CCNA Questions and Answers

CCNA Questions and Answers
What is an advantage to LAN segmentation?

A. Provides multiprotocol support B. Decreases security
C. Decreases broadcasts
D. Increases broadcasts
Answer:C
LAN segmentation decreases broadcast propagation to all segments.
2. What are the valid ways to segment a LAN? (Choose all that apply)
A. Repeater B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
Answer:B, C, D
Repeaters do not segment the network, but rather extend the distance a LAN can run.
3. What does a bridge use to segment a network?

A. IP Addresses
B. Broadcasts C. Application data
D. Media Access Control addresses
Answer:D
Bridges can only read frames and filters by MAC (hardware) address.
4. What is a disadvantage to using bridges in your network?

A. Filters by MAC address
B. Stops broadcast storms

C. Doesn't stop broadcast storms D. Can only use up to 4 bridges in any LAN
Answer:C
Even though the 5-4-3 rule specifies you can only have 4 bridges in a network, that is not really a disadvantage. The disadvantage to
bridging is that it filters by MAC address and cannot create separate
networks like a router can. This means that if a broadcast storm was to take place a bridge will forward the
frames.
5. What is an advantage of using routers in your network? (Choose all that apply)
A. Stops broadcast storms

B. Reduces downtime on your network C. Creates internetworks
D. Can filter by logical address
Answer:A, C, D
Routers can stop broadcast storms, create smaller networks and filter by logical (IP) addresses.
6. Which device can create smaller networks and stop broadcast storms by default?
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Router D. Gateway
Answer:C
Routers can create internetworks and filter by logical address (IP) address, which can stop broadcast storms.
7. What is an advantage to using switches in your network?

A. Addressing of hosts by DHCP
B. Ease of administration
C. Stops broadcast storms D. Works like a repeater
Answer:B
Switches filter by MAC address and, by default, are typically easy to administrate. B is the "best" answer.
8. When is Frame Tagging used?

A. When you install repeaters in your network
B. When you install bridges in your network C. When you install routers in your network
D. When you use Switches configured with multiple VLANS
Answer:D
Frame tagging is used to uniquely identify a frame as it traverses the switch fabric on a VLAN.
9. Which STP state prevents the use of looped paths?

A. Blocking
B. Listening
C. Learning D. Forwarding
Answer:A
The purpose of the blocking state is to prevent the use of looped paths. A port in listening state prepares to
forward data frames without populating the MAC address table. A port in learning state populates the MAC address table but doesn't
forward data frames. The forwarding port sends and receives all data frames on
the bridged port. Lastly, A port in the disabled state is virtually nonoperational.
10. Which STP state populates the MAC address table but doesn't forward data frames?
A. Blocking
B. Listening C. Learning
D. Forwarding
Answer:C
The purpose of the blocking state is to prevent the use of looped paths. A port in listening state prepares to forward data frames without
populating the MAC address table. A port in learning state populates the MAC
address table but doesn't forward data frames. The forwarding port sends and receives all data frames on
11. If a frame is received at a switch and only the destination hardware address is read before the frame is
forwarded, what type of switching method are you using?
A. fast-switch
B. VLSM C. Store and forward
D. cut-through
E. in-out
Answer:D
The cut-through switching method, only the destination hardware address is read before forwarding the
frame.
12. Which is true regarding Store-and-forward switching method?

A. Only reads the destination hardware address before forwarding the frame B. Latency varies depending on frame length
C. Default for all Cisco switches D. Latency is constant
Answer:B
The store and forward LAN switch will receive the entire frame, run a CRC, before forwarding the frame out
the destination port. Latency through store-and-forward switches varies depending on frame length.
13. Which of the following describes a full-duplex transmission?

A. Uses a single cable
B. Uses a point-to-point connection when only two hosts are present
C. Data transmission in only both directions, but only one way at a time D. Data transmission in only one direction
Answer:B
Full-duplex transmission uses a point-to-point connection from the transmitter of the transmitting station to
the receiver of the receiving station. Host to host means dedicated transmit to receiving pair as well as receiving to transmit pair.
14. Choose three reasons why the networking industry uses a layered model. (Choose 3)
A. Allow changes in one layer to occur without changing other layers B. To get Gigabit speeds on LANs
C. Clarify what general functions is to be done rather than how to do it
D. To create filter tables on LANs E. Order network troubleshooting steps
Answer:A, C, E
The reasons to use a layer model is:
- 1 Clarify what general functions is to be done rather than how to do it - 2 Reduce the complexity of networking into more manageable
sublayers
- 3 Enable interoperability using standard interfaces
- 4 Allow changes in one layer to occur without changing other layers - 5 Speed up network industry progress by allowing specialization
- 6 Allow for shortcut explanations to facilitate protocol comparisons - 7 Order network troubleshooting steps
- 8 Facilitate systematic troubleshooting
15. Why should you use a reference model when creating a network application?
A. To specify gigabit LAN speeds B. Enable interoperability using standard interfaces
C. Allow for shortcut explanations to facilitate protocol comparisons
D. To specify applications at any layer of the OSI model as needed
Answer:B, C
The reasons to use a layer model is:
- 1 Clarify what general functions is to be done rather than how to do it
- 2 Reduce the complexity of networking into more manageable sublayers - 3 Enable interoperability using standard interfaces
- 4 Allow changes in one layer to occur without changing other layers - 5 Speed up network industry progress by allowing specialization
- 6 Allow for shortcut explanations to facilitate protocol comparisons
- 7 Order network troubleshooting steps - 8 Facilitate systematic troubleshooting
16. Which of the following describe the steps of data encapsulation?

A. User information is converted to data, data to segments, segments to packets or datagrams, packets to
frames, and frames converted to bits.
B. Data is converted to frames, segments to packets or datagrams, packets to segments, and frames to bits,
then bits to data C. Frames are converted to bits, bits to segments, segments to packets or datagrams, packets or datagrams
to data
D. Data is converted to packets, packets to segments, segments to datagrams, datagrams to frames. Frames are then converted to bits.
Answer:A
Encapsulation describes the conversion of data for use at each layer. The order of conversion is: User
information is converted to data, data to segments, segments to packets or datagrams, packets to frames,
and frames to bits.
17. Describe data encapsulation.
A. Headers applied to a frame B. Frame types use in Cisco interfaces
C. The method of changing user data into a usable format to transmit on a network
D. Changing bits into packets
Answer:C
The five encapsulation methods are:

1 User information is converted to data.
2 Data is converted to segments. 3 Segments are converted to packets or datagrams.
4 Packets or datagrams are converted to frames. 5 Frames are converted to bits.
18. What uses a connection-less protocol at the Transport layer?

A. IP
B. ARP C. TCP
D. TCP/IP
E. Darpa F. UDP
G. ICMP
Answer:F
User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connection-less protocol that resides at the Transport layer
19. What protocols from the DOD stack reside at the Host-to-Host layer? (Choose all that apply)
A. IP
B. Darpa C. TCP
D. UDP
E. 802.3 F. 802.2
Answer:C, D
TCP and UDP are the only protocols specified at the Host-to-host layer of the DOD stack
20. Which STP state prepares to forward data frames without populating the MAC address table?
A. Blocking B. Listening
C. Learning
D. Forwarding
Answer:B
The purpose of the blocking state is to prevent the use of looped paths. A port in listening state prepares to
forward data frames without populating the MAC address table. A port in learning state populates the MAC address table but doesn't
forward data frames. The forwarding port sends and receives all data frames on
21. What protocol is used to resolve a hardware address given the IP address?
A. RARP B. IP
C. Darpa
D. ICMP E. ARP
F. TCP
G. UDP
Answer:E
Address Resolution Protocol is used to find a hardware address from an IP address
22. What is a connection-less protocol at the Internet layer?

A. ARP B. RARP
C. TCP D. UDP
E. IP
F. ICMP G. BootP
Answer:E
Internet Protocol is a connection-less protocol that resides at the Internet layer of the DOD stack and
addresses hosts.
23. What protocol sends redirects back to an originating router?

A. IP
B. ARP
C. BootP D. ICMP
E. TCP
Answer:D
ICMP redirects occur when a router determines the next hop is on the same network the packet originated
from. ICMP unreachable messages are returned when a service or host is not available.
24. When would a router receive an ICMP unreachable message?
A. When IP is not loaded on the transmitting device B. When a service or host is not available
C. When ARP broadcasts are not available
D. When BootP can't find a hardware address
Answer:B
ICMP redirects occur when a router determines the next hop is on the same network the packet originated
from. ICMP unreachable messages are returned when a service or host is not available.
25. What is the IP extended access-list range?

A. 1-99
B. 100-199
C. 200-299 D. 300-399
Answer:B
Extended access-list must fall in the range between 100 and 199.
26. Which of the following is a valid extended IP access-list?
A. access-list 101 permit icmp 172.16.30.0 any eq 21 log B. access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.30.0 any tcp eq 21 log
C. access-list 101 permit ip 172.16.30.0 any eq 21 log D. access-list 10 permit ip 172.16.30.0 any eq ftp
Answer:C
A is wrong because you cannot filter by port number when specifying icmp. B is wrong because it has the
parameters in the wrong place. D is wrong because it specifies a standard access list.
27. Which STP state sends and receives all data frames on the bridged port?
A. Blocking
B. Listening
C. Learning D. Forwarding
Answer:D
The purpose of the blocking state is to prevent the use of looped paths. A port in listening state prepares to forward data frames without
populating the MAC address table. A port in learning state populates the MAC
address table but doesn't forward data frames. The forwarding port sends and receives all data frames on
28. What authentication methods can be used by PPP?

(choose 2)
A. STP B. CHAP
C. PAP
D. SLIP
Answer:B, C
PPP can be configured to use either PAP or CHAP or both.
29. What are three ways to monitor IP access lists?

A. sh int
B. sh ip interface
C. sh ip access-lists D. sh run
E. sh access-lists all
Answer:B, C, D The way to monitor IP access lists is either show ip interface or show access-lists.
30. You have multiple devices connected to a switch at 10Mbps half-duplex. A server is also connected to this switch. How much bandwidth
does each device have to the server?
A. 1Mbps B. 2Mbps
C. 10Mbps D. Amount of devices divided by 10Mbps
Answer:C
Each device has a dedicated connection running 10Mbps. If the devices were connected to a hub, then they
would all have to share the bandwidth.
31. Which of the following is true regarding layer-2 switches?

A. A switch is a hub with more ports
B. A switch is a multi-port bridge
C. Switches learn IP address from each frame and filter the network using these addresses D. Switches learn MAC addresses by examining
the source address of each frame
Answer:B, D
A switch is really just a multi-port bridge with more intelligence. Switches (and bridges) build their filter table
by examining the source MAC address of each frame.
32. In a contention network, what is the problem when too many devices are attached to the same internetwork?
A. Flow control problems
B. Congestion
C. Windowing setup D. IP conflicts
Answer:B
In an internetwork with too many devices, congestion can slow network performance.
33. A solution for congestion problems in Ethernet network is?

A. Flow control B. Windowing
C. IP addressing
D. Segmentation
Answer:D
By segmenting your network with routers, bridges or switches, you can create smaller networks that can
make collision domains smaller.
34. Which of the following network types have a DR and a BDR assigned?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Broadcast
B. Point-to-point C. NBMA broadcast D. NBMA point-to-point E. NBMA point-to-multipoint Answer:A, C
No DR is assigned on any type of point-to-point link. No DR/BDR is assigned on the NBMA point-to-
multipoint due to the hub/spoke topology.
35. What is true about bridges?

(Choose all that apply)
A. Bridges work at the Physical layer B. Bridges work at the Data Link layer
C. They filter by logical address
D. They filter by MAC address
Answer:B, D
Bridges work at the Data Link layer and filter by hardware (MAC) address.
36. What is a benefit of segmenting your network with routers?
A. They provide Application layer security
B. They filter by logical address C. They create internetworks
D. They stop broadcast storms
Answer:B, C, D
Routers create internetworks, filter by logical address and stop broadcast storms.
37. What is true about routers? (Choose all that apply)

A. Used to connect bridges together B. Used to connect LANs to WANs
C. Routes packets through an internetwork
D. Defines network addressing Answer:B, C, D
Routers segment; create internetworks, route packets and address networks and hosts.
38. What is a benefit of segmenting your network with switches?

A. Each port on a switch acts like a router interface B. Switches provide bridging functionality at wire speed
C. Regenerates the digital signal at each hop
D. Stop broadcast storms
Answer:B
Switches are bridges with more port density. They do not stop broadcast storms. Wire speed means at
almost no latency, or delay.
39. What is a benefit of segmenting your network with switches? (Choose all that apply)
A. Switches can filter by logical address B. Switches reduce congestion by providing a dedicated point-to-point full-duplex path between
devices
C. Switches can create many LANs within one switch
D. Switches filter by MAC address
Answer:B, C, D
Most Cisco switches can run in full-duplex mode. This creates a point-to-point connection between the
transmitting and receiving host. Switches can create LANs within switches (VLANs). Switches build a table
of hardware addresses attached to the switch ports.
40. Which two statements are true regarding ISDN?

A. ISDN can use both voice and data
B. ISDN standards define the hardware call setup schemes for end-to-end digital connectivity
C. ISDN can only use data D. ISDN can only use voice
Answer:A, B ISDN can use both voice and data. It is also a call setup scheme for end-to-end digital connectivity. In
addition the ISDN Standards define the hardware call setup information.
41. What is true about fast ethernet?

A. Uses category 1 UTP cable B. All network cabling must be upgraded when upgrading from 10BaseT
C. All NIC cards must be replaced
D. Easy migration E. New technology that is not backwards compatible
F. You can use your existing cabling and network equipment
Answer:D, F The benefits of fast ethernet are:
- 100BaseT has 10 times the performance of 10BaseT
- All cable does not have to be upgraded - You can use your existing cabling and network equipment
- 10Mbps and 100Mbps can be used together
- Uses tried and true CSMA/CD technology - Easy migration
42. What are the benefits of fast ethernet?

A. Works with Token Ring on the same switch port
B. 100BaseT has 10 times the performance of 10BaseT C. You can use most of your existing cabling and network equipment
D. 10Mbps and 100Mbps can be used together in the same network
E. Uses tried and true CSMA/CD technology F. Easy migration
Answer:B, C, D, E, F
The benefits of fast ethernet are:
- 100BaseT has 10 times the performance of 10BaseT - You can use your existing cabling and network equipment
- 10Mbps and 100Mbps can be used together - Uses tried and true CSMA/CD technology
- Easy migration
43. What is the distance of Fast Ethernet?

A. Up to 300 meters in length B. Up to 100 meters in length
C. Up to 155 meters in length
D. up to 330 Meters in length
Answer:B
100BaseTX can be 100 meters in length
44. What is the distance limitation of 100BaseFX?

A. Up to 400 meters in length
B. Up to 4000 meters in length C. Up to 1400 meters in length
D. Up to 4040 meters in length
Answer:A
100BaseFX can be up to 400 meters in length
45. Which switching method is also known as on-the-fly packet switching?

A. Switch-fast
B. Cut-fast C. Cut-through
D. Store and forward
Answer:C
Cut through switching is also known as on-the-fly packet switching.
46. Which switching method is the only method to run a CRC on every frame?
A. cut-through
B. cut-fast
C. Store and forward D. Store and CRC
Answer:C
Store and forward switching method is the only method that runs a CRC.
47. What is the purpose of the spanning-tree protocol?

A. Create Link-state routing tables B. Stop network loops in bridged networks
C. Work with LSA to create a route table D. Stop broadcast storms
Answer:B
Bridges use the spanning-tree algorithm, enabling a learning bridge to dynamically work around loops in a
network topology by creating a spanning tree.
48. What is the IEEE version of Spanning-Tree?
A. 802.5
B. 802.3 C. 802.2
D. 802.1
Answer:D
IEEE 802.1 D is the spanning tree protocol specification.
49. What are benefits of VLANs?

A. Create multiple LANs within a switch fabric
B. Security C. Create LANs by function, not location
D. Protocol filtering
Answer:A, B, C
Switches work at the Data Link layer and cannot filter by protocol, only by MAC addresses.
50. Which of the following commands will show the frame relay encapsulation and bandwidth?
A. Sh int s1
B. sh frame s1 C. Sh s1 encap
D. sh protocol frame relay s1
Answer:A
The show interface command shows the encapsulation method used on an interface as well as the bandwidth.
51. What Cisco proprietary technology allows VLANs switching to be accomplished?

A. Cisco IP
B. VLAN ID
C. Frame Tagging D. Cisco IOS
B. Answer:C
Frame tagging places a unique user id in the header of each frame that allows that frame to traverse the
switching fabric.
52. What are the valid hosts for the following network: 192.168.10.40 255.255.255.224?
A. 192.168.10.32-64 B. 192.168.10.33-64
C. 192.168.10.33-62
D. 192.168.10.34-65
Answer:C
224 is 3 bits for subnets and 5 bits for host addressing. That means we have 6 subnets each with 30 hosts.
The valid subnets are: 256-224=32, 64, 96, 128, 160, 192. The valid hosts are the numbers between the subnets minus all zero's and all 1's.
The valid hosts in the 32 subnet are 33-62, 63 is the broadcast for the 32
subnet
A. 48-64 B. 48-63
C. 49-62
D. 49-61
Answer:C
A 240 mask gives us 4 -bits for subnets and 4-bits for host addressing. This gives us 14 subnets each with
14 hosts. The subnets are 256-240=16,32,48,64,80,96,112,128,144, 160,176,192,208,224. The valid hosts
are the numbers between the subnets, minus all zeros and all 1's. The valid hosts for the IP address specified in the question is the in the
48 subnet range or 49-62, 63 is the broadcast address.
A. 10.4 through 10.7
B. 10.5 through 10.6 C. 10.4 through 10.10
D. 10.4 through 10.8
Answer:B
252 subnet will give us 6 bits for subnets and 2 bits for hosts. This gives us 62 subnets each with 2 hosts.
The host specified in the question is in the first subnet: 256-252=4. The valid hosts are 10.5 and 10.6. 10.7 is the broadcast for the 4
subnet.
A. 5.1 to 7.1
B. 4.1 to 8.254 C. 4.1 to 4.255
D. 4.1 to 7.254
Answer:D
The class B subnet mask of 255.255.252.0 gives us 62 subnets each with 1022 hosts. The hosts specified in the question is in the first
subnet: 256-252=4. The valid hosts for the 4.0 subnet is the numbers between the
subnets or 4.1 to 7.254. 7.255 is the broadcast address for the 4.0 subnet.
56. Which of the following identifies the Presentation layer and the functions it provides to the Application
Layer?
(Choose 2) A. Provides a common representation of Application data while the data is in transit between two cooperating
computer systems B. Provides system independent process or program services to end users
C. Provides code formatting and conversion, negotiates data transfer syntax for the Application layer
D. Coordinates requests and responses that occur when Applications communicate between different hosts Answer:A, C
The Presentation layer does code conversion and syntax for the Application layer
57. Which of the following commands will reboot the router?
A. Reset B. Down
C. Exit
D. Reload E. Restart
Answer:D
Typing reload will ask you for a confirmation if you want to reload the router, and then if agreed, will reboot
the router.
58. What command will put you into setup mode after restarting the router? (choose 2)
A. Restart B. Setup
C. Boot system
D. erase star E. wr erase
Answer:D, E
The command Setup, run from privileged mode, will immediately put you into setup mode. Erase star and write erase will erase the
startup-config and put you into setup mode when the router is reloaded.
59. When in setup mode, which of the following is true?

A. The ip address and subnet mask must be entered on the same line
B. The ip address and mask are assigned on separate lines C. You can configure AppleTalk routing
D. You are prompted to set the enable secret, secret, console and VTY passwords
Answer:B, C When in setup mode, the IP address and subnet mask are defined on separate lines. You can also configure
multiple protocols if the IOS software supports it. Also, you are prompted to set the enable secret, secret and
VTY passwords only. You must set the console and Aux passwords after setup.
60. When in setup mode, what happens if you do not set the VTY password?
A. You won't be able to logon from the console port
B. You won't be able to logon from the aux port
C. You won't be able to telnet into the router D. Nothing
Answer:C
If you do not set the VTY password, you will be denied access when trying to telnet into the router. You can set this during setup or at
anytime after you finish configuring your router.
61. How do you create a backup of the Cisco IOS and store it on a TFTP server?
A. copy backup to tftp
B. copy run to tftp
C. copy start tftp

D. copy flash to tftp E. copy flash tftp
Answer:E
By typing copy flash tftp, it will make a copy of the Cisco IOS and store it on the TFTP host.
62. How can you restore a configuration?

A. copy tftp startup B. copy run tftp
C. copy tftp running
D. copy tftp flash Answer:A, C
You can copy a backup configuration from a tftp host to either startup-config or running-config depending on your needs.
63. What configuration commands will configure a router for fallback?

(Choose 3) A. copy tftp flash
B. boot system flash C. boot system rom
D. boot system tftp
E. boot system host Answer:B, C, D
By configuring you router to boot system flash, boot system tftp, boot system rom, the router will first try and
boot from flash, if that is unsuccessful, it will try and boot from a tftp host, it that is unsuccessful, from ROM mode.
64. Copy tftp flash initiates what events?

A. The router configuration is copied from a tftp server to the router
B. The router IOS software is loaded from a tftp server to the routers flash C. The routers configuration is loaded into boot rom
D. The routers IOS software is loaded into NVRAM
Answer:B
By typing copy tftp flash, you are telling the router to go to a tftp host and download the IOS software to the router's flash memory.
65. How do you load a new version of Cisco IOS into the router?
A. Boot system <new IOS version>
B. copy tftp startup-<ios version>
C. copy flash tftp D. copy tftp flash
Answer:D
In order to load a new Cisco IOS, you must put the new IOS version on a TFTP host, then run the copy tftp
flash command at the router. The router will then step you through the steps to load the new IOS.
66. The "boot system tftp" command must be followed by what parameters?
(choose 2) A. IOS file name
B. Configuration register setting
C. IP address of tftp host D. Boot rom command
Answer:A, C
Typing boot system tftp <Cisco ios filename> <ip address of tftp host> is the correct parameters.
67. Which of the following is true about the Network layer?

A. Establishes network addresses
B. Uses acknowledgements C. Selects the best path through an internetwork
D. Is responsible for setting up and tearing down a session E. Uses windowing
F. Uses a routed protocol to carry user packets
Answer:A, C, F
The Network layer of the OSI Reference model establishes network addresses, selects the best path through an internetwork, can use
routing protocol between routers, can also use a routed protocol to carry user
packets (IP). The Network layer also uses two-part addresses, sets up and maintains routing tables,
discovers networks, adapts to internetwork topology changes and contains broadcasts.
68. Which of the following is true about the Network layer? (Choose all that apply)
A. Uses broadcasts B. Uses two-part addresses

C. Defines the rules for sending and receiving information from one node to another between systems D. Provides mechanisms for
multiplexing upper layer applications
E. Discovers networks
F. Adapts to internetwork topology changes
Answer:A, B, E, F
The Network layer of the OSI Reference model establishes network addresses, selects the best path through
an internetwork, can use routing protocol between routers, can also use a routed protocol to carry user
packets (IP). The Network layer also uses two-part addresses, sets up and maintains routing tables, discovers networks, adapts to
internetwork topology changes and contains broadcasts.
69. What OSPF term refers to a network or router interface assigned to any given interface?
A. Link
B. Area C. LSA
D. STP
Answer:A
Within OSPF, link is synonymous with interface.
70. What is the class, subnet and broadcast address of the following IP address: 10.0.1.12
255.255.255.128?
A. Class B, subnet 10.255.255.254, broadcast 10.0.1.127 B. Class A, subnet 10.0.1.0, broadcast 10.255.255.255
C. Class C, subnet 10.0.1.0, broadcast 10.0.1.255
D. Class A, subnet 10.0.1.0, broadcast 10.0.1.127
Answer:D
This isn't as hard as it looks. There are only 7 host bits. If you turn them all off you get 0, if you turn them all
on, you get 127. Since you can't use a host with all 0's or all 1's, the valid hosts are the numbers between (1-126). The broadcast address is
the host bits set to all 1's.
71. If your router receives a triggered update, what will reset the holdown timer?
A. A RIP update
B. Holddown timer expires C. IGRP algorithm timer
D. Another update is received indication the network status has changed E. The administrator can type: reset router
F. The flush timer expires
Answer:B, D, F After a triggered update takes place, the holddown timer will be reset when the holddown timer expires, the
flush timer expires, or another update is received indicating the network status has changed.
72. RIP sends a complete routing table to its neighbors how often by default?
A. every 5 minutes B. every 50 seconds
C. every 30 minutes
D. every 30 seconds
Answer:D
RIP enabled routers send their complete routing table to all their neighbors every 30 seconds.
73. What is true about routed and routing protocols?
A. Several protocols can exist on the same network, as long as they can be configured to share routing
tables B. Several protocols can exist on the same network, as long as they can be configured to share a dynamic
routing algorithm
C. Several configured protocols operate like ships in the night. Each protocol is not aware of other protocols running on the same router
D. With an integrated multiprotocol routing environment, the several configured protocols can share the results of the integrated routing
algorithm
Answer:C, D
In a multiprotocol routing environment, that uses both routed and routing protocols, the several configured protocols operate like ships in
the night. This means that each protocol is not aware of other protocols
running on the same router or network. With an integrated multiprotocol routing environment, the several
configured protocols share the results of the integrated routing algorithm.
74. What is the difference between routed and routing protocols?
A. Routed protocols run dynamic routing protocols like RIP

B. Routed protocol are used to send user data. Protocols like IP and IPX C. Routing protocols are used to send user data. Protocols like IP
and IPX
D. Routing protocols are used to update routes about internetwork information
Answer:B, D Routed protocols are used for sending packet with data between routers. Routing protocols like RIP and
IGRP are used to update routers about internetwork information i.e. routes to destinations
75. What is the valid range of hosts for IP address 172.16.0.17 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240?
A. 172.16.0.16-32 B. 172.16.0.17-32
C. 172.16.0.17-31
D. 172.16.0.17-30
Answer:D
172.16.0.16 is the first subnet (256-240=16), with no bits turned on in the third octet for subnetting. There are
only 4 bits for hosts. If all the hosts bits are off, the fourth octet would be 16, which is the first subnet and not valid as a host. If all host bits
are on, the forth octet would be 31, and is the broadcast address for network
16. The valid hosts would then be the numbers in between all zero's and all 1's or 17-30.
76. You have a class B network with a 10-bit subnet mask, what are the valid hosts?
(Choose two)
A. 172.16.0.65-127 B. 172.16.0.65-126
C. 172.16.255.1-62
D. 172.16.255.1-63 Answer:B, C
For the first answer, there is no subnet bits turned on in the third octet and one subnet bit turned on in the
forth octet. That gives you a 0.64 subnet address. There are 6 hosts bits. If they are all turned off, the forth octet will be 64, which is the
subnet address. If the host bits are all turn on, the forth octet will be 127, which
is the broadcast address for subnet 64. The valid hosts are then 65-126. For the second answer, if you turn on all subnet bits on the third
octet and no subnet bits on the forth octet, that leaves you with a 255.0 subnet.
There are 6 hosts bits. If they are all turn off, the host bits would be 0. If they are all turn on, the host bits
would be 63, which is the broadcast address for that subnet. The valid hosts are then 1-62.
77. Which of the following are valid ways of assigning an IP address to an interface?
A. config t, ip address 172.16.10.1 mask 255.255.255.0 B. config t, int t0, 172.16.10.1 255.255.255.0
C. config t, int e0, ip address 172.16.10.1 mask 255.255.255.0
D. config t, int fa4, ip address 172.16.10.1 255.255.255.0

Answer:D
The correct sequence for assigning an IP address to an interface is: config t, int fa0 (fa is for FastEthernet, t for Token ring, E for
Ethernet), ip address <address> <subnet mask>. Only D is correct.
78. When assigning an IP address to a serial interface, what is the default encapsulation?
A. X.25
B. Frame Relay C. SDLC
D. HDLC
Answer:D
High-level Data Link Control (HDLC), is the default encapsulation on all Cisco serial ports.
79. What utilities are used to verify the IP configuration of a device?

A. Ping B. Telnet
C. ARP
D. Trace
Answer:A, B, D
Telnet verifies the application-layer software between source and destination stations. This is the most
complete test mechanism available. Ping uses the ICMP protocol to verify the hardware connection at the
logical address of the network layer. Trace uses Time-To-Live (TTL) values to generate messages from each router used along the path.
This is very powerful in its ability to locate failures in the path from the source to
the destination.
80. How do enable RIP routing on your network?

A. Rip router, network 172.16.10.0 B. Router rip, network 172.16.0.0
C. Router enable rip, 172.16.0.0
D. Enable rip routing, network 172.16.0.0
Answer:B
To enable RIP routing; you use the command router rip. Then you must specify the network that will be advertised with the network
command: network 172.16.0.0. Do NOT use subnet numbers in the command.
81. If you have enabled RIP routing on your router, but do not want to advertise your network with RIP out interface serial 1, what
command should you use?
A. Disable rip serial 1 B. enable shut rip serial 1
C. passive s1
D. Neighbor rip s1
Answer:C
To stop your router from advertising out a particular interface, use the passive command. For example:
config t, router rip, network 172.16.0.0, passive S1.
82. What is the difference in commands between enabling RIP and IGRP on your router?
A. IGRP must specify the port to distribute broadcasts B. IGRP must specify the subnet numbers
C. IGRP must specify the neighbor routers D. IGRP must specify an AS
Answer:D
Enabling IGRP is basically the same as enabling RIP. However, you must assign an Autonomous System
(AS) number when configuring IGRP.
83. When enabling IGRP routing, what parameters must you apply?
A. broadcast address, and AS number
B. network number and AS number
C. igrp routing, network number, and passive interface D. igrp routing, network number, and AS
Answer:D
To enable IGRP routing on your router, you must specify IGRP routing, the network number, and the AS
system number.
84. Which of the following is an Internet Protocol (IP) link-state protocol used in the TCP/IP stack?
A. RIP V2 B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. IGRP
Answer:C
OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a true link-state IP routing protocol. It uses only bandwidth as a way to
determine the best path to a remote network.
85. What would the config register setting be if you wanted to boot from ROM?
A. 0 B. 2102
C. 101
D. 103
Answer:C
101 or 2101, either one, will have the router load the IOS from ROM
86. Which type of OSPF network will elect a Backup Designated Router (BDR)?
A. Broadcast
B. Non-Broadcast Multiaccess C. Point-to-point D. Broadcast Multipoint Answer:A, B
No DR is assigned on any type of point-to-point link. No DR/BDR is assigned on the NBMA point-to-
multipoint due to the hub/spoke topology.
87. Which of the following two commands will place network 10.2.3.0/24 into Area 0?
A. router eigrp 10 B. router ospf 10 C. router rip
E. network 10.0.0.0 E. network 10.2.3.0 255.255.255.0 area 0 F. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area0 G. network 10.2.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
Answer:G
To configure OSPF, you must first start the process with the router ospf [process id]. Then you must add the
networks with the network command and wildcards. There must also be a space after the area command
and the configured area number.
88. What does EIGRP use to deliver routing information throughout the internetwork?
A. DUAL B. RTP
C. RTMP D. PDM
Answer:A
Explanation: EIGRP uses the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) to find routes and make sure the network is
loop free.
89. What are three reasons for creating OSPF in a hierarchical design?
A. To decrease routing overhead B. To speed up convergence C. To confine network instability to single areas of the network D. To make
configuring OSPF easier Answer:A, B, C
OSPF hierarchal design, if done correctly, can help decrease routing protocol overhead as well as speed up convergence time of the
network. If a problem occurs, the whole network isn't flooded with information; only
routers within the troublesome area would be affected. This design is a much more difficult configuration.
90. When the show ip route command is used, which of the following codes indicate an EIGRP learned
route?
A. D
B. R
C. S D. I
Answer:A
EIGRP uses D, RIP uses R, S identifies a static route, and I indicates IGRP.
91. A router chooses the OSPF Router ID based on which of the following?
A. Lowest IP address from any interface B. Highest IP address from any interface C. Lowest IP address from any loopback interface D.
Highest IP address from any loopback interface Answer:D
The Router ID is determined by the highest IP address configured on a loopback interface. If a router does not have a loopback interface,
then the Router ID is determined by the highest IP address configured on the
router.
92. In the following routing table, what does the [120/3] mean?
R 192.168.30.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.40.1, 00:00:23, Serial0/0
C 192.168.40.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0 R 192.168.20.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.40.1, 00:00:23, Serial/0
R 10.0.0.0/8 [120/2] via 192.168.40.1, 00:00:23, Serial0/0
C 192.168.50.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0 R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.40.1, 00:00:23, Serial0/0
A. The IP port number and packets sent B. The administrative distance and metric C. The metric and hop count D. The bandwidth and
update timer The [120/3] is administrative distance and hop count (metric)
Answer:B
93. You have the following routing table. Which of the following networks will not be placed in the neighbor
routing table? R 192.168.30.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.40.1, 00:00:12, Serial0
C 192.168.40.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0
172.16.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets C 172.16.30.0 is directly connected, Loopback0
R 192.168.20.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.40.1, 00:00:12, Serial0
R 10.0.0.0/8 [120/15] via 192.168.40.1, 00:00:07, Serial0

C 192.168.50.0/24 is directly connected, Ethernet0 A. 172.16.30.0
B. 192.168.30.0
C. 10.0.0.0 D. All of them will be placed in the neighbors routing table Answer:C
The network 10.0.0.0 cannot be placed in the next routers routing table because it already is at 15 hops. One more hop would make the
route 16 hops, and that is not valid in RIP networking.
94. Which of the following are valid frame relay terms?

A. X.25
B. DLCI C. PAP
D. LMI
Answer:B, D Data Link connection Identifier and Local Management Interface are valid Frame Relay terms.
95. What is the frame relay map command used for?

A. To identify the hardware address of the local interface
B. To identify the virtual circuit C. Map a DLCI address to an IP address
D. Route packets in the Frame PVC
Answer:C
The Frame Relay map command tells the network how to get from a specific IP address to the correct local data link connection identifier
(DLCI).
96. When configuring Frame Relay, which parameters are true for creating serial subinterfaces?
A. config t, int s0.100, ipx network 100 encap sap
B. config t, int s0.100, ipx network 100 encap arpa C. config t, int s0.100, ipx network 100
D. config t, int s0.100, ipx network 100 encap hdlc
Answer:C
You cannot configure an IPX network with SAP or ARPA encapsulation on Serial interfaces. The default is
HDLC, however, you cannot configure HDLC within Frame Relay, which makes D incorrect
97. What command shows the frame relay protocol statistics?

A. sh frame stat
B. sh frame-relay traffic
C. sh ip frame-relay stat D. sh frame-relay ip
Answer:B
Show frame-relay traffic command shows the frame relay protocol statistics.
98. Which command shows LMI statistics?

A. sh frame-relay B. sh frame-relay lmi
C. sh frame-relay ip
D. sh frame-relay lmi stat
Answer:B
The show frame-relay lmi show the LMI statistics.
99. Which are true regarding PPP?

A. Uses compression B. Can use PAP
C. Uses HDLC
D. Used on LANs by default Answer:A, B, C
PPP can use Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) and also offers compression to increase effective
throughput. PPP uses HDLC at the MAC sublayer.
100. What is true regarding PPP?
A. Can use X.25 protocols

B. Can use multilink C. Has authentication
D. Provides ASP protocol enhancement
Answer:B, C Can use multilink option to load balance transmissions across a communications bundle. Can also offer
authentication (CHAP, PAP) to verify approval to make or receive a call.
101. Which of the following is a true statement regarding standard IP access lists?
A. access-list 110 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
B. access-list 10 permit ip any C. access-list 10 deny any any eq ftp log
D. access list 100 permit ip any any
Answer:B
Answers A and D use access numbers for extended IP access lists, so only answer B or C could be correct.
However, answer C filters by protocol, which a standard IP access list cannot do.
102. Which of the following commands will show all access lists on your router?
A. sh ip access-list B. sh ipx access-list
C. sh access-list 100
D. sh access-list
Answer:D
To display all the access lists on the router, type show access-list.
103. Which of the following commands will show an extended access list 169?
A. sh ip int
B. sh ip access-list C. sh access-list 169
D. sh access-list 169 extended
Answer:C
Show access-list 169 will show you the configuration of extended IP access-list
104. When would you install ISDN?
A. When you need high data speed B. When you need voice capability on your WAN
C. When you want to upgrade your X.25 network
D. When you need streaming video to all desktops Answer:A, B
ISDN can be used for voice, and data using digital signaling over regular voice grade circuits.
105. When would ISDN be a good solution?
A. When you need to have a PVC B. When you need to route multiple protocols
C. When you need LAN and Internet access at fast speeds with burstable traffic
D. When you have dozens of buildings to connect together
Answer:C
Cisco calls ISDN fast. ISDN is great to connect small remote office to the main office for LAN and Internet
access. If you have dozens of buildings to connect, Frame Relay would be a better solution.
106. What is true about Cisco ISDN?

A. Provides multiprotocol support
B. Uses multiple bearer channels C. Has speeds up to 3 Mbps
D. Uses bandwidth on demand
Answer:A, B, D
ISDN with Cisco routers can use multi-protocols, with multiple bearer channels and bandwidth on demand with speeds up to around
2Mbps.
107. What encapsulations are used with ISDN?
A. IP B. IPX
C. HDLC
D. PPP Answer:C, D
IP and IPX are network layer protocols, not encapsulations.
108. What is the link state routing protocol in the TCP/IP stack?
A. IP B. IS-IS
C. NLSP
D. OSPF E. RIP version2
Answer:D
OSPF is the only true link-state protocol supporting IP.
109. Which two commands allow you to verify address configuration in your internetwork (choose 2)
A. Ping B. Trace
C. verify
D. test IP E. echo IP
F. config IP
Answer:A, B Both Ping and Trace operate from layer 3 of one device to layer 3 of another device. Therefore, both can
verify address configurations of your internetwork.
110. When you configure an IP address on a Cisco router, which command starts the IP processing on the
interface?
A. ip enable
B. network ip-address
C. ip address ip-address subnet mask D. the exit command from the enabled configuration
E. copy running configuration to startup configuration
Answer:C
When the command is executed by pressing the enter key, the IOS immediately parses the command and
starts any process.
111. Which of the following protocols is used to exchange VLAN configuration information between
switches?
A. 802.10
B. VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) C. Inter-Switch Link (ISL) D. 802.1Q
Answer:C, D VLAN Trunking Protocol is responsible for distributing and synchronizing information about configured
VLANs between switches throughout the network. VTP manages additions, deletions, and name changes for
network VLANs.
112. You need to add a new VLAN named ROUTERSIM to your switched network. Which of the following
are true regarding configuration of this VLAN? (Select all that apply.)
A. You must name the VLAN. B. You must assign ports on a switch for this VLAN. C. You must add this VLAN to the VTP domain. D. The
VLAN must be created. E. You must add an IP address for the ROUTERSIM VLAN. Answer:A, B, D
To establish a VLAN, you must first create the VLAN, name it, and then add the VLAN to the desired ports of a switch. Since the Network
layer protocol is irrelevant to the VLAN, the IP address answer is not correct.
113. What is the result of using a hierarchical addressing framework?

A. Increased ability of addresses
B. Decreased distance between routers C. Increased router memory requirements
D. No need to maintain routing information
Answer:A
Using hierarchical addressing allows for more efficient usage of assigned addresses, which provides for less waste and more addresses
available for use.
114. When is frame tagging used?
A. When VLANs are traversing an access link B. When VLANs are traversing a trunked link C. When ISL is used on an access link D. When
802.1Q is used on an access link
Answer:B
Cisco created frame tagging to be used when an Ethernet frame traverses a trunked link.
115. Which three protocols are currently matched to their transport layer functions?
A. Enroute selection-IP B. Sliding window-UDP
C. Well known ports - IP
D. route validation-ICNP E. connection oriented-TCP
F. three-way handshake-TCP
G. no sequence and acknowledgement-UDP Answer:E, F, G
TCP is the connection-oriented protocol of the TCP/IP suite and uses a three-way handshake to establish
connections. UDP is connectionless and does not provide sequencing and acknowledgements.
116. Which network mask should you place on a Class C network to accommodate a user requirement of
two subnetworks with a maximum of 35 hosts on each network?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
Answer:A
Using 2 bits for subnetting (192) allows for 2 subnets and 62 hosts. Although this exceeds the number of hosts, no subnetting will allow for
exactly 35 hosts. A subnet mask of 224 allows for only 30 hosts which
does not reach the value of 35.
117. In which two modes can the ICMP ping command be used?
(choose 2) A. user
B. privileged
C. global configuration D. interface configuration
Answer:A, B Ping is one of the few commands that work both at the user and privileged mode.
118. You have a Frame Relay link on serial 1. Which command displays the Local Management Interface
(LMI), data link connection identifier (DLCI), and bandwidth for that interface?
A. show interface serial1
B. show frame-relay serial1 C. show protocol frame-relay serial1
D. show serial1 encapsulation frame-relay
Answer:A
The show interface serial 1 command will display a screen full of information concerning that interface.
Contained within the information is the LMI, DLCI and bandwidth.
119. You are configuring a frame relay router with subinterfaces on interface Serial 0. Which subinterface
numbers could you use for this configuration?
A. 1 and 2
B. 0.2 and 0.3
C. 1.0 and 1.1 D. 0.1a and 0.1b
Answer:B
This is a difficult question because more then one question looks correct. Answer B is the best answer.
120. What is the total bandwidth of all channels on a BRI circuit?
A. 56kps B. 64kps
C. 112kps
D. 128kps E. 144kps
Answer:E
The D channel bandwidth is 16K and the two B channels are 64K each totaling 144K.
121. Which configuration task must you complete if a remote Frame Relay router does not support Inverse ARP?
A. configure static maps B. define an IP address locally

C. disable DHCP on the Frame Relay router
D. configure a static route to the remote network
Answer:A
Frame-Relay will send a hello packet to the device on the other side of the point to point connection. This is
known as inverse-ARP. If the other side does not support Inverse-ARP you must configure a static map.
122. What does a frame relay switch use to distinguish between each PVC connection?
A. data-link connection identifiers (DLCIs) B. BECNs

C. FECNs D. the Local Management Interface (LMI)
Answer:A
Each PVC is assigned a DLCI that uniquely identifies that connection between the router and the frame-relay
switch. The DLCI is only locally significant .
123. What are four benefits that can result from applying ISDN networking?
(choose 4) A. Full-time connectivity across the ISDN is spoofed by Cisco IOS routers using dial-on-demand routing.
(DDR)
B. Small Office and Home Office sites can be economically supported with ISDN Basic Rate Interface (BRI) services.
C. ISDN replaces Signaling System 7(SS7) in the Public Switched Telephone Network (PSTN) backbone.
D. ISDN can be used as a backup service for a leased-line connection between the remote and central offices
E. Modem racking and cabling can be eliminated by integration of digital modem cards on Cisco IOS
Network Access Servers (NAS) Answer:A, B, D, E
ISDN uses SS7 signaling at the switching equipment.
124. Which two statements about integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) are true? (choose two)
A. ISDN provides data-only capability
B. ISDN provides an integrated voice/data capability C. The ISDN standards define the hardware and call setup schemes for end-to-end
digital connectivity
D. Users receive more bandwidth on WAN's with a leased line of 56kpbs than with multiple B channels.
Answer:B, C A and D are false because ISDN provides voice and data capability and the total bandwidth of an BRI
connection is 144Kbps.
125. Given the following criteria for granting access from a remote site to your LAN.
Restrict access on interface e0 for Telnet and FTP. Which line should come last in configuring your access
list?
A. access-list 101 end
B. access-list 101 deny e0 telnet ftp C. access-list 101 allow all except ftp telnet
D. access-list 101 permit IP 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 any
E. access-list 101 deny ip 128.12.22.55 tcp eq 20 21 23
Answer:D
At the end of all access-lists is an implicit deny all statement. Therefore, you must include a permit any any
to allow traffic that does not meet your restrictions to continue.
126. Which command should you use to create an IP standard access list?
A. access-list standard 172.16.4.13
B. access-list 1 deny 172.16.4.13 0.0.0.0
C. access-list 100 deny 172.16.4.13 0.0.0.0 D. access-list 198 deny 172.16.4.13 255.255.255.255
Answer:B
All standard IP access-list must be in the range of 1 - 99.
127. Which router command allows you to view the entire contents of all access lists?
A. Router# show interface
B. Router> show ip interface
C. Router# show access-lists D. Router> show all access-lists
Answer:C
From global configuration you can view all access-lists by entering show access-lists.
128. Which command displays the interfaces using a given access list?
A. show filters B. show ip interface

C. show active lists D. show interface perimeters
E. configure ip access lists
F. show access lists interfaces
Answer:B
To determine which interfaces may have an access-list applied, the show ip interface command will display
only the interfaces configured for IP. You can view the output to determine if an access-list has been applied
in-bound or out-bound.
129. What is the maximum length of the Fast Ethernet cable (100BaseTx) standard?
A. 10 meters
B. 50 meters
C. 100 meters D. 1000 meters
Answer:C
The IEEE standard calls for a maximum of 100 meters.
130. What is a backoff on an 802.3 network?
A. It is latency in store and forward switching. B. It is the time used for token passing from machine to machine.
C. It is the retransmission delay that is enforced when a collision occurs.
D. It is the result of two nodes transmitting at the same time. The frames from each transmitting device
collide and are damaged.
Answer:C
The access protocol CSMA/DA dictates a random back off time period.
131. Which two statement are true? (choose 2)

A. Ethernet 802.3 utilizes a half-duplex method for data transfer
B. In a 100Mbs point-to-point connecting, a full-duplex connecting can provide 400 Mbs of data transfer C. Ethernet switches can use the
full duplex mode to connect multiple nodes on a single port of a switch
D. Full-duplex Ethernet takes advantage of UTP using one pair for transmission and the other pair for
reception Answer:A, D
In answers B and C, a point to point 100 MBPS is the limit and full-duplex only works on point to point connections.
132. What are four ways that Fast Ethernet compares to 10BaseT Ethernet?
(choose 4) A. Fast Ethernet uses the same maximum transmission unit (MTU)
B. Fast Ethernet is based on an extension to the IEEE 802.3 specification C. Fast Ethernet uses the same media access control (MAC
mechanisms)
D. Fast Ethernet preserves the frame format that is used by 10BaseT Ethernet
E. Fast Ethernet offers a speed increase one hundred times that of the 10BaseT Ethernet Answer:A, B, C, D
FastEthernet only increases the speed of 10BaseT ten times.
133. Which command would you use to enable IP RIP version 1 on a router?
A. router rip network 172.16.1.0

network 10.1.0.0
B. router rip network 172.16.0.0
network 10.0.0.0
C. router rip network 172.16.1.0 172.16.1.1
network 10.1.0.0 10.1.1.1
D. router rip network 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0
network 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0
Answer:B
When configuring router rip the networks are entered using classful notation (10.0.0.0, 172.16.0.0)
134. What are four ways network management can be simplified by using virtual LANs (VLAN's)?
Choose 4
A. VLAN's allow you to implement multilayer switching easily B. The VLAN can group several broadcast domains into multiple logical
subnets
C. It is no longer necessary to install cables to move a user from one network to another.
D. Network adds, moves, and changes are achieved by configuring a port into the appropriate VLAN. E. A group of users needing high
security can be put into a VLAN so that no users outside of that VLAN can
communicate with them
F. As a logical grouping of users, VLAN's can be considered independent from the physical or geographic locations
Answer:B, D, E, F A VLAN does not group broadcasts together (C ). VLANs certainly do not make multilayered switching
easier (A). The others are true concerning VLANS.
135. Switching methods include cut-through, store and forward, and a modified version of the first two methods. Which statement about
switching methods is true?
A. The store and forward method has low latency.
B. the cut-through method of switching has high latency.
C. The modified version holds the packet in memory until 50 percent of the packet reaches the switch D. The modified version holds the
packet in memory until the data portion of the packet reaches the switch
Answer:D
The store and forward method has a high latency (delay) because the entire frame is read before switching.
The cut-through has a low latency because only the destination address is read before switching. Answer D is correct so answer C can not
be correct.
136. With one method for transmitting frames through a switch, the switch receives the complete frame and checks the frame CRC before
forwarding the frame. What is this switch transmission method called?
A. CSMA/CD B. Full-duplex
C. cut-through
D. half-duplex E. fragmentation
F. store and forward
Answer:F
When using Cut-through the switch only reads the destination address. In Frag-Free the switch reads the
first 64 bytes and in Store and Forword the entire frame is read before switching.
137. Which two statements about frame tagging are true?

(choose 2) A. a filtering table is developed for each switch
B. Frame tagging assigns a unique user-defined ID to each frame
C. A unique identifier is placed in the header of each frame as it is forwarded between switches D. Frame tagging is a technique that
examines particular information about each frame, based on user
defined offsets
Answer:B, C Answer A is incorrect because the switch builds only one filter table. D is incorrect because the user can not
define any of the values used on switching.
138. Which technology is used by Catalyst switches to resolve topology loops and ensure data flows
properly through a single network path?
A. virtual LANS
B. frame filtering C. cut-through switching
D. spanning-tree protocol
Answer:D
Catalyst switches use the STP (spanning tree protocol) to prevent loops and to ensure data flows through a single network path.
139. Which prompt and command combination sets RIP as the routing protocol A. router# rip
B. Router# router rip
C. Router(config)# rip D. Router(config)# router rip
Answer:D
Starting a routing process like RIP must be down at the global configuration mode.
140. How do you get help on a command after you have received the "% incomplete command" response
from a switch CLI?
A. type "history" to review the prompt before the error B. enter a question mark to display all the console commands
C. type "help" followed by the command to see command parameters
D. reenter the command followed by a question mark to view keywords
Answer:D
This will cause the IOS to display all of the various options for the command in question.
141. Which two solutions are used to reduce the chance of distance vector routing loops? (choose 2)
A. split horizon
B. route poison C. area hierarchies
D. link-state algorithms
Answer:A, B The split horizon rule states that routers can not send updates out an interface that were learned on that
interface. The route poisoning rule states that routers must send out an update that states the destination is
unreachable when the link fails.
142. When you enter router passwords during the setup dialog, what is the difference between enable and
the enable secret passwords?
A. The enable password is encrypted
B. The enable secret password uses IPSec password authentication C. The enable secret password cannot be seen as clear text when
viewing the configuration
D. the enable secret password acts as a backup in case the enable password is comprised
Answer:C
When you enter an enable secret password, it is encrypted and can not be viewed in the configuration file.
In addition, it will over ride the enable password causing all users to use the enable secret password when
attempting to change to the privileged mode.
143. You have just issued the erase startup-config command and reloaded your router. In which mode will
your router be when you reboot?
A. setup B. startup
C. user EXEC
D. user privileged E. global configuration
Answer:A
If the router can not find a startup-config file, it will start the setup process.
144. Which command assigns the login password 'cisco' on the console terminal line?
A. line vty 0 login

password cisco B. line console
login
password cisco C. line login terminal
password Cisco
D. line console 0 login
password CISCO
E. line console 0 login
password cisco
Answer:E
Answer A sets the password for the virtual terminals (telnet). Answers B and C are invalid commands due to
syntax errors. Answer D is the correct command syntax, but assigns the password to CISCO. Passwords
are case sensitive.
145. Which router component stores routing tables, ARP cache, and packet buffers?
A. ROM
B. RAM
C. NVRAM D. Flash memory
Answer:B
RAM is the working location for the router and is where all working information is stored.
146. If you are in IOS user mode, which command do you use to enter the privileged mode?
A. set
B. enable C. configure
D. privileges
Answer:B
To move from user mode to privileged mode you must enter the enable command.
147. Which command displays all the commands in the history buffer?
A. <Ctrl><H>
B. show buffer
C. show history D. show history buffer
Answer:C
To display the history buffer the correct command is show history
148. You just entered the following command

Router(config)# line console 0
Which operation is most likely to follow?
A. configure terminal type B. enter protocol parameters for a serial line

C. create a password on the console terminal line D. establish a terminal type 4 connection to a remote host
E. change from configuration mode to console privileged mode
Answer:C
When entering the line console command you are entering the line mode where you can configure the console line. The only option
presented that is a valid line configuration task is C.
149. While you are preparing the initial configuration of your router and enabling IP, you find that you need to
use a Telnet session to check for a network address parameter. Your Telnet login and your virtual terminal session on the other device are
successful.
What is the default that you must enter to suspend your Telnet session and return to the original router?
A. suspend
B. the command exit C. Ctrl-Esc follow by x
D. Ctrl-alt-delete followed by Esc
E. Ctrl-Shift-6 together followed by x
Answer:E
To suspend any Telnet session you enter Ctrl-Shift-6 together then x.
150. Which of the following messages displays the code image running in router memory?
A. System Bootstrap, Version 12.1(3r)T2, RELEASE SOFTWARE (fc1)Copyright (c) 2000 by cisco Systems,
Inc.C2600 platform with 32768 Kbytes of main memory B. program load complete, entry point: 0x80008000, size: 0x43b7fC. Self
decompressing the image:
####################################################################################
##
###############################################[OK] C. Cisco Internetwork Operating System Software IOS
(tm) C2600 Software (C2600-I-M), Version 12.1(8),
RELEASE SOFTWARE (fc1)Copyright (c) 1986-2001 by cisco Systems, Inc.Compiled Tue 17-Apr-01 04:55
by kellythw Image text-base: 0x80008088, data-base: 0x8080853C D. cisco 2621 (MPC860) processor (revision 0x101) with 26624K/6144K
bytes of memory. Processor board
ID JAD050697JB (146699779)M860 processor: part number 0, mask 49 Bridging software. X.25 software, Version 3.0.0.2
FastEthernet/IEEE 802.3 interface(s)1 Serial network interface(s) 32K bytes of non-volatile
configuration memory. 8192K bytes of processor board System flash (Read/Write)
Answer:C
Although there is a lot of information displayed during the startup only the area labeled C has the code image name.
151. What are the two ways that you can enter setup mode on a router?
A. By typing the clear flash command B. By typing the erase start command and rebooting the router
C. By typing the setup command
D. By typing the setup mode command Answer:B, C
If there is no configuration the router will automatically start the setup process. You can enter that process at
any time by typing in setup and pressing enter.
152. Which of the following commands displays Ethernet 0/1 interface status?
A. show ethernet 0/1 B. show interface ethernet 0/1
C. show interface ethernet e0/1
D. show interface ethernet0.2
Answer:B
Answer A and C are syntax errors and D will show the E0.2 sub-interface. Only B will work.
153. What editing command moves your cursor to the beginning of the line?
A. Ctrl+E
B. Ctrl+F C. Ctrl+B
D. Ctrl+A
Answer:D
Ctrl+A is the IOS command that moves the cursor to the beginning of the line.
154. Which of the following commands will set the clock rate on serial 1 to 64 KBPS?
A. clockrate 64
B. clock rate 64
C. clockrate 64000 D. clock rate 64000
E. set clock rate 64 F. serial 0 clock rate 64000
Answer:D
The clock rate command is two words and is followed by the rate in a numerical notation.
155. Which three commands are used to configure information into RAM on a router? (Choose three.)
A. configure memory
B. configure terminal
C. copy tftp flash D. copy flash startup-config
E. copy running-config startup-config
F. copy startup-config running-config Answer:A, B, F
All three commands may alter the contents of the configuration in RAM. The other three do not.
156. Which of the following commands would place a configuration in NVRAM into DRAM?
A. config net B. config t

C. copy startup running
D. copy running-config startup
Answer:C
Only copy startup running will take the configuration in NVRAM and move it to DRAM. This is a merge
operation, not a replace operation.
157. Which of the following prompts will indicate that you are in privileged mode?
A. >
B. (config)#
C. # D. !
Answer:C
The privileged mode is indicated by the # prompt.
158. Which EXEC command displays system hardware config info, software version, and the names and
sources of config files and boot images on a router?
A. show boot
B. show flash
C. show config D. show version
Answer:D
The how version command shows a wide variety of information including system hardware config info,
software version, and the names and sources of config files and boot images on a router.
159. Which command loads a new version of the Cisco IOS into a router?
A. copy flash ftp
B. copy ftp flash
C. copy flash tftp D. copy tftp flash
Answer:D
To copy an new version of IOS to the router use the copy from a tftp to flash command.
160. Which two commands copy configuration information from NVRAM into RAM on a router?
(choose 2)
A. config memory B. config terminal
C. config overwrite
D. copy tftp startup-config E. copy running-config startup-config
F. copy startup-config running-config Answer:A, F
Only copy startup-config running-config and config memory will take the configuration in NVRAM and move it
to DRAM. This is a merge operation, not a replace operation.
161. What is an advantage of using a connectionless protocol such as UDP?

A. packet acknowledgment may reduce overhead traffic
B. loss of duplication of data packets is less likely to occur
C. Packets are not acknowledged, which reduces overhead traffic D. The application layer relies on the transport layer for sequences of the
data packets.
Answer:C
The overhead of acknowledging every packet can reduce the availability of bandwidth.
162. During encapsulation, in which order is info packaged

A. data, packet, segment, frame B. segment, data, packet, frame
C. data, segment, packet, frame
D. packet, data, segment, frame
Answer:C
From the upper-layers through the Transport, Network and Data-link layers the terms are data, segment,
packet and frame.
163. What is the result of segmenting a network with a router into segments 1 & 2?
A. It increases the # of collisions B. It decrease the # of broadcast domains
C. Connect segment 1 broadcasts to segment 2 D. It prevents segment 1's broadcast from getting to segment 2
Answer:D
Routers create broadcast domains, so only answer D is correct.
164. What are two purposes for segmenting a network with a bridge?
(Choose 2)
A. to reduce collisions B. to increase collisions
C. to add collision domains
D. to reduce collision domains E. to have more broadcast domains
Answer:A, C
A bridge creates collision domains which will reduce the number of collisions in a specific domain.
165. What is an advantage of local-area (LAN) segmentation?

A. smaller collision domains
B. elimination of broadcasts
C. decreased cost of implementation D. larger number of users within the same domain
Answer:A
A LAN will create separate collision domains reducing the number of collisions in any one domain. It will not
eliminate broadcasts or reduce implementation costs and should reduce the number of users in a domain.
166. Which three are typical operational phases in a basic connection-oriented network service?
(choose 3) A. call setup
B. data transfer
C. load balancing D. call termination
E. call prioritization
F. data segmentation G. data link identification
Answer:A, B, D
All connection oriented services go through a three step process of call setup, data transfer and call termination.
167. Which statement is true when a broadcast is sent in an Ethernet/802.3 LAN?

A. The broadcast is sent to only to the default gateway
B. The broadcast is sent only to the destination hardware address in the broadcast C. The broadcast is sent to all devices in the collision
domain
D. The broadcast is sent to all devices in the broadcast domain
Answer:D
A broadcast by definition is a frame sent to every device in the collision broadcast domain.
168. Each department has its own file server and the company has an enterprise server that is shared by all departments. What does a
network administrator use to provide a secure separation between the
management and sales departments?
A. Passive Hub
B. Active Hub
C. Switch D. Router
Answer:D
A router is a distribution device that allows for security and routing of traffic.
169. Which type of LAN Segmentation device enables high-speed data exchange?
A. hub
B. bridge C. switch
D. repeater
Answer:C
Hubs reduce data exchange rates due to flooding, a bridge does segment the network but relies on software, a switch segments and uses
an ASIC for fast switching and a router must use a routing table
lookup which is slower than a switch.
170. What does the "Base" indicate in 10BaseT?

A. The maximum distance B. The type of wiring used
C. A LAN switch method
D. A signaling technique
Answer:D
The word Base indicates baseband signaling which is a digital signaling standard.
171. If you are telnetting into a neighbor device and want to return to your console without exiting the Telnet
session, which keystrokes do you use?
A. Ctrl+C
B. Ctrl+Z C. Ctrl+Shift+6, then X D. Ctrl+Shift+4
Answer:C
The keystrokes Ctrl+Shift-6, then X, will return you to your console when telnetting into anther router.
172. With the hierarchical numbering of IP addressing, what determines the portion of the address that will
identify the network number?
A. The user
C. The administrator
C. The Class of address D. The amount of hosts needed
Answer:C
Given the answers listed only the class of the address can determine which portion is used for the network. If a subnet mask were provided
that would further define the network and node.
173. PDU's at the Network layer of the OSI are called what?
A. Transport
B. Frames C. Packets
D. Segments
Answer:C
Each layer has a packet data unit descriptor. The Network layer's is the packet.
174. Which two statements about a reliable connection-oriented data transfer are true?
A. Receiving hosts acknowledge receipt of data
B. When buffers are full, packets are discarded and are not retransmitted C. Windowing is used to provide flow control and
unacknowledged data segments
D. If the transmitting host's timer expires before receipt of an acknowledgement, the transmitting host drops
the virtual circuit Answer:A, C
When a virtual circuit is created, windowing is used for flow control and acknowledgement of data
175. PDU's at the Data Link layer are named what?

A. Transport B. Frames
C. Packets
D. Segments
Answer:B
Each layer has a packet data unit descriptor. The Data-Link layer's is the frame.
176. Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Physical B. Data Link

C. Network D. Transport
Answer:D
The Transport layer is responsible for taking the Session layer's data and creating segments and
reassembling the segments into data for the Session layer on the other side.
177. What term is used if you are using the processes of placing frames from one network system into the
frame of another network system?
A. Framing
B. Encapsulating C. Tunneling
D. Frame Relay
Answer:B
Taking the frame of one system for transport on another is encapsulation. This is the process of placing one frame inside another.
178. What does the Data Link layer use to find hosts on a local network?
A. Logical network addresses
B. Port numbers C. Hardware addresses
D. Default gateways
Answer:C
Layer 2, the Data-Link layer uses the actual hardware address of each device to address frames.
179. What was the key reason the ISO released the OSI model?
A. To allow companies to charge more for their equipment.
B. The OSI model was meant to help vendors create interoperable network devices.
D. The OSI model was meant to help vendors create and sell specialized software and hardware
D. The OSI model was released in order for the IBM mainframes to be replaced with the PC. E. The industry could create a standard for
how host computers work
F. So that different vendor networks could work with each other
Answer:F
The OSI model was developed and released to provide a vehicle for vendor inter-operability.
180. Which statement about Ethernet networks is true?

A. Full-duplex can run over 10Base2.
B. Full-duplex requires a point-to-point connection when only two nodes are present.
C. Full duplex Ethernet can be used to connect multiple hosts to a single switch interface. D. Half-duplex uses the Cut-Through LAN Switch
method.
Answer:B
Full-duplex must be in a point to point environment, it does not work in a multi-access environment (A and C.) Cut-Through is a switching
technique not an access technique.
181. Which of the following shows the correct parameters for configuring IGRP?
A. router igrp 10
Network 10.1.2.0 B. router igrp
Network 10.0.0.0
C. router igrp 100 Network 10.0.0.0
Network 192.168.19.0
D. router igrp 100 Network 10.0.0.0
Network 192.168.10.32
Answer:C
You configure IGRP with an autonomous system number and then use the network command to tell the
routing protocol which networks you want to advertise. The entry must be a classful entry, which is why
answers A and D are wrong.
182. Which of the following is a correct syntax for a static route?
A. ip route 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 B. ip route 10.0.0.0 0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1 150 C. ip route 10.255.255.255
255.0.0.0 D. ip route 1.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0 Answer:B
The correct syntax for a static route is the ip route command followed by the destination network, mask,
next-hop gateway, and administrative distance.
183. What is the broadcast address of the following IP address? 172.16.10.5 255.255.255.128
A. 172.16.0.255
B. 172.16.10.127 C. 172.16.10.255
D. 172.16.10.0
Answer:B
The network block size is 256-128 or 128, so the network boundaries must start at 128 or 0. With a class C
address of 172.16.0.0 subnetted this way, the networks are: 172.16.0.0, 172.16.0.128, 172.16.1.0
172.16.1.128 and so on up to 172.16.10.0. So this device is on the 172.16.10.0 network. The next network is 172.16.10.128 and therefore
the network broadcast for 172.16.10.0 is 172.16.10.127.
184. What is the host range of the following IP address? 172.16.10.33 255.255.255.224
A. 172.16.10.32 - 10.63
B. 172.16.10.33 - 10.63 C. 172.16.10.32 - 10.64
D. 172.16.10.33 - 10.62
Answer:D
The network block size is 256-224 or 32, therefore the networks start every 32 addresses. The first network
is 172.16.10.0, the second at 172.16.10.32, the third at 172.16.10.64 and so on. This host is on the
172.16.10.32 network and the range is .33 through .62 with the broadcast at .63
185. Which command will display the configured IP routing protocols?
A. show ip protocols B. show protocols C. show ip route
D. show protocols-all Answer:A

The show ip protocols command displays the routing protocol information configured on your router.
186. What does the "150" mean in the following command?

ip route 172.16.10.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.20.1 150 A. You want the destination to be considered 150 hops away.
B. You are assigning the IP address of 150 to the destination.
C. You are assigning an administrative distance of 150. D. You are assigning an administrative distance of 150 less than the default.
Answer:C
The command ip route network subnet-mask next-hop-address administrative-distance is used to set a static route for that router. The
administrative distance of a static route is normally 1, however you can increase it
manually by entering a value at the end of the static route command. The command given above will set a
static route to the network of 172.16.10.0 by way of 172.16.20.1 (next-hop) with an administrative distance of 150.
187. What protocol is used to stop network loops in a switched internetwork?

A. RIP
B. STP C. VTP
D. ISL
Answer:B
The Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is the protocol used in a switched environment to prevent loops.
188. What is the broadcast address for the following host?

172.16.10.9 255.255.255.252 A. 172.16.10.255
B. 172.16.10.12
C. 172.16.10.11 D. 172.16.10.8
Answer:C
The network block size is 256-252 or 4, so the network address of this network is 172.16.10.8. The next
network is 172.16.10.12, so the broadcast of the 172.16.10.8 is one less than the next network address or 172.16.10.11.
189. Which of the following are used to stop network loops in a distance vector network? (Choose all that apply.)
A. STP
B. Route poisoning C. Split horizons D. Holddowns
Answer:B, C Route poisoning and split horizons are used to stop network loops from occurring in distance vector
networks.
190. Which layer of the OSI uses PDU's called segments?

A. Application B. Session
C. Transport
D. Network
Answer:C
The Application and Session layers only references data and the Network layer references a PDU know as a
Packet. The Transport layer's PDU is known as a Session.
191. Which layer of the OSI uses PDU's called frames?

A. Data-Link
B. Session
C. Transport D. Network
Answer:A
The Session layer only references data, the Network layer references a PDU know as a Packet and the
Transport layer's PDU is known as a Session. The Data-link layer PDU is known as a frame.
192. Which layer segments and reassembles data into a data stream?
A. Data-Link
B. Physical C. Transport
D. Network
Answer:C
The Transport layer is responsible for taking data from the Session layer and dividing it into manageable
units to be handled by the lower layers. These units are called segments. At the destination the Transport
layer is responsible for reassembling these segments into the original data stream.
193. Which protocol is used to resolve an IP address to an Ethernet address?

A. Inverse-ARP
B. Reverse-ARP
C. Interior-ARP D. ARP
Answer:D
When a device needs to resolve a logical IP address to a physical Ethernet address (MAC), it uses the
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP.)
194. What is the host range of the following IP address?

172.16.5.38 255.255.255.248 A. 172.16.5.0 - 5.255
B. 172.16.5.32 - 5.40
C. 172.16.5.33 - 5.39 D. 172.16.5.33 - 5.38
Answer:D
The network block size is 256-248 or 8, therefore the networks start every 8 addresses. The first network is 172.16.5.0, the second at
172.16.5.8, the third at 172.16.5.16, 172.16.5.24, 172.16.5.32,
172.16.5.40, etc. This host is on the 172.16.5.32 network and the range is .33 through .38 with the broadcast
at .39
195. Which protocol is used resolve an Ethernet address to an IP address?
A. Inverse-ARP B. Reverse-ARP
C. Interior-ARP
D. ARP
Answer:B
When a device needs to resolve a physical Ethernet address (MAC) to a logical IP address, it uses the
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (R-ARP.)
196. Which layer provides the physical transmission of the data and handles error notification, network
topology and flow control?
A. Data-Link
B. Physical C. Transport
D. Network
Answer:A
The Data-Link layer is responsible for the physical transmission of the data and handles error notification, network topology and flow
control.
197. Which layer of the OSI is manages device addressing, tracks the location of the devices on the network and determines the best way
to move data?
A. Data-Link B. Physical
C. Transport
D. Network
Answer:D
The Network layer manages device addressing, tracks the location of the devices on the network and
determines the best way to move data.
198. ______ is a connection oriented protocol that acknowledges receipt of data packets and is considered
reliable
A. UDP B. IPX
C. Appletalk
E. TCP
Answer:D
TCP is the connection oriented protocol acknowledges receipt of data packets and is considered reliable. UDP is a connectionless un-
acknowledged protocol at layer 4 or Transport layer. IPX is a layer 3 protocol
resolving logical addressing and routing. Appletalk is a complete protocol suite.
199. What is the default encapsulation used on Cisco serial links?
A. PPP B. IETF
C. HDLC
D. FRAME-RELAY
Answer:C
Cisco's default encapsulation for serial links is HDLC. To use a different encapsulation you use the
encapsulation command at the interface level.
200. Which command will show you the history buffer?

A. show history-buffer B. show history C. show buffer D. show all commands
Answer:B
The show history command will provide you with a list of the last 10 commands entered on the router.
201. What command do you use to backup a Cisco IOS to a TFTP host?
A. router(config)#copy flash tftp
B. router> copy flash tftp C. router# copy flash tftp
D. router(config-if)#copy flash tftp
Answer:C
All the answers have the correct command, but only answer C is at the appropriate configuration mode
(privilege) to enter the command.
202. What command will resolve the name Bob to IP address 1.1.1.1?
A. router#ip host bob 1.1.1.1
B. router(config)# ip host bob 1.1.1.1
C. router> ip host bob 1.1.1.1 D. router(config-if) ip host bob 1.1.1.1
Answer:B
All the answers have the correct command, but only answer B is at the appropriate configuration mode
(global configuration) to enter the command.
203. What command upgrades the IOS?

A. router(config)#copy tftp flash
B. router> copy tftp flash
C. router# copy tftp flash D. router(config-if)#copy tftp flash
Answer:C
All the answers have the correct command, but only answer C is at the appropriate configuration mode (privilege) to enter the command.
This also assumes the newer version of the IOS has been copied to a
TFTP server
204. What command is used to copy a configuration from a TFTP host to DRAM?
A. router# copy tftp dram B. router# copy tftp flash

C. router# copy tftp running-config
D. router# copy tftp startup-config
Answer:C
Answer A is an invalid command, Answer B is used to copy a new version of the IOS to the router and
Answer C is used to copy a configuration file to NVRAM. This also assumes the configuration file has been
copied to a TFTP server
205. What does the following command allow you to configure?

Config t
Line cons 0
A. The auxiliary port.
B. The VTY ports
C. Nothing it is an invalid command. D. The console port.
Answer:D
This command places you in the line configuration mode specifically for the console port.
206. Which command displays the backup configuration?
A. show running-config B. display running-config

C. show startup-config
D. display startup-config
Answer:C
The backup configuration is named startup-config and you use the show command to display its contents.
207. Which command allows the user to see a system messages when telneting into a router?
A. Logging synchronous B. Logging asynchronous
C. Terminal monitor
D. Monitor console
Answer:C
To view system messages when telneting you must enter the terminal monitor command.
208. Which command loads a different version of the Cisco IOS into a router?
A. Router(config)#boot system flash ios_filename B. Router(config)#boot system tftp ios_filename tftp_address

C. Router(config)#boot system flash bootflash:
D. A and B
Answer:D
A and B will load a different version of the IOS.
209. What protocol sends redirects to an originating router?

A. TCP
B. IPX C. ICMP
D. UDP
Answer:C
ICMP is responsible for sending redirects to the host
210. Which command will display all the valid commands at the given mode?
A. ?
B. help
C. help all D. all help
Answer:A
Only a question mark (?
) provides all commands available from a given mode.
211. What command will take you from privileged mode to user mode?
A. Enable B. Config T
C. Exit
D. Interface S0
Answer:C
To go from the privileged mode to user you enter exit.
212. In the Setup dialog, what do the square brackets indicate?

A. Commands left to enter
B. Optional features
C. Areas not configured D. Default settings
Answer:D
When using the Autosetup dialog, the values contained within the square brackets indicate default settings.
213. Which router component stores routing tables, ARP cache and packet buffers?
A. NVRAM B. Flash
C. ROM
D. DRAM
Answer:D
Routing table, ARP cache and packet buffers are contained in RAM, also known as DRAM.
214. What is the class of address, subnet address and host address of the following IP address?
172.16.10.5 255.255.248.0 A. Class A, 172.16. and 10.5
B. Class C, 172.16.10.5 and 5
C. Class B, 172.16.8.0, 10.5 D. This is not a legal host address.
Answer:C
Determine the network block size by subtracting 256.0 - 248.0 = 8.0. The networks start at 8.0 boundaries,
so this network is 172.16.8.0 with a host address is 10.5 and the class of the IP address is B.
215. What encapsulation type do you use when using Frame Relay between a Cisco router and a non-Cisco router?
A. Cisco B. LMI
C. Q9331 D. IETF
Answer:D
The Internet Engineering Task Force is a Frame Relay encapsulation method that allows Cisco and non-
Cisco routers to communicate.
216. What CDP command will show you the IP address of your neighbors device?
A. Show CDP
B. CDP enable
C. Show CDP neighbors detail D. Show CDP timers
Answer:C
The show CDP neighbors detail gives you detailed information concerning neighboring devices.
217. What is the maximum distance of 100BaseT?

A. 200 meters B. 100 meters
C. 500 meters
D. 1000 meters
Answer:B
You can run 100BaseT only 100 meters according to the standard.

A. 200 meters
B. 100 meters C. 500 meters
D. 1000 meters
Answer:B
The standard covering 10BaseT states the distance restriction is 100 meters.
219. What type of LAN switching only reads the Hardware destination address before forwarding the frame?
A. Cut-Through B. Frag-Free
C. Store and Forward
D. Destination-switch
Answer:A
220. What type of LAN switching reads into the data field of the frame before forwarding the frame?
A. Cut-Through B. Frag-Free
C. Store and Forward D. Destination-switch
Answer:B
221. Which LAN switch type has the highest latency?

A. Cut-Through
B. Frag-Free
C. Store and Forward D. Destination-switch
Answer:C
Store and Forward has the highest latency due to reading the entire frame before switching.
222. What does the config mem command do?

A. Configure the router using the running-config contents
B. Configure the router using the startup-config contents C. Configure the router using the contents of a file from a TFTP server
D. None of the above
Answer:B
The config command can use the key words Terminal (T), Memory (mem) or Network (net) The difference is where the information
originates (Terminal from RAM, Memory from NVRAM and Net from a TFTP server.)
223. What does the config net command do?

A. Configure the router using the running-config contents
B. Configure the router using the startup-config contents C. Configure the router using the contents of a file from a TFTP server
Answer:C
The config command can use the key words Terminal (T), Memory (mem) or Network (net) The difference is where the information
originates (Terminal from RAM, Memory from NVRAM and Net from a TFTP server.)
224. What type of encapsulation is defined at the Transport layer?

A. Packet
B. Frame C. Segment
D. Bits
Answer:C
Bits are at the Physical layer, Frames are at the Data-Link layer, Packets are at the Network Layer and
Segments are at the Transport layer
225. What type of encapsulation is defined at the Data Link layer?

A. Packet
B. Frame
C. Segment D. Bits
Answer:B
Bits are at the Physical layer, Frames are at the Data-Link layer, Packets are at the Network Layer and Segments are at the Transport
layer
226. Which command will copy the routers configuration from a tftp host to nvram?
A. router(config)#copy tftp startup-config
B. router> copy tftp startup-config
C. router# copy tftp startup-config D. router(config-if)#copy tftp startup-config
Answer:C
All the answers have the correct command, but only answer C is at the appropriate configuration mode (privilege) to enter the command.
227. If you had a switch with 8 ports, how many collision domains and how many broadcast domains do you have?
A. 8 collision and 4 broadcast B. 4 collision and 8 broadcast

C. 1 collision and 8 broadcast
D. 8 collision and 1 broadcast
Answer:D
A switch segments LANs at each port creating separate collision domains, however broadcasts are not
segmented at a switch, Therefore, there is only one broadcast domain.
228. What does Cisco use to identify frames as they traverse a switched VLAN fabric?
A. ISL B. LSI
C. 802.3
D. STP
Answer:A
Cisco uses the protocol ISL for frame tagging in a switched VLAN fabric.
229. What do VLAN's provide?

A. Easier routing
B. Easier management
C. A method to segment LANs at Layer 2 D. A method of logically grouping resources without concern as to geographic location.
Answer:D
VLANs provide network administrators the ability to logically group network resources and users together
regardless of their geographic locations. This is done by assigning user's switch port to a specific VLAN.
230. What will stop network loops from occurring in Distance Vector networks by setting a downed link to
infinity?
A. RTMP
B. Poisoned updates C. Route poisoning
D. Poison reverse
Answer:C
The router that has the link fail sends a route poisoning setting the metric to an un-reachable level. In the
case of RIP the router sets the hop count to 16.
231. What is used with holddowns to tell neighbor routers about a change in the network?
A. Holddown updates B. Triggered link changes

C. Triggered Updates
D. Holddown changes Answer:C The use of Trigger Updates allows routers to tell neighbors about changes in the network.
232. Which two statements about frame tagging are true?
A. A filtering table is developed for each switch B. Frame tagging assigns a unique user defined ID to each frame
C. A unique identifier is placed in the header of each frame as it is forwarded between switches
D. Frame tagging is a technique that examines particular information about each frame, based on user- defined offsets
Answer:B, C As the frame enters the switch fabric, the switch assigns a unique user defined ID and places it in the frame
for forwarding to other switches within the switched environment. ISL is an example of the protocol that
performs frame tagging.
233. Type the command to start IP RIP version 1 on a Cisco router

A. Router(config)#router rip
B. Router#router rip 1 C. Router(config)#router rip version 1
D. Router#router rip
Answer:A
At the global configuration mode, you enter router rip to start the routing process using the RIP protocol.
Version 1 of RIP is the default.
234. How is a bridge ID assigned?
A. By the Administrator by setting the MAC address B. The highest IP address and priority
C. Priority and the MAC address
D. There are no bridge IDs assigned.
Answer:C
The priority and the MAC address are combined to build the bridge ID.
235. What command is used on a router to make it act like a TFTP server?
A. router(config)#tftp-server flash
B. router> tftp-server flash C. router# tftp-server flash
D. router(config-if)# tftp-server flash
Answer:A
At the global configuration mode you can configure a router to act as a TFTP server. Then connect another
router and copy the IOS from your tftp "acting" router.
236. If you have the mask 255.255.255.252, how many hosts and subnets do you have?
A. 4190 subnets with 14 hosts B. 16,384 subnets with 62 hosts C. 62 subnets with 2 hosts D. 8190 subnets with 4 hosts
Answer:C
No matter what the class of address, this mask only provides 2 hosts.
237. Which type of access list should be placed closest to the source?
A. Internal B. Extended
C. Standard
Answer:B
Extended access list can evaluate many different aspects of the frame, therefore it is recommended they be
placed near the source. Standard access-lists can only evaluate the source address, if placed near the destination it reduces the number of
frames that may be evaluated.
238. Which type of access-list should be placed closest to the destination?

A. Internal
B. Extended C. Standard
Answer:C
Extended access list can evaluate many different aspects of the frame, therefore it is recommended they be placed near the source.
Standard access-lists can only evaluate the source address, if placed near the
destination it reduces the number of frames that may be evaluated.
239. What command will you use to have your router load an IOS from a tftp host?
A. router(config)# boot system tftp ios-name tftp-address
B. router# boot system tftp ios-name tftp-address C. router(config)# boot system tftp tftp-address ios-name
D. router# boot system tftp tftp-address ios-name
Answer:A
From global configuration you can configure the router to load the IOS from another location.
240. What wildcard mask would be used with the following network address?
172.16.16.0 through 172.16.31.0
A. 0.0.31.255
B. 0.0.255.255 C. 0.255.255.255
D. 0.0.0.31
Answer:A
The block size for this network is 32.0 and the wildcard mask is one less than the block size.
241. What wildcard mask would you apply to mask the following networks?
172.16.8.0/21 through 172.16.23.255/21 A. 0.0.8.255

B. 0.0.255.255
C. 0.255.255.255 D. 0.0.7.255
Answer:D
The block size for this network is 8.0 (256.0 - 248.0) and the wildcard mask is one less than the block size.
242. What command is used to load a Cisco IOS from ROM?
A. router(config)# boot system tftp bootflash B. router# boot system bootflash

C. router(config)# boot system flash bootflash
C. router# boot system flash bootflash

Answer:C
243. What is wrong with the following command?

Access-list 110 permit ip any any eq 23
A. It is a standard access-list attempting to check port 23.
B. The access-list is referencing IP and port 23 is a TCP port C. It is not checking any valid host addresses
D. Nothing, the access-list will work as written.
Answer:B
The correct usage when checking port values is Access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 23
244. What is wrong with the following command?

Access-list 10 permit tcp any any eq 23
A. It is an extended access-list that does not check the source and destination addresses. B. It is a standard access-list that does not check
the source and destination addresses.
C. It is a standard access-list attempting to check TCP ports
D. Nothing, it will work as written.
Answer:C
This access-list is a standard access-list (number values 1 through 99.) Standard access-lists can only
check the source address.
245. How often are BPDUs broadcasted?
A. Every 5 seconds B. Every 2 seconds C. Every 10 seconds D. Every 60 seconds

Answer:B
The root bridge sends out BPDUs every 2 seconds. The timeout period is 20 seconds, or 10 times the
broadcast interval. If the bridges do not receive a BDPU for 20 seconds, an election is held to determine the new root bridge.
246. Which part is the default network portion and which part is the host portion of the following address?
126.10.127.3 A. Network 126.10 and the Node 127.3

B. Network 126.10.127 and the Node is 3
C. Network 126.1 and the Node is 0.127.3 D. Network 126 and the Node is 10.127.3
Answer:D
This is a Class A network address (1 through 126) so the default network mask is 255.0.0.0.
247. A router on one side of a PPP link uses the hostname Todd1 and the password globalnet. Which
command would be enter on Todd1 that enables a connection between Todd1 and another router named
Todd2?
A. router#username Todd2 password globalnet B. router(config)#username Todd2 password globalnet
C. router#username globalnet password Todd2
D. router(config)#username globalnet password Todd2
Answer:B
The host name of the router you are connecting to must be entered using the username command. The
passwords entered at each router must be the same. The usernames and passwords are case sensitive.
248. Which command is used to load an IOS from a tftp host?
A. router(config)# boot system tftp ios-name tftp-address B. router# boot system tftp ios-name tftp-address
C. router(config)# boot system tftp tftp-address ios-name
D. router# boot system tftp tftp-address ios-name
Answer:A
249. If you type cl at a router prompt and receive an ambiguous command, which command should you type
next?
A. Help
B. ?
C. cl ?
D. cl?
Answer:D
By typing a question mark ? immediately following the ambiguous command the router will display all commands that match that string of
characters.
250. What type of flow control does TCP use?
A. Stop and wait B. Windowing

C. Source quenching D. TCP does not handle flow control
Answer:B
TCP negotiates a window size during the initial connection process. The window size can be adjusted and
its value is contained in the TCP header.
251. What access-list command is used under the line vty 0 4 to prevent unwanted telnet connections?
A. Access-group <number> <in | out>
B. Distribution-list <number> <in | out> C. Access-class <number> <in | out>
D. Map-class <number> <in | out>
Answer:C
To apply an access-list to the VTY ports you use the access-class command at the line configuration mode.
252. What command will change the CDP timer?

A. router(config)#cdp timer B. router#cdp timer
C. router(config-router)#cdp timer
D. router(config-if)#cdp timer
Answer:A
At the global configuration mode you may adjust the CDP timer interval.
253. What is the default CDP timer set to?

A. 60
B. 90 C. 180
D. 240
Answer:A
The CDP timer is used to tell the router when to broadcast CDP infromation. By default, all Cisco routers send this infromation out all
active interfaces every 60 seconds.
254. Which command sets the clock rate to 56Kbps on serial 0?

A. clockrate 56kbps B. clockrate 56 C. clock rate 56000 D. clock rate 56000000 Answer:C
The clock rate for a serial interface must be entered at the interface configuration mode and must specify one of the accepted clock rates.
To see all accepted rates on the interface, enter clock rate ?
. Remember that this command is two words: clock rate <setting>.
255. Which layer 2 devices can be used to break up collision domains?
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch D. Router
Answer:B, C Repeaters do not segment the network, but rather extend the distance a LAN can run. A router is a layer 3
device.
256. What does the configuration register 0x2101 do?

A. Load the IOS from flash and then load the configuration file from NVRAM
B. Load the IOS from a tftp server and then load the configuration file from NVRAM C. Load the IOS from ROM and then load the
configuration file from NVRAM
D. Load the IOS from flash and then do not load the configuration file from NVRAM
Answer:C
You can configure the router to load the IOS from a variety of locations. This command will load the IOS
from ROM (Boot IOS) and then load the configuration file.
257. What are the two primary operating modes for frame switching?
A. Cut-through and frag-free B. Frag-free and Store and forward
C. Store and forward and Cut-through
D. There is only one mode and its cut-through
Answer:C
The two primary methods for switching are cut-through and store and forward.
258. What is the keystroke to suspend your Telnet session and return to the original router?
A. Ctrl+C
B. Ctrl+Break C. Ctrl+Shift+X, then 6 D. Ctrl+Shift+6, then X Answer:D
To suspend a Telnet session, you press Ctrl+Shift+6 at the same time, let the keys up and then press X.
259. How many wire pairs does half duplex and full duplex use?
A. One wire pair each B. Two wire pair each

C. Half uses two wire pair and full uses one wire pair
D. Full uses two wire pair and half uses one wire pair
Answer:D
Full duplex uses one set of wires to send and one set to receive, so it needs two wire pair. Half duplex
sends and receives on the same wire pair.
260. What is the maximum distance of 100BaseFX?

A. 400 meters B. 400 yards
C. 200 meters
D. 200 yards
Answer:A
The distance standards are in meters and 100BaseFX has a distance restriction of 400 meters.
261. If two Ethernet stations have a collision, what type of algorithm do they run to determine when the nodes can now transmit?
A. Who's First
B. BackUP
C. Backdown D. Backoff
Answer:D
When a collision occurs every device runs a backoff algorithm to determine a random wait period before
attempting to resend.
262. Which router command allows you to view just the entire contents of all access-lists?
A. Show running-config
B. Show access-lists C. Show configuration
D. Show startup-config
Answer:B
The access-lists can be displayed by viewing the running-config and startup-config, however to view only the
access-list contents you use the show access-list command.
263. Which router command allows you to determine if an IP access list is enabled on a particular interface?
A. Show interface e0 B. Show access-list
C. Show access-list e0
D. Show ip interface e0
Answer:D
To determine if an IP access-list has been applied to a specific interface, enter the command show IP
access-list interface. This will show you only IP information for the specific interface including if an access-
list has been applied inbound or outbound.
264. What is the IP standard access-list range?

A. 0 - 99
B. 1 - 199
C. 1 - 99 D. 0 - 199
Answer:C
All access-list types have been assigned a specific range of numbers. The IP standard access-list numbers are in the range of 1 - 99.
265. Which command will deny ftp from network 210.93.105.0 to network 223.8.151.0
A. access-list 101 deny tcp 210.93.105.0 0.0.0.255 223.8.151.0 0.0.0.255 eq 21 access-list 101 deny tcp 210.93.105.0 0.0.0.255 223.8.151.0
0.0.0.255 eq 20
B. access-list 101 deny tcp 210.93.105.0 255.255.255.0 223.8.151.0 255.255.255.0 eq 21 access-list 101 deny tcp 210.93.105.0
255.255.255.0 223.8.151.0 255.255.255.0 eq 20
C. access-list 101 deny ip 210.93.105.0 0.0.0.255 223.8.151.0 0.0.0.255 eq 21 access-list 101 deny ip 210.93.105.0 0.0.0.255 223.8.151.0
0.0.0.255 eq 20
D. access-list 101 deny ip 210.93.105.0 255.255.255.0 223.8.151.0 255.255.255.0 eq 21 access-list 101 deny ip 210.93.105.0 255.255.255.0
223.8.151.0 255.255.255.0 eq 20
Answer:A
When using an extended access-list to check addresses and port numbers you reference tcp as the protocol, the source and destination
network address with wildcard masks and the port number to validate. FTP uses
two ports so we must check both.
266. What is the key reason the ISO released the OSI model?
A. To reduce vendor fighting over standards B. To allow vendor inter-operability.
C. To make vendor equipment less compatible.
D. To confuse users
Answer:B
To ensure vendors had a standard that would support inter-operability.
267. What is the encapsulation order?

A. Segment, Packet, Frame, Bits
B. Packet, Segment, Frame, Bits C. Frame, Packet, Segment. Bits
D. Bits, Segment, Frame, Packet
Answer:A
The encapsulation order is from Transport to Network to Data-link to Physical, so Segment, Packet, Frame
and Bits.
268. Full duplex requires a ___________________ connection when only two nodes are present. A. point-to-multipoint
B. multipoint-to-point
C. multipoint-to-multipoint
D. point-to-point
Answer:D
Full duplex must be a point-to-point connection. This allows one set of wires to be used for sending and one
set for receiving.
269. What two protocol tools use ICMP?
A. TELNET and FTP B. FTP and TFTP

C. PING and FTP
D. TRACE and PING
Answer:D
The two protocol tools that depend on ICMP are TRACE and PING.
270. What is the bit length and expression form of a MAC address?
A. 32 bits and 00-00-00-00 B. 48 bits and 0000.0000.0000
C. 48 bits and 00-00-00-00-00-00
D. 32 bits and 0000.0000 Answer:B, C
The bit length of the MAC address is 48 bits and the notation can be 0000.0000.0000 or 00-00-00-00-00-00.
271. Which command will show you the LMI traffic statistics?
A. show interface lmi B. show frame-relay lmi C. show interface frame-relay D. debug frame-relay interface.
Answer:B
To view Frame Relay LMI statistics, enter the command show frame-relay lmi.
272. When you configure an IP address on a Cisco router, which command starts the IP processing on the
interface?
A. The No Shutdown command
B. The Exit command C. The IP processing on the interface is started by default
D. When pressing the Enter key after the IP address assignment.
Answer:D
The IP processing on the interface is started as soon as you press the enter key to complete the IP address assignment.
273. What are the commands that can be used to configure information into RAM on a router?
A. Config Terminal
B. Config Memory C. Config Net
D. All of the above
Answer:D
All three commands will configure information into RAM. The difference is where the information originates (Terminal from RAM, Memory
from NVRAM and Net from a TFTP server.)
274. Write the command to set the clock rate to 56kbps on serial 0 A. Clock rate 56kbps
B. Clock rate 56
C. Clock rate 56000 D. Clock rate 56000000
Answer:C
The clock rate for a serial interface must be enter at the interface configuration mode and must specific one of the accepted clock rates. To
see all accepted rates on the interface enter clock rate ?
.
275. What two solutions are used to reduce the chance of distance vector routing loops?
A. Route Poisoning and Distance Vectors
B. Route updates and Route Vectors

C. Split Horizons and Distance Vectors D. Route Poisoning and Split Horizons.
Answer:D
Routers do not send information out the same interface it learned it on (split horizons) and routers send out information concerning down
routes immediately as un-reachable (Route poisoning.)
276. What command retrieves a routers configuration file from NVRAM?

A. Config Terminal
B. Config Memory
C. Config Net D. All of the above
Answer:B
All three commands will configure information into RAM. The difference is where the information originates (Terminal from RAM, Memory
from NVRAM and Net from a
TFTP server.)
277. What is the keystroke to suspend your Telnet session and return to the original router?
A. Cntrl - C B. Cntrl - break
C. Shift-Cntrl-X, then 6
D. Shift-Cntrl-6, then X
Answer:D
To suspend a telent session you press Shift-Cntrl-6 at the same time, let the keys up and then press X.
278. What is an advantage to LAN segmentation?

A. All users must be on different subnet
B. The number of collision domains goes down C. The number of collision domains goes up
D. The number of users is reduced.
Answer:C
LAN segmentation increases the number of collision domains, which increases the available bandwidth for
each user in a collision domain.
279. What type of device enables high-speed data exchange?

A. Hub
B. Bridge
C. Switch D. Router
Answer:C
Hubs reduce data exchange rates due to flooding, a bridge does segment the network but relies on
software, a switch segments and uses an ASIC for fast switching and a router must use a routing table lookup which is slower than a
switch.
280. What is the bandwidth of one ISDN BRI B channel?

A. 16 KBPS
B. 128 KBPS C. 64 KBPS
D. 1.5 MBPS Answer:C
Each B channel has a bandwidth of 64K, when combined together your ISDN circuit will provide 124K
281. Full-duplex requires a _____ to _____ connection when only two nodes are present. A. Point, Multipoint
B. Multipoint, Point C. Multipoint, Multipoint
D. Point, Point
Answer:D
Full-duplex must be a point to point connection. This allows one set of wires to be used for sending and one set for receiving.
282. What is the base in 100baseT?
A. The lowest encoding technique. B. The signal is analog.

C. The signal is digital
D. The signal is the highest encoding technique.
Answer:C
The word base is short for baseband. Baseband signaling uses digital communication techniques.
283. Which command will add a second subinterface to serial 0 A. router#interface serial0 sub 2
B. router(config-if)#interface serial0 sub 2
C. router#(config)interface serial0.2 D. router(config-if)#interface serial0.2
Answer:D
At the interface configuration mode you may create a sub-interface for a physical interface. The sub- interface command uses the decimal
notation to indicate which sub-interface is being created or configured.
Although the answer uses the number 2, you could use any unique whole number as the sub-interface
number
284. Which command will show you the LMI traffic statistics?
A. Show interface lmi
B. Show frame-relay lmi
C. Show interface frame-relay D. Debug frame-relay interface.
Answer:B
To view Frame-Relay LMI statistics, enter the command Show frame-relay lmi
285. Which command will set the bandwidth of serial 0 to 56kbps

A. Bandwidth 56000
B. Bandwidth 56000000 C. Bandwidth 56
D. Bandwidth 56kbps
Answer:C
Use bandwidth 56 to set the bandwidth to 56kbps.
286. Which LAN switch method holds the packet in memory until the data portion of the packet reaches the
switch?
A. Cut-through
B. Store and forward C. Frag-free
Answer:C
The method for switching that reads into the data portion is frag-free. This prevents the switch from forwarding runt packets (collisions.)
287. What is the most common layer 2 device?

A. Hub
B. Bridge C. Switch
D. Router
Answer:C
A switch segments the network and uses an ASIC for fast switching. It has become the most common layer
two device.
288. What is used to find the hardware address of a device on a LAN?

A. Inverse-ARP B. Reverse-ARP
C. Interior-ARP
D. ARP
Answer:D
When a device needs to resolve a logical address to the physical Ethernet address (MAC), it uses the
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP.)
289. What are the two most common request/reply pair with ICMP messages when using the ping
command?
A. Echo request and Echo reply B. ICMP hold and ICMP send
C. ICMP request and ICMP reply
D. Echo off and Echo on
Answer:A
The ICMP protocol uses Echo request and Echo reply with the Ping command
290. What do you call it when a frame is placed into another type of frame?
A. Framing
B. De-encapsulation C. Encapsulation
D. De-framing
Answer:C
When a frame is placed inside another frame it is know as encapsulation. To restore the frame to its original state is De-Encapsulation.
291. Which technology is used by Catalyst switches to resolve topology loops and ensure data flows properly though a single network path?
A. VTP B. ISL
C. 802.1Q D. STP
Answer:D
Catalyst switches use the STP (spanning tree protocol) to prevent loops and to ensure data flows through a
single network path.
292. Which command displays all the commands in the history buffer?
A. Show history
B. Show buffers C. Show typed commands
D. Show terminal buffer
Answer:A
The router will buffer previously entered commands, To see the contents of the buffer you enter the show
history command.
293. Which symbol in the router prompt indicates you are in the privileged mode?
A. >
B. # C. ?
D. *
Answer:B
When you enter the privileged mode by typing enable the router prompt will change to a # character.
294. What does IP standard access lists filter on?

A. The source and destination addresses B. The destination port number
C. The destination address
D. The source address
Answer:D
The standard IP access-list will only filter on the source address contained in the packet.
295. When enabling EIGRP routing, what parameters must you apply?
A. broadcast address, and AS number
B. network number and AS number C. igrp routing, network number, and passive interface
D. igrp routing, network number, and AS
Answer:D
To enable EIGRP on your router, you must specify EGRP routing, the network number, and the AS system
number.
296. What is a connection protocol at the Host to Host layer?

A. ARP
B. RARP
C. TCP D. UDP
E. IP
F. ICMP G. BootP
Answer:C
Transport Protocol is a connection protocol that resides at the Host to Host layer of the DOD stack and handles connection oriented
communication.
297. IGRP sends a complete routing table to its neighbors how often by default?
A. every 5 minutes
B. every 90 seconds C. every 60 seconds
D. every 30 seconds
Answer:B
IGRP enabled routers send their complete routing table to all their neighbors every 90 seconds.
298. Which network mask should you place on a Class C network to accommodate a user requirement of ten
subnetworks?
A. 255.255.255.192
B. 255.255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240
D. 255.255.255.248
Answer:C With a requirement of ten sub-networks how many bits of subnetting will give you at least ten subnets. Using
4 bits for subnetting gives you 14 subnets.

A. 100 meters
B. 100 yards C. 200 meters
D. 200 yards
Answer:A
The distance standards are in meters and 10BaseT has a distance restriction of 100 meters.
300. Which of the following is not a distance-vector routing protocol?

A. RIP
B. IPX RIP
C. IGRP D. OSPF
Answer:D
Only OSPF is a true link-state protocol. The others are distance-vector protocols.
301. Which of the following layers from the TCP/IP model corresponds to the network layer in the OSI
Model?
A. Application
B. Internet C. Transport
D. Network E. Data Link
Answer:B
The DOD model consists of the Application/Process, Host to Host, Internet and Network Access layers. The
only answer with a DoD model layer (also called the TCP/IP model), is the Internet layer
302. You are considering the pros and cons of a connectionless service. Which of the following are
characteristics of a connectionless service?
(Select Two)
A. Reliable B. Non-reliable
C. Less bandwidth-intensive D. Handshaking Answer:B, C
The Transport layer is a good example of how both a connectionless and connection oriented service works. UDP is a connectionless
services and is considred unonreliable, but uses less bandwidth then a connection
oriented service.
TCP is a connection oriented service and is considered reliable because it uses handshaking to create the service and acknowledgments.
303. Which of the following OSI layers is used to determine the best path to a network?
A. Data Link B. Session

C. Physical
D. Presentation E. Network
F. Transport
Answer:E
The Network layer (Internet layer in the DOD model) provides logical addressing and routing through an internetwork.
304. You are working within the Cisco IOS. Which of the following functions does the up arrow key provide?
A. Recalls the previous command line B. Moves the cursor one line up C. Redisplays the current command line D. Capitalizes the command
line
Answer:A
The up arrow key is used to recall the previous command line entry.
305. Which command must be entered when connecting two routers WITHOUT external DCE devices?
A. serial up B. clockrate
B. clock rate D. dce rate E. dte rate

Answer:C
The clock rate command (two words), is used to provide clocking on a line where no DCE device is located.
306. Which of the following statements regarding routed and routing protocols are true?
(Select 2 choices)
A. A routed protocol is assigned to an interface and determines the method of packet delivery B. A routing protocol determines the path of
the packet through a network C. A routed protocol determines the path of the packet through a network D. A routing protocol operates at
the transport layer of the OSI model E. A routed protocol updates the routing table of a router Answer:A, B Routed protocols (example, IP
and IPX) is used to provide logical network address and provides framing of a
packet on a LAN.
Routing protocols (example RIP and OSPF) are used to determine the path of a packet through the network by updating the routing table
on a router.
307. When powering up a router, which of the following types of memory normally stores the start-up configuration?
A. RAM B. ROM
C. FLASH
D. NVRAM
Answer:D
The startup-config, if placed there by an administrator, is stored in the Non-Volatile RAM.
308. Based on the debug output shown, what type of handshake occurred for PPP authentication?
#debug ppp authentication
ppp serial1: Send CHAP challenge id=34 to remote ppp serial1: CHAP challenge from P1R2
ppp serial1: CHAP response received from P1R2
ppp serial1: CHAP response id=34 received from P1R2 ppp serial1: Send CHAP success id=34 to remote
ppp serial1: Remote passed CHAP authentication
ppp serial1: Passed CHAP authentication

ppp serial1: Passed CHAP authentication with remote
A. one-way
B. two-way C. three-way
D. no handshakes required during authentication
Answer:C
CHAP uses a three-way handshake. After the PPP link is established, the host sends a "challenge" message
to the remote node. The remote node responds with a value calculated using a on-way hash function. The
host checks the response against its own calculation of the expexted hash value. If the hash value match, the authentication is
acknowledged; otherwise, the conenction is terminated.
309. Which of the following commands will send and receive ICMP echo messages to verify connectivity
from host to host?
A. ping
B. tracert C. netstat
D. show cdp neighbors detail E. show ip route F. traceroute
Answer:A
Packet Internet Groper uses ICMP echo requests and replies to verify network connectivity
310. You are the network administrator of the RouterSim global software Company.
You receive a call from a user who is unable to reach a server at a remote site. After further review you discover the following information
about the user's computer.
Local PC 190.0.3.35/24
Default Gateway 190.0.3.1 Remote Server 190.0.5.250/24
You then conduct the following tests from the offending local PC
Ping 127.0.0.1 - Unsuccessful
Ping 190.0.3.35 - Successful Ping 190.0.3.1 - Unsuccessful
Ping 190.0.5.250 - Unsuccessful
Which of the following problems would create the test results listed above?
A. TCP/IP not correctly installed B. Local physical layer problem C. NIC not functioning D. Remote physical layer problem Answer:A
If you cannot ping the loopback address of 127.0.0.1, then something is wrong with the TCP/IP protocol
stack.
311. You have just finished configuring a router. The changes have been successfully entered and everything is working properly.
You then save your changes and reboot the router. None of your changes are active after the reboot.
However, when you look at the contents of the startup config, your changes are there. Which of the following indicates the source of the
problem?
A. Hardware failure in NVRAM prevents the router from loading the config B. Startup-config in flash is corrupt and cannot be analyzed C.
Router configuration-register set to bypass startup configuration D. Startup-config in NVRAM is corrupt and cannot be analyzed
Answer:C
The default configuration-register setting of 0x2102 loads the IOS from flash and the configuration from
NVRAM. However, for password recovery, you can set the register to 0x2142 and the startup-config file in NVRAM will
be bypassed.
312. What does the word "any" mean in the following extended access list statement?
Access-list 101 permit tcp any 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 eq tcp A. check any of the bits in the source address B. permit any wildcard mask for
the address C. accept any source address D. check any bit in the destination address E. permit 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 F. accept any
destination
Answer:C
The "any" in this list is the source address to filter. If it is set to any or "0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255", then any
source address will be filtered.
313. By looking at the following configuration, Which additional command must be issued on the Branch router before interesting traffic
will be sent to the Remote router?
Hostname: Branch Hostname: Remote

PH# 123-6000, 123-6001 PH# 123-8000, 123-8001 SPID1: 32055512360001 SPID1: 32055512380001
SPID2: 32055512360002 SPID2: 32055512380002
isdn switch-type basic ni
username Remote password cisco
interface bri0 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
encapsulation ppp
ppp authentication chap isdn spid1 32055512360001
isdn spid2 32055512360002
dialer map ip 10.1.1.2 name Remote 1238001 dialer-list 1 protocol ip permit
A. (config-if)# dialer-group 1 B. (config-if)# dialer-list 1 C. (config-if)# dialer map 1 D. (config-if)# dialer-route 1
Answer:A
The "dialer-group #" command tells the access-list (used with the dialer-list # command), which interface to
activate when it finds interesting traffic. The numbers at end of each command must match.
314. In Frame Relay, what are DLCIs used for?

A. They determine the Frame Relay encapsulation type
B. They indentify the logical circuit between a local router and a Frame Relay WAN switch
C. They represent the keepalives used to maintain the PVC in an active state D. They represent the physical address of the router attached
to a Frame Relay network
Answer:B
Data Link Connection Identifiers are the "hardware address" on a Frame Relay network. They identify a routers PVC to the Frame Relay
switch.
315. Which of the following WAN services uses two data link layer encapsulations, one for data and one for
signaling?
A. ISDN
B. Frame Relay C. ATM D. FDDI

Answer:A
ISDN uses "out-of-band" signaling, which means that the clocking is done on the "D" (data) channel and not the same channels as the
actual data.
316. Which of the following statements is true in regards to Frame Relay Multipoint subinterfaces?
A. An ip address is required on the physical interface B. All routers are required to be fully meshed C. All routers must be in the same
subnet to forward routing updates and broadcasts D. Multipoint is the default configuration for Frame Relay subinterfaces Answer:C
Unlike Frame Relay point-to-point connections, multipoint Frame Relay router interfaces must all be in the same subnet.
317. You have just connected a new host to a workgroup switch. The new host's Layer 3 configuration is correct. However, the host is
unable to access the server resources in its network segment. Which of the
following is most likely causing the problem?
A. The router lacks a routing table entry for the new host B. The host switch port is assigned to the incorrect VLAN C. The host MAC
address is incorrectly configured D. A VIP instance for the new host has not been initialized
Answer:B
Virtual LANs break up broadcast domains in a layer-two switched internetwork. If a host is in a different VLAN then the network services it
needs to use, the packets must go through a router.
Answer B is the best answer for this question.
318. Which of the following is the decimal and hexadecimal equivalent of this binary number 10101010?
A. Decimal=160, hexidecimal=00 B. Decimal=170, hexidecimal=AA

C. Decimal=180, hexidecimal=BB
C. Decimal=190, hexidecinal=CC
Answer:B
For the binary equivalent of 10101010 to Decimal, the answer is 128+32+8+2=170. For Hexadecimal, break up the binary number into
two bytes of 1010 and 1010. Each one in binary is then
10 and 10, which is A and A in hexadecimal.
319. Given the the following network diagram, assume that port 1 through 3 are assigned to VLAN 1 and
ports 4 through 6 are assigned to VLAN 2 on each switch. Click on the Exhibit button to view the network.
The switches are interconnected over a trunked link. Which of the following conditions would verify VLAN and trunk operation?
(choose 3)
A. Host 1-1 can ping Host 1-2 B. Host 1-1 can ping Host 4-2 C. Host 1-1 can not ping Host 1-2 D. Host 4-1 can not ping Host 1-2 E. Host 4-1
can ping Host 4-2 Answer:A, D, E
If you do not have a router, then only hosts in the same VLAN will be able to ping each other.
320. You need to add a new VLAN, named Debits, to your switched network. Which of the following are true
regarding configuration of this vlan?
(Choose 3) A. The VLAN must be created B. The VLAN must named C. An IP address must be configured for the ACCOUNTS VLAN D. The
desired ports must be added to the new VLAN E. The VLAN must be added to the STP Domain Answer:A, B, D The best answers are A, B,
D. You must create the VLAN, name it, then assign ports. An IP address is not
necessary, although, it is typically performed.
321. Which of the following commands should be used to display RIP routing updates as they are sent and
received by the router?
A. Show ip protocols B. Show ip route rip C. Debug ip rip D. Debug ip updates E. Debug ip transactions
Answer:C
The command debug ip rip will display routing updates as they as sent and received by a router.
322. After configuring your router, you ping the directly connected serial port of the directly neighboring
router. The ping is unsuccessful.
The show running-config output displays the word "shutdown" for the serial interface.
Which of the following lines will be displayed in the show interface s0 output?
A. Serial 0 is up, line protocol is down B. Serial 0 is down, line protocol is down C. Serial 0 is down, line protocol is up D. Serial 0 is
administratively down, line protocol is down E. Serial 0 is administratively down, line protocol is up F. Serial 0 is administratively up, line
protocol is down
Answer:D
If an interface is shutdown, it will show "administratively down and line protocol down"
323. Hosts in the RouterSim sales department are unable to access a new server at the Remote Office. The
servers IP address is 192.168.40.96/28. Why can't the server be reached?
Click on the exhibit button to view the network configuration.

Which of the following is most likely causing the problem?
A. The default gateway of the workstations in the sales department is incorrect B. The subnet mask of the workstations in the sales
department is incorrect C. The default gateway of the server at the Remote Office is invalid D. The host address of the server at the
Remote Office is invalid E. The serial 0 interface on the Home Office router and the serial 1 interface are not on the same subnetwork
Answer:D
The IP address of the server is 192.168.40.96/28. This is an invalid host address.
324. Which of the following bit patterns is for a Class B address?

A. 0xxxxxxx
B. 10xxxxxx C. 110xxxxx
D. 1110xxxx E. 11110xxx
Answer:B
Class A addresses start with 0, class B with 10 and class C with 110.
325. RouterSim global software just added an employee workstation to its network. The employee is unable to connect to the server at IP
address 192.168.10.98/27.
Identify the incorrectly configured network parameter.
Examine the exhibit.
A. Workstation IP address B. Workstation subnet mask C. Workstation default gateway D. Router interface E0 ip address
Answer:C
The default gateway should be set to .65
Thanks & Regards,

Nivrutti V. Susar
Network Administrator
VIT Infotech (India) Private Limited
Mo.No:-(+91)(9767049588)

CCNA Questions and Answers - Print

Enviado por

Dados do documento

Descrição original:

Título original

Direitos autorais

Formatos disponíveis

Compartilhar este documento

Compartilhar ou incorporar documento

Opções de compartilhamento

Você considera este documento útil?

Este conteúdo é inapropriado?

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

CCNA Questions and Answers - Print

Enviado por

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

What is an advantage to LAN segmentation?

3. What does a bridge use to segment a network?

4. What is a disadvantage to using bridges in your network?

B. Stops broadcast storms

A. Stops broadcast storms

7. What is an advantage to using switches in your network?

8. When is Frame Tagging used?

9. Which STP state prevents the use of looped paths?

12. Which is true regarding Store-and-forward switching method?

13. Which of the following describes a full-duplex transmission?

16. Which of the following describe the steps of data encapsulation?

The five encapsulation methods are:

18. What uses a connection-less protocol at the Transport layer?

22. What is a connection-less protocol at the Internet layer?

23. What protocol sends redirects back to an originating router?

25. What is the IP extended access-list range?

28. What authentication methods can be used by PPP?

29. What are three ways to monitor IP access lists?

31. Which of the following is true regarding layer-2 switches?

33. A solution for congestion problems in Ethernet network is?

35. What is true about bridges?

37. What is true about routers? (Choose all that apply)

38. What is a benefit of segmenting your network with switches?

40. Which two statements are true regarding ISDN?

41. What is true about fast ethernet?

42. What are the benefits of fast ethernet?

43. What is the distance of Fast Ethernet?

44. What is the distance limitation of 100BaseFX?

45. Which switching method is also known as on-the-fly packet switching?

47. What is the purpose of the spanning-tree protocol?

48. What is the IEEE version of Spanning-Tree?

49. What are benefits of VLANs?

51. What Cisco proprietary technology allows VLANs switching to be accomplished?

57. Which of the following commands will reboot the router?

59. When in setup mode, which of the following is true?

C. copy start tftp

62. How can you restore a configuration?

63. What configuration commands will configure a router for fallback?

64. Copy tftp flash initiates what events?

67. Which of the following is true about the Network layer?

A. Uses broadcasts B. Uses two-part addresses

74. What is the difference between routed and routing protocols?

A. Routed protocols run dynamic routing protocols like RIP

D. config t, int fa4, ip address 172.16.10.1 255.255.255.0

79. What utilities are used to verify the IP configuration of a device?

80. How do enable RIP routing on your network?

R 10.0.0.0/8 [120/15] via 192.168.40.1, 00:00:07, Serial0

94. Which of the following are valid frame relay terms?

95. What is the frame relay map command used for?

97. What command shows the frame relay protocol statistics?

98. Which command shows LMI statistics?

99. Which are true regarding PPP?

100. What is true regarding PPP?

A. Can use X.25 protocols

104. When would you install ISDN?

105. When would ISDN be a good solution?

106. What is true about Cisco ISDN?

107. What encapsulations are used with ISDN?

113. What is the result of using a hierarchical addressing framework?

114. When is frame tagging used?

120. What is the total bandwidth of all channels on a BRI circuit?