casing, hydrostatic piston or explosive aligning piston? Flat nose casing What acts to open and close electrical switches in mine arming components? Hydrostatic piston What aligns the explosive train when the hydrostatic piston and explosive piston are forced in by water pressure after the mine is laid? Explosive piston (freed by water pressure) Mobile Mine Assembly Group (MOMAG) What prevents an acoustic mine from detonating during mine sweeping operations? Anti-counter mine device 800 feet An aircraft laid mine is submerged for a pre-determined time after planting. What device prevents the mine from firing until the predetermined time elapses? Clock delay mechanism The MK-55 is classified as what type of mine? Bottom MK-75 modification kit What device keeps an aircraft-laid mine from firing until it has been submerged for a predetermined time? The clock-delay mechanism What explosive filler is used in the MK-55 mine? HBX-1 What is the weight class of the MK-55 bottom mine? 2,000 lbs (2,273 lbs actual) What mine is equipped with an anti-countermine device that prevents detonation from explosives set off during mine sweeping operations? Acoustic What DST can only be dropped in the unretarded - low drag mode? MK-84 What components make up the MK-75 Destructor kit? MK-32 arming device, MK-59 booster, and MK-42 firing mechanism What bomb body is used to build a MK-41 DST? MK-84 What fin is used with the MK-41 DST? MK-84 conical fin In addition the standard LDGP marking, a DST/Quickstrike is identified by what other markings? White stripes What is used with a MK-80 series LDGP bomb to make a Destructor mine? In what minimum depth of water may a mine be safely jettisoned? What mine requires arming wire installation prior to aircraft loading? MK-60 Captor Arming wires should be installed on what mine before loading? MK-60 Captor Of the following types of actuation - acoustic, controlled, pressure, and magnetic which cannot be loaded on an aircraft? Controlled Who is responsible for the assembly of air laid mines? What mine is used against submarines? MK-60 Captor What is the method of delivery for the MK-60 Captor mine? What is the only air-laid moored mine in service use? What is the method of delivery for the MK-56 mine?

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How are Destructors marked/identified? Standard LDGP bomb markings plus white stripes What is the Target Detecting Device used in the MK-62 Quickstrike mine? MK-57 What is the arming device used in the MK-65? MK-2 What is the weight class of the MK-63 Quickstrike mine? 1,000 lbs What is the weight class of the MK-65 Quickstrike mine? 2,000 lbs

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M61A1 Vulcan Gun
Give a basic description of the M61A1 aircraft gun? Six (6) barrel rotary action automatic The M61A1 gun rotary mechanism works off of what aircraft system? Hydraulic The M61A1 aircraft gun is ____________ driven and ____________ controlled? Hydraulically - electrically In an M61A1 gun system the six barrel rotary action mechanism is operated by what means? Hydraulic power The M61A1 gun has a pilot selectable firing rate of ____________ low and ____________ high? 4,000 - 6,000 Naval aircraft configured with the M61A1, 20MM aircraft gun have what (a) low and (b) high selectable rates of fire? (a) 4,000 (b) 6,000 What component transmits the firing voltage to the primer of the round? Breech bolt assembly The barrels of an M61A1 gun are secured to the rotor assembly by what means? Interrupted locking lugs What gives you a gripping surface for easy installation and removal of the barrels from the rotor? Knurled bands on the barrels What provides for the front mounting of the M61A1 aircraft gun? Recoil adapters On the M61A1 gun, what is the clearing sector solenoid used for? Controls movement of clearing sector assembly Color and lettering What round of M50 series ammunition contains a fuze in the projectile? M505A3 What 20MM gun ammunition shall not be used in-flight? M54 High Pressure Test (HPT) What ammunition should NEVER be fired from an aircraft in flight? HPT What are the primary parts of the M61A1 gun? Barrels, housing assembly, and rotor assembly Front of each breech bolt assembly What restrains individual barrel movement during firing? Muzzle clamp assembly Bore erosion gage What component is used to check the gun barrels after firing? What happens when the clearing sector assembly solenoid is activated? Sector arm diverts the bolt assemblies into the clearing cam path What controls the forward and aft movement of the breech bolts in the M61A1 gun? Rotor tracks What engages the rim of a round throughout the firing cycle? Extractor lip Where are the extractor lips located on the gun? How many breech bolt assemblies are in the M61A1 Vulcan gun? Six The M61A1 gun uses what total number of breech bolt assemblies? Six What component guides the rounds through the actions of the gun? Breech bolt assembly The six barrels of the M61A1 gun are supported by what component? Stub rotor What secures the barrels to the rotor assembly? Three rows of interrupted locking lugs

What is the SWL of the F/A-18 gun system hoisting adapter? 874 lbs (Commonly known as the bird cage in the Hornet community) With the gun installed in the F-14 and the low rate selected, what is the guns rate of fire? 4,000 rounds per minute What series of ammunition is used in the M61A1 aircraft gun? M50 and PGU How is M50 series 20MM ammunition identified?

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On the M61A1 gun, the lubricator assembly is externally attached to what other assembly? Gun housing Chute assemblies - return and feed A lubricator assembly is attached to what component on the M61A1 gun? Housing assembly What lubricant is used in the lubricator assembly on the M61A1 gun? DOD-L-85336 (Due to California EPA restrictions, Lemoore squadrons use MC3000, that answer will most likely not be on the test) In the M61A1 gun when does the firing cycle begin? When power is applied to firing contact assembly The clearing cycle of the M61A1 gun starts at what time? When the breech bolt assembly returns the empty case to the guide bar Ammunition is guided into the extractor lip on a breech-bolt assembly by what? Guide bar fingers 676 rounds Empty ammunition cases are removed from the bolt assembly chamber by what? Extractor lip A RADHAZ free environment What would happen if the clearing sector arm was not installed? Gun would not fire The flight deck is not a RADHAZ safe area What diverts the succeeding bolt assemblies into the clearing cam path? Clearing sector arm What forces the bolt locking block upward when the clearing solenoid is deactivated? Leaf springs What is the purpose of the last round switch? 1,800 Prevents expended rounds from being fed into the gun What removes live rounds or expended cases from the retainer partitions in the exit cover and places them in the conveyor elements? Sprocket assembly What provides a path from the entrance unit to the exit unit through which conveyor elements pass? Bypass chute M50 and PGU series Ammunition is transported from the transfer unit to the entrance unit by what chute assembly? Return What level of maintenance performs maintenance on the LALS? Intermediate level At the organizational level, what is the most important maintenance practice followed when working on the LALS? Ensure you are in a RADHAZ free environment What series of ammunition is used in the LALS? The MHU-131/E32K Ammunition Transporter Loader Linkless Ammunition Loading System (LALS I) can hold a maximum of how many rounds of 20MM ammunition? 1,400 The GFK-21/E32K-7Ammunition Loader (LALS II) can hold a maximum of how many 20MM rounds? The LALS is not loaded or downloaded on the flight deck of an aircraft for what reason? What condition, if any is required when ammunition is loaded into the LALS? Conveyer elements are joined together by what? Removable hinge pins The ammunition handling system in the F/A-18 can hold a maximum of how many rounds? 578 rounds How is the gun mounted in the F/A-18 aircraft? Internally mounted in the nose of the aircafts centerline When installed in the F/A-18, the M61A1 gun system is handled as? A single palletized unit What position should the manual clearing handle remain in until you are actually performing gun arming procedures? Cleared position The ammunition handling system in the F-14 can hold a maximum of how many rounds? What provides a path through which the conveyor elements transport rounds and expended cases around the aircraft structure?

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How is the LALS mated to the aircraft? The timed interface unit assembly must be mated to the timed aircraft gun system by the aircraft adapter assembly or Aircraft Interface Unit (AIU) After an M61A1 gun has fired 120,000 rounds, it should be sent to what location? Overhaul depot At what round interval does scheduled maintenance begin for the M61A1 gun? 15,000 rounds per the AO NTRC 7,500 rounds per the NA 11-M61A1-1 At what round interval are the breech-bolt assemblies changed in the M61A1 gun? 15,000 Scheduled maintenance on the M61A1 gun for the handling and drive system is set at an interval of how many rounds? 30,000 The M61A1 gun is sent to depot level for overhaul at what round interval? 120,000 What is the scheduled maintenance interval established by the number of rounds fired through the M61A1 gun? 7,500, 15,000, 30,000, 45,000, 60,000, 75,000 90,000, 105,000, and 120,000 thousand rounds

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Aerial Targets
Aerial and land target activities report to what technical cognizance? COMNAVAIRSYSCOM Target systems are divided into what three categories? Aerial, land, and tow Target systems are divided into what total number of categories? Three What are the two basic classes of tow targets? Rigid and textile Ship and shore installations use what type of target for gunnery, rocketry, and missile fire practice? Aerial Weight and size The TDU-32A/B tow target is used for what type(s) of mission(s)? Surface-to-air and air-to-air 600 What target is a lightweight, high-speed rigid tow target used for air to air gunnery exercises? TDU-32B Which target is the rectangular towed target? TDU-32B Of the following targets - BQM-34A/S, TDU-32A/B, TDU-34/A, and AA/47U-3A, which is 90 percent radar reflective? TDU-32A/B Which tow target is made of fabric that is 90% radar reflective? TDU-32A/B The TDU-32A/B has what total dimensions? 7.5 x 40 ft Air to air The TDU-32 is towed how many feet behind the towing aircraft? 1,800 feet AQM-37A How is the TDU-10/B dart tow target launched? How is the AQM-37A propelled/fueled? Air launched from A/A37U-15A tow system Rocket powered What is the total weight of the TDU-34/A aerial tow target, in pounds? 75 LR-64 liquid propellant Which target is considered a passive radar target? TDU-34A/A Drone What does the Q stand for in AQM-37A missile target? What propellant is used in the propulsion system of the AQM-37A missile target? Which missile target is an expendable/ non-recoverable drone? What provides a means of transferring the target drag load from the reel to a structural member of the towing aircraft? Klein Chicago grip The AQM-37 missile target is used for what type of training? In the designator BQM-34/A, the Q identifies what type of mission? Drone What is the maximum altitude of the BQM-34? 55,000 Which missile target is a realistic simulation of offensive missile and aircraft threats? AQM-37A What is the maximum speed of the BQM-34A/S target system, in knots? What does the A/A-47U-3A tow target reeling machine-launcher system consist of? Reeling machine launcher, reeling machine launcher control, and connection cable assemblies What are the major differences between the A/A47U-3A and A/A47U-4? The A/A47U-3 external tow system is designed for towing which target? TDU-34/A What tow target reeling machine launchers are used for the TDU-34? A/A47U-3A and A/A47U-4 What is the towing speed of the TDU-34? 0.9 mach

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What centerline launcher is used to suspend and launch the AQM-37 missile target? LAU-24/A What is the method of launch for the BQM-74C target drone? Surface or air launched What is used to propel the BQM-74? Turbo jet engine Which target drone's flight path is remote controlled by radio commands? BQM-74 What target can remain afloat for 24 hours after water entry? BQM-74 What is the maximum breaking strength of 3/32 inch 7x7 tow cable? 920 lbs

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Ammunition Handling Equipment
Ammunition handling equipment is approved for use by whom? NAVSEASYSCOM or NAVAIRSYSCOM Who controls ammunition handling equipment if it is identified by MK and Mod number designations? NAVSEASYSCOM Who controls ammunition handling equipment if it is identified by Aero, HLK, ADU or ADK? NAVAIRSYSCOM Who authorizes the use of locally designed adapters to be used with weapons carriers? NAVAIRSYSCOM What publication contains descriptions of shipboard armament weapons support equipment? NAVSEA OP 2173 Volume 1 and 2 IMRL Where can you find a complete listing and description of approved ammunition handling equipment? NAVSEA OP 2173 Volume 1 & 2 and NA 19-100-1.1 & 1.2 How many categories of AWSE are there? Three Metal pallets What are the three categories of AWSE? Armament Support Equipment (ASE) Logistics Support Equipment (LSE) Weapons Support Equipment (WSE) Of the following - SE, LSE, WSE, and ASE, which is NOT considered AWSE? SE What type of SE includes all equipment whose primary function is the handling and transportation of aircraft stores and is essentially used by the weapons department? Weapons Support Equipment (WSE) What type of SE includes all equipment whose primary function is support of aircraft installed armament systems and is used primarily by the aircraft squadron? Armament Support Equipment (ASE) What type of SE includes multi-purpose non-aviation equipment used ashore and afloat for containerized/packaged weapons handling? Logistics Support Equipment (LSE) The quantity of support equipment and AWSE required by a particular activity to perform its mission is authorized by which of the following programs? IMRL Which pallet is used to palletize weapon components and containers for storage, handling and shipping? MK-12 Mod 1 The safe working load of the MK-3 and MK-12 metal pallets is? 4,000 lbs What color is the color coded tubing on the MK-86 pallet sling? Black What handling beam is used with the MK-86 pallet sling? MK-18 Mod 0 What is never to be used when transporting live ammunition? Wooden pallets What is the maximum SWL of a standard four-way wooden pallet? 4,000 lbs Which pallet is a general-purpose pallet used primarily for shipment of domestic unit loads of ordnance? MK-3 When live ammunition and explosives are involved, what type of hazard is prevented by the use of metal pallets? Fire What type pallet is to be used when live ammunition and explosives are involved? Who is responsible for the proper maintenance of AWSE when the aircraft is the end item? Squadron What command is responsible for the allocation AWSE to organizational level Maintenance activities? NAWC China Lake and Lakehurst NJ Who at the organizational level is responsible for ensuring that the proper servicing, maintenance, and inspections are performed on AWSE? MMCO Of the following programs - SERMIS, SECA, AMMRL, and IMRL, which authorizes quantities of support equipment and AWSE end items required by a particular activity to perform its assigned mission?

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Of the following slings - MK-105, MK-85, MK-86, and MK-109, which has an adjustable leg width and is primarily used for lifting containers and cradles? MK-105 Mod 0 What is the maximum SWL of the MK-85 pallet sling, in pounds? 4,000 The MK-85 pallet sling is identified by what color tubing? Red What is the color of the tubing on the MK-87 pallet sling? Green Slings are static tested from what minimum to maximum percentage of their SWL range? 200 to 215 What is the safe working load of the MK-72 Mod 2 pallet sling? 8,000 lbs Which weapons carrier is constructed of two steel plates welded together? MK-49 Mod 1 What is the A/F32K-1/1A? What locks the pivoting stud in place after lug engagement on the MK-49 Mod 1 weapons carrier? Quick release pin What is the suspension of the MK-49 Mod 1 weapons carrier? 14 inches What is the safe working load of the MK-49 Mod 1 weapons carrier? 2,500 lbs There are how many hoisting points on the MK-49 weapons carrier? Four What component on the MK-51 Mod 1 weapons carrier allows for adjustable 14 or 30 inch suspension lugs? The forward hook On the MK-51 Mod 1 weapons carrier what allows attachment to weapons or stores with 14 or 30 inch suspension lugs? Adjustable forward hook The forward hook on the MK-51 Mod 1 weapons carrier is held in place by what? Quick release pin Bomb assembly stand How many tables make up the A/F32K-1/1A bomb assembly stand? Three tables On the A/F32K-1/1A bomb assembly stand how many trays are placed on top of the three tables? Four What is the safe working load of each tray on the A/F32K-1/1A bomb assembly stand? 2,000 lbs The trays on the A/F32K-1/1A bomb assembly stand have conveyer rollers that permit _______ degree rotation of the bomb? 360 The A/F 32K-1/1A and A/F 32K-10 are equipped with four roller trays that permit bomb rotation of what maximum number of degrees? 360 The A/F32K-10 bomb assembly stand has what total number of table assemblies? Two What Bomb Assembly Stand is primarily designed for use on amphibious assault ships (LHA/LHD)? A/F32K-10 What assembly is designed to support the MK-80 series GP bombs during the assembly process? A/F 32K-1/1A What is the safe working load of the MK-51 Mod 1 weapons carrier? 4,000 lbs What is the SWL of a MK-91 Mod 0 hook adapter? 6,000 lbs Strongbacks, beams, bands and slings are static tested at what maximum percentage of their SWL? 200 percent The MXK-663/E32M-4 maintenance ring assemblies and can be rotated what maximum number of degrees? 180 The A/E32M-4 maintenance and reconfiguration stand is used for what? F-14 weapons rail maintenance What is the designation of the forward and aft maintenance ring assemblies on the A/E32M-4 maintenance and reconfiguration stand? MXK-663/E32M-4 and MXK-664/E32M-4

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What hoisting bar is used to manually lift the AIM-7 Sparrow or AGM-45 Shrike missile from the skid to the wing or fuselage launcher? Two Aero 64A1 What is used to secure the missile into the Aero 64 hoisting bar? Web strap What is the maximum SWL of an Aero 68A hoisting bar? 1,000 lbs MHU-129/E When two HLU-256/E hoisting bars are used, what maximum number of pounds can be lifted? 1,000 Which of the following equipment Aero 14C, HLU-288, HLU-256/E, and the Aero 33 bomb truck, which should not be used to load a MK-20 Rockeye? HLU-256/E manual hoisting bars What is the maximum size bomb that can be loaded with two HLU-256/E hoisting bars? 1,000 lbs To manually lift MK-80 series GP bombs during aircraft loading or unloading operations, which of the following hoisting bars should you use Aero 64A, HLU-210/E, Aero 68A or HLU-256/E? HLU-256/E HLU-291/E During aircraft loading and unloading operations, what hoisting bars should you use to manually lift MK-80 series GP bombs? HLU-256/E Of the following - AGM-88 HARM missile, MK-84 General Purpose bomb, AGM-45 Shrike missile or MK-83 General Purpose bomb, which can be loaded using the HLU-256/E manual hoisting bar? MK-83 What hoisting bar is used to manually lift MK80 series General Purpose bombs that weigh up to 1,000 lbs during aircraft loading/downloading operations? HLU-256 What hoisting beam is used to lift the AGM-78 standard missile in areas such as magazines that have restricted clearances aboard ships? HLU-210/E Which hoisting beam consists of an aluminum strongback with shoe slots on each end? HLU-210/E What hoisting beam is used for ground support handling of the AIM-54 Phoenix missile during aircraft loading/downloading operations? ADU-399B/E 2,000 lbs and 4,000 lbs The HLU-296/E guided missile hoisting beam is used for handling what missile? HARM What hoisting beam adapter is used to lift the AGM-88 HARM from the container? HLU-296/E Hoisting Beam HLU-328/E is used for lifting what missile? AGM-114 Hellfire What hoisting beam is used by Naval Weapons Station and aboard ships for hoisting AMRAAM and Sparrow missiles, with or without fins? HLU-421/E The HLU-196B/E bomb hoisting unit has a direct single cable lift capacity of _________ lbs and a double cable lift of _________ lbs? 2,000/4,000 What is the single cable lift capacity in pounds of the HLU-196B/E bomb hoisting unit? 2,000 The HLU-196B/E has what single and double SWL capacity, respectively? What lift beam is used with an overhead crane or hoist to lift the AGM-84 Harpoon missile from the container to the assembly stand or from the missile assembly stand into the container? MK-37 What beam is used to uncan/can a Harpoon missile? MK-37 Mod 1 Which beam is used for lifting the SLAM air launched missile and the Harpoon air launched missiles? MK-37 Mod 1 What hoisting beam adapter is used to lift the AGM-65E/F maverick from its container? During aircraft loading or unloading operations, missile adapter is used for ground support handling of the Phoenix missiles? ADU-399B/E What hoist is used with the ADU-399B/E during loading/unloading operations? HLU-196 or HLU-288 What missile hoisting beam is used aboard aircraft carriers to a previously assembled AIM-54 Phoenix missile?

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On the HLU-196B/E, what must be done to extend the cable? Disengage clutch Aero 58A skid adapters On the HLU-196B/E what must be done to reel in the cable? Engage clutch What is the maximum reel-in speed of the HLU-196B/E bomb hoisting unit? 15 feet per minute What battery operated bomb hoisting unit is a lightweight, portable unit designed to load various weapons/stores on naval aircraft? HLU-196D/E What is the single and double point lifting SWL of the HLU-196D/E? 1,500/3,000 lbs What replaced the Aero 14C bomb hoist? HLU-288 What is the single and double point lifting SWL of the HLU-288? 2,240/4,480 lbs What adapters are used to load the Walleye weapon on a bomb rack? ADU-448 cheese band What is the safe working load of the HLK-275 hoisting band? 2,500 lbs What is the safe working load of the HLK-276 hoisting band? 1,000 lbs What is the safe working load of the Aero 12C bomb skid? 1,250 lbs How are the brakes applied on the Aero 12C bomb skid? Setting the skid down How is a MK-83 General Purpose bomb transported by an Aero 12C bomb skid? Setting adjustable chocks On and Aero 12C bomb skid, what action(s) should you take to lock the brakes? Lower the aft end of the skid to the deck ADU-729/E Of the following weapons - MK-83 GP bomb, MK-84 GP bomb, MK-77 fire bomb, and MK-20 CBU, which one exceeds the capacity of the Aero 12C bomb skid? MK-84 GP bomb What is the safe working load of the ADU-729/E nitrogen receiver adapter? 85 lbs What bomb skid adapter is used to store and transport nitrogen bottles for a LAU-7 series launcher? Aero 39C What adapter is used with any flat surface skid or trailer to transport and store nitrogen bottles used in LAU-127 Launchers? The Aero 39B bomb skid adapter is capable of transporting up to how many nitrogen bottles? Seven To support soft skin weapons with diameters up to 20 inches on an Aero 12C skid, you should use what adapters? Aero 64B What is the safe working load of the Aero 12C with Aero 64B soft belt adapters? 1,250 lbs The Aero 12C is used to transport weapons having a diameter between __________ and __________ inches? 8 and 18 inches What bomb skid adapter consists of an aluminum box-like frame with collapsible walls? Aero 9B/C The Aero 9B/C is used on an Aero 12C to transport what components? Miscellaneous equipment What is the safe working load of the Aero 9B/C bomb skid adapter? 1,000 lbs Which of the following statements describes an Aero 9B/C adapter? It is a collapsible box with piano hinges The Aero 9B/C bomb skid adapter has what type of hinges? Piano If you are using an Aero 12C bomb skid with an Aero 9B/C bomb skid adapter, what is the safe working load? 1,000 lbs Of the following adapters - Aero 39B, Aero 64B, Aero 9C, and Aero 58A, which is NOT used with the Aero 12C skid?

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Of the following adapters - Aero 9B/C, Aero 39B, ADU-488/E, and ADU-729/E which one is designed to provide containment for transporting wings, fins and fuzes? ADU-488/E The ADU-488/E transport adapter is designed to carry what items? Wings, fins, and fuzes What adapter is used with the ADU-488 to transport wings and fins? ADU-628/E (Hardened foam insert used for AIM-120 wings and fins) What is the safe working load of the Aero 64B soft-belt adapter? 2,500 lbs The Aero 64B soft belt adapters support or store weapons up to how many inches in diameter? 20 inches What is the safe working load of the Aero 21C weapons skid? 5,000 lbs What is the safe working load of the MKK-128 munitions transporter? 5,000 lbs Note: Though listed as obsolete in the NAVSEA OP 2173/NA 19-100-1.1 this question still appeared on the March 2009 AO1 exam. What is the safe working load of the MHK-128/M32K-5(V) munitions transporter? 5,000 lbs What is the safe working load of the MHK-128/M32K-5(V) munitions transporter with a LALS installed? 5,000 lbs By attaching the ADU-567/E adapter to the ADU-514/E small missile adapter, you are providing wing and fin protection for which of the following missiles? AIM-9 Three MK-83 GP bombs What is the approximate weight of the MHU-191 munitions trailer? 200 lbs The MHU-191/M offers what improvement over the Aero 21C skid Improved braking and a longer draw bar What skid/bracket adapters convert the MHU-191/M weapons skid into a flatbed vehicle? (New) (Old) ADU-566 Aero 91A 5,000 lbs per NAVSEA OP 2173/NA-19-100-1.1 4,000 lbs per AO NRTC What adapter is used with the MHU-191 to make a flat bed transporter? (New) (Old) ADU-566 Aero 91A What is the safe working load of the Aero 91A bracket adapters? With an upper ADU-483 and a lower Aero 58 adapter installed on an MHU-191 weapons skid, which of the following weapon configurations three MK-83 GP bombs, six M117 bombs, three MK-41 DSTs, or four MK-1 Walleyes, can be transported? What is the safe working load of the MHK-128 munitions transporter? 5,000 lbs What adapter is used to transport the AGM-84 Harpoon missile aboard ship? Aero 58A What is the safe working load of the Aero 58A skid adapter? 5,000 lbs per set What is the difference in width between the front and rear section of the Aero 58A skid adapters? 2 inches When two Aero 64A soft-belt adapters are used with the Aero 58A what is the maximum SWL? 5,000 lbs What is the maximum SWL of two pairs of ADU-483/E skid adapters? 4,000 lbs What is the maximum SWL of the MHU-191/M weapons skid? 5,000 lbs What is the safe working load of the MHU-191 munitions trailer? 5,000 lbs What is the safe working load of Aero 91 bracket adapters when mounted on the MHU-191 skid? 4,000 lbs To transport a Harpoon missile from the magazine to the aircraft aboard ship, what (a) skid and (b) adapters should be used? (a) MHU-191/M (b) Aero 58A

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What is the safe working load of the ADU-566 bracket adapters? 5,000 lbs Four (4) How do you transport a pallet or container on an MHU-191 skid? With a pair of Aero 58 adapters and an Aero 71 flatbed adapter What adapters are used when using the Aero 71A flatbed adapter to form a flatbed? Aero 58A What is the safe working load of the Aero 71A skid adapter? 4,000 lbs What adapter is used with and MHU-191/M to transport empty IMERs and ITERs? Aero 83A What is the safe working load of the Aero 83A transport adapter? 5,000 lbs To transport empty IMERs and ITERs, what adapter is used with the Aero 58A skid adapter on the MHU-191/M weapons skid? Aero 83A What items are transported and stowed on an Aero 83A transport adapter? Empty IMERs and ITERs ADU-514/E What adapter is used to transport empty multiple MERs and TERs? Aero 83A How many Aero 83A transport adapters can be stacked on top of each other? Two What adapter is used to transport the AGM-65E/F or AGM-88 aboard ship? ADU-511 What adapter is used with Aero 58As for side by side transport AMRAAM? ADU-511 Note: ADU-514s can transports AMRAAM side by side but do not utilize the Aero 58 When an MXU-661/E skid adapter assembly is mounted on an Aero 71 A skid adapter, what total number of containerized sonobuoys is it capable of holding or transporting? 32 How many sonobuoys can be transported on an MXU-661/E adapter assembly? 32 The Aero 67A small bomb and missile adapter is used to transport and load weapons having a ______ inch or smaller diameter? 13 To transport one AGM-154 JSOW weapon, what support equipment should you use with the MHU-191? ADU-775/E When used in pairs, what is the maximum weight capacity of the ADU-775/E, in pounds? 3,000 To provide additional height clearance when transporting various weapons, what adapter should you use with the Aero 58A? ADU-405/E The safe working load of the Aero 67A small bomb and missile adapter is? 3,500 lbs What adapter is used aboard aircraft carriers to transport stores up to 13 inches in diameter? Aero 67A What skid adapter is used to transport the AIM-9 Sidewinder missile? ADU-475 How many AIM-9s can be transported by the ADU-475/E guided missile adapter? Four (4) The ADU-353-1 skid adapter is used aboard ship to handle what weapon? AIM-9 An ADU-514A/E missile adapter carries what maximum number of Sparrow missiles? Four Of the following guided missile adapters Aero 71A, ADU-514A/E, MXU-661/E, and the ADU-353-1, which one can transport as many as six Sidewinder AIM-9 series guided missiles? ADU-514A/E (Can actually carry only four after being modified, but this is how it may be worded on the exam) To transport as many as four AIM-9 sidewinder missiles, which of the following adapters is used with various skids, transporters and trailers - ADU-514, Aero 64A, ADU-483/E, and Aero 91? When used with the MHU-191/M skid, a ADU-475/E guided missile adapter can transport what maximum number of AIM-9 series missiles?

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What small bomb and missile adapter can transport up to six AIM-7s? Aero 67 What is the safe working load of the MK-7 Mods bomb trailer? 2,250 lbs What is the safe working load of the ADU-400/E adapter? 2,500 lbs What degree can the MK-7 bomb trailer tilt? 30 Eight (8) You are towing thee MK-7 bomb trailers in a train, what is the maximum safe towing speed in mph? 5 When transporting AIM-9s, what is the maximum MHU-126A/M safe towing speed, in mph? 5 To permit coupling with another trailer, what item(s) should be attached to the rear of the MHU-126A/M Pintle hook When towing a single trailer with a specified load, speed is not to exceed how many miles per hour? 15 MPH When towing multiple trailers with a specified load, speed is not to exceed how many miles per hour? 5 MPH What trailer is normally used at advanced bases? A/M 32K-4A What is the safe working load of the A/M 32K-4A SATS trailer? 8,000 lbs The A/M 32K-4A SATS trailer is best suited for operation at which of the following locations? In rough terrain The A/M 32K-4A SATS trailer is designed for use on what type of terrain? Rough When you are towing two MHU-126A/M munitions trailers, what is the maximum safe speed you should travel? 5 MPH What adapter is used on the Aero 51B trailer to transport the AIM-9 Sidewinder and AGM-114 Hellfire missiles? MHU-61 What is the maximum SWL of an MHU-151/M munitions trailer? 3,000 lbs What is the maximum SWL of the A/M 32K-4A SATS trailer? 8,000 lbs What is the safe working load of the A/S 32K-1A/1B/1C SATS loader? 4,500 lbs Weapon loader A/S 32K-1E is used to load externally carried munitions, weapons and stores onto what platform? Aircraft What is the total A/S 32/K-1E weapons loader SWL, in pounds? 4,500 What type of power plant is used in the Aero 47A/A-1/MJ7 weapons loaders? 4 cylinder air cooled diesel What is the maximum transporting and lifting weight of an Aero 47-1 weapons loader? 4,500 lb What is the safe working load of the Aero 47A/A-1/MJ7 weapons loader? 4,500 lbs When handling ammunition with a forklift truck, which of the following major safety requirements must be met by each vehicle? The truck must be Spark-enclosed or explosive proof What is the maximum SWL of an MHU-126A/M small munitions trailer? 5,000 lbs What is the safe working load of the Aero 51B munitions trailer? 8,500 lbs How many MK-84 bombs can be transported on the Aero 51B munitions trailer? Four (4) How many MK-83/BLU-110 bombs can be transported on the Aero 51B munitions trailer?

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What is the main difference between a 4,000 and 6,000 pound forklift truck? Load carrying capacity Forklift trucks use what type of tires for rough and uneven terrain, in mud, or over soft, sandy ground? Pneumatic Unlike a forklift truck, a pallet truck is designed to support the bomb load over which truck area? Entire wheelbase What equipment should you use to stack pallets of ammunition in a ships magazine? Reaching and tiering fork What is the rated capacity for the diesel engine forklifts used throughout the Navy, in pounds? 4,000 What is the capacity of the reaching and tiering electric forklift truck? 4,000 lbs What is the capacity of the low lift electric pallet truck? 6,000 lbs The lift mechanism on the electric (low lift) pallet truck can be operated in what ways? Electrically or manually What is the maximum boom reach of the ammunition handling truck? 16 feet A single MK-45 Mod 2 hand lift truck has what total SWL, in pounds? 3,000 What is the safe working load of the MK-24 Dolly? 900 lbs

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Suspension and Releasing Equipment
Who determines the world wide net assets of AAE (Aircraft Armament Equipment - bomb racks, missile launchers etc.)? COMANAVAIRSYSCOM What are the two categories of Aircraft Armament Equipment? Aircraft Inventory Material and Mission Oriented Material Which AAE material category if removed could affect the structural or aerodynamic integrity of the aircraft? Aircraft Inventory Material 1,450 lbs What is the primary difference between a bomb rack and a shackle? The arming and release mechanism is internal in the rack and external on the shackle What bomb racks do not have electrical fuze arming capability? MK-8 shackle, BRU-11, BRU-12, BRU-14, BRU-15, BRU-65, MAU-38 and Aero 65 An un-energized bomb arming solenoid is designed to release an arming wire between what pull range? 9 to 13 pounds When a store is loaded on an ejector rack, what visual indication, if any, is available for you to determine whether the hooks of the rack are properly latched? The horizontal black line in the inspection window What bomb rack is pylon mounted to the wing stations of the P-3 aircraft? BRU-15 or Aero 65 What is the maximum capacity of the BRU-15 and Aero 65? 1,450 lbs When using Aero 65A1 bomb rack with Aero 1A adapters, how many 1,000 lb class mines can be carried in the bomb bay of the P-3? Three What must be done before loading a weapon on the Aero-65A bomb rack? Cock and latch the bomb rack linkage assembly When used with Aero 1A adapters, the Aero 65A bomb rack can suspend what size store? 30 inch/2,000 lbs The Aero 1A adapter allows you to load and carry weapons and stores having suspension lugs spaced _______ inches apart and weighing up to ________ lbs? 30/2,000 What bomb rack is used in the bomb bay of the S-3 aircraft? BRU-14 What bomb rack may be mounted in the bomb bay of the P-3 and S-3 aircraft? BRU-14 What is the maximum capacity of the BRU-14? 2,200 lbs The BRU-15 is installed on the wing stations of what aircraft? P-3 How many wing stations are on a P-3? Ten (10) How many wing stations are on an S-3? Two (2) How many weapons stations (wing and bomb bay) are on a P-3? 18 Why are wing stations on a P-3 not interchangeable? Wing pylon spacers are trimmed to fit the wing contour at one station The Aero 7A-5 and Aero 7B-4 bomb ejector racks are mounted externally on what aircraft? EA-6B and A-6 What is the difference between the Aero 7A-5 and the Aero 7B-4 bomb ejector racks? The Aero 7B-4 is mounted on the centerline and is two (2) inches shorter in height On the Aero 7A-5 bomb ejector rack if the suspension hooks are properly engaged by the sear what would be the indication in the inspection window? Solid horizontal black line What bomb rack is be mounted in the bomb bay of the P-3 aircraft? BRU-12 and BRU-14 How many BRU-12/A bomb racks can be mounted in the bomb bay of the P-3 aircraft? Eight What is the maximum capacity of the BRU-12? The MAU-38/A bomb rack is a major modification of what bomb rack? Aero 65

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What bomb ejector rack is mounted on the centerline station of the A-6 aircraft? Aero 7B-4 What bomb ejector rack is mounted on the wing stations of the A-6 aircraft? Aero 7A-5 On the Aero 7B-4 and the Aero 7A-5 bomb ejector racks the 14 inch suspension hook allows a maximum weapon store capacity of ________ lbs and the 30 inch suspension hook allows a maximum weapons store capacity of ________ lbs? 1,500/3,500 After a weapon or store is loaded on the Aero-7 series bomb rack, you must adjust the ejector foot flush with the skin of the weapon and then back it off to what detent? The first detent How many Aero 7A-5 bomb racks are installed on the A-6? Four What would happen if you rotated the manual release nut with the safety pin installed in the Aero 7 series bomb rack? You will damage the linkage and possibly shear the sear retainer pin When are Aero 7 series bomb ejector racks routed to an intermediate maintenance activity for scheduled maintenance? Every 420 days When are the Aero 7A-5 and Aero 7B-4 bomb ejector racks routed to a depot level maintenance activity for overhaul? 42 months On a normal firing day how often would a bomb ejector rack be inspected? After five firings or at the end of the firing day Prior to re-assembly of the ejector mechanism on the Aero 7 series bomb rack, a light coat of what should be applied? VVL-800 What bomb ejector rack is pylon mounted on the wing stations of the A-7E? BRU-10A/A The BRU-10A/A bomb ejector rack can carry weapons weighing up to how much? 4,000 lbs How many ejector foot positions are there on the BRU-10A/A bomb rack? Four On the BRU-10A/A bomb ejector rack if the hooks are not properly locked what would be the indication in the latch inspection hole? A blue/silver latch indication What bomb ejector rack is pylon mounted on the wing stations of the S-3 aircraft? BRU-11 On the BRU-10, what provides an emergency method of release if the ejector assembly or its electrical system should fail? Auxiliary release unit Of the following types of suspension equipment - ADU-299/E, LAU-92/A, MK-8, and BRU-11A/A rack, which has the ability to carry and release the Harpoon missile? BRU-11A/A rack What is the major difference between the BRU-10 and the BRU-11 bomb ejector racks? The BRU-11 is equipped with an IFOBRL What bomb rack is designed to accommodate one ejector unit in one of four different positions? BRU-11 - Positions A thru D What CAD used for emergency jettison of stores from the BRU-11 bomb ejector rack? MK-19 What is the suspension and SWL of the BRU-11 bomb rack? 14 and 30 inch and 4,000 lbs What bomb ejector rack is installed on the F/A-18 aircraft? BRU-32 What bomb rack is used as the parent rack on the wing stations of the F/A-18 aircraft? BRU-32 What type of suspension is available in a BRU-32 bomb rack? 14 inch or 30 inch On the F/A-18E/F Super Hornet what adapter provides the mechanical and electrical interface for a single LAU-127 launcher when the BRU-32 is removed from the SUU-80 outboard wing pylon? ADU-773 Launcher Pylon Adapter On a BRU-32 bomb rack, what prevents the accidental opening of the suspension hooks? Safety interlock

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What is the suspension and SWL of the BRU-33 CVER? 14 inch suspension and 2,000 lbs (2 - 1,000 lbs class stores) What ejector rack is used to suspend and release two weapons/stores that require MIL-STD-1760 (GPS) capability? BRU-55 Canted Vertical Ejector Rack (CVER) To electrically safe the firing circuits of the MER bomb rack assembly, a safety pin is installed in which of the following? In the MER tail cone only On an A/A37-5 triple ejector rack, what switch permits single and salvo store release and single and automatic step release? Release mode selector switch To eject the stores, each breech of the IMER uses (a) what total number of cartridges and (b) what type of cartridge(s)? (a) One (b) CCU-44/B or CCU-107 Where is the stepper switch located on the MER? On the A/A37B-6E Multiple Ejector Rack (MER) and A/A37B-5E Triple Ejector Rack (TER) what gives the aircraft a stores loaded or released indication? Stores sensing switch mounted under the forward suspension hook What is the difference between the ejector unit assemblies used on the MER and TER? Internal configuration of the release linkage What action in the MER moves the hook toggles allowing the hooks to open? Aft movement of the breech What action takes place to open the hooks on the MER and TER? When the CAD is fired, the breech moves aft, this moves the hook release aft lifting the toggle hook levers from the over center position. The cranks are then forced down and this opens the suspension hooks To mechanically safe a MER/TER ejector unit assembly, you should use what? Safety stop lever When should you install the MER/TER electrical safety pin? Before loading Forward of the tail cone assembly Without the adapter kits, what is the approximate weight of a Multiple Ejector Rack? 226 lbs A BRU-41/A is capable carrying what maximum number of stores? Six What is the maximum capacity of the BRU-41 IMER? 4,500 lbs What is the major difference between a BRU-41/A and BRU-42/A? The number of stores they can accommodate Weapons are fired at what interval when the MER/TER selector switch is set to auto ripple? 20 milli-seconds The responsibility for maintaining the hardware adapter kit and the practice bomb adapters for use with the MER/TER lies with which maintenance level? Organizational level A BRU-42/A is capable of carrying what maximum number of stores? Three What is the maximum capacity of the BRU-42 ITER? 3,500 lbs What is the firing sequence of the BRU-41 IMER? Center Aft Center Forward Aft Port Forward Port Aft Starboard Forward Starboard Station 6 Station 2 Station 4 Station Station Station Station Station Station 1 2 3 4 5 6 Station 5 Station 1 Station 3

What is the firing sequence of the BRU-42 ITER? Center Port Starboard Station 1 Station 2 Station 3 Station 3 Station 1 Station 2

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A fully loaded Triple Ejector Rack contains what total number of ejection cartridges? Three Without the adapter kits, what is the approximate weight of the Triple Ejector Rack? 99 lbs What bomb rack is used on the H-60B/F/H/R series helicopters? BRU-14 What bomb rack is used in conjunction with the External Weapons System (EWS) on the MH-60S helicopter? BRU-65 ejector rack What is the maximum capacity of the BRU-65 bomb rack? 1,000 lbs What shackle is used to suspend and release stores on helicopters such as the SH-3? MK-8 Mod 3 What release unit may be used on the MK-8 bomb shackle to electrically release stores? Aero 7B-1 Linear Electro Mechanical Actuator (LEMA) The MK-8 shackle suspends and releases weapons and stores weighing up to how much? 1450 lbs What bomb rack is used in the kill store system of the SH-60B helicopter? BRU-14 The BRU-14 bomb rack contains what total number of adjustable swaybraces? Four On the BRU-14 bomb rack, what cartridge actuates the auxiliary release system? MK-17 What Bomb Rack Adapter carries and releases Signal Underwater Sound (SUS) from the lower bomb bay stations in the P-3? The ADU-369/A

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Flare Dispensers
How many CADs are installed in the SUU-44 flare dispenser? Four (4) What type of impulse cartridges are used in the breeches of the SUU-44 flare dispenser? CCU-45 Where are the four breeches and the spider assembly mounted on the SUU-44 flare dispenser? Forward bulkhead When installed, what electrically safes the SUU-44 flare pod? Detent safety pin How many CADs are used if two flares are fired from the SUU-44 flare dispenser? One How are flares ejected from the SUU-44 flare dispenser? Eight What configuration of the SUU-25 is approved for use by the Navy? SUU-25F/A What is the purpose of the breech bolt hole in the SUU-25F/A pod? Prevent air pressure build up and insert push tool A SUU-25 flare dispenser provides carriage and controlled launching of what parachute flares? LUU-2B/B The SUU-25F/A can carry and launch up to how many LUU-2 parachute flares? Eight If using a SUU-25F/A dispenser and four flares are launched, how many CADs are expended? Four In the SUU-25F/A, if the aft CAD fails to launch the parachute flare what will happen when the forward parachute flare is launched? The forward CAD provides sufficient gas pressure to also launch the aft flare What type of impulse cartridges are used in the breeches of the SUU-25F/A dispenser? CCU-44 What is main advantage the SUU-25F/A dispenser has over the SUU-44 flare dispenser? Allows flares to be ejected one at a time versus two at a time, thereby doubling the operational capability On the SUU-25F/A pod when the safety pin and flag assembly is properly installed in the stepper switch, the dispenser is safed by what means? Electrically safe What is the empty and fully loaded weight of the SUU-25F/A? 260 lbs empty and 500 lbs loaded

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ECM and Photoflash Cartridges
What impulse cartridges are used as an expelling charge in the AN/ALE-29A Dispenser? MK-131, CCU-41, CCU-63 and CCU-136 Installation of the MK-131 cartridges must be done in what location? Designated RF-free area In the AN/ALE-37A, what total number of MK-131 impulse cartridges is installed in the dispenser set? 240 Installation of the CCU-63/B impulse cartridges must be done in what location? Designated RF-free area What cartridges are installed in chaff dispensers? CCU-136A MK-131 CCU-41 CCU-63 (New used for both) (Old used for both) (Chaff) (Flare) On the AN/ALE-39A countermeasures dispenser set, what makes the dispenser electrically safe when the safety pin/flag assemblies are installed? Safety switches in the aircraft rear housing What is the difference in the number of rounds between the AN/ALE-39A and AN/ALE-37A countermeasures dispenser sets? 180 rounds - ALE-39 system holds 60 rounds (30 per dispenser) - ALE-37 holds 240 rounds (120 rounds per dispenser) The AN/ALE-37A chaff dispensing set can be externally loaded on what ejector rack(s)? IMERs and ITERs Of the following CADs - CCU-44, MK-131, CCU-41, and CCU-63, which is used to launch flares from the ALE-29 chaff dispenser? MK-131 MK-46 Mod 1A, 1B and 1C flares can be launched from what dispensers? ALE-39 and the ALE-37 Each payload module of the AN/ALE-37 chaff dispensing set has a capacity of total number of rounds? 120 The ALE-37A chaff dispenser can be loaded with what maximum number of rounds? 240

The AN/ALE-29A chaff dispenser is secured into the dispenser housing of the aircraft by what means? Four quick release, positive lock studs The AN/ALE-29A chaff dispenser can be loaded with what maximum number of rounds? 30 The AN/ALE-29A chaff dispenser system holds what maximum number of rounds? 30 What signal cartridge produces a dense white smoke display for day missions? CXU-3 The MK-4 spotting charge emits a flame of how many feet when initiated? 3 to 4 feet What flare is used as a decoy during evasive maneuvers against heat seeking missiles? MK-46 The MJU-49 decoy device is a product improvement over what decoy device? MJU-27A/B Of the following - RF jammers, chaff, location markers, and flares, which is NOT a dispensable payload from the AN/ALE-39 countermeasure dispensing system? Location markers

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Shipboard Magazines and Operations
Safety regulations for handling and storing stowing ammunition are best described by what statement? Follow without exception Which of the following authorities can authorize ships to carry lethal chemical ammunition? NAVSEASYSCOM (CNO in OP 4) Who develops and approves the detailed specifications for construction of Navy ships, in which ammunition stowage spaces (magazines) are designated? NAVSEASYSCOM Aircraft or aircraft carrier ammunition stowage spaces (magazines) are also approved by whom? NAVAIRSYSCOM What command is responsible for issuing instructions regarding the stowage of chemical/biological ammunition aboard the ship? COMNAVSEASYSCOM Privately owned weapons are permitted aboard ship only when approved in writing by what person? CO NAVSEASYSCOM Explosive materials from what compatibility group are prohibited aboard combatant ships? Group A (Lead azide, mercury fulminate, PETN, RDX, tetracene and lead styphnate) Information on aircraft assigned to carry ordnance for the next workday can be found in what document? Squadron flight schedule Which of the following methods is/are used to transfer ammunition at sea? Conventional and vertical replenishment (CONREP and VERTREP) During ordnance onloads/offloads who is responsible for ensuring that safety regulations and equipment used in accordance with the NAVSEA OP 3347 (Old) NAVSEA SW020-AD-SAF-010 (New) are adhered to? Commanding Officer Orange How long may a ship stay in a naval shipyard before ammunition must be off-loaded? Six weeks Never Units scheduled for an availability period must completely off-load all ammunition when the availability period exceeds what specific number of weeks? 6 Ammunition far side signs should be spaced what total number of feet apart? 12 When, if ever, can the SWL of ordnance handling equipment be exceeded? Where are stowage tables for mixed/incompatible stowage found? NAVSEA OP 4 Ammunition Afloat Privately owned ammunition and small arms may be kept aboard ship after approval from what person? Commanding Officer Where are missile magazines normally located on a carrier? Below the waterline and within the armored box When, if ever, are food and drink allowed in magazines? When ammunition and explosives are not present To identify a lite box, what should be the color of the paint or stencil ink? What magazine type is located closest to the area being served? Ready service A ships primary magazines are normally located where? Below decks and below the waterline Who authorizes mixed stowage in magazines? Aboard ship, what individual is responsible for maintaining control of magazine keys and high security keys? Ships Gunner NAVSEASYSCOM should be notified when magazine temperatures consistently exceed ________ degrees? 100 When ammunition is not required for ready service, it should be stowed in what type of magazine? Primary Approval for dumping pyrotechnic ammunition at sea is granted by what authority? CNO (Regulated by the EPA)

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Hoists in magazine stowage areas are operated by what type(s) of power? Manual, electric or pneumatic For operational requirements, waivers for mandatory explosive safety are generally issued for what maximum number of years? Two During underway conventional ordnance replenishment, what department mans the conning stations? Deck Department Hot work may be performed how many feet form the overhead when near a magazine? Five (5) feet Concerning magazines, what do the stenciled markings that must be located on the bulkheads, overheads, and decks 12 feet apart state on them? Ammunition far side Aboard ship, magazines are labeled on the outside bulkheads of the stowage space with a yellow rectangle that states what? Ammunition far side Where ordnance is stowed, where are Ammunition Far Side signs not required to be posted? Those outside surfaces which are visible from the exterior of ship or interior surfaces with special decorative material Aboard ship, magazines are labeled on the outside of the storage space with a yellow rectangle. What does this label indicate? AMMUNITION FAR SIDE (Minimum 5 inches high by 9 inches wide, on bulkheads 5 feet above deck spaced 12 ft apart horizontal and 12 ft apart on deck) Ships magazine temperatures should be taken and recorded on a magazine temperature record card at what minimum intervals? Every 24 hours When recording magazine temperatures in the permanent log, record temperatures in excess of 100 degrees in what way? Red ink Magazine inspection logbooks can be destroyed after a minimum of how many months have elapsed since the date of the last entry? 12 months/one year Magazine temperature files/data cards should be kept for what minimum period of time? 12 months Aboard ship, ammo lockers are frequently found in what location? On the weather deck Where are lockers frequently located? Weather deck Flare ready service lockers are normally located where on an aircraft carrier? Outboard edge of the flight deck Lockers are located on the weather decks for what reason? Convenience to the weapon or space to be served and if necessary they can be easily jettisoned Who may designate specific spaces aboard ship as chemical magazines? NAVSEASYSCOM or higher The decks and bulkheads of chemical magazines are coated with what material? Impermeable material What command is responsible for issuing instructions pertaining to shipboard stowage of biological/chemical ammunition? NAVSEASYSCOM Of the following - chocks, chains, stanchions, and battens, which is not used in a ready service locker? Chocks In a magazine equipped with a sprinkler system, you should NOT stow which of the following pyrotechnic devices - MK-45 parachute flares, MK-58 MLMs, MK-79 illumination signal kits, and MK-13 smoke and illumination signals? MK-58 MLMs Of the following stores - flares, 20MM, sonobuoys, and marine location markers, which must NOT be stowed in a magazine equipped with sprinkler system? Marine location markers What magazines do not require sprinkler systems? Water activated pyrotechnic magazines magazines for Marine Location Markers such as the MK-25 and MK-58, weather deck lockers and 20MM ready service rooms Magazine temperature record cards should be replaced in magazines at least how often? Monthly Aboard an aircraft carrier, jettison lockers are located what area? Above the waterline and O2 level catwalk

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What type of weapon does not have to be stowed in a magazine equipped with sprinkler systems? Pyrotechnic A magazine filled with MK-58 Marine Location Markers should not be equipped with which of the following - exhaust vents, HF circuit fire extinguishers, or a sprinkler system? Sprinkler system How many thermometers are required to be in a magazine? Two (A minimum of two thermostats shall be installed with not less than one thermostat installed for each 250 sq ft of deck area) If a magazine has a deck area of 982 feet, what minimum number of thermostats should be installed in the magazine? Three When mixed stowage is used, make sure it conforms to the stowage tables listed in what publication? NAVSEA OP 4 When inspecting a magazine containing smokeless powder particular attention should be given to the presence of what? The smell of alcohol, ether or nitrous Magazines that are continuously occupied by personnel are blown through or ventilated every how many hours? A minimum of every five hours 130 degrees If a missile motor is accidentally ignited in a magazine, what means are used to avoid spreading gas and to other areas of the ship? Exhausted ducts that are vented to weather decks What in the magazine allows air and water to escape from the magazine during flooding into one of the ventilation ducts or through an independent air escape? The magazine check valve located in the exhaust ventilator When a missile motor ignites in a missile magazine, what system ensures pressure stabilization? Ventilation system NAVSEAINST 8023.3 and NAVSEA OP 4 What high alarm temperature system circuit detects a rapid rise in temperature? FH circuit The vertical metal shoring used in shipboard magazines is known by what terms? Stanchions (Battens provide horizontal support) All electro-explosives devices have to be struck below decks when an electrical storm is within what mile radius of the ship? 5 miles Aboard an aircraft carrier, what person is responsible for the security of live ordnance staged in the bomb farm area of the flight deck Bomb-farm watch What are the three basic types of hoists used aboard? Manual, electric, and hydraulic When inspecting hoists in a magazine stowage area, as a minimum you would look for what information? Date tested, activity, next due date Hoists must be weight tested every how many months? 48 months Hoists must be weight tested every 48 months in accordance with what instruction/manual? What can be used to make racks in shipboard magazines? Stanchions and battens What are used to divide a large magazine area into smaller areas or bins to hold various sizes of ammunition with a minimum loss of space? Stanchions and battens What are fitted to stanchions and run horizontally to provide the walls to make the bin? Battens What is used to zero out maximum-minimum thermometers in magazines? Horseshoe shaped magnet Ammunition that has been exposed to 120 degrees falls under what processing procedure? Expend first A temperature reducing method should be started when the magazine interior reached what specified temperature? 100 degrees F What has to be done if temperatures inside a magazine exceed 100 degrees? The magazine must be artificially cooled At what temperature should all ammunition be removed from a magazine?

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What person is responsible for the bomb farm? The bomb-farm watch When operating in a HERO environment, you must comply with procedures and precautions contained in what publication (NAVSEA and NAVAIR number)? NAVSEA OP 3365/NAVAIR 16-1-529 Report accidents involving ordnance equipment, ammunition, and explosives where material damage or personnel injury occur in accordance with what instruction? OPNAVISNT 5102.1 series What is the definition of a transfer area? The safest and quickest routes of travel for weapons to the staging area Staging areas for assembled weapons are restricted to what types of areas? Convenient to jettison locations; at least two clear access routes; covered by sprinkler hose or charged fire hoses; located as far as practicable from fueling stations and LOX carts; areas manned and provisioned for physically securing weapons. Priority for a staging area is as follows: flight deck and outboard of island, hangar deck, and sponsons. The space where weapons support equipment is stowed is known as what area? Support area The physical removal of ammunition from the magazine is known as what? Breakout Normally, how many persons operate a bomb assembly stand? 10 personnel What person ensures the appropriate HERO condition has been set? The Operations Officer

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Shore Based Magazines and Operations
The mandatory safety rules and regulations governing the storage of ammunition at an NAS can be found in what NAVSEA publication? OP 5 What command has been directed to execute the shore station Explosives Safety Inspection (ESI) program? Naval Ordnance Safety and Security Activity (NOSSA) Explosive Safety Inspections are conducted in accordance with what instruction? NOSSAINST 8020.14 NAVSEASYSCOM What NOSSA Office conducts Explosive Safety Inspections (ESI)? Explosive Safety Support Office Atlantic or Pacific (ESSOLANT/ESSOPAC) What Explosives Safety Support Office inspects commands from the Mississippi River Eastward to Bahrain? Explosives Safety Support Office, Atlantic, (ESSOLANT) What Explosives Safety Support Office inspects commands from the Mississippi River Westward to Diego Garcia? Explosives Safety Support Office, Pacific, (ESSOPAC) Commands in facilities categories I, II, III, and IV, will receive a formal Explosive Safety Inspection (ESI) on what periodicity? Every two years If you fail (receive an UNSAT) during an Explosive Safety Inspection you will be re-inspected within how many days? 120 days of the final dated report If you fail and Explosive Safety Inspection (ESI), what is the highest grade you can receive on re-inspection? In compliance What is the minimum time you will be notified before an Explosive Safety Inspection is conducted? 60 days When ammunition is reclassified as unsafe to handle, what authority should be notified? EOD What command develops and approves detailed specifications for construction of magazines ashore? NAVSEASYSCOM The Secretary of the Navy has delegated authority to issue waivers, exemptions and event waivers when strategic or other compelling reasons dictate to what person? CNO Who is responsible for requesting the appropriate deviation authority as soon as the need is identified to deviate from established explosives safety criteria? The Commanding Officer What is it called when written authority to deviate from mandatory explosives safety requirements for the purpose of temporary satisfaction of recurring readiness or operational requirements is approved? A waiver Waivers are generally issued for what period of time? Two years What is it called when written authority to deviate from mandatory explosives safety requirements for the purpose of long-term satisfaction of recurring readiness or operational requirements is approved? An exemption Exemptions are generally issued for what period of time? Five years What type of waiver is an approved deviation on a case-by-case basis for a particular evolution, issued for a limited period to meet a specific, non-recurring readiness or operational requirement which cannot otherwise be satisfied and result from compelling mission requirements, not operational convenience? An event waiver Written permits for hunting and fishing in explosive storage areas of DON shore activities should be approved by what officer? Commanding Officer Ordnance grounds should be tested for electrical resistance and continuity at least how often, in months? 24 Safety regulations for handling and storing stowing ammunition are best described by what statement? Follow without exception All naval shore units that produce, ship, store or otherwise handle ammunition, explosives, and other hazardous materials are under the management of what command?

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At a shore based weapons department, what officer may request changes to the Approved Basic Stock Level Allowance (ABSLA)? Weapons Officer When mixed storage of ammunition is used ashore, it must conform to the requirements contained in what NAVSEA publication? NAVSEA OP 5 Renewals for explosive waivers for magazines ashore are required to be submitted how many months prior to expiration? 3 months It is not permissible to handle Electro- Explosive Devices (EEDs) based on the restrictions for similar devices unless specifically authorized by whom? NAVSEASYSCOM For operational requirements, waivers for mandatory explosive safety are generally issued for what maximum number of years? Two Lethal toxic agents are found in what chemical group? Group A Keyport Smoke agents are found in what chemical group? Group C Incendiary agents fall into what chemical group? Group D Which of the following symbols - CK, CX, VK or VX, represents a Group A chemical weapons agent? VX When inspecting magazines ashore, you should make sure the contents are identified and segregated according to what? Lot number (New) Temperature reduction should be started when the magazine reaches what temperature? 100 degrees At a weapons station, ammunition stored in the open is provided minimum protection against corrosion. Under these conditions, which of the following type of ammunition can be stored in the open? Bombs HERO surveys are valid for how many years? Five Requests for HERO surveys are routed to what command? NAVSEASYSCOM (Old) 13 - Per OP 4 and 5 added group N to list below 12 - Per Aviation Ordnanceman NRTC Groups A thru H, J, K, L and S What type of magazine is a tunnel or cave, and the dimensions will vary? Gallery What magazine is of concrete construction and shaped like a beehive or dome? Corbetta-type A magazine that is constructed of concrete, is rectangular in shape, and normally measures 12 by 17 feet is what type? Box Ammunition and explosive storage compatibility groups total what number? What type of weapons can be stowed in open spaces on shore bases? The type and amount of explosive stowed in open stowage (revetted) depend on the size and location of the storage area Department of Defense (DOD) Hazard Class 1 is subdivided into how many divisions? Five (Mass detonating, Non mass detonatingfragment producing, mass fire, moderate fire-no blast, mass fire) Small arms ammunition is an example of what Department of Transportation (DOT) explosive hazard classification? Class C What determines the maximum weight of explosives if contained in a 250,000 lb class magazine? The Net Explosive Weight (NEW) of the explosive What type of magazine is earth covered and arch shaped with a pre-fabricated concrete construction? What is the HERO EMCON bill? Contains degree of relief from HERO RF restrictions

What type of ammunition is stored in group C magazines? Propellants, solid propellant rocket motors, ammunition with inert projectiles Of the following types of ammunition - flares, grenades, rockets, and torpedoes, which are stored a group E items? Rockets (Missiles are also in the group)

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Of the following ammunition gels, fireworks, thermal batteries, and toxic chemical agents, which is stored as compatibility group G? Gels (Includes flares, signals and MLMs) Explosives that function by combustion rather than detonation describe what Department of Transportation (DOT) explosive hazard classification? Class B What letter in the magazine designator determines its distance from other magazines? Type and capacity letters (Usually 3rd letter for standard and 4th letter for (non-standard) In the magazine designator 4XTX4 what does the letter T in the third position indicate? Earth covered and barricaded If the letters X, Y, or Z are added to the magazine designator what does this mean? The magazine is of miscellaneous non-standard size Of the following magazine designator - 2FD2, 5FS2, 5XT4, and 2DT4, which identifies a non-standard magazine? 5XT4 Of the following magazine designators - D, T, C, and X, which indicates the presence of bomb ammunition in the magazine? X (Explosive) Class A explosive is what type of hazard? Mass detonating In the magazine designator 4XCY4, what does the number 4 in the fifth position indicate? The fourth magazine in the magazine area When preparing to drive an explosive laden truck on a public highway, you normally will not be responsible for which of the following requirements - requisitioning the explosives to be transported, studying the route you are to travel, ensuring proper forms and reports are completed or ensuring the personnel in the truck loading area observe all safety regulations. Requisitioning the explosives to be transported

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Weapons Elevators
To exceed the SWL of a weapons elevator, what command, if any, has final approval authority? NAVSEASYSCOM Spring bumpers What rating is primarily responsible for maintaining the weapons elevators aboard aircraft carriers? AO What rating operates weapons elevators? Aviation Ordnancemen When can personnel ride on elevators? During medical emergencies and maintenance Aboard NIMITZ class carriers, weapons elevators have what load capacity? 9,000 lbs What is the purpose of the tag-out system when doing elevator maintenance? Safety of maintenance personnel When can an elevator be dispatched from one deck to another without first establishing communications between the sending operator and the receiving operator? Never What are the two major classifications of weapons elevators? Lower stage and upper stage What is the safe working load of a special armament stowage space (SASS) elevator? 12,000 lbs The 5,500 pound lower stage weapons elevator services magazines and ammunition handling areas on what decks? Seventh deck to the second deck What method of instruction is used to train personnel on the operation of elevators? OJT If the elevator over travels upward beyond the maximum position what stops the elevator? Over travel limit switch What safety device is installed on a wire rope to stop the elevator if the rope breaks? Broken rope safety device What device is provided for each suspension rope and the governor rope when it senses rope slack to shutoff electrical power to the hoisting winch motor and brake, stopping the elevator? A slack cable sensing switch The slack cable switches are actuated to cut off power to what? Hoisting winch motor and brake All electrical power requirements for the weapons handling system elevators come from where? The ships service 440-volt, three phase, 60 hertz power supply What stops the elevator platform if the elevator over travels downward beyond the hold deck loading station level?

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Advanced Base Magazines and Operations
What is the purpose of an advanced base? Support wartime operations An advanced base magazine area is used for all except which of the following reasons - provide ordnance items in support of offensive operations, provide temporary storage for ordnance during wartime, provide ordnance items need to hold threatened strategic areas or provide permanent storage for ordnance items during peace time? Provide permanent storage for ordnance items during peace time At an advanced base if a valid reason exists for not complying with storage and handling regulations/instructions contained in the NAVSEA OP 5 Volume 1 & 2, you would refer to what publication? NAVSEA OP 5 Volume 3 Waivers during combat operations should be obtained from what authority? CINCPACFLT (Fleet Commander) (Also can be Combatant or Joint Task Force Commander) At an advanced base when magazines or existing buildings are not available, what may be used as temporary shelters or coverings? Tents, open storage, caves and tunnels, barricades, and revetments What is the principle objective in the dispersion of ammunition? Prevent loss of entire supply of specific item At an advanced base, what is the main consideration? Disbursement of the ammunition When ammunition is captured, it should be stored is a separate area at least what number of yards away from other storage? (Old) 800 yards (New) Minimum 750ft per OP5 Volume 3, 6th revision, April 2007) For information on advanced bases, in addition to the NAVSEA OP 5 Volume III, you should use what other publication? NAVSEA OP Volume I When, if ever, should you attempt to disassemble any fuze, round or component of artillery ammunition? Never At advanced bases, what propellant charges are stored in approved airtight metal tanks or canisters? Gun What category of material includes chemical ammunition and should be separated from materials in the other categories by at least 400 feet? Category E A Fly-In Support Package (FISP) will support an advanced base for what period of time? 10 days At an advanced base bombs are assembled on their shipping pallets, this method of bomb assembly is known as what? Pull and turn At an advance base the disposal site should be what minimum distance from the nearest ammunition storage site and any inhabited area of the base? 800 yards At advanced bases, hot refueling areas must be located away from barricaded rearm pads at least what minimum number of feet? 450 At advanced bases, articles containing only extremely insensitive detonating substances are in what compatibility group? Group N What category of material presents a fire hazard, includes propelling charges, bag charges, rocket motors, pyrotechnics, and small arms ammunition and should be separated from materials in the categories B through E by at least 350 feet? Category A What category of material presents fire and fragment, fragment and explosion hazards, includes fixed ammunition, separate loading projectiles, complete rockets (assembled or unassembled), grenades, and mortars, and should be separated from materials in the other categories by at least 300 feet? Category B What category of material presents an explosion hazard, includes bombs, warheads, depth charges, mines, demolition material, and bulk explosives, and should be separated from materials in the other categories by at least 695 feet? Category C What category of material includes fuzes and detonators, and should be separated from materials in the other categories by at least 200 feet? Category D

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At advanced bases enemy ammunition areas should be at least how many yards from the other storage areas? 800 yards Administration and personnel areas must be at least how many yards from the ammunition storage and handling areas? 800 yards Ammunition modification at an advanced base should be performed in what area? Renovation area What does the magazine designator X identify at an advanced base? Explosion For advanced base storage, the letter Y indicates what type of storage hazard? Fire What does the magazine designator Y identify at an advanced base? Fire What does the magazine designator Z identify at an advanced base? Fragment What does the magazine designator R identify at an advanced base? Open storage What does the magazine designator G identify at an advanced base? Caves and tunnels At an advanced base, each type of ammunition is stored in two widely separated areas, what is the reason for this? Prevent loss of entire supply What trailer is normally used at advanced bases? A/M 32K-4A

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Ammunition Shipping and Transportation
Emergency response information for hazardous materials transported by government vehicles should be documented on what form? DD Form 836 What NAVSEA publication sets forth qualifications for an explosive driver? (New) (Old) NAVSEA SW020-AF-HBK-010 NAVSEA OP 2239

To become a qualified explosive driver what qualifications are required? Physical, ordnance certification, mental exam and 18 years or older Instructions for the preparation and shipment of naval ordnance material are contained in what manual? (New) (Old) NAVSEA SW020-AG-SAF-010 (Also known as the Navy Transportation Handbook) NAVSEA OP 2165 Volume I and II

Who is responsible for the safety and transportation/shipping of explosives? The driver Ammunition and explosives in transit are regulated by what government department? Department of Transportation (DOT) An explosive driver is fully qualified in accordance with what manual? (New) (Old) NAVSEA SW020-AF-HBK-010 NAVSEA OP 2239

To transport hazardous material off-station as an explosives driver, you must be at least what age? 21 To qualify as an on-station explosive driver, you must be at least what age? 18 years old An explosive driver must be at least what age for off-station vehicle explosive/hazardous material operations? 21 years old Which of the following - physical, ordnance certification, mental exam or 21 years old is not required to be an explosive driver? 21 years old (Only required if driving off-station) To drive an explosive laden truck off station, you must be at least how many years old? 21

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Bomb and Rocket Assembly
How many persons normally operate a bomb assembly stand? Ten For detailed information on MK-80 series bomb assembly/disassembly, AWSE requirements, and procedures for preloading/downloading accessory suspension equipment, you should refer to what manual? NA-11-140-5 When inspecting thermally protected bombs for loose or chipped coating, no more than how many square inches of thermal coating can be missing before it is not considered thermally protected and is restricted from issue to an aircraft carrier? 17 inches In what location should you never pack or unpack fuzes? Bomb assembly area When installing an M904 fuze, you should tighten the fuze by what means? Hand tight What is used to adapt electric fuzes to the fuze well of a bomb? Adapter booster An electric fuze is installed in a MK-80 series bomb at what point in the assembly process? Before the tail fin is installed You should install the electrical tail fuzes in MK-80 series bombs at what point in during assembly and at what location? Before the bomb leaves the assembly area, below decks What is to be done if during weapons assembly the pop out pin on the MK-344 or MK-376 electrical tail fuze accidentally pops out? Push back in so holes realign and insert safety pin MK-344 or MK-376 electrical tail fuzes that have been removed from their sealed containers and whose shipping caps have been removed must be used within how many days? 30 Cracked or no gap Decals are placed on the top and bottom of the bomb fin after the fuze is installed in the bomb body for what purpose? Indicate type of fuze installed Shielding band You are building bombs using the MK-15 Mod 4 Snakeye fin. You should attach the fin to the bomb by what means? Allen set screws What is used to attach the warhead to the rocket motor? Strap and chain wrenches What must be in place whenever a rocket motor is out of the launcher or protrudes from the launcher? On the MK-15 Mods 3 and 4 Snakeye fin assembly, attachment to the bomb body is provided by what? 8 set screws What is used to attach fins to DST/Quickstrike bomb bodies? Aluminum setscrews Place the ears of the retaining ring so they straddle what position on the bomb body? 12 OClock position When installing the fin retaining ears on the MK-80 series bomb body ensure that the ears of the retaining ring are pointing in what direction? 12 OClock position After a Snakeye fin is installed and the garter spring is properly seated, what, if anything, should you do when the index pin causes a slight hump in the garter spring? Nothing, that is normal What must be done before installing a MK-346 mechanical tail fuze in to the bomb booster? Install adapter booster Before removing the safety clip, what item must be installed in the MK-43 TDD? The arming wire When the MK-122 arming safety switch is installed improperly, what is the most likely result? The weapon duds Before loading rockets into the launcher you should check what publication to ensure the proper hero condition has been set? NAVSEA OP 3565/NA 16-1-529 If a rocket launcher is to be re-used it must be sent where for electrical checkout prior to loading? AIMD During inspection of a rocket warhead verify that the warhead is not _____________ or _____ gap exists between the fuze adapter and the warhead?

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What tool is used to install the fuze in the nose of a rocket warhead? Crowfoot adapter Tighten the rocket warhead until it seats on the motor for a full how many degrees? 360 degrees A rocket motor may not be used if it has been dropped more than how many feet? Two (2) feet A rocket warhead may not be used if it has been dropped more than how many feet? Five (5) feet Loaded rocket launchers must be kept how many feet away from gas turbine generating power carts? 10 feet

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Loading/Downloading and Flightline Operations
Weapons loading checklists are published under the direction of what command? NAVAIR Which of the following publications contains authority to load various types of ordnance on a particular model of aircraft? The aircrafts NATOPS flight tactical manual When are static OHM resistance checks are required to be performed on grounding straps used for loading/downloading ordnance? Annually Missile check When loading ordnance what is the maximum amount of weight you are allowed to manually lift? 1,000 lbs The CV NATOPS manual When high-tempo operations make the use of a checklist impractical, who can authorize the use of Stores Reliability Cards (SRCs)? TYCOM Who may authorize the loading/downloading of ordnance on the ships bow during cyclic operations? Ships Commanding Officer It may be re-installed Who gives authorization to load missiles in the hangar bay? Ships Commanding Officer Of the following aircraft loaded with weapons/stores which one cannot be downloaded in the hangar bay - S-3 with MK-25 MLM in an SLT, an F/A-18 with 20MM gun, F-14 with Sidewinder missile or an A-6 with aircraft parachute flares? A-6 with parachute flares What weapon cannot be loaded on an aircraft in the hangar bay? Parachute flares Loading limited amounts of ordnance on the hangar deck may be authorized by whom? Ships Commanding Officer What does it mean of the arming supervisor makes a horizontal sweep the red banded wand? Aircraft down for weapons What weapon may be loaded while fueling the aircraft? Pre-loaded MERs and TERs What signal is given by the arming supervisor when stray voltage checks are to be performed? One hand over head and the other points to crewmember When loading bombs with electrical fuzes, lift the weapon how many inches below the parent rack before connecting the MK-122 safety arming switch quick disconnect connector? 10 inches When downloading bombs with electrical fuzes, lower the weapon how many inches below the parent rack before disconnecting the MK-122 arming safety switch quick disconnect connector? 4 inches Sway braces should not be tightened more than what amount of turns after loading a weapon? turn at a time When is a bomb with an electric tail fuze connected to the bomb rack? While loading Stray voltage checks should be performed at which of the following times? Just before the aircraft takes off Your aircraft is carrying AIM-9 Sidewinder missiles, when and where should you remove the launcher detent wrench safety pin? In the arming area, before launch One hand is placed overhead and the other hand is pointed at the crewmember The MK-3 arming wire is pulled from the MK-344/376 fuze, what may be done? When an arming crewmember is to perform a stray voltage check on a carrier based aircraft, what signal is given by the arming supervisor? For information on flight deck arming and safing signals, you should refer to what publication? What signal is given by the arming supervisor when bomb rack/pylon safety pins to be pulled? Finger pull from a clenched fist To direct your dearming team to commence a night dearming procedure, you should use what signal? Hold one wand over your head and point to the crewmembers with the other wand When the arming supervisor raises both hands with fingers pointing to the sound attenuators, what action should the arming crew perform?

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When weapons are loaded on an aircraft that is on deck, when, if ever, should you activate the master arm? Never What distance is the AIM-7 Sparrow held, in inches, from the LAU-115 to connect the motor fire connector? 3 inches - Raise missile to within 3 inches of launcher and connect and LOCK missile motor fire connector to missile

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Aircraft Weapons Systems
In an armament control system, the safety disabling circuit is used to permit what function? Armament system ground checkout What fuze function control system gives an aircraft the capability of using electric fuzes? AN/AWW-4 The F-14 is the only aircraft to carry what missile? AIM-54 Phoenix Where is the armament safety override located on the F-14 aircraft? Nose wheel well What is the purpose of the armament safety override in the F-14 aircraft? Bypass open land gear safety circuit so you can perform functional checks On the F-14 aircraft, what indication is received on the ACM panel if the missile station is selected and ready? Shows a black and white checkerboard The F-14 aircraft can carry what maximum number of AIM-54 Phoenix missiles? Six On the F-14 aircraft, what switch controls the jettison of stores? ACM Jett Of the following missiles - AGM-65E, AIM-7, AIM-120, and AIM-54, which is launched only from the F-14 aircraft? AIM-54C The Phoenix missile is used with what type of airborne missile control system (AMCS)? AWG-9 What is the basic armament configuration for the F-14? Four fuselage mounted LAU-92 missile launchers and internally mounted M61A1 gun What is the nomenclature of the fuel tank release mechanisms on stations 2 and 7 of the F-14? MXU-611 (F-14A/B) or MXU-676 on Station 2 and MXU-677 on Station 7 (F-14D) What fuselage stations carry the AIM-9 on the F-14? 1A, 1B, 8A and 8B What is the total number of AECM dispensers on the F/A-18E/F? Four What pylon is mounted on the centerline of the F/A-18E/F Super Hornet? SUU-78 Centerline Pylon What pylon provides the necessary mechanical and electrical interface between the aircraft wing structure and the stores to be carried, and is capable of being installed at inboard and midboard wing stations on the F/A-18E/F Super Hornet? SUU-79 Wing Pylon What pylon provides the necessary mechanical and electrical interface between the aircraft wing structure and the limited stores to be carried, and is capable of being installed at outboard wing stations of the F/A-18E/F Super Hornet? SUU-80 Wing Pylon What is the total number of AECM dispensers on the F/A-18C? Two What type of pylon is installed on the centerline of the F/A-18? SUU-62/A What type of pylon is installed on the wing stations of the F/A-18? SUU-63/A How many weapon stations are available on the F/A-18C? Nine - Two wing tip stations, two stations on each wing, two fuselage stations, and one centerline station Where is the armament safety override located on the F/A-18? Nose wheel well What are the jettison modes of the F/A-18 aircraft? Emergency, selective and auxiliary When, if ever, do you reset the ALE-39 AECM system with loaded magazines installed? Never WARNING DO NOT RESET ALE-39 WITH LOADED MAGAZINES INSTALLED What jettison mode is controlled by the pilot in the F-14? Emergency

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How many weapon stations are available on the F/A-18E/F Super Hornet? 11 - Two wing tip stations, three stations on each wing, two fuselage stations, and one centerline station In the A-6 aircraft the jettison system permits __________ and __________ jettisoning of stores on the Aero 7 series ejector racks? Selective and emergency The AIM-9 Sidewinder is carried on how many stations on the A-6? Four In the A-6 the rocket switch has what markings? KA-74 Ripple and single The unpressurized A sonobuoy launch tubes of P-3 aircraft can only be reloaded from location? Outside of the aircraft When a P-3C aircraft is on the ground, the jettison system is disabled by what components? Weight on wheels switch What test set is used to test P-3 and S-3 sonobuoy launch tubes? AN/AWM-54 with W-4 adapter Which systems checks must be performed prior to loading mines on P-3C aircraft? Jettison, wing and/or or bomb bay release, and mechanical arming What is the primary mode of operation for the P-3 release system? On line When P-3 wing jettison is initiated a store is jettisoned in how many second increments? 2 second increments The P-3 aircraft has what total number of sono launch chutes? 48 unpressurized, 3 pressurized and 1 free fall What size are the sonobuoy chutes on a P-3? Two (2) second Size A How many sono launch tubes (SLTs) are there on the S-3 aircraft? 60 The P-3C aircraft is equipped with what total number of unpressurized sonobuoy launch chutes? 48 What type of release and control checks have to be performed for logistics transport of a special weapon? Only a release check is required if the weapon is not electrically connected to the aircraft What is the total number of AECM dispensers on the P-3C? Six - Two forward and two at each main mount On the P-3 aircraft what camera is used for damage assessment? KB-18 What is used in the bomb bay of the P-3 aircraft to safe the upper bomb racks? Remote safety pins How many BRU-12 bomb racks can be mounted in the bomb bay of the P-3? Eight (8) A P-3C has what maximum number of wing store stations? Ten (10) What bomb rack is pylon mounted on the wing of the P-3 aircraft? BRU-15 What bomb rack is used to suspend the AGM-84 Harpoon missile from the P-3? BRU-15 or Aero 65 How many wing stations are on the P-3 and how are they numbered? 10 stations, numbered 9-18, port to starboard On the P-3 aircraft wing stations are jettisoned in pairs from outboard to inboard in what second intervals? The P-3C aircraft has what maximum number of launch chutes in the search store system? 52 (48 size A unpressurized, 3 size A pressurized and 1 size B freefall) How many sono launch tubes (SLTs) are there on the P-3 aircraft? 48 How many unpressurized size "B" free fall chutes on the P-3? One On the P-3 aircraft what camera is used for surveillance?

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When the jettison circuit is activated in the S-3 aircraft what sonobuoy remains behind and what sonobuoy launch tube is it in? SAR buoy in tube P2 In the S-3 aircraft when jettison is activated how many sonobuoys are jettisoned? 59 An S-3 aircrafts bomb bays consist of (a) what maximum number of racks (b) what type? (a) Four (b) BRU-14/A The S-3 has how many BRU-14 bomb racks in the bomb bay? Two (2) What bomb rack is pylon mounted on the wing of the S-3 aircraft? BRU-11 The S-3 aircraft bomb bay suspension system consists of what bomb rack configurations in each bomb bay? Two BRU-14 racks How many weapons subsystems are there on the P-3 and S-3? Two (2) - Armament system and ordnance system The weapons system for the P-3 and S-3 aircraft is divided into what subsystems? Two (2) - Armament system and ordnance system What adapter is used for Maverick on the S-3 with the AWM-102? W30 The SH-60B torpedo release system is capable of launching and controlling what maximum number of torpedoes? Three (3) The SH-60B launch system is capable of launching and controlling what maximum number of sonobuoys? 25 On the SH-60B, the sonobuoy launcher can be found in what location? Cabin How many weapons stations are on a HH-60H, MH-60R, SH-60B, and SH-60F? Three - Port Outboard - Port Inboard - Starboard Inboard How many torpedoes can the SH-60F carry? Three Eight - Four missiles each on two M299 launchers loaded on the port outboard and starboard outboard stations Note: Presently the MH-60R is wired to launch off the port side only with the added capability to launch off the starboard side in the near future - FY10/FY11. How many weapons stations does the MH-60S armed helo have? Two port and starboard side External Weapon System (EWS) pylons How many Hellfire missiles can the MH-60S carry? Eight - Four missiles each on two M299 launchers loaded on the port and starboard EWS The HH-60H and SH-60B are capable of carrying how many Hellfire missiles? Four - On one M299 loaded on the port outboard station (The SH-60F is ASW capable only (torpedoes) and cannot carry Hellfire) How many Hellfire missiles can the MH-60R carry?

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Test Equipment
Before checking a circuit for continuity with an ohmmeter, which of the following precautions must take? Isolate the circuit from any power source Which of the following systems checks must be performed prior to loading mines on P-3C aircraft? Jettison, wing and/or or bomb bay release, and mechanical arming In an armament control system, the safetydisabling circuit is used to permit what function? Armament system ground checkout Of the following types of test equipment, which one should you use to check a fuze? Multi-meter Before checking a circuit for continuity with an ohmmeter, which of the following precautions must take? Isolate the circuit from any power source What tester is used to measure resistance (OHMS), amperage (AC or DC), and voltage (AC or DC) in an electrical circuit? ASM/PSM-4 Multi-Meter Stray voltage checks should be performed at which of the following times? Just before the aircraft takes off To test various aircraft firing circuits such as rocket or missile firing or bomb release circuits and for stray voltage what test set would be used? (New) (Old) AN/AWM-102 AN/AWM-54 The TTU-304/E guided missile tester is used to check the seeker of what missile? AIM-9 sidewinder The sidewinder missile is tested with a TTU-304/E tester at which of the following times? After the missile is loaded onto the launcher What tester is used to check the tone operability of the guidance control group on the AIM-9 sidewinder missile? TTU-304/E What test set is used to check for stray voltage and continuity on the F/A-18? (New) (Old) AN/AWM-102 AN/AWM-54 When a sidewinder moat is being performed what distance is the TTU-304/E guided missile moved across the nose of the missile? 4 to 6 feet What test set is a portable, battery operated, flight-line tester and is used to check for stray voltages and various aircraft firing circuits, such as rocket firing, bomb release, missile and JATO? (New) (Old) AN/AWM-102 AN/AWM-54 What tester is basically a pencil flashlight with an infrared filter lens? TTU-304E What test set is used to test the Aero 5B1 launcher? AN/ASM-149C guided missile launcher and aircraft electrical circuits test set What tester is used to test the nitrogen pressure flow on the LAU-7? GMU-24 To check a LAU-7A launcher and associated aircraft circuits, you should use what test set? AN/ASM-464 What test set is used to test the voltage tolerance, launcher firing sequence and firing circuits of the LAU-7 guided missile launcher? AN/ASM-20B guided missile launcher test set What tester is used to test the nitrogen gas system of the LAU-7 launcher? MX-3298/ASM-20 To check the DC fuzing capabilities and outputs of the fuze function control system of an aircraft, you should use what test set? AN/AWM-42A What test set is used for operational systems checks for HARM and Maverick? (New) AN/AWM-103A (Old) AN/AWM-92 What test set is used to check the DC fuzing capabilities of the fuze function control circuit? AN/AWM-42A

Of the following testers - AN/AWM-54, AN/AWM-51, AN/AWM-31, and the AN/ASM-184, which should be used immediately before a rocket launcher is plugged in? AN/AWM-54

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What test set is used to determine the operational capability and safety of an aircraft and the missile launcher circuits used with the AGM-45 Shrike missile? AN/ASM-149C What test set is used to check the AN/ALE-39 decoy dispensing system and AN/ALE-37A dispenser? AN/ALM-70A countermeasures dispenser test set What test set is used to check the wiring of an aircrafts AMAC circuits for isolation resistance and circuit continuity? AN/AWM-38 When a flight does not occur, an AMAC wiring and release check on an aircraft is valid for what maximum amount of time? 24 hours What test functions are performed by the AN/AWM-38 test set? Check the wiring of an aircrafts AMAC circuits for isolation resistance and circuit continuity What is the purpose of the hi-pot function of the AN/AWM-38 armament wiring test set? Checks the AMAC circuit for isolation defects by applying 615VDC to selected circuits When are HI-POT function tests required to be performed? Only when weapon is to be loaded for actual release AMAC wiring and release checks should be performed within what maximum time period prior to weapons loading? 24 hours To check jettison circuitry of a Walleye guided weapon system, what test set should you use? AN/ASM-184B What test set is used with the F/A-18 aircraft to check the operation of the data link antenna on the MK-21, MK-23, and MK-27 Walleye ERDL weapons? AN/DSM-139 What test set is used with the F/A-18 aircraft to evaluate the operational readiness of the walleye weapon guidance section and aircraft cockpit television display? AN/DSM-77 What test set is used to check the aircraft's walleye weapon system at the pylon umbilical connection? AN/ASM-184B What test set is used on the F/A-18 aircraft to perform the operational checks of AIM-9 Sidewinder missile launching, VTAS and SEAM (New) (Old) Sparrow Missile Test Set (SMTS) W104057-3 missile station test set circuits associated with the guided missile launcher LAU-7? AN/ASM-464 guided missile launcher test What missile launcher test set is a portable flight line test device? AN/ASM-464 What test set is used on the F-14 to verify operational status and functions of the AIM-54 Phoenix missile control system? TS3479 or TS4142 with the AWM-23 Missile Auxillaries Test Set (MATS) What test set should you use to test the VTAS/SEAM system on the F-14? TS-3279 You should use the MATS tester to verify the operational status of what system on an F-14 aircraft? Phoenix What missile is the MATS test set used for? AIM-54 What test set is used for pre-flight testing of the AN/ALE-39A? AN/ALM-225, AN/ALM-291 (AN/ALM-225 MODIFIED IAW SEC 5602) or AN/ALM-286 What test set is used for pre-flight testing of the AN/ALE-47A? AN/ALM-286 or AN/AM-290 (AN/ALM-286 can also be used to test ALE-39) What test set is used to verify the operational status and functions of the AIM-7 sparrow missile control system?

To check a P-3 wing station, you should use a TS-3519D/DSM test set simulator to simulate what missile? AGM-84 Harpoon What test set is used on the P-3 aircraft to simulate a Harpoon missile for wing station check-out, power-on functional testing, and fault isolation? TS-3519/DSM To simulate a Harpoon missile for wing station checkout, power-on functional testing, and fault isolation on a P-3 aircraft, what test set should you use? TS-3519/DSM What test set is used to simulate a loaded Harpoon missile on a P-3 aircraft? TS-3519/DSM

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What test set is used to test P-3 and S-3 sonobuoy launch tubes? (New) (Old) AN/AWM-102 with W-4 adapter AN/AWM-54 with W-4 adapter What O level flightline tester is used at ashore and afloat to check bomb release, rocket and missile firing circuits for proper firing signal level and stray voltage prior to loading? AN/AWM-102 Firing Circuit Test Set What test set is used by AIMD/FRCs to test guided missile launchers? (New) (Old) A/E37T-35 Common Rack and Launcher Test Set (CRALTS) AN/AWM-90 Guided Missile Launcher Test Set

What test set is used to test the torpedo pre-set functions on the P-3 aircraft? (New) (Old) (Old) AN/AWM-103 MK-432 Mod 4 B203

What test set has capabilities for functionally testing the pre-setter portion of the armament control panel subassembly in the S-3 aircraft? (New) (Old) (Old) AN/AWM-103 MK-432 Mod 4 AN/ASM-373A airborne torpedo pre-setter test set

What test set is used to test various weapon/missile launch and control systems during pre-flight and periodic O level maintenance release and control systems checks? (New) (Old) AN/AWM-103A Stores Management Test Set AN/AWM-92 Aircraft Weapons Control Test Set

What test set is used to check operation of the aircraft's single-station launching system before loading the AQM-37/A missile target on the centerline LAU-24/A launcher? TTU-183/F The operation of the aircrafts single-station launching system must be checked before you load the AQM-37/A missile target on the centerline LAU-24/A launcher, what test set should you use? TTU-183/F To perform a sidewinder MOAT, what total number of people is required? Three (QASO, TL, and TM) What tester is a battery operated, microprocessor controlled test set used to initiate a GO/NO GO test and determine if the ITALD is ready to be programmed for a mission? TTU-585/E Tester Programmer What test set is comprised of an electrical unit and various adapters to interface the test set with aircraft bomb racks and launchers to perform release and control testing on the P-3, F/A-18 series, EA-6B, and H-60 series aircraft? AN/AWM-103A Stores Management Subassembly Test Set What test verifies AIM-9 missile system integrity to the missile/launcher interface and launcher power supply operation? (New) (Old) AN/AWM-103A Stores Management Subassembly Test Set AN/AWM-100

What test set is a microprocessor controlled stimuli, load and measurement system programmed to test various aircraft bomb racks? (New) (Old) A/E37T-35 Common Rack and Launcher Test Set (CRALTS) AN/AWM-94B Bomb Rack Test Set

What O and I level test set is used to test all systems that use MIL-STD-1760 aircraft/store electrical interconnections including the LAU-115, LAU-116, LAU-127, BRU-32, BRU-33 and BRU-55? AN/AWM-96 Aircraft Weapons Control Test Set What portable support equipment is used to initiate BITs, get systems and munitions status, re-program operational flight programs and load mission GPS crypto keys on MIL-STD-1760 type munitions? AN/GYQ-7 Common Built in Test (BIT) Reprogramming Equipment (CMBRE) What test set performs electrical tests on the Hellfire launcher/missile interface? (New) (Old) AN/AWM-103 Stores Management Subassembly Test Set AN/AWM-100

What test set is used to simulate the AGM-119 Penguin missile during release and control systems tests? TTU-560

What test set is an automatic/semi-automatic universal GO/NO GO tester for various bomb racks and missile launchers? A/E37T-35 Common Rack and Launcher Test Set (CRALTS)

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Corrosion Control and Preservation
Of the following commands - COMNAVOPSUPPGRU, COMNAVAIRLANT, NAVSEAYSYSCOM, and NAVAIRSYSCOM, which must authorize materials used to clean aircraft? NAVAIRSYSCOM When you are preserving a corrosion susceptible material in a sealed container, what is the purpose of the desiccant? To remove entrapped moisture To determine the proper Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) required to complete a maintenance task, you should use what reference? Standard PMS Materials Identification Guide (SPMIG) What chemical agent should be used to remove salt residue and contaminants from internal avionics and electrical equipment? Isopropyl alcohol Level II The best anchor pattern for adhesion is provided by what substance? An abrasive During shipping and storage of SE, what problem is the most difficult to control? Damage sustained during handling To determine requirements for control of corrosion in SE, instructions are provided in what NAVAIR manual? 17-1-125 Removing surface contaminants To remove corrosion from the external surfaces of pipes and valves for oxygen servicing equipment, you should use what method? Hand removal Of the following items - mechanical removal equipment, hand-held power tools, chemical cleaning compounds, and wire brushes, which one(s) should NOT be used on battery terminals or live circuits? Wire brushes NAVAIR 17-1-125 When the indicator strip inside a sealed shipping container is a deep pinkish color, what condition probably exists? A high percentage of humidity is present What type of corrosion expands and lifts the surface grains of metal? Exfoliation What type of corrosion is characterized by deep cavities or depressions in the metal? Pitting A corrosion preventative maintenance program should not include what procedure? Complete repainting of equipment What metal when corroded displays white puffy areas? Magnesium What solvent is generally used as an all purpose cleaner for SE maintenance? Dry-cleaning solvent Of the following - reduced maintenance hours, reduced number of maintenance actions, increased reliability, and improved cosmetic appearance, which is NOT a goal of the corrosion prevention program? Improved cosmetic appearance When a conflict between NAVAIR 17-1-125 and other corrosion control MIMs exists, what publication takes precedence? An aircraft is scheduled to remain idle for more than one year but less than 7 years. What level of preservation is required? Type III What is the primary purpose of any paint surface? Top protect the surface In performing SE corrosion control, you should begin surface preparation with what step? In the development of corrosion on SE, what factor is the most significant? Moisture in the air What condition is caused by the combined effects if cyclic stress and corrosion? Corrosion fatigue In water entrapment areas of an aircraft, the drains should be inspected at what minimum interval? Daily An aircraft is scheduled to remain idle for more than 14 days but less than 28 days. What level of preservation is required? Level I An aircraft is scheduled to remain idle for more than 35 days but less than one year. What level of preservation is required?

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What is the most common form of corrosion on aluminum alloys? Pitting What is the most readily recognized indication of corrosion on an aluminum surface? Powdery deposit What material provides the best anchor pattern for paint adhesion? Chemical conversion coating How does corrosion endanger aircraft or reduce the margin of safety? Reduces strength and changes the mechanical characteristics of the material All maintenance personnel must be formally trained in what program? Corrosion control Flammability and toxicity What is the primary factor to consider when selecting materials for constructing an a/c? Weight-to-strength ratio The decay of metals as they combine with oxygen is known as what type of corrosion? Metal corrosion What does an intact coat of paint provide to naval aircraft? Protection from corrosion environments In an electro-chemical attack, electron flow is established in which direction? From the cathode to the anode How will heat, humidity, and moisture affect the electrochemical reactions, which cause metal to corrode? They speed the corrosion process In relation to corrosion, what affect does moisture have on avionics equipment? Moisture is the single largest contributor to avionics corrosion Which NAVAIR publication is entitled aircraft weapons systems cleaning and corrosion control? NA 01-1A-509 NAVAIR 16-1-540 provides what information? MIL-C85570 Information on cleaning and corrosion prevention and control of avionics equipment Information on the preservation of naval aircraft and aircraft engines can be found in what manual? NA 15-01-500, preservation of naval aircraft When cleaning an aircraft what the two directions and which cleaning compound and rising are applied? Upward and outward What substance may be used to spot-clean lightly soiled areas? Dry-cleaning solvent Safety solvent is currently referred to by what name? Trichloroethane What material must be avoided as a substitute to aluminum oxide abrasive cloth? Silicon carbide paper Type I, II, and IV of what cleaning compound are to be used on tactical paint schemes? Where must flammable liquids be stored when not in use? In a separate building or flammable liquids storeroom By what means is a dry cleaning solvent applied? Spraying, dipping, brushing, or wiping Inhaling toxic vapor can seriously affect the brain and central nervous system What must be done specifically when storing solvents that contain more than 24% chlorinated materials? They must be kept in specially marked containers Why is there a requirement to use a respirator when working with solvents? What information can you find in NA 01-1A-507? General uses for cements, sealants, and coatings Operating units that have the best safety records, maximum use of the aircraft, and lowest operating costs will also have what program? A good corrosion prevention program At a minimum, how often must aircraft be cleaned? Every 14 days What must be done on a daily basis with unpainted aircraft surfaces and actuating rods? Cleaned or wiped down What are the most serious hazards in handling, using, and storing aircraft cleaning materials?

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In emergencies when regular waterproof canvas covers are not available, what materials can you use as covers and shrouds? A polyethylene sheet, polyethylene-coated cloth, or metal foil barrier materials The ground handling requirements for an aircraft can be found in what publication? NA 01-1A-509 What level of preservation is required if an aircraft is scheduled to remain idle for more than 14 days but less than 28 days? Level I preservation Mil-C-16173, corrosion preventive compound, is available in three grades. Which grades are easily to be removed with dry-cleaning solvent? All three - Grade I, II, and IV Corrosion preventive petroleum, class 3 provides protection for what type of surfaces? Antifriction bearings, shock-strut pistons and other bright metal surfaces What type of corrosion preventive compound MIL-C-81309 is used in avionics and electrical equipment? Type III What level of engine preservation requires the fuel system to remain at least 95 % full of fuel for a period not to exceed 60 days? Level I preservation What technical corrosion manual should you use for support equipment? 17-1-125 What are the sealants recommended for use on support equipment? Silicone sealant (MIL-A-46146, type I, and polysulfide sealant (MIL-S-81733 or MIL-S-8802) The tarnishing of silver is a common example of what type of corrosion? Uniform or direct surface attack Pitting is the most common effect of corrosion on what alloys? Aluminum and magnesium alloys Pitting corrosion is first noticeable as what color deposit on a metal surface? White or gray powdery deposit How can concentration cell corrosion be controlled or even prevented? Avoid the creation of crevices during repair work What is the term used to define an attack on the grain boundaries of alloys under specific conditions? Inter-granular corrosion What is usually the cause of dissimilar metal corrosion? Faulty design or improper maintenance practices

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Aviation Maintenance Ratings / NAMP / 3M
A list of all Navy technical manuals, forms, and NAVAIR technical directives is contained in what publication? NAVSUP 2002 Normally, what is the minimum pay-grade to qualify as a QAR? E-6 During transient maintenance, in the absence of a designated QA person, who is authorized to sign as the inspector? The Pilot in command VIDS/MAF A planned and systematic pattern of actions that monitors and analyzes data to verify a course of action defines what process? Quality Assurance 1454-01-755-1945 Of the following programs - SE Misuse/Abuse, NAMDRP, Aviation Gas Free Engineering Program, and Training, which is NOT a QA managed program? Training The QA Division manages what total number of programs? 6 In an O-Level maintenance activity, VIDS boards are verified with the maintenance control VIDS board at least how often? Once a day The QA division should conduct a safety meeting within the squadron maintenance department at least how often? Every month Until verified against daily audit report For current information about aviation accident prevention, what periodical should you read? Approach/Mech QA What items are carried in the pre-expended bin (PEB)? Small repairable components, general purpose hardware, and consumable repair parts What is/are the primary function(s) of an organizational maintenance activity? To perform on-equipment maintenance on aircraft equipment Of the following individuals or work centers Material Control, Maintenance Control, person who discovered the discrepancy or work center supervisor, which initiates the VIDS/MAF? The person that discovers the discrepancy When installed in the aircraft what CAD does NOT require log book entry? An ejector rack cartridge Who assigns project priority codes at organizational level maintenance? Maintenance control When are you supposed to verify your VIDS/MAF against maintenance controls VIDS/MAFs? Daily What copy of the VIDS/MAF goes onto the aircraft discrepancy book until corrected? Copy 4 - yellow What is the Elapsed Maintenance (EMT) for 4 personnel working 2.5 hours? 2.5 hours Who inspects for tools at the end of the workday for a field contractor? QA audits are done how many times a year? Quarterly in the past and now semi-annually For what period of time is a VIDS/MAF copy 5 kept on file? When removing the M61A1 gun system from the aircraft, what publication should you use as a guide? MIMs What is the most significant benefit of an effective tool control program? A reduction in the loss of lives and equipment Aircraft maintenance functions are divided into what total number of maintenance levels? Three (O, I, and D) What part of the following stock number 4F 1454-01-755-1945 AF - is the National Stock Number (NSN)? What consolidated SE listing is required by an activity to perform its assigned maintenance level function? IMRL You can find step-by-step procedures for performing the minimum inspection required for each type of scheduled aircraft maintenance action in what publication? FMs (Field Manuals) You should order aircraft parts using what documentation?

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Who at organizational level maintenance assigns the production workload? MMCO Permission must be received from whom to continue a functional check flight into an operational mission/flight? Commanding Officer Who is responsible for verification of proper IMRL gear against the MIMs? Workcenter Supervisor The Work Center Supervisor What official established the NAMP? Who is responsible for the ships 3M program? CNO XO The NAMP is founded upon the three-levels of maintenance concept established by what agency or official? Department of Defense Wall to wall inventories of IMRL are conducted when? Annually Where do you find maintenance source codes (as it pertains to SM&R codes)? Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) To find EOC codes (Equipment Operability Codes) where do you look? Mission Essential Systems Matrix (MESM) An aircraft turnaround inspection is valid for what period of time? 24 hours A daily inspection is valid for what period of time? 72 hours What is the difference between special and conditional inspections? Specials are scheduled conditionals are upon occurrence When may a CDI inspect his own work? Never What list determines when a part on an aircraft fails and must remain in place until a replacement part is received from supply? Component Remain In Place List (CRIPL) What when discovered code is used when a QAR finds the discrepancy on the aircraft or on a piece of gear? R Who is responsible to the xo for coordination of the ships 3M system? 3M Officer What form do you use to report configuration changes? 4790/CK Who commands the operating forces of the Navy? CNO, under the direction of the SECNAV Who is responsible for the disciplined Use of resources and the operating efficiency of all commands and activities under his command? CNO Who coordinates with the office of the CNO, COMNAVAIRSYSCOM, COMNAVSEASYSCOM, COMPAWARSYSCOM and other NAVY support activities? Commandant of the Marine Corps Where can you find command relationships and exercise of command and support responsibilities for Navy and Marine Corps? SECNAVINST 5400.14 What authority is responsible for the maintenance and material condition of aeronautical equipment assigned to their cognizance for the operation and support of the naval aviation mission? Aircraft Controlling Custodian (ACC) What does the acronym COMMARFORLANT/PAC stand for and who do they provide support to? Commander, Marine Forces Atlantic/Pacific and they provide support to COMNAVAIRFOR Commanders are designated by what authority for coordinating maintenance performed by squadrons under their authority? ACCS Where do you list service period extensions of an aircraft? In the miscellaneous section of the aircraft log book What is the submission timeline for a CAT I TPDR? 24 hours In a work center, what individual is responsible for the effective operation of the ships 3M Systems?

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Give an example of an administrative commander? Type Wing Commanders (Known as the Commodore - Strike Fighter Wing, Helicopter Sea Combat Wing, Patrol and Reconnaissance Wing are examples of Type Wings) Give an example of an operational commander? Routine and Rapid Action Changes Carrier Air Wing (CVW) Commander (Known as the CAG) What is the purpose of the A page in a manual? To help the user insert new pages and maintain a record of current pages Difference data sheets are used for what purpose? To allow data to be added or changed without making a direct impact on existing information What is the term Used to expedite the dissemination of urgent operation and maintenance change information? Rapid Action Change (RAC) How many numbering systems are currently in use by NAVAIR and what are they? Two; the NAVIR numbering system and the newer Technical Manual Identification Numbering System (TMINS) What part of the NAVAIR numbering system can the category of the publication be found? Part I The standard TMINS number is made up of how many distinct parts and what are they? Two - The Publication Identifier (PI) and the suffix The two digit subject serial number is what group of the PI? The third group What are the last six positions in the publication identifier (pi) called? The Technical Manual (TM) identifier What are the two general styles of technical manuals? Military specifications and commercial Technical manuals are divided into how many major types and what are they? Two major types; operational and maintenance How are work package (WP) manuals divided? Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) By function and task In a work package type manual, what is the information that appears in the upper right corner of each page? The seven digit WP number and the page within the work package Where are all NAVAIR aeronautical publications changes, technical directives, and forms cataloged? Naval Aeronautical Publication Index (NAPI) In the NAVAIR publication number NA 01-75PAA-2-4, what does the number 2 designate? That this publication is a maintenance instruction manual What technical publication is most helpful in identifying and ordering replacement parts? What reporting system allows fleet input to technical manual changes? Technical Publication Deficiency Reporting (TPDR) program What are the two types of publication changes?

What authority is responsible for material support of operational units? IMAS Who is responsible for providing augmentation personnel to IMAS? The squadron Who provides material in support of operation and maintenance of aeronautical equipment? COMNAVSUPSYSCOM (Commander Naval Supply Systems Command) Who is responsible for research, design, development, test, acquisition and logistics support of all procurement relating to Navy and Marine Corps aircraft? COMNAVSUPSYSCOM Who provides technical direction in matters concerning naval aircraft, missile targets, and associated material, except as directed by the CNO? COMNAVSUPSYSCOM As a technician, if you are to maintain complex weapons systems, where must you obtain the required information? Technical publications What manual provides guidance on maintaining technical manuals? NA 00-25-100, Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIRSYSCOM) technical manual program

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What information does the NATOPS flight manual contain? Complete operating instructions for a specific aircraft and its operational equipment What type of manual describes how to fly an aircraft? Tactical manual An amendment and a revision What does the 3 in the publication number 01-75PR4-3-1 indicate? Structural repair manual MRCs, PMCs, SSCs provide a basis for planning, scheduling, and complying with scheduled maintenance requirements under what system? Planned Maintenance System (PMS) Until it is deleted from the NAVSUP 2002 index Periodic Maintenance Information Cards (PMICs) identify what information? Scheduled or forced removal items and their replacement intervals What are the only documents authorized for operational or maintenance performance on naval aircraft and related equipment? Technical manuals or publications issued through the NAVAIR distribution system What is the purpose of the naval aviation safety program, OPNAVISNT 3750.6? To preserve human and material resources What safety-related publication provides guidance on the administration of the NAVOSH program Navy wide? Navy Occupational Safety and Health (NAVOSH) program, OPNAVISNT 5100.23 What information is contained in OPNAVISNT 5100.19? Safety precautions applicable to forces afloat What is the purpose of the technical directive system? It controls and issues all Technical Directives Commercial and Government Entity code (CAGE) What are the two styles of Technical Directives (TDs)? Format TD (letter) and interim TD (message) Next higher assembly A Technical Directive issued by message or message format letter that dictates urgent dissemination is known as what type of change? Interim change An interim document that directs a one-time inspection to determine if a given condition exists is known as what type of technical directive? A bulletin Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IBP) and the Maintenance Instruction Manual (MIM) What information is contained in the introduction of the IPB? General information What are the two technical manuals Used by the maintenance technician to order replacement parts? What term is used for a part, component, or system in which the requisitioned part is used? How are TDs cancelled? By an amendment to the TD What activity assigns the numbers for changes and bulletins? The technical directive control center at the naval air technical services facility State the composition of the project code? Alpha and alpha numeric What FAD is assigned to most fleet operating activities? FAD II or III Aircraft repair usage statistics are used by the supply department for what purpose? Usage statistics justify stocking replenishment parts What are the two types of part numbers? Definitive and non-definitive What is the correct nomenclature for what is commonly referred to as the manufacturers code? What is the term Used to define the process by which TDs are removed from active files after requirements have been incorporated? Rescission How long should an activity maintain a td on file? What is the term Used to describe a message td, which provides for quick action on minor changes that offer significant advantages to the operating forces? A Rapid Action Minor Engineering Change (RAMEC) What are the two methods of updating a technical directive?

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What part of the IPB contains information concerning detailed parts that make up a component? The group assembly parts list 24 hours In what position of the SM&R code indicates the source from which you can acquire the item? The first position Quarterly Which NAVSUP publication provides crossreference information from a reference number to its National Stock Number (NSN)? Master Cross-Reference List (MCRL) What NAVSUP publication provides information on exceptions to the one-for-one turn-in rule? Consolidated Remain In Place List (CRIPL) How often is the Individual Component Repair List (ICRL) revised? Quarterly What are the first two digits of the nine digit NIIN called? That National Codification Bureau (NCB) code How is Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIRSYSCOM) involved in the AMMRL program? NAVAIRSYSCOM exercises overall program management and authority What section of the IMRL lists all of the items allowed for the activity along with the allowance quantities? The IMRL main body Operating with minimum expense and waste How often is the IMRL activity inventory record reissued? It is reissued in its entirety each month What work center is the point of contact for parts and material at the organizational maintenance level? Material Control DD form 1348, Standard Form 44, and an identiplate (DD 1896 or 1897) are all issued as part of what package? A flight packet What level of maintenance orders the greater volume of parts? Intermediate level The Individual Component Repair List (ICRL) is used by what work center to determine the repair capability of a component received by supply? Aeronautical Material Screening Unit (AMSU) What is the most effective tool for ensuring a smooth flow of information regarding maintenance between shifts, other work centers, and maintenance control? Daily maintenance meeting Seeing that the job is done correctly, safely, and efficiently with no waste of materials How does the work center efficiency naturally increase? Update equipment as old models become obsolete How can an effective supervisor offset the loss of experienced personnel? Through an effective and continuing training program Which of the three broad objectives are affected by wasted materials? What section of ASD/SSC manages local repair cycle assets? Component Control Section (CCS) How many workload priorities can be assigned to a LRCA storage unit? Four How often does supply review stock records for the PEBS? If a part is listed in the CRIPL, the maintenance activity has how many hours after receipt of the replacement component to finish the unserviceable parts?

What is the primary concern of a work center supervisor?

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Leadership
Who makes up the operating personnel in a Navy unit to complete goals and tasks? The LPO and below Who makes up the operating management in a Navy unit to set division goals and to supervise goal completion? The Division Officer and CPOs Affiliator Who makes up middle management in a Navy unit to determine requirements and meet goals? The Department Head Who makes up the top level management to set visions and goals? The CO/XO and above What are the six types of leadership styles? Coercer; authoritarian; affiliator; democratic; pacesetter; and coach What term is used to describe supervisors and subordinates taking part in setting overall goals for the organization? Management by objectives (MBO) What are the Navys three core values? Honor, Courage, and Commitment Authoritarian What leadership style is especially effective during a wartime situation when the command is in combat or under fire? Coercer What type of leadership style depicts a leader who sets high standards, leads by example, but would rather do the job themselves? Pacesetter Which leadership style describes a leader whose first concern is people; where concern for subordinates and personal popularity are the most important aspects of their job? Affiliator What type of leader is firm but fair, tactful provides clear direction, and leaves no doubt about what is expected or who makes the final decisions? Authoritarian Which style of leadership relies on participation of the group where the leaders believe subordinates should take part in the decision making process? Democratic Navy: Master Chief Petty Officer Marines: Sergeant Major and Master Gunnery Sergeant The obligation to carry forward an assigned task to a successful conclusion is known as what? Responsibility The freedom granted by seniors to allow individuals to command or influence the behavior, thoughts or opinions of others is known as what? Authority Navy: Senior Chief Petty Officer Marines: First Sergeant or Master Sergeant What are the titles for E-7 in the Navy and Marines? Navy: Chief Petty Officer Marines: Gunnery Sergeant Which leadership style might be Useful when seeking information on a particular situation before inspections? Which leadership style involves subordinates doing the job the way the leader tells them to do it, and by using threats of discipline or punishment for motivation? Coercer What leadership style would be useful when a worker is attempting to learn a new procedure or master a new technique? Coach What leadership style would be Useful when you are working with a new work center or teaching a new maintenance procedure by example? Pacesetter Which style of leadership centers on the development of subordinates, where the leaders see their job as developing and improving the performance of their subordinates? Coach Which leadership style is especially well adapted for the role of a counselor?

What are the pay grade titles for E-8 in the Navy and Marines?

What are the pay grade titles for E-9 in the Navy and marines?

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What are the three types of authority within the Navy? Authority within the command, general, and organizational What committee is established to handle a specific situation and that dissolves after the task is accomplished? Ad hoc committee What type of leadership is where others are simply told what to do? Autocratic What leadership style is when the management style is characterized by the managers reliance on rules, regulations, policies, and procedures to direct subordinates? Bureaucratic Generating ideas without concern for their feasibility is known as what? Brainstorming One who acts as an agent for another in return for a fee or a commission is known as what? Brokering A written system of standards for ethical conduct is known as what? Code of ethics The process of negotiating a union agreement that covers wages, hours, and working conditions is known as what? Collective bargaining A philosophy and attitude for analyzing capabilities and processes and improving them repeatedly to achieve the objective of customer satisfaction is known as what? Continuous quality improvement The co-existence of two or more cultural groups within an organization is known as what? Cultural diversity The way a society solves its problems is known as what? Cultural norms A management or leadership style characterized by a sharing of decision-making authority with subordinates by the leader is known as what? Democratic An economic term usually referring to the responsiveness in the quantity demanded of a commodity to changes in environment is known as what? Elasticity A managers right to give direct orders to subordinates and appraise, reward, and discipline those who receive those orders is known as what? Line authority An organization skilled at creating, acquiring, and transferring knowledge and at modifying its behavior to reflect new knowledge and insights is known as what? Learning organization A field of philosophy dealing with rightful and wrongful nature of human conduct in society is known as what? Ethics The ability to influence related to some expertise, special skill, or knowledge is known as what? Expert power Rewards external to the job such as pay, promotion or fringe benefits is known as what? Extrinsic rewards The right that a manager of a staff department has to make decisions and to give orders that affect the way things are done in another department is known as what? Functional authority Controlling access to another person or the flow of information is known as what? Gate keeping The process of developing, negotiating, and formalizing the targets or objectives that an employee or group is responsible for accomplishing is known as what? Goal setting Standards shared by the members of a group are known as what? Group norms The deterioration of the mental efficiency, reality testing, and moral judgment of the individual members of the group in the interest of group solidarity is known as what? Group think The various levels of managerial positions and the people chosen to staff an organizations position of formal authority is known as what? Hierarchy The ability to get work done with and through others while winning their respect, confidence, loyalty, and willing cooperation is known as what? Leadership

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The process of planning, organizing, directing, and controlling human, material, and information resources for the purpose of setting and achieving stated goals is known as what? Management What defines the core purpose of an organization and why it exists? Mission statement Exchanging information for mutual benefit is known as what? Networking The dislike of risk; the unwillingness to try new things is known as what? Risk aversion The situation that exists whenever a manager is uncertain about the role he or she is expected to play is known as what? Role ambiguity A situation that occurs when contradictory or opposing demands are made on a manager is known as what? Role conflict

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Basic Military Requirements
Vessels may not discharge any trash within _______ nautical miles of any foreign coastline? 25 NM What is the family care plan certificate? Submarines may discharge negatively buoyant compacted trash not less than _____ nautical miles from the u. S. Coastline only if the water depth is greater than _____ fathoms? 12 NM; 1,000 fathoms The U.S. gets most of its oil from whom? Middle East Who set up the Navy sponsorship program? CNO Sponsor request form is what? Waste NAVPERS 1330/2 What provides information and support to help personnel who are guests in foreign lands? Overseas duty support program MILCAP provides monetary awards up to? $25,000 Inspector general A service member who is _____ weeks pregnant may not be assigned overseas or travel overseas. 28 Pregnant service member may not fly after what week? 28 Pregnant service members may not be transferred to a deploying unit from the _____ week of pregnancy to _____ months after delivery. 20th
/

Normally the CO may grant _____ weeks of convalescent leave after giving birth. 6 weeks (42 days)

NAVPERS 1740/6 What form is the family care plan arrangement? NAVPERS 1740/7 What is intentional misleading or deceitful conduct that deprives the government of its resources or rights? Fraud What is the extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resources?

What is the intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources? Abuse Whose mission is it to inquire into and report on any matters that affect the discipline or military efficiency of the DON?

If you make an unauthorized disclosure, you may be fined what? $5,000 dollars According to article _____ of the Navy regulations, EO shall be afforded to all? 1164 Who provides guidance and policy for the EO program? CNO

12 The first course of action when you cant resolve a discrimination complaint is what? Special request chit What is defined as causing another military person to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning or harmful? Hazing What is article 1165 of the U.S. Navy regulations? Fraternization prohibited What is a DD 214? Certificate of discharge/release What is an RE-4? Not eligible for reenlistment

If the time for evacuation is more than _____ hours, pregnant service women wont remain aboard ship. Six hours Pregnant service women wont remain on board a ship beyond the _____ week of pregnancy. 20th week Pregnant service women who are air controllers may work up to _____ weeks of the pregnancy, however they are restricted from tower duties after their _____ week. 28th; 27th When should pregnant service women attached to an aviation squadron be reassigned to a non deploying squadron? 20th week until recuperative period

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What is an RE-1? Eligible for reenlistment They are all considered fathers of the Navy What is an RE-3? Eligible for probationary reenlistment Who directs and supervises the Navys voting program? Chief of Naval Personnel What is the federal post card for application for absentee ballot? SF 76 What are the primary municipal pollutants? Raw or inadequately treated sewage What causes steel to erode two to four times faster? Sulfur oxides What program was designed to find new ideas to effectively increase performance within the DON? MILCAP What instruction contains additional information about the MILCAP? OPNAVISNT 1650.8 What was established by the DOD that provides information about government housing and the type, cost, and availability of private housing? Housing referral office What program uses reenlistment codes to indicate whether you have met professional growth material? Reenlistment quality control program The four main sources of pollutants are? Agricultural runoff, industrial, municipal, and transportation operations Pollution affects what? Both the physical and the biological world Primary pollution concern of the NAVY is what? Shipboard waste The agreement the Navy follows to operate marine sanitation devices and to dispose of treated sewage in foreign waters is? Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA) USS Constitution Old Ironsides What is the birthplace of the NAVY? When was the battle of the Coral Sea? Philadelphia, PA. Continental Congress passed first naval legislation here 7 8 May, 1942 What war included slipping past British blockades; raiding enemy supply lines; and attacking enemy ships? The War of 1818 What war included blocking supply for confederates; moving supplies and troops to raid the south? The Civil War What war included moving supplies to Europe; antisubmarine patrols; and laying 60,000 mines in the North Sea? World War II Pacific What war included amphibious assaults; moving supplies; antisubmarine patrols; and stopping enemy resupply lines? World War II Atlantic What war included containing the soviet threat; and providing deterrence? The Cold War What war included the seventh fleet initially securing the Formosa Strait; carrier-based aircraft strikes on bridges, factories, etc; an amphibious landing at Inchon; and shore bombardment? Korean Conflict What war included bombing ho chi minh trail; seal teams raided guerillas; patrolling waterways; and stopping enemy infiltration from Cambodia? The Vietnam War What war included the largest, fastest sealift in history; interdicting enemy resupply; and naval bombardment of shore installations? Persian Gulf War What is the birthday of the Navy? October 13, 1775 What is the oldest commissioned ship in the Navy? What war figured in seizing enemy supplies including almost 200 British vessels; carrying people to and from Europe; mounting small raids against the British coast? Revolutionary war What do George Washington, Esek Hopkins, John Barry, and John Paul Jones have in common?

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When was operation overlord D-Day? 6 June, 1944 When was the battle of the ironclads? 8 9 March, 1862 When was the battle of Midway? 4 7 June, 1942 CMEO (Command Managed Equal Opportunity) When was the raid by Japanese on Pearl Harbor? 7 December, 1941 How was Admiral Hyman, G. Rickover; retired after 63 years of active duty known for? Father of the nuclear Navy When was the battle of Leyte Gulf? Youre chain of command 23 26 October, 1944 When was the battle of Guadalcanal? 7 August, 1942 6 March, 1943 What was the first commissioned aircraft carrier? USS Saratoga What form would an individual Use to request a sponsor if they have not been contacted by their gaining command? NAVPERS 1330/2 What program provides you with support and information about foreign lands? ODSP (Overseas Duty Support Program) Besides ODSP, what other source can you Use to get information about other countries? OTIS (Overseas Transfer Information Service) What Navy program provides educational programs for people who dont meet the Navys fitness or body fat standards and who also need to help change long established bad health habits? Health and physical readiness program Service members must complete what forms for family care? NAVPERS 1740/6 and NAVPERS 1740/7 What is the purpose of the integrity and efficiency program? To detect, deter, and eliminate fraud, waste, and abuse List the ways to report fraud, waste, and abuse? Chain of command, Navy hotline, NCIS, and congressional communication You have submitted a special request chit and feel that the chain of command has not resolved your discrimination complaint. What should be your next course of action? Request Captains Mast A persons behavior is to be termed as sexual harassment if it is what? Unwelcome, sexual in nature, and occurs in or impacts the work environment Whose perception counts when there is unwelcome behavior? Recipients perception Your LCPO offers you high marks on your EVALS in exchange for sexual favors. What type of sexual harassment is this? Quid pro quo (this for that) Displaying sexual posters or using sexual explicit language creates what type of environment? Hostile working environment Describe why the Navy has a fraternization policy? To promote good order and discipline Whose job is it to act as a liaison between Navy families and the command; and keep the families informed about command policies? The Ombudsman When leaving the Navy, what determines if you will be able to reenlist at a later date? Reenlistment code What modes of transportation create most air pollutants? Motor vehicles Telling a sexist or racial joke would be an example of what type of behavior? Insensitive practice Where is the best place for you or your family to start to resolve an off-base discrimination complaint? All naval personnel should be treated equally and be given equal opportunities. What program does the NAVY Use to achieve this purpose? For the Navy to maintain public confidence in its integrity, naval personnel should comply with what? The standards of conduct and professional ethics

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What effects of pollution is the most serious? Biological 1955 Most pesticides fall into what category? Nonselective Under the clean air act, what government body has the primary responsibility for assuring air quality? Each state Virtually all NAVY ships have some type of sanitation device installed. Which types of systems retains sewage on board for discharge ashore or in waters where discharging is allowed? Collection, holding, and transfer The Navys land management program involves what efforts? Soil and water conservation Informing the public and members of the naval service about NAVY operations and programs is the mission of whom? PAO Lack of knowledge or skill If a sailor takes part in insensitive practices, he/she receives counseling on treating people equally. If counseling isnt effective, what action may take place? Administrative or disciplinary action Which material is the neckerchief made from? On what basis should supervisors assign duties such as food service and compartment cleaning? A fair, rotational basis What is the determining factor in advancement for pay grades E-1 through E-9? A vacancy Six What zone is sexually explicit pictures? Red What zone is for suggestive posters, calendars, and off-color jokes? Yellow Officers and Petty Officers What person has the responsibility of appointing the command ombudsman? CO All first term sailors in pay grades E-1 through E-6 requesting reenlistment must be approved for reenlistment through what program? Encore What are the sources that set forth for the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy? U.S. NAVY regulations, standard organization and regulation of the U.S. Navy and the uniform code of military justice In areas where different armed services are located, the military police from each service may be combined to form one unit. What term identifies this unit? Armed forces police detachment Aboard ship, the Master-At-Arms (MAA) force is headed by the Chief Master-At-Arms (CMAA). The CMAA works directly for what officer? XO Discipline training develops what personal traits? Character, efficiency, and self-control When, if ever, may you voluntarily surrender to the enemy? Never Who may be assigned shore patrol duties? Black silk and black acetate What kind of knot is used to tie a neckerchief? Square knot How many articles make up the code of conduct? What publication contains pages that will make good safety posters? Fathom The code of conduct was adopted to provide guidance for service personnel in what circumstances? When facing the enemy as prisoners of war In what year was executive order 12633 issued amending the code of conduct to Use neutral gender language? 1988 Under the UCMJ, punishment must be imposed within 2 years of offense? True or False True To transfer to the fleet reserve you must complete what requirements? You must have two years at current duty station, you must submit NAVPERS 1830/1, and submit NAVPERS 1070/621 or NAVPERS 1070/622 What is the most common cause of mishaps in the NAVY? In what year was the code of conduct first prescribed?

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Discipline is important to the Navy for what reason? To enable personnel to function as a unit with a high degree of efficiency Punishment is administered in the Navy for what reason? To serve as an object lesson to the wrong doer and others What chapter of the United States NAVY regulations describes the rights and responsibilities of all NAVY members? Chapter 11 Navy Regs and changes to it are issued by the secretary of the Navy after what person approves them? The president Failure to obey any regulation subjects the offender to charges under what UCMJ article? Article 92 The first 10 amendments Which of the following NAVY regulations articles outlines the authority of a sentry? Article 1038 Article I You may not be ordered to active duty without the permission of what person? Chief of Naval Personnel NAVY regulations, article 1104, treatment and release of prisoners, prohibits cruel and/or unusual treatment. According to this article, prisoners must be checked on at what minimum interval? Four hours During a Saturday duty day, one of your shipmates asks you to change watches with him/her. You agree but fail to get permission from proper authority. Under what article of Navy Regs you could be charged? Article 1134 Under what article of Navy Regs a person may be charged with sexual harassment? Article 1166 Under the code of conduct: what article is the only information you are allowed to give is your name, rank, service number, and date of birth? Article V Armbands with the letter SP on them What chapter of the Navy Regs deals with your responsibility and authority while carrying out orders? Chapter 10 When was the UCMJ signed into law? 31 May, 1951 Article IV Name the article: I am prepared to give my life in their defense. Article I Name the article: in the USA. I will trust in my God and What is Article 86? Absence without leave What is Article 87? Missing movement What is Article 92? Failure to obey an order What is Article 94? Mutiny What is Article 134? General Article How many days do you have to appeal after Captains Mast? Five days In the Navy, military police are known as what? Shore patrol Shore Patrol personnel are identified by what? What article of the constitution created the United States congress? What are the three types of courts-martials? Summary, special, and general How many sections are contained in the Personnel Advancement Requirements (PARs)? Three What article of the UCMJ deals specifically with drug offenses? Article 112A In what source is the UCMJ contained? Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM) When you took your oath of enlistment, you promised to support and defend what document? The Constitution of the United States The bill of rights, which is a statement of human rights, is what part of the Constitution of the United States?

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Name the article: I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy. Article III Name the article: I will never surrender of my own free will. Article II What chapter of the Navy Regs deals with cos responsibilities? Chapter 8 What chapter of the Navy Regs deals with the responsibilities for the most senior officer present? Chapter 9 What are the reasons ships maintain a watch for? Communication, security, and safety A ships plan for action is contained in what bill? Battle bill To increase the physical security of the ship The fog lookout watch is normally stood where? The bow, where approaching ships can be heard What type of watch must be set for positive steering control? After steering Improvement of vision in dim light What action should you take if you are a security patrol and detect a fire hazard? Contact the OOD Object and its bearing from the ship What is your first action as a barracks security watch when there is a fire? Report To avoid breaking them What to types of orders are Sentrys governed by? General and special to 1 When aboard ship you should refer to what publication for procedures for relieving an armed watch? SOP The peacetime lookout organization has how many S ailors in each watch section? Three What are the three types of bearings? True, relative, and magnetic JA Lookouts report what type of bearing? Relative How should you ensure that you keep a message intact when standing duty as a phone talker? Repeat it word for word Why should you unplug the sound powered headset after using it? The ear piece will transmit noise How many categories of sound power circuits are there on board ship? Three What circuit is the Commanding Officers battle circuit? How far away should the mouth piece be away from your mouth on a sound powered phone? Why are sound powered headphones picked up as a unit? What information is contained in an initial report? How long does it take for you to reach your best night vision? 30 minutes What is meant by dark adaptation? How should you report objects that are low in the water? By approximate distance in yards If you are supposed to stand the second dog watch what time should you report? 1745 What watch is the 2000 to 2400 called? Evening watch What is the purpose of the security watch? What is a target angle? The relative bearing of your ship from another ship A position angle can never be more than what number of degrees? 90 degrees How are position angels reported? Two digits as a whole

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What information do you take when taking a message? Name of caller, message, and time and date What are three components of IVCS? Terminals, accessories, and ICSCS What is the purpose of the ICSCS in the IVCS system? To perform switching operations What is the general announcing system designator? LMC What is the internship communication designator? 6MC What is the 58MC used for? Hangar communication Auxiliary system What designator is for the combat information announcing system? 20MC What are three types of flags and pennants Used by the Navy? Substitute flags, numeral pennants, and international alphabet flags What is the Oscar flag used for? Man overboard What flag is used to recall personnel? Papa What flag indicates that a ship has ready duty? Romeo Code Alfa When underway the national ensign is normally flown from what location? Gaff What does the term colors consist of? Our national ensign along with the union jack When a naval ship is in port or at anchor where is the union jack flown from? The jack staff Two What three flags are at half mast when the co of a ship dies? National ensign, union jack, and commission pennant On small ships, who is in charge of hoisting and hauling down absentee pennants? Quarterdeck watch During the Revolutionary War and into the 19th century naval vessels were grouped into what three major classes? Ships-of-the-line, frigates, and sloops-of-war What ships were commissioned by the continental congress and by individual states to capture enemy merchant ships as prizes of war? Privateers What is the flagstaff insignia for a Captain? A ball When are side boys paraded? For scheduled official visits On 13 October 1775 the second Continental Congress authorized the purchase of how many ships? An XIZ circuit is what kind of circuit? An auxiliary circuit To clear a sound-powered phone circuit to transmit an important message, the sender should say what? Silence on the line What circuit is the damage control circuit? 4MC What system is tied into the 1MC circuit? Alarm system What flag is flown if there are divers in the water? What category of shipboard telephone circuits is designed to maintain vital communications are preceded by the letter X? On large ships, who is in charge of hoisting and hauling down absentee pennants? Duty signalman Where is a list of special flags and pennants normally posted as a ready reference for watch standers? Quarterdeck area If an officer that is entitled to a personal flag is embarked on a ship on an official mission, where is the pennant flown from? On the bow To report serial number 23NC116 over the sound-powered telephone circuit, you would report the serial number in what way? Too, tree, November, Charlie, India, Wun, Six

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Privateers typically sailed what types of ships? Schooners What was the name of the first warfare submarine? The Turtle Steam power Who built the first warfare submarine? David Bushnell The first instance of an anti-submarine attack was when the British sunk what submarine? The Turtle What was the Navys first flagship? Land USS Alfred Who was the first foreign power to recognize the American colonies as a struggling government with a nine gun salute? France Who said Struck sir? I have not yet begun to fight!? John Paul Jones During the Revolutionary War it is estimated that the British lost how many merchant ships? 2,000 When was the department of the Navy established? 1798 What president established the Department of the Navy? President John Adams The entirely naval war with France between 1798-1801 was known as what war? Quasi War The famous expression millions for defense, but not one cent for tribute originated from what war? Quasi War Who led 84 seamen into the port of Tripoli and burned the captured ship USS Philadelphia on February 16, 1804? Decatur On August 19, 1812 the USS Constitution earned what nickname? Old Ironsides What war began from the British forcing American seamen to serve in the British Navy? The War of 1812 Who defined sea power; showed the importance of understanding naval needs; and advocated a large, powerful Navy capable of assembling an overwhelming force to defeat the enemys Navy? Alfred T. Mahan What ship was labeled as the first modern cruiser in the U.S. fleet? USS Newark What was the first torpedo boat to join the fleet? USS Cushing Commodore Matthew C. Perry signed a treaty with what country on March 31, 1854, that opened ports to American trade and provisioning of ships? Japan Name the two famed ironclads of the Civil War? USS Merrimack (Confederate) USS Monitor (Union) How many crewmembers died on the first voyage of the CSS Hunley? Seven The first successful attack by a submarine sank what ship? The USS Housatonic What was the name of the first submarine to complete an attack against a surface ship? The CSS Hunley Who gave the famous order Damn the torpedoes; full speed ahead!? David Farragut Who is considered the father of modern naval ordnance? John Dahlgren On September 5, 1843, the Navys first successful steamship, the USS ____________, was launched. Princeton The Mexican-American war was primarily a __________ war? Who wrote the dispatch We have met the enemy and they are ours.? Captain Oliver Hazard Perry What was the most important development in the surface Navy during the first half of the 19th century?

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What was the U.S. Navys first gas powered submarine? USS Holland What was the major reason for the start of the Spanish-American war? The sinking of the USS Maine in Havana, Cuba The battle of manila bay was during what war? The Spanish-American war The first two submarines to have diesel engines were? USS Skipjack (SS 24) and USS Sturgeon (SS 25) What was the name of our first first-class battle ship? USS Indiana (BB 1) What was the first nuclear aircraft carrier? Where did the first flights of the Wright brothers take place? Kitty Hawk, North Carolina Eugene Ely successfully took off from and later landed a biplane on a platform rigged aboard what ship? USS Pennsylvania Battle of Midway Who was the Navys first aviator? LT T. G. Ellyson On November 17, 1917, the destroyers USS Nicholson and USS Fanning were the first US ships to do what? Sink an enemy submarine When was the Nurse Corps officially born? 1908 Women were first enrolled into the Navy as what? Yeomen In the 1930s Americans felt the economic strain known as the what? The Great Depression What category of ship carried the largest number of guns? Ships-of-the-line On what great lake did Captain Oliver Hazard Perry defeat a British squadron, cutting British supply lines? Lake Erie In 1843, what invention incorporated in the USS Princeton paved the way for progress in the development of propulsion systems? The screw propeller What is the basic unit of a shipboard organization? Division What are the three basic components of the department of the Navy? Navy department, operating forces, and shore establishment What are the three military departments of the DOD? Navy, Army, and Air Force The shore establishment provides support to the operating forces known as what? The Fleet What battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carriers? Battle of Coral Sea When did the attack on Pearl Harbor occur? 7 December, 1941 What was the largest amphibious invasion? Invasion of Normandy The DOD was created in what year? 1947 USS Enterprise What was the first Trident submarine? USS Ohio What was the turning point of the war in the Pacific during WWII? What is the significance of the 1776 raid on the island of New Providence in the Bahamas? First amphibious operation by American Navy and Marines What was the first nuclear submarine? USS Nautilus What was the first nuclear cruiser? USS Bainbridge Destroyers were first used effectively for antisubmarine warfare during what war? World War I When is Americas birthday? 4 July, 1776

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A usual way of acting in a situation that has been practiced so long that it has the force of law is described as what? A custom An act or verbal expression of consideration or respect for others is defined as what? A courtesy Name a required act of military courtesy? A salute 600 yards When in uniform, Navy personnel salute what persons/things? Flag, anthem, and officers 400 yards Under naval customs, the hand salute is accompanied by a word of greeting? True or False True What is the most common form of saluting? Hand salute List the three rifle salutes? Present arms, rifle salute at order arms, and rifle salute at right shoulder arms Salutes rendered to ships, high-ranking individuals, and nations are defined as what? Honors A ruler of a country recognized by the United States rates what gun salutes? 21 gun salute What is the significance of national flags flown at half mast (half staff ashore)? Internationally recognized symbols of mourning What is the area designated by the co that serves as the focal point for official and ceremonial functions? Quarterdeck Aboard ship, how is the CO addressed? As Captain regardless of paygrade In a normal situation, how many paces from the person being saluted should the hand salute be rendered? Six When going aboard ship thats flying the national ensign, you must stop on the upper platform on the accommodation ladder or the shipboard end of the brow and do what? Face the National Ensign and salute Your ship is about to render honors to another ship passing close aboard to starboard. In what order are the appropriate whistle signals given? One blast, one blast, two blasts, three blasts A crew is paraded at quarters on what occasion? When the ship is returning from an extended deployment Gun salutes are normally fired at what time interval? Five seconds What term describes a formal act performed on a public occasion? Ceremony Aboard ship, how many minutes before morning and evening colors is the prep pennant hoisted? Five minutes On Navy ships not under way, where is the Union Jack displayed? The jack staff on the bow The national ensign is hoisted and lowered in what way? Hoisted smartly, lowered ceremoniously If you are in uniform and covered, how do you render honors when the national anthem is played indoors but the flag is not displayed? Hand salute at attention while facing the music When the national anthem is being played, sailors in a boat must adhere to what rule? Only the Boat Officer salutes; all other remain seated at attention What march does the Navy band play to honor the president of the United States? Hail to the Chief Passing honors for boats are exchanged when boats pass within what distance? While standing a sentry box, you are approached by an officer. What type of rifle salute should you render? Present arms Do you have to salute when guarding prisoners and an officer passes within saluting distance? No Passing honors for ships are exchanged when ships pass within what distance?

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Upon entering an area where Christian divine services are being held, you, as messenger of the watch, should do what? Uncover only When over taking an officer what do you ask? An enlisted person and two officers are about to board a boat. How should the enlisted person be seated? Board first and sit forward, leaving room aft for the officers How is a salute rendered in civilian clothing? By placing the right hand over the heart Yes How do you salute when running? Slow to a walk How do you salute if carrying a load in both hands? Look at the officer and render a verbal greeting Can you salute while smoking? No Do you salute an officer who is uncovered or has full hands? Yes, he will return a verbal greeting Nobody, all gun salutes are odd numbered When working with Army personnel and they salute indoors should you? Yes When walking with an officer and a senior officer approaches, when do you salute? When the junior officer begins his salute What is the farthest you should salute an officer? As far as you can recognize the uniform of an officer How long do you hold your salute? Until one is returned or until you are six paces past the officer When boarding a ship which do you salute first, the OOD or the Ensign? The National Ensign When leaving a ship, do you salute first, the OOD or the Ensign? The OOD When the progress of a senior officer is blocked, officers and enlisted personnel clear a path by calling out _____________ and stand at attention facing the senior officer until he/she passes. Gangway What is the interval of a gun salute on Presidents Day, Memorial Day and Independence Day? One minute What time does the gun salute for Presidents Day, Memorial Day, or Independence Day begin and end? Begins at 1200 and ends at 1220 What flag is hoisted five minutes before each colors? The prep pennant is hoisted to half mast If your ship is visiting a foreign country when is their national anthem played? Immediately following morning colors What is different about the Ensign flown on national holidays? It is the largest National Ensign of the command allowance (holiday colors) Do ships under way carry out colors? No, the flag is flown 24 hours a day at the mainmast What is the name of the ceremony conducted by ships leaving port? Shifting the colors In a crowded gathering when do you salute an officer? When addressing or being addressed What is the term used when ships company lines up at regular intervals along all weather deck rails? Manning the rail Are side boys paraded at night? No, only 0800 to sunset excluding Sundays Who receives an even number gun salute? By your leave sir Do officers in vehicles return salutes? Only if the vehicle is stopped Do you salute an officer who is in civilian clothes? What side of an officer do you pass when overtaking? The left

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How do you hoist the ensign at half mast? Hoisted sharply to the truck and lowered ceremoniously to half mast What is the length of the dress blue jumper for men? Should hang straight and cover all but the lowest button of the 13-button front of the trouser What uniform should enlisted women E-1 through E-6 wear with the black silk neckerchief? Service dress white jumper When wearing a pea coat over a dress blue jumper uniform, the uniform collar should be what? Inside outer garment When added to the service dress white uniforms, what uniform component makes the service dress white uniforms a full dress uniform? When large medals are worn Men & women stencil what uniform the same way? Dress white jumper What person can authorize the transfer of an enlisted persons clothing to another enlisted person? CO What do the following uniform clothing have in common - all-weather raincoat, underwear, shoes, belt, socks, sweater, and neckties? They can be worn with civilian clothes What is an E-1 in the Marine Corps? Private What is an E-3 in the USMC? Lance Corporal Any branch What is an E-2 in the USMC? Private First Class What is an E-3 in the Army? Rear Admiral (lower half) Private First Class What is an E-2 in the Army? Private What is an E-4 in the Army? Specialist Corporal What is an E-7 in the Army? Sergeant First Class or First Sergeant What is an E-8 in the Army? Master Sergeant When worn as a sleeve insignia, what device designates the officer as a line officer? Gold star What kind of special insignia is worn on the breast by personnel qualified in underwater and beach reconnaissance and demolition? Special warfare insignia If a person has four or more ribbons, what is the minimum number of medals that can be worn on the uniform? Three A naval officer is wearing one silver star insignia on the uniform collar. What rank does this insignia show? What is an E-9 in the Army? Command Master Sergeant or Sergeant Major What is an E-1 in the USAF? Airman Basic What is an E-2 in the USAF? Airman What is an E-3 in the USAF? Airman 1st Class What is an E-4 in the USAF? Sergeant Senior Airman What is an E-5 in the USAF? Staff Sergeant What is an E-6 in the USAF? Technical Sergeant What is an E-7 in the USAF? Master Sergeant What is an E-8 in the USAF? Senior Master Sergeant What is an E-9 in the USAF? Chief Master Sergeant What is the term Used to define a specialty mark of a rating worn by qualified E-1 through E-3 personnel? Striker mark To be eligible to wear a service stripe, you must have served four years of active duty or reserve service in what branch of the US armed forces?

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Medal of Honor, Navy Cross, Distinguished Service Medal and a Purple Heart are all example of what? Military decorations Presidential Medal of Freedom, Gold and Silver Life Saving medal, and National Sciences medal are all examples of what? Non-military decorations When wearing medals or ribbons on a uniform, what is their order of precedence? Top to bottom, inboard to outboard, within rows There are how many broad categories of awards? List the information contained on dog tags? Seven Full name, SSN and the letters USN, blood type and RH factor, and your religious preference While in uniform, how many wristwatches and bracelets can be worn? One each To what NAVY publication should you refer for further explanation of grooming standards? USN uniform regulations manual When in uniform, what type of earrings is authorized for E-6 and below? Silver earrings, 6mm ball When in uniform, what type of earrings is authorized for CPO and above? Gold earrings, 6MM ball What command tells you to smartly turn your head 45 degrees to the right? Eyes right What material is used to make government-issue dress blue jumpers and trousers? Wool serge Where can you find information on what is the prescribed uniform of the day? POD or POW What is the largest size stencil authorized for marking clothing? One inch Occupational groups are identified by what means? A group mark, which is worn on the left sleeve of jumpers and white summer shirts How many years of continuous good conduct are required before a person becomes eligible to wear gold service stripes? 12 When personnel are in ranks, the chest of one person and the back of the person ahead should be what distance apart? 40 inches A pace consists of a full step of what length for (a) men and (b) women? (a) 30 inches (b) 24 inches What drill position is the basic military position? Attention Talk is permitted when you are in what position? Rest How many movements are Used to perform the about face command? Two In what year was the Purple Heart founded by President Washington? 1782 The Good Conduct Medal is an example of what? A campaign or a service award What means of identification must you carry with you at all times? Armed Forces identification card What is the purpose of the Armed Forces ID card under article 17 of the Geneva Convention? As a means of identification for POWs While on active duty, you must wear your id tags under what conditions? In time of war, when engaged in flight operations, and when prescribed by the CNO According to grooming standards for women, what is the maximum length of fingernails (as measured from the tip of the finger)? inch What insignia is worn by personnel qualified to serve in flight? Aviation warfare What insignia is worn by officers and enlisted personnel who have qualified in all phases of surface warfare? Surface warfare What insignia is worn by personnel who have qualified to serve in submarines? Submarine warfare

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When executing the command fall in, the squad forms in line in front of what person? Squad leader Personnel in formation align themselves with what person? Each other After the command dress right dress, a formation returns to the attention position on what command? Ready, on the word front When the command close ranks is given to members in formation, the fourth rank moves how many paces forward? Three To ensure personnel have the correct uniforms The U.S. Navy uniform regulations NAVPERS 15665 provides what? The basic naval uniform policy inch The neckerchief is ______ inches square? What should be stenciled on uniforms? 36 Name and social The top of the knot in the neckerchief should be even with what? The lowermost point of the collar opening The white hat should be worn with the diagonal woven seam of the brim to the what? Rear Ribbons are worn _____ above the left breast pocket? inch Ship-name sleeve mark is to be worn _____ below the seam on the _____ shoulder? 1/3 inch; right What replaces the specialty mark of a CMC? What material is men's dress blue uniforms made from? Wool serge Mens dress white jumpers and trousers are made of polyester material designated as what? Navy twill Green Can the pea coat be buttoned to the neck? Fireman stripes are what? Yes, during foul weather Red What uniform item allows you to wear a clear plastic, combination cap rain cover? The all-weather coat (raincoat) White A womans dress blue uniform substitutes what for the neckerchief? A necktie or neck tab President of the United States Commissioned officers hold their positions of command by the authority given to them by whom? Seamen, Hospitalman and Dentalman stripes are what? A silver star Construction stripes are what? Blue Aviation stripes are what? What do service stripes indicate? Length of service Who is the most senior enlisted person in the Navy? The MCPON The rating insignia of the MCPON has how many stars across the top? Three What replaces the specialty mark of the MCPON? A gold star What size stencil should be used to mark clothing? When white jumper slacks are used with the white jumper, the hem of the jumper should fall to within _____ inch above the bottom of the pocket opening of the slacks? One Womens heels will be no higher than _____ inches nor less than _____ inch when measured from the forward edge of the heel? 2 5/8 inch; 5/8 inch Women may wear open heel/open toe shoes as deemed by the skipper? True or False False Why do Division Officers conduct sea bag inspections?

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What is chemical, biological and nuclear weapons considered? Weapons of mass destruction Surface blast What agent is used to kill or disable personnel by affecting their blood, nerves, lungs, or stomach? Chemical weapons 45 minutes Generally, antipersonnel agents are divided into how many types? Two Cramps, breathing difficulty, nausea, headache, convulsions, and contractions of the pupils are all symptoms of what type of contamination? Nerve agent Burns from exposure to mustard vapor will be more serious in what body areas? Neck, groin, and armpits Three A person exposed to a blood agent may experience respiratory paralysis within what length of time? Seconds Atropine and 2-Pam c1 oxime are used to counteract the effects and relieve the symptoms of what agent? Nerve agents What type of agents is used to produce temporary misery and harassment? Riot control Living organisms, toxins, and micro toxins are examples of what? Biological weapons In its early stage, what are the symptoms of a biological attack? Fever, inflammation, and malaise Nuclear weapons have the capability of destroying areas in what way? Blast, shock, and nuclear radiation Nuclear explosions are divided into how many classes? Four What would be the most effective type of nuclear strike to Use against a battle group at sea? Air blast What type of nuclear strike would be used to destroy satellites and interrupt communications systems through the effects of EMP? High altitude blast As a sailor, what action must you take in order to get paid? Open a savings or a checking account What actions should personnel topside take if an airburst occurs? Close their eyes, drop to the deck, and cover as much exposed skin as possible What piece of protective equipment is the most important in protecting you against CBR agents? Protective mask What kit is used to check areas suspected to have been contaminated by CW agents? M256AL kit Areas contaminated by CW, BW, or nuclear agents are identified by markers having what shape? Triangular Dose rate is expressed in roentgens, which are gamma ray measurements only. True or False True What does the acronym RADIAC stand for? Radioactivity Detection, Indication, And Computation The non-self reading, high range casualty dosimeter measures what maximum amount of gamma radiation? 600 roentgens What person is in charge of a survey team? Monitor What type of radiation hazard must enter the body through ingestion or cuts to cause bodily harm? Alpha particles What is tree? The affect of gamma or neutron radiation on shipboard electronic systems A survey team is made up of what minimum number of personnel? If a nuclear blast at night causes you to experience flash blindness, you can expect your vision to recover in what length of time? In what type of nuclear strike would the shock wave near ground zero be greater than the blast wave?

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Pay you get for certain types of duty that is usually considered hazardous is known as what? Incentive pay The pay you get thats based on your pay grade and length of service is known as what? Basic pay You are getting a selective reenlistment bonus, what type of pay are you receiving? Special pay What is the term Used to define money Used to reimburse you for expenses necessary for you to do your job? Allowance You are entitled to an annual clothing maintenance allowance after you have been on active duty for what length of time? 6 months What offices can provide information about the types of allowances to which youre entitled? Disbursing and personnel Rent How is your housing allowance shown on the leave and earnings statement (LES)? BAH An allotment is money you have withheld from your pay and paid directly to someone else. There are how many categories of authorized allotments? Five $400,000 What office should you notify if you think that youre being overpaid? Disbursing Family Advocacy Program (FAP) By looking at your les, you can find the amount of allowances you have earned. True or False True Acceptance, attitude, and perspective Leave and liberty are times youre authorized to spend away from work and off duty. They are combined on the les. True or False False You earn a certain number of leave days each year you serve on active duty. What is the maximum number of days of leave you can earn in a year? 30 Under certain circumstances, what is the maximum number of days special liberty a co can grant? Four days What type of leave is not charged to your earned, annual, or excess leave account? Convalescent leave How often will you receive a longevity raise? After four years of service, you will get a pay raise every two years The money charged for using borrowed money or using credit is known as? Interest What moral principals provide direction and consistency to leadership? Integrity, loyalty, and honesty To make sure an order to a job will get it done; orders need to be given so they can be followed? Orders should be given in what way? Simple, clear, and complete What are the three means we can use to deal with stress? What program was established to help families in distress? According to the US department of labor, approximately what percentage of your income should be budgeted for housing costs? 25% What is the maximum life insurance coverage under the servicemans group life insurance (SGLI) program? The amount of money taken from pay for income taxes, social security, SGLI, and so forth is known as what? Deductions The money taken from gross income to pay debts to the United States is known as what? Allotments The money paid to a member after all deductions and allotments are paid is known as what? Net income The expenses that are the same each month is known as what? Fixed What is an example of a fixed expense? What form should you Use to request either regular or emergency leave? NAVCOMPT Form 3065 What is an example of an involuntary allotment? Garnishment of pay

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Immediate obedience is an automatic, response to a command? True or False True Reasoned obedience lets you obey an order while learning from your experience while carrying it out? True or False True What is the primary goal of the continuous improvement program? Increase productivity and produce better quality through leadership What is another term Used to describe administrative ability? Good management practices If you need to find the rules for transmitting classified material, you should refer to what SECNAV instruction? SECNAVINST 5510.36 What term defines classified material that is lost, stolen, captured, salvaged, or seen by unauthorized personnel? Compromised What type of communications is one of the least secure communications systems? Telephone What threat condition affords the highest degree of readiness? Delta In what year did the Geneva Convention establish certain rights for prisoners of war? 1949 What does FOUO stand for? For Official Use Only NAVPERS 1306/63 What form is used to record bomb threats received over the phone? OPNAV form 5527/8 Seven What is the standard label Used by the DOD for making hazardous materials dispensed or produced by DOD agencies? Hazardous chemical warning label, DD FORM 2522 What additional markings (in addition to the DOD label) may there be on the outside of some hazardous material containers? Department Of Transportation (DOT) shipping symbols When cleaning electrical components onboard the ship, when would you Use carbon tetrachloride? Never, not authorized for shipboard use The E-2C Hawkeye belongs to what class of aircraft? Warning Salutes are rendered to all officers of the US and foreign armed services. Officers belonging to what organizations are also entitled to salutes? National oceanic and atmospheric administration and the public health service Protective masks serve how many functions? Two - filter air and purify How many traits are evaluated on the evaluation report and counseling record? What is the storage requirement for hazardous materials stored on weather decks or other exposed areas? Must be shielded from direct sunlight What training is an important part of the Navys leadership continuum? General Military Training Where would you find information about your civilian education before you entered the Navy? Page 4 What form should you submit to indicate your duty preference? How are carbon-zinc batteries disposed when out at sea? Retained on board in a steel container until port How are exhausted mercury cells disposed out at sea? Retained on board submerged in water in a steel container until port What Navy directive should be consulted for the disposal of lithium cells? OPNAV 5090.1 series What is the maximum operating temperature for lead-acid batteries? 125 degrees F Why is Cathode-Ray Tube (CRT) hazardous when its energized? Because the anode operates from high voltage and it emits X-rays What must be done to a non-radioactive electron tube before it is disposed of at sea? The glass envelope must be broken

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CPR should be started within how many minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest? Four The average adult body contains about how much blood? 5 quarts (4.75 liters) What was the Navys first warship to use steam? What is the maximum magazine capacity of the M16A1 rifle? 30 rounds What is the muzzle velocity of the M16A1 and M16A2 rifles? 3,000 feet per second What means is used to adjust the rear sights of the M16A2 rifle? A windage knob and an elevation knob What is the first step to take when handling any weapon? Point the selector lever toward safe What type of budgeting does the Navy use to figure the cost when purchasing a ship? Zero-based What is an anchor considered? Equipage What formula is used to figure the three month Usage rate for fast-moving items? Dividing last months usage by 3 What is the purpose of using dunnage under material being stowed on deck? To protect against moisture What type of counseling is trying to change the person rather than dealing with the immediate problem? Nondirective counseling In 1955, as a result of this conflict, President Dwight D. Eisenhower prescribed a code of conduct should someone by captured by the enemy? Korean conflict In 1988, what president issued Executive Order 12633, amending the Code of Conduct to use gender neutral language? President Ronald Reagan What ship was captured and went on to serve on the enemys side during the revolutionary was and was later renamed the iris? Hancock How many articles pertaining to rules and regulations of the Navy were approved by congress in November 1775? 44 An individual may provide a voluntary gift of nominal value to a superior under what situations? Illness, marriage, and retirement What officer is ultimately responsible for the safe navigation of the ship? CO Prior to WW II the Navy had approximately how many ratings? 30 USS Demologos Who visited the sub polar region and proved conclusively that the icy land was, in fact, a continent? LT Charles Wilkes What were Americas first two wars with Great Britain? Revolutionary war and the war of 1812 What was the Navys first ship-of-the-line? USS Independence

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Military Requirements for PO3 and PO2
Human behavior is the result of attempts to satisfy certain what? Needs Human behavior is classified into what number of levels/groups? Five 1979 What level of human behavior is the most important? Survival True When dealing with people, what trait can you not change? Emotional makeup XO, Department Head, and CMC or equivalent In order to judge the progression of a job, what questions should you ask before you begin the job? Who, what, when, where, and how What are the four Bs for reporting a status to a superior? Be on time, be accurate, be brief, and be gone During class discussion what questioning technique should be used? Thought provoking What type of feedback is given when job performance standards are not being met? Constructive feedback The purpose of what program is to promote the personal development of NAVY members in order to contribute to their self-satisfaction, morale, and quality of life? Personal excellence program How many active duty members is required for a base to have a family service center? 500 What campaign was started in 1996 to improve the quality of life for NAVY members and their families and to ensure a safe and productive work environment? Right spirit Which core value is accountable for my professional and personal behavior? Honor Which core value gives me the moral and mental strength to do what is right? Courage Which core value is to join together as a team to improve the quality of our work? Commitment What page in your service record is your enlisted qualification sheet? Page 4 Which part of a Page 2 is the application for dependency allowances? First LDO applicants must have at least _______ years of service but not more than ________ years? 8; 16 Which part of a Page 2 provides an immediately accessible, up-to-date record of emergency data for casualty reporting and notification of the next of kin? Second CWO applicants must have ________ years of service but not more than ________ years? 12; 24 What location offers intense and comprehensive drug and alcohol rehabilitation for active duty members? ARC (Alcohol Rehab Center) A person should exercise at least how many times a week? Three What provides centralized oversight of career Petty Officers with identified performance or behavior deficiencies? Petty Officer quality control program The responsibility for preventing inappropriate relationships rests primarily on whom? The senior member What SECNAVINST defines sexual harassment? SECNAVINST 5300.26C What three people are mandatory members of the Command Assessment Team (CAT)? The Family Support Center offers programs for married Sailors only. True or False The personal excellence program focuses externally on our Nations school through what grade? 12th grade What year was the family support program established?

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While serving as a member of the __________ _________, you may be ordered to active duty without your consent. Fleet Reserve What is the primary mission of the Navy? Any enlisted member of the regular Navy who has completed at least 30 years of active federal service is on what list? Navy retired list As a retired member, you may be ordered to active duty in time of war or national emergency at the discretion of whom? The Secretary of the Navy What list is composed of members of the naval reserve who are entitled to receive retired pay? Naval Reserve retired list CNO What pay grade must you be to be eligible for the CWO program? E-7 or above 1966 Whats the maximum length of service allowed for an application to the CWO program? 24 years What is the official history of a persons Navy career located in? Service record What is the first page of your service record? Enlistment contract What side of a service record are Evaluations and awards on? Left side Transfer to the Fleet Reserve is at least how many years of active duty? 20 years What identifies special knowledge and skills in specific billets or manpower categorized? NEC What does NEC stand for? Navy Enlisted Classification The DOD is headed by whom? Secretary of Defense Who is the Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) responsible to? The President Who is the most senior officer in the armed forces? Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff How long shall the President and his Vice President serve? Four years Can the President declare war? No Can the President send troops into action before congress has declared war? Yes The Secretary of Defense is a member of what cabinet? The Presidential cabinet and the National Security Council What article of the Constitution gives the President his powers? Article II, Section I The MCPON is assigned to what office? Chief of Naval Operations Who is responsible for assigned shore based education and training of the Navy? CNET (Chief of Naval Education and Training) Who plans the amount of education and training needed by the Navy personnel to meet manpower requirements? Chief of Naval Personnel What command acquires and disposes of real estate for the Navy and manages Navy family housing? COMNAVFACENGCOM (Commander Naval Facilities Engineering Command) also known as NAVFAC What year was the Master Chief of the Navy created? To protect the United States What office monitors and evaluates congressional proceedings and actions that affect the Department of the Navy? Office of Legislative Affairs Who is the naval member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff? CNO What officer takes precedence above all other officers of the naval service? Who serves as the spokesman for the commanders of the unified combatant commands? Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

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Which fleet covers more than 50% of the Earths surface? Pacific Fleet Hazard communication standard What command enhances the war fighting capability of the Navy by arming our sailors, marines, and civilians with the knowledge they need to save lives and preserve resources? COMNACSAFEEN Who is directly responsible to SECNAV for the administration, discipline, internal organization, training requirements, efficiency, readiness, and total performance of the Marine Corps? The Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC) The Pacific Fleet is divided into what two separate fleets? 3rd and 7th Fleet What agency performs all necessary contract audit functions for the DOD and provides accounting and financial advisory services to all defense components responsible for procurement and contract administration? Defense contract audit agency What agency to the U.S. Biological, weapons, as weapons? is responsible for threat reduction and its allies from Nuclear, Chemical (NBC), and other special well as advanced conventional What program was established to protect your rights and to ensure personnel comply with OSHA and EPA regulations? Hazardous material control and management How often is Hazardous Materials Information System (HMIS) distributed? Quarterly For information on solvents, refer to what NSTM? 631 When handling organic-cleaning solvents, what PPE should you wear? Neoprene gloves, safety splash goggles, and protective coveralls MOPP levels are flexible. True The threat of a CBR attack can be categorized into how many levels of probability? Four What agency is responsible for providing timely, relevant, and accurate imagery, imagery intelligence, and geo-spatial info in support of the national security objectives of the U.S.? National imagery and mapping agency On the command level, the safety council meets at what intervals? Monthly In what document would you find the basic guidelines and standardized procedures for tagout? SORN How many documents does the tag-out log contain? Three For non-nuclear ships what interval are tag-out audits conducted? Every two weeks What does OSHA stand for? Occupation Safety and Health Administration Chemical decontamination underway When using Navy standard damage control symbology, a triangle over the letter c indicates what situation? During what MOPP level is individual protective equipment issued? MOPP level 1 What MOPP level is the protective mask carried on person? MOPP level 2 What minimum amount of water does your body need per day? Two quarts What PMS document contains a listing of the parts, tools, and materials you will need for a force draft air blower? Maintenance Requirement Card Information on special qualifications such as aircrew, coxswain, and special warfare can be found in what reference? NAVPERS 15560 True or False Storage areas for chlorinated cleaning solvents should be monitored regularly by whom? Gas-free engineer OSHA passed a regulation that requires all civilian and military employees to comply with what regulation?

Defense Threat Reduction Agency

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A total of how many injections of atropine may be injected into an individual without medical supervision? Three Refrigerated spaces aboard ship should only be entered for a few minutes at a time for what reason? High levels of carbon dioxide What is the primary goal of Total Quality Leadership (TQL)? Increased productivity What repair locker item contains come-alongs and chain falls? Lifting gear If you see another ship polluting, what action should you take? Notify the OOD A guide to preparing, maintaining, and submitting the ships deck log may be found in what publication? OPNAVISNT 3100.7B What does the code of conduct direct you to do as soon as you are captured? Begin planning your escape What individual is responsible for rescuing personnel from damage aircraft? Crash and salvage crewman The U.S. imports approximately what percentage of the manganese needed to make steel? 85% If the barometer falls .04 inch or more in one hour, the POOW should notify who? OOD Because of the volume of water needed to put out a large fire at sea, the fire party team must take corrective action to prevent what occurrence? Excess water affecting the stability of the ship, causing it to list What materials can be used effectively to decontaminate water? High-test hypochlorite What units are exempted from ships 3-m systems reporting? Fleet ballistic missile weapons systems and civilian maintained service craft The U.S. coast guard was first established as the United States Revenue Marine in what year? 1790

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Military Requirements for PO1
What is the form called that outlines all planned operations, assist visits, inspections, and ports of call for all afloat commands? Annual employment schedule Are counseling sheets entered in the service record? No What do these documents have in common: documents that establish policy; those which center on changes to the commands mission and are addressed to a higher authority; those which deal with certain aspects of military justice; those required by law or regulation? Documents the CO cannot delegate to sign What are the four message precedence categories and their pro signs? Routine (R), Priority (R), Immediate (O), and Flash (Z) There is one other message precedence for the emergency command, what is it? Y All message directives are automatically cancelled in how many days? 90 days What is the DON correspondence manual? SECNAVINST 5216.5 What is the most frequently used memorandum? From-to type How many SSIC groups are there? 14 Sentences should generally be how many words or less? 20 On the NAVPERS 1626/7, how should you list an offender who has violated a single article more than once? In Arabic numerals in parenthesis What article of the UCMJ contains the rights of the accused? 31 Category 3 What article of the UCMJ deals with the right to remain silent? 31B DD form 149 What type of punishment states that the member continues to perform his duties buy may be required to muster at certain places and times? Restriction duty Mishap What is the term Used to describe an unplanned event that interrupts work and produces damage and/or injury? Application for correction of military or naval records is what form? What category is an act of misconduct recorded as a conviction in a civilian criminal trial, or a military court martial or recorded as the subject of NJP under article 15? Counseling and directing What article of the NAVY regulations explains an individuals rights when it comes to evaluations? Article What misconduct category deals with misconduct that was the subject of a completed criminal trial, court martial, and NJP proceeding but resulted in an acquittal of a finding of not guilty? Category 3 What misconduct category is not the subject of a completed criminal trial, court martial, of NJP proceeding but is established through reliable evidence to the satisfaction of the reporting senior? Category 2 Who may impose arrest in quarters on commissioned or warrant officers? Flag or general officers in command or officers exercising GCM authority Punitive censure on enlisted personnel either orally or in writing but must impose it on commissioned and Warrant Officers in writing is known as what? Admonition and reprimand Permanent loss of entitlement is known as what? Forfeiture of pay What log is used to make a formal supply inventory and it contains all supplies in your division? OPTAR log What log describes deficiencies and missing equipment in each of your spaces? Equipment deficiencies log What is the most effective way to inform personnel of their standing in the division? Counseling What two categories is leadership divided into?

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Paragraphs in a naval letter, what information should you include in the first paragraph? 4 to 5 To handle battle casualties, most ships have what minimum number of battle dressing stations? Two What is ASUW? What officer is responsible for the administration of the CBR defense bill? Damage Control Assistant (DCA) Your signature on the tag-out log after an audit serves what purpose? That the log is verified up to that date The primary cause of injury to topside personnel who are exposed to a nuclear air blast is what? Bodily displacement The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the Use of conventional nuclear weapons is known as what? Strike A heat stress survey should be conducted whenever the work station dry-bulb reading exceeds what temperature? 100 degrees F If a person receives a heavy concentration of a choking agent, death may occur within what approximate length of time? Three (3) hours The national military strategy rests on what three basic pillars? Deterrence, forward defense, and alliance solidarity What does the triad of strategic nuclear forces consist of? Ballistic missiles, intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs), and long-range bombers What type of missiles is the Strategic Air Commands (SAC) intercontinental ballistic missile force composed of? Minuteman missiles and peacekeeper ICBMs A strike is an attack intended to what? Inflict damage, seize, or destroy an objective What was the first fleet ballistic missile (FBM) submarine launched in 1959? George Washington (SSBN 598) Naval warfare involves what three major areas? Surface ASUW, subsurface ASW, and air AAW Intelligence What term is defined as the assessment and management of information obtained via surveillance, reconnaissance, and other means? What term is meant by the Use of conventional or nuclear weapons in the destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore? Strike Warfare Where is Second Fleet located? Atlantic ocean CINCLANTFLT Where is the Sixth Fleet located? Mediterranean Sea CINCUSNAVEUR Where is the Third Fleet located? West coast of the United States CINCPACFLT Where is the Seventh Fleet? Western pacific and Indian ocean CINCPACFLT Where is the Fifth Fleet? Middle East CENTCOM What was the first trident submarine launched? Ohio SSBN-726 What is a SAG? Surface Action Group What term is defined as attacks launched from the sea onto an enemy shore? Amphibious warfare What term is defined as the use of mines and mine countermeasures to control sea or harbor areas? Mine warfare What term is defined as nonconventional in nature and usually conducted in secrecy? Special warfare What term is defined as the observation of ocean areas to detect, locate, and classify selected air, surface, and subsurface targets? Ocean surveillance The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships What is AAW? The destruction of enemy aircraft and airborne weapons What is ASW? The destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines

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What term is defined as the effective Use of the electromagnetic spectrum by friendly forces while determining, reducing, or preventing its Use by an enemy? Electronic warfare SSBN What term is defined as the resupply of combat consumables to combatant forces during operations? Logistics What type of aircraft is the Hornet? What is the shipboard integrated AAW combat weapons system? Aegis How many targets can the aegis system track at once? Over 100 Extended range standard missile What is the Navys medium-range, rocket boosted, and turbo-sustained cruise missile? Harpoon What is the Navys first all-weather, automatic controlled gun system designed to provide defense against close in, sea skimming cruise missiles? The Close In Weapons System (CIWS) Phalanx Torpedo What air to air missile was introduced to the fleet with the F-14 aircraft in 1974? Phoenix What is the Navys all weather, submarine or surface launched long-range subsonic cruise missile? Tomahawk Refresher training What is the ability to deploy and employ without unacceptable delays? Readiness What instruction do ships base all drills and basic bills from? SORM Who conducts an inspection to ensure the ships propulsion system is safe? PEB (Propulsion Examination Board) What inspection tests the ability of the crew and ship to operate in battle under wartime conditions? ORI (Operational Readiness Instruction) What type of ships is the Ticonderoga class? Daily CG What type of ship is the Oliver Hazard Perry? FFG When you assess your workers job performance, you should look at what following areas? Attitude, knowledge, and work habits To ensure your work center meets the deadlines set for the completion of tasks, which factors must you properly manage? Personnel, material, and time Which resource within your division is the most important in accomplishing a task? Personnel and materials Should a little time be spent in your office in the morning and afternoon, then the rest of your time should be spent in the work area? True or False True As a minimum, how often should you assess your divisions personnel and material readiness? What is a BGM-109? Tomahawk cruise missile What type of training is designed to turn a materially ready and manned ship into a ship that is fully capable of performing its assigned mission? The RGM-84 is what type of missile? Harpoon Anti-ship missile What is an AIM-54? Phoenix air to air missile What is a MK-48? F/A-18 The RIM-66 is what type of missile? Standard surface to air The RIM-67 is what type of missile? What type of aircraft is the Tomcat? F-14 What type of ship is the Arleigh Burke? DDG What type of ship is the Ohio?

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To keep abreast of the knowledge and experience of your personnel, you should randomly review each members what? Training record At a minimum, how often should you take inventory so that you will know when to order additional supplies? Weekly Which of the following logs is used by your division or department to maintain its supply inventory? OPTAR Each command should ensure all hand and power tools are assigned serial numbers? True or False True What is the work centers most valuable resource? Personnel Based on the ships overall manpower, how are TAD requirements usually allocated? By department Which schedule allows for losses in manpower, logistic problems, work stoppages, and personnel training? Work center schedule All schedules are developed from the annual employment schedule? True or False True Jobs on your work center schedule are listed in what order? Priority What writing instrument should be used to fill out a work center schedule and time line? Pencil After your schedule is approved, what requirement should be met? Goals Including your junior Petty Officers in the planning process prevents what from occurring? Misunderstandings How many goal setting elements should you consider when setting goals within the work center? Six Drafter Keeping abreast of changes prevents crisis management for occurring? True or False True Drafter Who is responsible for the proper addressing of messages? If you Use a facsimile stamp of someones signature, what should appear nest to the signature to authenticate the facsimile? Your initials A naval message should be used instead of a NAVGRAM under what circumstance? The communication is urgent and speed is of primary importance After a naval message has been prepared and signed by the drafter, which person releases the message? The delegated releasing officer Who is responsible for the validation of the contents of a message? The releaser Who is responsible for the selection of message precedence? As major job completion dates near, you should never allow what situation to happen? Neglect minor jobs Assigning your junior Petty Officers challenging jobs will increase what skill? Leadership The work center supervisor has the complete responsibility for completion of a job? True or False False When delegating authority, you should delegate to which competent level to develop your subordinates? Lowest You should inform your subordinates of their standing in the division in what way? By the use of counseling Who generates letters of instruction and command counseling sheets? Both the work center supervisor and the division officer Counseling sheets and letters of instruction are entered in a members service record? True or False False When you attend department meetings, remember to check what factor before the meeting? Work progress

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What is the highest precedence normally authorized for administrative messages? Priority 15 minutes What precedence is identified by the pro sign 0? Immediate Sergeant of the Guard Messages addressed to an address Indicator Groups (AIGs) would most likely contain what type of information? Destructive storm warnings DAPA When a message is unclassified, what word or abbreviation should appear on the classification line? UNCLASS Force commander A message re-addressal refers to what kind of message? One transmitted to an activity that is not an addressee on the original draft Unless otherwise directed, all naval message directives are automatically canceled after what maximum period of time? 90 days Minimize requires message drafters and releasers to make what consideration? That electrical transmission is essential A rough draft of naval correspondence to be reviewed by a drafting officer should contain what? One subject, clearly and concisely written What should be your first concern in drafting correspondence? Purpose When organizing a naval letter, what information should you include in the first paragraph? Purpose of the letter Division damage control Petty Officers are normally assigned for what minimum period of time? Six months Who is responsible for carrying out the requirements of command damage control training? XO Authority has what two categories? The Navy rights and responsibilities workshop is conducted by what group? Command Training Team (CTT) General and organizational What are the two types of naval messages? Naval and routine correspondence What are the different types of recognition for subordinates? Sailor of the Quarter, LOA, meritorious LOC, advancement, and NAM Systems, fundamentals, and watch stations/maintenance actions What is used to maintain an inventory of people available in a command? EDVR What does EDVR stand for? Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report What provides a computer printout of the number of personnel in each rate aboard a command? EDVR What provides a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries not provided on other pages of the service record? Page 13 You can recommend subordinates with how many different types of recognition? Five (5) One definition of a problem drinker is one who must drink to function or to cope with life. Who does the NAVY define alcoholism? Depending on alcohol psychologically and/or physiologically Each personnel qualification standard is divided into what subdivision(s)? The number of tag-out logs that each ship class must maintain is specified by which of the following individuals? Who is responsible to the co for carrying out the policies of the Navy drug and alcohol abuse program (NADSAP)? On ships having a marine detachment, brow and pier sentries report to whom? After a compartment has been flooded with co2, what minimum length of time should you wait before opening the compartment?

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Who ensures that commands do not wait for discriminatory incidents to occur? CMEO What does CMEO stand for? Command Managed Equal Opportunity Equal opportunity can be observed from what two perspectives? Personnel and administration Command personnel make up what two teams that evaluate and assess its equal opportunity status? CAT (Command Assessment Team) and CTT (Command Training Team) What are the three methods to enforce equal opportunity? Warning (counseling), NJP, and discharge from the Navy Who can be awarded confinement on bread and water? E-3 and below personnel embarked on a vessel What type of pay can be taken at NJP? Forfeiture of pay and detention of pay Recruits are tested within how many hours of arrival at basic training? 48 hours Basic pay, sea pay, and foreign duty pay Who authorizes the Use of urinalysis for disciplinary purposes? DOD Exercise authority over subordinates Opium and drugs made from opium, such as heroin, codeine and morphine are referred to as what type of drug? Narcotics The change in the sensitivity of the brain when drinking is called what? Tolerance The NAVY provides alcohol abuse prevention and rehab programs on how many levels? Three When are new recruits tested for drugs? What is alcohol abuse prevention level one? Within 48 hours of arrival Local command program What is alcohol abuse prevention level two? CAAC (Counseling And Assistance Center) Marijuana What is alcohol abuse prevention level three? Residential rehab program How many drug screening laboratories does the Navy have? Five During boot camp all recruits are tested for drugs, if they fail they are separated immediately except for the Use of what drug? When do punishments awarded at mast take effect? The general rule is immediately but a co may defer confinement up to 15 days THC is found in what drug? Marijuana Can officers receive extra duty? No, only enlisted Arrest in quarters means that an officer may not what? How long is a person to remain in an aftercare status? 180 days Who conducts onboard alcohol screening as directed by the co? DAPA When does the CTT conduct training? Periodically or when the command receives a great enough assignment of new personnel What powers does the XO have over a report chit? He may dismiss it but he can never award punishment What are the three ways the cat collects command information? Surveys, interviews, and observations What way is more likely to uncover real issues and problems? Interviews What does JAG stand for? Judge Advocate General How long should detention of pay not exceed? One year What types of pay can be forfeited?

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What subject is not covered during the Navy rights and responsibilities workshop? Combatant skills Information concerning equal opportunity contained in command records may not be obtained through what method? Training Volatile chemical abuse is usually indicated by what condition? Smell of the chemical on the breath The number one drug problem in the United States is the abuse of what substance? Alcohol The authority which is granted to all officers and Petty Officers to fulfill their duties and responsibilities is known as what type of authority? General The authority that an individual may hold by virtue of assignment to a specific billet within an organizational unit of the Navy is known as what type of authority? Organizational General responsibilities and duties of all officers and Petty Officers within the Navy are under what article? Article 1037 The right to exercise authority over all subordinate personnel is under what article? Article 1020 As a Petty Officer you have the authority to issue orders. Subordinates are required to follow your orders only if your orders are what? Lawful What article of the UCMJ allows Non-Judicial Punishment to be awarded? Article 15 What person has the authority to administer Non-Judicial Punishment? CO What actions may be taken to correct military deficiencies in junior personnel? Withhold privileges and assign Extra Military Instruction (EMI) What action to correct a military or professional deficiency can be awarded only through Non-Judicial Punishment? Assign extra duty When making duty assignments such as general quarters stations or a cleaning station, who should be assigned responsibility for that duty? A specific person An action or talk required by ones position that is expected or required by moral or legal obligation is a duty. Duties fall into what categories? Military and administrative The ships watch organization is second in importance only to the organization for battle. What personnel is/are responsible for understanding the watch organization? All hands The messing assignments, liberty boat assignments, and collision station assignments are all in what bill? The watch, quarter, and station bill Who should approve changes to the divisions watch, quarter, and station bill? XO Billet numbers on the watch, quarter, and station bill consist of either four numerals or a letter and three numerals. What do the last two numerals indicate? Section seniority In what publication will you find the description of the duties, responsibilities, and authority of a Division Officer? Standard organization and regulations of the U.S. Navy For what reason would in not be appropriate for a supervisor to extend an individuals normal working hours? To perform work as punishment for substandard performance of duty Which person has the final authority to withhold a privilege? CO EMI is assigned in periods not to exceed two hours daily The temporary withholding of privileges is an effective tool in correcting a minor infraction of a military regulation. What privilege cannot be withheld as part of this non-punitive measure? Normal liberty When EMI is assigned to correct a military deficiency, what limitation is normally observed?

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Responsibility for ensuring division members are aware of their watch, quarter, and station bill assignments is delegated to what person? Division officer Who acts as an overall training supervisor? The watch, quarter, and station bill should be updated at approximately what minimum frequency? Continually What management tools should be used by the Division Officer to maintain a current watch, quarter, and station bill? Division notebook PQS Coordinator What bill provides detailed procedures for every emergency that can occur; a plan for salvaging captured enemy vessels, and an organization of the crew to handle the effects of a major emergency? Emergency bill What officer is responsible for the administration of the CBR defense bill? Damage Control Assistant During the emergency destruction of classified material, what material should be destroyed first? Top secret special access material PQS does not apply to what system? Occupational standards Nuclear propulsion systems Each personnel qualification standard is divided into what subdivisions? Systems, fundamentals, and watch stations/maintenance actions 100 series of a PQS serves as what? Self-study aid for the trainee 200 series of a PQS serves as what? Breaks the subject equipment into smaller, more easily understood sections 300 series of a PQS serves as what? Test the trainees readiness to perform a designated task What series addresses specific or unique safety precautions? 200 series Sign-off authority for final PQS qualification may be delegated to what minimum level of authority? Department Head Who recommends interim qualification of watch standers? Department Head What commissioning program provides the Navy with officers who are technical specialists in their fields? Chief Warrant Officer program What maximum number of years of active service can a Master Chief Petty Officer serve and still be eligible to apply for the Chief Warrant Officer program? 24 years The enlisted service record contains both official and unofficial papers? True or False True The actual service record is contained on which side of the enlisted service record? Right Personnel advancement requirements (pars) must be completed before you can participate in what? In the Navy wide advancement exam NAVY wide advancement exams are based on what standards? XO Who is responsible for ordering all departmental PQS material? PQS Coordinator Who is responsible for maintaining PQS software? Who designates in writing those individuals authorized to act as qualifiers? CO

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Military Requirements for Chief Petty Officer
Most pesticides fall into what type of category? Nonselective What term identifies abatement? Lowering Safety shoes, hard hat, and gloves Under the clean air act, what government body has the primary responsibility for assuring air quality? Each state Pull the load up, push the load down The first priority of the investigator of a mishap is to determine who caused the mishap? True or False False What time after a mishap is ideal for beginning an investigation? 12 minutes What evidence should you not try to obtain during a mishap investigation? Sworn statements from witnesses The handbook for the conduct of forces afloat safety investigations contains a checklist for common investigations in what appendix? II Required survival training should include what topics? Leaving assigned spaces, fundamental first aid, and survival equipment What type of information is contained in material safety data sheets (MSDS)? Hazmat information Once every five seconds What is the major concern of NAVY personnel aboard small boats? Crew safety and passenger safety When handling lines or taking part in underway replenishment, you must always wear what article of safety equipment? Inherently buoyant life jacket What hazards are associated with jet aircraft on flight decks? Being blown overboard, being burned by jet exhaust, and being sucked into jet intakes Besides fuel and ammo handling spaces, smoking is prohibited in what areas? Flight deck and the hangar deck Lifelines are used for what purpose? To prevent personnel from being washed overboard The mouth to nose technique for administering artificial ventilation is effective on what type of victims? If the victim is very young or has extensive facial injuries CPR should be started within how many minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest? Four minutes When using the one rescuer CPR technique, you should give how many ventilations after each set of compressions? Two What structural component is the backbone of a ship? Keel Before going over the side or aloft to work, you must obtain permission from what person? OOD The objective for first aid is what? Save lives, limit infection, and prevent further injury In administering first aid, you are responsible for performing what tasks? Stop bleeding, maintain breathing, and prevent or treat shock Under what circumstance should you touch an open wound with your fingers? Only when absolutely necessary to stop severe bleeding A person who has stopped breathing is considered dead? True or False False When using the mouth-to-mouth technique for administering artificial ventilation, how often should you force air into the victims lungs? When using a hand truck to move loads on a ramp, you should move the hand truck in what way? You should not paint scaffolding for what reason? Paint conceals defects What safety items should you Use when handling cargo?

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What structural component divides the interior of a ship into compartments? Bulkheads 15 What structural component forms the ships hull? Strakes Non punitive The vertical distance from the bottom of the keel to the waterline of the ship is identified by what nautical term? Draft What structural components support decks? Athwart ships deck, beams, fore and aft deck girders, and stanchions The freeing ports that let water run off during heavy weather are identified by what term? Flats Score What term defines the first complete deck below the main deck? The second deck The device that bears up tight on wedges and holds watertight doors closed is identified by what term? Dogs What term defines the horizontal openings for access through decks? Hatches What term defines the solid part of a ship above the main deck? Superstructure What is the purpose of running rigging? To hoist, lower, or control booms or boats Commissioned ships of the U.S. NAVY fly a commission pennant that is secured to what point? To a pig stick and hoisted to a truck A Petty Officer receives general authority from what document? U.S. Navy regulations A Petty Officer receives organizational authority from what document? U.S. Navy SORM Any order imposing punishment outside the framework of the UCMJ is unlawful? True or False True A person, who has 5 years and 11 months of active military service, reenlists for a period of six years. This person could reenlist for an SRB zone b bonus at the end of his obligated service? True or False False What educational program provides 100% of the tuition cost for active duty personnel regardless of rank, pay grade, or length of service? Tuition Assistance (TA) What program enables personnel to achieve journeyman status in recognized civilian trades? National Apprenticeship Program If you die on active duty, your spouse would receive a lump sum payment of $3,000 in what kind of payment? Death gratuity What types of reenlistment offers guaranteed advancement to Petty Officer second class for qualified personnel after completion of c school? Selective Training and Re-Enlistment (STAR) and Selected Conversion On Re-Enlistment (SCORE) When does SGLI coverage terminate after separation from active duty? 120 days What organization offers the only supplemental insurance endorsed by the NAVY? Navy mutual aid society When are you allowed malt payments? When you travel by a privately owned vehicle during PCS move Emi can be assigned for what maximum number of hours per day? 2 hours Emi cannot be assigned and conducted on a persons Sabbath? True or False True What type of reenlistment applies to personnel who desire to convert to a critically undermanned rating? EMI is classified as what type of corrective action? A Petty Officer can take certain measures to correct minor infractions under what article of the UCMJ?

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A CPO serving on active duty with 17 years of service is eligible for what officer programs? CWO Daily A married 20 year old Petty Officer Second Class, with 12 years of education, is eligible for what officer program? BOOST A dependent parent of an active duty sailor qualifies for CHAMPUS benefits? True or False True A dependent parent-in-law of an active duty service member qualifies for treatment under the uniformed services health benefits program? True or False True Submarines may discharge negatively buoyant compacted trash not less than 12nm from the US coastline only if the water depth is greater than how many fathoms? 1,000 fathoms The Navys land management program involves what effort? Soil and water conservation Easing the problems that naval personnel and their families face during transfers to new duty stations is the purpose of what program? Navy sponsor program What program provides information and support for NAVY personnel who are guests in foreign lands? Overseas duty support program What two methods of data collecting by the cat require other data sources to be used to draw conclusions and produce findings that can be validly interpreted? Interview and observations NJP is better known in the Navy by what title? Captains Mast Correspondence courses, onboard training packages, and computer aided training belong to what training category? Self study What is the most common cause of mishaps in the Navy? Lack of knowledge or skill What method will you find to be most effective when teaching safety habits? Hands on practice What contaminant is formed from condensation of vaporized solids? Fumes What contaminant results from the incomplete combustion of coal, wood, and oil? Smoke Fine liquid droplets suspended in air by condensation or atomization will cause what contaminant? Mist Small solid particles created by the breaking up of larger particles by machine shop tools will cause what contaminant? Dust If you disclose information about a person to unauthorized personnel, you could be fined up to what maximum amount? $5,000 dollars Talk is permitted when you are under what command? Rest How many movements are used to perform the about face command? Two Your rights are found under what UCMJ article? 31 A worker should wear double hearing protection when working around noise sources above what prescribed sound level? 104db When protective devices do not provide noise reduction to a level below 84DB, what action should be taken? Reduce exposure time The basic guidance for NAVOSH is contained in what pub? OPNAVINST 5100.23B What is the most common work related source of noise? High speed tools Equipment or spaces should be labeled as hazardous if noise is produced at which of the following sound levels? Between 80db and 110db First line supervisors should hold random, informal inspections for hazards at least how often?

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The preliminary inquiry officer completes what section of the NAVPERS 1626/7? Section E Under article 15 of the UCMJ, the co has how many punishments identified that he or she can impose at mast? Nine (9) Arrest in quarters may only be imposed on what NAVY personnel? E-1 through E-9 and CWO2 through CWO4 Confinement on bread and water has maximum duration of how many days? Three days What punishment is considered the most severe form of NJP? Reduction in grade Under article 15 of the UCMJ, you have how many days to appeal the punishment awarded to you if you feel that it was unjust or disproportionate? Five days Withholding of a privilege rests with what authority? The person that granted the privilege When an enlisted person violates a regulation in the presence of both an officer and a Petty Officer, who is responsible for correcting the violator? Petty Officer The results of a preliminary inquiry of an alleged offense are given to whom? XO Under article 31 of the UCMJ, special caution is cited for what area? Preservation of the accused rights A command with 250 military personnel must have at least how many Command Training Team (CTT) members? Four members What factors are used when gathering command demographic information? Age, gender, and race What term identifies the port and starboard halves of a yard? Yardarms What is the additional ship control space Used by the squadron commander or admiral called? Flag bridge If the use of a battle dressing is required, who should loosen/remove it? Medical personnel To control bleeding, what method should you try first? Direct pressure How is arterial bleeding from a cut near the surface of the skin indicated? Gushing spurts of bright red blood What type of ship is the center of a modern naval task force or task group? Aircraft carrier Approximately how many aircraft are embarked on Nimitz class carriers? 85 What class of cruiser is designated as battle force capable? Ticonderoga What class destroyer represents a return to all steel construction? Arleigh Burke Class What is not a mission for frigates? Open ocean escort and patrol What class of submarines has the quietest operation? Seawolf The Ohio class ballistic submarine has how many trident missile tubes? 24 What is one of the most reliable indications of a blocked airway? Inability to speak What minimum amount of blood loss usually causes a person to go into shock? Two pints How many types of ships are included in the warship category? Six In what part of a ship is main control normally located? Boiler or machinery space Ships of the U.S. Navy are divided into how many categories? Four

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Shock will never be serious enough to cause death? True or False False What is the basic position for treating shock? Putting the head lower than the feet What Navy personnel are the most frequent victims of suicide? Males between the ages of 17 and 24 in pay grades E-1 to E-6 When working aloft, you can receive a shock from what pieces of gear? Ladders, guy wires and metal fittings Accidents involving steam usually occur in what working spaces? Engine rooms and fire rooms A person overcome by carbon monoxide has what symptoms? Sudden feeling of weakness, headache and drowsiness What person is authorized to certify that a closed space is safe to enter? Gas free engineer When entering a space that previously held petroleum products, you should wear what recommended breathing device? Air-line respirator Projectile-type ammunition that is 3 inches or greater in diameter can be identified by what method? Color code Aboard ship, where are pyrotechnic materials usually stored? In stowage spaces on topside decks The OBA can be used for what situation? Fighting a fire in a void Respirator cartridges use what means for identifying the type of contaminant against what they are useful? Color codes Prolonged exposure of personnel to excessive heat and humidity while under a continued work load can result in what condition? Heat stress What effect is known to be caused by overexposure to RF radiation? An increase in body temperature A person who has taken an overdose of cocaine may experience what reaction? Death Hair should be tapered from the lower hairline upward by at least how many inches? inch Chevrons on rating badges worn on the pea coat of both male and female sailors measure 3 inches wide? True or False False (womens are 2 inch wide) How far from the front and lower edge of the collar is the collar device placed? 1 inch The hat device is centered on the front of the ball cap how many inches above the visor? 1 Drinking a large amount of cough medication is a common method of abusing what drug? Codeine A drug abuser who suffers long periods of time without sleeping or eating is probably abusing what type of drug? Stimulants A person who abuses heroin develops a tolerance for the drug. How does this tolerance affect the persons reaction to the drug? Larger doses are required for the same affect A drug abuser deeply under the influence of narcotics displays what characteristic? Lethargy What paraphernalia found in a locker is an indication that the person is a narcotics abuser? Bent spoons, eye droppers and cotton balls Safety limitations for exposure to RF radiation have been established by the naval medical command. These limits are based on what criteria? Beam power density and exposure time What zone describes behaviors that violate personal space? Yellow What is the most valuable detection and deterrence tool used by the Navy to identify drug abusers? Urinalysis testing Each urinalysis sample is tested how many minimum number of times by one of the Navys screening labs? Three times

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The LHA carries what means of defense against a surface and air attack? Five inch guns only Note: This question is outdated as the five inch gun was removed from LHA TARAWA class ships more than ten years ago. They are now outfitted with RAM and CIWS. How many troops can be embarked in, transported by, and landed by the WASP class LHDs? 2,000 troops What is the purpose of the dock landing ships (LSD)? To transport a variety of amphibious craft and vehicles with embarked crews and troops When a sailor is placed on report, what form is filled out? NAVPERS 1626/7 What chapter of the NVAY Regs discusses the origin of Navy Regs? Chapter 1 Who must approve all additions, changes or deletions to Navy Regs? Secretary of the Navy 1157 Chapter 3 of the Navy Regs outlines the responsibilities of whom? Secretary of the Navy 1158 Chapter 4 of the Navy Regs outlines the responsibilities of whom? CNO Chapter 8 of the Navy Regs describes the general authority and responsibilities of whom? CO Alcoholic beverages is what article? Chapter 2 of the Navy Regs discusses the origin and authority of whom? Department of defense Authority over subordinates is what article? 1021 Delegation of authority is what article? 1022 Abuse of authority is what article? 1023 Authority in a boat is what article? 1033 Last Authority of a sentry is what article? 1038 1162 Chapter 7 of the Navy Regs deals with what? Safety Chapter 8 of the Navy Regs deals with what? Training What contains a complex package of treaties, protocol, and executive agreements between the U.S. and the individual country involved? Status Of Forces Agreement (SOFA) When investigating a report chit, when do you interrogate the accused? Possession of government property is what article? 1160 Possession of a weapon is what article? 1159 Quality and quantity of rations is what article? Language reflecting on a superior is what article? 1133 Exchange of duty is what article? 1134 Obligation to report offenses is what article? 1137 Responsibilities concerning marijuana, narcotics, and other controlled substances are contained in what article? 1138 Redress of wrong committed by a superior is what article? 1150 Direct communication with the co is what article? 1151 Leave and liberty is what article? Compliance with a lawful order is what article? 1132

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When investigating a report chit, who do you interrogate first? The person submitting the report chit 1125 article pertains to what? What document contains the rules for gathering evidence? Manual for Court Martial (MCM) 1984 DLA is equal to 1 month of what? Real evidence is considered what? BAQ Physical object You may question the accused only if he or she has knowingly and intelligently waived his or her what? Statutory rights Failure to obey any regulation subjects the offender to charges under what article? 92 0200 article covers what? 10 years Department of the Navy 0300 article pertains to what? SECNAV 0400 article pertains to what? CNO 25th year 0500 article pertains to what? Commandant of Marine Corps 0600 pertains to what? Coast Guard 0700 article pertains to what? No Commander in chief, commanders, and other big shots 0800 article pertains to what? No Skipper What is the maximum age for the naval academy? 0900 article pertains to what? 22 Senior officer present 1000 article pertains to what? Precedence, authority, and command 1100 article pertains to what? General articles CPO 1111 pertains to what? Pecuniary dealings with enlisted persons 1112 article pertains to what? Lending money and engaging in a trade or business Who serves as the president on a CPO selection board? Captain Each selection board usually consists of how many members? 50 What is generally the age limit for direct commission? 30 years old Who are the technical authorities, experts, and supervisors within a rating? Can you have dependents and apply for the Naval Academy? What grade of high school should you start to process your application to the naval academy? Junior year Can you be married and apply for the Naval Academy? For SRB no more than how many years of service is for Zone C? 14 years You can use the second GUARD III assignment anytime up to you what year of service? If you dont have a waiver you must retire after how many years of service? 30 years For SRB no more than how many years of service is for Zone A 6 years For SRB no more than how many years of service is for Zone B? Inspection of the record of a person in the naval service 1115 article pertains to what? Report of fraud

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Each selection board panel consists of at least one ______________ and _____________. Officer and Master Chief Who establishes the maximum quota for each rating and the number of selectees possible? Chief of Naval Personnel What type of General Message File (GMF) is prepared to announce the selectees? NAVOP Who has the final approval of the NAVOP and all the Chief selectees? Chief of Naval Personnel What is the maximum amount of leave you can sell back prior to retirement? 60 days What is the dependent care certificate instruction? OPNAV 1740.4 What year what the ombudsman program first set up? 1970 An officer has to have a minimum of how many years of active duty to have duty of CACO? Two years Can E-6 or below have the duty of CACO? AOE No Who initiated the Navys pride and professionalism program? CNO What year was the Navys pride and professionalism program initiated? 1980 Who initiated the latest addition to the pride and professionalism program (Core Values) Admiral Trost 100 feet What is the mental or moral strength that enables you to meet danger, stand up for your beliefs, and be honest? Courage 200 feet What is a true, faithful, strong devotion to your country, commitment or obligation known as? Loyalty What is soundness of moral character and ethical principles known as? Integrity Most fleet tugs are operated by what organization? Military Sealift Command Combatant craft usually operate in what areas? Coastal waters The AOE is designed to operate at what approximate distance between itself and the ship it is replenishing? What term applies to the transfer of fuel, munitions, supplies, and personnel from one vessel to another while ships are underway? Replenishment at sea A separation of what approximate distance is maintained between the replenishment ship and the ship it is replenishing? What type of auxiliary ship is a combat support ship? AOE Sonar and video systems/cable cutters and mine detonating devices What is the designator for an ammunition supply ship? AE What is the designation of ship used to deliver fuel, oil, jet fuel, and other petroleum products? AOE What is the designation of ship used to supply dry and refrigerated stores? Handing down of beliefs and customs from generation to generation is known as what? Tradition What is it to manage incompetently or dishonestly? Mismanagement The identification and reporting of fraud waste and abuse is known as what? Disclosure Who is the criminal and investigative organization for the DON? NCIS What means are used by Avenger class MCM to find, classify, and destroy moored and bottom mines?

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What burns is considered the most serious? Third degree burns Vertically, valve up A closed fracture is one where the skin is intact and an open fracture is one where the skin is broken? True or False True 15 minutes When choosing a material to use as a splint, you should choose material that has what characteristics? Light weight, fairly rigid and strong False What are the symptoms of a broken bone? Swelling, deformity and the inability to use the part What is the easiest way to carry an unconscious person? Firemans carry In compartments with access hatches that are too small to permit the use of regular stretchers, you would remove an injured person using what type of stretcher? Neil Robertson stretcher What common dental conditions can be prevented by making sure you develop the habit of good oral hygiene? Tooth decay, gun and bone disease and reddening of the gums Sexually transmitted diseases may be spread through the use of inanimate objects, such as toilet seats, bed linens, or drinking glasses? True or False False If left untreated, syphilis may cause what conditions? Heart disease, mental illness and blindness Carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and ammonia Sterility is the result of leaving what STD untreated? Gonorrhea OBA What disease has been named the number one priority of the US public health service? AIDS What person must approve the use of personal electrical equipment before you can use it aboard ship? Engineering Officer Breathing rate of the wearer Compartments used to store compressed gas cylinders should not be allowed to rise above what maximum temperature? 130 degrees When the filter canister for the MK V protective mask is left in its original hermetically sealed container, what is its shelf life? Indefinite The mechanical filter in the filtering system of protective masks clears the inhaled air of what kind of contaminants? Solid and liquid particles only The useful life of a mask filter element depends on what condition? When entering an area that has a deficiency of oxygen, you must wear what mask? A tool is classified as power driven if it has what type of power sources? Pneumatic, hydraulic, and electrical Personnel assigned to a fire watch during a welding operation must remain at their location for what minimum length of time after the job is completed? 30 minutes Compressed air can be used to clean and disassemble machinery parts provided the pressure doesnt exceed how many pounds per square inch? 30 psi Sewage wastes contain bacteria and viruses. They can enter your body through what means? Nose, mouth, and open sores You should not use liquid soaps or scented disinfectants to clean up spilled sewage for what reason? They may temporarily disguise inadequate clean up procedures A protective mask will not protect the wearer against what gases? Oxygen and chlorine cylinders may be stored in close proximity to fuel or gas cylinders? True or False Compartments that contain compressed gases are ventilated for what length of time if ventilation has been secured? On non-cargo ships, in what position should compressed gas cylinders be stored?

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The size of the MCU-2P protective mask issued to each person depends on what factor? Face length When you don or adjust the MCU-2P mask, what mask part should not be held? Canister In an actual chemical threat situation, what should be the first step in donning the MCU-2P? Stop breathing When at attention: your heels are together with your feet forming an angle of _____ degrees? 45 Parade rest is only given when the formation is at what command? Attention What direction do you move in when going to parade rest? Left How many inches to the left do you move when going to parade rest? 12 inches The OOD reports to whom first and who second? Can you talk in parade rest? CO and then CDO No Can you talk at attention? Yes Can you talk when placed at ease? No 1775 What foot must stay in place when at ease? Right foot Does the command fall out mean you are dismissed? No When the command fall in is given what position do you automatically come to? Attention How many degrees do you turn your head when the command eyes right is given? 45 degrees How many inches do you place your toe on the command about face? 6 inches The command normal interval is so that your (a)___________ shoulder touches the fingertip of the person to your (b)___________? (A) Right (b) Right How was the term Chief Petty Officer first mentioned? Ships muster roll Many of our customs and traditions and uniform style can be traced to whom? British Royal Navy What year did the Navy Regulations reestablish the term Chief Petty Officer? 1865 In 1865 the Chief Petty Officer was considered to be what? Ships Master at Arms What President was responsible for the change of all rating badges as we know it? President Harrison The general mess advisory board consists of what as representatives? One enlisted from each department or division What year was the term chief Petty Officer first mentioned? How many paces away should the command be given for hand salute prior to an inspection? Six paces During inspection, how should the ranks be formed? Tallest from left to right What command is used to secure an individual or an entire formation? Dismissed What command is given to position yourself directly behind the person in front of you? Cover When the command cover is given what distance is maintained from the person in front of you? 40 inches When the command count is given which way is the head facing? Right On the command open ranks march is given, how many inches forward does the second rank move? 30 inches (1 pace)

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Uniforms prescribed for a CPO are divided into how many separate categories? Four What uniform is equivalent to the civilian black tie function? Dinner dress What is the optional item for the dress blue/white? Jacket What color is an aviation working uniform? Green What type of hat is the CPO hat called? Combination The chin strap on the CPO cap is of what material? Leather The leather on the CPO cap is covered in what? Black vinyl How is the chin strap on the CPO cap attached? Two Navy eagle gilt buttons Dog Handler and the CO How should the eagles on the buttons be? Upright Support craft designations start with what letter? Y Fixed wing aircraft are divided into how many basic parts? Three What are the three main parts of a helicopter? Main rotor, fuselage, and tail rotor Attack class planes are used in what role? Nuclear strikes, ground support and low-level bombing What class of aircraft is used to gain air superiority? Fighter The E-2C Hawkeye belongs to what class of aircraft? Warning The S-3 Viking belongs to what class of aircraft? Anti-submarine What helicopter is designated for ASW use? SH-60B Seahawk Prolonged exposure to heat stress conditions causes what medical emergency? Heat stroke and heat exhaustion What is the major health risk to personnel who are exposed to sever cold weather? Hypothermia What document standardizes tag-out procedures aboard ship? OPNAVISNT 3120.32 SORM How many different tags are authorized for use in identifying defective instruments or pieces of equipment? Four What color is used to identify a DANGER tag? Red What color is used to identify a CAUTION tag? Yellow What means are Used to control an entire tag-out procedure? Tag-out logs What publication contains information on Navy safety? OPNAVISNT 5100.19 Volatile chemical abuse is usually indicated by what condition? Constricted pupils What people must have prior knowledge of a drug detection dog inspection/search? What helicopter operates and tows mine countermeasure devices? MH-53 Sea Stallion What drug can cause the heart or arteries to burst and cause a massive coronary? Crack What drug is abused on the pretense of weight control? Amphetamines What type of drug abuse results in the appearance of alcohol intoxication without the alcohol? Depressants What type of drug when abused may result in reoccurring effects months after the drug has been taken? Hallucinogens

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What is the effective shelf life of the chemical protective over garment before and after it is removed from its protective envelope? Five years (Before); 14 days (After) The chemical protective over garment provides continuous protection within a chemically contaminated environment for what maximum number of hours? Six (6) hours Top secret The M258AL decontamination kit is used for what CBR exposure? Blister and nerve agents Who must be assigned if a command is eligible to receive classified material? Security manager The security manager is responsible to whom? CO If a command can handle top secret info who must be assigned in writing? Top Secret Control Officer (TSCO) The TSCO is responsible to whom? Security Manager What is the cover form for secret material? What form is the certificate of personnel security investigation, clearance and access? OPNAVISNT 5520/20 How often should personnel who have access to classified information receive a refresher briefing? Once a year SF 700 How often should an NIS agent give a counter-espionage briefing? Every 2 years SF 702 What are the types of security violations? Compromise and possible compromise What is an administrative investigation? JAG Manual investigation What are the reports of violations on a security discrepancy notice? OPNAV 5511/51 Certain matters affecting national security must be reported to whom? NIS All information concerning a suicide is forwarded to whom? NIS What has been the traditional method for destroying classified material? Burning The strip shredder cuts the material into strips no greater than what inch in width? 1/32 inch Cross cut shredding shreds no larger than _________ inch by _________ inch? 3/64 by 1/2 inch What is priority 3 for emergency destruction? Confidential The classification on publications should be stamped or printed where? Top and bottom of each page in the center What form is used for the security container check list each time users access a safe? SF 704 What form is utilized for the activity security checklist? SF 701 What form is used to seal combinations? The archivist of the United States reviews records for declassification when the records are how old? 30 years Commands maintain top secret documents for how long? Two years What is the cover form for confidential material? SF 703 What is the cover form for top secret material? SF 705 What classification causes damage to national security? Confidential What classification causes serious damage to national security? Secret What classification causes grave damage to national security?

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Preferably in what color should the stamp be? Red Each paragraph of a correspondence should be labeled with what? Classification What are the three different reports submitted for evaluations? Regular, concurrent, and operational commander How long must evaluation reports be retained? The reporting senior must retain copies of fitness reports on all officers and CPOs for five years. The command must retain enlisted fitness reports and evaluations for two years What does the acronym CAP stand for? Command Advancement Program Navy Mutual Aid Society What pay grades are eligible for the Command Advancement Program (CAP)? Eligible E-3, E-4, and E-5 personnel to the next higher pay grade What instruction is the Command Advancement Program under? BUPERSINST 1430.17F Females CPO rating badge measures what? What is the MILPERSMAN 1810-020? 2 inch across Submission of application for voluntary retirement from active duty (officers) What is the MILPERSMAN 1810-010? Voluntary retirement of enlisted personnel Name the Presidents who served in the U.S. Navy? Presidents Kennedy, Johnson, Nixon, Ford, Carter, and H.W. Bush All authorized uniforms that are reissued will have what? A red DC marked on them by the Chief Master-at-Arms What does concurrent jurisdiction mean? The equal right of jurisdiction What is a CPO considered? Operating management; they supervise goal completion What is meant by feed forward control? A way of trying to anticipate problems and make adjustments before the problems occur What is meant by concurrent control? Making changes while an event is taking place The male hash marks measure what? 7 inches long and 3/8 inches wide What is a PIO? Preliminary Inquiry Officer Strategic plans involve activities that will take place in how many years? Two to five years Standing plans are those the Navy uses for what? Recurring or long-range activities What three groups do naval plans fall into? Strategic, standing, and single-Use plans What type of plan is used for short-range nonrecurring activities? Single-Use plans What is MBO? Management By Objectives A Plan Of Action and Milestones (POA&M) could be what type of control? Budgetary Who is responsible for maintaining a master Watch Quarter Station Bill? The XO The male CPO rating badge measures what? 3 inch across What is the coverage available while personnel are on active duty and up to 120 days after separation from the Navy? SGLI Who is the only organization offering supplemental insurance? What are line organizations? Major departments responsible for accomplishing the mission of the command What are staff organizations? Personnel who advise, counsel, and serve the line departments What are functional organizations? Special departments such as medical, safety, legal, and administrative departments

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What are the three types of organizations the Navy uses? Line, staff, and functional The order of control of an organization is known as what? Unity of command What document must be completed prior to a preliminary inquiry? Report chit done by the legal officer What regulation provides guidance governing the conduct of all members of the NAVY along with their duties and responsibilities of personnel within a unit organization from co to messenger of the watch? SORN, standard organization and regulations of the U.S. NAVY (OPNAVISNT 3120.32) What program offers career designation to first-term members who reenlist and establish career eligibility for: guaranteed assignment to aircraft school; guaranteed advancement upon completion of school; SRB if eligible? STAR (Selective Training And Re-Enlistment program What program offers career incentives to members who reenlist for conversion to critically undermanned ratings? SCORE (Selective Conversion On Re-Enlistment program) During a PCS what is the maximum number of days a military member and his family may stay at a NAVY lodge without local commander approval? 30 days If you are entitled to dislocation allowance during PCS, what is the amount equal too? One month of BAQ (Basic Allowance for Quarters) based on dependency and pay grade What program is provided to give disadvantaged persons an edge they may need to obtain a scholarship to NROTC or the naval academy? BOOST (Broadened Opportunity for Officer Selection and Training) What is required for personnel desiring a direct commission? A Baccalaureate or higher degree from an accredited institution

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BUPERSINST 1610.10 (EVALS / FITREPS)
How are performance traits graded? On a 5-point scale, from 1.0 (lowest) to 5.0 (highest) What performance trait grade represents performance to full NAVY standards? 3.0 What reports may be signed by an enlisted Officer in Charge in the grade of E-9 and civilians in command positions in the grade of GS-11? Reports on E-5 and below What reports may be signed by a chief Petty Officer or senior chief Petty Officers? E-4 and below only What signatures are required on evaluations for E-6 personnel and below? A rater and senior rater, as well as the reporting senior Who may be the rater for E-1 to E-4 personnel? An E-6 or civilian equivalent Who may be the rater for E-5 and E-6 personnel? An E-7 or civilian equivalent Typically, who will be the reporting senior for enlisted evaluations? The members division officer or department head Who determines the counseling methods Used at a command? The Commanding Officer or Officer in Charge When does performance counseling start? With a fair assessment of the members performance and capabilities, to which the member contributes What must never be promised during a counseling session? A future promotion recommendation What are the three types of performance reports? Regular, concurrent, and operational command reports What trait grade is reserved for performance that is far above standards? 5.0 What trait grade should be assigned to the majority of sailors? 2.0 to 4.0 range When the member has received a graded regular report within the past three months Either at the time of the report or within two years after When may a periodic report be omitted? What consists of all members grade (regardless of rating) status, who receive the same form with the same reporting ending date? Enlisted summary groups When may a member submit a statement to the record concerning their report? in the same pay and same promotion type of report senior on the same When may a mark of progressing not be assigned on an evaluation? When a recommendation for advancement has been given in a previous report in the same pay grade What were summary groups formerly known as? Comparison groups Where is numerical ranking among peers authorized? In the comments block When must all E-1 to E-4 reports be typed, batched, and forwarded to COMNAVPERSCOM? 15 June When must you specifically substantiate grades in the comments section of a report? All 1.0, three 2.0, along with any grade below 3.0 in command or organizational climate/ equal opportunity What trait grade is given for superstar performance: where the member could be promoted two pay grades and still be a standout in trait? 5.0 What trait is given for advanced performance: where the member is ready for promotion in the trait right now? 4.0 What trait grade is given for fully qualified journeyman performance who can handle this aspect of the next higher pay grade? 3.0 What grade is given for Useful and promising performance? 2.0 What should be the basis for comments in the comments block? Verifiable facts

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Will a report be considered adverse solely because it may make the member less competitive than another for promotion or assignment? No When may raters and reporting seniors keep notes for their personal Use as memory aids? When the materials are safeguarded to prevent unauthorized disclosure and arent circulated to anyone else When must report drafts be destroyed? When the finished report is signed Who supplies application programs to support automated preparation and submission of fitness reports and evaluations? COMNAVPERSCOM (Pers-311) What typeface is used for fitness reports and evaluations prepared with a typewriter or word processor? 10 or 12 point What format is used for entering the administrative blocks of fitness reports and evaluations? All caps (UPPERCASE) What format is used for entering info in the narrative blocks of fitness reports and evaluations? Both upper and lower case What is the format for entering a members name in block 1? Last name, first name, mi, and suffix What grade or rate is entered in block 2? The rank or grade the member is wearing on the ending date of the report What is the format for entering two enlisted designators in block 3? Separate them with a slash Block 6 (UIC) will match what other block on the report? The primary UIC of the reporting senior in block 26

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Navy Uniform Regulations (NAVPERS 15665)
What governs grooming standards for Navy personnel assigned to Marine Corps units who elect to wear and are issued Marine Corps service uniforms? Grooming standards established for marines What colored contact lenses may be worn in uniform? Tinted contact lenses with a natural color What type of military creases is not authorized on shirts? Sewn-in creases 2 inches How can you remove the green copper carbonate from buttons when the pewter plating wears off? By rubbing gently with acetic acid or any substance containing this acid (such as vinegar or worchestershire sauce) What is the rule for polishing metal insignia? Will not be polished to the degree that the basic details of the standard insignia are defaced, removed, or altered How may women wear a multiple braid hair style? Four loops of an all gold aiguillette Uniform dimension, small in diameter (approximately inch) and tightly interwoven How is the appropriateness of womens hairstyles judged? By its appearance when headgear is worn What is the maximum length for the bulk of a womens hair, as measured from the scalp? Must not exceed approximately two inches When may a beard be worn by men? The top of the belt When a shaving waiver has been authorized by the co per BUPERSINST 1000.22 When may wigs or hairpieces be worn by active duty personnel while in uniform or duty status? Only for cosmetic reasons to cover natural baldness or physical disfigurement What is the maximum length for womens fingernails? 1/4th inch measured from the fingertip What is the maximum length for mens fingernails? Must not extend past the fingertips What is the maximum length for an individual hair on a man? No more than four inches in length How many socks are required for women? The MAA/law enforcement badges may not be worn on what uniforms? Formal and dinner dress Five pairs When not in use, men should place the boatswains pipe in what breast pocket? Left breast pocket What is the minimum number of uniforms required to be in possession of officers and chief Petty Officers? No requirement Initial issue of clothing articles to meet enlisted personnel uniform requirements shall comply with what directive? DOD directive 1338.5 and DOD instruction 1338.18 How many socks are required for men? Six pairs A Recruit Division Commander wears what color aiguillette? Red Brassards are worn on what arm? Right arm When hanging free, the bottom of the boatswains pipe and lanyard should not fall below what? How many miniature medals may be worn in a row without overlapping? Five The expert rifle or pistol medal supports a silver E that is what size? inch If youre an aide to the President, you wear what on your right shoulder? What should nametag dimensions be? 1 x 3 inches What are the dimensions for velcro black nametags? 2 x 4 inches What is the maximum number of medals that may be worn side by side without overlapping? Three Miniature medals are how many inches long?

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How many belt buckles are required? Two White How many white group rate marks are required for men? Four How many white group rate marks are required for women? Five How many utility trousers are required? Four How many towels are required? Four How many belts are required? Three Personnel required to wear desert brown undergarments on a daily basis are authorized to substitute up to what percent of the minimum sea bag white undergarment requirement with desert brown undergarments? 50% Seabees are authorized to maintain what kind of towels? Four desert brown towels instead of white What is the working khaki uniform made of? 65% polyester and 35% cotton poplin What is the service khaki uniform made of? 100% polyester (certified NAVY twill) What is the dinner dress white jacket made of? 100% polyester (certified NAVY twill) What is the dinner dress blue jacket made of? 55% polyester and 45% wool gabardine When shall the sea bag of all e1 e3 personnel be inspected? Prior to transfer to another ship or station Embroidered letters on utility shirts, utility trousers and blue working jackets shall be approximately how big? inch high blocked letters Embroidered letters on NAVY coveralls shall be approximately how big? inch high blocked letters Blue utility shirts shall be embroidered in what color? Black Coveralls shall be embroidered in what color for officers and CPOs, and what color for e6 and below? Officers and CPOs are gold; E6 and below are silver Blue working jackets and utility trousers shall be embroidered in what color?

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Career Counselor Handbook (NAVPERS 15878)
Who is included in a command level Career Development Board (CDB)? CMC, CCC, and ESO 15 months Who are included in a department level CDB? LCPO, LPO, and Departmental Career Counselor What is a CCC? 13 months Command career counselor The CCC will maintain minutes for every CDB for how long? 2 years Command level CDB will see first enlistment sailors within _____ days of reporting? 30 days 9 months Department level CDB will see all sailors on second or subsequent enlistment within _____ days of reporting? 60 days Fast-track and reserve affiliation A command level CDB is required for Sailors who PNAd the advancement exam how many times? 3 times A command level CDB is required for a Sailor who has a standard exam score of what? 40 or below When shall a CDB be conducted for a Sailor who is approaching HYT? 24 months prior What HYT? 12 months High year tenure Who will provide personnel records for review by the CDB? CCC At what time before EAOS/PRD do personnel that have approvals lose the approved quota if not under orders? Five months Personnel retiring/transferring to the Fleet Reserve attend reenlistment TAP/separation tap at what time before EAOS/PRD? 24 months Separating/undecided sailors complete the DD 2648 at what time before EAOS/PRD? Six months before EAOS/PRD perform to serve personnel applications move to what type of timeline? At what time before EAOS/PRD will the command conduct a CDB on those sailors who have not been approved for pts for possible modification of original request? At what time before EAOS/PRD does NAVPERSCOM begin to review pts applications? 12 months At what time before EAOS/PRD does CCC ensure that personnel are entered into the team detailing spreadsheet through a CDB? At what time before EAOS/PRD is personnel in their first enlistment who are recommended for retention are identified and applied to pts?

Who will participate as the technical advisor on the CDB? ESO The CDB replaces what interviews previously required? Retention interviews What is a centralized reenlistment reservation system? Perform To Serve (PTS) Who tracks communications between CDTs and rating detailers from the beginning of the detailing process through the ultimate assignment of the sailor? Command Teaming Coordinator (CTC)

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Anti-Terrorism/Force Protection
What awareness training is provided to all DOD personnel/civilians/contractors, and family member over 14 years old? Level I Anti-Terrorism (AT) training What awareness training is provided to all officers, noncommissioned officers and civilian staff personnel who are designated to serve as antiterrorism advisors to the commander? Level II Anti-Terrorism training What is the agreement that defines the legal position of a visiting military force deployed in the territory of a friendly state? Status of Forces Agreement (SOFA) What directive sets the requirement for Navy wide Anti-Terrorism Force Protection (ATFP) programs? DOD directive 2000.12 (series) What Force Protection Condition (FPCON) applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred, or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent, and is also declared as a localized condition, and not intended to be sustained for substantial periods? FPCON Delta What FPCON applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists? FPCON Bravo What is FAST? Fleet Anti-Terrorism Security Team What are offensive measures taken to prevent, deter, and respond to terrorism? Counter-Terrorism (CT) What defensive measures are used to reduce the vulnerability of individuals and property to terrorist acts? Anti-Terrorism (AT) What is a designated point close to an incident where crisis management forces will rendezvous and establish control capability before initiating a tactical reaction? Incident Control Point (ICP) Who is directly responsible to the CO for all matters dealings with antiterrorism and force protection? Anti-Terrorism Officer (ATO) previously known as Force Protection Officer (FPO) What are the three internal risk assessment tools? ORM, CV assessments, and planning and response elements assessments What consists of those measures taken to identify, acquire and plan the use of needed resources to resolve the effects of a terrorist act? Crisis management

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Personal Financial Management (OPNAVISNT 1740.5A)
Who has responsibility to encourage financial responsibility and sound financial planning? CO What three major elements create personal financial management (PFM)? Financial education and training Financial information and referral Financial counseling The three elements of the personal financial management program are under whose control? Command Financial Specialist (CFS) What is the ratio of Command Financial Specialists (CFS) to personal attached to the command? 1 CFS to every 75 active duty members When does education and training regarding financial management start? Recruit training What pay grade can be appointed Command Financial Specialist? E-6 for enlisted and W2/0-1 for officers What is the minimum length of duty for a command financial Specialist? To have at least one year left at the command How often must refresher training be completed for Command Financial specialists? At least every three years Who is the program sponsor of the personal financial management program policy? Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (Manpower and Personnel) Who is required to attend mandatory personal financial management counseling? Any member that is subject of a bad check report or letter of indebtedness Is a designation letter required to be appointed to a Command Financial Specialist? Yes, a copy goes in service record and a copy forwarded to fleet and family support

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OPNAVISNT 3500.39 (ORM)
What directive contains information on Operational Risk Management (ORM)? OPNAVISNT 3500.39 What is an effective process for maintaining readiness in peacetime and achieving success in combat without infringing upon the prerogatives of the commander? ORM What is a decision making process that enhances operational capability? ORM Operational Risk Management is integrated into what level of a command? All levels of the command What is a condition with the potential to cause personal injury or death, property damage or mission degradation? A hazard What is the term Used to describe an expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability? A risk What is the process of detecting hazards and assessing associated risks? Risk assessment What is the process of dealing with risk associated within military operations, which includes risk assessment, risk decision making and implementation of effective risk controls? ORM What are the five steps of the ORM process? Identify hazards, assess hazards, make risk decisions, implement controls and supervise What are the three ORM process levels? Time-critical, deliberate, and in-depth What level of the ORM process is employed by experienced personnel to consider risk while making decisions in a time-compressed situation? Time-critical level What level of the ORM process uses primarily experience and brainstorming to identify hazards and develop controls? Deliberate level What level of the ORM process is Used to more thoroughly study the hazards and their associated risk in a complex operation or system, or one in which the hazards are not well understood? In-depth level What is the goal of ORM? To manage risk so that the mission can be accomplished with the minimum amount of loss

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OPNAVISNT 3120.32C (SORM)
All Department Heads and Executive Assistants report to the _____________________ regarding internal administration of the command? Executive Officer An officer acting as the XO during the temporary absence or disability of that officer will have the same authority and responsibility as the XO; except what? They will make no change in the existing organization, unless ordered to do so The XOs Administrative Assistant (AA) serves as the _____ Division Officer? X What does ESO stand for? Which officer is responsible for the security program that includes software and hardware security features as well as administrative, physical, and personnel security controls for providing an adequate degree of security for ADP systems? Automatic Data processing (ADP) security officer What is a CMAA? What is the MCM? Chief Master-at-Arms Manual for Courts-Martial Who is responsible for maintaining the security, good order and discipline of the ship? Chief Master-at-Arms Who does the CMAA report to? XO Who will organize and manage an effective retention program? The Command Career Counselor Who is the enlisted advisor to the command on the formulation and implementation of policies pertinent to morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization and training of all enlisted personnel? CMC Who takes precedence over all other enlisted members within a command? CMC What does DAPA stand for? Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor Who is responsible to the co for all drug and alcohol abuse level I programs? DAPA Commands with greater than 1,000 personnel shall have at least _____ full time DAPA? One Which officer is responsible for enlisted personnel placement following the personnel assignment bill and for the administration and custody of enlisted personnel records? Personnel Officer Who will organize and supervise the postal functions of the unit? Personnel Officer Who will keep the co and XO informed concerning public affairs trends, policies, and potentialities, including directives on security and release of information for publication? Public Affairs Officer (PAO) Who will develop and administer an active and varied program of recreation activities, interdivisional athletics, off-duty activities and diversions for assigned personnel? Recreational Services Officer What does PAO stand for? Public Affairs Officer An officer designated as the commands security manager must be a U.S. Citizen? True or False True Educational services officer Who is an advisor and staff assistant to the co and the XO concerning the interpretation and application of the UCMJ, the manual for courtsmartial, and other military laws and regulations? Legal Officer Who facilitates formal command training team (CTT) and command assessment team (cat) indoctrination courses and various seminars and workshops? Equal Opportunity Program Specialist (EOPS) Who is responsible to the co for the general awareness of health benefits by assigned personnel and their dependents? Health Benefits Advisor (HBA) Who will assist the XO in administering educational programs? Educational Services Officer (ESO)

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Who will plan, manage, implement, and direct the ships physical security, law enforcement, antiterrorism, and loss prevention programs, including development and maintenance of comprehensive physical security instructions and regulations? Security Officer Who is responsible to the co for the assignment and general supervision of all deck watch standers, both underway and in port? Senior Watch Officer Who supervises the preparation of the cos personal correspondence and fitness reports? Ships Secretary Who is the COs writer? The senior yeoman (YN) What does NTCSS stand for? Navy Tactical Command Support System Coordinator Which officer assists the XO in the formulation and administration of the unit training program? Training Officer

Table 1 AWSE

Adapters
Nomenclature
ADK-598 Transport Adapter

Purpose
Transport of one Tactical Air Launched Decoy (TALD) ADM-141 Ground support handling of the AIM-54 Phoenix during aircraft loading/unloading operations Used with MHU-191 to lift and position armament and maintenance devices on the aircraft Used to alleviate clearance problems associated with larger weapons such as the GBU-24, GBU-31, and AIM-54 Transports up to four AIM-9 Sidewinders Used in pairs with Aero 58s supporting two weapons 9 to 16 inches in diameter (MK-82/83 or BLU-111/110) Used to transfer different ordnance components from weapons breakout areas to the flight deck/flight line Used in sets of four to support a single AGM-88 HARM, and 10 inch and larger stores during transport on the MHU-191 Used to support the AIM-7 Sparrow, AIM-120 AMRAAM, AGM-88 HARM and AGM-65 Maverick Used on a variety of skids, transporters and trailers for transporting AIM-7 Sparrow, AIM-120 AMRAAM, AIM-9 Sidewinder and AGM-114 Attaches to AERO 58s on Munitions Transporter MHU-191/M when handling unit loads. Converts the transporter into a flatbed vehicle capable of handling ordnance pallets, cradles and containers. Two bracket adapters are required for each transporter Provides protection for AIM-9 Sidewinder wings and fins when attached to the ADU-514 and ADU-475 Contains cutouts for two sets of AIM-120 AMRAAM wings, fins, and buffer connectors. The insert is sized to allow two inserts to fit within the confines of ADU-488/E, without modification to the transporter Base frame assembly used in conjunction with the ADU-834/E to store/transport sonobuoys in launch containers. When used with four ADU-834/E Sonobuoy Transport Adapters can hold and/or transport up to 64 sonobuoys in launch containers. Used with Aero12C to transport and store nitrogen bottles for the LAU-127

SWL
418 lbs

Miscellaneous
Three TALD can be transported by using AERO 58s (front and rear) and two ADU-483/E s on the MHU-191/M. Used in conjunction with the HLU-196 HLU-288 SATS loader, MHU-191, MHU-202, MHU-126 and ADU-400 weapons skid lift adapter

ADU-399B/E Guided Missile Adapter ADU-400/E Weapon Skid Loading Lift Adapter ADU-433 Forward ADU-434 Aft Height Adapters ADU-475/E Guided Missile Adapter ADU-483/E Skid Adapter Assembly aka Upper 58s ADU-488/E Wing, Fin and Fuze Adapter ADU-496/E Single Store Adapter ADU-511A/E Adjustable Weapons Adapter ADU-514A/E Small Missile Adapter ADU-566/E Bracket Adapter

N/A

2500 1800 lbs Single 3600 lbs double 4 AIM-9s 4000 lbs N/A Used with trailers having rail mounting system such as the MHU-191/126/202. Aero 58s mount on top. Adds 5 inches of clearance Cannot be used to transport the AIM-9X Mounts on top of Aero 58s Can transport eight wings and fins for the Sparrow, HARM, Harpoon, SLAM series missiles 48 M904 series or other applicable bomb fuzes Attaches to Aero 58 and Aero 483 Designed to carry two stores side by side, but may also be configured to carry single stores Six missiles ashore when the ADU-829/E Upper Tier Adapter is used The adapter is used during replenishment at sea operations for transporting containerized missiles, weapons and weapons components from the flight deck and hangar deck to magazine spaces. Replaces Aero91 bracket adapters

N/A Two stores 6 missiles ashore 4 missiles afloat 5,000 lbs For a set of two

ADU-567/E Wing/Fin Guard Adapter ADU-628/E Wing/Fin Transporter Insert Adapter

N/A N/A A reinforced aluminum box with a foam liner When used in pairs with ADU-488/E and provides the capability for transporting four sets of AMRAAM wings, fins and buffer connectors. The ADU-699A/E is designed to adapt to the AERO 58A Skid Adapters which allow interface with the MHU-191/M Munitions Transporter. For shore based operations mounts directly to the MHU-185/M Munitions Trailer

ADU-699A/E Sonobuoy Modular Adapter Assembly

Up to 64 sonobuoys

ADU-729 Bomb Skid Adapter

Seven Bottles

Adapters Contd
Nomenclature
ADU-775 Transport Adapter Assembly ADU-800/E and ADU-814/E Transport Adapters

Purpose
Used in conjunction with Aero 58s and various trailers with like rail mounting system to transport the AGM-154 JSOW Used for transporting the TALD/ITALD to Aero 58A adapters. ADU-800/E adapter is contoured to support the front of the ITALD, and the ADU-814/E is designed to support the aft end of the ITALD when configured on Aero 58A or ADU-483/E adapters. Used in conjunction with Aero 58s and various trailers with a like rail mounting system to transport the AGM-84K and SLAM-ER Used in pairs and can be installed on the Small Missile Adapter ADU-514A/E to provide a third tier for transport of six missiles. Compatible with AIM-7, AIM-120, AGM-114 and AIM-9. A rack assembly that can hold up to 13 sonobuoys. When used with other ADU-834/E stackable frame assemblies and the Adapter ADU-699A/E, can hold and/or transport up to 64 sonobuoys in launch containers. Used with Aero 12C to handle and transport miscellaneous ammunition items Used with Aero 12C to transport and store nitrogen filled bottles for the LAU-7 Holds single weapon up to 30.5 inches in diameter on MHU-125, MHU-126, MHU-191, and MHU-202. Supports soft skin stores up to 30 inches in diameter Supports soft skin stores up to 20 inches in diameter Used with Aero 58s to form a flatbed conveyance for transportation of the weapon component containers and a variety of other materials Used with Aero 58s to transport empty IMERs and ITERs Attached to Aero 58s to convert MHU-191 into a flatbed vehicle capable of weapons pallets, cradles and containers Converts forklift truck tines into a fork/boom assembly for lift and transporting various loads Used on the Aero 71 in conjunction with the MHU-191 to hold and transport up to 32 sonobuoys Used for storage and transportation of two AIM-9 Sidewinder or AGM-114 Hellfire.

SWL
One AGM-154 JSOW

Miscellaneous

The ADU-800/E adapter can also be used, in pairs, to transport TALD

ADU-801 Transport Adapters

ADU-829/E Upper Tier Adapters

One AGM-84K SLAM-ER 600 lbs

Comes as a set of four

Used in shore station applications when installed on the ADU-514A/E. Not approved for shipboard use. The ADU-834/e is designed to adapt to the sonobuoy Adapter ADU-699A/E or another ADU-834/E.

ADU-834 Sonobuoy Upper Rack Transport Adapter

13 to 64 sonobuoys

Aero 9B/C Bomb Skid Adapter Aero 39B Bomb Skid Adapter Aero 58 Skid Adapter Aero 64A Soft Belt Adapters Aero 64B Soft Belt Adapters Aero 71A Skid Adapter

1,000 lbs Seven Bottles 5,000 lbs 2,500 lbs 2,500 lbs 4,000 lbs

Box like frame with collapsible walls and piano type hinges. carries miscellaneous equipment

10 inch front and 15 inch rear. Adjustable rollers with six positions to accommodate weapons of different diameters. Used with Aero 58 adapters. Flexible neoprene covered woven wired sling Used with Aero 12C bomb skid adapter

Aero 83A Transport Adapter aka MER Tree Aero 91A Bracket Adapters MK-91 Mod 0 Hook Adapter MXU- 661/E Skid Platform Adapter Assembly MHU-61A/E Missile Cradle

5,000 lbs 4,000 lbs 6,000 lbs 32 Sonobouys 2,700 lbs

One adapter can support two IMERs or ITERs and can be stacked two high to support as many as four. Used in pairs. Brackets adjustable to hold loads between 28 and 40 inches Used with MK-51 weapons carrier

Bands
Nomenclature
HLK-275 short light gauge hoisting band HLK-275 heavy light gauge hoisting band HLK-276 long light gauge hoisting band

Purpose
Used with anchor fitting HLK-279 and single stores trolley HLK-225 & HLK-226 for lifting stores up to 15 inches in diameter Used with anchor fitting HLK-279 and single stores trolley HLK-225 & HLK-226 for lifting stores up to 15 inches in diameter Used with anchor fitting HLK-279 and single stores trolley HLK-225 & HLK-226 for lifting stores up to 25 inches in diameter Used with anchor fitting HLK-279 and single stores trolley HLK-225 & HLK-226 for lifting stores up to 25 inches in diameter Used with anchor fitting HLK-279 and single stores trolley HLK-225&226 for lifting single stores up to 25 inches in diameter or single hoist double point stores up to 25 inches or for dual manual hoist double point loading of stores up to 30 inches in diameter

SWL
2500 lbs

Miscellaneous
Permanent 18 in curvature, thirteen holes every two inches along the length of the band Permanent 18 in curvature, 13 holes every two inches along the length of the band. 27.75 inches in length Permanent 18 inch curvature, 28 holes every two inches along the length of the band. 57.75 inches in length

2500 lbs

HLK-276A heavy gauge hoisting band

Single point 1,000 lbs Double point 1,900 lbs Single point 1,500 lbs Double point 3,200 lbs

Permanent 18 inch curvature, 28 holes every two inches along the length of the band. 57.75 inches in length

HLK-277 long heavy gauge hoisting band

Permanent 30 inch curvature, 47 holes every two inches along the length of the band. 97.75 inches in length

Hoisting Bars
Nomenclature
Aero 64A1 Hoisting Bar Aero 68 Hoisting Bar

Purpose
Used to manually lift AIM-7 Sparrow from the skid to aircraft Handle or transport any weapons having standard lugs

SWL
One AIM-7 Sparrow 500 lbs Single 1,000 lbs Double 1,000 lbs

Miscellaneous
Used as a set, strap secures missile in cradle When used in pairs SWL is 1,000 lbs

HLU-256/E Manual Hoisting Bar

Manually lift MK-80/BLU series bombs during aircraft loading/unloading operations

Also used for weapons assembly purposes

Beams
Nomenclature
AN/AAS-38 Hoisting Beam

Purpose
Provides a means of attaching the cable and fitting of Bomb Hoists HLU-288/E to the lifting points provided on the Forward-Looking Infrared (FLIR) imaging pod when hoisting the pod into position on the fuselage station of the F/A-18 Hoist AGM-78 Standard ARM in magazines that have restricted clearance aboard ship Used to lift the AGM-65 Maverick from the container Used to lift the AGM-88 HARM from the container Used for lifting the AGM-114 Hellfire from the container Used by naval weapons stations and aboard ship for hoisting (canning/de-canning) the AIM-7 Sparrow and AIM-120 AMRAAM with or without fins Used to lift the AGM-84 Series SLAM and Harpoon from the container Used during CONREP operations for transferring palletized unit loads Used by naval weapons stations and aboard ship for hoisting (canning/de-canning) the AIM-7 Sparrow and AIM-120 AMRAAM with or without fins Used aboard ship to handle previously assembled AIM-54 Phoenix missiles

SWL
300 lbs

Miscellaneous

HLU-210/E Hoisting Beam HLU-291 Hoisting Beam HLU-296/E Hoisting Beam HLU-328/E Hoisting Beam HLU-421 Hoisting Beam

N/A N/A N/A N/A 2,000 lbs

MK-37 Mod 1 Lifting Beam MK-18 Mod 1 Handling Beam MK-24 Mod 0 Hoisting Beam

N/A 4,000 lbs 550 lbs Used with MK-85, MK-86, MK-87 or MK-100 adjustable pallet slings Replaced by the HLU-421

MHU-129 Guided Missile Hoisting Beam

N/A

Carriers
Nomenclature
MK-43 Mod 1 Weapons Carrier MK-49 Mod 1 Weapons Carrier MK-51 Mod 1 Weapons Carrier

Purpose
Used in conjunction with two MK-49s to lift two MK-82s in tandem off different skids and trailers Horizontal lifting of weapons with 14 inch suspension lugs Horizontal lifting of weapons with 14 or 30 inch suspension lugs

SWL
2 MK-82s 2,500 lbs 4,000 lbs

Miscellaneous
Two steel plates welded together, four hoisting points, fwd pivoting lug held by quick release pin Adjustable fwd hook held by quick release pin for attachment to 14 or 30 inch lugs, eight lifting eyes

Hoists and Hoist Adapters

Nomenclature
HLU-196B/E Bomb Hoisting Unit

Purpose
Used to hoist various weapons and stores during aircraft loading and unloading operations

SWL
2,000 lbs Single point lift 4,000 lbs Double point lift 1,500 lbs Single point lift 3,000 lbs Double point lift 2,240 lbs Single point lift 4,480 lbs Double point lift 874 lbs

Miscellaneous
Cable is extended by disengaging the clutch. Max reel in speed of 15 feet per minute. Gas Operated

HLU-196D/E Bomb Hoisting Unit

Lightweight, portable unit designed to load various weapons/stores on naval aircraft

HLU-288/E

F/A-18 Gun System Hoisting Adapter

Used with SHOLS adapters to load various stores, weapon replaceable assemblies and weapons onto a variety of aircraft. Also used to install and remove the M61 gun in the F/A-18 Aircraft and the FLIR pod. used in conjunction with the HLU-288 to remove and install the M61A1 and M61A2 gun system

Consists of a gear driven mechanism, battery operated motor, cable drum assembly, load brake assembly, battery pack, electronic controller, battery charger, A/C adapter, removable boom assembly and a 19-foot cable assembly Consists of a gear train, drum and cable, brake mechanism, extension tube, and a right-hand brake crank

Loaders and Conveyors

Nomenclature
A/S-32K-1E Series SATS Weapons Loader (LALS II)

Purpose
Used to load externally carried munitions, weapons and stores onto an aircraft

SWL
4,500 lbs

Miscellaneous
Used by Marines and Navy UDP VFA squadrons. The loader is also capable of transporting a specific load over semi-improved terrain expeditionary airfield (EAF) sites as well as hard, smooth surfaces. Consists of a base frame assembly, forward housing, aft housing, conveyor assembly, transfer unit and storage container. Consists of a chute support assembly, three ammunition chutes, two element chutes, an exit unit assembly, an interface unit assembly, an entrance unit assembly, and a flexible drive shaft. Transporter consists of an ammunition drum mounted in a drum adapter assembly. The ammunition drum is a cylindrical structure that consists of an outer drum structure, an inner drum, two scoop disc assemblies, and two cover assemblies

GFK-21A/E32K-7 Linkless Ammunition Loading System (LALS II) MHU-130/E32K Conveyor System (LALS I)

MHU-131/E32K Loader Ammunition Transporter (LALS I)

Services loads and downloads- the F-14 and F/A-18 aircraft gun systems. The Ammunition Loader loads 20MM ammunition and simultaneously downloads unfired rounds and spent cartridge cases. Transports rounds from the transporter to the aircraft system and simultaneously transports spent cases and cleared rounds from the aircraft system to the transporter. Used in conjunction with MHU-131 MHU-131 Loader Ammunition Transporter (LALS I) Stores either unfired 20MM rounds or empty cases in a controlled manner and moving these rounds or cases through the exit and entrance ends during operation in conjunction with MHU-130 conveyer to load aircraft.

1,800 rounds

N/A

1,400 rounds

Pallets
Nomenclature
Standard Four Way Wooden Pallet

Purpose
General purpose item used primarily for shipment of domestic unit loads of ordnance and for Landing Force Operational Reserve Material (LFORM) aboard amphibious ships. To handle unit loads aboard ship and shore stations To palletize weapons components and containers for storage, handling and shipping Used ashore to handle loose ammo and inert items during on-station handling and transportation.

SWL
4,000 lbs

Miscellaneous

MK-3 Mod 0 Metal Pallet MK-12 Mod 1 Metal Pallet Ammunition Pallet Crate

4,000 lbs 4,000 lbs 4,000 lbs

More durable than wood, does not warp or present a fire hazard More durable than wood, does not warp or present a fire hazard Particularly useful in combatant ship loadouts/offloads at dockside or anchorage, where palletization is impractical or inefficient. Projectiles, cartridges and powder tanks up to six inches in diameter, boxed ammunition, and various inert loads are typical of the items handled using this pallet crate.

MHU-122/E Bomb Loading and Storage Pallet MHU-187A/E and MHU-167A/E Bomb Loading and Storage Pallets MHU-212/E Bomb Shipping and Storage Pallet MK-9 Bomb Pallet MK-11 Bomb Pallet MK-79 Bomb Pallet

A reusable assembly designed to unitize six MK-82 TP GP 500 lb bombs or six BDU-45/B inert loaded TP bombs for transit and storage. Reusable assemblies designed to unitize three MK-83/BLU-110 TP GP 1,000 lb bombs for transit and storage. Reusable assembly designed to unitize two BLU-109 bombs for transit and storage. Reusable assembly designed to unitize six MK-82 NTP or TP GP 500 lb bombs for transit and storage Reusable assembly designed to unitize three MK-83 Mods GP 1,000 lb NTP or TP bombs for transit and storage Reusable assembly designed to unitize two MK-84/BLU-117 GP 2000 lb bombs for transit and storage

N/A

N/A

N/A N/A N/A N/A

Skids and Trailers

Nomenclature
Aero 12C Bomb Skid

Purpose
Used to transport weapons having a diameter between 4 and 18 inches Used with various adapters to transport or load weapons, stores or equipment Used with various adapters to transport or load weapons, stores or equipment Transports and holds a variety of weapons in ready storage Transport and load various weapons, stores and equipment when used in conjunction with various adapters. Same rail mounting system as the MHU-191 Used transport munitions from the magazine to the flight line, also provides a platform to build up rockets when used with the plywood decking provided Used to transport weapons, weapons components and stores. Same rail mounting system as the MHU-191 Used to transport air launched weapons from an ammunition dump to SATS airstrip at an advanced base

SWL
1,250 lbs

Miscellaneous
Brakes applied by lowering skid. Handle released by pulling handle release latch on end of handle. Adjust or raise chocks to position for transport of bombs. Braking system an improvement from Aero 21. 10 inch front and 15 inch rear mounting for adapters. Obsolete but appeared on the March 2009 AO1 Exam Transports 8 MK-82, 6 MK-83, or 4 MK-84 or BLU equivalent bombs Big wheels, brake handle on side. 15 mph towing speed single and 5 mph for multiple trailers towed in train Has wooden guard rails on all four sides

MHU-191 Weapons Skid MHK-128 Munitions Trailer Aero 51C Munitions Trailer MHU-126/M Small Munitions Trailer MHU-185 Munitions Trailer

5,000 lbs 5,000 lbs 8,000 lbs 5,000 lbs

4,000 lbs

MHU-202 Munitions Trailer A/M32-K-4A SATS Rough Terrain Trailer

5,000 lbs 8,000 lbs

Small wheels, brake handle on rear

Slings
Nomenclature
MK-85 Pallet Sling MK-86 Pallet Sling MK-87 Pallet Sling MK-100 Mod 1 Pallet Sling MK-105 Hoisting Sling

Purpose
Used to handle palletized weapons during CONREP Used to handle palletized weapons during CONREP Used to handle palletized weapons during CONREP Used to handle palletized weapons during CONREP Used during VERTREP operations

SWL
2,200 lbs to 4,000 lbs 4,000 lbs 4,000 lbs 4,000 lbs 3,000 lbs to 6,000 lbs N/A

Miscellaneous
Red color coded tubing for identification. SWL depends on load height Black color coded tubing for identification. Green color coded tubing for identification. Yellow color coded tubing for identification. Legs rated at 3,000 lbs; with two or more legs, assembly is rated at 6,000 lb capacity. Long legs are green, short legs are orange. Designed to fit most of the containers and cradles in the system

MK-109 Mod 1 Container Lifting Sling

Used to lift containers during CONREP/VERTREP operations

Assembly Stands
Nomenclature
A/E 32M-4 Maintenance and Reconfiguration Stand A/F 32K-1/1A Bomb Assembly Stand A/F 32K-10 Bomb Assembly Stand A/E 32K-3 Munitions Assembly Conveyor

Purpose
Used to hold F-14 weapons rail during maintenance Supports MK-80/BLU series bombs during assembly Supports MK-80/BLU series bombs during assembly A/E 32K-3 is designed for rapid buildup of a variety of conventional type munitions, primarily MK-80/BLU Series (live and inert) bombs with any fin/fuze configuration in support of the USMC rapid deployed force field operations

SWL
N/A 2,000 lbs per tray 2,000 lbs per tray 4,000 lbs

Miscellaneous
Consists of fwd and aft maintenance rings and two deck post assemblies. Allows 180 degree rotation of rail CV(N) use, 3 tables, four trays, allows 360 degrees rotation of bomb, manned by 10 personnel LHA/LHD use, 2 tables, three trays, allows 360 degrees rotation of bomb, manned by 10 personnel Consists of four major assemblies the on-load gantry, rail conveyor, offload gantry and the interface control board. The system is furnished with both electric power and air supply for pneumatic tools.

Hand Trucks and Dollies

Nomenclature
MK-45 Mod 2 Handlift Truck MK-24 Mod 1 Torpedo Lift Adapter Dolly

Purpose
Lifting and maneuvering long, heavy containers and cradles Dual purpose dolly/transporter used transport and load MK-46 and MK-50 series torpedoes on H-60B/F/R helicopters

SWL
5,000 lbs 1,000 lbs

Miscellaneous
Used in pairs Used in conjunction with MK-137 Mod LAMPS adapter

Table 2 Test Sets

Test Sets
Nomenclature
ASM/PSM-4 Multi-Meter AN/GYQ-7 Common BIT Reprogramming Equipment (CMBRE) AN/ASM-20B GMU-24/A

Purpose
Used to measure resistance (OHMS), amperage (AC or DC), and voltage (AC or DC) in an electrical circuit Used to initiate BITs, get systems and munitions status, re-program operational flight programs and load mission GPS crypto keys on MIL-STD-1760 type munitions - JDAM, JSOW, GBU-24, Dual Mode LGB variants, AIM-9X and AIM-120. Used to test the voltage tolerance, launcher firing sequence and firing circuits of the LAU-7 guided missile launcher Used to test/measure the amount of nitrogen coolant/high pressure pure air flowing from the LAU-7/LAU-127 launcher to the missile Checks the Aircraft Monitor And Control Circuit (AMAC) for isolation defects by applying 615 VDC to selected circuits Automatic/semi-automatic universal GO/NO GO tester for various bomb racks and missile launchers

AN/AWM-38 A/E37T-35 Common Rack and Launcher Test Set (CRALTS) AN/AWM-42A

Used to check the DC fuzing capabilities of the fuze function control circuit. Contains its own power source and provides for continuity resistance and voltage checks of the electrical fuzing system Portable load simulator for the AN/ALE-50A T-3A dispenser system used on the F/A-18E/F. Deploy, sever and load voltages are provided as GO/NO GO indications Portable, battery operated, flight-line tester is used to check for stray voltages and various aircraft firing and release circuits, such as rocket firing, bomb release, missile and JATO. Has three modes of operation - stray voltage (S/V) mode checks the weapons system for unsafe stray voltages, firing circuit (F/C) mode checks the weapons system for adequate voltage amplitude and current capacity and self-test mode determines test set and appropriate adapter are satisfactory for use. Replaced by the AN/AWM-102. Used to check the AN/ALE-39 decoy dispensing system and AN/ALE-37A dispenser Used with the F/A-18 aircraft to evaluate the operational readiness of the Walleye weapon guidance section and aircraft cockpit television display Used by AIMD/FRCs to test guided missile launchers. Replaced by CRALTS Used to test various weapon/missile launch and control systems during pre-flight and periodic O level maintenance release and control systems checks. Replaced by AN/AWM-103 Used by I Level to test various aircraft bomb racks. Replaced by CRALTS. O and I level test set is used to test all systems that use MIL-STD-1760 aircraft/store electrical interconnections including the LAU-115, LAU-116, LAU-127, BRU-32, BRU-33 and BRU-55. Replaced by AN/AWM-103 and CRALTS.

AN/ALE-50A

AN/AWM-54

AN/ALM-70A AN/DSM-77

AN/AWM-90 AN/AWM-92

AN/AWM-94B AN/AWM-96

Test Sets Contd

Nomenclature
AN/AWM-100 AN/AWM-102

Purpose
Verifies AIM-9 missile system integrity to the missile/launcher interface and launcher power supply operation Portable, battery operated, flight-line tester is used to check for stray voltages, proper firing signal, and various aircraft firing and release circuits, such as rocket firing, bomb release, missile and JATO. Used ashore and afloat prior to loading. Has three modes of operation - stray voltage (S/V) mode checks the weapons system for unsafe stray voltages, fire circuit (F/C) mode checks the weapons system for adequate voltage amplitude and current capacity, and self-test mode determines that the test set and appropriate adapter are satisfactory for use. The AN/AWM-102 is a replacement for the AN/AWM-54 and uses the same adapters. What test set is comprised of an electrical unit and various adapters to interface the test set with aircraft bomb racks and launchers to perform release and control testing on the P-3, F/A-18 series, EA-6B and H-60 series aircraft Used with the F/A-18 aircraft to check the operation of the data link antenna on the MK-21, MK-23, and MK-27 Walleye ERDL weapons Used to check operation of the aircraft's single-station launching system before loading the AQM-37/A missile target on the centerline LAU-24/A launcher Checks the jettison circuitry of a Walleye guided weapon system and to check the aircraft's walleye weapon system at the pylon umbilical connection Used to test the torpedo pre-set functions on the P-3 and S-3 aircraft. Replaced by the AN/AWM-103 Used at the organizational maintenance level for preflight testing of the AN/ALE-39 Countermeasures Dispenser System Designed to test for functional, firing and stray voltage to the 20MM gun system Portable load simulator used to count fire pulses and test for stray voltage in the ALE-47 CMDS. Consists of 2 Stray Voltage/Flight Line Payload Simulators (SV/FLPS), in one transit case. A minimum of two simulators is required for system testing Portable load simulator used to count fire pulses and test for stray voltage in the ALE-47 CMDS. Consists of 2 Stray Voltage/Improved Flight Line Payload Simulators (SV/IFLPS), in one transit case Used at the organizational maintenance level for preflight testing of the AN/ALE-39 Countermeasures Dispenser System. The AN/ALM-291 is an AN/ALE-225 modified in accordance with Support Equipment Change (SEC) No. 5602 and can only be used in aircraft that have been modified in accordance with AN/ALE-39 Avionics Change (AVC) No. 5149 Used to check the tone operability of the guidance control group on the AIM-9 sidewinder missile. basically a pencil flashlight with an infrared filter lens.

AN/AWM-103

AN/DSM-139

TTU-183/F

AN/ASM-184

B203 AN/ALM-225 A/E-24T-230 AN/ALM-286

AN/ALM-290

AN/ALM-291

TTU-304/E

Test Sets Contd

Nomenclature
AN/ASM-464

Purpose
Used on the F/A-18 aircraft to perform the operational checks of AIM-9 Sidewinder missile launching, VTAS and SEAM circuits associated with the guided missile launcher LAU-7 Used to functionally check the AGM-119 Penguin missile launcher adapter circuitry and detect the presence of stray voltage within the firing and release circuits Used to simulate the AGM-119 Penguin missile during release and control systems tests Used to initiate a GO/NO GO test and determine if the ITALD is ready to be programmed for a mission. battery operated, microprocessor controlled Used to test the VTAS/SEAM system on the F-14 Used on the F-14 to verify operational status and functions of the AIM-54 Phoenix missile control system Used to simulate a Harpoon missile for wing station checkout, power-on functional testing, and fault isolation on a P-3 aircraft

TTU-522/E

TTU-560 TTU-585/E

TS-3279 TS-3479 or TS-4142 with AWM-23 TS-3519/DSM

Wrap Around Test (WAT) Adapter Set

A set of passive adapters and cables that allows F/A-18E/F aircraft avionics to perform release and control checks for the BRU-32/BRU-33, HARM, Maverick, Sparrow, Harpoon/SLAM,1760/AMRAAM and the BRU-55 for 1760 and non 1760 stores.

AN/AWM-102 Adapters
Nomenclature
W2 W3/MK-2 W4 W6 W12/W47 W16 W17 W30 W49

Purpose
Tests rockets pods prior to launch Tests firing IMER and ITER Test sonobuoy launch tubes for stray voltage and rocket pods for ignition voltage Tests LAU-118 prior to launch Tests BRU-32 breech Tests auxiliary unlock on BRU-14 Tests secondary release function on BRU-14 Tests LAU-117 prior to launch Tests auxiliary breech in BRU-32