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Chemistry 1A03 McMaster University

Test 1 VERSION 1

Oct. 15, 2010

Instructors: Drs. R. Dumont, G. Goward, J. Landry and P. Lock Duration: 100 minutes This test contains 18 numbered pages printed on both sides. There are 25 multiple-choice questions appearing on pages numbered 3 to 14. Pages 15 and 16 provide extra space for rough work. Page 17 includes some useful data and equations, and there is a periodic table on page 18. You may tear off the last pages to view the periodic table and the data provided. You must enter your name and student number on this question sheet, as well as on the answer sheet. Your invigilator will be checking your student card for identification. You are responsible for ensuring that your copy of the question paper is complete. Bring any discrepancy to the attention of your invigilator. Questions 1 to 20 are each worth 2 marks and questions 21 25 are worth 3 marks each; the total marks available are 55. There is no additional penalty for incorrect answers. BE SURE TO ENTER THE CORRECT VERSION OF YOUR TEST (shown near the top of page 1), IN THE SPACE PROVIDED ON THE ANSWER SHEET. ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS ON THE ANSWER SHEET, IN PENCIL. Instructions for entering multiple-choice answers are given on page 2. SELECT ONE AND ONLY ONE ANSWER FOR EACH QUESTION from the answers (A) through (E). No work written on the question sheets will be marked. The question sheets may be collected and reviewed in cases of suspected academic dishonesty. Academic dishonesty may include, among other actions, communication of any kind (verbal, visual, etc.) between students, sharing of materials between students, copying or looking at other students work. If you have a problem please ask the invigilator to deal with it for you. Do not make contact with other students directly. Try to keep your eyes on your own paper looking around the room may be interpreted as an attempt to copy. Only Casio FX 991 electronic calculators may be used; but they must NOT be transferred between students. Use of periodic tables or any aids, other than those provided, is not allowed.

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OMR EXAMINATION STUDENT INSTRUCTIONS NOTE: IT IS YOUR RESPONSIBILITY TO ENSURE THAT THE ANSWER SHEET IS PROPERLY COMPLETED: YOUT EXAMINIATION RESULT DEPENDS UPON PROPER ATTENTION TO THESE INSTRUCTIONS. The scanner, which reads the sheets, senses the bubble shaded areas by their nonreflection of light. A heavy mark must be made, completely filling the circular bubble, with an HB pencil. Marks made with a pen will NOT be sensed. Erasures must be thorough or the scanner will still sense a mark. Do NOT use correction fluid on the sheets. Do NOT put any unnecessary marks or writing on the sheet. 1. On SIDE 1 (red side) of the form, in the top box, in pen, print your student number, name, course name, (section number, instructor name) and the date in the spaces provided. Then you MUST write your signature, in the space marked SIGNATURE. 2. In the second box, with a pencil, mark your student number, exam version number (and course section number) in the space provided and fill in the corresponding bubble numbers underneath. 3. Answers: mark only ONE choice from the alternatives (1,2,3,4,5 or A,B,C,D,E) provided for each question. If there is a True/False question, enter response o 1 (or A) as True, and 2 (or B) as False. The question number is to the left of the bubbles. Make sure that the number of the question on the scan sheet is the same as the number on the test paper. 4. Pay particular attention to the Marking+ Directions on the form. 5. Begin answering the question using the first set of bubbles, marked 1.

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Questions 1-20 are worth 2 marks each. 1. What is the name of the element with atomic number seven? A) B) C) D) E) nickel neodymium nitrogen neptunium neon

2. A student titrates NaOH (buret) against HCl (Erlenmeyer flask), with phenolphthalein indicator, as in experiment # 1. At the end of the titration, the solution in the Erlenmeyer flask is dark pink. If the actual concentration of NaOH is 0.1029 M, what is the most likely result obtained by the student? A) B) C) D) E) 0.07458 M 0.1029 M 0.1358 M 0.1008 M 0.1035 M

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3. In a lab experiment, a student adds aqueous sodium hydroxide (10.0 mL, 2.0 M) to aqueous cobalt(II) nitrate (50.0 mL, 0.30 M). When the reaction reaches completion, what mass (in grams) of cobalt(II) hydroxide is formed? Assume that the only reaction occurring is: Co(NO3)2(aq) + 2 NaOH(aq) Co(OH)2(s) + 2 NaNO3(aq). A) B) C) D) E) 0.74 3.9 2.9 0.93 1.9

4. Temperatures from the distant past can be determined by measuring the ratio of 18O to 16 O in the layers of ice cores taken from Antarctic or Greenland ice sheets. Neutral atoms of 16O, 17O and 18O all have A) B) C) D) E) 16 protons 8 electrons and 8 protons 8 neutrons and 8 protons 16 protons and 16 electrons 8 neutrons

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5. Determine the FALSE statement regarding the general trends of the periodic table. A) The second ionization energy for Na will be larger than the first ionization energy of Ne. B) An atom of element X will have a larger radius than X+ . C) An atom of element X will have a smaller radius than X . D) The element with the smallest first ionization energy in a row will have the largest atomic radius of that period. E) Z increases across a period, and Zeff decreases across a period.

6. Identify the element based on the following information: i) It has a lower melting point than Al. ii) It has a higher magnitude of electron affinity than Ge. iii) It has a smaller atomic radius than P. iv) It has a lower first ionization energy than F. A) B) C) D) E) He O W Rb Si

7. Which of the following elements would have the least metallic character? A) B) C) D) E) As S Mg Ga Cr

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8. The order of increasing electronegativity (from the smallest to the largest value) for oxygen, silicon and sulfur is A) B) C) D) E) O < Si < S S < Si < O S < O < Si Si < O < S Si < S < O

9. Phosphorus has a higher first ionization energy than sulfur because A) B) C) D) E) There is additional stability in phosphorus because of a half-filled subshell. Phosphorus is a noble gas. Phosphorus is in a different period than sulfur. The statement is not true; sulfur has the higher first ionization energy. Phosphorus exists as P4 in the elemental state, whereas sulfur is S8, meaning more electrons need to be removed, requiring a larger energy.

10. Which of the following atoms/cations would be the hardest to further ionize? A) B) C) D) E) Ca2+ Na P+ Al2+ K+

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11. Carbon monoxide is a gas which binds to hemoglobin in competition with oxygen. Which one of the following pictures represents the correct charge-minimized Lewis structure for CO? A) C B)
+

C
C)

D)

C
E)

12. Choose the TRUE statements regarding the charge-minimized structure of the phosphate ion, PO43. (i) The average formal charge on O is 1/4. (ii) The average PO bond order is 5/4. (iii) There are 4 equivalent resonance structures. (iv) The OPO bond angles will be < 109.5. A) B) C) D) E) i, ii ii, iii i, iii i, iv ii, iv

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13. Choose the FALSE statement about the charge-minimized Lewis structures for the molecules SO2 and SCl2. A) B) C) D) E) There are two resonance structures for SO2. The bond angle in SCl2 is < 109.5. The VSEPR class for SO2 is AX2 E. The formal charge on S in SCl2 is zero. The molecular geometry for both SO2 and SCl2 is bent.

14. What is the name of the molecular shape of SCl4? A) B) C) D) E) Seesaw Square pyramidal Square planar T-shaped Tetrahedral

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15. Choose the FALSE statement regarding the following molecules and ion: BH3, IF3, NI3, NO3. A) B) C) D) E) The central atom of only one molecule has an expanded octet. Only one species will have non-ideal bond angles. Only one of the molecules has a trigonal pyramidal molecular shape. Two of the molecules have a permanent dipole. Exactly two of the species shown have the same molecular shape.

16. A detector receives a signal consisting of green light, with a wavelength of 540 nm. The total energy of the signal is 2.50 1014 J. How many photons reach the detector? A) B) C) D) E) 5.5 102 1.5 104 8.4 107 6.8 104 2.5 105

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17. When electromagnetic waves interact with matter, they may A) B) C) D) E) cause heating cause ionization cause electronic transitions break bonds all of the above

18. The energy difference between the n = 1 state and the n = 2 state in the He+ ion is 6.534 1018 J, which corresponds to a photon wavelength of 30.40 nm. Which of the following photon wavelengths, when absorbed, will cause excitation from n = 1 to n = 2 in He+? A) B) C) D) E) Any wavelength less than or equal to 30.40 nm Only 30.40 nm Any wavelength greater than or equal to 30.40 nm Any wavelength that is an integer multiple of 30.40 nm Any integer multiple of 6.534 1018 J, converted to a wavelength

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19. An arsenic atom (Z = 33) is in its ground state. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) could not possibly describe one of its electrons? A) B) C) D) E) 4, 2, 2, 3, 2, 2, 2, 1, 1, 3, 0, 0, 4, 1, 0,

20. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) B) C) D) E) Nitrogen atoms in their ground state are paramagnetic. Calcium atoms in their ground state are paramagnetic. [Ar]4s13d1 is the electron configuration of an excited state of a Ca atom. [He]2s2 2p5 is the electron configuration of the ground state of a F atom [He]2s2 is the electron configuration of the ground state of a Be atom.

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Questions 21-25 are worth 3 marks each. 21. The percentage by mass of bicarbonate in an antacid tablet is 32.5 %. Calculate the volume of carbon dioxide gas (in mL) generated at 37 C and 1.00 atm from a 3.29 g tablet according to the reaction: HCO3(aq) + H+(aq) H2O(l) + CO2(g) A) B) C) D) E) 53 618 446 1370 27.2

22. The density of a noble gas is measured to be 2.71 g L1 at 3.00 atm and 0 C. What is the gas? A) B) C) D) E) Ar He Kr Xe Ne

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23. Choose the TRUE statements regarding the BrF4 ion. (i) The electron pair geometry is octahedral. (ii) The formal charge on Br is zero. (iii) The molecular shape is square planar. A) B) C) D) E) i, ii, iii iii only i, ii i, iii ii, iii

24. Choose the FALSE statement about the charge-minimized Lewis structures of the ClO4 and ClO3 ions. A) B) C) D) E) The average Cl-O bond order is lower for the ClO3 ion. There are more resonance structures for the ClO4 ion than for the ClO3 ion. The average Cl-O bond length is greater in ClO3. The average Cl-O bond energy is greater for the ClO4 ion. The average formal charge on the O atoms in ClO4 is 1.

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25. It takes 492 kJ of energy to remove one mole of electrons from the atoms on the surface of solid gold. What is the speed of the ejected electrons (in m/s), if the incoming light has a wavelength of 200.0 nm? A) B) C) D) E) 2.33 105 8.56 107 6.22 105 1.63 102 5.80 106

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Extra space for rough work:

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Some general data are provided on this page. A Periodic Table with atomic weights is provided on the next page.

STP = 273.15 K, 1 atm R = 8.3145 J K1 mol1 = 0.08206 L atm K1 mol1 NA = 6.022 1023 mol1 c = 2.9979 108 m/s h = 6.6256 1034 Js me = 9.10 1031 kg density(H2O, l) = 1.00g/mL 1 atm = 101.325 kPa = 760 mm Hg 0C = 273.15 K 1 J = 1 kg m2 s2 = 1 kPa L = 1 Pa m3 1 m = 109 nm = 1010 1 cm3 = 1 mL 1 g = 103 mg 1 Hz = 1 cycle/s = h / mv = h / p En = -RH/n2 = -2.178 1018J / n2

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