SURGERY SHIFTING EXAMINATION 1

CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER:

1. C The effect of uncontrolled inflammatory reaction secondary to cytokines and other substrates is best
manifested in what type of shock? A. cardiogenic B. hypovolemic C. septic D. obstructive shock
2. A One of the following is not consistent with proinflammatory action? A. vasoconstriction B. increased
capillary permeability C. chemoattractant to neutrophils and microphages D. hypertension
3. C In patients with severe sepsis it has been shown in studies that inhibiting excessive activation of the
coagulation system improves survival. Which of the following may inhibit the coagulation system? A.
infliximab B. methotrexate C. drotrecogin alfa D. etanercept
4. C What enzyme mediates the effect of nitric oxide? A. cyclooxygenase B. lipooxygenase C. guanylyl
cyclase D. lactamase
5. C A post colon resection patient on chemotherapy is exposed to an area experiencing severe endemic
infection. To help the patient resist possible severe infection we can give A. steroids B. IL-13 C. Interferon
γ D. IL-10
6. B These are small proteins or glycoproteins secreted for the purpose of altering the function of target cells in
an endocrine fashion. A. insulin B. cytokines C. thyroxine D. lymphocytes
7. A Which of the following is inflammatory cytokine? A. IL-2 B. IL-4 C. IL-10 D. IL-13
8. C Which cytokines produced by macrophages stimulates transformation of TH2 cells to active TH1 thus
producing Interferon γ? A. IL-4 B. IL-13 C. IL-18 D. All are correct
9. D These substances are produced by the inflammatory cascade and induces refractory vasodilation: A. NO
B. prostaglandins C. peroxynitrite anion D. All are correct
10. A Believed to be the mediator for COX-2 to exert its vasodilatory and increase permeability effect A. ONOO
(peroxynitrate anion) B. thromboxine C. arachidonic acid D. guanylyl cyclase
11. A Hypovolemic shock can result from any of the following: A. intestinal obstruction B. burns C.
pancreatitis D. all of the above
12. B Cellular change in hypovolemic shock: A. intracellular loss of Na+ B. depletion of cellular ATP C.
extracellular loss of K+ D. normal cellular membrane potential
13. D Renal response to hyvolemic shock: A. decreased renal artery perfusion B. rennin-angiotensin activation
C. increased water permeability D. all of the above
14. bns A patient with decreased CVP is most likely having: A. hypovolemic shock B. neurogenic shock C.
cardiogenic shock D. all of the above
15. D The most reliable method of assessing the patient’s adequacy of resuscitation is the hourly urine ourput,
which should be: A. 100 mL/hr B. 10 mL/hr C. 10 mL/kg D. 1 mL/kg
16. C Compensatory responses that occur during shock: A. increased capillary hydrostatic pressure B.
decreased sympathetic activity C. release of epinephrine and norepinephrine D. decreased peripheral
vascular resistance
17. A A 35-year-old is seen at the ER after a vehicular crash. Vital signs were as follows BP 80/60 PR 110/min,
RR 35/min, and T 36°C. On physical examination breath sounds is decreased over the right and there is no
apparent source of bleeding. Shock in this patient should be presumed to be due to: A. hemorrhage B.
neurogenic C. cardiogenic D. vasodilatory
18. D The possible site that can harbour sufficient extravascular blood volume that induces shock in this patient
is: A. external loss B. long bone fracture C. retroperitoneal sequestration D. intrathoracic
19. B A 38-year-old male had abdominal exploration for multiple gunshot wounds. He is febrile T 38.5°C on the
2nd post-op day. HR is 98 bpm, BP 100/80. WBC count is 13000. The patient is hooked to a ventilator. On the
5th day post-op the patient in addition to the above findings now show erythema and draining pus from the
abdominal incision site. The patient now is developing: A. SIRS B. sepsis C. severe sepsis D. septic shock
20. D On the 10th day post-op, the above patient is persistently febrile with an increased WBC count (18000)
and oliguria that is unresponsive to fluid resuscitation. The patient now is developing: A. SIRS B. sepsis C.
severe sepsis D. septic shock
21. C The treatment of hemorrhagic shock requires prompt control of bleeding and: A. rapid administration of
oxygen B. administration of digitalis C. volume replacement D. use of antibiotics
22. D Regardless of etiology, the common factor in the development of shock is: A. diminution of intravascular
volume B. peripheral vasodilation C. failed sympathetic response to injury D. inadequate delivery of
oxygen to the tissues
23. C Regarding the diagnosis and treatment of cardiac tamponade, which of the following statements is true?
A. accumulation of greater than 250 mL of blood in the pericardial sac is necessary to impair cardiac output
B. Beck’s triad includes distended neck veins, pulsus paradoxius, and hypertension C. approximately 15% of
needle pericardiocentesis give a false negative result D. cardiopulmonary bypass is required to repair most
penetrating cardiac injuries
24. C Initial fluid resuscitation in shock should be: A. full blast through 1 line until the cause of bleeding is
corrected B. must attain normal BP, then decrease rate C. 2 liters are routinely given in 15 minutes D. 50
cc at fast drip, re-evaluate at 15-minute intervals
25. bns A patient presents with hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea and an ABP showing metabolic acidosis. Your
primary consideration is: A. hypovolemic shock B. neurogenic shock C. septic shock D. cardiogenic shock
26. D The most common etiology among non-trauma patient of the above condition is: A. acute massive but
subtle hemorrhage B. third space fluid sequestration C. loss of autonomic nervous system control D. gram-
negative bacteremia
27. C Early phase of hypovolemic shock among young patients is characterized by: A. hypotension with
decreased cardiac output B. hypodynamic cardiac rate C. normotensive and tachycardia D. increased
peripheral resistance and unresponsive to volume replacement
28. D The difference between septic shock and hypovolemic shock is/are: A. decrease peripheral resistance in
septic shock versus increase of peripheral resistance in hypovolemic shock B. hyperdynamic state in septic
shock versus hypodynamic state in hypovolemic shock C. presence of mediators in septic shock versus simply
neuro-humoral response in hypovolemic shock D. All of the above
29. C The three most common cause of death in hypovolemic shock are: A. acute renal failure, ARDS, and multi-
organ failure B. hemorrhage, DIC, and encephalopathy C. hypotension, hypothermia and DIC D. antibiotic
overdose, severe dehydration and pulmonary overload
30. A Among trauma patients in shock, the goal of ER resuscitation is: A. adequate tissue perfusion B. to attain
normal vital signs C. to provide time for diagnostic procedures D. to convert an emergency operation to an
elective one
31. A After the last bag of blood has been transfused, the patient developed fever and had a bloody urine
output. What is going on in the patient? A. transfusion reaction B. allergy to the pre-op antibiotics C. SSI
D. expected after any blood transfusion
32. C The most common reason why this patient developed this problem is: A. air embolism B. absence of
pre-op antibiotics C. human error D. under hydration intra-op
33. A This patient has been taking aspirin for the past week, which was prescribed by his physician prior to the
accident. This blood test finding is expected in our patient: A. prolonged bleeding time B. normal partial
thromboplastin time C. prolonged prothrombin time D. delayed clotting time
34. D If the patient taking aspirin is scheduled for elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy, how will you correct
the bleeding problem? A. transfuse WB during the operation B. discontinue aspirin use for several days prior
to the operation C. go on with schedule and disregard the aspirin use D. transfuse platelets 3 days prior to
scheduled operation
35. C The above patient eventually is operated with normal blood parameter, immediately post-op the patient is
bleeding from the operative site. Bleeding is secondary to: A. uncorrected hypovolemia B. reaction to the
anesthetic C. inadequate hemostasis intra-operatively D. use of aspirin.
36. D In the awake, nonanesthetized patient suspected of having a haemolytic posttransfusion reaction, the
most characteristic signs are: A. diffuse bleeding and hypotension B. nausea and vomiting C. fever and
chills D. oliguria and hemoglobinuria
37. A The most common clinical manifestation of a haemolytic transfusion reaction is: A. oliguria B. flank pain
C. jaundice D. shaking chill
38. A Platelets in the wound form a hemostatic clot and release clotting factors to produce: A. fibrin B.
fibrinogen C. fibroblast D. thrombin
39. bns A hemophilic patient needs transfusion, what component is needed: A. PRBC B. WB C. FFP D. cryoprecipitate
40. B In a patient scheduled for thyroidectomy with no known bleeding problem, what will you request prior to
the operation? A. bleeding time B. platelet count C. partial thromboplastin time D. clotting time
41. A Which of the following diseases may be transmitted by all blood components? A. malaria B. Hep B C. Hep
A D. syphilis
42. A A 10-year old female is scheduled to undergo craniotomy for a brain tumor. If you want to screen the
patient regarding her hemostatic risk, which of the following information is most helpful? A. history of
abnormal bleeding B. prolonged PT C. platelet count of 100,000 D. prolonged clotting time
43. C Which of the following laboratory exams will you request for this patient with a history of prolonged
bleeding? A. PT & PTT B. platelet count & bleeding time C. both D. none
44. A During operation, it was noted that the patient has excessive bleeding, which of the following factors
should be considered? A. ineffective local hemostasis B. previously undetected hemostatic defect C.
complications of blood transfusion D. all of the above
45. A Vitamin K was given intra-operatively, which of the following coagulation factor does not require vitamin K
for their production? A. V B. IX C. VII D. X
46. B A 75-year-old male is admitted because of persistent vomiting of previously ingested food of 7 days
duration. He was diagnosed with gastric antral carcinoma 8 months ago. PE reveals a lethargic male with
the following vita signs: BP: 90/60 PR: 115/min RR: 28/min and T of 36.5C. His weight is 49 kg. Skin is
loose, oral mucous membrane is dry and the tongue is furrowed. A positive succussion splash is elicited.
The acid base disturbance most likely present in this patient is: A. metabolic acidosis B. metaboloic
alkalosis C. respiratory acidosis D. respiratory alkalosis
47. D The best sign of restoration of his intravascular volume after fluid resuscitation is: A. increase in the
volume of the pulse B. BP of 110/80 mm Hg C. improved level of consciousness D. urine output of 50 cc/hr
48. C In an attempt by the kidneys to conserve Na, the following electrolyte will be excreted: A. Cl- B. HCO3-
C. K+ D. Mg++
49. D Fluid resuscitation should initially begin with: A. albumin solutions B. synthetic colloid solutions C. fresh
frozen plasma D. crystalloid solutions
50. A Postoperatively, a patient who has undergone a major procedure is not passing adequate urine output.
BUN and serum creatinine ratio showed pre-renal azotemia. Your fluid of choice is: A. D5LRS B. 0.3 NaCl
C. D5W D. D5NR
51. B? A patient who is in a state of severe hyponatremia will appear: A. easily excited B. drowsy C.
tachycardic D. pale
52. C Majority of the patients with metabolic alkalosis have some degree of hypokalemia, due to: A. loss of
potassium due to diarrhea B. loss of potassium due to severe vomiting or fluid sequestration C. failure of
the kidney to reabsorb the potassium D. influx of potassium into the cells as hydrogen ion efflux to the serum
53. A Twenty-four hours after an uneventful excision of a brain tumor, a 42-year-old male developed polyuria
and unique thirst. If uncorrected, your patient’s fluid and electrolyte state will most likely by: A. relative
hypernatremia with hypovolemia B. volume excess with dilutional hyponatremia C. low serum osmolarity
D. intravascular volume excess
54. C The normal serum K+ value is: A. 1-2 meq/L B. 1.5-3 meq/L C. 3.5-4.5 meq/L D. 3-7 meq/L
55. A The principal cation in the extracellular fluid compartment is: A. sodium B. potassium C. chloride D.
bicarbonate
56. C The common cause of extracellular fluid volume excess in surgical patients: A. trauma B. peritonitis C.
excessive fluid administration D. intestinal obstruction
57. B Sign of ECF volume overload: A. diminished tendon reflexes B. pulmonary edema C. hypothermia D.
abdominal distention
58. A If D5W is used for fluid replacement in a post-operative patient with nasogastric tube drainage of 2
liters/day, the patient will develop: A. ECF deficit with hyponatremia B. ECF deficit with hypernatremia C.
ICF deficit with hyponatremia D. ECF deficit with hypernatremia
59. C A 48-year-old female undergoes laparoscopic cholecystectomy. On the first post-operative day, she
complains of severe operative site pain and develops fever. The most likely cause of the fever is: A. wound
infection B. dehydration C. atelactasis D. anesthetic reaction
60. A Two days after resuscitation from shock, fluid mobilization starts. A frequent fluid and electrolyte disorder
at this stage will be: A. dilutional hyponatremia B. hypovolemia C. hypotention D. decreased venous
return
61. A A 44-year-old male with a neglected intraperitoneal infection will most probably have: A. volume
deficiency B. sodium excess C. volume excess D. potassium excess
62. B In the above patient, manifestation of your answer will be initially be evident in the: A. skin and mucosa
B. cardiovascular system C. central nervous system D. renal system
63. D If still uncorrected during the hospital course, the most likely concentration change is: A. hyponatremia
B. hyperkalemia C. hypocalcemia D. hypomagnesia
64. D The most useful method of following the long-term trend in fluid balance is: A. weigh the patient daily
B. maintain a careful daily I & O chart C. serial measurements of serum Na+ D. maintain a daily record of
urine volume and specific gravity
65. C After an extensive abdominal operation, the pancreatic duct stream along with the biliary juice was
completely diverted to drain externally. Which of the following will disappear by significant amounts from the
GI tract? A. potassium B. sodium C. bicarbonate D. chloride
66. A A 65-kg male underwent pancreatic resection. Parenteral nutrition is started post-operatively. The
recommended daily protein intake is: A. 80 to 100 g/day B. 40-60 g/d 30-40 g/d D. 60-80 g/day
67. B This patient should receive this amount of kcal/kg/day to meet his daily energy requirements: A. 15 B.
25 C. 60 D. 40
68. B After several days on parenteral nutrition, this patient complains of anosmia and shows darkening of skin
creases. The trace mineral deficient is: A. calcium B. chromium C. magnesium D. zinc
69. A If the above patient develops a dry flaky skin with alopecia. This condition is most likely a result of: A.
linoleic acid deficiency B. zinc deficiency C. vitamin C deficiency D. magnesium deficiency
70. C The most appropriate route for the administration of protein and calories to a patient after a pancreatic
resection is through: A. nasogastric tube feedings B. gastrostomy tube feedings C. jejunostomy tube
feedings D. central venous hyperalimentation
71. B The daily enteral nutritional support for this patient should contain which of the following? A. saturated
fatty acids B. trace minerals C. large amounts of K D. fructose
72. D A 66-kg male after a total colonic resection requires nutritional support, the recommended daily protein
intake is: A. 90 g/d B. 60 g/d C. 50 g/d D. 100 g/d.
73. D? The primary reason/s why nutritional support in this patient is necessary: A. for metabolic processes B.
core temperature maintenance C. tissue repair D. all of the above
74. A In assessing the nutritional deficiency in this patient, the following anthropometric data should be
obtained: A. ideal body weight B. creatinine excretion C. dietary habits prior to injury D. presence of
chronic illness
75. D A 52-year-old patient is comatose, which route is appropriate for the administration of protein and
calories? A. jejunostomy B. gastrostomy C. nasogastric D. any of the above is acceptable
76. C A 42-year-old male is admitted for hernia surgery. He complains of on & off abdominal pain, but tolerates
regular diet. His weight on admission is 60 kg, which was 72 kg six months ago. He has poor appetite but
regular bowel movement. PE is normal except for a large inguino-scrotal mass ® that could be reduced with
difficulty. What is the Subjective Global Assessment diagnosis? A. well-nourished B. mild malnutrition C.
moderate malnutrition D. severe malnutrition
77. B Using the “Rule of Thumb”, his total caloric requirement is: A. 1500 Kcal B. 1800 Kcal C. 2000 Kcal
D. 2500 Kcal
78. C The protein component of his nutrition is: A. 150 Kcal B. 200 Kcal C. 250 Kcal D. 300 Kcal
79. B The carbohydrate component of his nutrition is: A. 800 Kcal B. 1000 Kcal C. 1200 Kcal D. 1400 Kcal
80. B In the hospital, his fasting blood sugar is 250 mg/dL. His carbohydrate component is adjusted to how
much % of his total caloric requirement: A. 30% B. 45% C. 60% D. 75%