Eng Journal VolI IG

Cisco Networking Academy Program: Engineering Journal
and Workbook, Volume I, Second Edition

Engineering Journal and Workbook Questions and Answers
Chapter 1
Computer Basics
Introduction
It is important to be able to recognize and name the major components of a PC for the
following three reasons:
• Computers are important network-building devices.
• Many networking devices are themselves special-purpose computers, with many
of the same parts as “normal” PCs.
• For you to view the online curriculum, your own computer must be in working
order, which means that you might need to occasionally troubleshoot simple
problems in your computer’s hardware and software.
Concept Questions
Demonstrate your knowledge of these concepts by answering the questions in the
Engineering Journal space provided.
• The transistor and the integrated circuit made modern computers possible.
Explain why.
The invention of a semiconductor transistor opened up many possibilities for
making smaller, more reliable computers. Millions of transistors can now be
placed on one small piece of semiconductor. Further microminiaturization of
integrated circuits leads to widespread use of PCs in homes and businesses.
• If your computer doesn’t power up, what steps might you take to identify
and correct the problem?
If your computer does not power up as expected, consider verifying the following:
⇒ Power cord is plugged into wall socket.
⇒ Power switch is switched to the on (1) position.
⇒ Motherboard power inlet is securely fastened.
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1 - 239 Engineering Journal and Workbook, Vol. I, 2 Ed. – Chapter 1 Copyright © 2002 Cisco Systems, Inc.
• Explain how to do the following:
⇒ Select the NIC card.
The network card selection should involve consideration of the following:
• Bus type (PCI, ISA, EISA, and so on)
• Network topology (bus, ring, star)
• Medium type (UTP, STP, 10Base2, 10Base5, 10BaseF)
• Transport speed (1 Mbps, 4 Mbps, 10 Mbps, 16 Mbps, 100
Mbps, 1000 Mbps)
⇒ Set the correct IP address.
The IP address selected should be on the same network or subnetwork
as the other devices that need to be accessed. This should be a unique
address that is not currently being used by any other nodes on the local
network.
⇒ Adjust the display (if necessary).
The display can easily be changed by selecting the display icon from the
control panel. Select the setting option and choose the desired resolution
and color depth. Click Apply to reflect changes.
⇒ Install and set up the browser.

Use the installer program to install and configure your browser. Once
installed, add any necessary browser plug-ins such as Flash or
Shockwave. Choose your method of connectivity, usually dialup or local-
area network (LAN).
The first connection attempt after install will invoke the Internet Wizard
Utility.
Vocabulary Exercise Chapter 1

Define the following terms as completely as you can. Use the online Chapter 1 or the
Cisco Systems Networking Academy: First-Year Companion Guide, Second Edition,
material for help.
ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) An 8-bit code (7
bits plus parity) for character representation.
Backplane Physical connection between an interface processor or card and the data
buses and power distribution buses inside a Cisco chassis.
Backplane components Backplane, interface, mouse port, network card, parallel
port, and other miscellaneous ports.
Binary The binary number system, or Base 2, is made up entirely of 0s and 1s.
Computers use Base 2 to express IP addresses.
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Bits Each variable set by a computer is represented as being a 0 or a 1. These 0s
and 1s represent a circuit being open or closed, or a capacitor being charged or
uncharged. Each 0 and 1 is said to be a bit.
Bus A collection of wires through which data is transmitted from one part of a
computer to another. It connects all the internal computer components to the CPU. The
Industry Standard Architecture (ISA) and the Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI)
are two types of buses.
Bytes Term used to refer to a series of consecutive binary digits that are operated
upon as a unit (for example, an 8-bit byte).
Capacitor A capacitor consists of two conducting metal plates separated by an
insulating material. Capacitors store energy in the form of electrostatic fields.
CD-ROM drive A compact disk read-only memory drive; a device that can read
information from a CD-ROM.
Central processing unit (CPU) The part of a computer that controls all the other
parts. It fetches instructions from memory and decodes them. This action may cause it
to transfer data to or from memory or to activate peripherals to perform input or output.
Expansion slots An opening in a computer where a circuit board can be inserted to
add new capabilities to the computer.
Floppy disk drive A disk drive that can read and write to floppy disks, usually in the 3
½” 1.44 MB or 5 ¼” 1.2 MB format.
Hard disk drive The device that reads and writes data on a hard disk. Two main
types of drive interfaces are current in today’s computers: the Integrated Drive
Electronics (IDE) drive and the Small Computer System Interface (SCSI; pronounced
scuzzy) drive. Usually referred to by interface type and capacity (MB or GB; for example,
10 GB SCSI drive).
Integrated circuit (IC) A device made of semiconductor material; it contains many
transistors and performs a specific task.
Light emitting diodes (LEDs) A semiconductor device that emits light when a
current passes through it. Status lights on hardware devices are typically LEDs.
Local-area network (LAN) LANs consist of computers, network interface cards,
networking media, network traffic control devices, and peripheral devices in a single
building or geographically limited area. LANs make it possible for businesses that use
computer technology to efficiently share items, such as files and printers, and to make
communications such as e-mail possible. They tie together data, communications,
computing, and file servers.
Microprocessor A silicon chip that contains a CPU.
Monitor connector The part of a video cable that plugs into a port or an interface.
SVGA connectors are typically a 15-pin connector.
Motherboard The main printed circuit board of a microcomputer.
Mouse port A port designed to connect a mouse to a PC.
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Network 1) Collection of computers, printers, routers, switches, and other devices
that are able to communicate with each other over some transmission medium. 2)
Command that assigns a NIC-based address to which the router is directly connected.
3) Command that specifies any directly connected networks to be included.
Network card 1) An expansion board inserted into a computer so that the computer
can be connected to a network. 2) Board that provides network communication
capabilities to and from a computer system. Also called an adapter.
NIC (network interface card) Also called a LAN adapter, it plugs into a motherboard
and provides a port to connect to the network. A NIC communicates with the network
through a serial connection, and with the computer through a parallel connection. Each
card requires an IRQ, an I/O address, and an upper memory address to work with DOS
or Windows 95/98. An interrupt request line (IRQ) is a signal informing a CPU that an
event that needs its attention has occurred.
Parallel port An interface capable of transferring more than one bit simultaneously. It
is used to connect external devices, such as printers.
PC components Components found within a personal computer include the
motherboard, video card, network adapter, hard drive, CPU, memory, sound card, CD-
ROM drive, floppy drive, and power supply.
Personal computer subsystems Subsystems of a personal computer include the
system bus, CD-ROM drive, CPU, expansion cards, expansion slots, floppy disk drive,
hard disk drive, motherboard, and power supply.
Power cord A cord used to connect an electrical device to an electrical outlet to
provide power to the device.
Power supply The component that supplies power to a computer.
Printed circuit boards (PCBs) A thin plate on which chips (integrated circuits) and
other electronic components are placed.
Protocol 1) Formal description of a set of rules and conventions that govern how
devices on a network exchange information. 2) Field within an IP datagram that
indicates the upper layer (Layer 4) protocol sending the datagram.
Random-access memory (RAM) Also known as read-write memory, RAM can have
new data written into it and stored data read from it. A drawback of RAM is that it
requires electrical power to maintain data storage.
Resistor A device made of a material that opposes the flow of electric current.
Read-only memory (ROM) Nonvolatile memory that can be read, but not written, by
the microprocessor.
Serial port An interface that can be used for serial communication in which only one
bit is transmitted at a time.
Small, discrete components Components that are usually found in a laptop. These
components are smaller—the expansion slots become PCMCIA or PC slots, where
NICs, modems, hard drives, and other useful devices, usually the size of a thick credit
card, can be inserted into the PCMCIA slots along the perimeter.
Solder A conductor that is made up a mixture of lead (Pb) and tin (Sn), and water
with ions.
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Sound card An expansion card that handles all sound functions.
System unit The main part of a PC; the system unit includes the chassis, the
microprocessor, the main memory, the bus, and the ports. It does not include the
keyboard or the monitor, or any external devices connected to the computer.
Throughput Rate of information arriving at, and possibly passing through, a
particular point in a network system.
Transistor A device that amplifies a signal or opens and closes a circuit.
Video card A board that plugs into a PC to give it display capabilities.
Wide-area networks (WANs) Data communications networks that serve users
across a broad geographic area and often use transmission devices provided by
common carriers. Frame Relay, SMDS, and X.25 are examples of WAN technologies.
Focus Questions
1. What are the major components of a PC?
Components found within a personal computer include the motherboard, video

card, network adapter, hard drive, CPU, memory, sound card, CD-ROM drive,
floppy drive, power supply.
3. What is the information flow in an idealized computer?
Boot instructions—Stored in ROM until they are sent out.

Software applications—Stored in RAM after they are loaded.
RAM and ROM—Constantly talk to the CPU through the bus.
Application information—Stored in RAM while applications are being used.
Saved information—Flows from RAM to some form of storage device.
Exported information—Flows from RAM and the CPU, through the bus and
expansion slots, to the printer, the video card, the sound card, or the network
card.
4. What is the relationship of NICs to PCs?
The NIC enables hosts to connect to the network and is, therefore, considered a
key network component.
5. Compare PC components with laptop components.
The main difference is that components in a laptop are smaller—the expansion

slots become PCMCIA or PC slots, where NICs, modems, hard drives, and other
useful devices, usually the size of a thick credit card can be inserted into the
PCMCIA slots along the perimeter.
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6. What is data throughput and how does it relate to digital bandwidth?
Throughput refers to the actual, measured bandwidth, at a specific time of day,

using specific Internet routes, while downloading a specific file. The throughput is
often far less than the maximum possible digital bandwidth of the medium that is
being used.
7. Why are there different bandwidths?
Some factors that determine throughput and bandwidth include the following:
Internetworking devices
Type of data being transferred
Topology
Number of users
User’s computer
Server computer
Power- and weather-induced outages
Congestion
8. What units measure the quantity of information?
The most basic unit of information is the bit. The basic unit of time is the second.
If you want to describe the amount of information flow in a specific period of time,
you could use the units “bits per second” to describe this flow.
9. How do binary numbers represent alphanumeric data?
Alphanumeric characters are converted to data that can travel across the
internetwork. The data is put into a packet or a datagram that contains a network
header with source and destination logical addresses. These addresses help
network devices send the packets across the network along a dynamically
chosen path. Each network device must put the packet into a frame. The frame
includes a header with the physical address of the next directly connected device
in the path.
The frame must be converted into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission
on the medium (usually a wire).
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CCNA Exam Review Questions
The following questions help you review for the CCNA exam. Answers also appear in
Appendix A, “Answers to the CCNA Exam Review Questions,” of the Cisco Networking
Academy Program: Engineering Journal and Workbook, Volume I, Second Edition.
1. Which of the following best defines networking?
a. A set of rules or procedures that are either widely used or officially

specified
b. A connection of computers, printers, and other devices for the purpose of
communication
c. A set of rules governing how computer workstations exchange
information
d. A device connected to a computer to provide auxiliary functions
2. What is a connection of computers, printers, and other devices for the
purpose of communication?
a. Peripheral
b. Network
c. Mainframe
d. Protocol
3. Which of the following terms is used in computing to refer to physical
parts or equipment?
a. Hardware
b. Software
c. Protocol
d. Network
4. Which of the following terms is used in computing to refer to programs or
applications?
a. Hardware
b. Software
c. Peripheral
d. Network
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5. Which of the following refers to devices connected to a computer to
provide auxiliary functions such as printing, added disk space, scanning,
or CD-ROM?
a. Protocol
b. Software
c. Peripheral
d. Network
6. Why are individual PCs not efficient or cost effective for business
applications?
a. Individual PC use requires businesses to duplicate equipment and

resources.
b. It is difficult for businesses to communicate quickly or efficiently using
individual PCs.
c. It is difficult to provide management for operating individual PCs.
d. All of the above.
7. What is a standalone computer?
a. A computer that manages data efficiently

b. A computer that shares files and printers with other computers
c. A computer that operates independently from other computers
d. A computer that has a different operating system
8. What kind of computer operates independently from other computers?
a. Mainframe
b. PC
c. Mac
d. Standalone
9. Why did standalone computers become an inefficient and ineffective way
for businesses to operate?
a. Businesses had to duplicate equipment and resources.

b. It was difficult to communicate quickly or efficiently using standalone
computers.
c. It was difficult to provide management for operating standalone
computers.
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10. What does the term protocol mean in computing terms?
a. A tool that allows Macintosh and PC computers communicate with each

other
b. A universal translator that allows different kinds of computers to share
data
c. A description of a set of rules and conventions that govern how devices
on a network exchange information
d. The language that all the computers on a network must use to
communicate with each other
11. Which of the following best defines protocol?
a. A formal description of a set of rules and conventions

b. A device connected to a computer to provide auxiliary functions
c. A group of people who are assigned to work as a team
d. The connection of computers, printers, routers and switches
12. What is a formal description of a set of rules and conventions called?
a. Peripheral
b. Protocol
c. Standard
d. Network
13. Why are protocols important?
a. By setting rules, they allow different types of computers to talk to each

other.
b. By consolidating the industry, they save companies money.
c. By forming electronic islands, they bypass the sneaker net.
d. By using common carriers, they manage data efficiently.
14. What must all computers on a network be able to do for the network to
operate properly?
a. Print to a local printer

b. Connect to a telephone line
c. Use CD-ROMs
d. Speak the same language
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15. A protocol allows which of the following to be linked into a network?
a. Only PC terminals and workstations

b. Only Macintosh computers and peripherals
c. Only PCs to a mainframe
d. Any type of computer terminal or workstation
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Chapter 2
The OSI Model
Introduction
The OSI reference model is a descriptive network scheme whose standards ensure
greater compatibility and interoperability between various types of network technologies.
Further, the OSI reference model is a way of illustrating how information travels through
networks. It is a conceptual framework specifying the network functions that occur at
each layer. The OSI model describes how information or data makes its way from
application programs (such as spreadsheets) through a network medium (such as wires)
to another application program located on another computer on a network.
Concept Questions
Demonstrate your knowledge of these concepts by answering the following questions in
the space provided.
The ISO recognized the need to create a network model that would help vendors create
interoperable network implementations and released the OSI reference model in 1984.
• The OSI reference model is a descriptive network scheme whose standards
ensure greater compatibility and interoperability between various types of
network technologies. Why is such a standard necessary?
In the early days of networking, it became harder for networks that used different
specifications and implementations to communicate with each other. They
realized that they needed to move away from proprietary networking systems.
The ISO created a network model that could help vendors create networks that
would be compatible with, and interoperate with, other networks.
• The OSI reference model organizes distinct functions of a network into seven
numbered layers. Briefly describe what each layer does.
Layer 7: The application layer
The application layer establishes the availability of intended communication
partners. It also synchronizes and establishes an agreement on procedures for
error recovery and control of data integrity. Examples of such applications are
spreadsheet programs, word processing programs, and bank terminal programs.
Layer 6: The presentation layer
The presentation layer ensures that the information that the application layer of
one system sends out is readable by the application layer of another system. If
necessary, the presentation layer translates between multiple data formats by
using a common format. This layer also is responsible for compression and
encryption.
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Layer 5: The session layer
The session layer establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between two
communicating hosts. The session layer provides its services to the presentation
layer. It also synchronizes dialog between the two hosts’ presentation layers and
manages their data exchange. In addition to session regulation, the session layer
offers provisions for efficient data transfer, class of service, and exception
reporting of session layer, presentation layer, and application layer problems.
Layer 4: The transport layer
The transport layer segments data from the sending host’s system and
reassembles the data into a data stream on the receiving host’s system. The
transport layer attempts to provide a data transport service that shields the upper
layers from transport implementation details. The transport layer establishes,
maintains, and properly terminates connection-oriented circuits. To provide
reliable service, transport error detection and recovery is used as well as
information flow control.
Layer 3: The network layer
The network layer is a complex layer that provides connectivity and path
selection between two host systems that might be located on geographically
separated networks. Path selection, routing, and logical addressing all take place
at the network layer.
Layer 2: The data link layer
The data link layer provides the transit of data across a physical link. In so doing,
the data link layer is concerned with physical (as opposed to logical) addressing,
network (sometimes called logical) topology, network media access, and error
detection.
Layer 1: The physical layer
The physical layer defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional
specifications for activating, maintaining, and deactivating the physical link
between end systems. Such characteristics as voltage levels, timing of voltage
changes, physical data rates, maximum transmission distances, physical
connectors, and other, similar, attributes are defined by physical layer
specifications.

material for help.
Datagram Logical grouping of information sent as a network layer unit over a
transmission medium without prior establishment of a virtual circuit. IP datagrams are
the primary information units in the Internet.
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Encapsulation The wrapping of data in a particular protocol header. For example,
Ethernet data is wrapped in a specific Ethernet header before network transit. Also,
when bridging dissimilar networks, the entire frame from one network is just placed in
the header used by the data link layer protocol of the other network.
Frame Logical grouping of information sent as a data link layer unit over a
transmission medium. Often refers to the header and trailer that surround the user data
contained in the unit (used for synchronization and error control).
Layer 1: Physical The physical layer defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural,
and functional specifications for activating, maintaining, and deactivating the physical
link between end systems.
Layer 2: Data Link This layer provides reliable transit of data across a physical link.
The data link layer is concerned with physical addressing, network topology, line
discipline, error notification, ordered delivery of frames, and flow control. The IEEE has
divided this layer into two sublayers: the MAC sublayer and the LLC sublayer.
Layer 3: Network This layer provides connectivity and path selection between two
end systems. The network layer is the layer at which routing occurs.
Layer 4: Transport This layer is responsible for reliable network communication
between end nodes. The transport layer provides mechanisms for the establishment,
maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, transport fault detection and recovery,
and information flow control.
Layer 5: Session This layer establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between
applications and manages data exchange between presentation layer entities.
Layer 6: Presentation This layer ensures that information sent by the application
layer of one system will be readable by the application layer of another. The
presentation layer also is concerned with the data structures used by programs and
therefore negotiates data transfer syntax for the application layer.
Layer 7: Application This layer provides services to application processes (such as
electronic mail, file transfer, and terminal emulation) that are outside of the OSI model.
The application layer identifies and establishes the availability of intended
communication partners (and the resources required to connect with them),
synchronizes cooperating applications, and establishes agreement on procedures for
error recovery and control of data integrity.
Packet Logical grouping of information that includes a header containing control
information and (usually) user data. Packets are most often used to refer to network
layer units of data.
Peer-to-peer Peer-to-peer computing calls for each network device to run both client
and server portions of an application. Also describes communication between
implementations of the same OSI reference model layer in two different network
devices.
Segment 1) Section of a network that is bounded by bridges, routers, or switches. 2)
In a LAN using a bus topology, a segment is a continuous electrical circuit that is often
connected to other such segments with repeaters. 3) Term used in the TCP
specification to describe a single transport layer unit of information.
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TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) Common name for the
suite of protocols developed by the U.S. Department of Defense in the 1970s to support
the construction of worldwide internetworks. TCP and IP are the two best-known
protocols in the suite.
TCP/IP application layer The designers of TCP/IP thought that the higher level
protocols should include the session and presentation layer details. They just created an
application layer that handles high-level protocols, issues of representation, encoding,
and dialog control. The TCP/IP combines all application-related issues into one layer
and ensures this data is properly packaged for the next layer. This is also referred to as
the process layer.
TCP/IP Transport Layer The transport layer deals with the quality-of-service issues
of reliability, flow control, and error correction. One of its protocols, the transmission
control protocol (TCP), provides excellent and flexible ways to create reliable, well-
flowing, low-error network communications. TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. It
dialogues between source and destination while packaging application layer information
into units called segments. Connection-oriented does not mean that a circuit exists
between the communicating computers (that would be circuit switching). It does mean
that Layer 4 segments travel back and forth between two hosts to acknowledge the
connection exists logically for some period. This is known as packet switching.
TCP/IP Internet layer The purpose of the Internet layer is to send source packets
from any network on the internetwork and have them arrive at the destination
independent of the path and networks they took to get there. The specific protocol that
governs this layer is called the Internet Protocol (IP). Best path determination and
packet switching occur at this layer. Think of it in terms of the postal system.
When you mail a letter, you do not know how it gets there (there are various possible
routes), but you do care that it arrives.
TCP/IP network layer The name of this layer is broad and somewhat confusing. It
also is called the host-to-network layer. Sometimes, it’s shown as two layers, as in the
OSI model. The network access layer is concerned with all the issues that an IP packet
requires to actually cross a physical link from one device to a directly connected one. It
includes the LAN and WAN technology details, and all the details in the OSI physical
and data link layers.
Focus Questions
1. Briefly describe six reasons why a layered network model is used in
internetworking?
• It breaks network communication into smaller, simpler parts that are

easier to develop.
• It facilitates standardization of network components to allow multiple
vendor development and support.
• It allows different types of network hardware and software to
communicate with each other.
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• It prevents changes in one layer from affecting the other layers so that
they can develop more quickly.
• It breaks network communication into smaller parts to make learning it
easier to understand.
• It accelerates the development of future networking products.
2. From memory, list the seven layers of the OSI model and briefly describe
their function.
Layer 7: Application—This layer provides services to application processes

(such as electronic mail, file transfer, and terminal emulation) that are outside of
the OSI model. The application layer identifies and establishes the availability of
intended communication partners (and the resources required to connect with
them), synchronizes cooperating applications, and establishes agreement on
procedures for error recovery and control of data integrity.
Layer 6: Presentation—This layer ensures that information sent by the
application layer of one system will be readable by the application layer of
another. The presentation layer also is concerned with the data structures used
by programs and therefore negotiates data transfer syntax for the application
layer.
Layer 5: Session—This layer establishes, manages, and terminates sessions
between applications and manages data exchange between presentation layer
entities.
Layer 4: Transport—This layer is responsible for reliable network
communication between end nodes. The transport layer provides mechanisms
for the establishment, maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, transport
fault detection and recovery, and information flow control.
Layer 3: Network—This layer provides connectivity and path selection between
two end systems. The network layer is the layer at which routing occurs.
Layer 2: Data Link—This layer provides reliable transit of data across a physical
link. The data link layer is concerned with physical addressing, network topology,
line discipline, error notification, ordered delivery of frames, and flow control. The
IEEE has divided this layer into two sublayers: the MAC sublayer and the LLC
sublayer.
Layer 1: Physical—The physical layer defines the electrical, mechanical,
procedural and functional specifications for activating, maintaining, and
deactivating the physical link between end systems.
3. What is meant by the term peer-to-peer communication?
Each layer of the OSI model at the source must communicate with its peer layer
at the destination.
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4. Briefly describe the process of data encapsulation using the following
terms: data, segment, packet, frame, and bits.
Networks must perform the following five conversion steps to encapsulate data:
• Build the data. As a user sends an e-mail message, its alphanumeric
characters are converted to data that can travel across the internetwork.
• Package the data for end-to-end transport. The data is packaged for
internetwork transport. By using segments, the transport function ensures
that the message hosts at both ends of the e-mail system can reliably
communicate.
• Add the network address to the header. The data is put into a packet or a
datagram that contains a network header with source and destination
logical addresses. These addresses help network devices send the
packets across the network along a dynamically chosen path.
• Append (add) the local address to the data link header. Each network
device must put the packet into a frame. The frame includes a header
with the physical address of the next directly connected device in the
path.
• Convert to bits for transmission. The frame must be converted into a
pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium (usually a
wire). A clocking function enables the devices to distinguish these bits as
they travel across the medium. The medium on the physical internetwork
can vary along the path used. For example, the e-mail message can
originate on a LAN, cross a campus backbone, and go out a WAN link on
its way toward its destination on another remote LAN.
5. Describe the information that is added to the data packet as it is
encapsulated in the transport, network, and data link layers.
Encapsulation wraps data with the necessary protocol information before

network transit. Therefore, as the data packet moves down through the layers of
the OSI model, it receives headers, trailers, and other information.
6. What is the OSI reference model?
The Open System Interconnection reference model is a network architectural

model developed by ISO and ITU-T. The model consists of seven layers, each of
which specifies particular network functions such as addressing, flow control,
error control, encapsulation, and reliable message transfer. The highest layer
(the application layer) is closest to the user; the lowest layer (the physical layer)
is closest to the media technology. The two lowest layers are implemented in
hardware and software, whereas the upper five layers are implemented only in
software. The OSI reference model is used universally as a way to teach and
understand network functionality.
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7. Will networks that are built following the OSI model be identical?
Networks that are built following the OSI model will not be identical; however,
there will be a much greater likelihood for interoperability. The OSI provides
vendors with a set of standards that could enable greater compatibility and
interoperability between the various types of network technologies. This will allow
dissimilar networks to coexist.
8. What process does the OSI model describe?
The OSI model describes the process of breaking down a complex process into
smaller, more easily defined steps. This allows for the creation of standards that
help provide greater compatibility and interoperability between various types of
network technologies.
9. Define medium.
The term medium refers to various physical environments through which

transmission signals pass. Common network media include twisted-pair, coaxial,
and fiber-optic cable, and the atmosphere (through which microwave, laser, and
infrared transmission occurs).
10. What is the importance of the TCP/IP model?
The TCP/IP reference model and the TCP/IP protocol stack make data
communication possible between any two computers, anywhere in the world, at
nearly the speed of light. The TCP/IP model has historical importance, just like
the standards that allowed the telephone, electrical power, railroad, television,
and videotape industries to flourish.
11. How does the OSI model compare with the TCP/IP model?
The OSI model attempts to explain how various network technologies work
together to transport valuable data. The OSI model is protocol independent,
unlike the TCP/IP reference model. The U.S. Department of Defense created the
TCP/IP reference model, which became the standard that facilitated the growth
of the Internet.
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The following questions help you prepare for the CCNA exam. Answers also appear in
Appendix A, “Answers to the CCNA Exam Review Questions,” of the Cisco Networking
Academy Program: Engineering Journal and Workbook, Volume I Second Edition.
1. Which of the following best defines standards?
a. A set of rules or procedures that are either widely used or officially specified
b. A connection of computers, printers, and other devices for purposes of
communication
c. A set of rules that govern how computer workstations exchange information
d. A device connected to a computer to provide auxiliary functions
2. What is the OSI model?
a. A conceptual framework that specifies how information travels through

networks
b. A model that describes how data makes its way from one application
program to another through a network
c. A conceptual framework that specifies which network functions occur at
each layer
d. All of the above
3. As described by the OSI model, how does data move across a network?
a. Directly from each layer at one computer to the corresponding layers at

another computer
b. Through wires connecting each layer from computer to computer
c. Down through the layers at one computer and up through the layers at
another
d. Through layers in wires between computers
4. Which best defines the function of the lower layers (called the media
layers) of the OSI model?
a. Provide for the accurate delivery of data between computers

b. Convert data into the 1s and 0s that a computer understands
c. Receive data from peripheral devices
d. Control the physical delivery of messages over the network
nd
5. Which of the following describes the host layers of the OSI model?
a. Control the physical delivery of messages over the network

b. Make up the lower layers in the OSI model
c. Contain data that is more like 1s and 0s than like human language
d. Provide for accurate delivery of data between computers
6. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the physical layer?
a. Defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional

specifications for activating, maintaining, and deactivating the link
between end systems
b. Provides reliable transit of data across a physical link
c. Provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems
d. Establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between applications
and manages data exchange between presentation layer entities
7. Which layer of the OSI model is concerned with physical addressing,
network topology, line discipline, error notification, ordered delivery of
frames, and flow control?
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Transport layer
d. Network layer
8. Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection
between two end systems where routing occurs?
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Network layer
d. Transport layer
9. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable network
communication between end nodes and provides mechanisms for the
establishment, maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, transport
fault detection and recovery, and information flow control?
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Network layer
d. Transport layer
nd
10. Which layer of the OSI model establishes, manages, and terminates
sessions between applications and manages data exchange between
presentation layer entities?
a. Transport layer
b. Session layer
c. Presentation layer
d. Application layer
11. Which layer of the OSI model ensures that information sent by the
application layer of one system will be readable by the application layer of
another system, is concerned with the data structures used by programs,
and negotiates data transfer syntax for the application layer?
a. Transport layer
b. Session layer
12. Which layer of the OSI model identifies and establishes the availability of
intended communication partners, synchronizes cooperating applications,
and establishes agreement on procedures for error recovery and control of
data integrity?
a. Transport layer
b. Session layer
13. Which of the following best defines encapsulation?
a. Segmenting data so that it flows uninterrupted through the network

b. Compressing data so that it moves faster
c. Moving data in groups so that it stays together
d. Wrapping of data in a particular protocol header
14. What analogy might be used to describe encapsulation?
a. Encapsulation is like a blueprint for building a car.

b. Encapsulation is like sending a package through the mail.
c. Encapsulation is like building a fence around your backyard.
d. Encapsulation is like driving a car to the store to buy groceries.
nd
15. What is a data packet?
a. Logically grouped units of information

b. Transmission devices
c. Auxiliary function provided by peripherals
d. Virtual circuits
nd
Chapter 3
Local-Area Networks
Introduction
Local-area networks (LANs) are high-speed, low-error data networks that cover a
relatively small geographic area (up to a few thousand meters). LANs connect
workstations, peripherals, terminals, and other devices in a single building or another
geographically limited area. LANs provide multiple-connected desktop devices (usually
PCs) with access to high-bandwidth media. LANs connect computers and services to a
common Layer 1 media.
Concept Questions
the space provided:
• The network operates within a building or floor of a building. What are the major
characteristics of a LAN?
A LAN is a high-speed, low-error data network covering a relatively small
geographic area (up to a few thousand meters). LAN standards specify cabling
and signaling at the physical and data link layers of the OSI model. Ethernet,
FDDI, and Token Ring are widely used LAN technologies.
• What are the major components of the average LAN?
LANs connect workstations, peripherals, terminals, and other devices in a single
building or other geographically limited area.

material for help.
AUI (attachment unit interface) IEEE 802.3 interface between a media attachment
unit (MAU) and a network interface card (NIC). The term AUI also can refer to the rear
panel port to which an AUI cable might attach, such as those found on a Cisco
LightStream Ethernet access card. Also called transceiver cable.
Bridge Device that connects and passes packets between two network segments
that use the same communications protocol. Bridges operate at the data link layer
(Layer 2) of the OSI reference model. In general, a bridge will filter, forward, or flood an
incoming frame based on the MAC address of that frame.
nd
Hub 1) Generally, a term used to describe a device that serves as the center of a star
topology network. 2) Hardware or software device that contains multiple independent but
connected modules of network and internetwork equipment. Hubs can be active (where
they repeat signals sent through them) or passive (where they do not repeat, but merely
split, signals sent through them). 3) In Ethernet and IEEE 802.3, an Ethernet multiport
repeater, sometimes referred to as a concentrator.
IEEE 802.3 IEEE LAN protocol that specifies an implementation of the physical layer
and the MAC sublayer of the data link layer. IEEE 802.3 uses CSMA/CD access at a
variety of speeds over a variety of physical media. Extensions to the IEEE 802.3
standard specify implementations for Fast Ethernet. Physical variations of the original
IEEE 802.3 specification include 10BASE2, 10BASE5, 10BASE-F, 10BASE-T, and
10Broad36. Physical variations for Fast Ethernet include 100BASE-T, 100BASE-T4, and
100BASE-X.
LAN (local-area network) A LAN is a high-speed, low-error data network covering a
relatively small geographic area (up to a few thousand meters). LANs connect
workstations, peripherals, terminals, and other devices in a single building or other
geographically limited area. LAN standards specify cabling and signaling at the physical
and data link layers of the OSI model. Ethernet, FDDI, and Token Ring are widely used
LAN technologies.
MAC address Standardized data link layer address that is required for every port or
device that connects to a LAN. Other devices in the network use these addresses to
locate specific ports in the network and to create and update routing tables and data
structures. MAC addresses are 6 bytes long and are controlled by the IEEE. Also known
as a hardware address, a MAC-layer address, or a physical address.
MAU (media attachment unit) Device used in Ethernet and IEEE 802.3 networks
that provides the interface between the AUI port of a station and the common medium of
the Ethernet. The MAU, which can be built into a station or can be a separate device,
performs physical layer functions, including the conversion of digital data from the
Ethernet interface, collision detection, and injection of bits onto the network. Sometimes
referred to as a transceiver. In Token Ring, a MAU is known as a multistation access
unit and is usually abbreviated MSAU to avoid confusion.
Media Plural of medium. The various physical environments through which
transmission signals pass. Common network media include twisted-pair, coaxial and
fiber-optic cable, and the atmosphere (through which microwave, laser, and infrared
transmission occurs). Sometimes called physical media.
NIC (network interface card) Board that provides network communication
RAM (random-access memory) Volatile memory that can be read and written by a
microprocessor.
ROM (read-only memory) Nonvolatile memory that can be read, but not written, by
the microprocessor.
Router Network layer device that uses one or more metrics to determine the optimal
path along which network traffic should be forwarded. Routers forward packets from one
network to another based on network layer information. Occasionally called a gateway
(although this definition of gateway is becoming increasingly outdated).
nd
Switch 1) Network device that filters, forwards, and floods frames based on the
destination address of each frame. The switch operates at the data link layer of the OSI
model. 2) General term applied to an electronic or mechanical device that allows a
connection to be established as necessary and terminated when there is no longer a
session to support.
Focus Questions
1. What are the functions and OSI layer of computers, clients, servers,
printers, and relational databases?
Devices that connect directly to a network segment often are referred to as

hosts. These hosts include computers (both clients and servers), printers,
scanners, and many other user devices. The host devices can exist without a
network, but its capabilities are greatly limited. Host devices are not part of any
layer. They have a physical connection to the network media by having a NIC,
and the functions of the other OSI layers are performed in software inside the
host. This means that they operate at all seven layers of the OSI model.
The basic function of computers on the LAN is to provide the user with an almost
limitless set of opportunities. Modern software, microelectronics, and a relatively
small amount of money enable you to run word processing, presentation,
spreadsheet, and database programs. They also enable you to run a web
browser, which gives you almost instant access to information via the World
Wide web. You can send e-mail, edit graphics, save information in databases,
play games, and communicate with other computers around the world.
2. What is the purpose and OSI layer of network interface cards in a LAN?
NICs are considered Layer 2 devices because each individual NIC throughout
the world carries a unique code, called a Media Access Control (MAC) address.
This address is used to control data communication for the host on the network.
The NIC is the basic hardware component of network communications. It
translates the parallel signal produced by the computer into the serial format that
is sent over the network cable.
3. What is the appearance and OSI layer of media in a LAN?
The symbols for media vary, as shown in Figure 3-5. For example, the Ethernet
symbol is typically a straight line with perpendicular lines projecting from it; the
Token Ring network symbol is a circle with hosts attached to it; and for FDDI, the
symbol is two concentric circles with attached devices. The basic functions of
media are to carry a flow of information, in the form of bits, through a LAN. Other
than wireless LANs (that use the atmosphere, or space, as the medium),
networking media confine network signals to wire, cable, or fiber. Networking
media are considered Layer 1 components of LANs.
nd
4. What is the symbol and OSI layer of a repeater, as it applies to a LAN?
The symbol for repeaters is not standardized—the symbol shown in Figure 3-9
represents a repeater throughout the First-Year Companion Guide. The purpose
of a repeater is to regenerate and retime network signals at the bit level to allow
them to travel a longer distance on the media.
5. What is the function and OSI layer of hub, as it applies to a LAN?
Generally speaking, the term hub is used rather than repeater when referring to
the device that serves as the center of a network. The purpose of a hub is to
regenerate and retime network signals. Whereas a repeater typically has only 2
ports, a hub generally has from 4 to 20 or more ports. Hubs are considered
Layer 1 devices because they regenerate only the signal and repeat it out all of
their ports (network connections). The symbol for a hub is not standardized; the
symbol shown in Figure 3-12 represents a hub throughout the First-Year
Companion Guide.
6. What is the symbol and OSI layer of a bridge, as it applies to a LAN?
A bridge is a Layer 2 device designed to create two or more LAN segments,

each of which is a separate collision domain. The purpose of a bridge is to filter
traffic on a LAN—to keep local traffic local—yet allow connectivity to other parts
(segments) of the LAN for traffic that is directed there. Figure 3-15 shows the
bridge symbol, which resembles a suspension bridge.
7. What is the function and OSI layer of a switch on a LAN?
A switch is a Layer 2 device just as a bridge is. In fact, a switch is sometimes

called a multiport bridge, just like a hub is called a multiport repeater. The
difference between the hub and the switch is the same as the difference
between a repeater and a bridge: Switches make decisions based on MAC
addresses, and hubs don’t make decisions at all. Figure 3-18 shows the symbol
for a switch. The arrows on top represent the separate paths data can take in a
switch, unlike the hub, where all data flows on all paths.
8. What is the appearance and OSI layer of a router on a LAN?
The purpose of a router is to examine incoming packets (Layer 3 data), choose

the best path for them through the network, and then switch them to the proper
outgoing port. Routers are the most important traffic-regulating devices on large
networks. The symbol for a router, shown in Figure 3-20, is suggestive of its two
primary purposes: path selection, and switching of packets to the best route. A
router can have many different types of interface ports.
9. What is the symbol and OSI layer of a cloud?
The cloud symbol in Figure 3-24 suggests another network, or perhaps the entire
Internet. It reminds you that there is a way to connect to that other network (for
example, the Internet), but does not supply all the details of either the connection
or the network. Because the cloud is not really a single device, but represents a
collection of devices that operate at all levels of the OSI model, it could be
classified as a Layer 1 through 7 device.
nd
10. What is the function and OSI layer of network segments?
A network segment is commonly defined as an area that makes up a collision

domain. Historically, a segment identifies the Layer 1 media that is the common
path for data transmission in a LAN. There is a maximum length for data
transmission on each type of media. Each time an electronic device is used to
extend the length or to manage data on the media, a new physical segment is
created.
nd
The following questions help you prepare for the CCNA Exam. Answers also appear in
Appendix A, “Answers to the CCNA Exam Review Questions,” from the Cisco
Networking Academy Program: Engineering Journal and Workbook, Volume I, Second
Edition.
1. What business problem resulting from the proliferation of standalone
computers did networks solve?
a. Inability to communicate and lack of management

b. Losses due to lack of business by common carriers
c. Inefficient use of information technology professionals
d. Increasing level of electromagnetic interference
2. What did early networks allow?
a. Common carriers to finally make a profit

b. Workers to copy files onto floppy disks and then carry the disks to a
coworker’s PC to print
c. The duplication of resources to expand
d. The easy and efficient sharing of files and printers
3. Which of the following is not a problem that networking helped solve?
a. Lack of network management

b. Lack of new hardware and software products
c. Duplication of equipment and resources
d. Inability to communicate efficiently
4. Why is it desirable to network?
a. Don’t have to duplicate equipment and resources

b. Makes it easy to communicate quickly or efficiently using standalone
computers
c. Makes it easy to provide management for operating standalone
computers
d. All of the above
nd
5. Why is networking a variety of networks together difficult?
a. People try to network different types of computer systems together.

b. Emerging network technologies use different hardware and software
specifications.
c. Incompatibility due to hardware changes.
d. Computer designers try to make their own protocols and they are
incompatible.
6. Why are networking standards needed?
a. Many networks now cover wide geographic areas.

b. Technologies must be compatible to allow communication.
c. Hardware and software are continually being redesigned.
d. LANs, MANs, and WANs use different kinds of equipment.
7. Why did networks experience problems in the mid-1980s?
a. Many new network technologies were incompatible.

b. Employees preferred sneaker net.
c. Common carriers went bankrupt.
d. Everyone used the same hardware and software.
8. Why did using different hardware and software cause problems after
networks were established?
a. Networks cannot be formed if some people have Macs and others have
PCs.
b. Different hardware and software did not provide auxiliary functions for the
users.
c. Different hardware and software implementations used in the new
technologies were incompatible.
d. Each department or business was not able to act as an electronic island;
instead, they were forced to work together.
9. What is a LAN?
a. A network that connects workstations, terminals, and other devices in a

geographically limited area.
b. A network that connects workstations, terminals, and other devices in a
metropolitan area.
c. A network that serves users across a broad geographic area and often
uses transmission devices provided by a common carrier.
d. A network that covers a larger area than a MAN.
nd
10. Which of the following best describes a LAN?
a. A data network connecting workstations, peripherals, terminals, and other

devices in a single building or other geographically limited area.
b. A data network that connects workstations, peripherals, terminals, and
other devices across a broad geographic area.
c. A data network that connects workstations, peripherals, terminals, and
other devices across a metropolitan area.
d. A data network that connects workstations, peripherals, terminals and
other devices within a single building.
11. What is a network that connects computer equipment in a single building
called?
a. LAN
b. WAN
c. MAN
d. DCN
12. What is a segment of a network?
a. A section consisting of several interconnected computers, such as a LAN

b. A physical wire, such as CAT 5 cable of fiber-optic cable
c. A single PC that is part of a LAN
d. A part of a network
nd
Chapter 4
Layer 1: Electronics and Signals
Introduction
Electricity is a fact of modern life. We use it to perform a variety of tasks. It is brought to
our homes, schools, and offices by power lines that carry it in the form of alternating
current (AC). Another type of current, called direct current (DC), is the current found in a
flashlight, car battery, and on the motherboard of a computer.
It is important to understand the difference between these two types of current flow.
Direct current flows at a constant value when circuits are turned on. Alternating current
rises and falls in current values as power companies manufacture it.
When it reaches our homes, schools, and offices, electricity is carried to appliances and
machines via wires concealed in walls, floors, and ceilings. Consequently, inside these
buildings, AC power-line noise is all around us. If not properly addressed, power-line
noise can present problems for a network.
In fact, as you will discover the more you work with networks, AC line noise coming from
a nearby video monitor or hard disk drive can be enough to create errors in a computer
system. It does this by burying the desired signals and preventing a computer’s logic
gates from detecting the leading and trailing edges of the square signal waves. This
problem can be further compounded when a computer has a poor ground connection.
The third type of electricity is static electricity. This most damaging uncontrollable form
of electricity must be dealt with to protect sensitive electronic equipment. Such static
discharges can destroy semiconductors and data in a seemingly random fashion as they
shoot through a computer like bullets. As it can with problems related to AC line noise,
good grounding helps solve problems that arise from electrostatic discharge.
Concept Questions
the space provided:
• Each wire in a cable can act like an antenna. When this happens, the wire
actually absorbs electrical signals from other wires in the cable and from
electrical sources outside the cable. If the resulting electrical noise reaches a
high-enough level, it can become difficult for NIC cards to discriminate the noise
from the data signal. When electrical noise on the cable originates from signals
on other wires in the cable, this is known as crosstalk. How can you minimize
crosstalk?
Crosstalk can be avoided by adhering to standard termination procedures,
proper installation methods, and use of quality twisted-pair cables. Ensure that
termination of the cable endpoint is completed properly. Avoid untwisting the
conductive cables and minimize unshielded cable lengths at termination
endpoints.
nd
• To ensure optimal performance, it is important for the network media to carry the
signal from one device to another with as little degradation as possible. In
networking, several factors can cause the signal to degrade. Some of these
factors are internal; whereas, others are external. Name some of the factors
that can cause a signal to degrade and how to correct the problem.
AC line noise creates problems in our homes, schools, and offices. AC line noise
coming from a nearby video monitor or hard disk drive can be enough to create
errors in a computer system.
Electricity is carried to appliances and machines by wires concealed in walls,
floors, and ceilings. Consequently, inside these buildings, AC power-line noise is
all around us. If not properly prevented, power-line noise can cause problems for
a network.
• Inside copper wires, factors such as opposition to the flow of electrons
(resistance), opposition to changes in voltage (capacitance), and opposition to
changes in current (inductance) can cause signals to degrade. External sources
of electrical impulses that can attack the quality of electrical signals on the cable
include lighting, electrical motors, and radio systems. These types of interference
are referred to as electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency
interference (RFI). How can you protect your network from RFI?
You can limit EMI and RFI in a number of ways. One way is to increase the size
of the conductor wires. Another way is to improve the type of insulating material
used. However, such changes increase the size and cost of the cable faster than
they improve its quality. Therefore, it is more typical for network designers to
specify a cable of good quality, and to provide specifications for the maximum
recommended cable length between nodes. Two techniques that cable
designers have used successfully in dealing with EMI and RFI are shielding and
cancellation.

material for help.
Alternating current (AC) Electrical current that reverses its direction regularly and
continuously. It is the form of electrical power found in residential and commercial
buildings.
AM (amplitude modulation) Modulation technique whereby information is conveyed
through the amplitude of the carrier signal.
Analog transmission Signal transmission over wires or through the air in which
information is conveyed through variation of some combination of signal amplitude,
frequency, and phase.
Attenuation Loss of communication signal energy.
Circuits Communications paths between two or more points.
nd
Conductor Any material with a low resistance to electrical current. Any material
capable of carrying an electrical current.
Digital signal Language of computers comprising only two states, on and off, which
are indicated by a series of voltage pulses.
Direct current (DC) Electrical current that travels in only one direction. Direct current
is generally used in electronic circuits.
Electricity Electrons in certain atoms can be pulled free from the atom and made to
flow. This is electricity—a free flow of electrons.
Electrons Particles have a negative charge and orbit the nucleus.
Electrostatic discharge (ESD) A flow or spark of electricity that originates from a
static source such as a carpet and arcs across a gap to another object.
FM (frequency modulation) Modulation technique in which signals of different
frequencies represent different data values.
Impedance The total opposition to current flow (due to AC and DC voltages). The
term resistance generally is used when referring to DC voltages. Impedance is the
general term, and is the measure of how the flow of electrons is resisted, or impeded.
Impedance is represented by the letter Z. Its unit of measurement, like that for
resistance, is the ohm (Ω).
Latency 1) Delay between the time a device requests access to a network and the
time it is granted permission to transmit. 2) Delay between the time when a device
receives a frame and the time that frame is forwarded out the destination port.
Multimeter A tool used to measure voltage, current, and resistance. It generally has
two wires for that reason. The black wire is referred to as the ground, or reference
ground. A negative terminal on a battery also is referred to as 0 volts, or reference
ground.
Neutrons Particles have no charge (neutral), and along with protons, form the
nucleus
Oscilloscope An important and sophisticated electronic device used to study
electrical signals. Because it is possible to control electricity precisely, deliberate
electrical patterns called waves can be created. An oscilloscope graphs the electrical
waves, pulses, and patterns. It has an x-axis that represents time, and a y-axis that
represents voltage. There are usually two y-axis voltage inputs so that two waves can
be observed and measured at the same time.
PM (phase modulation) The phase, or beginning and ending points of a given cycle,
of the wave is varied to carry the message.
Propagation Propagation means travel. When a NIC puts a voltage or light pulse
onto a physical medium, that square pulse made up of waves travels along the medium
(propagates). Propagation means that a lump of energy, representing 1 bit, travels from
one place to another. The speed at which it propagates depends on the actual material
used in the medium, the geometry (structure) of the medium, and the frequency of the
pulses.
Protons Particles have a positive charge, and along with neutrons, form the nucleus.
nd
Focus Questions
1. What are some examples of electrical insulators?
Electrical insulators are materials that allow electrons to flow through them with
great difficulty or not at all. Examples of electrical insulators include plastic,
glass, air, dry wood, paper, rubber, and helium gas. These materials have stable
chemical structures, with orbiting electrons tightly bound within the atoms.
2. What are some examples of electrical conductors?
Electrical conductors are materials that allow electrons to flow through them with
great ease. They flow easily because the outermost electrons are bound very
loosely to the nucleus and are freed easily. The best conductors are metals,
such as copper (Cu), silver (Ag), and gold (Au). All these metals are located in
one column of the periodic table and have electrons that are freed easily, making
them excellent materials for carrying a current.
3. What are some examples of semiconductors?
Semiconductors are materials where the amount of electricity they conduct can
be controlled precisely. These materials are listed together in one column of the
periodic chart. Examples include carbon (C), germanium (Ge), and the alloy
gallium arsenide (GaAs). The most important semiconductor, the one that makes
the best microscopic-sized electronic circuits, is silicon (Si).
4. What is silicon made of? Is it an insulator, conductor, or semiconductor?
Silicon is common and can be found in sand, glass, and many types of rocks.
The region around San Jose, California, is known as Silicon Valley because the
computer industry, which depends on silicon microchips, started in that area. The
switches, or gates, inside a microprocessor are made up of semiconductors.
5. Do semiconductors allow the amount of electricity to be controlled?
Semiconductors are materials where the amount of electricity they conduct can
be controlled precisely.
6. When does voltage occur?
Voltage, sometimes referred to as Electromotive Force (EMF), is an electrical

force, or pressure, that occurs when electrons and protons are separated. The
force that is created pulls toward the opposite charge and pushes away from the
like charge.
7. What is it called when static, or resting, electrons move and a flow of
charges is created?
Electrical current, or current, is the flow of charges that is created when electrons
move. In electrical circuits, current is caused by a flow of free electrons. When
voltage (electrical pressure) is applied, and there is a path for the current,
electrons move from the negative terminal (which repels them), along the path,
to the positive terminal (which attracts them).
nd
8. What is the abbreviation for amps?
Current is represented by the letter I. The unit of measurement for current is

ampere (amp), and is defined as the number of charges per second that pass by
a point along a path.
9. What is the abbreviation for resistance?
Resistance is represented by the letter R. The unit of measurement for

resistance is the ohm. The symbol comes from the Greek letter omega (Ω).
10. What is the difference between AC and DC?
Alternating current (AC) is one of the two ways in which current flows. AC
voltages vary with time by changing their polarity, or direction. AC flows in one
direction, and then reverses its direction and repeats the process. AC voltage is
positive at one terminal and negative at the other; then, it reverses its polarity
and the positive terminal becomes negative and the negative terminal becomes
positive. This process repeats itself continuously.
Direct current (DC) is the other way in which current flows. DC always flows in
the same direction, and DC voltages always have the same polarity. One
terminal is always positive, and the other is always negative. They do not change
or reverse.
11. How do you measure impedance? What is its abbreviation?
Impedance is the total opposition to current flow (due to AC and DC voltages).

The term resistance generally is used when referring to DC voltages. Impedance
is the general term, and is the measure of how the flow of electrons is resisted,
or impeded. Impedance is represented by the letter Z. Its unit of measurement,
like that for resistance, is the ohm.
12. What three components are necessary to make up a circuit, and how do
they allow the control of current?
Currents only flow in closed loops called circuits. These circuits must be
composed of conducting materials, and must have sources of voltage. Voltage
causes current to flow; whereas, resistance and impedance oppose it. Knowing
these facts allows people to control a flow of current.
13. What equipment do you use to graph electrical waves, pulses, and
patterns?
An oscilloscope graphs the electrical waves, pulses, and patterns. It has an x-

axis that represents time, and a y-axis that represents voltage. There are usually
two y-axis voltage inputs so that two waves can be observed and measured at
the same time.
nd
14. What are some of the characteristics of an analog signal?
An analog signal has the following characteristics:

• Waviness
• A continuously varying voltage-versus-time graph
• Typical of things in nature
• Used widely in telecommunications for more than 100 years
The two important characteristics of a sine wave are its amplitude (A), its height
and depth, and its period (T), which is the length of time to complete one cycle.
You can calculate the frequency (f), wiggleyness, of the wave with the formula f
= 1/T.
15. What is the basic building block of information on a data network?
The basic building block of information is 1 binary digit, known as the bit or
pulse. One bit, on an electrical medium, is the electrical signal corresponding to
binary 0 or binary 1. This can be as simple as 0 volts for binary 0, and +5 volts
for binary 1, or a more complex encoding. Signal reference ground is an
important concept relating to all networking media that use voltages to carry
messages.
16. What are the five sources of noise that can affect a bit on a wire?
NEXT –A, thermal noise, impulse/reference ground noise, EMI/RFI, NEXT –B

17. At what speed do modern networks typically work?
The speed at which a network propagates depends on the actual material used
in the medium, the geometry (structure) of the medium, and the frequency of the
pulses. The time it takes the bit to travel from one end of the medium and back is
referred to as the round-trip time (RTT). Assuming no other delays, the time it
takes the bit to travel down the medium to the far end is RTT/2 The fact that the
bit takes a small amount of time to travel along the medium does not normally
cause network problems. However, with the ever-increasing data transmission
rates of today’s networks, sometimes you must account for the amount of time it
takes the signal to travel.
nd
Appendix A , “Answers to the CCNA Exam Review Questions” from the Cisco
Edition.
1. Which of the following correctly describes the type of signal carried by the
network media?
a. Coaxial cable carries pulses of light.

b. Unshielded twisted-pair cable carries impedance signals.
c. Shielded twisted-pair cable carries electrical impulses.
d. Fiber-optic cable carries electrical impulses.
2. Which network media carries pulses of light?
a. Coaxial cable
b. Fiber-optic cable
c. Unshielded twisted-pair cable
d. Shielded twisted-pair cable
3. Which of the following is an external source of degradation of the signal on
cabling?
a. EMI caused by electrical motors

b. RFI caused by light leakage
c. Impedance caused by radio systems
d. RFI caused by lighting
4. Which of the following describes cabling signal degradation by an external

source?
a. Poor cabling shield connection

b. RFI caused by radio systems
c. EMI caused by twisting of wires
d. Impedance caused by electrical motors
5. What is the cause of crosstalk?
a. Cable wires that are too large in diameter

b. Too much noise in a cable’s data signal
c. Electrical motors and lighting
d. Electrical signals from other wires in a cable
nd
6. How does crosstalk occur?
a. Two wires are placed in close proximity to each other.

b. NIC cards fail to discriminate the noise from the data signal.
c. Electrical noise originates from signals on other wires in the cable.
d. Wires in a cable absorb electrical impulses from sources outside the
cable.
7. What is a cost-effective way to limit cable signal degradation?
a. Specify the maximum cable length between nodes.

b. Increase the size of the conductors in the cabling.
c. Improve the type of insulating material.
d. Use a braid or foil covering on wires as a shield.
8. How can cable signal degradation be limited in a cost-effective way?
a. Improve the type of insulating material.

b. Place same-circuit wires close to each other.
c. Use a braid or foil covering on wires as a shield.
d. Increase the diameter of the conductor in the cabling.
9. What is cancellation in networking media?
a. The magnetic fields of same-circuit wires cancel each other.

b. External magnetic fields cancel the fields inside network cabling.
c. Wires in the same circuit cancel each other’s electrical current flow.
d. Twisting wire pairs cancels the electrical impedance in the wires.
10. Which of the following describes cancellation in cabling?
a. Wires in the same circuit cancel each other’s electrical current flow.
b. Twisting wire pairs provides self-shielding within the network media.
c. The magnetic fields of wires on different electrical circuits cancel each
other.
d. External magnetic fields cancel the fields inside network cabling.
nd
11. Which of the following describes impedance in networking media?
a. Impedance involves resistance and reactance to current caused by signal

degradation.
b. Electrical components in the NICs create impedance on the networking
media.
c. Signal degradation causes impedance.
d. Networking media impedance needs to match the NIC electrical
components.
12. When can impedance degrade the signal in networking media?
a. When resistance opposes reactance

b. When cable impedance does not match NIC electrical components
c. When networking media is not properly shielded from EMI/RFI
interference
d. When cancellation techniques are not employed
13. Which of the following best describes attenuation?
a. The termination of a message

b. The interception of a message
c. The weakening of a message
d. The ignoring of a message
14. How is data transmitted on a network?
a. As hexadecimal code
b. As ASCII text
c. As 1s and 0s
d. As voltage pulses
15. Which best describes the states of digital signals?
a. Alphanumeric
b. Octets
c. On or off
d. Yes or no
16. What does the binary number 1 correspond to in a digital signal?
a. On
b. One
c. The letter A
d. Off
nd
17. What does the binary number 0 correspond to in a digital signal?
a. On
b. One
c. The letter A
d. Off
18. Which best describes a digital signal?
a. A sine wave of normal shape and amplitude

b. An electrical technique used to convey binary signals
c. Language of computers with only two states, on and off, which are
indicated by a series of voltage pulses
d. Transmission sent by a transceiver back to a controller to let it know the
collision circuitry is functional
19. How do computers recognize digital signals?
a. They receive a broadcast signal from the network.

b. They look for ARP requests that match their IP address.
c. They monitor the network connection for modulations.
d. They measure and compare the signals to a reference point.
20. What is the signal reference ground?
a. Neutral contact point where the computer chassis and the network
connection meet
b. Point used by devices to measure and compare incoming digital signals
c. Device that the name server uses to send messages over the network
d. Ground that prevents users from receiving shocks when power fails
21. What is the point used by a device to measure and compare incoming
digital signals called?
a. Input point
b. Zero point
c. Null reference setting
d. Signal reference ground
nd
22. How is the signal reference ground established?
a. By connecting the ground wire to the network wire

b. By connecting the network wire to the jumper connector
c. By connecting the ground plane to the computer’s cabinet
d. By connecting the computer chassis to the network cable
23. What purpose does the computer chassis serve?
a. Prevents electrical short circuits and electrical fires

b. Signal reference ground and AC power-line ground
c. Amplifies digital signals
d. Reduces electromagnetic interference
24. What is the most likely cause of interference on a network?
a. Improper cabling and jack choices

b. Electromagnetic interference from radios and other electrical devices
c. High voltage device in the vicinity
d. Problems with the power ground
25. What is the most likely cause of problems with the power ground?
a. Length of the neutral and ground wires in electrical outlets

b. Excessive stripping or untwisting of cable
c. Equipment not located in a climate-controlled area
d. Poor-quality cabling material used in the network
26. What do long neutral and ground wires in electrical outlets act as?
a. Lightning rods
b. Amplifiers for digital signals
c. Antenna for electrical noise
d. Line signal dampeners
27. How does electrical noise affect networks?
a. Shuts down the network

b. Burns out network devices, especially hubs
c. Reduces data transmission speed through the network because error-
trapping routines are initiated
d. Distorts or buries digital signals to the point that they become
unrecognizable
nd
28. How can the problem of electrical noise be avoided?
a. By limiting the number and type of electrical devices near the LAN
b. By working closely with your electrical contractor and the local power
company
c. By making sure all electrical devices are FCC and UL listed
d. By installing surge suppressors on every network device
29. How can the problem of electrical noise be avoided?
a. By installing surge suppressors on every network device

b. By making sure all electrical devices are FCC and UL listed
c. By getting a single power transformer dedicated to your LAN
d. By limiting the number and type of electrical devices near the LAN
30. How can having a single power transformer dedicated to your LAN reduce
electrical noise?
a. You can detect and filter out fluctuations in line voltage before it reaches
your LAN.
b. You can specify the size and capacity of the transformer.
c. You can place the transformer in a central location.
d. You can control how and where devices such as motors or high current
devices are attached.
31. What does installing separate breaker boxes for each office area do to
electrical noise?
a. Reduces chance of electrical noise

b. Reduces need for surge protectors
c. Eliminates need for a generator
d. Eliminates need for network rewiring
nd
Chapter 5
Layer 1: Media, Connections, and Collisions
Introduction
Networking media are the various physical environments through which transmission
signals pass. For computers to communicate encoded information with each other,
networking media must physically connect them to each other. The networking media
used to connect computers varies. Several kinds of network media can be used to
connect computers:
• Coaxial cable
• Unshielded twisted-pair cable
• Shielded twisted-pair cable
• Fiber-optic cable
Concept Questions
the space provided:
• Networking media is defined as the various physical environments through which
transmission signals pass. Several types of network media can be used to
connect computers. Identify these different types of network media.
The following cable types can be used to connect computers:
⇒ Shielded twisted-pair cable
⇒ Unshielded twisted-pair cable
⇒ Coaxial cable
⇒ Fiber-optic cable
• Coaxial cable is a type of network media. Describe how coaxial cable is made.
Coaxial cable is made up of a single inner wire conductor that is surrounded by a
hollow cylindrical conductor.
• UTP cable is used in a variety of networks. How many wires make up this type
of cable?
Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable is a four-pair wire medium used in a variety
of networks. Eight wires are contained within the outer insulation.
nd
• STP cable combines the techniques of shielding, cancellation, and twisting of
wires. What is shielding, and why is it important?
Each pair of wires is wrapped in metallic foil. The four pairs of wires are wrapped
in an overall metallic braid or foil. (It is normally 150-ohm cable.) STP reduces
electrical noise originating inside the cable (crosstalk) and outside the cable
(electromagnetic interference [EMI] and radio frequency interference [RFI]).
• Fiber-optic cable is a networking medium. How does it carry signals?
Fiber-optic cable is a networking medium capable of conducting modulated light
transmission. Fiber-optic cable does not carry electrical pulses as do other forms
of networking media that employ copper wire. Instead, signals that represent bits
are converted into pulses of light.
• Various criteria, such as rate of data transfer and expense, help determine which
type of media should be used. What media is the fastest and which one is the
least expensive?
Fiber optic cabling has the fastest possible transport speed; UTP Cat 5
represents the least expensive type of media.
• The data link layer of the OSI model provides access to the networking media
and physical transmission across the medium. If you were going to build a
network, what media would you use and why?
Fiber-optic cabling would be a consideration for all long distances in building-to-
building connections. A fiber-optic cabling has the capability to easily transport
data at speeds of 10+ Gbps. UTP cabling is generally selected for most office
connectivity where occurrences of EMI and RFI are not anticipated. In the
industrial and warehouse environments, typically shielded twisted-pair cabling
represents the best choice of media to avoid and EMI and RFI. Of course if
pricing is not a concern, fiber-optic cabling is the cabling that represents the
greatest throughput with the lowest chance of interference.

material for help.
Bridge Device that connects and passes packets between two network segments
that use the same communications protocol. Bridges operate at the data link layer
(Layer 2) of the OSI reference model. In general, a bridge will filter, forward, or flood an
incoming frame based on the MAC address of that frame.
Coaxial cable Cable consisting of a hollow outer cylindrical conductor that surrounds
a single inner wire conductor. Two types of coaxial cable are currently used in LANs: 50-
ohm cable, which is used for digital signaling; and 75-ohm cable, which is used for
analog signal and high-speed digital signaling.
nd
Fiber-optic cable Physical medium capable of conducting modulated light
transmission. Compared with other transmission media, fiber-optic cable is more
expensive, but is not susceptible to electromagnetic interference, and is capable of
higher data rates. Sometimes called optical fiber.
Repeater Device that regenerates and propagates electrical signals between two
network segments.
Shielded twisted-pair (STP) Two-pair wiring medium used in a variety of network
implementations. STP cabling has a layer of shielded insulation to reduce EMI.
Switch 1) Network device that filters, forwards, and floods frames based on the
destination address of each frame. The switch operates at the data link layer of the OSI
model. 2) General term applied to an electronic or mechanical device that allows a
connection to be established as necessary and terminated when there is no longer a
session to support.
Twisted pair Relatively low-speed transmission medium consisting of two insulated
wires arranged in a regular spiral pattern. The wires can be shielded or unshielded.
Twisted pair is common in telephony applications and is increasingly common in data
networks. See also STP and UTP.
Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) Four-pair wire medium used in a variety of networks.
UTP does not require the fixed spacing between connections that is necessary with
coaxial-type connections.
nd
Focus Questions
1. Compare and contrast four different Ethernet LAN devices in increasing
order of complexity (and typically cost).
Repeaters Repeaters regenerate and retime signals, thereby increasing the

distance that signals can travel and still be clearly interpreted at the destination.
Repeaters deal only with packets at the bit level; therefore, they are Layer 1
devices. Repeaters are internetworking devices that exist at the physical layer
(Layer 1) of the OSI model.
Hubs Hubs combine connectivity with the amplifying and retiming properties
of repeaters. It is typical to see 4, 8, 12, and up to 24, ports on multiport
repeaters. This allows many devices to be cheaply and easily interconnected.
Bridges Bridges are devices that connect and pass packets between two
network segments that use the same communications protocol. Bridges operate
at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI reference model. In general, a bridge
will filter, forward, or flood an incoming frame based on the MAC address of that
frame.
Switches 1) Switches are network devices that filter, forward, and flood
frames based on the destination address of each frame. The switch operates at
the data link layer of the OSI model. 2) Switch is a general term applied to an
electronic or mechanical device that allows a connection to be established as
necessary and terminated when there is no longer a session to support.
2. What are some of the characteristics of shielded twisted-pair (STP)?
Shielded twisted-pair cable combines the techniques of shielding and

cancellation via the twisting of wires. Each pair of wires is wrapped in metallic
foil. The four pairs of wires are wrapped in an overall metallic braid or foil. (It is
normally 150-ohm cable.) STP reduces electrical noise originating inside the
cable (crosstalk) and outside the cable (electromagnetic interference [EMI] and
radio frequency interference [RFI]). Shielded twisted-pair cable shares many of
the advantages and disadvantages of unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable. STP
affords greater protection from all types of external interference, but it is more
expensive and difficult to install than UTP.
3. What are some of the characteristics of unshielded twisted-pair (UTP)?
Unshielded twisted-pair cable is a four-pair wire medium used in a variety of

networks. Insulating material covers each of the eight individual copper wires in
the UTP cable. In addition, each pair of wires is twisted around each other. This
type of cable relies solely on the cancellation effect, produced by the twisted wire
pairs, to limit signal degradation caused by EMI and RFI. To further reduce
crosstalk between the pairs in UTP cable, the number of twists in the wire pairs
varies. Like STP cable, UTP cable must follow precise specifications as to how
many twists or braids are permitted per foot of cable.
nd
4. What are some of the characteristics of coaxial cable?
Coaxial cable consists of a hollow outer cylindrical conductor that surrounds a

single inner wire conductor—the two conductors are separated by insulation. In
the center of the cable is a single copper wire. A layer of flexible insulation
surrounds it. Over this insulating material, a woven copper braid or metallic foil
acts as the second of two wires in the circuit. It also acts as a shield for the inner
conductor. This second layer, or shield, helps reduce the amount of outside
interference. The cable jacket covers this shield.
5. What is the difference between STP and UTP?
UTP cable relies solely on the cancellation effect, produced by the twisted wire
pairs, to limit signal degradation caused by EMI and RFI. To further reduce
crosstalk between the pairs in UTP cable, the number of twists in the wire pairs
varies. UTP uses 100 ohm of resistance; whereas, STP generally has 150 ohms
of resistance. STP, unlike UTP cabling, has a metallic braid or foil that adds
additional protection against EMI and RFI.
6. What is the difference between STP and coaxial cable?
Both STP and coaxial cable use a metallic braid or foil for added insulation. STP
has individual shielding around each individual pair of wires. STP can transfer
data at 100 Mbps; whereas, coaxial is limited to 10 Mbps. Coax is terminated
using a BNC or AUI connector; whereas, STP cabling is usually terminated with
an RJ connector.
7. What is the advantage of fiber-optic cable?
Fiber-optic cabling allows for increased distance while also having the capability
of transferring data at a much faster rate than other types of media. Single-mode
fiber will support 10 Gbps transmission speeds. Fiber-optic cabling is more
secure because data cannot be extracted from the cable inductively. Fiber-optic
cabling is also unaffected by RFI and EMI.
8. What are the disadvantages of fiber-optic cable?
The cost of fiber cabling and fiber equipment is significantly greater than that of
twisted-pair cabling. Fiber is also very fragile and breaks easily during installation
or thereafter. Termination and installation cost is more than double that of
twisted-pair cabling.
9. What is the medium for wireless communication?
Wireless signals are electromagnetic waves that can travel through the vacuum
of outer space and through media, such as the air in our atmosphere. Therefore,
no cable medium is necessary for wireless signals.
10. What are TIA/EIA standards?
The TIA/EIA standards specify the minimum requirements for multiproduct and
multivendor environments. They allow for the planning and the installation of
LAN systems without dictating the use of specific equipment giving LAN
designers the freedom to create options for improvement and expansion.
nd
11. What are patch panels?
Patch panels are convenient groupings of RJ-45 jacks. They come in 12, 24, and
48 ports, and typically are rack mounted. The front sides are RJ-45 jacks; the
back sides are punch-down blocks that provide connectivity or conducting paths.
They are classified as Layer 1 components.
12. How many conductors does an RJ-45 jack have?
An RJ-45 jack/connector is made up of eight conductors, four individual pairs.

13. What is a shared media environment?
A shared media environment occurs when multiple hosts have access to the
same medium. If several PCs are attached to the same physical wire or optical
fiber, or share the same airspace, for example, they all share the same media
environment. Occasionally, you might hear someone say “all the computers are
on the same wire.” It means they all share the same media even though the
“wire” might be CAT 5 UTP, which has four pairs of wire.
14. Where on a network do collisions occur?
If, for example, only one cable interconnects all the devices on a network, the
possibility of conflicts with more than one user sending data at the same time is
high. The same is true if only non-filtering devices, such as repeaters, connect
segments of a network. Ethernet allows only one data packet to access the cable
at any one time. If more than one node attempts to transmit at the same time, a
collision occurs, and the data from each device suffers damage.
15. What is a collision domain?
The area within the network from where the data packets originated and collided
is called a collision domain. All shared media environments are collision
domains. One wire might be connected to another wire through patch cables,
transceivers, patch panels, repeaters, and hubs. All these Layer 1
interconnections are part of a collision domain.
16. What happens to the signal in a collision?
When a collision occurs, the data packets that are involved are destroyed, bit by
bit. In a collision, the signals interfere, or collide, with each other and create a
third and invalid state.
17. How do you recognize a collision domain?
If you connect several computers to a single medium that has no other

networking devices attached, you have a shared-access situation and you have
a single collision domain. Depending on the particular technology used, this
situation limits the number of computers that can use that portion of the medium,
also called a segment.
nd
18. How do repeaters extend collision domains?
Repeaters regenerate and retime bits, but they cannot filter the flow of traffic that
passes through them. Signals that arrive at one port of a repeater are sent out
on all other ports. The network on both sides of the repeater is one large collision
domain.
19. How do hubs extend collision domains?
The extended collision domain introduced by a hub results in diminished network

performance. The degradation in performance depends on the degree of usage
of the network by the computers on that network. The hub operates just like the
repeater with the addition of numerous nodes, thus increasing the collision
domain.
20. Do repeaters filter network traffic?
Both repeaters and hubs are Layer 1 devices; therefore, they perform no filtering
of network traffic.
21. What is the four-repeater rule?
The four-repeater rule in Ethernet states that no more than four repeaters or
repeating hubs can be installed between any two computers on the network. If
followed, the rules guarantee that if a collision occurs, every node in the collision
domain knows it has occurred. This is crucial to the successful operation of the
network protocol
22. How can the segmentation of collision domains be achieved?
You can reduce the size of collision domains by using intelligent networking
devices that break up the domains. Examples of this type of networking device
are bridges, switches, and routers.
23. What is linear bus network topology?
The bus topology has all its nodes connected directly to one link, and has no
other connections between nodes. Each host is wired to a common wire. One
advantage of this topology is that all hosts are connected to each other, and thus
can communicate directly. One disadvantage of this topology is that a break in
the cable disconnects hosts from each other.
24. What is ring network topology?
A ring topology is a single closed ring consisting of nodes and links, with each
node connected to only two adjacent nodes. The topology shows all devices
wired directly to each other in what is called a daisy-chain.
25. Are the rings of a dual-ring network topology connected?
The two rings are not connected. A dual-ring topology is the same as a ring
topology, except that a second, redundant ring connects the same devices.
nd
26. Where is the node of a star network topology located?
A star topology has a central node with all links to other nodes radiating from it
and allows no other links.
27. From a mathematical perspective, where does each node link in an
extended star network topology?
An extended star topology has a core star topology, with each of the end nodes
of the core topology acting as the center of its own star topology.
nd
Edition.
1. What type of fiber-optic cable is required by the TIA/EIA-568B standard for
horizontal cabling?
a. Two pair of 100-ohm cable

b. Two pair of 150-ohm cable
c. Two fibers of 62.5/125 um multimode cable
d. Four fibers of 62.5/125 um multimode cable
2. How can you determine which category of UTP cable any cabling belongs
to?
a. By looking at the end connectors

b. By reading the UL marking
c. By measuring the cable diameter
d. By the color of the cable sheathing
3. Why do networks need to use an access method?
a. To regulate access to the networking media equitably

b. To regulate the access of data into certain parts of networking media
c. To keep unwanted, foreign users from having access to the network
d. To prioritize data transmissions so that important items have greater
access
4. Which of the following best describes an access method?
a. The method used by software to access network file servers

b. The method used to verify users as authorized for access to the network
c. The way users access the network
d. The way network devices access the network medium
5. Ethernet uses what access method?
a. Token header transmission protocol

b. Ethernet does not use an access method
c. Carrier sense multiple access collision detect
d. Ethernet transmission carrier collision detect
nd
6. Which of the following best describes a collision?
a. The frames from two devices impact and are damaged when they meet
on the physical media.
b. Two nodes transmit at the same time and one data packet has priority, so
it obliterates the lesser packet.
c. Two data transmissions cross paths on the network media and corrupt
each other.
d. A data transmission is corrupted due to an energy spike over the network
media.
7. Which of the following best describes a backoff algorithm?
a. A process wherein the network holds up some data so that other, more
important data can get through
b. The retransmission delay enforced when a collision occurs
c. The signal that a device on the network sends out to tell the other devices
that data is being sent
d. A mathematical function performed by networking software that prioritizes
data packets
Questions 8–13 are supplemental and are not found in the Engineering Journal and
Workbook.
8. What is most important when considering the type of networking media to
use in an installation?
a. Management’s wishes
b. Availability of networking media from local sources
c. Applicable fire, building, and safety codes
d. Your experience and expertise
9. Which grade of UTP cabling described in the TIA/EIA-568B standard is
used for running CDDI and can transmit data at speeds up to 100 Mbps?
a. Category 2
b. Category 3
c. Category 4
d. Category 5
nd
10. Which grade of UTP cabling described in the TIA/EIA-568B standard is the
one most frequently recommended and implemented in installations
today?
a. Category 2
b. Category 3
c. Category 4
d. Category 5
11. What is Category 5 UTP cabling suitable for?
a. Transmitting data at speeds up to 10 Mbps

b. Transmitting data at speeds up to 100 Mbps
c. 10BaseT networks
d. Token Ring networks
12. What type of STP cable is required by the TIA/EIA-568B standard for
horizontal cabling?
a. Two pairs of 100-ohm cable

b. Two pairs of 150-ohm cable
c. Four pairs of 100-ohm cable
d. Four pairs of 150-ohm cable
13. What type of UTP cable is required by the TIA/EIA-568B standard for
horizontal cabling?
a. Two pairs of 100-ohm cable

b. Two pairs of 150-ohm cable
c. Four pairs of 100-ohm cable
d. Four pairs of 150-ohm cable
nd
Chapter 6
Layer 2: Concepts
Introduction
All data sent out on a network is from a source and is going to a destination. After data
is transmitted, the data link layer of the OSI model provides access to the networking
media and physical transmission across the media, which enables the data to locate its
intended destination on a network. In addition, the data link layer handles error
notification, network topology, and flow control. If you refer to the OSI model, you see
that the data link layer is adjacent to the physical layer. The data link layer provides
reliable transit of data across a physical link. This layer uses Media Access Control
(MAC) addresses. In so doing, the data link layer is concerned with physical (as
opposed to network, or logical) addressing, network topology, line discipline (how end
systems will use the network link), error notification, ordered delivery of frames, and flow
control. Moreover, the data link layer uses the MAC address to define a hardware or
data link address in order for multiple stations to share the same medium and still
uniquely identify each other. Before a data packet is exchanged with a directly
connected device on the same LAN, the sending device needs to have a MAC address
it can use as a destination address.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• Every computer, whether it is attached to a network or not, has a unique physical
address; no two physical addresses are ever alike. How is this achieved?
Every computer has a unique way of identifying itself. Each computer on a
network, has a physical address. No two physical addresses on a network should
ever be alike. Referred to as the Media Access Control address, the physical
address is located on the network interface card (NIC). A MAC address is a 48-
bit address expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits. The first 6 hexadecimal digits of
a MAC address contain a manufacturer identification (vendor code), also known
as the organizationally unique identifier (OUI). The last 6 hexadecimal digits are
administered by each vendor and often represent the interface serial number.
The MAC address, or the physical address, is located on a NIC. Therefore, on a
network, the NIC is where a device connects to the media.
Each NIC, which is located in the data link layer of the OSI reference model, has
a unique MAC address.
nd
• On a network, when one device wants to send data to another device, it can
open a communication pathway to the other device by using the other device’s
MAC address. How is this done?
In a unicast transmission, a single packet is sent from the source to a destination
on a network. First, the source node addresses the packet by using the physical
address of the destination node. The package then is sent onto the network, and
finally, the network passes the packet to its destination.
• When data is sent out on a network by a source, it carries the MAC address of
its intended destination. Does it carry the address of the source?
The Layer 2 frame header contains the source MAC address and the next-hop
destination MAC address as well. The source MAC address will stay in the frame
until the gateway or router removes the frame while routing to the next hop.
As this data travels along the networking media, the NIC in each device on the
network checks whether its MAC address matches the physical destination
address carried by the data packet.

material for help.
Address Data structure or logical convention used to identify a unique entity, such as
a particular process or network device.
Collision domain In Ethernet, the network area within which frames that have
collided are propagated. Repeaters and hubs propagate collisions; LAN switches,
bridges, and routers do not.
CSMA/CD (carrier sense multiple access collision detect) Media-access
mechanism wherein devices ready to transmit data first check the channel for a carrier.
If no carrier is sensed for a specific period of time, a device can transmit. If two devices
transmit at once, a collision occurs and is detected by all colliding devices. This collision
subsequently delays retransmissions from those devices for some random length of
time. CSMA/CD access is used by Ethernet and IEEE 802.3.
Data link layer This layer provides reliable transit of data across a physical link. The
data link layer is concerned with physical addressing, network topology, line discipline,
error notification, ordered delivery of frames, and flow control. The IEEE has divided this
layer into two sublayers: the MAC sublayer and the LLC sublayer. Sometimes just called
link layer.
Encapsulation The wrapping of data in a particular protocol header. For example,
Ethernet data is wrapped in a specific Ethernet header before network transit. Also
when bridging dissimilar networks, the entire frame from one network is just placed in
the header used by the data link layer protocol of the other network.
nd
Frame Logical grouping of information sent as a data link layer unit over a
transmission medium. Often refers to the header and trailer, used for synchronization
and error control, which surround the user data contained in the unit.
Hexadecimal Base 16. A number representation using the digits 0 through 9, with
their usual meaning, plus the letters A through F to represent hexadecimal digits with
values of 10 to 15. The rightmost digit counts 1s, the next counts multiples of 16 (for
instance, 16^2=256 and so on).
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) Professional organization
whose activities include the development of communications and network standards.
IEEE LAN standards are the predominant LAN standards today.
Logical link control (LLC) Higher of the two data link layer sublayers defined by the
IEEE. The LLC sublayer handles error control, flow control, framing, and MAC sublayer
addressing. The most prevalent LLC protocol is IEEE 802.2, which includes both
connectionless and connection-oriented variants.
Media Access Control (MAC) Lower of the two sublayers of the data link layer
defined by the IEEE. The MAC sublayer handles access to shared media, such as
whether token passing or contention will be used.
Token Ring Token-passing LAN developed and supported by IBM. Token Ring runs
at 4 or 16 Mbps over a ring topology. Similar to IEEE 802.5.
Focus Questions
1. What are three differences between Layer 1 and Layer 2?
Layer 2 of the OSI model provides access to the networking media, which
enables the data to reach its intended destination on a network.
⇒ Layer 2 provides transit of data across a physical link.
⇒ Layer 2 uses a system called Media Access Control.
⇒ Layer 2 uses the MAC address, which is the physical address located on
a NIC.
⇒ Layer 2 uses framing to organize or group the bits.
The physical layer defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional
specifications for activating, maintaining, and deactivating the physical link
between end systems. Such characteristics as voltage levels, timing of voltage
changes, physical data rates, maximum transmission distances, physical
connectors, and other similar attributes are defined by physical layer
specifications.
3. Into what sublayers does the IEEE divide the OSI data link layer?
IEEE has divided the OSI Data link layer into two sublayers: LLC (logical link
control) and MAC (Media Access Control).
nd
4. What does the LLC do to the network protocol data?
Higher of the two data link layer sublayers defined by the IEEE, the LLC sublayer
handles error control, flow control, framing, and MAC sublayer addressing. The
most prevalent LLC protocol is IEEE 802.2, which includes both connectionless
and connection-oriented variants.
5. Convert the decimal number 24,032 to hex.
5DE0
6. How does a computer identify itself on a network?
Every computer has a unique way of identifying itself. Each computer on a

network, has a physical address, a 48-bit MAC address.
7. What is the NIC’s role when data is sent out on a network?
When a source device sends data out on a network, the data carries the MAC
address of its intended destination. As this data propagates along the network
media, the NIC in each device on the network checks to see whether its MAC
address matches the physical destination address carried by the data frame. If
there is no match, the NIC discards the data frame.
8. What is an advantage and a disadvantage to MAC addresses?
The address is burned into read-only memory and therefore cannot be lost,
reset, or conflict with other nodes on a local network. The address is used to
identify the node at the data link layer and is referred to as being the physical
address. There is no hierarchy or grouping of MAC addressing other than by
OUI.
9. Which layer does framing belong to?
The Data link layer

10. What are the names of the six fields found in a single generic frame?
⇒ Frame start field

⇒ Address field
⇒ Length / type / control field
⇒ Data field
⇒ Frame check sequence field
⇒ Frame stop field
11. What are the two parts of a package?
The reason for sending frames is to get higher layer data, ultimately the user
application data, from the source computer to the destination computer. The data
package you want to deliver includes the message you want to send (the data).
The padding bytes are added sometimes so the frames have a minimum
length—this is done for timing purposes.
nd
12. How does the frame check sum help in the delivery of a frame?
In IEEE 802.3 frames, the 2-byte field following the source address is a length
field, which indicates the number of bytes of data that follow this field and
precede the frame check sequence (FCS) field. This helps identify whether the
remote host has received all data intended for this transmission.
13. How does a Token Ring network handle data?
Token Ring networks use deterministic MAC protocols to share access to the
network. When a host receives the token, it can transmit data, if it has some,
instead of the token. This is called seizing the token. When the transmitted frame
comes back around to the transmitter, the station transmits a new token. The
frame thus is removed, or stripped, from the ring.
nd
Appendix A, “Answers to the CCNA Exam Review Questions.” from the Cisco
Edition.
1. Where do all communications on a network originate?
a. Peripherals
b. Sources
c. Computers
d. Hosts
2. Which of the following best defines a source?

b. Network device that receives data
c. Computer that operates independently from other computers
d. Network device that is sending data
3. What is a source device?
a. A source device receives data and information from other computers in a

network.
b. A source device sends data and information to other computers in a
network.
c. A source device is information that moves between computers in a
network.
d. A source device provides connectivity between computers in a network.
4. Where are all communications on a network being sent?
a. Source
b. Computer
c. Data link
d. Destination
5. Which of the following best defines a destination?

b. Network device that is receiving data
c. Redundant use of equipment to prevent data loss
d. Network device that is sending data
nd
6. What is another name for link layer addresses?
a. IP addresses
b. Network addresses
c. Logical addresses
d. Physical addresses
7. What is another name for link layer addresses?
a. MAC addresses
b. IP addresses
c. Logical addresses
d. Network addresses
8. Where are link layer addresses usually located?
a. In the routing table

b. On the NIC
c. In the ARP cache
d. In the name server tables
9. On which layer of the OSI model are physical addresses located?
a. Presentation layer
b. Session layer
c. Data link layer
d. Network layer
10. Which is true about MAC addresses?
a. Unique for each LAN interface

b. Located at the network layer
c. Also called logical addresses
d. Used to identify host networks
11. Where is the MAC address located?
a. At the network layer

b. Burned into ROM at the factory
c. In the AUI
d. At the MAU interface
nd
12. Which of the following describes the structure of a MAC address?
a. 32-bit network identity plus 32-bit host identity

b. Network, subnet, subnet mask, host
c. 24-bit vendor code plus 24-bit serial number
d. Network code plus serial number
13. Which of the following could be a MAC address?
a. 172.15.5.31
b. 1111.1111.111
c. FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
d. 0000.0c12.3456
14. Which best describes carrier sense multiple access collision detect
(CSMA/CD)?
a. Devices check the channel to make sure no signals are being sent before
transmitting data.
b. Devices transmit data and listen to make sure that they are received
properly.
c. Devices transmit a request prior to transmitting data over the network and
wait for an “all clear” reply.
d. Devices monitor the channel continuously to track and manage traffic.
15. Which of the following is not a function of CSMA/CD?
a. Transmitting and receiving data packets

b. Decoding data packets and checking them for valid addresses
c. Detecting errors within data packets or on the network
d. Cleaning up collisions on the network medium
nd
Chapter 7
Layer 2: Technologies
Introduction
Ethernet was developed by Xerox Corporation’s Palo Alto Research Center (PARC) in
the 1970s. Ethernet is the most popular LAN standard today. There are millions of
devices, or nodes, on Ethernet LANs. The early LANs required very little bandwidth to
perform the simple network tasks required at that time—sending/receiving e-mail,
transferring data files, and handling print jobs. In 1980, the Institute of Electrical and
Electronic Engineers (IEEE) released the IEEE 802.3 specification for which Ethernet
was the technological basis. Shortly thereafter, Digital Equipment Corporation, Intel
Corporation, and Xerox Corporation jointly developed and released an Ethernet
specification (version 2.0) that is substantially compatible with IEEE 802.3. Together,
Ethernet and IEEE 802.3 currently maintain the greatest market share of any LAN
standard.
An Ethernet LAN transports data between network devices, such as computers, printers,
and file servers. Ethernet is known as a shared-medium technology; all the devices are
connected to the same delivery media. Delivery media refers to the method of
transmitting and receiving data. For example, a handwritten letter can be sent
(transmitted) using one of many delivery methods, such as the U.S. postal service,
Federal Express, or fax. Electronic data can be transmitted via copper cable, thick
coaxial cable, thinnet, wireless data transfer, and so on.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• Ethernet, FDDI, and Token Ring are widely used LAN technologies that account
for virtually all deployed LANs. LAN standards specify cabling and signaling at
the physical and data link layers of the OSI model. Because they are widely
adhered to, this book covers the Ethernet and IEEE 802.3 LAN standards. Why
do you suppose that Ethernet technology is so heavily used?
Ethernet is well suited to applications in which a local communication medium
must carry sporadic, occasionally heavy traffic at high-peak data rates. Ethernet
was considered high-speed when it was first available
nd
• When it was developed, Ethernet was designed to fill the middle ground between
long-distance, low-speed networks and specialized, computer-room networks
carrying data at high speeds for very limited distances. Ethernet is well suited to
applications in which a local communication medium must carry sporadic,
occasionally heavy traffic at high-peak data rates. Why is Ethernet so well
suited to this kind of traffic?
Ethernet was designed to fill the middle ground between long-distance, low-
speed networks and specialized, computer-room networks carrying data at high
speeds for very limited distances.
• Today, the term standard Ethernet refers to all networks using Ethernet (a
shared-medium technology) that generally conform to Ethernet specifications,
including IEEE 802.3. To use this shared-medium technology, Ethernet uses the
carrier sense multiple access collision detection (CSMA/CD) protocol to allow the
networking devices to negotiate for the right to transmit. What are the major
benefits of Ethernet?
It was designed to enable sharing resources on a local workgroup level. Design
goals included simplicity, low cost, compatibility, fairness, low delay, and high
speed.

material for help.
Access control byte The access control byte contains the priority and reservation
fields, a token, and a monitor bit. The token bit distinguishes a token from a
data/command frame, and a monitor bit determines whether a frame is continuously
circling the ring. The end delimiter signals the end of the token or data/command frame.
It contains bits that indicate a damaged frame, as well as bits that indicate whether a
frame is the last of a logical sequence.
CSMA/CD (carrier sense multiple access collision detect) Media-access
mechanism wherein devices ready to transmit data first check the channel for a carrier.
If no carrier is sensed for a specific period of time, a device can transmit. If two devices
transmit at once, a collision occurs and is detected by all colliding devices. This collision
subsequently delays retransmissions from those devices for some random length of
time. CSMA/CD access is used by Ethernet and IEEE 802.3.
Data (Ethernet) After physical layer and link layer processing is complete, the data
contained in the frame is sent to an upper-layer protocol, which is identified in the type
field. Although Ethernet version 2 does not specify any specific padding, in contrast to
IEEE 802.3, Ethernet expects at least 46 bytes of data, like 802.3.
Data (IEEE 802.3) After physical layer and link layer processing is complete, the data
is sent to an upper-layer protocol, which must be defined within the data portion of the
frame. If data in the frame is insufficient to fill the frame to its minimum 64-byte size,
padding bytes are inserted to ensure at least a 64-byte frame.
nd
Destination and source addresses The first 3 bytes of the addresses are specified
by the IEEE on a vendor-dependent basis. The last 3 bytes are specified by the
Ethernet or IEEE 802.3 vendor. The source address is always a unicast (single-node)
address. The destination address can be unicast, multicast (group), or broadcast (all
nodes).
End delimiter The end delimiter signals the end of the token or data/command
frame. It contains bits that indicate a damaged frame, as well as bits that indicate
whether a frame is the last of a logical sequence.
Ethernet Baseband LAN specification invented by Xerox Corporation and developed
jointly by Xerox, Intel, and Digital Equipment Corporation. Ethernet networks use
CSMA/CD and run over a variety of cable types at 10 Mbps. Ethernet is similar to the
IEEE 802.3 series of standards.
FDDI (Fiber Distributed Data Interface) LAN standard, defined by ANSI X3T9.5,
specifying a 100-Mbps token-passing network using fiber-optic cable, with transmission
distances of up to 2 kilometers. FDDI uses a dual-ring architecture to provide
redundancy.
Frame check sequence (FCS) This sequence contains a 4-byte CRC value that is
created by the sending device and is recalculated by the receiving device to check for
damaged frames.
IEEE 802.3 IEEE LAN protocol that specifies an implementation of the physical layer
and the MAC sublayer of the data link layer. IEEE 802.3 uses CSMA/CD access at a
variety of speeds over a variety of physical media. Extensions to the IEEE 802.3
standard specify implementations for Fast Ethernet.
Length (IEEE 802.3) The Length field indicates the number of bytes of data that
follows this field.
Microsegmentation Division of a network into smaller segments, usually with the
intention of increasing aggregate bandwidth to network devices.
MSAU (multistation access unit) Wiring concentrator to which all end stations in a
Token Ring network connect. The MSAU provides an interface between these devices
and the Token Ring interface of, for example, a Cisco 7000 TRIP. Sometimes
abbreviated MAU.
NIC (network interface card) Board that provides network communication
Preamble The purpose of the preamble is synchronization. The Ethernet frame
includes an additional byte that is the equivalent of the Start of Frame (SOF) field
specified in the IEEE 802.3 frame.
Start delimiter The start delimiter alerts each station to the arrival of a token, or
data/command frame. This field also includes bit patterns that distinguish the byte from
the rest of the frame by violating the encoding scheme used elsewhere in the frame.
nd
Focus Questions
1. What is the size and composition of a token?
Tokens are 3 bytes in length and consist of a start delimiter, an access control
byte, and an end delimiter.
2. What does the source address field in an FDDI frame identify?
The source address identifies the single station that sent the frame; source
addresses are 6 bytes (like Ethernet and Token Ring).
3. Which field determines whether the frame contains asynchronous or
synchronous data?
The Frame Control field indicates the size of the address fields, whether the
frame contains asynchronous or synchronous data, and other control information
4. What are two features that are both FDDI and Token Ring share?
The two networks share a few features, such as topology (ring) and media
access technique (token passing).
5. What are the three advantages that optical fiber has over copper wiring?
Optical fiber offers several advantages over traditional copper wiring, including
such advantages as these:
⇒ Security. Fiber does not emit electrical signals that can be tapped.
⇒ Reliability. Fiber is immune to electrical interference.
⇒ Speed. Optical fiber has much higher throughput potential than copper cable.
6. What network device must all network traffic pass through on a star
topology?
When a star topology is used, communication between devices attached to the

LAN is via point-to-point wiring to the central link or hub. All network traffic in a
star topology passes through the hub.
7. What is the purpose of a NIC?
A network interface card is a Layer 2 device that plugs into a motherboard and
provides ports for network connection. This card can be designed as an Ethernet
card, a Token Ring card, or an FDDI card. Network cards communicate with the
network through serial connections and with the computer through parallel
connections. They are the physical connections from workstations to the
network.
nd
8. What are two reasons why LANs are segmented?
The primary reason for segmenting a LAN is to isolate traffic between segments
and to achieve more bandwidth per user by creating smaller collision domains.
Segmentation also accommodates communication between a larger number of
devices than could be supported on any single LAN connection.
9. Ethernet uses which access method to detect errors within data packets or
on the network?
Ethernet uses CSMA/CD, a media-access mechanism wherein devices ready to

transmit data first check the channel for a carrier. If no carrier is sensed for a
specific period of time, a device can transmit. If two devices transmit at once, a
collision occurs and is detected by all colliding devices. This collision
subsequently delays retransmissions from those devices for some random
length of time. CSMA/CD access is used by Ethernet and IEEE 802.3.
10. Why is it cost efficient to have a switched LAN environment?
A switched Ethernet LAN allows a LAN topology to work faster and more
efficiently than a standard Ethernet LAN can because it uses bandwidth so
efficiently. In a switched Ethernet implementation, the available bandwidth can
reach close to 100 percent.
nd
The following questions help prepare you for the CCNA Exam. Answers also appear in
Edition.
1. Which best describes the data link layer of the OSI model?
a. Transmits data to other network layers

b. Provides services to application processes
c. Takes weak signals, cleans them, amplifies them, and sends them on
their way across the network
d. Provides reliable transit of data across a physical link
2. Which layer provides reliable transit of data across a physical link?
a. Data link
b. Physical
c. Application
d. Transport
3. What processes is the data link layer concerned with?
a. Physical addressing, network topology, line discipline, error notification,

ordered delivery of frames, and flow control
b. Establishing, managing, and terminating sessions between applications,
and managing data exchange between presentation layer entities
c. Synchronizing cooperating applications and establishing agreement on
procedures for error recovery and control of data integrity
d. Providing mechanisms for the establishment, maintenance, and
termination of virtual circuits, transport fault detection, recovery, and
information flow control
4. Physical addressing and network topology are handled by which layer?
a. Physical
b. Presentation
c. Data link
d. Session
nd
5. On a network, where does a device connect to the media?
a. Ethernet card
b. Hub
c. Router
d. NIC
6. What is another name for the MAC address?
a. Binary address
b. Octadecimal address
c. Physical address
d. TCP/IP address
7. In which layer is the MAC address located?
a. Session
b. Data link
c. Physical
d. Transport
8. What does MAC address stand for?
a. Macintosh Access Capable

b. Mainframe Advisory Council
c. Media Access Control
d. Machine Application Communication
9. Which of the following items is located in the data link layer?
a. Destination
b. Peripheral
c. Repeater
d. MAC address
10. What is required for every port or device that connects to a network?
a. Repeater
b. Termination
c. MAC or physical address
d. ATM switch
nd
11. Which of the following best describes MAC addressing?
a. Addresses reside in the NIC card and are assigned by their

manufacturers.
b. Addresses are assigned by the IEEE committee and need to be
requested by the network administrator.
c. Addresses are determined by the distance of the computer from the
network hub.
d. Addresses are given to every computer when they are manufactured.
12. How does a source device locate the destination for data on a network?
a. The NIC at the destination identifies its MAC address in a data packet.
b. A data packet stops at the destination.
c. The NIC at the destination sends its MAC address to the source.
d. The source sends a unique data packet to each MAC address on the
network.
13. Which of the following best describes internetworking devices?
a. Products that determine the optimal path along which network traffic
should be forwarded
b. Products that contain multiple independent, connected modules of
network equipment
c. Network connections or a junction common to two or more lines in a
network
d. Products used to connect separate networks to each other
nd
Chapter 8
Design and Documentation
Introduction
Of all the organizations mentioned here, the EIA/TIA has had the greatest impact on
networking media standards. The EIA/TIA standards were developed with the intent of
identifying minimum requirements that would support multiproduct and multivendor
environments. Moreover, these standards were developed so that they allow for
planning and installation of LAN systems without knowledge of the specific equipment
that is to be installed. Therefore, the EIA/TIA standards allow the LAN designer options
and room for expansion. Specifically, the EIA/TIA-568B standards for technical
performance of the networking media have been, and continue to be, the most widely
used. The EIA/TIA standards address six elements of cabling for LAN systems:
horizontal cabling, telecommunications closets, backbone cabling, equipment rooms,
work areas, and entrance facilities.
EIA/TIA-568B defines horizontal cabling as a networking medium that runs from the
telecommunications outlet to the horizontal cross-connect. This element includes the
networking medium that is run along a horizontal pathway, the telecommunications
outlet or connector, the mechanical terminations in the wiring closet, and the patch
cords or jumpers in the wiring closet. In short, horizontal cabling describes the
networking medium that is used in the area extending from the wiring closet to a
workstation.
After you successfully run cable in a horizontal cabling run, connections must be made
in the wiring closet. A wiring closet is a specially designed room used for wiring a data or
voice network. Because a wiring closet serves as a central junction point for the wiring
and wiring equipment that is used for connecting devices in a LAN, it is at the center
point of a star topology. Typically, the equipment found in a wiring closet can include
patch panels, wiring hubs, bridges, switches, and routers.
Generally, the wiring closet must be large enough to accommodate the equipment and
wiring located in it. Naturally, this varies with the size of the LAN and the types of
equipment required to operate it. Equipment required for some small LANs might take
up as little space as a large filing cabinet; whereas, a large LAN could require a full-
fledged computer room. Finally, the wiring closet must be large enough to accommodate
future growth.
nd
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• EIA/TIA standards govern the type of networking media that can be used in the
horizontal cabling of LANs. What type of networking media can be used with
horizontal cabling?
The TIA/EIA recommends the use of Cat 5 or 5e UTP for horizontal cabling
when an Ethernet LAN uses a simple star topology.
• Any time you install cable, it is important to document what you have done. How
would you document the kind of cable used in a network?
All cable runs should be documented on a cut sheet, usually located for
reference at the supporting IDF.
• A wiring closet is a specially designed room used for wiring a data or voice network.
What attributes are necessary for a working wiring closet?
The wiring closet must be large enough to accommodate all the equipment and
wiring that will be placed in it and account for future growth.
• The IEEE and the EIA/TIA have established standards that enable you to evaluate
whether your network is operating at an acceptable level after installation has been
completed. What are some of those standards?
EIA/TIA-568 is a standard that describes the characteristics and applications for
various grades of UTP cabling.
TIA/EIA-569 is a standard that specifies the wiring closet requirements.
• Cable testers can perform tests that measure the overall capability of a cable run.
Cable testers use a feature called wire map to indicate which wire pairs connect to
what pins on lugs and sockets. Describe how you would use a cable tester to
measure the capability of the cable run.
It is important to measure the overall length of cable runs. Distance can affect
the capability of devices on the network that share the networking media. As you
have already learned, cable that exceeds the maximum length specified by
TIA/EIA-568-A causes signal degradation. Cable testers, sometimes referred to
as time domain reflectometers (TDRs), measure the distance to open-ended, or
shorted, cable. They do it by sending an electrical pulse through the cable. The
devices then time the signal’s reflection from the end of the cable. This test is
called time domain reflectometry, and can provide distance readings that are
accurate to within 61 centimeters.
• If not properly addressed, AC power-line noise can present problems for a network.
Why does the noise cause problems for the network?
If the resulting electrical noise reaches a high enough level, it can become
difficult for NICs to discriminate the noise from the data signal. This is particularly
a problem because most LANs use frequencies in the 1–100 megahertz (MHz)
frequency region, which happens to be where FM radio signals, TV signals, and
lots of appliances have their operating frequencies as well.
nd
• The problem of sags and brownouts can best be addressed through the use of
UPSs.

Cisco Systems Networking Academy: Engineering Journal and Workbook, Volume I,
Second Edition, material for help.
Backbone The part of a network that acts as the primary path for traffic that is most
often sourced from, and destined for, other networks.
Catchment areas Zone that falls within area that can be served by an
internetworking device such as a hub.
HCC (horizontal cross-connect) Wiring closet where the horizontal cabling
connects to a patch panel that is connected by backbone cabling to the main distribution
facility.
Hierarchical star Extended star topology where a central hub is connected by
vertical cabling to other hubs that are dependent on it.
IDF (intermediate distribution facility) Secondary communications room for a
building using a star networking topology. The IDF is dependent on the MDF.
MCC (main cross-connect) Wiring closet that serves as the most central point in a
star topology and where LAN backbone cabling connects to the Internet.
MDF (main distribution facility) Primary communications room for a building.
Central point of a star networking topology where patch panels, hub, and router are
located.
Micron Unit of measure equal to one millionth of a meter or one thousandth of a
millimeter. Sometimes the symbol µ is used rather than the word micron.
Oscillation Secondary signal on top of the 60-Hz waveform. It has a magnitude that
ranges from 15 percent to 100 percent of the normal voltage carried on the power line.
Patch panel An assembly of pin locations and ports which can be mounted on a rack
or wall bracket in the wiring closet. Patch panels act like switchboards, connecting
workstation cables to each other and to the outside.
PBX (private branch exchange) Digital or analog telephone switchboard located on
the subscriber premises and used to connect private and public telephone networks.
POP (Point of Presence) Point of Presence is the point of interconnection between
the communication facilities provided by the telephone company and the building's main
distribution facility.
nd
Sag Any decrease of below 80 percent in the normal voltage carried by a power line.
A sag is sometimes referred to as a brownout.
Spike Any power impulse lasting between .5 and 100 microseconds and possessing
an amplitude over 100 percent of peak power-line voltage.
Surge Any voltage increase above 110 percent of the normal voltage carried by a
power line.
Focus Questions
1. Where is the patch panel and hub located in a star topology?
The central point is the wiring closet, where the patch panel and the hub must be
installed.
2. How much weight per square meter must the floor of the MDF be able to
bear?
If there is only one wiring closet in a building, or if the wiring closet serves as the
MDF, the floor on which it is located must be capable of bearing the load
specified by the installation instructions included with the equipment, with a
2
minimum capability of 4.8 kPA (100lb/ft ). Where the wiring closet serves as an
2
IDF, the floor must be capable of bearing a minimum load of 2.4 kPA (50lb/ft ).
3. What problem could result if the humidity level in the MDF is above 50
percent?
Relative humidity should be maintained at a level between 30 and 50 percent.

Failure to adhere to these particular specifications could result in serious
corrosion of the copper wires that are contained within the UTP and STP cable.
Such corrosion would diminish the efficient functioning of the network.
4. Why should fluorescent lighting be avoided in a wiring closet?
Lighting requirements for a telecommunications closet specify a minimum of 500

lx (brightness of light equal to 50-foot candles) and specify that light fixtures be
mounted a minimum of 2.6 meters above the floor.
5. What types of devices might be connected to a network?
Repeaters, hubs, bridges, switches, clients, servers, printers, and routers.

6. What is the difference between and MDF and an IDF?
A good way to start looking for a potential wiring closet location is to identify
secure locations that are close to the POP. The selected location can serve as
either the sole wiring closet or the MDF. The MDF acts as the central wiring
closet that will connect to all remote wiring closets (IDFs) through vertical
cabling.
nd
7. Is one wiring closet adequate for a multibuilding campus?
One wiring closet is required for each building, and each floor within that
building. If a campus environment has eight buildings, the absolute minimum
number of wiring closets would be eight.
8. What is the difference between and normal-mode problem and a common-
mode problem?
If a problem exists between the hot and neutral wire, this is referred to as a
normal-mode problem. If a situation involves either the hot or neutral wire and
the safety ground wire, it is referred to as a common-mode problem.
9. Why is a common-mode problem more serious than a normal-mode
problem?
Normal-mode problems do not ordinarily pose a hazard to you or to your

computer. This is because they are usually intercepted by a computer’s power
supply, an uninterruptible power supply, or an AC power-line filter. Common-
mode problems, on the other hand, can go directly to a computer’s chassis
without an intervening filter. Therefore, they can do more damage to data signals
than normal-mode problems.
10. What is a surge?
A surge is any voltage increase above 110 percent of the normal voltage carried
by a power line.
11. What is a sag?
A sag is any decrease of below 80 percent in the normal voltage carried by a

power line. A sag is sometimes referred to as a brownout.
12. What is a spike?
A spike is any power impulse lasting between .5 and 100 microseconds and
possessing an amplitude over 100 percent of peak power-line voltage.
nd
The following questions help you pass the CCNA exam. Answers also appear in
Networking Academy Program: First-Year Companion Guide, Second Edition.
1. Which of the following does not describe a wiring closet?
a. Room used for housing the wiring for a voice network

b. Room used for housing the wiring for a data network
c. Room at the center of a Token Ring topology
d. Room at the center point of a star topology
2. Which of the following equipment is not typically found in a wiring closet?
a. Telecommunications outlets
b. Patch panels
c. Wiring hubs
d. Routers
3. What is a wiring closet?
a. Room where electrical power enters a commercial building

b. Room used for housing the wiring for a data or voice network
c. Room at the center of a Token Ring network
d. Room where the entire power supply to a commercial building can be
controlled
4. In a large network, what is a wiring closet that other wiring closets are
dependent upon called?
a. Master wiring facility (MWF)

b. Master star topology (MST)
c. Main distribution facility (MDF)
d. Extended star topology (EST)
nd
5. What is the difference between a main distribution facility (MDF) and
intermediate distribution facility (IDF)?
a. The MDF contains the primary network server and the major network
devices; whereas, the IDFs contain only the necessary additional routers
and repeaters.
b. The MDF is on the lowest floor in a multifloor network; whereas, the IDFs
are on upper floors.
c. The MDF has all the bridges, hubs, routers, and ports needed for the
network; whereas, the IDFs hold any needed repeaters.
d. The MDF is the primary communications room and the central point in the
network; whereas, the IDFs are secondary communications rooms
dependent upon the MDF.
6. Which of the following is not a feature of a network with more than one
wiring closet?
a. Dependent star topologies

b. An MDF
c. An IDF
d. An extended star topology
7. What type of network topology usually has more than one wiring closet?
a. Token Ring
b. Extended star
c. Tree
d. Bus
8. Which of the following best describes a type of connection made at the
LAN patch panel?
a. Network device ports connect directly to patch panel pins.

b. Horizontal cabling runs connect directly to the horizontal cross-connect.
c. Horizontal cabling runs connect directly to telecommunications outlets.
d. Patch cords connect the horizontal cross-connect directly to the patch
panel.
nd
9. Which of the following is not a type of connection made at the LAN patch
panel?
a. Patch cords interconnect computers and hubs.

b. Patch cords directly connect devices to telecommunications ports.
c. Horizontal cabling runs are terminated at the patch panel.
d. Patch cords connect the horizontal cross-connect directly to the patch
panel.
nd
Chapter 9
Structured Cabling Project
Introduction
After the decision is made to network computers in a building, one of the first things you
must address is where the wiring closet will be located. To determine where the wiring
closet will be located, it will help to think of the hub as the center point of a circle with
lines of horizontal cabling radiating out from it like spokes from the center of a wheel.
Then, locate all the devices that will be connected to the network on a floor plan of the
building that is drawn approximately to scale. As you do this, remember that computers
will not be the only devices you will want to connect to the network. You also must
consider the location of printers and file servers that will be part of the network.
When you connect cable to jacks, remember to strip back only as much of the cable’s
jacket as is required to terminate the wires. The more wire that is exposed, the poorer
the connection is. This exposure results in signal loss. In addition, maintain the twists in
each pair of wires as close as possible to the point of termination. It is the twisting of the
wires that produces cancellation, which is needed to prevent radio and electromagnetic
interference. For Category 4 UTP, the maximum amount of untwisting that is allowed is
1 inch. For Category 5 UTP, the maximum amount of untwisting that is allowed is ½
inch.
If multiple cables are run over the same path, use cable ties to cinch them together.
When cable ties are needed to mount or secure cable, be sure to apply cable ties so
they can slide a little. Position ties at random intervals along the cable. Never secure the
cable ties too tightly; such tightness can damage the cable. When securing the cable
ties, try to minimize the amount of jacket twisting. If cable is twisted too much, it can
lead to torn cable jackets.
Never allow the cable to be pinched or kinked. If this occurs, data moves more slowly
and your LAN operates at less than optimal capacity.
When handling the cable, avoid stretching it. If you exceed 25 pounds of pull, wires
inside the cable can untwist. As you have learned, if wire pairs become untwisted, this
can lead to interference and crosstalk. Above all, never cut corners with cable. It is
important to leave ample slack. Remember, a few feet of extra cable is a small price to
pay to avoid having to redo a cable run because of mistakes resulting in stretched cable.
Most cable installers avoid this problem by leaving enough slack so that the cable can
reach the floor and extend another two or three feet at both ends of the cable. Other
installers follow the practice of leaving a service coil, which is nothing more than a few
extra feet of cable left coiled up inside the ceiling or in another out-of-the-way location.
Use appropriate and recommended techniques for dressing and securing the cable.
These include cable ties, cable support bars, wire management panels, and releasable
Velcro straps. Never use a staple gun to position cables. Staples can pierce the jacket,
which results in loss of connection.
nd
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• Generally speaking, the wiring closet must be large enough to accommodate the
equipment and wiring located in it. How do you determine how large the
closet should be?
TIA/EIA-568-A specifies that, in an Ethernet LAN, the horizontal cabling runs
must be attached to a central point in a star topology. The central point is the
wiring closet, where the patch panel and the hub must be installed. The wiring
closet must be large enough to accommodate all of the equipment and wiring
that will be placed in it and account for future growth. Naturally, the size of the
closet will vary with the size of the LAN and the types of equipment required to
operate it. Equipment required for some small LANs might take up as little space
as a large filing cabinet; whereas, a large LAN could require a full-fledged
computer room.
• The wiring closet must be large enough to accommodate future growth. How do
you estimate the future growth of a network?
Attempt to estimate how many future network segments and remote LAN
segments will need to be attached in the future. Is there any plan to expand into
a multiple floor building? Are there any merger or acquisitions plans for the
future?
• EIA/TIA-569 specifies that there be a minimum of one wiring closet per floor and
states that additional wiring closets should be provided for each area up to 1000
square meters when the floor area served exceeds 1000 square meters or the
horizontal cabling distance exceeds 90 meters. Hint: 1000 square meters equals
10,000 square feet; 90 meters equals approximately 300 feet.
• Anytime you install cable, it is important to document what you have done.
Therefore, as you install cable, be sure to make a cut sheet. A cut sheet is a
rough diagram that shows where cable runs are. It also indicates what the
numbers of the schoolrooms, offices, or other rooms are where the cable runs
lead to. Draw and document the cabling for a small LAN. Include three
terminals in three different rooms and provide for Internet access.
Students should sketch a small diagram using the correct symbols representing
each LAN/WAN device. Look for horizontal cabling, patch panels, keystone
jacks…
Later, you can refer to this cut sheet so that corresponding numbers can be
placed on all telecommunications outlets and at the patch panel in the wiring
closet. You can use a page in your journal to document cable runs. By placing it
in your journal, you have an additional layer of documentation for any cable
installation.
nd
• EIA/TIA-606 specifies that some kind of unique identifier must be given to each
hardware termination unit. This identifier must be marked on each termination
hardware unit or on its label. When identifiers are used at the work area, station
terminations must be labeled on the faceplate housing, or on the connector itself.
Whether they are adhesive or insertable, all labels must meet legibility,
defacement, and adhesion requirements. Label the drawing that you did
earlier in this exercise with the identifier to each hardware termination unit.
Students should now provide details to the diagram that they had sketched.
Termination endpoints include patch panels and keystone jacks.

material for help.
Algorithm Well-defined rule or process for arriving at a solution to a problem. In
networking, algorithms are commonly used to determine the best route for traffic from a
particular source to a particular destination.
Backbone The part of a network that acts as the primary path for traffic that is most
often sourced from, and destined for, other networks.
Backoff The retransmission delay enforced when a collision occurs.
Bus Common physical signal path composed of wires or other media across which
signals can be sent from one part of a computer to another. Sometimes called highway.
Bus topology Linear LAN architecture in which transmissions from network stations
propagate the length of the medium and are received by all other stations.
Catchment Zone that falls within area that can be served by an internetworking
device such as a hub.
Collision In Ethernet, the result of two nodes transmitting simultaneously. The
frames from each device impact and are damaged when they meet on the physical
media.
Collision domain In Ethernet, the network area within which frames that have
collided are propagated. Repeaters and hubs propagate collisions; LAN switches,
bridges, and routers do not.
Cut sheet A rough diagram indicating where cable runs are located and the numbers
of rooms they lead to.
EIA-TIA-606 Administration standard for the telecommunications infrastructure of
commercial buildings. It includes the following administration areas: terminations, media,
pathways, spaces, and bounding and grounding.
Fish tape Retractable coil of steel tape used to guide cable through a wall from
above or below.
Gutter Type of wall-mounted channel with removable cover used to support
horizontal cabling. Gutter is big enough to hold several cables.
nd
Hammer drill Tool resembling an oversized electric drill used for drilling into
masonry. As it turns the bit, it hammers rapidly.
HCC (horizontal cross-connect) Wiring closet where the horizontal cabling
connects to a patch panel which is connected by backbone cabling to the main
Hierarchical star topology Extended star topology where a central hub is connected
by vertical cabling to other hubs that are dependent on it.
Highway Common physical signal path composed of wires or other media across
which signals can be sent from one part of a computer to another. See Bus.
ICC IDF that connects the horizontal cross-connect to the main cross-connect.
IDF (intermediate distribution facility) Secondary communications room for a
building using a star networking topology. The IDF is dependent on the MDF.
MCC (main cross-connect) Wiring closet that serves as the most central point in a
star topology and where LAN backbone cabling connects to the Internet.
MDF (main distribution facility) Primary communications room for a building.
Central point of a star networking topology where patch panels, hub, and router are
located.
Noise Undesirable communications channel signals.
Patch panels An assembly of pin locations and ports that can be mounted on a rack
or wall bracket in the wiring closet. Patch panels act like switchboards, connecting
workstations cables to each other and to the outside.
Pin locations A color-coded slot on a patch panel. Cable wires are punched down
using a punch tool to make an electrical connection that allows the network to function.
POP (Point of Presence) Point of Presence is the point of interconnection between
the communication facilities provided by the telephone company and the building's main
Ports 1) Interface on an internetworking device (such as a router). 2) In IP
terminology, an upper-layer process that is receiving information from lower layers. 3)
To rewrite software or microcode so that it will run on a different hardware platform or in
a different software environment than that for which it was originally designed. 4) A
female plug on a patch panel that accepts the same size plug as an RJ-45 jack. Patch
cords are used in these ports to cross connect computers wired to the patch panel. This
cross connection allows the LAN to function.
Pull string Strong, heavy string used to pull cable in multiple runs.
Punch-down tool Spring-loaded tool used for cutting and connecting wire in a jack or
on a patch panel.
Raceway Wall-mounted channel with a removable cover used to support horizontal
cabling.
RJ connector (registered jack connector) Standard connectors originally used to
connect telephone lines. RJ connectors are now used for telephone connections and for
10BaseT and other types of network connections. RJ-11, RJ-12, and RJ-45 are popular
types of RJ connectors.
nd
Signal injector Device used to measure attenuation of a signal on a network.
Star topology LAN topology in which endpoints on a network are connected to a
common central switch by point-to-point links. A ring topology that is organized as a star
implements a unidirectional closed-loop star, rather than point-to-point links.
Telepole Telescoping pole with a hook at one end. It is used to get cable across a
ceiling or attic quickly.
Tie wraps Plastic ties used for holding cables together or for holding cables in place.
Wire maps Feature provided by most cable testers. Used to test twisted-pair cable
installations, it shows which wire pairs connect to what pins on the plugs and sockets.
Focus Questions
1. Where are patch cables plugged into?
Patch cords connect to patch panel ports, making it possible to interconnect

computers and other network devices (such as hubs, repeaters, and routers).
2. Think about the cabling in this building. What factors would the person
laying cable have to keep in mind? How would someone keep track of all
the cables?
The cable installer needs to pay attention to safety standards, sources of

potential noise (motors, light fixtures, and so on), and general wiring standards
identified by TIA/EIA. Whenever you install cable, it is important that you
document your actions. You can do this by using a cut sheet as you install the
cable. A cut sheet is a rough diagram that shows the locations of the cable runs.
It also indicates the numbers of the classrooms, offices, or other rooms to which
the cables have been run.
3. How do you determine whether cable has been properly installed?
The IEEE and the TIA/EIA have established standards that enable you to test
whether your network is operating at an acceptable level. If your network passes
this test and is certified as meeting the standards, you can use this
measurement as an established baseline. The baseline is a record of your
network’s starting point or newly installed performance capabilities.
4. What do you call an assembly of pin locations and ports that can be
mounted on a rack?
A patch panel. Found in both the MDF and IDF.
nd
5. What type of vertical cabling connects the central hub to other hubs in a
hierarchical star topology?
Vertical cabling usually consists of single or multimode fiber. If the central hub
and other hubs are within 90 meters and on the same floor and earth ground,
then Cat 5 or Cat 5e is also a suitable choice.
6. What type of tool is used to measure attenuation of a signal on a network?
A cable tester can measure the reduction in power of a signal received from a
device known as a signal injector, a small box approximately the size of a deck
of playing cards that is attached to the far end of a cable. Cable testers generally
measure attenuation at several frequencies.
nd
Edition.
1. Which of the following statements best describes the EIA/TIA-569
specification for wiring closets?
a. There should be a minimum of one wiring closet for every floor of a

building.
b. There should be a maximum of one wiring closet for every floor of a
building.
c. There should be a minimum of two wiring closets for every floor of a
building.
d. There should be a maximum of two wiring closets for every floor of a
building.
2. Which of the following best describes the EIA/TIA-569 standard for
additional wiring closets?
a. Additional wiring closets should be provided for each area up to 90

square meters when the floor area served exceeds 90 square meters or
the horizontal cabling distance exceeds 90 meters.
b. Additional wiring closets should be provided for each area up to 100
square meters when the floor area served exceeds 100 square meters or
the horizontal cabling distance exceeds 9 meters.
c. Additional wiring closets should be provided for each area up to 1000
square meters when the floor area served exceeds 1000 square meters
or the horizontal cabling distance exceeds 30 meters.
d. Additional wiring closets should be provided for each area up to 1000
square meters when the floor area served exceeds 1000 square meters
or the horizontal cabling distance exceeds 90 meters.
3. If Acme Inc. occupies 3500 square meters on the second floor of a
building, how many wiring closets should be installed according to EIA/TIA
569?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
nd
4. If Acme Inc. occupies the first three floors of a building and each floor is
1500 square meters, how many wiring closets should be installed
according to EIA/TIA 569?
a. One
b. Three
c. Six
d. Nine
5. Which of the following is not a specification for walls, floors, and ceilings
of a wiring closet?
a. A minimum of 15 feet of wall space should be provided for terminations

and related equipment for the POP.
b. Rooms selected for wiring closets should have a dropped or false ceiling
for easy access.
c. Interior walls on which equipment is to be mounted should be covered
with ¾" plywood that is raised away from the underlying wall a minimum
of 1 ¾".
d. Floor coverings should be tile or other type of finished surface to help
control dust.
6. What is a Point of Presence (POP)?
a. The point where the horizontal cabling connects to the backbone

b. The point where the electrical power lines enter the building
c. The point where the telephone company’s equipment and the building’s
main distribution facility connect
d. The point where the network and the electrical system of the building
connect
7. Why should wiring closets not have a dropped or false ceiling?
a. The minimum ceiling height specified by EIA/TIA-569 cannot be met in

most rooms with most dropped or false ceilings.
b. The temperature and humidity cannot be adequately controlled.
c. Dust from the ceiling materials poses a problem for long-term equipment
maintenance.
d. Access is not controlled because people can get into the room through
the ceiling.
nd
8. What kind of floor should the wiring room have?
a. Tile or other finished surface

b. Carpet
c. Unfinished stone
d. Electronics grade carpet
9. What is the minimum and maximum relative humidity level that should be
maintained for rooms serving as wiring closets?
a. Between 10 percent and 50 percent

b. Between 20 percent and 70 percent
c. Between 30 percent and 50 percent
d. Between 30 percent and 70 percent
10. What should the approximate temperature in a wiring closet be when all
LAN equipment is fully functioning?
a. 60 degrees Fahrenheit
b. 65 degrees Fahrenheit
c. 70 degrees Fahrenheit
d. 75 degrees Fahrenheit
11. Which of the following is not a requirement for lighting fixtures or power
outlets in a wiring closet?
a. Fluorescent lighting is recommended to avoid outside interference.

b. A wall switch to turn room lighting on and off should be located
immediately inside the door.
c. At least one duplex power outlet should be located every 1.8 meters or 10
feet along each wall in a main distribution facility.
d. At least two duplex power outlets should be located along each wall if the
wiring closet is to serve as an intermediate distribution facility.
12. Why should fluorescent light fixtures be avoided in wiring closets?
a. They provide false color lighting, which can lead to mistakes in making
connections.
b. They generate outside electrical interference.
c. They can degrade some plastic materials used in network equipment.
d. There often is insufficient room in a wiring closet to change out the
fluorescent bulbs easily and safely.
nd
13. Which of the following is not a requirement for room and equipment
access in a wiring closet?
a. The door should be at least three feet wide and should swing open out of
the room to ensure easy access to the room for workers and equipment.
b. The wiring closet should lock from an outside access in such a way that
exiting from the room is always possible.
c. Wiring hubs and patch panels may be wall-mounted using hinged wall
brackets that are attached to the plywood covering the underlying wall
surface.
d. When a distribution rack is used to mount patch panels and wiring hubs,
the minimum distance for the rack from the wall should be six inches.
14. Which of the following is not a wiring closet specification for cable access
and support?
a. Access to the wiring closet for all horizontal cabling coming from the work
areas should be via a raised floor.
b. All cable leaving the room to intermediate distribution facilities and
computer and communications rooms located on other floors of a building
should be via four-inch conduits or sleeved cores.
c. One excess sleeved core or conduit should be provided in each wiring
closet to provide for future anticipated growth.
d. Any wall or ceiling openings provided for conduits or sleeved cores must
be sealed with smoke and flame retardant materials.
15. What is the first step in locating a wiring closet for a network?
a. Identify the number of computers that will be part of the network.

b. Identify the number of printers and file servers that will be part of the
network.
c. Identify all devices that will be connected to the network on a floor plan.
d. Identify the topological requirements of devices that will be in the
network.
16. Which of the following would not be considered when selecting a potential
location for a wiring closet?
a. Identify a secure location close to the POP.

b. Determine the exact number of wiring closets needed for the network.
c. Determine the location of the building’s communication facilities.
d. Make an initial selection of potential locations based on EIA/TIA-569
specifications.
nd
17. What is the name for the most centrally located wiring closet in a LAN with
an extended star typology?
a. Catchment area
b. Main distribution facility
c. Intermediate distribution facility
d. Repeated distribution facility
18. Where should the main distribution facility (MDF) be located if a LAN with
an extended star topology is used in a multistory building?
a. Next to the POP

b. On the first floor
c. On one of the middle floors
d. In the basement
19. Where should a repeater be located in a LAN with an extended star
topology?
a. Catchment area
b. Main distribution facility
c. Intermediate distribution facility
d. Repeated distribution facility
20. What network device is used in an extended star topology when the
catchment area of one wiring closet is not enough?
a. Repeater
b. Backoff
c. Terminator
d. Suppressor
21. What type of cabling provides interconnections between wiring closets
and the POP, and between buildings that are part of the same LAN?
a. Token Ring cabling

b. Backbone cabling
c. Coaxial cabling
d. Horizontal cabling
nd
22. What type of cabling is used to connect the POP to the MDF when an
Ethernet LAN is in a multistory building?
a. Backbone cabling
b. Coaxial cabling
c. Horizontal cabling
d. Token Ring cabling
23. What type of cabling is used to connect an MDF to IDFs when an Ethernet
LAN is in a multistory building?
a. Token Ring cabling

b. Backbone cabling
c. Coaxial cabling
d. Horizontal cabling
24. What type of cabling is used to connect IDFs on each floor to the various
work areas when an Ethernet LAN is in a multistory building?
a. Backbone cabling
b. Coaxial cabling
c. Horizontal cabling
d. Token Ring cabling
25. Which type of networking media is installed most often for backbone
cabling?
a. 100-ohm unshielded twisted-pair cable

b. 150-ohm shielded twisted-pair cable
c. 62.5/125-micron fiber-optic cable
d. 50-ohm coaxial cable
26. Which of the following types of networking media is not recommended for
backbone cabling?
a. 100-ohm unshielded twisted-pair cable

b. 150-ohm shielded twisted-pair cable
c. 62.5/125-micron fiber-optic cable
d. 50-ohm coaxial cable
nd
27. What kind of connection is used in a wiring closet where the horizontal
cabling connects to a patch panel that is connected by backbone cabling
to the main distribution facility?
a. Horizontal cross-connect
b. Vertical cross-connect
c. Intermediate cross-connect
d. Main cross-connect
28. What kind of connection is used in a wiring closet that serves as the most
central point in a star topology and where LAN backbone cabling connects
to the Internet?
29. What kind of connection is used in an IDF that connects the horizontal
cross-connect to the main cross-connect?
30. What is the maximum distance for backbone cabling if single-mode, fiber-
optic cable is used to connect the horizontal cross-connect to the main
cross-connect?
a. 500 meters
b. 1000 meters
c. 2500 meters
d. 3000 meters
optic cable is used to connect the intermediate cross-connect to the main
cross-connect?
a. 500 meters
b. 1000 meters
c. 2500 meters
d. 3000 meters
nd
optic cable is used to connect the horizontal cross-connect to the
intermediate cross-connect?
a. 500 meters
b. 1000 meters
c. 2500 meters
d. 3000 meters
nd
Chapter 10
Layer 3: Routing and Addressing
Introduction
The network layer interfaces to networks and provides the best end-to-end packet
delivery services to its user, the transport layer. The network layer sends packets from
the source network to the destination network.
Routers are devices that implement the network service. They provide interfaces for a
wide range of links and subnetworks at a wide range of speeds. Routers are active and
intelligent network nodes and thus can participate in managing the network. Routers
manage networks by providing dynamic control over resources and supporting the tasks
and goals for networks: connectivity, reliable performance, management control, and
flexibility.
In addition to the basic switching and routing functions, routers have implemented a
variety of value-added features that help to improve the cost-effectiveness of the
network. These features include sequencing traffic based on priority and traffic filtering.
Typically, routers are required to support multiprotocol stacks, each with its own routing
protocols, and to allow these different environments to operate in parallel. In practice,
routers also incorporate bridging functions and can serve as a limited form of hub.
IP addressing makes it possible for data passing over the network media of the Internet
to find its destination. Because each IP address is a 32-bit value, there are four billion
different IP address possibilities. IP addresses are hierarchical addresses, like phone
numbers and zip codes. They provide a better way to organize computer addresses
than MAC addresses, which are flat addresses (like social security numbers). IP
addresses can be set in software and are therefore flexible. MAC addresses are burned
into hardware. Both addressing schemes are important for efficient communications
between computers.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• Path determination occurs at the network layer. Routers are another type of
internetworking device. These devices pass data packets between networks
based on network protocol or Layer 3 information. Explain how this process
works.
Routers use logical addressing to made routing decisions. When a packet is
received by a router, it pulls of Layer 2 frame encapsulation and analyses the
Layer 3 header. It uses this destination address along with its routing table to
determine the best path and ultimately the next hop.
nd
• Routers have the capability to make intelligent decisions as to the best path for
delivery of data on the network. What criteria do they use to make these
decisions?
Routers share information with other routers, educating one another about
known networks within the internetwork. The router uses this table, almost like a
network roadmap. When requested to forward a packet, the router refers to this
map/table and forwards the packet to the next appropriate interface and
neighbor.
• IP addresses are 32-bit values written as four octets separated with periods. To
make them easier to remember, IP addresses are usually written in dotted
notation using decimal numbers. IP addresses are used to identify a machine on
a network and the network to which it is attached. What do each of the
numbers mean?
Dotted-decimal notation allows for easier identification of the IP address. Each
decimal number (octet) represents 8 individual bits. Those bits are used to
represent either the host or network portion of this unique address. The subnet
mask actually indicates whether the bit is representative of the host or network.
Hexadecimal is a Base 16 numbering system that is used to represent MAC addresses.
It is referred to as Base 16 because it uses 16 symbols; combinations of these symbols
can then represent all possible numbers. Because only 10 symbols represent digits (0,
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9), and Base 16 requires 6 more symbols, the extra symbols are the
letters A, B, C, D, E, and F.
The position of each symbol, or digit, in a hex number represents the base number 16
raised to a power, or exponent, based on its position. Moving from right to left, the first
0 1
position represents 16 , or 1; the second position represents 16 , or 16; the third
2
position, 16 , or 256; and so on.
Example:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
0123456789A BCDE F
3 2 1 0
4F6A = (4 x 16 ) + (F[15] x 16 ) + (6 x 16 ) + (A[10] x 16 )
Convert Decimal to Hex
Converting from decimal to binary is done with a procedure called the remainder
method. This method uses successive divisions of the base number of the system. You
can use the same method to convert decimal into hex, or Base 16.
Example:
24,032 / 16 = 16 into 24,032 is 1502, with a remainder of 0
1502 / 16 = 16 into 1502 is 93, with a remainder of 14, or E
93 / 16 = 16 into 93 is 5, with a remainder of 13, or D
13 / 16 = 16 into 13 is 0, with a remainder of 3
Collecting all the remainders backward returns the hex number 3DE0.
nd
Convert These Decimal Numbers to Binary:
32,014 Hex number = 7D0E

56,432 Hex number = DC70
57,845 Hex number = E1F5
98,764 Hex number = 181CC
54,462 Hex number = D4BE
Convert Hex to Decimal
Convert hexadecimal numbers to decimal numbers by multiplying the hex digits by the
base number of the system, in this case, Base 16, raised to the exponent of the
position.
Example:
Convert the hex number 3F4B to decimal. (Work from right to left.)
3
B x 16 = 12,288
2
F(15) x 16 = 3840
1
4 x 16 = 64
0
B(11) x 16 = 11
16,203 = Decimal equivalent
Convert These Hex Numbers to Decimal:
23F6 Decimal = 9206

6AB7 Decimal = 27,319
5FE3 Decimal = 24,547
87CE Decimal = 34,766
59AC Decimal = 22,956
nd
material for help.
Segment 1) Section of a network that is bounded by bridges, routers, or switches. 2)
In a LAN using a bus topology, a segment is a continuous electrical circuit that is often
connected to other such segments with repeaters. 3) Term used in the TCP
specification to describe a single transport layer unit of information.
Internet service providers (ISPs) Companies that offer services that tie together
multiple network segments.
Address Data structure or logical convention used to identify a unique entity, such as
a particular process or network device.
IP (Internet Protocol) Network layer protocol in the TCP/IP stack offering a
connectionless internetwork service. IP provides features for addressing, type-of-service
specification, fragmentation and reassembly, and security. Documented in RFC 791.
Broadcast address Special address reserved for sending a message to all stations.
Generally, a broadcast address is a MAC destination address of all 1s.
Subnetwork In IP networks, a network sharing a particular subnet address.
Subnetworks are networks arbitrarily segmented by a network administrator to provide a
multilevel, hierarchical routing structure while shielding the subnetwork from the
addressing complexity of attached networks. Sometimes called a subnet.
Subnet mask A 32-bit address mask used in IP to indicate the bits of an IP address
that are being used for the subnet address. Sometimes referred to simply as mask.
Focus Questions
1. What type of addressing scheme does the network layer address use?
Logical addressing occurs at the network layer. The network layer address has
both network and host representation; because of this, Layer 3 addresses are
said to be hierarchical.
2. The Internet is a collection of network segments that are tied together to
facilitate the sharing of information. What specific internetworking device
that operates at Layer 3 interconnects networks?
Routers allow for the interconnection of several unique segments.
nd
3. What type of determination is the process the router uses to choose a
course for the packet to travel to its destination?
Path determination is the process that a router uses to choose the next hop in a
path toward a packet’s ultimate destination.
4. At what layer does addressing occur?
A network address helps the router identify a path within the network cloud. The
router uses the network address to identify the destination network of a packet
within an internetwork. In addition to the network address, network protocols use
some form of host, or node, address. For some network layer protocols, a
network administrator assigns host addresses according to some predetermined
network addressing plan.
5. When a computer is moved to a different network, what type of address
remains the same and what type of address must be reassigned?
When you physically move a computer to a different network, the computer

maintains the same MAC address, but you must assign it a new network layer
address.
6. What is the difference between a flat addressing scheme and a hierarchical
addressing scheme?
Protocols that support the network layer use a hierarchical addressing scheme
that allows for unique addresses across network boundaries, along with a
method for finding a path for data to travel between networks. MAC addresses
use a flat addressing scheme that makes it difficult to locate devices on other
networks. Hierarchical addressing, on the other hand, not only enables
information flow through an internetwork, but it also provides an efficient means
of doing so.
Flat addressing does not allow for the grouping of multiple devices based upon
some common characteristic, such as department, floor, company, city, and so
on.
7. In the IP header, what information does the “total length” contain?
Specifies the length of the entire IP packet, including data and header, in two
bytes (16 bits).
8. What three pieces of information does the subnet mask give to network
devices?
The subnet mask allows the host to identify the size of the network on which it is
participating. The subnet mask also allows for the identification of a network
address (all 0s in the Host field) and the identification of the broadcast address
(all 1s in the Host field).
9. How many hosts can be assigned to a Class C network?
A Class C network contains 256 host addresses. The first (.0) and the last (.255)
are reserved, leaving 254 host IP addresses available for assignment.
nd
Edition.
1. Which layer of the OSI model uses the Internet Protocol addressing
scheme to determine the best way to move data from one place to
another?
a. Physical layer
b. Data link layer
c. Network layer
d. Transport layer
2. What function allows routers to evaluate available routes to a destination
and to establish the preferred handling of a packet?
a. Data linkage
b. Path determination
c. SDLC interface protocol
d. Frame Relay
3. IP addresses are necessary for which of the following reasons?
a. To identify a machine on a network and the network to which it is

attached
b. To identify a machine on a network
c. To identify the network
d. To keep track of whom is on a network
4. Which of the following best describes a network address on the Internet?
a. All four octets in the address are different.

b. Each address is unique.
c. The first three octets can be the same, but the last one must be different.
d. Two of the four octets can be the same, but the other two have to be
different.
5. Who assigns the network portion of every IP address?
a. The local network administrator

b. The person who owns the computer
c. The Network Information Center
d. The host network administrator
nd
6. The network number plays what part in an IP address?
a. Specifies the network to which the host belongs

b. Specifies the identity of the computer on the network
c. Specifies which node on the subnetwork is being addressed
d. Specifies which networks the device can communicate with
7. The host number plays what part in an IP address?
a. Designates the identity of the computer on the network

b. Designates which node on the subnetwork is being addressed
c. Designates the network to which the host belongs
d. Designates which hosts the device can communicate with
8. A Class A address is given to what sort of organization?
a. An individual
b. A medium-size company
c. A large corporation
d. A government
9. In a Class A address, how many of the octets are assigned by InterNIC?
a. The first octet is assigned by NIC.

b. The first and second octet are assigned by NIC.
c. The first, second, and third octets are assigned by NIC.
d. All the octets are assigned by InterNIC.
10. In a Class A address, the value of the first octet can equal which of the
following?
a. The value of first octet is 0 through 127.

b. The value of first octet is 128 through 191.
c. The value of first octet is 192 through 223.
d. The value of first octet is 192 through 255.
11. A Class B address is given to what sort of organization?
a. An individual
c. A large corporation
d. A government
nd
12. In a Class B address, how many of the octets are assigned locally?
a. The first octet is assigned locally.

b. The second octet is assigned locally.
c. The second and third octets are assigned locally.
d. The third and fourth octets are assigned locally.
13. The following address is of which class? 129.21.89.76
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Address not valid
14. A Class C address is given to what sort of organization
a. An individual
c. A huge corporation
d. A government
e. This address space was intended to support a small network.
15. Which of the following addresses is a Class C address?
a. 129.219.95.193
b. 209.101.218.30
c. 151.13.27.38
d. 192.119.15.17
nd
Chapter 11
Layer 3: Protocols
Introduction
Protocols determine whether data is passed beyond the network layer to higher levels of
the OSI model. Basically, for this to occur, the data packet must contain both a
destination MAC address and a destination IP address. If it lacks one or the other, the
data does not pass to the upper levels. In this way, MAC addresses and IP addresses
act as a sort of “check and balance” for each other.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• If the destination is to retain the data and pass it along to the upper layers of the
OSI model, the source must use both a destination MAC address and a
destination IP address. Therefore, the device initiates a process called an ARP
request that is designed to help it discover what the destination MAC address is.
How does the device know to initiate the ARP request?
Whenever a network device wants to send data across a network, it uses
information provided by its ARP table. If it is cannot locate a MAC address for
the destination IP address in its ARP table, the host initiates a process called an
ARP request.
• The protocol that a device uses when it does not know its own IP address is the
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP). Like ARP, RARP binds MAC
addresses to IP addresses so that network devices can use them to encapsulate
data before sending it out on the network. Can you explain how this works?
RARP binds MAC addresses to IP addresses. This binding allows network
devices to encapsulate data before sending them out on the network. A network
device, such as a diskless workstation, might know its MAC address but not its
IP address. Devices using RARP require that a RARP server be present on the
network to answer RARP requests.

material for help.
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) Internet protocol used to map an IP address to
a MAC address. Defined in RFC 826. Compare with RARP. See also proxy ARP.
nd
BOOTP Protocol used by a network node to determine the IP address of its Ethernet
interfaces, in order to affect network booting.
Connection oriented Term used to describe data transfer that requires the
establishment of a virtual circuit. See also connectionless. See also virtual circuit.
Connectionless Term used to describe data transfer without the existence of a
virtual circuit. Compare with connection oriented. See also virtual circuit.
Datagram routing Logical grouping of information sent as a network layer unit over a
transmission medium without prior establishment of a virtual circuit. IP datagrams are
the primary information units in the Internet. The terms cell, frame, message, packet,
and segment are also used to describe logical information groupings at various layers of
the OSI reference model and in various technology circles.
Dynamic address resolution Use of an address resolution protocol to determine
and store address information on demand
Enhanced IGRP (EIGRP) Advanced version of IGRP developed by Cisco. Provides
superior convergence properties and operating efficiency, and combines the advantages
of link-state protocols with those of distance-vector protocols. Compare with IGRP. See
also IGP, OSPF, and RIP.
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) Network layer Internet protocol that
reports errors and provides other information relevant to IP packet processing.
Documented in RFC 792.
IP (Internet Protocol) Network layer protocol in the TCP/IP stack offering a
connectionless internetwork service. IP provides features for addressing, type-of-service
specification, fragmentation and reassembly, and security. Documented in RFC 791.
IP address 1) A 32-bit address assigned to hosts using TCP/IP. An IP address
belongs to one of five classes (A, B, C, D, or E) and is written as 4 octets separated with
periods (dotted-decimal format). Each address consists of a network number, an
optional subnetwork number, and a host number. The network and subnetwork numbers
together are used for routing; whereas, the host number is used to address an individual
host within the network or subnetwork. A subnet mask is used to extract network and
subnetwork information from the IP address. Also called an Internet address. 2)
Command used to establish the logical network address of this interface. See also IP
and subnet mask.
RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) Protocol in the TCP/IP stack that
provides a method for finding IP addresses based on MAC addresses. Compare with
ARP.
Routed protocol Protocol that can be routed by a router. A router must be able to
interpret the logical internetwork as specified by that routed protocol. Examples of
routed protocols include AppleTalk, DECnet, and IP.
(although this definition of gateway is becoming increasingly outdated). Compare with
gateway.
nd
Routing protocol Protocol that accomplishes routing through the implementation of
a specific routing algorithm. Examples of routing protocols include IGRP, OSPF, and
RIP.
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) Connection-oriented transport layer protocol
that provides reliable full-duplex data transmission. TCP is part of the TCP/IP protocol
stack.
TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) Common name for the
suite of protocols developed by the U.S. Department of Defense in the 1970s to support
the construction of worldwide internetworks. TCP and IP are the two best-known
protocols in the suite. See also IP and TCP.
Focus Questions
1. What are the two addressing schemes in networking?
In networking there are two addressing schemes: One uses the MAC address, a
data link or Layer 2 address; the other uses an address located at the network
layer, or Layer 3 of the OSI model.
2. When making forwarding decisions, what type of addresses do routers
use?
Routers use a Layer 3 addressing scheme make forwarding decisions. They use
IP or logical addresses rather than MAC addresses.
3. A router’s attachment to a network is called an interface, which can also be
referred to as what?
A router’s attachment to a network is called an interface; it also may be referred

to as a port. In IP routing, each interface must have a separate, unique network
(or subnetwork) address.
4. What protocol does a device use to obtain an IP address when it starts up?
A device uses BOOTstrap Protocol, when it starts up, to obtain an IP address.

BOOTP uses UDP to carry messages; the UDP message is encapsulated in an
IP datagram.
5. When devices communicate, what suite is used to automatically detect the
MAC address?
For devices to communicate, the sending devices need both the IP addresses
and the MAC addresses of the destination devices. When they try to
communicate with devices whose IP addresses they know, they must determine
the MAC addresses. The TCP/IP suite has a protocol that can automatically
detect the MAC address (ARP). ARP enables a computer to find the MAC
address of the computer that is associated with an IP address.
nd
6. When a router receives a frame, what happens to the frame header and the
IP header?
At the data link layer, an IP datagram is encapsulated into a frame. The

datagram, including the IP header, is treated as data. A router receives the
frame, strips off the frame header, and then checks the destination IP address in
the IP header.
7. Do most network services use connectionless or connection-oriented
delivery systems?
Most network services use a connectionless delivery system. They treat each
packet separately, and send it on its way through the network. The packets may
take different paths to get through the network, but are reassembled when they
arrive at the destination. In a connectionless system, the destination is not
contacted before a packet is sent.
In connection-oriented systems, a connection is established between the sender
and the recipient before any data is transferred. An example of a connection-
oriented network is the telephone system. A call is placed, a connection is
established, and then communication occurs.
8. What is the difference between EIGRP and IGRP?
EIGRP is an advanced version of IGRP. Specifically, EIGRP provides superior

operating efficiency and combines the advantages of link-state protocols with
those of distance-vector protocols.
When a source resides on a network that has a different network number than
that of the desired destination, and when it does not know the MAC address of
the destination, it must use the services of a router, for its data to reach the
destination. A router that is used for this purpose is called a default gateway.
9. What is the most common method to transfer routing protocols between
routers on the same network?
The most common method, within a network, to transfer routing information

between routers that are located on the same network, is RIP.
nd
Networking Academy Program: Engineering Journal and Workbook, Volume I , Second
Edition.
1. What is the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
a. Network protocol used to resolve device conflicts

b. Internet protocol used to map an IP address to a MAC address
c. Network protocol used to identify the location of unauthorized users
d. Internet protocol used to uniquely identify a user on a specific network
2. What must a data packet contain to be passed from the network layer to
upper levels of the OSI model?
a. A destination MAC address and a source IP address

b. A destination MAC address and a destination IP address
c. A destination IP address or a source MAC address
d. Either a destination IP address or a destination MAC address
3. What happens if a data packet lacks a destination IP?
a. The data packet is sent to the RARP server that traces the data packet
back to its source.
b. The MAC address takes priority and the data packet is passed up to the
next network layer.
c. The ARP tables will be consulted to resolve any conflict.
d. Data packets will not be passed to the next higher network layer.
4. What happens if a data packet lacks a MAC address?
a. The data packet is sent to the RARP server that traces the data packet
back to its source.
b. The IP address takes priority and the data packet is passed up to the
next higher network layer.
c. The ARP tables will be consulted to resolve any conflict.
d. Data packets will not be passed to the next higher network layer.
nd
5. What happens if the ARP table maps the destination IP address to the
destination MAC address?
a. The data packet is sent to the RARP server.

b. The source broadcasts the IP address to all devices.
c. The IP address is bound with the MAC address.
d. The network traffic is reduced and response times decreased.
6. What initiates an ARP request?
a. A device is unable to locate the destination IP address in its ARP table.

b. The RARP server in response to a malfunctioning device.
c. A diskless workstation with an empty cache.
d. A device is unable to locate the destination MAC address in its ARP
table.
7. What happens if a device is unable to locate the destination MAC address
in its ARP table?
a. An ARP request is sent.

b. The RARP server is consulted.
c. The destination IP address is used instead.
d. A data packet is sent to the dummy terminal.
8. What is a header?
a. IP address of the source device placed at the beginning of the data

packet
b. Route the data packet takes through the network when it follows a
predetermined path
c. Control information placed before data when encapsulating that data for
network transmission
d. Protocol to convert information from one stack to another at the
application layer
9. What is a frame?
a. Logical grouping of information sent as a data link layer unit over a

transmission medium
b. Location where ARP tables are stored on a device
c. Data packet sent to a diskless workstation
d. Destination MAC and IP address bound together as a data packet
nd
10. What are the header and trailer referred to as?
a. Frame
b. ARP reply
c. IP address
d. RARP reply
11. Which best describes the function of a frame?
a. Binding of MAC and IP addresses

b. Used for synchronization and error control
c. Querying of all devices on the network
d. Consulting the ARP tables to look up addresses
12. What is used for synchronization and error control?
a. Trailer
b. Header
c. Frame
d. Protocol
13. Which best describes the structure of the ARP request frame?
a. MAC and IP address

b. Destination IP address and source IP address
c. Frame header and ARP message
d. Addresses and trailer
14. What are the two parts of the frame header called?
a. MAC header and IP header

b. Source address and ARP message
c. Destination address and RARP message
d. Request and data packet
15. Which best describes RARP?
a. Finds MAC addresses based on IP addresses

b. Calculates of shortest route between source and destination
c. Finds IP addresses based on MAC addresses
d. Reduces network traffic by maintaining constant contact with all network
devices
nd
16. Why is a RARP request made?
a. A source knows its MAC address but not its IP address.

b. The data packet needs to find the shortest route between destination and
source.
c. The administrator needs to manually configure the system.
d. A link in the network faults and a redundant system must be activated.
17. Which of the following devices build ARP tables?
a. Hubs
b. Routers
c. Data links
d. Encoders
18. Which best defines a gateway?
a. A network device that has an IP address and maintains ARP tables

b. A device that connects one network to another network
c. A device that performs an application layer conversion of information
from one stack to another
d. A device that cleans and amplifies signals
nd
Chapter 12
Layer 4: The Transport Layer
Introduction
Services located in the transport layer, which is Layer 4 of the OSI reference model,
enable users to segment several upper-layer applications onto the same Layer 4 data
stream. These services also allow for the reassembly of the same upper-layer
application segments at the receiving end.
The Layer 4 data stream provides transport services from the host to the destination.
Services such as these are sometimes referred to as end-to-end services. The Layer 4
data stream is a logical connection between the endpoints of a network.
As the transport layer sends its data segments, it can also ensure the integrity of the
data. One method of doing this is called flow control. Flow control avoids the problem of
a host at one side of the connection overflowing the buffers in the host at the other side.
Overflows can present serious problems because they can result in data loss.
Transport-layer services also allow users to request reliable data transport between
hosts and destinations. To obtain such reliable transport of data, a connection-oriented
relationship is used between the communicating end systems. Reliable transport can
accomplish the following:
• It ensures that segments delivered will be acknowledged back to the sender.
• It provides for retransmission of any segments that are not acknowledged.
• It puts segments back into their correct sequence at the destination.
• It provides congestion avoidance and control.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• For data transfer to begin, both the sending and receiving application programs
inform their respective operating systems that a connection will be initiated. How is
this accomplished?
One user of the transport layer must establish a connection-oriented session with its
peer system. For data transfer to begin, both the sending and the receiving
applications inform their respective operating systems that a connection will be
initiated. One machine initiates a connection that must be accepted by the other.
Protocol software modules in the two operating systems communicate by sending
messages across the network to verify that the transfer is authorized and that both
sides are ready.
nd
• In concept, one machine places a call that must be accepted by the other. If the
receiving machine does not accept the call, what happens?
If the receiving machine does not accept the call, a session is not established.
The transport of data will not be allowed to be attempted.
• Protocol software modules in the two operating systems communicate by
sending messages. Messages are sent across the network to verify that the
transfer is authorized and that both sides are ready. How is this
accomplished?
Protocol software modules in the two operating systems communicate by
sending messages across the network to verify that the transfer is authorized
and that both sides are ready.
After all synchronization has occurred, a connection is said to be established and
the transfer of data begins. During transfer, the two machines continue to
communicate with their protocol software to verify that data is received correctly.
• After all synchronization occurs, a connection is established, and data transfer
begins. How do both machines know that the data is flowing correctly?
If the sender must wait for an acknowledgment after sending each segment,
throughput is low. Therefore, most connection-oriented, reliable protocols allow
more than one frame or segment to be outstanding at a time. Because time is
available after the sender finishes transmitting the data packet and before the
sender finishes processing any received acknowledgment, the interval is used
for transmitting more data.

material for help.
Best-effort delivery Describes a network system that does not use a sophisticated
acknowledgment system to guarantee reliable delivery of information.
ES (end system) 1) Generally, an end-user device on a network. 2) Nonrouting host
or node in an OSI network.
Flow control Technique for ensuring that a transmitting entity, such as a modem,
does not overwhelm a receiving entity with data. When the buffers on the receiving
device are full, a message is sent to the sending device to suspend the transmission
until the data in the buffers has been processed. In IBM networks, this technique is
called pacing.
Full duplex Capability for simultaneous data transmission between a sending station
and a receiving station.
stack.
nd
Transport layer This layer is responsible for reliable network communication
between end nodes. The transport layer provides mechanisms for the establishment,
maintenance, and termination of virtual circuits, transport fault detection and recovery,
and information flow control.
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) Connectionless transport layer protocol in the
TCP/IP protocol stack. UDP is a simple protocol that exchanges datagrams without
acknowledgments or guaranteed delivery, requiring that error processing and
retransmission be handled by other protocols. UDP is defined in RFC 768.
Window size Refers to the number of messages that can be transmitted while
awaiting an acknowledgment.
Focus Questions
1. What type of numbers are used to keep track of different conversations
that cross the network at the same time?
Both TCP and UDP use port numbers to pass information to the upper layers.
Port numbers are used to keep track of different conversations that cross the
network at the same time.
2. What is the name of a protocol that combines connectionless and
connection-oriented service?
The Internet Protocol (IP) includes both TCP (connection-oriented) and UDP
(connectionless) protocols.
3. What is the difference between TCP and UDP?
User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is the connectionless transport protocol in the

TCP/IP protocol stack. UDP is a simple protocol that exchanges datagrams,
without acknowledgments or guaranteed delivery. Error processing and
retransmission must be handled by other protocols.
TCP hosts establish a connection-oriented session with one another using a
three-way handshake.
A three-way handshake/open connection sequence synchronizes a connection at
both ends before data is transferred. This exchange of introductory sequence
numbers during the connection sequence is important because it ensures that
any data that is lost due to transmission problems can be recovered.
4. What is the field in a TCP segment that ensures correct sequencing of the
arriving data?
TCP provides sequencing of bytes with a forward reference acknowledgment.

The sequence number in the TCP header is associated with the first byte in the
user data area. At the receiving station, TCP reassembles the segments into a
complete message.
nd
5. What are the protocols that use UDP?
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Dynamic Host Control Protocol (DHCP)
Domain Name System (DNS)
BOOTP
6. What range of port numbers is reserved for public applications?
Numbers below 255 are used for public applications.

7. What type of a window refers to the fact that the window size is negotiated
dynamically during the TCP session?
The “sliding” part of sliding window refers to the fact that the window size is
negotiated dynamically during the TCP session.
nd
Edition.
1. Which layer of the OSI model provides transport services from the host to
the destination?
a. Application
b. Presentation
c. Session
d. Transport
2. Which best describes the function of the transport layer?
a. Establishes, manages, and terminates applications

b. Provides transport services from the host to the destination
c. Supports communication between programs like electronic mail, file
transfer, and web browsers
d. Translates between different data formats such as ASCII and EBCDIC
3. Which method best describes flow control?
a. A method to manage limited bandwidth

b. A method of connecting two hosts synchronously
c. A method to ensure data integrity
d. A method to check data for viruses prior to transmission
4. Which function best describes flow control?
a. Checks data packets for integrity and legitimacy prior to transmission

b. Avoids traffic backup by cycling host quickly through alternate send and
receive modes during peak traffic periods
c. Connects two hosts over an exclusive high-speed link for critical data
transfer
d. Avoids the problem of a host at one side of the connection, overflowing
the buffers in the host at the other side
nd
5. Which of the following occurs in the transport layer when a connection is
first established between computers in network?
a. Acknowledgment and retransmission

b. Encapsulation and broadcasting
c. Synchronization and acknowledgment.
d. Recovery and flow control
6. Which of the following occurs in the transport layer when data congestion
occurs?
a. Broadcasting
b. Windowing
c. Error recovery
d. Flow control
7. Which layer of the OSI model handles flow control and error recovery?
a. Application
b. Presentation
c. Transport
d. Network
8. What technique allows multiple applications to share a transport
connection?
a. Broadcasting
b. Synchronicity
c. Encapsulation
d. Segmentation
9. Which best describes segmentation?
a. Breaks data into smaller packets for faster transmission

b. Switches hosts from send to receive mode continuously during peak
traffic periods
c. Allows multiple applications to share a transport connection
d. Transfers data from the presentation layer to the network layer for
encoding and encapsulation
nd
10. What method controls the amount of information transferred end-to-end
and helps enable TCP reliability?
a. Broadcasting
b. Windowing
c. Error recovery
d. Flow control
11. If the window size is set to 1, when would an acknowledgment of data
packet receipt be sent back to the source?
a. After one packet

b. After two packets
c. After three packets
d. After four packets
12. If the window size is set to 3, when would an acknowledgment of data
packet receipt be sent back to the source?
a. After one packet

b. After three packets
c. After six packets
d. After nine packets
nd
Chapter 13
Layer 5: The Session Layer
Introduction
The session layer, which is Layer 5 of the OSI reference model, establishes, manages,
and terminates sessions between applications. Essentially, the session layer
coordinates service requests and responses that occur when applications communicate
between different hosts.
Concept Questions
Demonstrate your knowledge of these concepts by answering the following question in
the space provided.
• Session layer functions coordinate communication interactions between applications. Give
an example of how these communication interactions are coordinated.
Communication sessions consist of service requests and service responses that
occur between applications located in different network devices. These requests
and responses are coordinated by protocols implemented at the session layer.
Some examples of session layer implementations include Zone Information
Protocol (ZIP); the AppleTalk protocol, which coordinates the name-binding
process; and Session Control Protocol (SCP), the DECnet Phase IV session
layer protocol.

material for help.
Collision In Ethernet, the result of two nodes transmitting simultaneously. The
frames from each device impact and are damaged when they meet on the physical
media.
Protocol 1) Formal description of a set of rules and conventions that govern how
devices on a network exchange information. 2) Field within an IP datagram that
indicates the upper-layer (Layer 4) protocol sending the datagram.
Session 1) Related set of communications transactions between two or more
network devices. 2) In SNA, a logical connection enabling two MAUs to communicate.
Session layer Layer 5 of the OSI reference model. This layer establishes, manages,
and terminates sessions between applications and manages data exchange between
presentation layer entities. Corresponds to the data flow control layer of the SNA model.
nd
TWS (two-way simultaneous) Mode that allows a router configured as a primary
SDLC station to achieve better utilization of a full-duplex serial line. When TWS is
enabled in a multidrop environment, the router can poll a secondary station and receive
data from that station while it sends data to or receives data from a different secondary
station on the same serial line.
Focus Questions
1. Which of the following are Layer 5 protocols?
a. (NFS) Network File System

b. (SQL) Structured Query Language
c. (RPC) Remote Procedure Call
d. X Window System
e. (ASP) AppleTalk Session Protocol
f. DNA (Digital Network Architecture)
g. SCP (Session Control Protocol)
2. In a session, check points used for what?
Check points are used to separate parts of a session, previously referred to as

dialogues.
3. What is dialog separation?
Dialog separation is the orderly initiation, termination, and management of

communication.
4. When in the session layer, what are the responsibilities of both hosts when
sending a message?
Host A session layer sends a synchronization message to host B, at which time

both hosts perform the following routine:
a. Back up the particular files
b. Save the network settings
c. Save the clock settings
d. Make note of the endpoint in the conversation
nd
5. What type of two-way communication is the session layer most involved
in?
If two-way simultaneous communication is allowed, the session layer does little

in the way of managing the conversation, and allows the other layers of the
communicating computers to manage the conversation.
Two way-alternate communication involves the use of a session layer data
token, which allows each host to take turns. This is similar to the way a Layer 2
Token Ring handles Layer 1 collisions.
6. What is the responsibility of the session layer?
The session layer establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between

applications.
7. When computers communicate with each other, what is the dialog process
called that determines which computer takes on the role of the client and
which takes on the role of the server?
Communication between two computers involves many mini-conversations, thus

ensuring that the two computers can communicate effectively. One requirement
of these mini-conversations is that each host plays dual roles: requesting
service, like a client; and, replying with service, like a server. Determining which
role they are playing at any given moment is called dialog control.
nd
Edition.
1. Which layer of the OSI model establishes, manages, and terminates
communication between applications?
a. Application
b. Presentation
c. Session
d. Transport
2. Which best describes the function of session layer?
a. Establishes, manages, and terminates communications between

applications.
b. Supports communication between programs like electronic mail, file
transfer, and Web browsers
c. Provides transport services from the host to the destination
nd
Chapter 14
Layer 6: The Presentation Layer
Introduction
Layer 6 of the OSI reference model, the presentation layer, provides code formatting
and conversion. Code formatting is used to make sure that applications have meaningful
information to process. If necessary, this layer can translate between different data
formats.
The presentation layer is not only concerned with the format and representation of data.
It also is concerned with the data structure that the programs used. Thus, Layer 6
arranges for Layer 7 how data will be organized when it is transferred.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• Layer 6 standards also guide how graphic images are presented. What standards for
graphic images do Layer 6 employ?
PICT—A picture format used to transfer QuickDraw graphics between programs
on the MAC operating system
Tagged Image File Format (TIFF)—A format for high-resolution, bitmapped
images
Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG)—A graphics format used most often to
compress still images of complex pictures and photographs
Musical Instrument Digital Interface (MIDI)—–Standard for digitized music
Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)—Standard for the compression and
coding of motion video for CDs and digital storage
QuickTime—Standard that handles audio and video for programs on both MAC
and PC operating systems
• Explain how Layer 6 structures the data for Layer 7 to transfer.
After receiving data from the application layer, the presentation layer performs
one or all of its functions on the data before it sends it to the session layer. At the
receiving station, the presentation layer takes the data from the session layer
and performs the required functions before passing it to the application layer.
⇒ Data formatting (presentation)
⇒ Data encryption
⇒ Data compression
nd
material for help.
ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) American Standard
Code for Information Interchange. An 8-bit code for character representation (7 bits plus
parity).
Compression The running of a data set through an algorithm that reduces the space
required to store or the bandwidth required to transmit the data set.
EBCDIC (Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code) Extended binary
coded decimal interchange code. Any of a number of coded character sets developed
by IBM consisting of 8-bit coded characters. This character code is used by older IBM
systems and telex machines.
Encryption The application of a specific algorithm to data so as to alter the
appearance of the data making it incomprehensible to those who are not authorized to
see the information.
Presentation layer This layer ensures that information sent by the application layer
of one system will be readable by the application layer of another. The presentation
layer also is concerned with the data structures used by programs and therefore
negotiates data transfer syntax for the application layer.
Focus Questions
1. What are the three functions of the presentation layer?
Data formatting (presentation)

Data encryption
Data compression
2. At the receiving station, from which layer does the presentation layer get
the data?
The presentation layer takes the data from the session layer and performs the
required functions before passing it to the application layer.
3. What types of computers most often use EBCDIC?
EBCDIC is used by older IBM systems and telex machines.

4. What is a JPEG?
JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group) is a graphics format used most often
to compress still images of complex pictures and photographs
nd
5. In the presentation layer, what does the algorithm search for to help shrink
the size of a file?
The algorithm searches each file for repeating bit patterns and then replaces
them with a token. A token is a much shorter bit pattern that represents the long
pattern.
6. What type of program uses binary files?
Programs such as FTP use the binary file type to transfer files. Networks use
many different types of files.
7. What are the two file formats used by the Internet to display images?
The Internet uses two binary file formats to display images: GIF and JPEG. Any
computer with a reader for the GIF and JPEG file formats can read these file
types, regardless of the type of computer.
8. What type of file format is used as a set of directions for displaying a page
on a web browser?
Hypertext Markup Language (HTML), the language of the Internet, tells a

browser whether to display text or to provide a hyperlink to another URL. HTML
is not a programming language, but it is a set of directions for displaying a page.
nd
Edition.
1. Which layer of the OSI model layer can translate between different data
formats, such as ASCII and EBCDIC?
a. Application
b. Presentation
c. Session
d. Transport
2. Which layer of the OSI model layer guides how graphic images, sound, and
video are presented?
a. Application
b. Presentation
c. Session
d. Transport
3. Which best describes the function of the presentation layer?

c. Guides how graphic images, sound, and video are handled
d. Provides transport services from the host to the destination
4. Which best describes the function of the presentation layer?

nd
5. Which layer of the OSI model layer handles data encryption?
a. Application
b. Presentation
c. Session
d. Transport
6. ASCII, encryption, QuickTime, JPEG are all typical of which layer?
a. Presentation
b. Transport
c. Application
d. Session
nd
Chapter 15
Layer 7: The Application Layer
Introduction
In the context of the OSI reference model, the application layer, Layer 7 of the OSI
reference model, supports the communicating component of an application.
A computer application can require only information that resides on its computer.
However, a network application might have a communicating component from one or
more network applications.
A word processor might incorporate a file-transfer component that allows a document to
be transferred electronically over a network. This file-transfer component qualifies the
word processor as an application in the OSI context and belongs in Layer 7 of the OSI
reference model.
Web browsers, such as Netscape Navigator and Internet Explorer, also have data-
transfer components. An example of this is when you go to a web site—the web pages
are transferred to your computer.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• The application layer (Layer 7) provides services to application processes that
are outside of the OSI model. What services are provided?
⇒ Provides services to application processes that are outside of the OSI
model
⇒ Identifies and establishes the availability of intended communication
partners
⇒ Synchronizes cooperating applications
⇒ Establishes agreement on procedures for error recovery and control of
data integrity.
• The application layer identifies and establishes the availability of intended
communication partners and the resources required to connect with them. What
are these resources?
The application layer is the OSI layer closest to the end user. This determines
whether sufficient resources exist for communication between systems (such as
electronic mail, file transfer, and terminal emulation). The application layer
provides a direct interface to the rest of the OSI model for network applications
(such as browser, e-mail, FTP, and Telnet) or an indirect interface for standalone
applications (such as word processors, spreadsheets, and presentation
managers) with a network redirector.
nd
Define the following terms as completely as you can. Use the online Chapter 15 of the
material for help.
Application layer Layer 7 of the OSI reference model. This layer provides services to
application processes (such as electronic mail, file transfer, and terminal emulation) that
are outside of the OSI model. The application layer identifies and establishes the
availability of intended communication partners (and the resources required to connect
with them), synchronizes cooperating applications, and establishes agreement on
procedures for error recovery and control of data integrity. Corresponds roughly with the
transaction services layer in the SNA model.
Client Node or software program (front-end device) that requests services from a
server.
Client/server computing Term used to describe distributed computing (processing)
network systems in which transaction responsibilities are divided into two parts: client
(front end) and server (back end). Both terms (client and server) can be applied to
software programs or actual computing devices. Also called distributed computing
(processing).
DNS (Domain Name System) System used in the Internet for translating names of
network nodes into addresses.
Domain server Server that exists on a local-area network responsible for sharing
services and authenticating network access.
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) Application protocol, part of the TCP/IP protocol stack,
used for transferring files between network nodes.
HTML (Hypertext Markup Language) Simple hypertext document formatting
language that uses tags to indicate how a given part of a document should be
interpreted by a viewing application, such as a WWW browser.
Hypertext Electronically stored text that allows direct access to other texts by way of
encoded links. Hypertext documents can be created using HTML and often integrate
images, sound, and other media that are commonly viewed using a WWW browser.
IP address 1) A 32-bit address assigned to hosts using TCP/IP. An IP address
belongs to one of five classes (A, B, C, D, or E) and is written as 4 octets separated with
periods (dotted-decimal format). Each address consists of a network number, an
optional subnetwork number, and a host number. The network and subnetwork numbers
together are used for routing; whereas, the host number is used to address an individual
host within the network or subnetwork. A subnet mask is used to extract network and
subnetwork information from the IP address. Also called an Internet address. 2)
Command used to establish the logical network address of this interface.
Redirector Software that intercepts requests for resources within a computer and
analyzes them for remote access requirements. If remote access is required to satisfy
the request, the redirector forms an RPC and sends the RPC to lower-layer protocol
software for transmission through the network to the node that can satisfy the request.
nd
Server Node or software program that provides services to clients.
Telnet Command used to verify the application layer software between source and
destination stations. This is the most complete test mechanism available.
URL (Universal Resource Locator) Standardized addressing scheme for accessing
hypertext documents and other services using a WWW browser.
Focus Questions
1. To which other OSI layers does the application layer provide service?
The application layer does not provide services to any other OSI layer.
2. What is a network application that uses the direct interface provided by the
application layer?
A word processor might incorporate a file-transfer component that allows a

document to be transferred electronically over the network.
3. What is a network application that uses the indirect interface provided by
the application layer?
The application layer provides a direct interface for the rest of the OSI model, by
using network applications (for instance, WWW, e-mail, FTP, Telnet), or an
indirect interface, by using standalone applications (for instance, word
processors, spreadsheets, presentation managers, network redirector).
4. Where is the server side of a client/server application located?
These applications (such as FTP, web browsers, and e-mail) all have two
components that allow them to function: the client side and the server side. The
client side is located on the local computer and is the requestor of the services.
The server side is located on a remote computer and provides services in
response to the client’s requests.
5. What is the looped routine constantly repeated by a client/server
application?
A client/server application works by constantly repeating the following looped

routine: client-request, server-response; client-request, server-response; and so
on.
6. What does DNS do?
Domain name system (DNS) is a device on a network that manages domain

names and responds to requests from clients to translate a domain name into
the associated IP address.
7. Which protocol do file utility programs use to copy and move files between
remote sites?
File utility programs use the FTP protocol for copying and moving files between
remote sites.
nd
8. Which protocol do remote-access programs use to directly connect to
remote resources?
Remote-access programs use the Telnet protocol for directly connecting to

remote resources.
nd
Edition.
1. Which layer of the OSI model supports communication between programs,
such as e-mail, file transfer, and web browsers?
a. Application
b. Presentation
c. Session
d. Transport
2. Which best describes the function of the application layer?

b. Supports communication between programs like e- mail, file transfer, and
web browsers
3. Which is a network application?
a. E-mail
b. Word processor
c. Web browser
d. Spreadsheet
4. Which is a computer application?
a. Remote access
b. File transfer
c. Web browser
d. E-mail
5. E-mail and file transfer are typical functions of which layer in the OSI
model?
a. Transport
b. Network
c. Application
d. Presentation
nd
Chapter 16
WANs and Routers
Introduction
One major characteristic of a wide-area network (WAN) is that the network operates
beyond the local LAN’s geographic scope. It uses the services of carriers, such as
Regional Bell Operating Companies (RBOCs), Sprint, and MCI.
WANs use serial connections of various types to access bandwidth over wide-area
geographies. By definition, the WAN connects devices separated by wide areas. WAN
devices include the following:
• Routers, which offer many services, including internetworking and WAN interface
ports
• Switches, which connect to WAN bandwidth for voice, data, and video
communication
• Modems, which interface voice-grade services and channel service units/digital
service units
• CSU/DSUs that interface T1/E1 services and Terminal Adapters/Network
Termination 1
• TA/NT1s that interface Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) services
• Communication servers, which concentrate on dial-in and dial-out user
communication
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• A WAN is used to interconnect local-area networks (LANs) that are typically
separated by a large geographic area. A WAN operates at the OSI reference
model physical and data link layers. The WAN provides for the exchange of data
packets/frames between routers/bridges and the LANs that they support. Draw a
WAN that includes three LANs.
Student should sketch a WAN with three connected LAN segments. Students
should use the appropriate symbols to represent all network devices.
nd
• Compare and contrast WANs and LANs layer by layer.
LANs use deterministic and nondeterministic communication to allow access to
the media. The transport of data typically is seen by numerous nodes on a
segment. Layer 1 communication runs across UTP, STP, fiber, and coax lines.
Connectors used include, but are not limited to, RJ-45, ST, SC, FC, AUI, and
BNC connectors. Communication is typically much faster than that of wide-area
links. LANs use 802.2, 802.3, 802.4, or 802.5 Layer 2 frame encapsulation.
WANs operate beyond the local LAN’s geographic scope. They use the services
of carriers such as Regional Bell Operating Companies (RBOCs) and Sprint and
MCI. They use serial connections of various types to access network bandwidth.
Layer 1 connections are generally V.35, RS232, RS449, and RJ-48 connectors.
Communication is generally across a point-to-point, circuit, or packet-switched
environment. WANs use layer 2 encapsulations such as Frame Relay, HDLC,
SDLC, PPP, and X.25.

material for help.
CSU (channel service unit) Digital interface device that connects end-user
equipment to the local digital telephone loop. Often referred to together with DSU, as
CSU/DSU. See also DSU.
DCE (Data Communications Equipment (EIA expansion) or data circuit-
terminating equipment (ITU-T expansion)) The devices and connections of a
communications network that comprise the network end of the user-to-network
interface. The DCE provides a physical connection to the network, forwards traffic, and
provides a clocking signal used to synchronize data transmission between DCE and
DTE devices. Modems and interface cards are examples of DCE. Compare with DTE.
DSU (data service unit) Device used in digital transmission that adapts the physical
interface on a DTE device to a transmission facility such as T1 or E1. The DSU also is
responsible for such functions as signal timing. Often referred to together with CSU, as
CSU/DSU. See also CSU.
DTE (data terminal equipment) Device at the user end of a user-network interface
that serves as a data source, destination, or both. DTE connects to a data network
through a DCE device (for example, a modem) and typically uses clocking signals
generated by the DCE. DTE includes such devices as computers, protocol translators,
and multiplexers. Compare with DCE.
E1 Wide-area digital transmission scheme used predominantly in Europe that carries
data at a rate of 2.048 Mbps. E1 lines can be leased for private use from common
carriers. Compare with T1.
Frame Relay Industry-standard, switched data link layer protocol that handles
multiple virtual circuits using HDLC encapsulation between connected devices. Frame
Relay is more efficient than X.25, the protocol for which it is generally considered a
replacement.
nd
HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) Bit-oriented synchronous data link layer
protocol developed by ISO. Derived from SDLC, HDLC specifies a data encapsulation
method on synchronous serial links using frame characters and checksums.
ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) Communication protocol, offered by
telephone companies, that permits telephone networks to carry data, voice, and other
source traffic.
PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) A successor to SLIP, PPP provides router-to-router
and host-to-network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits.
PTT (Post, Telephone, and Telegraph) Government agency that provides telephone
services. PTTs exist in most areas outside North America and provide both local and
long-distance telephone services.
RBOC (Regional Bell Operating Company) Local or regional telephone company
that owns and operates telephone lines and switches in one of seven U.S. regions. The
RBOCs were created by the divestiture of AT&T. Also called Bell Operating Company
(BOC).
T1 Digital WAN carrier facility. T1 transmits DS-1-formatted data at 1.544 Mbps
through the telephone-switching network, using AMI or B8ZS coding. Compare with E1.
Focus Questions
1. Name and briefly describe four WAN devices.
WAN devices include routers (which offer internetworking and WAN interface
ports); switches (for sharing bandwidth); modems, CSU/DSUs, and terminal
adapters (which allow a variety of data connection services); and communication
servers (which concentrate dial-in and dial-out user communications).
2. Name two ways in which WANs differ from LANs.
WANs operate over a large geographical area (LANs do not); WANs emphasize
access over serial interfaces operating at lower speeds to ensure reliability.
(LANs can operate reliably at very high speeds with multiple access.)
3. What do the acronyms DTE and DCE stand for?
DTE stands for data terminal equipment, which refers to the end of the user’s
devices on a WAN link. DCE stands for data circuit-terminating equipment, which
refers to the end of the WAN provider’s side of the communication facility.
4. List three WAN physical layer standards.
Three WAN physical layer standards commonly used are EIA/TIA-232, V.35, and
X.21.
nd
5. List four WAN data link layer protocols.
Four WAN data link layer protocols are HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control),
Frame Relay (a simplified version of HDLC framing), PPP (Point-to-Point
protocol), and ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network).
nd
Edition.
1. Which of the following best describes a WAN?
a. Connects LANs that are separated by a large geographic area

b. Connects workstations, terminals, and other devices in a metropolitan
area
c. Connects LANs within a large building
d. Connects workstations, terminals, and other devices within a building
2. Which of the following are examples of WANs?
a. Token Ring and ARCnet

b. Frame Relay and SMDS
c. Star and Banyan VINES
d. CSU/DSU and ARCview
3. What service does a WAN provide to LANs?
a. High-speed multiple access to data networks

b. IP addressing and secure data transfer
c. Exchanging data packets between routers and the LANs those routers
support
d. Direct routing with error checking
4. What type of connections do WANs use that LANs typically do not use?
a. Parallel, lower speed

b. Multiple, higher speed
c. Multiple, lower speed
d. Serial, lower speed.
5. At which layers of the OSI model does a WAN operate?
a. Physical and application

b. Physical and data link
c. Data link and network
d. Data link and presentation
nd
6. Which layers of the OSI models do WAN standards describe?
a. Data link and network

b. Data link and presentation
c. Physical and application
d. Physical and data link
7. How do WANs differ from LANs?
a. Typically exist in defined geographic areas

b. Provide high-speed multiple access services
c. Use tokens to regulate network traffic
d. Use services of common carriers
8. How do WANs differ from LANs?
a. Emphasize access over serial interfaces operating at lower speeds

b. Provide high-speed multiple access services
c. Typically exist in defined geographic areas
d. Use tokens to regulate network traffic
9. How are operational and functional connections for WANs obtained?
a. From your local telephone company

b. From InterNIC
c. From Regional Bell Operating Companies (RBOCs)
d. From the WWW Consortium
10. What do the WAN physical layer standards describe?
a. Interface between SDLC and HDLC

b. How frames are sent and verified
c. How voice and data traffic are routed
d. Interface between DTE and DCE
11. Which best describes what WAN data link protocols define?
a. How frames are carried between systems on a single data link

b. Methods for determining optimum path to a destination
c. How data packets are transmitted between systems on multiple data links
d. Methods for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
nd
12. Which is a WAN data link protocol?
a. TCP/IP
b. Point-to-Point Protocol
c. EIGRP
d. OSPF
13. Which is a WAN data link protocol?
a. TCP/IP
b. OSPF
c. EIGRP
d. Frame Relay
14. Which best describes data terminal equipment (DTE)?
a. Physical connection between networks and users

b. Generates clocking signals to control network traffic
c. Device at the user end of a network
d. Physical devices such as modems and interface cards
15. Which is an example of data terminal equipment (DTE)?
a. Interface card
b. Modem
c. Computer
d. CSU/DSU
16. Which best describes data circuit-terminating equipment (DCE)?
a. Device at the user end of a network

b. Serves as data source and/or destination
c. Physical devices such as protocol translators and multiplexers
d. End of the WAN provider’s side of the communication facility
17. Which is an example of data circuit-terminating equipment (DCE)?
a. Multiplexer
b. Modem
c. Translator
d. Computer
nd
18. Which best describes High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)?
a. Digital service that transmits voice and data over existing phone lines
b. Uses high-quality digital facilities—fastest WAN protocol
c. Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over
synchronous and asynchronous circuits
d. Supports point-to-point and multipoint configurations, and uses frame
characters and checksums
19. Which WAN protocol can be described as supporting point-to-point and
multipoint configurations?
a. HDLC
b. Frame Relay
c. PPP
d. ISDN
20. Which WAN protocol can be described as using frame characters and
checksums?
a. ISDN
b. Frame Relay
c. PPP
d. HDLC
21. Which best describes Frame Relay?
a. Uses high-quality digital facilities—fastest WAN protocol

b. Supports point-to-point and multipoint configurations, and uses frame
c. Digital service that transmits voice and data over existing telephone lines
d. Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over
22. Which WAN protocol can be described as using high-quality digital
facilities?
a. HDLC
b. Frame Relay
c. PPP
d. ISDN
nd
23. Given the following WAN protocols, which can be described as the
fastest?
a. HDLC
b. PPP
c. Frame Relay
d. ISDN
24. Which best describes PPP?
a. Uses high-quality digital facilities—fastest WAN protocol

b. Supports point-to-point and multipoint configurations, and uses frame
c. Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over
d. Digital service that transmits voice and data over existing telephone lines
25. Given the following WAN protocols, which can be described as the
fastest?
a. HDLC
b. Frame Relay
c. PPP
d. ISDN
26. Which best describes ISDN?
a. Digital service that transmits voice and data over existing phone lines.
b. Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over
c. Uses high quality digital facilities—fastest WAN protocol
d. Supports point-to-point and multipoint configurations, and uses frame
27. Which WAN protocol can be described as a digital service that transmits
voice and data over existing telephone lines?
a. HDLC
b. Frame Relay
c. PPP
d. ISDN
nd
Chapter 17
Router CLI
Introduction
You configure Cisco routers from the user interface that runs on the router console or
terminal. You also can configure Cisco routers by using remote access. You must log in
to the router before you can enter an EXEC command.
For security purposes, the router has two levels of access to commands:
• User mode—Typical tasks include those that check the router status. In this
mode, router configuration changes are not allowed.
• Privileged mode—Typical tasks include those that change the router
configuration.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• You can use the router to do the following:
⇒ Log in with the user password.
⇒ Enter privileged mode with the enable password.
⇒ Disable or quit.
What procedures would you follow to log in to the router?
When you first log in to a router, you see a user-mode prompt:
Router>
At the > prompt, type enable
At the password prompt, enter the password that has been set with the enable
secret command.
When you have completed the login steps, the prompt changes to a pound sign
(#) because you are now in privileged mode. From privileged mode, you can
access modes such as global configuration mode and other specific
configuration modes.
nd
Logging in to and out of the Router
Router con0 is now available.
Press RETURN to get started.
User Access Verification
Password:
Router>
Router> enable
Password:
Router#
Router# disable
• You can use the following advanced help features:
Command completion and prompting
Syntax checking
Why would you need to use syntax checking?
You can use the following advanced editing features:
⇒ Automatic line scrolling
⇒ Cursor controls
⇒ History buffer with command recall
⇒ Copy and paste, which are available on most laptop computers
• Why is it important to have two different levels of access of commands?
Commands available at user level are a subset of the commands available at the
privileged level. For the most part, these commands enable you to display
information without changing router configuration settings. You may want to have
multiple administrators with varied levels of access. To access the full set of
commands, you must first enable privileged mode.

material for help.
Privileged mode Typical tasks include those that change the router configuration.
User mode Typical tasks include those that check the router status. In this mode,
router configuration changes are not allowed.
nd
Focus Questions
1. How do you use a router?
To configure Cisco routers, you must either access the user interface on the
router with a terminal or access the router remotely. When accessing a router,
you must log in to the router before you enter any other commands.
2. Distinguish between user mode and privileged mode.
User mode enables you to check router status; privileged mode enables you to
actually change the router’s configuration.
3. In Cisco IOS, what is the user mode prompt and what is the privileged
mode prompt?
The > is the user-mode prompt; the # is the privileged-mode prompt.

4. What must you type at the user or privileged mode prompts to display a list
of commonly used commands?
You must type a ? to display the list of commonly used commands.

5. When in user mode, what must you do to enter privileged mode?
You must type ena (short for enable) and then a password.
6. If you are unsure of the syntax or arguments for a command, what feature
can be of great help to you?
If you guess at the command syntax and arguments, the Cisco IOS context-
sensitive help will highlight your errors and suggest corrections. Additionally, by
adding a space and then the question mark after a partial command, you will get
hints about how to proceed.
nd
Edition.
1. What are the two modes of access to router commands for Cisco routers?
a. User and privileged

b. User and guest
c. Privileged and guest
d. Guest and anonymous
2. Why are there two modes of access to router commands on Cisco routers?
a. One mode is for remotely working on the router; whereas, the other mode
is for directly working on the router via a console.
b. One mode, which has many automatic sequences, is for new users;
whereas, the other mode is for experienced users who can issue direct
commands.
c. One mode lets a number of users see what’s happening on the router;
whereas, the other mode lets a few users change how the router
operates.
d. One mode is for the initial router configuration and startup; whereas, the
other mode is for maintaining, updating, and changing the router after
initial startup.
3. What can be done only in privileged mode on Cisco routers?
a. Change the configuration

b. Enter commands
c. Check routing tables
d. All of the above
4. How do you switch from user to privileged mode on Cisco routers?
a. Type admin and enter a password.

b. Type root and enter a password.
c. Type enable and enter a password.
d. Type privileged and enter a password.
nd
5. What happens if you type enable on a Cisco router user interface?
a. You switch to user mode.

b. The last command entered is activated.
c. A new LAN is added to the router table.
d. You switch to privileged mode.
6. Which IOS command is not available in the user-mode?
a. show
b. ppp
c. trace
d. ping
7. On a Cisco router which of the following is the user-mode prompt?
a. #
b. >
c. <
d. |#
8. On a Cisco router which if the following is the privileged-mode prompt?
a. #
b. >
c. <
d. |#
9. How do you log out of a Cisco router?
a. Type Control-Q
b. Type quit
c. Type exit
d. Type Control-X
10. How can you get a list of commonly used commands from a Cisco router
user interface?
a. Type list
b. Type Control-C
c. Type Control-?
d. Type ?
nd
11. What does the “More” prompt at the bottom of a screen on a Cisco router
user interface mean?
a. Multiple screens are available as output.

b. Additional detail is available in the manual pages.
c. Multiple entries are required in the command.
d. Additional conditions must be stated.
12. How do you get to the next screen if “More” is indicated at the bottom of
the current screen on a Cisco router user interface?
a. Press the Page Down key.

b. Press the spacebar.
c. Press the End key.
d. Press the Tab key.
13. Which keystroke(s) automatically repeat(s) the previous command entry on
a Cisco router user interface?
a. Left arrow
b. Right arrow
c. Control+R
d. Control+P
14. What happens if you type ? in user-mode or privileged-mode?
a. You see all users logged in to the router.

b. You list the last command you typed.
c. You are presented with a list of commands.
d. You find out which mode you are currently in.
15. What does it mean if you see the symbol ^ on a Cisco router user
interface?
a. Indicates location of an error in a command string

b. Indicates that you are in Help mode
c. Indicates that more information must be entered to complete the
command
d. Indicates that you are in privileged mode
nd
16. What would you type at the router user prompt if you want to see what
show subcommands are available?
a. ?
b. Command ?
c. Show ?
d. List ?
17. What would you type at the router user prompt if you want to see what
configuration subcommands are available?
a. ?
b. Command ?
c. List ?
d. Config ?
18. What command is only available at the privileged access mode?
a. ping
b. show
c. trace
d. All of the above
nd
Chapter 18
Router Components
Introduction
Whether accessed from the console or by a Telnet session through an auxiliary port, the
router can be placed in several modes. Each mode provides different functions:
• User EXEC mode—A “look-only” mode in which the user can view some
information about the router, but cannot change anything.
• Privileged EXEC mode—Supports the debugging and testing commands,
detailed examination of the router, manipulation of configuration files, and
access to configuration modes.
• Setup mode—Presents an interactive prompted dialog box at the console that
helps the new user create a first-time, basic configuration.
• Global configuration mode—Implements powerful one-line commands that
perform simple configuration tasks.
• Other configuration modes—Provide more complicated multiple-line
configurations.
• RXBOOT mode—A maintenance mode that can be used, among other things,
to recover lost passwords.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• The router is made up of configurable components. How are these
components configured?
You can configure a router from many external locations, including the following:
⇒ From the console terminal (a computer connected to the router through a
console port) during its installation
⇒ Via modem by using the auxiliary port
⇒ From virtual terminals, after the router has been installed on the network
⇒ From a TFTP server on the network
nd
• The router has modes for examining, maintaining, and changing the
components. In the examining mode, what does the router do?
User EXEC allows for the execution of basic commands that you can issue to
determine the current status of a router. These commands help you obtain vital
information that you need when monitoring and troubleshooting router
operations.
• The show commands are used for examination. What does the show
command examine?
It is important to be able to monitor the health and state of your router at any
given time. These commands are as follows:
• show version
• show processes
• show protocols
• show memory
• show stacks
• show buffers
• show flash
• show running-config
• show startup-config
• show interface
Among the most used Cisco IOS software EXEC commands are show running-
config and show startup-config. These commands enable an administrator
to see the current running configuration on the router or the startup configuration
commands that the router will use on the next restart.
• Use CDP to show entries about neighbors.
• Access other routers with Telnet.
• Test network connectivity layer by layer. Testing commands include ping,
trace, and debug. What is the difference between trace and ping?
The ping command sends a packet to the destination host and then waits for a
reply packet from that host. You can use the ping user EXEC command to
diagnose basic network connectivity.
The trace command is the ideal tool for finding where data is being sent in your
network. The trace command is similar to the ping command, except that,
instead of testing end-to-end connectivity, trace tests each step along the way.
This operation can be performed at either the user or the privileged EXEC levels.
nd
material for help.
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) Media- and protocol-independent device-discovery
protocol that runs on all Cisco-manufactured equipment including routers, access
servers, bridges, and switches. Using CDP, a device can advertise its existence to other
devices and receive information about other devices on the same LAN or on the remote
side of a WAN. Runs on all media that support SNAP, including LANs, Frame Relay,
and ATM media.
CPU (central processing unit) The part of a computer that controls all the other
parts. It fetches instructions from memory and decodes them. This may cause it to
transfer data to or from memory or to activate peripherals to perform input or output.
DRAM (dynamic random-access memory) RAM that stores information in
capacitors that must be periodically refreshed. Delays can occur because DRAMs are
inaccessible to the processor when refreshing their contents. However, DRAMs are less
complex and have greater capacity than SRAMs.
Interface 1) Connection between two systems or devices. 2) In routing terminology, a
network connection. 3) In telephony, a shared boundary defined by common physical
interconnection characteristics, signal characteristics, and meanings of interchanged
signals. 4) The boundary between adjacent layers of the OSI model.
NVRAM (nonvolatile RAM) RAM that retains its contents when a unit is powered off.
In Cisco products, NVRAM is used to store configuration information.
ping Command that uses the ICMP protocol to verify the hardware connection and
the logical address of the network layer. This is a very basic testing mechanism.
RAM (random-access memory) Volatile memory that can be read and written by a
microprocessor.
TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) Simplified version of FTP that allows files to be
transferred from one computer to another over a network.
trace Command that uses Time-To-Live (TTL) values to generate messages from
each router used along the path. This is very powerful in its capability to locate failures
in the path from the source to the destination.
nd
Focus Questions
1. Diagram the internal components (subsystems) of a modern multimedia
PC. Diagram the external features of a modern multimedia PC.
Refer to diagrams in the Companion Guide.

2. List three external configuration sources for Cisco routers.
Routers may be configured from the console terminal through the console port,
via a modem using the auxiliary port, and from virtual terminals or a TFTP server
once it is on a network.
3. List and describe the internally configurable components of a router.
Internal configuration components include RAM (stores routing tables, ARP

cache, and running configuration file), NVRAM (stores the router’s backup
configuration file; retains content even when powered down), Flash (erasable,
reprogrammable ROM, holds the operating system image), ROM(contains
power-on diagnostics, a bootstrap program, and operating system software) and
interfaces (network connections through which packets enter and exit the router).
4. List at least seven commands that can show router status and the
configurable components about which they display information.
Commands for examining a router’s status include the following:

show version (RAM IOS)
show processes cpu and show processes (RAM programs)
show running-config (RAM active configuration file)
show mem, show stacks, show buffers (RAM tables and buffers)
show startup-config
show config (NVRAM), show flash (Flash)
show interfaces (Interfaces)
5. Briefly describe what Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) show cdp neighbors
can tell you about a network.
The command show cdp neighbors works at the data link layer to display the
following information: neighbor device ID, local port type and number,
decremental holdtime value in seconds, the neighbor’s device capability code,
the hardware platform of the neighbor, and the neighbor’s remote port type and
number.
nd
6. Using the OSI model and the commands telnet, ping, trace, show ip
route, and show interface, describe the basic testing of a network.
The basic testing of a network should proceed from Layer 7 (using telnet to
access various routers), to Layer 3 (using ping, trace, and show ip route
to learn logical address information about the network), and then to Layers 3, 2,
and 1 (using show interface to learn about specific port configurations and
whether specific links are alive), and then on to Layer 1 (specific medium tests).
nd
Edition.
1. Which of the following describes a location from which a router is
configured?
a. After it is installed on the network, a router can be configured from virtual

terminals.
b. Upon initial configuration, a router is configured from the virtual terminals.
c. After it is installed on the network, a router can be configured via modem
from the console terminal.
d. Upon initial configuration, a router is configured via modem using the
auxiliary port.
2. Which of the following does not describe external configuration of
routers?
a. Upon initial configuration, a router is configured from the console

terminal.
b. The router can be connected via modem using the console port.
c. After it is installed, a router is configured from the console terminal.
d. Configuration files can be downloaded from a TFTP server on the
network.
3. Which of the following router components has these characteristics:
stores routing tables, fast-switching cache, and packet hold queues?
a. NVRAM
b. RAM/DRAM
c. Flash
d. ROM
4. Which of the following router components has these characteristics: holds
the operating system and microcode; retains its contents when you power
down or restart; and allows software updates without replacing chips?
a. NVRAM
b. RAM/DRAM
c. Flash
d. ROM
nd
5. Which of the following best describes the function of NVRAM?
a. Provides temporary and/or running memory for the router’s configuration

file while the router is powered on.
b. Stores the router’s backup configuration file. The content is retained
when you power down or restart.
c. Holds the operating system image and microcode and enables you to
update software without removing and replacing chips on the processor.
d. Contains power-on diagnostics, a bootstrap program, and operating
system software.
6. Which of the following does not describe a function of working storage
RAM in a router?
a. A bootstrap program performs tests and then loads the Cisco IOS
software into memory.
b. A saved version of the configuration file is accessed from NVRAM and
loaded into main memory when the router initializes.
c. The EXEC part of the IOS software handles packet buffering and the
queuing of packets.
d. The operating system image is usually executed from the main RAM and
loaded from an input source.
7. Which of the following is the router mode that supports debugging and
testing commands, manipulation of configuration files, and detailed
examination of the router?
a. Global configuration mode

b. RXBOOT mode
c. Privileged EXEC mode
d. Setup mode
8. Which of the following describes functions of the user EXEC mode of a
router?
a. Presents an interactive prompted dialog that helps the new user create a
first-time basic configuration
b. Implements powerful one-line commands that perform simple
configuration tasks
c. Used for recovery from catastrophe, such as to recover lost passwords
d. Allows the user to view some information about the router but not change
anything
nd
9. If you are in global configuration mode, what does the router prompt look
like?
a. router #
b. router (config) #
c. router-config #
d. r-config #
10. When you are in user mode, what does the router prompt look like?
a. router -
b. router >
c. router #
d. router
11. What is the command you enter to gain access to privileged EXEC mode?
a. ena
b. p exec
c. exec
d. enable p-exec
12. Which of the following correctly describe the function of a router status
command?
a. show version—Displays configuration of the system hardware, the

names and sources of configuration files, and the boot images.
b. show mem—Displays statistics about the router’s memory, including
memory free pool statistics.
c. show buffers—Displays statistics for the buffer pools on the router.
13. If you type ? show at the router > prompt, what appears on the screen?
a. Nothing, this is not a valid command.

b. All the items that can be shown in user mode.
c. The status of the router.
d. Information about the version of the IOS that is currently running.
nd
14. Which of the following describes a function of the show running-config
Cisco IOS command?
a. It enables an administrator to see the image size and startup

configuration commands the router will use on the next restart.
b. It displays a message at the top showing how much nonvolatile memory
has been used.
c. It enables an administrator to see the configuration of the processes and
interrupt routines.
d. It enables an administrator to see the current running configuration on the
router.
15. Which of the following describes a function of the show startup-config
Cisco IOS command?
a. It enables an administrator to see the current running configuration on the

router.
b. Display the backup configuration file.
c. It enables an administrator to see the reason for the last system reboot.
d. It displays this message at the top: Current Configuration.
16. The show interface serial Cisco IOS router command can display which
one of the following lines of information?
a. IOS 4500 Software (C4500-J-M), Experimental Version 11.2.

b. DECNET routing is enabled.
c. Serial1 is up, line protocol is up.
d. System image file is c4500-j-mz.
17. The show version Cisco IOS router command can display which one of the
following lines of information?
a. IOS 4500 Software (C4500-J-M), Experimental Version 11.2.

b. Hardware is MK5025.
c. Internet Protocol routing is enabled.
d. Internet address is 183.8.64.129.
18. The show protocols Cisco IOS router command can display which one of
the following lines of information?
a. Serial1 is up, line protocol is up.

b. Compiled Fri 28-Jun-96.
c. AppleTalk routing is enabled.
d. ROM; System Bootstrap, Version 5.1(1).
nd
19. What kind of information cannot be obtained when you enter show
interface in the user mode?
a. The MAC address for all interfaces

b. The IP address for all interfaces
c. How many users are logged in to each interface
d. The encapsulation protocol for each interface
20. If you type show interface E0 at the prompt router#, which of the following
best shows what the first five lines of the response would look like if the
interface was up?
a. Ethernet0 is up, line protocol is up

Address is 0000.0f92.c54b (bia 0000.0f92.c54b)
Internet address is 223.8.151.1/24
MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit, DLY 1000 usec, rely 255/255,
load 1/255
Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set, keepalive set (10sec)
b. Ethernet0 is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is Lance, address is 0000.0f92.c54b (bia 0000.0f92.c54b)
ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 05:00:00
c. Ethernet0 is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is Lance, address is 0000.0f92.c54b (bia 0000.0f92.c54b)
MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit, DLY 1000 usec, rely 255/255, load
1/255
d. Ethernet0 is up, line protocol is up
Address is 0000.0f92.c54b (bia 0000.0f92.c54b)
Subnet Mask is 255.255.255.255/24
21. Which one of the following is a function of Cisco Discovery Protocol
(CDP)?
a. Provides a way to use an echo to evaluate the path-to-host reliability

b. Provides a way to determine whether a routing table entry exists
c. Provides a way to see the current running configuration on the local
router
d. Provides a way to access summaries of configurations on directly
connected devices
nd
22. Which of the following is a characteristic of CDP?
a. It runs over OSI Layer 3.

b. It allows CDP devices that support different network layer protocols to
learn about each other.
c. It obtains information about neighboring devices only if the administrator
enters commands.
d. It obtains information only about devices running TCP/IP.
23. What steps does the network administrator have to take to make CDP run
at system startup?
a. Type cdp enable at the first router prompt.

b. Type cdp enable at the first privilege EXEC router prompt.
c. CDP runs automatically at start up.
d. Type cdp enable at any prompt at then save the config file.
24. Which of the following is a function of the CDP show command?
a. It displays information about any CDP-enabled router on the network.

b. It displays information on a console connected to any node in the
network.
c. It helps evaluate delays over network paths and path-to-host reliability.
d. It identifies neighboring routers’ host names and IP addresses.
25. Which of the following is not provided by the CDP show command to tell
about neighbor routers?
a. Processes list, with information about the active processes

b. Port identifier, such as Ethernet0, Serial1, and so forth
c. The device’s hardware platform
d. Address list, with addresses for supported protocols
26. Which of the following is a function of the cdp enable command?
a. Boots up the Cisco IOS software and implements diagnostic testing

b. Displays values of the CDP timers
c. Begins CDP’s dynamic discovery function on the router’s interfaces
d. Discards expired holdtime values
nd
27. Which of the following is not a function of the show cdp interface
command?
a. Displays the values of the CDP timers

b. Displays the reasons for system reboot
c. Displays the interface status
d. Displays the encapsulation used by CDP
28. Which of the following is a function of the show cdp entry
[device_name] command?
a. Establishes a connection to a remote router

b. Displays the cached CDP entry for every directly connected CDP router
c. Enables an administrator to see the IP addresses of the targeted router
d. Displays version information about the network protocols running on the
router
29. Which of the following is not a function of the show cdp entry
[device_name] command?
a. Displays the cached CDP entry for every directly connected CDP router
b. Displays all Layer 3 addresses present on the router
c. Displays how long ago the CDP frame arrived from the router
d. Displays version information about the router
30. Which of the following is a function of the show cdp neighbors
command?
a. Displays the device capability code of remote routers

b. Displays the path-to-host reliability of a network connection
c. Displays the encapsulation of the protocols used by neighbor routers
d. Displays the neighbor’s remote port type and number
31. Which of the following is not a function of the show cdp neighbors
command?
a. Displays the cached CDP entry for every directly connected CDP router
b. Displays the CDP updates received on any network router
c. Displays information like that from show cdp entry when show cdp
neighbors detail is used
d. Displays neighbor device IDs
nd
32. Why would you use the show cdp neighbors command?
a. To get a snapshot view of the routers in the network

b. To get a overview of the routers that are directly connected to me
c. To get the IP addresses for neighboring routers
d. To building a routing table for all routers in the network neighborhood
33. Which of the following is a feature of Telnet router operations?
a. Telnet is typically used to connect a router to neighbor routers.

b. A router can have only one incoming Telnet session at a time.
c. A Telnet session can be suspended and then resumed.
d. To initiate a Telnet session, you have to know the name of the host.
nd
Chapter 19
Router Startup and Setup
Introduction
The startup routines for Cisco IOS software have the goal of starting router operations.
The router must deliver reliable performance connecting the user networks it was
configured to serve. To do this, the startup routines must do the following:
• Make sure that the router comes up with all its hardware tested.
• Find from memory and load the Cisco IOS software that the router uses for its
operating system.
• Find from memory and apply the configuration statements about the router,
including protocol functions and interface addresses.
The router makes sure that it comes up with tested hardware. When a Cisco router
powers up, it performs a power-on self-test (POST). During this self-test, the router
executes diagnostics from ROM on all modules. These diagnostics verify the basic
operation of the CPU, memory, and network interface ports. After it verifies the
hardware functions, the router proceeds with software initialization.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• The router initializes by loading a bootstrap, the operating system, and a
configuration file. What does each of these items do?
A bootstrap is a simple, preset operation to load instructions that, in turn, cause
other instructions to be loaded into memory or that affect entry into other
configuration modes.
The operating system (Cisco IOS) can be found in one of several places. The
location is disclosed in the boot field of the configuration register. If the boot field
indicates a Flash, or network load, boot system commands in the configuration
file indicate the exact location of the image.
The configuration file saved in NVRAM is loaded into main memory and is
executed one line at a time. These configuration commands start routing
processes, supply addresses for interfaces, set media characteristics, and so on.
nd
• If the router cannot find a configuration file, the router enters setup mode. What
does the setup mode do?
If no valid configuration file exists in NVRAM, the operating system executes a
question-driven initial configuration routine referred to as the system
configuration dialog, or setup dialog.
Setup is not intended as the mode for configuring complex protocol features in
the router. You should use setup to bring up a minimal configuration, and then
use various configuration-mode commands rather than setup for most router
configuration tasks.
• The router stores a backup copy of the new configuration from setup mode.
Where does the router store this backup copy?
The router stores in NVRAM a backup copy of the current configuration.
• Prepare a flowchart of the startup (boot) sequence of a multimedia PC.
Refer to Figure 19-1 in the Companion Guide.

material for help.
CPU (central processing unit) The part of a computer that controls all the other
parts. It fetches instructions from memory and decodes them. This may cause it to
transfer data to or from memory or to activate peripherals to perform input or output.
erase startup-config Command used to delete the backup configuration file in
NVRAM.
Reload The event of a Cisco router rebooting, or the command that causes the
router to reboot.
Focus Questions
1. What are the three main things the router accomplishes upon startup?
⇒ Makes sure that the router comes up with all its hardware tested.
⇒ Finds and loads the Cisco IOS software that the router uses for its
operating system.
⇒ Finds the startup-config file and applies the configuration statements,
including protocol functions and interface addresses.
nd
2. Briefly describe the router startup sequence.
Step 1. The generic bootstrap loader executes on the CPU card.

Step 2. The location of the IOS image is found by searching the configuration
registers. If the boot field indicates a Flash, or network load, boot system
commands in the configuration file indicate the exact location of the
image.
Step 3. The operating system image is loaded. Once operational, the OS locates
the hardware and software components and lists the results on the
console terminal.
Step 4. The configuration file saved in NVRAM is loaded into main memory and is
executed one line at a time. These configuration commands start routing
processes, supply addresses for interfaces, set media characteristics,
and so on.
Step 5. If no valid configuration file exists in NVRAM, the operating system

executes a question-driven initial configuration routine referred to as the
system configuration dialog, or setup dialog.
3. What is the main purpose of setup mode?
The main purpose of setup mode is to quickly bring up a minimal configuration

for any router that cannot find its configuration from some other source.
4. During the system configuration dialog, you are prompted to set up “global
parameters” and to set up “interfaces.” Explain.
Global parameters are used to configure hostnames, enable passwords, enable

secret passwords, and global configuration values. When prompted to set up
“interfaces,” you need to use the configuration values that you have determined
for each interface. These values include IP address, subnet mask, network
protocol, and so on.
5. After you have completed the setup command program and your
configuration displays, you are asked whether you want to use this
configuration. If you answer “yes,” what happens?
If you answer “yes,” the configuration is executed and saved to NVRAM. Your
system is now ready to use.
nd
Edition.
1. Which of the following is the correct order of steps in the Cisco router
system startup routine?
a. Locate and load operating system, load bootstrap, test hardware, locate
and load configuration file
b. Test hardware, load bootstrap, locate and load operating system, locate
and load configuration file
c. Load bootstrap, locate and load configuration file, test hardware, locate
and load operating system
d. Test hardware, load bootstrap, locate and load configuration file, locate
and load operating system
2. Which of the following is not a step in the Cisco router system startup
routine?
a. Load bootstrap
b. Power-up hardware self-test
c. Enable CDP on each interface
d. Locate and load configuration file
3. Which of the following is an important function of the power-on self-test
(POST)?
a. To determine the router hardware and software components and list them
on the console terminal
b. To cause other instructions to be loaded into memory
c. To execute diagnostics that verify the basic operation of router hardware
d. To start routing processes, supply addresses for interfaces, and set up
media characteristics
4. Which of the following is an important result of Cisco IOS loading onto a
router?
a. Determining the router hardware and software components, and listing

them on the console terminal
b. Causing other instructions to be loaded into memory
c. Executing diagnostics that verify the basic operation of router hardware
d. Starting routing processes, supplying addresses for interfaces, and
setting up media characteristics
nd
5. Which of the following is an important result of the configuration file
loading onto a router?
a. Determining the router hardware and software components and listing

them on the console terminal
b. Causing other instructions to be loaded into memory
c. Executing diagnostics that verify the basic operation of router hardware
6. Which of the following is not a function of the router system startup
routine?
a. Verifying the routing of protocol packets

b. Testing of the basic operations of router hardware
c. Causing other instructions to be loaded into memory
7. What is the function of the erase startup-config command?
a. It deletes the backup configuration file in NVRAM.

b. It deletes the bootstrap image from Flash memory.
c. It deletes the current IOS from NVRAM.
d. It deletes the current running configuration from Flash memory.
8. What is the function of the reload command?
a. It loads a backup configuration file from a TFTP server.

b. It saves the new IOS to Flash memory.
c. It reboots the router.
d. It loads the new configuration file in NVRAM.
9. Which router command deletes the backup configuration file in NVRAM?
a. delete backup-config
b. erase backup-config
c. delete startup-config
d. erase startup-config
nd
10. Which router command causes the router to reboot?
a. reload
b. restart
c. reboot
d. rerun
11. When is the router setup mode executed?
a. After the saved configuration file is loaded into main memory

b. When the network administrator needs to enter complex protocol features
on the router
c. When the router begins software initialization
d. When the router cannot find a valid configuration file
12. Which of the following does not describe features of the router setup
mode?
a. Many default settings appear in square brackets.

b. The prompt and command for the setup mode are “router# setup”.
c. The first line and title of the setup dialog is “System Configuration
Dialog”.
d. Pressing the Return key cancels dialog prompts.
13. Which of the following correctly describes a procedure for setup of router
global and interface parameters on a router?
a. A default parameter is shown in square brackets at every prompt.

b. The router hostname must be set.
c. An enable secret password can be set, but is not required.
d. For each installed interface, a series of questions must be answered.
14. Which of the following does not correctly describe a procedure for setup of
global and interface parameters on a router?
a. An enable secret password must be entered.

b. A default parameter is shown in square brackets at every prompt.
c. Configuration values that you have determined for the installed interfaces
are entered as parameters at the interface prompts.
d. The router hostname must be set.
nd
15. What information do you need to gather before starting a global or
interface configuration session on a router?
a. Brand and model of router and type of networks the router connects to
directly
b. IOS version and current register setting
c. Which routing protocols will be needed, IP addresses of interface and
subnets, and which interfaces are being used
d. IP addresses of neighboring routers, size of Flash memory
16. Which of the following correctly describes the router setup script review?
a. The setup command program displays the configuration that was created
from your answers to the setup prompts.
b. The setup command program asks you whether you want to change any
of your answers.
c. If you choose to use the displayed configuration, you select a location to
save it to.
d. If you choose not to use the configuration, you must reboot the router.
17. Which of the following correctly describes the procedure for modifying the
script displayed upon completion of the router configuration process?
a. The setup command program prompts you at each of the script lines as
to whether you want to change your answers.
b. You choose not to accept the configuration and the router then reboots.
c. You select the dialog lines that you want to change and the program then
prompts you again at those lines.
d. The script tells you to use configuration mode to modify the configuration.
18. Why might you want to issue show startup-config and show running-
config commands?
a. It’s time to update the IOS and you need to kill certain router processes
before proceeding.
b. To determine the time since the router booted and the current register
setting.
c. The router suddenly isn’t working right and you want to compare the
initial state to the present state.
d. To find out where the IOS booted from and which version is being used.
nd
19. Why should the enable password be different from the enable secret
password?
a. The router asks that the passwords be changed monthly if they are the
same.
b. To provide an additional category of users.
c. The enable password can be read directly from the configuration file.
d. The IOS behaves badly if they are the same.
20. What file(s) would you find in NVRAM?
a. IOS and configuration files

b. Configuration file
c. Backup copy of IOS
d. Limited version IOS and Registry files
nd
Chapter 20
Router Configuration 1
Introduction
The router uses information from the configuration file when it starts up. The
configuration file contains commands to customize router operation. As you saw in the
previous chapter, if no configuration file is available, the system configuration dialog
setup guides you through creating one.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
Configuration files can come from the console, NVRAM, or a TFTP server. The router
has several modes:
• Privileged mode is used for copying and managing entire configuration files.
• Global configuration mode is used for one-line commands and commands that
change the entire router.
• Other configuration modes are used for multiple command lines and detailed
configurations.
The router provides a hostname, a banner, and interface descriptions to aid in
identification.
• What does it mean to configure a router?
Router configuration information can be generated by several means. You can
use the privileged EXEC configure command to configure from a virtual
(remote) terminal, a modem connection, or a console terminal. This enables you
to enter changes to an existing configuration at any time.
You can also use the privileged EXEC configure command to load a
configuration from a network TFTP server, which enables you to maintain and
store configuration information at a central site.
• Why must routers be configured?
A router must know which interfaces are to be used, which routed and routing
protocols are supported, along with security and access list configurations.
nd
• Explain how to work with 11.x config files, compare and contrast router
configuration modes, and prepare a flowchart of 11.x configuration
methods.
The commands shown in Figure 20-4 are used with Cisco IOS Release 11.0 and
later. Figure 20-4 shows you a way to do the following:
⇒ Enter configuration statements.
⇒ Examine the changes you have made.
⇒ If necessary, modify or remove configuration statements.
⇒ Save the changes to a backup in NVRAM that the router uses when it
starts up.

Define the following term as completely as you can. Use the online Chapter 20 or the
material for help.
Configure terminal Command used to configure manually from the console terminal.
Focus Questions
1. What does it mean to configure a router? Why must routers be configured?
Configuring a router usually describes the process by which a router learns its
Layer 3 addresses, hostname, passwords, support protocols. A router must
know which interfaces are to be used, which routed and routing protocols are
supported, along with security and access list configurations.
2. The commands copy running-config tftp and copy running-config
startup-config store the currently running configuration from RAM to
_____ and _____, respectively.
A network TFTP server and NVRAM, respectively.

3. What do the prompts for user EXEC mode, privileged EXEC mode, and
global configuration mode look like?
Router>, Router#, and Router(config)#

4. When configuring routers with Release 11.x methods, after you type show
running-config and display a desired configuration, what commands do
you use to save changes to backup?
Use copy running-config startup-config and copy running-

config tftp.
nd
5. What are two basic tasks when first configuring a router?
Password configuration and naming the router (router identification

configuration).
nd
Edition.
1. Which of the following is not a function of the privileged EXEC configure
command?
a. To configure a router from a virtual terminal

b. To configure a TFTP server from a virtual terminal
c. To configure a router from the console terminal
d. To load a configuration from a network TFTP server
2. Which of the following is not a step in using the copy running-config
tftp command to store the current router configuration? (The steps are
listed in order.)
a. Enter the copy running-config tftp command.

b. Enter the IP address of the router.
c. Enter the name you want to assign to the configuration file.
d. Confirm your choices.
3. Which of the following is not a step in using the copy tftp running-
config command to load a router configuration file stored on a TFTP
server? (The steps are listed in order.)
a. Enter the copy tftp running-config command.

b. Select either a host configuration file or a network configuration file.
c. Enter the IP address of the remote host from which you retrieve the
configuration file.
d. Enter the name of the server to which you will load the file.
4. Which of the following does not correctly describe using a TFTP server to
maintain router configuration files?
a. A host configuration file contains commands that apply to all routers and
terminal servers on the network.
b. The convention for all filenames is UNIX-based.
c. The default filename is hostname-config for the host file.
d. Reconfiguration of the router occurs as soon as a new file is downloaded
to the router.
nd
5. You want to replace your current configuration file with one located on a
TFTP server, what is the process you need to go through to do this?
a. router (config)# copy tftp running-config

Host or network configuration file [host]?
IP address of remote host [255.255.255.255]?
131.108.6.155
Name of configuration file [Router-config]? paris.3
Configure using paris.3 from 131.108.6.155 [confirm] y
Booting paris.3 from 131.108.6.155: !! [OK – 874/16000
bytes]
Router (config)#
b. router # copy tftp running-config
131.108.6.155
bytes]
Router#
c. router # copy tftp running-config
bytes]
Router#
d. router # copy tftp running-config
131.108.6.155
bytes]
Router#
6. What is the function of the configure memory router command?
a. Loads configuration information from NVRAM

b. Erases the contents of NVRAM
c. Stores into NVRAM the current configuration in RAM
d. Displays the configuration saved in NVRAM
7. What is the function of the copy running-config startup-config
router command?
a. Loads configuration information from NVRAM

b. Erases the contents of NVRAM
c. Stores into NVRAM the current configuration in RAM
d. Displays the configuration saved in NVRAM
nd
8. You added a new LAN onto you network; therefore, you updated your
routing table and other parts of your configuration file. What command do
you need to issue to save the new configuration file?
a. copy config startup-config

b. copy running-config startup-config
c. configure memory
d. copy startup-config config-running
9. Which router mode is a subset of the EXEC commands available at the
privileged EXEC mode?
a. Global configuration mode

b. User EXEC mode
c. Interface configuration mode
d. Router configuration mode
10. What is the system prompt for the user EXEC router mode?
a. Router>
b. Router#
c. Router(config)#
d. User EXEC
11. What happens when you type exit at a router mode prompt?
a. A configuration mode prompt appears.

b. The router logs you off.
c. The router backs out one mode level.
d. A question prompt appears, requesting a network device location.
12. What does the router prompt look like when you are in global configuration
mode?
a. Router#
b. Router (config-router)#
c. Router (config)#
d. Router-config#
nd
13. If you want to back completely out of configuration mode, what must you
enter?
a. exit
b. no config-mode
c. Ctrl+E
d. Ctrl+Z
14. If you type Ctrl+Z to get out of configuration mode, where do you end up?
a. User EXEC mode

b. Privileged EXEC mode
c. Global configuration mode
d. Router mode
15. If you are planning to configure an interface, what prompt should be on the
router?
a. Router (config)#
b. Router (config-in)#
c. Router (config-intf)#
d. Router (Config-if)#
16. Which of the following does not describe a procedure for using the router
global configuration mode?
a. You type configure to enter global configuration mode.

b. You can specify the terminal, NVRAM, or a file on a server as the source
of configuration commands.
c. You can type commands to configure specific interfaces.
d. You can type a command to reach a prompt for the interface
configuration mode.
17. Which of the following is the system prompt for the global configuration
mode?
a. Router#
b. Router(config)#
c. Router(config-global)#
d. Router(config-router)#
nd
18. Which of the following does not describe a step in the procedure for using
the router configuration mode?
a. Enter a global router protocol command type at the global configuration

prompt.
b. The Router(config-router)# prompt indicates you are in router
configuration mode.
c. Defaults can be selected for all available command options.
d. Finish using this mode with the command exit.
19. Which of the following does not describe a step in the procedure for using
the interface configuration mode?
a. Enter a global interface type and number command at the global

configuration prompt.
b. The Router(config-if)# prompt indicates you are in interface
configuration mode.
c. Interfaces can be turned on and off using commands in this mode.
d. Interface types are enabled at subcommands in this mode.
20. Which of the following is a correct order for the process of configuring a
router? (Assume you have already made router changes in configuration
mode.)
a. Save changes to backup, decide whether changes are your intended

results, examine results, and examine backup file.
b. Examine results, decide whether changes are your intended results, save
changes to backup, and examine backup file.
c. Decide whether changes are your intended results, examine backup file,
save changes to backup, and examine results.
d. Examine results, save changes to backup, decide whether changes are
your intended results, examine backup file.
21. Which of the following best describes the process of configuring a router?
a. Examine results, make changes in configuration mode, remove changes,

and decide whether changes are your intended results.
b. Decide if changes are your intended results, make changes in
configuration mode, examine results, and remove changes.
c. Make changes in configuration mode, decide whether changes are your
intended results, examine results, and remove changes.
d. Make changes in configuration mode, examine results, decide whether
changes are your intended results, and remove changes.
nd
22. Which of the following is a command that can be used to save router
configuration changes to a backup?
a. Router# copy running-config tftp

b. Router# show running-config
c. Router# config mem
d. Router# copy tftp running-config
23. Which of the following is not a command to remove router configuration
changes?
a. Router(config)# no ...
b. Router# config mem
c. Router# copy running-config startup-config
d. Router# copy tftp running-config
24. Which of the following correctly describes password configuration on
routers?
a. All passwords are established in the privileged EXEC mode.

b. All passwords alter the password character string.
c. A password can be established on all incoming Telnet sessions.
d. The enable password command restricts access to user EXEC mode.
25. Which of the following does not describe password configuration on
routers?
a. Passwords can be established in every configuration mode.

b. A password can be established on any console terminal.
c. The enable secret password uses an encryption process to alter the
password character string.
d. All password establishment begins in the global configuration mode.
26. When you are setting passwords for vty 0 4, for what access point to the
router are you setting a password for?
a. Line consoles
b. Telnet sessions
c. Remote host router
d. Virtual hosts
nd
27. The password set up with the enable-secret command is to control direct
access to what?
a. User EXEC mode

b. Configure Interface mode
c. Privilege EXEC mode
d. Global configuration mode
28. Which of the following correctly describes procedures for confirming
router identification?
a. Routers should be named only after initial testing of the network.

b. If no name is configured, the system automatically assigns the router a
number.
c. You name the router in global configuration mode.
d. The login banner can be configured to display system error messages.
29. Which of the following does not describe procedures for confirming router
identification?
a. If no name is configured, the system default router name is Router.

b. Naming your router to be the host should be one of the first network
configuration tasks.
c. The login banner is configured in global configuration mode.
d. You can configure a message-of-the-day banner to display on specified
terminals.
30. You want to create a message to let people know a little something about
the network when they log in—what command enables you to do this?
a. banner mesg
b. banner motd
c. daily mesg
d. daily motd
nd
Chapter 21
IOS Images
Introduction
The default source for Cisco IOS software depends on the hardware platform; but most
commonly, the router looks to the configuration commands saved in NVRAM. Cisco IOS
software offers several alternatives. You can specify other sources where the router
should look for software, or the router uses its own fallback sequence as necessary to
load software.
Settings in the configuration register enable alternatives for where the router will
bootstrap Cisco IOS software. You can specify enabled configuration-mode boot system
commands to enter fallback sources for the router to use in sequence. Save these
statements in NVRAM to use during the next startup with the command copy
running-config startup-config. The router uses these commands as needed, in
sequence, when it restarts. If NVRAM lacks boot system commands the router can use,
however, the system has its own fallback alternatives. The router falls back and uses
default Cisco IOS in Flash memory. If Flash memory is empty, the router tries its next
TFTP alternative. The router uses the configuration register value to form a filename
from which to boot a default system image stored on a network server.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
Routers boot Cisco IOS software from
⇒ Flash
⇒ TFTP server
⇒ ROM (not full Cisco IOS)
⇒ Multiple source options provide flexibility and fallback alternatives
• Why does the router need an operating system?
The OS is a vital and necessary piece of the routing process. It creates the
framework for which the entire routing process is based on. Different versions of
software are necessary (based on the needed technologies and improvements
made to the software).
• Why might there be different versions of router operating systems?
Cisco products have expanded beyond the generic router to include many
platforms at many points within the networking product spectrum. To optimize
how Cisco IOS software operates on these various platforms, Cisco is working to
develop many different Cisco IOS software images. These images
accommodate the various platforms, available memory resources, and feature
set needs that customers have for their network devices.
nd
• Explain the process by which the router locates IOS software.
The default source for Cisco IOS software startup depends on the hardware
platform, but most commonly, the router looks to the boot system commands
saved in NVRAM. However, Cisco IOS software does allow you to use several
alternatives. You can specify other sources for the router to look for software, or
the router can use its own fallback sequence, as necessary, to load the software.
• Explain the configuration register.
The order in which the router looks for IOS images to load depends on the boot
field setting in the configuration register. You can change the default
configuration register setting with the global configuration command
configregister. Use a hexadecimal number as the argument for this
command as in the following example:
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# config-register 0x10F
• Compare and contrast the boot options for obtaining IOS: from Flash
memory, from the network, and from ROM.
⇒ Set the configuration register value to 0x100 if you need to enter the
ROM monitor (primarily a programmer’s environment). From the ROM
monitor, boot the operating system manually by using the b command at
the ROM monitor prompt. (This sets the boot field bits to 0-0-0-0.)
⇒ Set the configuration register to 0x101 to configure the system to boot
automatically from ROM. (This sets the boot field bits to 0-0-0-1.)
⇒ Set the configuration register to any value from 0x102 to 0x10F to
configure the system to use the boot system commands in NVRAM. This
is the default. (This sets the boot field bits to between 0-0-1-0 and 1-1-1-
1.)
• Describe the show version command and all the information it tells you.
The show version command displays information about the Cisco IOS
software version that is currently running on the router. This includes the
configuration register and the boot field setting. In the example illustrated in
Listing 21-1, the Cisco IOS version and descriptive information is highlighted on
the second output line. The screen captured shows an experimental version of
Release 11.2. This line shows the system image name:
System image file is "c4500-f-mz", booted via tftp from
171.69.1.129
In addition, the show version command displays information about the type of
platform on which the version of Cisco IOS software is currently running.
nd
• Describe the processes for creating a software image backup, upgrading
the image from a network, and loading a software image backup.
⇒ Creating a software image backup:
You should copy a system image back to a network server. This copy of the
system image can serve as a backup copy. Figure 21-2 and Listing 21-2 use the
show flash command to learn the name of the system image file (xk09140z),
and the copy flash tftp command to copy the system image to a TFTP
server. The files can be renamed during transfer.
⇒ The copy tftp flash command:
After you have a backup copy of the current Cisco IOS software image, you can
load a new image. You download the new image from the TFTP server by using
the command copy tftp flash. Figure 21-3 and Listing 21-3 show that this
command begins by requesting the IP address of the remote host that will act as
the TFTP server. Next, the prompt asks for the filename of the new IOS image.
You need to enter the correct filename of the update image (as it is named on
the TFTP server).
⇒ How to load a software image backup:
If you need to load the backup Cisco IOS version, again use the copy command
copy tftp flash, which will enable you to download the image that you
previously uploaded to the TFTP server. After you enter the copy tftp flash
command, as shown in Listing 21-4, the system prompts you for the IP address
(or name) of the TFTP server. This can be another router serving ROM or Flash
software images. The system then prompts you for the filename of the software
image.

material for help.
Acknowledgment number Next expected TCP octet.
a MAC address. Defined in RFC 826.
Autonomous system Collection of networks under a common administration sharing
a common routing strategy. Autonomous systems are subdivided by areas. An
autonomous system must be assigned a unique 16-bit number by the IANA. Sometimes
abbreviated AS.
Bandwidth The difference between the highest and lowest frequencies available for
network signals. The term is also used to describe the rated throughput capacity of a
given network medium or protocol.
Broadcast Data packet that will be sent to all nodes on a network. Broadcasts are
identified by a broadcast address.
nd
Checksum 1) Method for checking the integrity of transmitted data. A checksum is an
integer value computed from a sequence of octets taken through a series of arithmetic
operations. The value is recomputed at the receiving end and compared for verification.
2) Calculated checksum of the header and data fields.
Configuration register In Cisco routers, a 16-bit, user-configurable value that
determines how the router functions during initialization. The configuration register can
be stored in hardware or software. In hardware, the bit position is set using a jumper. In
software, the bit position is set by specifying a hexadecimal value using configuration
commands.
Delay The time between the initiation of a transaction by a sender and the first
response received by the sender. Also, the time required to move a packet from source
to destination over a given path.
Destination port Number of the called port.
Distance-vector routing algorithm Class of routing algorithms that iterate on the
number of hops in a route to find a shortest-path spanning tree. Distance-vector routing
algorithms call for each router to send its entire routing table in each update, but only to
its neighbors. Distance-vector routing algorithms can be prone to routing loops, but are
computationally simpler than link-state routing algorithms.
Dynamic routing Routing that adjusts automatically to network topology or traffic
changes.
EEPROM EPROM that can be erased using electrical signals applied to specific pins.
Enhanced IOS image that has additional capabilities and/or protocols usually
identified by the word Plus or referred to as Feature Pack.
Flooding Traffic passing technique used by switches and bridges in which traffic
received on an interface is sent out all of the interfaces of that device except the
interface on which the information was originally received.
until the data in the buffers has been processed.
Handshake Sequence of messages exchanged between two or more network
devices to ensure transmission synchronization.
HLEN Number of 32-bit words in the header.
Host Computer system on a network. Similar to the term node except that host
usually implies a computer system; whereas, node generally applies to any networked
system, including access servers and routers.
IGRP (Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) IGP developed by Cisco to address the
problems associated with routing in large, heterogeneous networks.
nd
Link-state routing algorithm Routing algorithm in which each router broadcasts or
multicasts information regarding the cost of reaching each of its neighbors to all nodes
in the internetwork. Link-state algorithms create a consistent view of the network and
are therefore not prone to routing loops, but they achieve this at the cost of relatively
greater computational difficulty and more widespread traffic (compared with distance-
vector routing algorithms).
MTU (maximum transmission unit) Maximum packet size, in bytes, that a particular
interface can handle.
that can communicate with each other over some transmission medium. 2) Command
that assigns a NIC-based address to which the router is directly connected. 3)
Command that specifies any directly connected networks to be included.
OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) Link-state, hierarchical IGP routing algorithm
proposed as a successor to RIP in the Internet community. OSPF features include least-
cost routing, multipath routing, and load balancing.
Ping Short for Packet Internet Groper or Packet Internetwork Groper, a utility to
determine whether a specific IP address is accessible. It works by sending a packet to
the specified address and waiting for a reply. Ping is used primarily to troubleshoot
Internet connections.
provides a method for finding IP addresses based on MAC addresses.
Reliability Ratio of expected to received keepalives from a link. If the ratio is high,
the line is reliable. Used as a routing metric.
RIP (Routing Information Protocol) IGP supplied with UNIX BSD systems. The
most common IGP in the Internet. RIP uses hop count as a routing metric.
Sequence number Number used to ensure correct sequencing of the arriving data.
Source port Number of the calling port.
Static route Route that is explicitly configured and entered into the routing table.
Static routes take precedence over routes chosen by dynamic routing protocols.
Subnetwork 1) In IP networks, a network sharing a particular subnet address.
addressing complexity of attached networks. Sometimes called a subnet. 2) In OSI
networks, a collection of ESs and ISs under the control of a single administrative domain
and using a single network access protocol.
stack.
Trace Command that uses Time-To-Live (TTL) values to generate messages from
nd
Window Number of octets that the receiver is willing to accept.
Focus Questions
1. Why does the router need an operating system? Why might there be
different versions of router operating systems?
The OS is a vital and necessary piece of the routing process. It creates the
framework for which the entire routing process is based on. Different versions of
software are necessary (based on the needed technologies and improvements
made to the software).
2. Routers can boot Cisco IOS software from where?
a. Flash memory
b. A TFTP server
c. Both a and b
3. The router cannot be configured to look elsewhere if the IOS software is
not in Flash memory.
a. True
b. False
4. The configuration register is an n-bit register in NVRAM. What is the value
of n?
a. 8
b. 16
c. 32
5. What command would you use to check the configuration register setting?
a. configure terminal
b. config-register
c. show version
nd
6. What does the first E in EEPROM stand for?
a. Erasable
b. Electronically
c. Enable
nd
Edition.
1. Which of the following correctly describes a method for specifying how a
router loads the Cisco IOS software?
a. Designate fallback sources for the router to use in sequence from

NVRAM
b. Configure the Cisco IOS software image for the location where it will
bootstrap
c. Manually boot a default system image at a virtual terminal
d. Manually boot a default system image at the network server
2. Which is the sequence used by the router for automatic fallback to locate
Cisco IOS software?
a. Flash, NVRAM, TFTP server

b. NVRAM, TFTP server, Flash
c. NVRAM, Flash, TFTP server
d. TFTP server, Flash, NVRAM
3. Which of the following does not describe configuration register settings
for Cisco IOS bootstrapping?
a. The order in which the router looks for system bootstrap information
depends on the boot field setting.
b. You change the configuration register setting with the command
config-register.
c. You use a hexadecimal number when setting the configuration register
boot field.
d. Use the show running-config command to check the boot field
setting.
4. Which of the following is information displayed by the Cisco IOS show
version command?
a. Statistics about the router’s memory

b. Name of the system image
c. Information about the Flash memory device
d. Status of configured network protocols
nd
5. Which command is used to discover the configuration register setting?
a. show register
b. show running-config
c. show version
d. show startup-config
6. Which of the following does not correctly describe a fallback option for
booting Cisco IOS software?
a. Flash memory provides storage that is not vulnerable to network failures.

b. Loading Cisco IOS software from a TFTP server is a good option in case
Flash memory becomes corrupted.
c. The system image booted from ROM is usually a complete copy of Cisco
IOS software.
d. ROM might contain an older version of Cisco IOS software.
7. Which of the following correctly describes preparing to use a TFTP server
to copy software to Flash memory?
a. The TFTP server must be another router or a host system such as a

UNIX workstation or a laptop computer.
b. The TFTP host must be a system connected to an Ethernet network.
c. The name of the router containing the Flash memory must be identified.
d. The Flash memory must be enabled.
8. Which of the following is not a step in preparing to copy software from a
TFTP host to Flash memory?
a. Check the router to make sure you can see and write into Flash.
b. Verify that the router has sufficient room to accommodate Cisco IOS
software.
c. Use the show ip route command to make sure you can access the
TFTP server over the TCP/IP network.
d. Check the TFTP server to make sure you know the file or file space for
the Cisco IOS software image.
nd
9. Which of the following does not describe the procedure to verify sufficient
room in Flash memory for copying software?
a. Use the show flash command.

b. Identify the total memory in Flash, which is the available memory.
c. Compare the available memory with the length of the Cisco IOS software
image to be copied.
d. If there is not enough available memory, you can try to obtain a smaller
Cisco IOS software image.
10. How would you determine the size of the IOS image file on a TFTP server?
a. Go to the Cisco web site and consult the image file size table.
b. Type show version on your router.
c. Do dir or ls on the TFTP server.
d. Telnet to the TFTP server and issue a show files command.
11. Which of the following is the fastest way to make sure the TFTP server is
reachable prior to trying to transfer an IOS image file?
a. Trace the TFTP server.

b. Ping the TFTP server.
c. Telnet to the TFTP server.
d. Call the TFTP server administrator.
12. Why do you need to determine the file size of the IOS image on the TFTP
server before transferring it to your router?
a. To check that there is enough space in Flash to store the file

b. To verify that the file is the correct IOS for your router
c. To complete a trivial file transfer protocol operation, the file size must be
known
d. To calculate the download time for the file and thus, the amount of time
the router will be out of service
13. What information is not provided in the Cisco image filename system?
a. Capabilities of the image

b. The platform on which the image runs
c. Where the image runs
d. Size of the image
nd
14. Which of the following is not part of the procedure for creating a Cisco IOS
software image backup to a TFTP server?
a. Use the show flash command to learn the name of the system image
file.
b. Enter the copy flash tftp command to begin the copy process.
c. Enter the IP address of the router holding the image file.
d. You can rename the file during transfer.
15. Why does an administrator create a Cisco IOS software image backup?
a. To verify that the copy in Flash is the same as the copy in ROM
b. To provide a fallback copy of the current image prior to copying the
image to a new router
c. To create a fallback copy of the current image as part of procedures
during recovery from system failure
d. To create a fallback copy of the current image prior to updating with a
new version
16. Which of the following is not part of the procedure for loading a new Cisco
IOS software image to Flash memory from a TFTP server? (The procedures
are listed in correct order.)
a. Backup a copy of the current software image to the TFTP server.

b. Enter the copy flash tftp command to download the new image
from the server.
c. The procedure asks if you are willing to erase Flash.
d. A series of Vs on the display indicates successful check run verification.
17. Which of the following is not part of the procedure for loading a backup
Cisco IOS software image to Flash memory from a TFTP server? (The
procedures are listed in correct order.)
a. Enter the copy tftp flash command.

b. A prompt asks you for the IP address of the TFTP server.
c. If a file with the same name exists in Flash memory, the file being copied
automatically replaces it.
d. Enter the reload command to boot up the router using the newly copied
image.
nd
18. What is the initial boot attempt if the router register is set to Ox2100?
a. ROM monitor
b. TFTP server
c. ROM
d. Flash
a. ROM monitor
b. TFTP server
c. ROM
d. Flash
a. ROM monitor
b. TFTP server
c. ROM
d. Flash
nd
Chapter 22
Router Configuration 2
Introduction
One way to begin understanding the way the Internet works is to configure a router. It is
also one of the primary topics on the CCNA exam, and one of the most important and
sought-after skills of employers. Routers are complex devices that can have a wide
variety of possible configurations.
Concept Questions
• What does it mean to configure a router?
Router configuration information can be generated by several means. You can
use the privileged EXEC configure command to configure from a virtual
(remote) terminal, a modem connection, or a console terminal. This enables you
to enter changes to an existing configuration at any time.
You can also use the privileged EXEC configure command to load a
configuration from a network TFTP server, which enables you to maintain and
store configuration information at a central site.
• Why must routers be configured?
A router must know which interfaces are to be used, which routed and routing
protocols are supported, along with security and access list configurations.
• Describe the router configuration process.
You can configure a router from many external locations, including the following:
⇒ From the console terminal (a computer connected to the router through a
console port) during its installation
⇒ Via a modem by using the auxiliary port
⇒ From virtual terminals, after the router has been installed on the network
⇒ From a TFTP server on the network
nd
• Explain the router password recovery procedure on 1600 and 2500 series
routers.
Step-by-step procedure (1600 Router):
Step 2. Attach a terminal or PC with terminal emulation to the console port of
the router. Use the following terminal settings:
9600 baud rate
No parity
8 data bits
1 stop bit
No flow control
Step 6. If you still have access to the router, type show version and record
the setting of the configuration register; it is usually 0x2102 or 0x102.
Step 7. If you don't have access to the router (because of a lost login or
TACACS password), you can safely consider that your configuration
register is set to 0x2102.
Step 8. Using the power switch, turn off the router and then turn it back on.
Step 9. Press Break on the terminal keyboard within 60 seconds of the power
up to put the router into ROMMON.
Step 10. Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1> prompt to boot from Flash
without loading the configuration.
Step 11. Type reset at the rommon 2> prompt.
The router reboots but ignores its saved configuration.

Step 12. Type no after each setup question or press Ctrl+C to skip the initial
setup procedure.
Step 13. Type enable at the Router> prompt.
You'll be in enable mode and see the Router# prompt.

Step 14. Important: Type config mem or copy start running to copy the
nonvolatile RAM (NVRAM) into memory. Do not type config term.
Step 15. Type wr term or show running.
The show running and wr term commands show the

configuration of the router. In this configuration you see under all the
interfaces the shutdown command, which means all interfaces are
currently shutdown. Also, you can see the passwords either in
encrypted or unencrypted format.
Step 16. Type config term and make the changes.
The prompt is now hostname(config)#.
nd
Step 17. Type enable secret password.
Step 18. Issue the no shutdown command on every interface that is used. If
you issue a show ip interface brief command, every interface
that you want to use should be "up up".
Step 19. Type config-register 0x2102 or the value you recorded in step
2.
Step 20. Press Ctrl+Z to leave the configuration mode.
The prompt is now hostname#.

Step 21. Type write mem or copy running startup to commit the
changes.
Step-by-step procedure (2500 Router):

Step 1. Attach a terminal or PC with terminal emulation to the console port of
the router. Use the following terminal settings:
9600 baud rate
No parity
8 data bits
1 stop bit
No flow control
Step 2. Using the power switch, turn the router off and then turn it back on.
Step 3. Press Break on the terminal keyboard within 60 seconds of the

power-up to put the router into ROMMON.
Step 4. Type o at the > prompt and record the current value of the
configuration register (usually 0x2102, or 0x102):
>o
Configuration register = 0x2102 at last boot
Bit# Configuration register option settings:
15 Diagnostic mode disabled
Step 5. Type o/r 0x2142 at the > prompt to boot from Flash without loading the
configuration.
Step 6. Type i at the > prompt.
The router reboots, but ignores its saved configuration.

Step 7. Type no after each setup question or press Ctrl+C to skip the initial setup
procedure.
Step 8. Type enable at the Router> prompt.
You'll be in enable mode and see the Router# prompt.
nd
Step 9. Important: Type config mem or copy start running to copy the
nonvolatile RAM (NVRAM) into memory. Do not type config term.
Step 10. Type wr term or show running.
The show running and wr term commands show the

configuration of the router. In this configuration, you see under all the
interfaces the shutdown command, which means all interfaces are
currently shut down. Also, you can see the passwords either in
encrypted or unencrypted format.
Step 11. Type config term and make the changes.
The prompt is now hostname(config)#.

Step 12. Type enable secret password.
Step 13. Issue the no shutdown command on every interface that is used. If
you issue a show ip interface brief command, every interface
that you want to use should be "up up".
Step 14. Type config-register 0x2102 or the value you recorded in step
4.
Step 15. Press Ctrl+Z to leave the configuration mode.
The prompt is now hostname#.

Step 16. Type write mem or copy running startup to commit the
changes.
nd
Edition.
1. What are the major elements of a typical router configuration?
a. Passwords; interfaces; routing protocols; DNS

b. Boot sequence; interfaces; tftp server; NVRAM
c. NVRAM; ROM; DRAM; interfaces
d. Interfaces; routing protocols; configuration register; flash
2. In a password recovery procedure, immediately after issuing a Ctrl+Break
upon router startup, what should be the configuration register setting?
a. 0x2102
b. 0x2142
c. 0x0000
d. 0x10F
3. In a password recovery procedure, just before saving the running
configuration and after you enable a new secret password, what should be
the configuration register setting?
a. 0x2102
b. 0x2142
c. 0x0000
d. 0x10F
nd
4. What is the correct syntax to enable RIP on router A in the lab topology?
a.
config t
router rip
int e0
ip address 192.5.5.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
description this is the first Ethernet Interface
CNTRL/Z
copy run start
b.
config t
router rip
network 192.5.5.0
network 205.7.5.0
network 201.100.11.0
CNTRL/Z
copy run start
c.
config t
router rip
ip host LAB-A 192.5.5.1 207.5.1 201.100.11.1
ip host LAB-B 201.100.11.2 219.17.100.1 199.6.13.1
ip host LAB-C 199.6.13.2 223.8.151.1 204.204.7.1
ip host LAB-D 204.204.7.2 210.93.105.1
ip host LAB-E 210.93.105.2
d. CNTRL/Z
copy run start
e. None of the above
nd
5. What is the correct syntax for completely configuring Ethernet and serial
interfaces?
a.
config t
int e0
ip host LAB-A 192.5.5.1 207.5.1 201.100.11.1
ip host LAB-B 201.100.11.2 219.17.100.1 199.6.13.1
ip host LAB-C 199.6.13.2 223.8.151.1 204.204.7.1
ip host LAB-D 204.204.7.2 210.93.105.1
ip host LAB-E 210.93.105.2
CNTRL/Z
copy run start
b.
config t
int e0
network 192.5.5.0
network 205.7.5.0
network 201.100.11.0
c. CNTRL/Z
copy run start
d.
config t
int e0
ip address 192.5.5.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
description this is the first Ethernet Interface
CNTRL/Z
copy run start
e. None of the above
nd
Chapter 23
TCP/IP
Introduction
The Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) suite of protocols was
developed as part of the research done by the Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency (DARPA). Later, TCP/IP was included with the Berkeley Software Distribution of
UNIX.
The Internet protocols can be used to communicate across any set of interconnected
networks. They are equally well suited for both LAN and WAN communication.
The IP suite includes not only Layer 3 and Layer 4 specifications (such as IP and TCP),
but also specifications for such common applications as e-mail, remote login, terminal
emulation, and file transfer.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
The TCP/IP protocol stack has the following components:
⇒ Protocols to support file transfer, e-mail, remote login, and other applications.
⇒ Reliable and unreliable transports.
⇒ Connectionless datagram delivery at the network layer ICMP provides control
and message functions at the network layer.
• The TCP/IP protocol stack maps closely to the lower layers of the OSI reference
model. What function do the application protocols perform?
⇒ They provide services to application processes that are outside of the
OSI model.
⇒ They identify and establish the availability of intended communication
partners.
⇒ They synchronize cooperating applications.
⇒ They establish agreement on procedures for error recovery and control of
data integrity.
nd
• The transport layer performs two functions. What are they?
The transport layer enables a user’s device to segment data from several upper-
layer applications for placement on the same Layer 4 data stream, and enables a
receiving device to reassemble the upper-layer application segments. The Layer
4 data stream is a logical connection between the endpoints of a network; it
provides transport services from a source host to a destination host. This service
is sometimes referred to as an end-to-end service.
• What kind of protocol is TCP?
TCP is a connection-oriented, reliable protocol that provides flow control by
providing sliding windows and offers reliability by providing sequence numbers
and acknowledgments. TCP resends anything that is not acknowledged and
supplies a virtual circuit between end-user applications. The advantage of TCP is
that it provides guaranteed delivery of segments.

material for help.
Acknowledgment number Next expected TCP octet.
a MAC address. Defined in RFC 826.
Checksum 1) Method for checking the integrity of transmitted data. A checksum is an
integer value computed from a sequence of octets taken through a series of arithmetic
operations. The value is recomputed at the receiving end and compared for verification.
2) Calculated checksum of the header and data fields.
Destination port Number of the called port.
until the data in the buffers has been processed.
Handshake Sequence of messages exchanged between two or more network
devices to ensure transmission synchronization.
HLEN Number of 32-bit words in the header.
provides a method for finding IP addresses based on MAC addresses.
Sequence number Number used to ensure correct sequencing of the arriving data.
Source port Number of the calling port.
stack.
nd
Window Number of octets that the receiver is willing to accept.
Focus Questions
1. How do the TCP/IP conceptual layers relate to the OSI layers?
OSI TCP/IP
Application ! Application
Presentation
Session
Transport ! Transport
Network ! Internet
Data Link ! Network Interface
Physical
2. Compare and contrast TCP and UDP.
TCP is a connection-oriented, reliable protocol that provides flow control by

providing sliding windows and offers reliability by providing sequence numbers
and acknowledgments. TCP resends anything that is not acknowledged and
supplies a virtual circuit between end-user applications. The advantage of TCP is
that it provides guaranteed delivery of segments
UDP is a connectionless and unreliable protocol that is responsible for
transmitting messages but provides no software checking for segment delivery.
The advantage that UDP provides is speed. Because UDP provides no
acknowledgments, less control traffic is sent across the network, making the
transfer faster.
nd
3. Briefly describe everything you know about the fields in a TCP segment.
The TCP segment contains the following fields:

Source Port—The number of the source (port) for this segment.
Destination port—The number of the destination (port) for this segment.
Sequence Number—The number used to ensure correct sequencing of the
arriving data. It is the number assigned to the first octet in the user data field.
Acknowledgment Number—The next expected TCP octet.
HLEN—The number of 32-bit words in the header.
Reserved—Set to 0.
Code Bits—The control functions (for example, setup and termination of a
session).
Window—The number of octets that the sender is willing to accept.
Checksum—The calculated checksum of the header and data fields.
Urgent Pointer—Indicator of the end of the urgent data.
Option—One currently defined: maximum TCP segment size.
Data—Upper-layer protocol data.
4. Briefly describe everything you know about the fields in an IP datagram.
The fields in this IP datagram are as follows:

VES—Version number
HLEN—Header length, in 32-bit words
Type of Service—How the datagram should be handled
Total Length—Total length (header + data)
Identification, Flags, Frag Offset—Provides fragmentation of datagrams to
allow differing MTUs in the internetwork
TTL—Time-To-Live
Protocol—The upper-layer (Layer 4) protocol sending and receiving the
datagram
Header Checksum—In integrity check on the header
Source IP Address and Destination IP Address—32-bit IP addresses
IP Options—Network testing, debugging, security, and other options
nd
5. Briefly distinguish between IP, ICMP, ARP, and RARP.
IP serves as a protocol for many of the services used on the Internet today, such
as SMTP, HTTP, DNS, Telnet, and so on. ICMP provides control and message
functions at the network layer. ICMP is implemented by all TCP/IP hosts. ARP is
used to resolve or map a known IP address to a MAC sublayer address to allow
communication on a multi-access medium, such as Ethernet. RARP is the
reverse of ARP and is used to resolve or map a known MAC sublayer address to
an IP address.
nd
Edition.
1. Which of the following best describes TCP/IP?
a. Suite of protocols that can be used to communicate across any set of

interconnected networks
b. Suite of protocols that allows LANs to connect into WANs
c. Protocols that allow for data transmission across a multitude of networks
d. Protocols that allow different devices to be shared by interconnected
networks
2. Which of the following best describes the purpose of TCP/IP protocol
stacks?
a. Maps closely to the OSI reference model in the upper layers

b. Supports all standard physical and data-link protocols
c. Transfers information in a sequence of datagrams
d. Reassembles datagrams into complete messages at the receiving
location
3. The function of the application layer of the TCP/IP conceptual layers is best
described by which of the following?
a. Responsible for breaking messages into segments and then

reassembling them at the destination
b. Acts as a protocol to manage networking applications
c. Exists for file transfer, e-mail, remote login, and network management
d. Resends anything that is not received, and reassembles messages from
the segments
4. Why are TCP three-way handshake/open connections used?
a. To ensure that lost data can be recovered if problems occur later

b. To determine how much data the receiving station can accept at one time
c. To provide more efficient use of bandwidth by users
d. To change binary ping responses into information in the upper layers
nd
5. What does a TCP sliding window do?
a. It makes the window larger so more data can come through at once,
which results in more efficient use of bandwidth.
b. The window size slides to each section of the datagram to receive data,
which results in more efficient use of bandwidth.
c. It allows the window size to be negotiated dynamically during the TCP
session, which results in more efficient use of bandwidth.
d. It limits the incoming data so that each segment must be sent one by
one, which is an inefficient use of bandwidth.
6. What do the TCP sequence and acknowledgment numbers do?
a. They break datagrams into their binary coefficients, number them

sequentially, and send them to their destination, where the sender
acknowledges their receipt.
b. They break messages down into datagrams that are numbered and then
sent to a host according to the sequence set by the source TCP.
c. They provide a system for sequencing datagrams at the source and
acknowledging them at the destination.
d. They provide sequencing of segments with a forward reference
acknowledgment, number datagrams before transmission, and
reassemble the segments into a complete message.
7. Why does UDP use application layer protocols to provide reliability?
a. To speed up transmission over the network.

b. The lack of reliability protocols makes the software less expensive and
easier to configure.
c. It lacks a protocol to sequence datagrams and negotiate window size.
d. It does not use windowing or acknowledgements.
8. What does the acronym ICMP stand for?
a. Internetwork Connection Model Protocol

b. Internet Connection Monitor Protocol
c. Internet Control Message Protocol
d. Internetwork Control Mode Protocol
nd
9. What is the purpose of ICMPs?
a. They put the internetwork in control mode so that protocols can be set
up.
b. They are messages that the network uses to monitor connection
protocols.
c. They are standard binary messages that act as model internetwork
protocols.
d. They are messages carried in IP datagrams used to send error and
control messages.
10. What does the acronym ARP stand for?
a. Address Resource Protocol

b. Address Resolution Protocol
c. Address Research Program
d. Address Routing Program
11. What is the function of ARP?
a. It completes research for a destination address for a datagram.

b. It is used to develop a cached address resource table.
c. It is used to map an IP address to a MAC address.
d. It sends a broadcast message looking for the router address.
12. How does a sender find out the destination’s MAC address?
a. It consults its routing table.

b. It sends a message to all the addresses searching for the address.
c. It sends out a broadcast message to the entire LAN.
d. It sends out a broadcast message to the entire network.
13. What is the function of the RARP?
a. It is a protocol in the TCP/IP stack that provides a method for finding IP

addresses based on MAC addresses.
b. It is a protocol used to map a 32-bit IP address to a MAC address.
c. It is a protocol used to develop a cached address resource table for the
router.
d. It a protocol that completes research for a destination address for a
datagram based on the IP address.
nd
14. Which of the following best describes the purpose of checksum?
a. Method for comparing IP addresses against those permitted access to

allow entry by a host
b. Method for checking the integrity of transmitted data
c. Method for computing a sequence of octets taken through a series of
arithmetic operations
d. Method for recomputing IP address values at the receiving end and
comparing them for verification
15. Which of the following best describes flow control?
a. A device at the destination side that controls the flow of incoming data
b. A buffer at the source side that monitors the outflow of data
c. A technique that ensures that the source does not overwhelm the
destination with data
d. A suspension of transmission until the data in the source buffers has
been processed
16. What does the acronym SNMP stand for?
a. Standard Node Monitor Protocol

b. Standard Network Management Protocol
c. Simple Node Management Protocol
d. Simple Network Management Protocol
17. What is the purpose of SNMP?
a. Means to monitor and control network devices and to manage

configurations, statistics collection, performance, and security
b. Means to monitor the devices that are connected to one router, and
assign a regular address to each host on the node network
c. Protocol that provides the network administrator with the ability to
manage the devices on the network and control who has access to each
node
d. Protocol that allows for the management of network security,
performance, and configuration from a remote host
18. Which of the following best describes TTL?
a. Field in the datagram header that determines how long the data is valid
b. Field in an IP header that indicates how long a packet is considered valid
c. Field within an IP datagram that indicates the upper-layer protocol
sending the datagram
d. Field in a datagram head that indicates when the next data packet will
arrive
nd
19. Which of the following best describes UDP?
a. A protocol that acknowledges flawed or intact datagrams

b. A protocol that detects errors and requests retransmissions from the
source
c. A protocol that processes datagrams and requests retransmissions when
necessary
d. A protocol that exchanges datagrams without acknowledgments or
guaranteed delivery
20. Which of the following best describes window size?
a. The maximum size of the window that a software can have and still
process data rapidly
b. The number of messages that can be transmitted while awaiting an
acknowledgment
c. The size of the window, in picas, that must be set ahead of time so data
can be sent
d. The size of the window opening on a monitor, which is not always equal
to the monitor size
nd
Chapter 24
IP Addressing
Introduction
In a TCP/IP environment, end stations communicate with servers or other end stations.
This occurs because each node using the TCP/IP protocol suite has a unique 32-bit
logical address. This address is known as the IP address.
Each company listed on the internetwork is seen as a single unique network that must
be reached before an individual host within that company can be contacted. Each
company network has an address; the hosts that live on that network share that same
network address, but each host is identified by the unique host address on the network.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• IP addresses are specified in 32-bit dotted-decimal format. Explain how to
develop an IP address.
Each node using the TCP/IP protocol suite has a unique 32-bit logical address.
This address is specified in 32-bit dotted-decimal format. The IP address is
almost always accompanied by the subnet mask, also in 32-bit dotted-decimal
format. The subnet mask indicates which of the 32 bits in the IP address are
used for network representation and which bits are used for host representation.
The network bits are assigned by InterNIC or ARIN. The host bits are determined
by you, the network administrator.
• Router interfaces can be configured with an IP address.
• ping and trace commands can be used to verify IP address configuration.
• What actually happens when you issue a ping command? Explain verbally
and with a sketch.
The ping command sends a packet to the destination host and then waits for a
reply packet from that host. Results from this echo protocol can help evaluate
the path-to-host reliability, identify delays over the path, and determine whether
the host can be reached or is functioning.
Student sketch should be similar to that of Figure 18-11.
nd
material for help.
Broadcast Data packet that will be sent to all nodes on a network. Broadcasts are
identified by a broadcast address.
Flooding Traffic-passing technique used by switches and bridges in which traffic
received on an interface is sent out all of the interfaces of that device except the
interface on which the information was originally received.
Host Computer system on a network. Similar to the term node except that host
usually implies a computer system; whereas, node generally applies to any networked
system, including access servers and routers.
that are able to communicate with each other over some transmission medium. 2)
Command that assigns a NIC-based address to which the router is directly connected.
3) Command that specifies any directly connected networks to be included.
Ping (Packet Internet Groper) An ICMP echo message and its reply. Often used in
IP networks to test the reachability of a network device.
Subnetwork 1) In IP networks, a network sharing a particular subnet address.
addressing complexity of attached networks. Sometimes called a subnet. 2) In OSI
networks, a collection of ESs and ISs under the control of a single administrative domain
and using a single network access protocol.
Telnet A standard terminal emulation protocol in the TCP/IP protocol stack. Telnet
is used for remote terminal connection, enabling users to log in to remote systems and
use resources as if they were connected to a local system. Telnet is defined in RFC
854.
Trace Command that uses Time-To-Live (TTL) values to generate messages from
nd
Focus Questions
1. If a router has a serial interface S0 with IP address 172.16.1.2, an Ethernet
interface E0 with IP address 172.31.4.1, and a Token Ring interface T0 with
an IP address of 172.31.16.1, and if all interfaces use a mask of
255.255.255.0, find the subnet (wire) number for each interface.
S0 – 172.16.1.0
E0 – 172.31.4.0
T0 – 172.31.16.0
2. What is the result of the command Router (config-if)# ip address
ip-address subnet-mask?
The command assigns an address and a subnet mask and binds the TCP/IP
stack to this physical or logical interface. Now the interface/subinterface can
transmit and receive datagrams.
3. What does the ip host command do?
The ip host command makes a static name-to-address entry in the router’s

configuration file.
4. What type of information is obtained from the show hosts command?
The show hosts command is used to display a cached list of hostnames and
addresses.
5. Distinguish among the three commands that enable you to verify address
configuration in your internetwork. .
Three commands enable you to verify address configuration in your internetwork:

telnet—Verifies the application layer software between source and destination
stations. This command is the most complete testing mechanism available.
ping—Uses the ICMP protocol to verify the hardware connection and the logical
address at the Internet layer. This command is a very basic testing mechanism
and is the most common means of testing IP connectivity.
trace—Uses TTL values to generate messages from each router used along
the path. This command is very powerful in its capability to locate failures in the
path from the source to the destination.
nd
Edition.
1. How does a router dynamically gain access to IP addresses?
a. All host addresses must be entered individually by the network

administrator.
b. The router learns addresses from other routers.
c. The network administrator creates a routing table of all addresses.
d. All hosts automatically send their address to any available router.
2. What kind of address can a device or interface have?
a. Any kind
b. A network number and then all ones
c. A nonzero network number
d. Neither a network nor broadcast number
3. If a router has an Ethernet interface E0, with IP address 172.31.4.1, and if
the interface uses a mask of 255.255.255.0, what is the subnet number?
a. E0: 172.16.1.0
b. E0: 172.31.4.0
c. E0: 172.31.16.0
d. E0: 172.31.41.0
4. If you wanted to assign an address and a subnet mask and start IP
processing on an interface, what command would you use?
a. IP address subnet mask

b. IP address
c. Subnet mask
d. Address IP process
5. If you want to connect a name to an IP address, such as asu 129.219.0.0,
what command structure would you use?
a. ip host asu 129.219.0.0

b. ip name asu 129.219.0.0
c. ip host name asu 129.219.0.0
d. ip host address asu 129.219.0.0
nd
6. What is the purpose of tcp-port-number in the ip host commands?
a. It identifies which IP address to use when using the hostname with an

EXEC connect or telnet command.
b. It sets the default port of any device to port 23.
c. It sets the port of the source device in the router table.
d. It identifies which TCP port to use when using the hostname with an
EXEC connect or telnet command.
7. What is the purpose of the ip name-server command?
a. It defines which hosts can provide the name service.

b. It defines a naming scheme that allows a device to be identified by its
location.
c. It identifies which TCP port to use when using the hostname.
d. It generates messages from each router used along a datagram’s path.
8. Which of the following best describes the function of the show hosts
command?
a. It identifies the subnet mask being used at the destination site.

b. It maintains a cache of host name-to-address mappings for use by EXEC
commands.
c. It is used to display a cached list of host names and addresses.
d. It shows the hostname for the IP address.
9. When you use the ping command and get a result of !, what does it mean?
a. Successful receipt of an echo reply

b. Times out waiting for datagram reply
c. Destination unreachable error
d. Congestion-experienced packet
10. What does it mean when you use the ping command and get a result of . ?
a. Successful receipt of an echo reply

b. Timed out waiting for datagram reply
nd
11. When you use the ping command and get a result of U, what does it
mean?
a. Timed out waiting for datagram reply

b. Destination unreachable error
c. Congestion-experienced packet
d. Ping interrupted
12. When you use the ping command and get a result of C, what does it
mean?
a. Packet Time-To-Live exceeded

b. Ping interrupted
13. When you use the ping command and get a result of I, what does it mean?
a. Destination unreachable error

b. Ping interrupted
c. Congestion-experienced packet
d. Packet type unknown
14. When you use the ping command and get a result of ?, what does it
mean?
a. Packet Time-To-Live exceeded

b. Ping interrupted
c. Packet type unknown
15. When you use the ping command and get a result of &, what does it
mean?
a. Congestion-experienced packet
b. Ping interrupted
c. Packet type unknown
d. Packet Time-To-Live exceeded
16. Which of the following best describes the function of the extended
command mode of the ping command?
a. Used to specify the supported Internet header options

b. Used to specify the time frame for the ping return
c. Used to diagnose why aping was delayed or not returned
nd
d. Used to trace the datagram as it passes through each router
17. How do you enter the extended mode of the ping command?
a. ping x
b. ping e
c. ping [Return key]
d. ping m
18. What does the response !H mean, when it comes in response to the trace
command?
a. The probe was received by the router, but was not forwarded.
b. The protocol was unreachable and the trace was terminated.
c. The network was unreachable, but the last router was up.
d. The port was reached, but the wire to the network was malfunctioning.
19. When it comes in response to the trace command, what does the
response P mean?
a. Time out.
b. The port was unreachable.
c. The protocol was unreachable.
d. The network was unreachable.
20. What does the response N mean, when it comes in response to the trace
command?
a. The name has no IP address connected to it.

b. The probe was not received, so it could not be forwarded.
c. The protocol was unreachable.
d. The network was unreachable.
21. When it comes in response to the trace command, what does the
response U mean?
a. The address was unreachable.

e. The protocol was unreachable.
f. The network was unreachable.
g. The port was unreachable.
nd
22. What does the response * mean when it comes in response to the trace
command?
a. The destination device refused the trace.

b. The trace timed out.
c. The network refused the trace.
d. The source used a trace that was not supported by the network protocol.
nd
Chapter 25
Routing
Introduction
Which path should traffic take through the cloud of networks? Path determination occurs
at Layer 3 of the OSI reference model, the network layer. The path determination
function enables a router to evaluate the available paths to a destination and to establish
the preferred handling of a packet.
Routing services use network topology information when evaluating network paths. This
information can be configured by the network administrator or collected through dynamic
processes running in the network.
The network layer interfaces to networks and provides best-effort, end-to-end packet
delivery services to its user, the transport layer. The network layer sends packets from
the source network to the destination network based on the IP routing table.
After the router determines which path to use, it proceeds with forwarding the packet: It
takes the packet it accepted on one interface and forwards it to another interface or port
that reflects the best path to the packet’s destination.
Concept Questions
Demonstrate you knowledge of these concepts by answering the following questions in
the space provided.
• Internetworking functions of the network layer include network addressing and
best path selection for traffic. What is best-path selection?
The network layer uses the IP routing table to send packets from the source
network to the destination network. After the router determines which path to
use, it proceeds with forwarding the packet. It takes the packet that it accepted
on one interface and forwards it to another interface or port that reflects the best
path to the packet’s destination.
• In network addressing, one part of the address is used to identify the path used
by the router and the other is used for ports or devices on the network. Which
part of the address is used to identify the path used by the router?
The router uses the network portion of the address to make path selections to
pass the packet to the next router along the path.
nd
• Routed protocols allow routers to direct user traffic, and routing protocols work
between routers to maintain path tables. Explain this key difference.
Routed protocol—Any network protocol that provides enough information in its
network layer address to allow a packet to be forwarded from one host to
another host based on the addressing scheme. Routed protocols define the field
formats within a packet. Packets are generally conveyed from end system to end
system. A routed protocol uses the routing table to forward packets. The Internet
Protocol (IP) is an example of a routed protocol.
Routing protocol—Support a routed protocol by providing mechanisms for
sharing routing information. Routing protocol messages move between the
routers. A routing protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers
to update and maintain tables. TCP/IP examples of routing protocols include the
following:
⇒ Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
⇒ Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP)
⇒ Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)
⇒ Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
• Network discovery for distance-vector routing involves exchange of routing
tables; problems can include slow convergence. What other problems can
occur as a result of exchanging routing tables?
Routing loops can occur if a network’s slow convergence on a new configuration
causes inconsistent routing entries.
• For link-state routing, routers calculate the shortest paths to other routers;
problems can include inconsistent updates. What other problems might occur
with link-state routing?
Two link-state concerns exist: processing and memory requirements, and
bandwidth requirements
• Balanced hybrid routing uses attributes of both link-state and distance-vector
routing, and can apply paths to several protocols. What advantages does
balance hybrid routing offer?
Balanced hybrid routing protocols use distance vectors with more accurate
metrics to determine the best paths to destination networks. However, they differ
from most distance-vector protocols by using topology changes to trigger routing
database updates. The balanced hybrid routing protocol converges rapidly, like
the link-state protocols.
nd
Cisco Systems Networking Academy: First-Year Companion Guide, Second Edition
material for help.
Default route Routing table entry that is used to direct frames for which a next hop is
not explicitly listed in the routing table.
response received by the sender. Also the time required to move a packet from source
changes. Also called adaptive routing.
of link-state protocols with those of distance-vector protocols.
Header Control information placed before data when encapsulating that data for
network transmission.
Hop count Routing metric used to measure the distance between a source and a
destination. RIP uses hop count as its sole metric.
Hop Term describing the passage of a data packet between two network nodes (for
example, between two routers).
IGRP (Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) IGRP was developed by Cisco to
address the problems associated with routing in large, heterogeneous networks.
cost routing, multipath routing, and load balancing. OSPF was derived from an early
version of the ISIS protocol.
most common IGP in the Internet. RIP uses hop count as a routing metric.
Routing metric Method by which a routing algorithm determines that one route is
better than another. This information is stored in routing tables. Metrics include
bandwidth, communication cost, delay, hop count, load, MTU, path cost, and reliability.
Sometimes referred to simply as a metric.
Routing protocol Protocol that accomplishes routing through the implementation of
a specific routing algorithm. Examples of routing protocols include IGRP, OSPF, and
RIP.
Stub network Network that has only a single connection to a router.
nd
Focus Questions
1. What does a router do? What improvements do network addresses offer
over physical addresses?
Routers are internetworking devices that operate at OSI Layer 3 (the network
layer). They tie together, or interconnect, network segments or entire networks,
as shown in Figure 10-3. They pass data packets between networks based on
Layer 3 information. Network addresses have logical or hierarchical addresses,
which allows for the grouping of end stations into such things as departments,
floors, or buildings.
2. Distinguish between routed protocols and routing protocols.
Routed protocols are used between router to direct user traffic. Any network
protocol that provides enough information in its network layer address to be
forwarded from host to host based on the addressing scheme is a routed
protocol.
The most relevant example for this discussion is IP. Routing protocols are used
only between routers to maintain routing tables. Examples are RIP and IGRP.
Routing protocols support routed protocols by providing a mechanism for sharing
routing information messages among routers.
3. How does multiprotocol routing enable the Internet to exist?
There are many different host systems all over the world, with many different
routed protocols. Multiprotocol routing—by which a router can pass traffic from
Novell, Apple, DEC, IP and many other networks—allows these diverse hosts to
communicate.
4. List and briefly describe at least five examples of routing metrics.
The metrics most commonly used by routers include the following:

Bandwidth—The data capacity of a link
Delay—Length of time required to move a packet from source to destination
Load—Amount of activity on a network resource such as a router or a link
Reliability—Usually refers to the error rate of each network link
Hop count—Number of passages of a packet through the output port of one
router
Ticks—Delay on a data link using IBM PC clock ticks
Cost—Arbitrary value, usually based on bandwidth or other measurements, that
is assigned by the network administrator
5. Briefly describe distance-vector routing.
Distance vector-based routing algorithms pass periodic copies of a routing table

from router to routers; each router receives a routing table from its direct
neighbors.
nd
The following questions help review for the CCNA exam. Answers also appear in
Edition.
1. What function allows routers to evaluate available routes to a destination
and to establish the preferred handling of a packet?
a. Data linkage
b. Path determination
c. SDLC interface protocol
d. Frame Relay
2. What information is used by routing services to evaluate network paths?
a. MAC addresses
b. Name server tables
c. Network topology
d. ARP requests
3. Where can routing services obtain the network topology information
needed to evaluate network paths?
a. From RARP and ARP tables

b. From network name servers
c. From bridges talking to routers during messaging sessions
d. From information collected by dynamic processes
4. What two functions does a router use to relay packets from one data link to
another?
a. Link-state testing and convergence

b. Convergence and switching
c. Path determination and link-state testing
d. Path determination and switching
5. How does the network layer send packets from the source to the
destination?
a. Uses an IP routing table

b. Uses ARP responses
c. Refers to a name server
d. Refers to the bridge
nd
6. What happens at the router during a switching operation?
a. The router changes from link-state to distance-vector mode.

b. A packet accepted on one interface is forwarded to another interface or
port that reflects the best path to the destination.
c. A test message is sent over the proposed route to make sure it is
operational.
d. The received packet has the header stripped, read, and a new header
attached listing the next stop on the route.
7. Why is it important to prevent unnecessary broadcasts over the entire
internetwork?
a. Broadcasts incur processing overhead and waste network capacity.

b. Broadcasts cannot be sent as multiphase transmissions, so routers must
change modes to deal with them.
c. Broadcasts are common causes of collisions and should be avoided
whenever possible.
d. Broadcasts can quickly relay bad routing tables throughout an
internetwork.
8. How does the network layer avoid unnecessary broadcast messages?
a. By using error-trapping algorithms

b. By using consistent end-to-end addressing
c. By using name servers to do look-up functions
d. By using link-state detection
9. What problem for the network layer does using consistent end-to-end
addressing solve?
a. Reduces chance of infinite loops

b. Avoids split horizons
c. Avoids unnecessary broadcast messages
d. Reduces count to infinity problems
10. What are the two parts of an address that routers use to forward traffic
through a network?
a. Network address and host address

b. Network address and MAC address
c. Host address and MAC address
d. MAC address and subnet mask
nd
11. Which network device uses the network address to define a path?
a. Bridge
b. Router
c. Hub
d. Server
12. How does a router make path selections?
a. By looking at the network portion of the address

b. By looking at the host portion of the address
c. By looking at mean distances between routers
d. By looking at the port or device on the network
13. What does the host address specify?
a. Type of device
b. Distance to the nearest network hub
c. Specific port or device on the network
d. Network the device is on
14. How does the host portion of an address help a router in its path
determination function?
a. Defines a path through the network

b. Contains distance information that can be used to calculate the shortest
route
c. Refers to a specific port on the router that leads to an adjacent router in
that direction
d. Tells the router the type of device and its distance from the router
15. What does the switching function of a router do?
a. Allows greater throughput and capacity by multitasking

b. Allows the router to accept a packet on one interface and forward it on
another interface
c. Exchanges the old header of a data packet for a new header that
includes path information for the next router
d. Changes the router from receive and send mode to broadcast mode
when part of the network fails
nd
16. Which best describes a routed protocol?
a. Provides enough information to allow a packet to be forwarded from host

to host
b. Provides information necessary to pass data packets up to the next
highest network layer
c. Allows routers to communicate with other routers to maintain and update
address tables
d. Allows routers to bind MAC and IP address together
17. Which is an example of a routed protocol?
a. RIP
b. IP
c. IGRP
d. OSPF
18. Which best describes a routed protocol?
a. Passes data packets up to the next highest network layer

b. Binds MAC and IP addresses together
c. Defines the format and use of fields within a packet
d. Exchanges routing tables and shares routing information between routers
19. Which best describes a routing protocol?
a. Provides information to allow a packet to be forwarded from host to host

b. Binds MAC and IP addresses together
c. Defines the format and use of fields within a data packet
d. Allows routers to communicate with other routers to maintain and update
address tables
20. Which best describes a routing protocol?
a. A protocol that accomplishes routing through the implementation of an

algorithm
b. A protocol that specifies how and when MAC and IP addresses are
bound together
c. A protocol that defines the format and use of fields within a data packet
d. A protocol that allows a packet to be forwarded from host to host
nd
21. Which best describes the difference between a routed versus a routing
protocol?
a. Routed protocols are used between routers to maintain tables; whereas,

routing protocols are used between routers to direct traffic.
b. Routed protocols use distance-vector algorithms; whereas, routing
protocols use link-state algorithms.
c. Routed protocols are used between routers to direct traffic; whereas,
routing protocols used between routers to maintain tables.
d. Routed protocols use dynamic addressing; whereas, routing protocols
use static addressing.
22. What happens when a data-link frame is received on a router interface?
a. The packet header is removed and a new one with additional routing
information is attached.
b. A frame header is sent to check the path integrity prior to sending the
packet on towards its destination.
c. The packet is sent to the nearest bridge that forwards it to the next router
or the final destination.
d. The header is examined to determine the destination network and
consults the routing table to see which outgoing interface is associated
with that network.
23. What happens after a router has matched the destination network with an
outgoing interface?
a. The packet is sent to the nearest bridge that forwards it to the next router
or the final destination.
b. A frame header is sent to check the path integrity prior to sending the
packet on towards its destination.
c. The packet is queued for delivery to the next hop in the path.
d. The packet header is removed and a new one with additional routing
information is attached.
24. Which of the following best describes a data-link frame header?
a. Controls information placed in front of data when it is readied for network

transmission
b. Broadcasts message sent over the network to warn routers of network
failures in specific links
c. Diagnostic message used to check network links for problems
d. Packets sent by routers to other routers to update routing tables
nd
25. What is the control information placed in front of data in a data packet
called?
a. Addressing
b. Header
c. Trailer
d. Encapsulate
26. Which of the following best describes a hop?
a. Passage of a data packet between two routers

b. Device which connects two or more networks together
c. Shortest distance between source and destination
d. Exchange and copying of ARP tables between two noncontiguous
network devices
27. What is the passage of a data packet between two routers called?
a. Exchange
b. Hop
c. Transmittal
d. Signaling
28. Which best describes multiprotocol routing?
a. Capability to send packets simultaneously out different ports

b. Capability to shift from static to dynamic routing as network loads change
c. Capability to maintain routing tables for several routed protocols
concurrently
d. Capability to rewrite frame headers to formats compatible with different
networks
29. What does multiprotocol routing allow routers to do?
a. Rewrite frame headers to formats compatible with different networks

b. Shift from static to dynamic routing as network loads change
c. Send packets simultaneously out different ports
d. Deliver packets from several routed protocols over the same data links
nd
30. Which best describes static routing?
a. A route that is manually entered into a routing table by the network

administrator
b. A route received from the local name server
c. A route that is automatically entered into a routing table
d. An optimum route between devices as determined by the RARP table
31. Which best describes dynamic routing?
a. Automatic updating of routing tables whenever new information is

received from the internetwork
b. Manual entry of data into a routing table by the network administrator
c. Following preset paths from device to device
d. RARP server determines optimum route between devices and copies
those routes into a routing table
32. What type of routing occurs without the intervention of a network
administrator?
a. Default
b. Dynamic
c. Progressive
d. Static
33. What is one advantage of static routing?
a. More secure as parts of an internetwork can be hidden

b. Requires little active management by the network administrator
c. Adjusts automatically to topology or traffic changes
d. Can compensate for router failures by using alternate paths
34. What is one advantage for using static routing on a stub network?
a. Compensates for route failures by using alternative paths

b. Requires little active management by the network administrator
c. Adjusts automatically to topology or traffic changes
d. Avoids the network overhead required by dynamic routing
35. What are the two major classes of routing algorithms?
a. Checksum and link state

b. Checksum and traffic load
c. Distance vector and traffic load
d. Distance vector and link state
nd
36. Which best describes a distance-vector protocol?
a. Determines the direction and distance to any link in the internetwork

b. Each router maintains a complex database of internetwork topology
information
c. Computationally rather complex
d. Method of routing which prevents loops and minimizes counting to infinity
37. What do distance-vector algorithms require of routers?
a. Default routes for major internetwork nodes in case of corrupted routing

tables
b. Send its entire routing table in each update to its neighbors
c. Fast response times and ample memory
d. Maintain a complex database of internetwork topology information
38. Why is it important in distance-vector algorithms for routers to send
copies of their routing table to neighboring routers?
a. To prevent error propagation

b. To stop routing loops
c. To enable split horizon mapping
d. To communicate topology changes quickly
39. What is a major drawback of distance-vector algorithms?
a. More network traffic

b. Computationally difficult
c. Prone to routing loops
d. Cannot implement hold-down timers
40. What is one disadvantage of distance-vector algorithms?
a. Routers do not know the exact topology of an internetwork, only

distances between points
b. More network traffic
c. Computationally difficult
d. Cannot implement hold-down timers
41. What is one advantage of distance-vector algorithms?
a. Not likely to count to infinity

b. Implements easily on very large networks
c. Not prone to routing loops
d. Computationally simpler
nd
42. Which of the following best describes link-state algorithms?
a. Re-create the exact topology of the entire internetwork

b. Require minimal computations
c. Determine distance and direction to any link on the internetwork
d. Use little network overhead and reduces overall traffic
43. Which of the following best describes link-state algorithms?
a. Use little network overhead and reduces overall traffic

b. Each router broadcasts information about the network to all nodes on the
network
c. Determine distance and direction to any link on the internetwork
d. Use a great deal of network overhead and increase overall traffic
44. What is true about link-state routing algorithms?
a. Require more network traffic than distance-vector algorithms

b. Computationally rather simple
c. Require less router memory and slower response times
d. Maintain full knowledge of distant routers and how they interconnect
45. Which best describes convergence?
a. When messages simultaneously reach a router and a collision occurs

b. When several routers simultaneously route packets along the same path
c. When all routers in an internetwork have the same knowledge of the
structure and topology of the internetwork
d. When several messages are being sent to the same destination
46. Which term is used to describe an internetwork state when all routers have
the same knowledge of the structure and topology of the internetwork?
a. Congruence
b. Equivalence
c. Correspondence
d. Convergence
47. Why is fast convergence a desirable attribute of a routing protocol?
a. Reduces time period over which routers make incorrect routing decisions
b. Reduces network traffic
c. Reduces routing loop time
d. Reduces memory requirements of local routers
nd
48. After a network topology change, what routing protocol characteristic
reduces incorrect or wasteful routing decisions?
a. Symmetry
b. Convergence
c. Equivalence
d. Correspondence
49. What is a routing loop?
a. A route to often requested destinations

b. A network path that is circular and has no branches
c. A packet that cycles repeatedly through a constant series of network
nodes
d. A process that routers go through when performing self-diagnostics
50. What is the process called where packets never reach their destination, but
instead cycle repeatedly through the same series of network nodes?
a. Split horizon
b. End-to-end messaging
c. Convergence
d. Routing loop
51. Why do routing loops occur?
a. Slow convergence after a modification to the internetwork.

b. Split horizons are artificially created.
c. Network segments fail catastrophically and take other network segments
down in a cascade effect.
d. Default routes were never established and initiated by the network
administrator.
52. Why do routing loops occur?
a. Split horizons are artificially created.

b. A network device fails and that information is slowly passed to all the
routers in the internetwork.
c. Default routes were never established and initiated by the network
administrator.
d. Network segments fail catastrophically and take other network segments
down in a cascade effect.
nd
53. Why does the problem of counting to infinity occur?
a. Split horizon
b. Noncongruence
c. Slow convergence
d. Router inequivalence
54. Which best describes the count-to-infinity problem?
a. Routers continuously increment the hop count as a routing loop

proceeds.
b. Packets cycle repeatedly through a constant series of network nodes.
c. During heavy traffic periods, freak collisions can occur and damage the
packet headers.
d. After a split horizon occurs, two sets of metrics exist for the same
destination and neither matches that in the routing table.
55. How can the count-to-infinity problem be prevented?
a. By forcing a routing loop

b. By invoking a split horizon process
c. By tracking network traffic levels and regulating flow
d. By imposing an arbitrary hop-count limit
56. How can the count-to-infinity problem be solved?
a. Initiate a routing loop

b. Define infinity as some maximum number
c. Switch from distance-vector to link-state mode
d. Force a router convergence and reconciliation
57. What happens when the hop-count exceeds the maximum in a routing
loop?
a. The loop ends and the data packet is returned to the source for
retransmission later.
b. The default route is recalled and used.
c. The network is considered unreachable, and the loop ends.
d. A count to infinity is initiated, and a split horizon invoked.
nd
58. How can the count to infinity problem be prevented?
a. By using routing loops

b. By using split horizon routing systems
c. By increasing router memory
d. By using hold-down timers
59. Which best describes hold-down timers?
a. Timer that synchronizes the router table update process

b. Time during which messages are held if network segment is temporarily
unavailable
c. Time allowed before intervention to halt routing loop
d. Time during which routers will neither send nor receive updated routing
tables
60. Why are hold-down timers useful?
a. They flush bad information about a route from all routers in the network.
b. They force all routers in a segment to synchronize switching operations.
c. They reduce the amount of network traffic during high traffic periods.
d. They provide a mechanism for bypassing failed sections of network.
61. When are routers placed in a hold-down state?
a. When a routing loop occurs

b. When a link in a route fails
c. When a routing table becomes corrupted
d. When convergence occurs too slowly
62. How does a hold-down timer work?
a. By holding messages in routing loops for a given time period, the hold-
down timer reduces network traffic at peak times.
b. When the hop count exceeds a fixed value, the hold-down timer holds the
message until a split horizon is established.
c. When a router receives an update indicating that a network is now
inaccessible, the router marks the route and starts a hold-down timer.
d. When a count is started, a hold-down timer is started too; if after a given
time period the count continues, the timer halts the process and returns
control to the nearest router.
nd
63. What are the major two link-state concerns?
a. Split horizons and convergence

b. Processing and memory requirements
c. Routing loops and equivalence
d. Table copying and counting to infinity
64. Which of the following best describes link-state advertisement (LSA)?
a. Broadcast message in response to a convergence call

b. Broadcast message relaying state of data links (up or down) to all routers
c. Broadcast packet that contains information about neighbors and path
costs
d. Broadcast packet that is initiated by an active routing loop
65. What are LSAs used for?
a. To halt routing loops

b. To determine path metrics
c. To broadcast convergence calls
d. To maintain routing tables of receiving routers
66. What is the most complex and important aspect of link-state routing?
a. Making sure all routers get all the necessary LSA packets
b. Ensuring that convergence occurs rapidly
c. Avoiding routing loops during initial start up
d. Providing mechanisms for split horizons and count to infinity avoidance
67. What will happen if routers have different sets of LSAs?
a. A check sum procedure is initiated and faulty routing tables repaired.

b. Routes become unreachable because routers disagree about a link.
c. A master comparison is forced and subsequent convergence on a single
routing table occurs.
d. A broadcast message is sent with the master copy of the routing table to
all routers.
nd
68. What is one problem with link-state updating?
a. Easy to start a routing loop and subsequent count to infinity

b. Routers can become unreachable because they don’t have a complete
picture of the internetwork
c. In synchronizing large networks, it is difficult to tell which updates are
correct
d. If the master routing table is corrupted, the entire network will go down
69. What is one problem with link-state updating?
a. Routers can become unreachable because they don’t have a complete

picture of the internetwork.
b. Easy to start a routing loop and subsequent count to infinity.
c. If the master routing table is corrupted, the entire network will go down.
d. Order of router startup alters the topology learned.
70. Which of the following is correct?
a. Distance-vector routing gets all topological data from the routing tables of
their neighbors; whereas, link-state routing develops a map of the
network by accumulating LSAs.
b. Distance-vector routing develops a map of the network; whereas, link-
state routing gets topological data from the routing tables of their
neighbors.
c. Distance-vector routing requires lots of bandwidth and network overhead;
whereas, link-state routing requires considerably less.
d. Distance-vector routing has quick convergence time; whereas, link-state
routing has a slow convergence time and is therefore prone to routing
loops.
a. Distance-vector routing requires lots of bandwidth and network overhead;

b. Distance-vector routing determines the best path by adding to the metric
value it receives; whereas, link-state routing has the routers calculating
their own shortest path to destinations.
c. Distance-vector routing has quick convergence time; whereas, link-state
routing has a slow convergence time and is therefore prone to routing
loops.
d. Distance-vector routing has the routers calculate their own shortest path
to destinations; whereas, link-state routing determines the best path by
adding to the metric value it receives from its neighbors.
nd
a. Distance-vector routing has a quick convergence time; whereas, link-

state routing has a slow convergence time and is therefore prone to
routing loops.
b. Distance-vector routing requires lots of bandwidth and network overhead;
c. Distance-vector routing updates for topology changes with periodic table
updates; whereas, link-state routing updates are triggered by topology
changes.
d. Distance-vector routing updates are triggered by topology changes;
whereas, link-state routing updates for topology changes with periodic
scheduled table updates.
73. Which best describes hybrid routing?
a. Uses distance vectors to determine best paths, but topology changes

trigger routing table updates
b. Uses distance-vector routing to determine best paths between topology
during high-traffic periods
c. Uses topology to determine best paths but does frequent routing table
updates
d. Uses topology to determine best paths but uses distance vectors to
circumvent inactive network links
nd
Chapter 26
Routing Protocols
Introduction
After testing the hardware and loading the Cisco IOS system image, the router finds and
applies the configuration statements. These entries provide the router with details about
router-specific attributes, protocol functions, and interface addresses.
If the router faces a beginning condition where the router is unable to locate a valid
startup-config file, however, it enters an initial router configuration mode called the setup
mode.
With the setup-mode command facility, you can answer questions in the system
configuration dialog. This facility prompts you for basic configuration information. The
answers you enter enable the router to use a sufficient, but minimal, feature router
configuration, which includes the following:
• An inventory of interfaces
• An opportunity to enter global parameters
• An opportunity to enter interface parameters
• A setup script review
• An opportunity to indicate whether you want the router to use this configuration
After you approve setup-mode entries, the router uses the entries as a running
configuration. The router also stores the configuration in NVRAM as a new startup-
config. You can start using the router. For additional protocol and interface changes,
use the enable mode and enter the command configure.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• Routers can be configured to use one or more IP routing protocols. Identify and
briefly explain the different IP routing protocols.
At the Internet layer of the TCP/IP suite of protocols, a router can use an IP
routing protocol to accomplish routing through the implementation of a specific
routing algorithm. Examples of IP routing protocols include the following:
RIP—A distance-vector routing protocol
IGRP—Cisco’s distance-vector routing protocol
OSPF—A link-state routing protocol
EIGRP—A balanced hybrid routing protocol
nd
• Two IP routing protocols are RIP and IGRP. Compare and contrast these two
IP routing protocols.
RIP was originally specified in RFC 1058. Its key characteristics include the
following:
It is a distance-vector routing protocol.
Hop count is used as the metric for path selection (see Figure 26-8).
If the hop count is greater than 15, the packet is discarded.
By default, routing updates are broadcast every 30 seconds.
IGRP is a distance-vector routing protocol developed by Cisco. IGRP sends
routing updates at 90-second intervals, advertising networks for a particular
autonomous system. Some of the IGRP key design characteristics emphasize
the following:
Versatility that enables it to automatically handle indefinite, complex topologies
Flexibility for segments that have different bandwidth and delay characteristics
Scalability for functioning in very large networks

Cisco Systems Networking Academy: First-Year Companion Guide, Second Edition
material for help.
Autonomous system Collection of networks under a common administration sharing
a common routing strategy. Autonomous systems are subdivided by areas. An
autonomous system must be assigned a unique 16-bit number by the IANA. Sometimes
abbreviated AS.
Bandwidth The difference between the highest and lowest frequencies available for
network signals. The term is also used to describe the rated throughput capacity of a
given network medium or protocol.
response received by the sender. Also, the time required to move a packet from source
Distance-vector routing algorithm Class of routing algorithms that iterate on the
number of hops in a route to find a shortest-path spanning tree. Distance-vector routing
algorithms call for each router to send its entire routing table in each update, but only to
its neighbors. Distance-vector routing algorithms can be prone to routing loops, but are
computationally simpler than link-state routing algorithms. Also called Bellman-Ford
routing algorithm.
changes. Also called adaptive routing.
of link-state protocols with those of distance-vector protocols. Compare with IGRP.
nd
IGRP (Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) IGP developed by Cisco to address the
problems associated with routing in large, heterogeneous networks. Compare with
EIGRP. See also IGP, OSPF, and RIP.
Link-state routing algorithm Routing algorithm in which each router broadcasts or
multicasts information regarding the cost of reaching each of its neighbors to all nodes
in the internetwork. Link-state algorithms create a consistent view of the network and
are therefore not prone to routing loops, but they achieve this at the cost of relatively
greater computational difficulty and more widespread traffic (compared with distance-
vector routing algorithms).
MTU ( maximum transmission unit) Maximum packet size, in bytes that a particular
interface can handle.
cost routing, multipath routing, and load balancing. OSPF was derived from an early
version of the IS-IS protocol.
Reliability Ratio of expected to received keepalives from a link. If the ratio is high,
the line is reliable. Used as a routing metric.
most common IGP in the Internet, RIP uses hop count as a routing metric.
Focus Questions
1. Default routes are manually defined by the system administrator as the
route to take when no route to the destination is known. They are also
known as which of the following?
a. Dynamic routes
b. Default subnet
c. Default network
2. Default routes are configured by using the ___________ command, while in
the _____________ prompt.
a. ip default route; Router (config)#

b. ip default-network; Router (config)#
c. ip default-route; Router(config-if)#
nd
3. Which of the following are used to communicate within a given
autonomous system?
a. Routing Information Protocols

b. Exterior Routing Protocols
c. Interior Routing Protocols
4. Routing protocols can be configured on a router while in which of the
following modes?
a. Router#
b. Router(config)#
d. Router(config-if)#
5. Which of the following protocols sends updated routing table information
onto the network every 90 seconds?
a. IGRP
b. RIP
c. Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
nd
Networking Academy Program: First-Year Companion Guide, Second Edition.
1. If you start the router and it cannot find Cisco IOS system image, what
happens?
a. The router will not operate.

b. The router will request that you make the Cisco IOS available.
c. By default the router will start up in setup mode.
d. The router will ask you to install any router operating system.
2. What command do you use to access the setup mode?
a. define
b. exec
c. setup
d. configure
3. If you manually set up the router, what type of configuration will it have?
a. It will be fully configured.

b. It will be minimally configured.
c. You will only be able to use it to install Cisco IOS.
d. It will be configured in such a way that no changes can be made, except
manually.
4. What kind of entries does a router initially refer to?
a. Entries about networks or subnets that are directly connected

b. Entries it has learned about from the Cisco IOS software
c. Entries whose IP address and mask information are known
d. Entries it has learned about from other routers
5. Which of the following best describes a static route?
a. Routing table entry that is used to direct frames for which a next hop is
not explicitly listed in the routing table
b. Route that is explicitly configured and entered into the routing table and
takes precedence over routes chosen by dynamic routing protocols
c. Route that adjusts automatically to network topology or traffic changes
d. Route that adjusts involuntarily to direct frames within a network topology
nd
6. Which of the following best describes a dynamic routing?
a. Routing that is explicitly configured and entered into the routing table
b. Routing that is used to direct frames for which a next hop is not explicitly
listed in the routing table
c. Routing that adjusts automatically to network topology or traffic changes
d. Routing that adjusts involuntarily to direct frames within a network
topology
7. What do link-state algorithms require routers to do?
a. Flood routing information about the state of its own links to all nodes on
the internetwork
b. Flood all its routing information to all nodes on the internetwork
c. Send a complete picture of the topology of the entire network to all nodes
on the network
d. Base routing table on information provided by the every other router and
send IP information to all nodes on the network
8. An administrative distance of 15 would indicate which of the following?
a. The IP address is static.

b. The IP address is dynamic.
c. The routing information source is trustworthy.
d. The routing information source is untrustworthy.
9. Why are routing updates not sent to a link if it is only defined by a static
route?
a. Because each node in the network already knows the route

b. To conserve bandwidth
c. To keep routing tables small
d. To keep routing tables organized
10. In the following command, what does the last number stand for?
router (config)# ip route 2.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 1.0.0.2 5

a. The number of hops
b. The number of routes to the destination
c. The administrative distance
d. The destinations reference number in the routing table
nd
11. Why would you set the administrative distance really high?
a. The network uses Enhanced IGRP.

b. The dynamic address may be better.
c. The network uses OSPF.
d. The network uses only uses default network addresses.
12. Which of following is the correct syntax when configuring a static route
with an administrative distance of five?
a. router (config)> ip route 2.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 1.0.0.2 5

b. router (config)# ip route 2.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 1.0.0.2 5
c. router (config)# ip route 2.0.0.0 1.0.0.2 5
d. router (config)# ip route 2.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 1.0.0.2
nd
Chapter 27
Network Troubleshooting
Introduction
Troubleshooting tools that you might use for the software (IOS) include ping, trace
ip route, telnet, and show arp.
Concept Questions
the space provided.
• Describe typical Layer 1 errors.
Layer 1 errors can include the following (see Figure 27-2):
⇒ Broken cables
⇒ Disconnected cables
⇒ Cables connected to the wrong ports
⇒ Intermittent cable connections
⇒ Cables incorrectly terminated
⇒ Wrong cables used for the tasks at hand (must use cross-connects,
rollovers, and straight-through cables correctly)
⇒ Transceiver problems
⇒ DCE cable problems
⇒ DTE cable problems
⇒ Devices powered off
Layer 2 errors can include the following (see Figure 27-3):
⇒ Improperly configured serial interfaces
⇒ Improperly configured Ethernet interfaces
⇒ Incorrect clock rate settings on serial interfaces
⇒ Improper encapsulation set on serial interfaces (HDLC is default)
⇒ Faulty NIC
nd
Layer 3 errors can include these (see Figure 27-4):
⇒ Routing protocol not enabled
⇒ Wrong routing protocol enabled
⇒ Incorrect network/IP addresses
⇒ Incorrect subnet masks
⇒ Incorrect interface addresses
⇒ Incorrect DNS-to-IP bindings (host table entries)
⇒ Wrong autonomous system number for IGRP
• Describe some network troubleshooting strategies.
It’s useful to have a general method to refer to when troubleshooting computer
networks. This section outlines one such method used by many networking
professionals.
The steps are as follows:
Step 1. Define the problem. What are the symptoms and the potential
causes?
Step 2. Gather the facts. Isolate the possible causes.
Step 3. Consider the possibilities. Based on the facts gathered, narrow the
focus to areas relevant to the specific problem. This is the step where
you set the boundaries for the problem.
Step 4. Create an action plan. Devise a plan in which you manipulate only
one variable at a time.
Step 5. Implement the action plan. Perform each step carefully while testing
to see whether the symptom disappears.
Step 6. Observe the results. Determine whether you resolved the problem. If
so, the process is complete.
Step 7. Repeat the process. If you did not resolve the problem, move to the
next most likely cause on your list. Return to step 4, and repeat the
process until you solve the problem.
nd

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Cisco Networking Academy Program: Engineering Journal

and Workbook, Volume I, Second Edition

⇒ Install and set up the browser.

Vocabulary Exercise Chapter 1

Components found within a personal computer include the motherboard, video

Boot instructions—Stored in ROM until they are sent out.

The main difference is that components in a laptop are smaller—the expansion

Throughput refers to the actual, measured bandwidth, at a specific time of day,

a. A set of rules or procedures that are either widely used or officially

a. Individual PC use requires businesses to duplicate equipment and

a. A computer that manages data efficiently

a. Businesses had to duplicate equipment and resources.

a. A tool that allows Macintosh and PC computers communicate with each

a. A formal description of a set of rules and conventions

a. By setting rules, they allow different types of computers to talk to each

a. Print to a local printer

a. Only PC terminals and workstations

Vocabulary Exercise Chapter 2

• It breaks network communication into smaller, simpler parts that are

Layer 7: Application—This layer provides services to application processes

Encapsulation wraps data with the necessary protocol information before

The Open System Interconnection reference model is a network architectural

The term medium refers to various physical environments through which

a. A conceptual framework that specifies how information travels through

a. Directly from each layer at one computer to the corresponding layers at

a. Provide for the accurate delivery of data between computers

a. Control the physical delivery of messages over the network

a. Defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional

a. Segmenting data so that it flows uninterrupted through the network

a. Encapsulation is like a blueprint for building a car.

a. Logically grouped units of information

Vocabulary Exercise Chapter 3

Devices that connect directly to a network segment often are referred to as

A bridge is a Layer 2 device designed to create two or more LAN segments,

A switch is a Layer 2 device just as a bridge is. In fact, a switch is sometimes

The purpose of a router is to examine incoming packets (Layer 3 data), choose

A network segment is commonly defined as an area that makes up a collision

a. Inability to communicate and lack of management

a. Common carriers to finally make a profit

3. Which of the following is not a problem that networking helped solve?

a. Lack of network management

4. Why is it desirable to network?

a. Don’t have to duplicate equipment and resources

a. People try to network different types of computer systems together.

a. Many networks now cover wide geographic areas.

a. Many new network technologies were incompatible.

a. A network that connects workstations, terminals, and other devices in a

a. A data network connecting workstations, peripherals, terminals, and other

a. A section consisting of several interconnected computers, such as a LAN

Vocabulary Exercise Chapter 4

Voltage, sometimes referred to as Electromotive Force (EMF), is an electrical

Current is represented by the letter I. The unit of measurement for current is

Resistance is represented by the letter R. The unit of measurement for

Impedance is the total opposition to current flow (due to AC and DC voltages).

An oscilloscope graphs the electrical waves, pulses, and patterns. It has an x-

An analog signal has the following characteristics:

NEXT –A, thermal noise, impulse/reference ground noise, EMI/RFI, NEXT –B

a. Coaxial cable carries pulses of light.

a. EMI caused by electrical motors

4. Which of the following describes cabling signal degradation by an external

a. Poor cabling shield connection

a. Cable wires that are too large in diameter

a. Two wires are placed in close proximity to each other.