End year exam 2011 (R3) My answers 89%

1. Xylitol chewing gum a 5-carbon

alcohol:

A) Is metabolized by S. mutans leads to anticariogenic effect. B) Decrease plaque formation and plaque pH. C) Enhance mineralization. D) all of the above.

2. The composition of the commercial enamel bonding is basically that of:

A) The matrix of its companion composite (diluted monomer). B) The silane coupling agent. C) The polymerization inhibitor. D) The inorganic filler.

3. The higher filler loading of a composite resine:

A) The more shrinkage there will be. B) The stronger the restoration will be. C) The less dimensionally stable it will be. D) The less wear resistance there will be.

4. If a conventional glass ionemer cement product is exposed to significant

moisture: A) More soluble. B) More translucent. C) Harder D) Crazed.

5. Dental mercury amalgam alloys maybe described any of the following except:
A) Unicompositional.

B) Sn free. C) High Cu. D) Spherical. E) Zn free.

6. Which statement is incorrect? Creep of amalgam:

A) Is time dependent. B) May be static or dynamic. C) Is lower when gamma 2 phase is present. D) Result in ditching.

7. Which best describes the physical characteristic of enamel?

A) Hard, elastic, and translucent. B) Hard, permeable, and translucent. C) Brittle, semi permeable and translucent. D) Opaque, brittle and semi permeable.

8. After finishing a class IV composite the incisal edge was found to be too short
and is esthetically unaccepted. Which of the following procedure should be following to correct the problem? A) Remove the restoration and redo it. B) Roughen the surface with diamond bar, etch, bond and add more composite resin. C) Add composite resin to the surface as there are sufficient double bonds available due to the air inhibited layer. D) Shorten the adjacent tooth. E) Leave it the patient will not know the difference.

9. Conditioning of cavity with phosphoric acid to glass ionemer is:

A) Favorable to enhance hybridization. B) Strictly contraindicated to prevent mineralized tooth substrate for bonding. C) Indicated to modify smear layer prior to bonding. D) Contraindicated to allow smear layer modification prior to bonding.

10. Pit and fissure caries is usually characterized by coerces of decay that:
A) Are apex to apex at the D-E junction. B) Are base to base at the D-E junction. C) Are apex to apex at the D-E junction. D) Have no general pattern at the D-E junction.

11. Cariosolve is:

A) A caries detecting dye formed of acid red dissolved in ethylene glycol and can detect the infected dentin. B) A caries detecting dye formed of povodine iodine to used to identify the infected dentine. C) A material formed of 3 amino acids and sodium hypochlorite and can identify and remove the infected dentine. D) a material of self etching adhesive that is used for sealing remaining deep carious dentine.

12. Which of the following statements is not true about high copper amalgam?
A) Resulting amalgam from the general sitting reaction contain high amount of gamma 2 phase. B) Alloy must contain at least 12% copper. C) High copper amalgam is exhibit better physical properties compared to their low copper amalgams is counter parts. D) AL A+B+C are true statements about high copper amalgam.

13. One week after cementation of an MOD onlay on a maxillary molar adjacent
to an existing amalgam. The patient reports sensitivity to cold and pressure of the tooth. The most likely cause is: A) Hyperocclusion B) Chronic pulpitis. C) Galvanic response. D) Acid irritation from the cement.

14. Permanent distortion or change in the shape of a casting alloy during its
clinical use probably indicates that the: A) Ductility was too low. B) Elastic limit was exceeded. C) Fusion temperature was too low. D) Modulus of elasticity was too low.

15. When both a cavity varnish

and a polycarboxylat cement base are being.

Considered for use in conjunction with a dental amalgam restoration, the cavity varnish should be: A) Applied to the pulpal wall only. B) Kept well away from the enamel margins. C) Applied to the cavity preparation before placing the base. D) Applied to the cavity preparation after placing the base.

16. A V-shaped or wedge-shaped ditch gingival to CE junction in teeth with some

gingival recession is indicative of: A) Abrasion. B) Attrition. C) Bruxism. D) Erosion.

17. Which of the following may form a chemical bond to enamel?

A) Composites B) Direct filling resins. C) Polycarboxylats cements. D) Bis-GMA resins in the form at pit and fissure sealants.

18. Which of the following properties of dental materials is time

A) Creep. B) Resilience. C) Elastic limit. D) Ultimate strength. E) Compressive strength.

dependent?

19. The discolored, corroded, superficial layer seen on. The surface of a dental
amalgam restoration is mostly likely: A) Mercury. B) A sulfide. C) Gamma 2. D) Copper oxide.

20. According to literature you would expect failure of the root canal restoration
if the coronal seal of the root canal filling is destructed for: A) One year. B) Three years. C) Three weeks. D) Six months.

21. Radiographic signs of trauma from occlusion may include all the following
except: A) Hupercementosis. B) Root resorption. C) Alteration of the lamina dura. D) Alteration of the periodontal space. E) Vascular infiltration of the periodontal ligament.

22. The main disadvantage to the use of poly (methyl-methacrylate) as a

restorative material is its: A) Poor finishing / polishing properties. B) Low resistance to bonding. C) High coefficient of the thermal expansion. D) High solubility in oral fluids.

23. In order for a rubber dam clamp to be stable on the anchor tooth, which of
the following criteria must be satisfied? A) All four points of the jaws of the clamp must be sharp. B) All four points of the jaws of the clamp must contact anchor tooth. C) The clamp must contact the anchor tooth gingival to the high of contour of the tooth. D) B & C E) All of the above.

24. Which of the following properties are so nearly equal magnitude that they
may be used interchangeably even through defined differently? A) Modules of elasticity / Elastic limit. B) Elastic limit / Proportional limit. C) Proportional limit / Yield strength.
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D) Yield strength / Modules of elasticity.

25. Below the elastic limit on the stress-strain diagram, the modulus of elasticity
is the: A) Ratio of stress to strain. B) Ratio of yield strength to strain. C) Ratio of tensile strength to strain. D) Greatest stress value before plastic deformation begins.

26. The importance of the wax up in the study model before the aesthetic
intervention include all of the above following EXCEPT: A) For end result demonstration to the patient. B) For study the preparation design and consideration. C) For occlusion consideration in the final result. D) For the fabrication of the porcelain or the final restoration wax up for investment And construction.

27. Hyperocclusion in terms of premature contact is common following composite

restoration due to: A) Most composite expand slightly as they absorb water. B) Excess wear rate of composite resins in some areas. C) Higher rate of wear at stress bearing areas. D) Strain induced movement of weakened cusps.

28. Durability of composite restoration is at most when inserted in:

A) A large conventional amalgam preparation. B) Initial conservation cavities in low-stress bearing areas. C) Large composite cavities that hold cusps together. D) Large stress bearing restorations.

29. In mixing phosphate cement. Which clinical variable has to greatest effect on
the strength of the cement? A) Spatulation time. B) Liquid-powder ratio. C) Temperature of the mixing slab. D) Number and size of powder increments.

30. Flexure and fatique of enamel and dentin at a location remote from
of loading, resulting in a wedge-shape cervical lesion, are caused by: A) Attrition. B) Erosion. C) Abrasion. D) Abfraction.

the point

31. Marginal leakage related to temperature change occurs to the greatest extent
with: A) Amalgam restoration. B) Unfilled resin. C) Composite resin. D) Silicate cement. E) Direct filling gold.

32. Viewed from the occlusal, the contact area between the maxillary premolars
is normally positional: A) In the lingual third of the crowns. B) In the middle third of the crowns. C) In the facial third of the crowns. D) At the junction of the facial and the middle thirds of the crowns. E) At the junction of the middle and the lingual thirds of the crowns.
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33. In a class 11 cavity prepared for dental amalgam, the facial and lingual
proximal walls should be formed: A) Approximately parallel to each other. B) At right angles to the gingival floor. C) Slight diverging as the walls approach the proximal surface. D) Slight diverging as the walls approach the occlusal surface.

34. The fluid movement in dentinal tubules (hydrodynamic theory) is one of the
theories of dentin sensitivity (pain) it was introduced by: A) Brainstorm 1966. B) Byers 1980. C) Kim and seltzer 1951. D) Andreasen, langelan and Walton 1988.

35. The primary benefit action of epinephrine when performing root end surgery
is which of the following? A) It effects the drug on alpha-1 receptors in the alveolar mucosa. B) It effects the drug on beta receptors of skeletal muscle. C) it decreased systemic uptake of the anesthetic solution. D) It prolonged the duration of anesthesia.

36. what are the signs and symptoms associated with symptomatic apical
periodontitis (acute apical periodontitis)? A) Normal sensation on mastication. B) Normal sensation on finger pressure. C) Marked or excruciating pain on tapping with a mirror handle. D) Presence of a large periapical lesion.

37. What is the difference between a true endodontic emergency and urgency?
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A) A true emergency is a condition requiring an unscheduled office visit. B) A true emergency may be rescheduled for convenience of the patient. C) An urgency indicates a more severe problem. D) An urgency may need to be seen after normal office hours.

38. What factors should be considered the determines the treatment of an

intrusine luxation injury? A) Depth of intrusion. B) Stage of root development. C) Availability of adjacent teeth for stabilization. D) Amount of soft tissue injury.

39. Use of paralleling technique may not be feasible when which of the following
occurs? A) There is a high palatal vault. B) There are maxillary Tori. C) A fixed prosthesis is present. D) There are exceptionally short roots.

40. One of the following NiTi rotary files characterized by "U" shape cross section
and radial land: A) Profiles. B) Hero. C) K3. D) Flex Master.

41. Areas of rarefaction are evident on radiographic examination when:

A) The tooth is response to cold. B) The tooth is response to percussion. C) A tooth fraction has been identified.

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D) The cortical layer of bone has eroded.

42. The single most important advantage of using MTA in clinical endodontic is its
ability to: A) Provide superior seal than any other material used. B) provide superior tensile strength than any other materials. C) Provide for better shear strength than any other materials. D) Provide an effective mechanism of pain relief.

43. Standardized intra-canal instruments are numbered according to:

A) The length of the blade. B) The size of the handle. C) The width of the instrument tip. D) The material from which they are made.

44. Chelating agents (EDTA) remove only:

A) Calcified tissue. B) Organic materials. C) Pulp tissues. D) Bacterial toxins.

45. Which of the following accurately describes external resorptions?

A) They are untreatable. B) They can only be distinguished surgically from internal resorptions. C) They appear to be super imposed over the root canal. D) They always require root canal treatment.

46. In which of the following may a false-negative response to the pulp tester
occur? A) Primarily in anterior teeth. B) In patient with a history of trauma.
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C) Most often in teenager. D) In the presence of periodontal disease.

47. Hydrogen peroxide is the active ingredient in all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Urea peroxide. B) Carbamide peroxide. C) Sodium perborate. D) None of the above.

48.

Initial vitality testing of traumatized teeth is MOST useful to which of the

following: A) It establishes a baseline for comparison with future testing. B) IT determines whether root canal treatment is indicated. C) It determines of the blood supply to the pulp is compromised. D) It predicts the prognosis.

49. The primary purpose for root canal treatment on replanted avulsed teeth is to
prevent: A) Transient surface resorption. B) Replacement resorption. C) Inflammatory resorption. D) Invasine cervical resorption.

50. The perquisite to perform Ochsenbein Lubke flap is:

A) The presence of adequate zoon of attached gingival. B) Adequate zoon of non attached gingival. C) Adequate sulcus depth. D) No frenum attachment.

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51. The goal of endodontic surgery:

A) To remove the disease. B) To prevent the disease from recurring. C) To facilitate healing. D) All off the above. E) None of the above.

52. Optimal haemostasis during endodontic surgery dependent on:

A) Severity of the inflammation. B) The use of topical haemostatic agents. C) A traumatic technique. D) Regional anaesthesia.

53. Traumatic intrusion of a tooth is MOST likely to result in pulpal:

A) Liquefaction necrosis. B) Coagulation necrosis. C) Gangrenous necrosis. D) Transient necrosis.

54. All these are true for Nickel titanium EXCEPT:

A) Superelasticity. B) Flexible. C) Able to conform canal curvature. D) Resist fracture. E) Wear more than stainless stead files.

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55. If the taper of the file is larger than the canal then there is only contact in the
coronal portion of the canal. The greater the taper, the more aggressive the instrument: A) Both statements are true. B) Both are wrong. C) First statement is true and second is wrong. D) First statement is wrong and the second is true.

56. Which of the following is an advantage of having radial land design in a rotary
file? A) It provide support to the cutting blade. B) It gives extra strength to the inner core. C) It provides better flexibility to the file. D) It results in positive radial land.

57. MOST if not all of the new generations of the rotary files have which of the
following tip designs: A) Non cutting tip. B) Cutting tip. C) Safe cutting tip. D) Modified non cutting tip.

58. Gutta-percha endodontic points have the following property:

A) Molecular spring-break which aids in sealing the define-gutta-percha interface during condensation. B) Composed of approximately 90% gutta-percha and 10% plasticized. C)Linear expansion with alteration in temperature. D)Dimensional stability when altered by chemical solvents.

59. The following emergency treatment should be initiated for all root fractions:
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A) Anesthetized the area. B) Reduce and immobilized the fractured tooth. C) Adjust the occlusion to minimized further trauma. D) All of the above.

60. Which of these is NOT true about Gates Glidden drills?

A) If they fracture, they are easier retrieve than rotary NiTi files. B) They can be swept away from danger areas like furcations, unlike rotary NiTi s. C) They leave a smooth step-free surface on the canal wall. D) They are cheaper, and thus less likely to be over-used than NiTi s.

61. Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an inter-appointment medication primarily

because of which of the following? A) Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissue. B) Its antimicrobial activity. C) Its ability to stimulate hard-tissue formation. D) Its ability to temporarily seal the canal.

62. Do you think that the infection of the root canal system is related to:
A) A single obligate anaerobic species. B) Mixed aerobic and anaerobic microorganisms. C) Multiple aerobic species only. D) None of the above.

63. The pulp responds physical, chemical, thermal, Bacteriological stimulation and
the effect is cumulative: A) The first statement is correct, the second incorrect. B) The first statement is incorrect, the second is correct. C) Both statements are incorrect. D) Both statements are correct.
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64. What are the predominant bacteria associated with infected root canals?
A) Strict aerobes. B) Gram positive roots. C) Strict and facultative anaerobes. D) Lactobacilli.

65. Periapical inflammation:

A) Is early an indication of the pulpal inflammatory process. B) Involves a poor vascular network, therefore the ability to heal at the apex is less than in the pulp. C) May be detected at all phases radiographically. D) May result in cyst formation due to stimulation of the epithelial rest cells at malassez.

66. What is the pH of zinc phosphate cement during the initial union between the
Zinc oxide powder and Phosphoric acid liquid? A) Ph 2. 0 B) Ph 3.0 C) Ph 5.0 D) Ph 6.0

67. When a long span FPD is fabricated:

A) The prosthesis should be made of a material that has strength and rigidity. B) The prosthesis should be made of a material that has low modulus of elasticity. C) A non rigid connector can minimize problems encountered with long-span FPD. D) Pontic and connectors should be made as thin as possible to endues optimum gingival health.
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E) Mandibular long-span FPD has a better prognosis than maxillary long-span FPD.

68. If patient cannot tolerate the given raised vertical dimension of occlusion, you
can detect that the following EXCEPT: A) Inaccurate pronunciation of the letter M . B) Fermititi. C) Repeated breakage of provisional. D) Develop signs of TMD.

69.

Indication of an external sinus lift:

A) Bone lend is more than 5 mm. B) Bone lend is less than 5 mm. C) For immediate loading of implant. D) Short period of healing.

70. Weinberg stated that with an arbitrary hinge axis are a 3 mm thick
interocclusal record, the closing error at the molars is: A) 1.0 mm. B) 2.0 mm. C) 0.5 mm. D) 0.2 mm.

71. During establishing vertical dimension of occlusion for a case with a collapsed
VDO, the following can be used as guides EXCEPT: A) Phonetics. B) Vertical dimension at rest position of the mandible. C) Face height and facial soft tissue contours. D) The steeper of curve of spee.

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72. In a healthy occlusion, the anterior guidance is:

A) 5 to 10 degrees steeper than the condylar path in the sagital plane. B) 15 degrees steeper than the condylar path in the sagital plane. C) 5 degrees or less than the condylar path in the horizontal plane. D) None of the above.

73. Turner at al in 1982 reported the most common type post and core failure to
be: A) Apical lesions. B) Post loosening. C) Caries. D) Vertical root fracture.

74. Mutually protected occlusion is indictaed for the following clinical scenarios:
A)Periodontally involved anterior teeth. B)Class III malocclusion. C)Dental implant replacing tooth #13. D)None of the above. 75.A soldered joint showed a large amount of porosity; what could be the cause? A)Excessive heat during fusion. B)Impurities in the soldering investment. C)The oxidizing part of the flame was used. D)Wide gap between solder joints. 76.The contact angle between ceramic and metal is a measure of wetting, affecting the quality of the ceramic-metal bond: A)high contact angle indicates good wetting. B)Low contact angle indicates good wetting.
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C)The contact angle of ceramic on a gold ceramic alloy is 60 degree. D)B and C. 77.A ceramic metal restoration was removed from the oven, craks in ceramic were observed.What may have caused this failure? A) Thermal shock ( hot ceramic touched with a cold instrument ) B) Mismatch in the thermal expansion between the ceramic and alloy C) Excessive oxide layer. D) A and B. 78.The anatomic curvature of the occlusal alignment of the teeth beginning at the tip of the lower canine and following the buccal cusps of the natural premolare and molars,continuing border of the ramus, is termed the: A) Anteroposterior curve. B) Curve of Wilson. C) Plane of occlusion. D) Monson curve. 79.In the interproximal contact area,veneer preparation should be extended to: A) A fine bevel wrapping round past the linguo-proximal line angle. B) Somewhere in the ligual half of the contact, but not beyond the proximal contact. C)Somewhere in the facial half of the proximal contact. D) Just facial to the proximal contact or all through the contact. 80. Indication of the porcelain labial margins, all the following is true EXCEPT: A) High smile line. B) Thin gingival margin. C) Periodontally involved teeth Gingival Recession . D) High esthetic demand. 81. The accurate reason for using a two-step impression technique with light bodied and heavy bodied polysulfide impression material is:

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A) To limit the overall polymerization shrinkage. B) To provide a stronger impression after setting. C) Because the tray adhesive will not stick to light bodied material. D) To control the setting time. 82. In dental plaster, the main constitute is: A) Calcium sulfate hemihydrate. B) Calcium sulfate dihydrate. C) Calcium phosphate. D) Calcium anhydrate. 83. The setting time of Zinc phosphate cement can be retarded by: A) Increasing the ratio of powder to liquid. B) Diluting the liquid with a small amount of water. C) Accelerating the rate of addition of powder to liquid. D) Decreasing the rate of addition of powder to liquid. 84. Which one of the following impression materials is elastic, sets by a chemical reaction, and catalyzed by lead peroxide? A) Irreversible Hydrocolloid. B) Rubber Base Polysulfide. C) Polyether. D) Polyvinyl Siloxane. 85.Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates: A) Degree of translucency. B)Degree of saturation of the hue. C)Combined effect of hue and value. D)Degree of surface reflection. 86. Which one of the following is not an indication for the telescopic bridge?

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A)Anticipation for future loss of the abutment. B) For esthetic result. C) Periodontaly involve teeth. D) Long span. 87. A crown could be out of occlusion during the clinical try-in due to: A) Wax. B) Expansion of stone. C) Die not completely seated on working cast during waxing. D) Delayed impression pouring. 88. Surgical crown lengthening is contraindicated: A) In management of deep subgingival caries. B) Improve esthetic. C) Increase retention by increasing the axial length of the crown. D) In case of very short crown.

89. During shade matching, the clinician is instructed to make a rapid assessment of the tooth color: A) To avoid getting bored. B) To save valuable chair-side time. C) To avoid cone fatigue. D) To prevent the contamination of the shade guide. 90. When a material undergoes gradual flow upon load application and remains deformed after the load is removed, the material is best described as: A) Viscous. B)Elastic. C) Creepy.
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D) Viscoelastic. 91. Which of the following causes incomplete casting? A) Pattern too far from the edge of the investment. B) Rapid or premature heating of the mold . C) Uneven expansion. D) Higher water to powder ratio. 92. Bond failure between porcelain and metal in ceramo-metal restorations: A) Thin opaque layer. B) Metal contamination after degassing. C) Over fired porcelain. D) All of the above.

93. What is inaccurate regarding metal ceramic alloy? A) Must be able to produce surface oxide. B) Coefficient of thermal expansion is slightly lower than veneering porcelain. C) Melting range should be higher than fusing range of dental porcelain fired on top of it. D) should have biocompatibility. 94. The total area under a stress-strain curve for a given material represent: A) Resillince. B) Ductility. C)Toughness. D) Elasticity. 95. All the following are TRUE regarding working casts with separate die EXCEPT: A) Simplest mean of fabricating a working cast and die:

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B) Keep the relationship between abutments fixed and immovable. C) The first pour of impression material will be used for the fabrication of the working die. D)Minimum casting adjustment. 96. Malleability: A) The ability of the alloy to be drawn into wire under a force of tension by reductional in crossectional surface area. B) The ability of the alloy to be hammered or rolled into thin sheets. C) Related to burnishability of the cast margins. D) B and C.

97. The main constitute of alginate impression material by weight is: A) Potassium alginate. B) Calcium sulfate dihydrate. C) Diatomaceous earth. D) Potassium sulfate. 98. Which one of the following is a contraindicated of FPD with non-rigid connector? A) Short abutment ( less than 7 mm ). B) Distal segment unopposed. C) Distal segment opposed by RPD. D) All of the above. 99. Choose the false statement in regard to post length. A) The post should be two third of the root length. B) The post should terminate half way between the crystal bone and root apex . C) The post preparation for premolars should be limited to a depth of 7 mm apical to the canal orifice.

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D) The post should be at least half the length of root embedded in bone. 100. The dimension of color that is probably most important in shade matching is: A) Hue. B) Value. C) Chroma. D) Saturation.

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