SET 2 QUESTIONS - MUSCULOSKELETAL 1. You are working in an out-patient setting. Mr. Smith is your next Pt.

he has been in therapy 2X week for 3 weeks for shoulder weakness, while reviewing his exercise flow sheet you see that one of this exercises is charted as R UE IR Red T-band 3X 12 standing elbow at 90 by this information you conclude which muscle is being strengthened. Kisner 546 A. Subscapularis B. Middle deltoid C. Biceps brachii D. SCM 2. While performing passive ROM on Mr. Pauls Right shoulder, Mr. Paul lets you know by verbal and nonverbal cues that no further motion should to taken, this happens before any anatomical structure should interfere with ROM. With this information you can describe that the end-feel as ___ in your notes.
O'Sullivan 171

6. Which of the follow is NOT true about a muscle immobilized in a shortened position? Shankman 185 A. It may atrophy more than a muscle placed in a casted lengthened position B. Sarcomeres in the shortened muscle fiber decrease up to 40% C. A muscle immobilized in a shortened position breaks down less protein D. The amount of Sarcomeres fibers increases once the muscle is no longer immobilized

7. What is the length of time after a tendon injury that fibroblasts continue to form dense connective tissue along the long axis of the tendon? Shankman 188 A. 42 days (6 weeks) B. 49 days (7 weeks) C. 56 days (8 weeks) D. 63 days (9 weeks)

A. Firm B. Hard C. Empty D. Soft

8. Therapeutic exercise for a patient with a tendon injury repair after a year should be less intense because that strength of the tendon has been reduced by:
Shankman 189

3. If while assessing your patient, you move your patients right shoulder through its available range and notice a firm end feel sooner than the normal ROM expected with no pain felt by your patient, you would suspect? O'Sullivan 175 a) Fatty tissue in the way b) Capsular, muscular and or ligamentous shortening c) Osteoarthritis d) Myositis ossificans

A. 30% B. 40% C. 50% D. 60%

9. A synergistic action that occurs when two or more muscles produce a force in different linear direction but produce a torque in the same rotary directions can be defined as a(n): Mansfield 38 A. synergist B. excursion C. force-couple D. co-contraction

4. While observing a patient who complains of left ankle numbness and weakness, you see that the patient is able to walk in the facility without an assistive device; however did have some gait deviations including a minor toe drag and a very subtle left hip hike for compensation; without performing manual muscle testing you would suspect that the patient is at least a? O'Sullivan 181 a) 3 b) 3+ c) 2+ d) 35. What is the term used to describe abrupt trauma such as from a direct blow to a muscle that damages blood vessels and initiates an acute inflammatory response?
Shankman 179

10. A muscle must receive sufficient amount of resistance to stimulate hypertrophy, without a significant amount of resistance muscle strengthening will not occur. This statement describes which of the following theory? Mansfield 47 A. The Overload Principle B. The Force-Velocity Relationship C. The Principle of Training Specificity D. The Length-Tension Relationship

11. The Quadriceps Femoris group is innervated by the: Biel (Trail Guide) 300 A. Femoral Nerve B. Superior Gluteal Nerve C. Obturator Nerve D. Tibial Nerve

A. Muscle Tear B. Contusion C. Sprain D. Strain

12. Most of the adult skeleton is made up of ___ compact, cortical bone. Shankman 153 A. 40% B. 50% C. 80& D. 90%

19. What is the conservative management procedure for the treatment for tendinitis? Shankman 189 A. Surgery B. Aggressive exercise C. Immobilization D. RICE 20. What can contribute to disruption of the blood supply to muscle tissue? Shankman 179 A. Direct injury or indirect injury B. Edema C. Amplified enzyme build up D. Decreased collagenous scar tissue

13. If a patient exhibits exaggerated lumbar lordosis when lying supine, this patient likely has tightness in his/her ___. Mansfield 250 A. Transverse Abdominis B. Rectus Abdominis C. Hip extensors D. Hip flexors

14. The force-couple for performing a posterior pelvic tilt involved which of the following muscles: Mansfield 255 A. Gluteus medius and tensor fasciae latae B. Abdominals and hip extensors C. Hip flexors and erector spinae D. Hip extensors and gluteus minimus 15. Lateral Epicondylitis is a result of ___?
Mansfield 138

21. A condition in which the metatarsal bone, usually the second metatarsal bone of the foot undergoes avascular necrosis. Shankman 283 A. Lisfranc's fracture B. Interphalangeal fracture C. Talar fracture D. Freiberg's Infraction

A. Hyperextension of the elbow flexors. B. Impingement of the median nerve. C. Inflammation 2* to repetitive use of the wrist extensors. D. Inflammation of the Bicipital tendon.

22. A 47 year old patient complains of pain and discomfort in her right shoulder during any physical activity. During an assessment by her therapist patient was able to perform shoulder abduction at least 50 % ROM, against gravity, with no resistance. What is this patients MMT grade? O'Sullivan 181 A. 3B. 2+ C.4D. 3

16. What is unique about muscle tissue?

Shankman 179

A. It has the ability to regenerate & repair. B. Inability to regenerate after indirect or direct trauma. C. Cannot be controlled with the use of antiinflammatory meds. D. Is limited by angiogenesis. 17. What of the following is not an effect of immobilization on skeletal muscle tissue (shortened)?
Shankman 185

23. Stress is proportional to strain up to a limit, which is called proportional limit. This statement describes the ___? Mansfield 72 A. Young's Modulus of Elasticity B. Hooke's Law C. Overload Principle D. SAID Principle

A. Increased protein breakdown B. Increased muscle weight C. Muscle atrophy (type I ) D. Decreased anaerobic glycolytic enzymes

24. Two neurophysiologic sensory receptors involved with the stretch reflex are ___? Mansfield 62 A. Muscle spindles and actin B. Sarcomeres and myosin C. GTO's and muscle spindles D. Actin and myosin

18. Tendons heal through three stages; inflammation, repair, and remodeling. What is the time frame to be able to observe the inflammation in the affected area after the injury? Shankman 187 A. 24 hours B. 36 hours C. 72 hours D. 96 hours

25. Bone formation in muscle is called: Shankman 181 A. Myosatellite B. Myoitis C. Myoblast D. Myo ossificans

26. What some effects of immobilization on skeletal muscle tissue. Shankman 185 A. Decreased muscle weight B. Decreased connective tissue C. Sarcomeres decrease D. Both A and C

33. Your patient is an athletic 13 year old boy who presents with tenderness, swelling, and a bump below the patella on the tibial tuberosity of his left knee. He complains of pain with activities such as climbing stairs, running and kneeling. The most likely diagnosis is?
Mansfield 276

27. The lower quarter myotome level of L3, L4 requires what action to be tested? O' Sullivan 185 A. Hip flexion B. Knee extension C. Extension of the great toe D. Plantar flexion

A. Osteoarthritis B. Chondromalacia of the patella C. Osgood-Schlatters Disease D. Jumpers knee

28. MMT grade of minimal observable less than 50% ROM, gravity minimized, no resistance is considered that grade? O' Sullivan 181 A. Trace B. Poor minus C. Trace plus D. Poor plus

34. Your patient is a 30 year old female who has been under treatment for lateral epicondylitis. She was feeling so much better over the weekend she decided to play 3 hours of tennis and presents to you on Monday with significant pain, edema and decreased range of motion. When assessing her range of motion for supination the End-Fell is empty secondary to her pain. What is the normal End- Feel for supination? OSullivan 175 A. Hard B. Firm C. Soft D. Spongy 35. While observing a football game you witness Patriots QB Brady receiving a viscous blow to his right knee by Broncos DE Dumervil. Of course, you are immediately thinking, Oh no, anterior tibial translation. What test of Bradys knee do you think will be most telling?: Shankman 292-293 A. Lachmans B. Allens C. Adsons D. Obers 36. Later in the same football game you observe Denver QB Tebow issuing a crushing blow to New England DT Love as he pushes through to the end zone for another Bronco score. Injury time out is called as DT Love screams out in pain due to a 300 lb teammate having fallen on his right ankle while it was inverted during Tebow's lambasting. Which of the following would least likely be negatively impacted by this apparent ankle sprain? Mansfield 311 A. Posterior Talofibular Ligament B. Calcaneofibular Ligament C. Deltoid Ligament D. Anterior Talofibular Ligament 37. If a patient presents with a sprain to the knee, less swelling and no intraarticular effusion because the resultant bleeding from the injured tissues can evacuate the area and the fluid is not restrained within the joint capsule. Which of the following it would be? Shankman
290

29. Which of the following principles does not provide the foundation for strength training in physical therapy?
Shankman 83

A. Overload Principle B. Specificity C. Reversibility D. Power Principle

30. The most popular model that describes muscular contraction is called: Mansfield 38 A. The actin-myosin cross bridges B. The sliding filament theory C. Force couple D. A sarcomere 31. Joint structures consist of: O' Sullivan 159 A. bursa, bone, skin B. cartilage, menisci, capsules C. ligaments, bursa, bone D. cartilage, skin, capsules

32. Limb lengths are measured from ___ to ___, and are also compared ___. O' Sullivan169 A. bony landmark, bony landmark, bilaterally B. bony landmark, joint capsule, unilaterally C. joint capsule, prominence, bilaterally D. prominence, prominence, unilaterally

A. ACL B. MCL C. PCL . D. LCL

38. An ACL reconstruction was done, the rehabilitation process has three phases. However, during the maximum-protection phase, this phase lasts for how long in general? Shankman 295 A. From 1st day post-op to the 3th week B. From 1st day post-op to the 6th week C. From 1st day post-op to the 10th week D. From 1st day post-op to the 12th week

45. Which of the following refers to an injury involving muscle and tendon tissue: Shankman 176 A. Sprain B. Microtrauma C. Strain D. Overuse

46. Which of the following are the Primary Scapular Upward Rotators: Mansfield 70-71 39. Which one of the above instruments is more frequently used to measure PROM in the clinical setting:
O Sullivan 170

A. Tape measures B. Inclinometers C. Universal goniometers D. Rulers

A. Upper, middle and lower Trapezius B. Levator Scapulae, Rhomboids, Latissimus Dorsi C. Serratus Anterior, Lower Trapezius and Upper Trapezius D. Levator Scapulae, Middle Trapezius and Rhomboids

40. End- Feel may be detected by the therapist during:

O Sullivan 171

47. What type of end feel is produced when the olecranon process and fossa comes in contact during elbow extension? O'Sullivan 175 A. Soft B. Firm C. Empty D. Hard

A. Active ROM B. AAROM C. Passive ROM D. Resistive exercises

41. An angle of inclination of 142 is termed ___.

Mansfield 233

48. Full ROM against gravity with no resistance describes what MMT grade? O'Sullivan 181 A. F B. F+ C. FD. G-

A. Coxa Valga B. Coxa Vara C. Normal Anteversion D. Genu Valgum

42. Long-term weakness of which of the following muscles can cause subluxation of the GH joint?
Mansfield 69

49. Of the 4 rotator cuff muscles; the only one that does not insert into the greater tubercle of the humerus?
Biel 82-83

A. Supraspinatus B. Upper Trapezius C. Middle Deltoid D. Deltoid (all fibers)

A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus C. Teres Minor D. Subscapularis

43. Cyanosis is believed to be a lack of ___ and excessive ___ in superficial blood vessels.
O'Sullivan 168

50. The lateral rotators of the hip are located? Biel 322 A. Deep to the Piriformis B. Superficial to the Gluteus Medius C. Deep to the Gluteus Maximus D. Medial to the sciatic nerves

A) Iron and Oxygen B) Carbon dioxide and Potassium C) Oxygen and Sodium D) Oxygen and carbon dioxide 44. The ability of a muscle to contract repeatedly over the time is called: O Sullivan 178 A. Muscle power B. Muscle endurance C. Muscle strength D. Muscle capacity

51. Myositis ossificans: Shankman 181

A. Can be treated with exercise B. Can be treated with ultrasound C. Is heterotopic bone formation after blunt trauma. D. Can be prevented by passive stretching

52. This cell accounts for 90% of all bone tissue:

Shankman 153

59. A myositis ossification can be caused by:

Shankman 190

A. Osteoblast B. Osteocyte C. Osteoclast D. Osteoma 53. What is the position of active insufficiency for the quadriceps muscle? Kisner 44 A. Knee extension and Hip flexion B. Knee Flexion and Hip flexion C. Knee extension and hip extension D. Knee flexion and hip extension

A. a prolonged stretch of a muscle B. a prolonged disuse of a muscle C. a severe blunt trauma D. lifting too much weight at once

60. A repaired tendon will achieve its maximal strength after how long?
Shankman 188.

A. 4 months B. 6 months C. 8 months D. 12 months 61. The greatest amount of muscle atrophy occurs within ___ of immobilization? Shankman 185 A. 72 hours B. 2 weeks C. 1 week D. 3 weeks

54. What soft tissues are considered to be part of the Unholy Triad? Kisner 72 A. PCL, MCL, Meniscus B. ACL, MCL, Meniscus C. LCL, PCL, ACL D. MCL, LCL, PCL

55. The cervical and lumbar spine should exhibit moderate ___ curves and the thoracic spine a moderate ___ curve. O'Sullivan 168 A. Kyphotic, Lordotic B. Lordotic, Kyphotic C. Kyphotic, Kyphotic D. Lordotic, Lordotic

62. Which of the following has the greatest healing response due to being highly vascular? Shankman 185 A. Bone B. Muscle C. Tendon D. Ligament

56. A Patient comes into a clinic complaining of severe pain in his right hip. Upon examination the Physical Therapist notes tight hip flexors using which of the following special test? O'Sullivan 184 A. Ober test B. Hawk test C. Adam test D. Thomas test

63. The 3 segments of the pectoralis major are: clavicle, sternal and ___? Biel 83 A. costal fibers B. manubrium C. coricoidial D. scapular

64. The transversospinalis group is made up of 3 different muscles: semispinalis, multifidi, and ___.
Biel 173

57. This test is used to examine inflammation of the tendons of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis by stretching these structures?
O'Sullivan 184

A. Lockman test B. SJs test C. Finkelstein test D. Bunnel-littler 58. The feeling, experienced by the therapist as resistance, or barrier to further motion is called?
O'Sullivan 171

A. spinalis B. longissimus C. rotatores D. iliocostalis

65. Stretching or tearing of a ligament is known as ___.

Shankman 176

A. Trigger Point B. Spasm C. End Feel D. Contraction

A. Overuse B. Strain C. Microtrauma D. Sprain

66. Which of these is the most common sports injury related to the foot? Shankman 260 A. Inversion ankle sprain B. Eversion ankle sprain C. Plantar Fasciitis D. Pes Cavus

73. Which of the following muscles is NOT a flexor of the glenohumeral joint? Mansfield 83 A. Biceps Brachii B. Anterior Deltoid C. Brachialis D. Coracobrachialis

67. A muscular force-couple is: Mansfield 38 A. Active Length Tension B. When motion is produced in mid-range of a muscle C. An action at a joint that occurs when 2 or more muscles produce forces in different linear directions but produce a torque in the same rotary direction D. When an agonist and antagonist force produce no joint movement

74. Which of the following bones is NOT a part of the pelvis? Mansfield 228 A. Coccyx B. Ilium C. Pubis D. Ishium

68. Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS) is greater with ___ muscle contraction: Shankman 83 A. Concentric B. Isometric C. Eccentric D. Isotonic

69. A special test designed to test the strength of a muscle when utilizing gravity and/or manual resistance is? O'Sullivan 178 A. Goniometry B. Manual Muscle Testing C. Break Test D. Hawkins

70. When considering force-couplings, which other 2 muscles are involved with the upper trapezius in upward rotation of the scapula? Mansfield 65 A. Middle Trapezius and Rhomboids B. Lower Trapezius and Levator Scapulae C. Lower Trapezius and Serratus Anterior D. Middle Trapezius and Pec Minor

71. Main function of the Golgi Tendon Organ (GTO) is to: OSullivan 136 A. alert body to deliver more nutrients to a specific area B. monitor tension within the muscle C. produce Lactic Acid D. relax the body as a result of stimuli

72. Goniometer is used to measure: OSullivan 170 A. range of motion of a joint B. relationship between two opposing muscles C. body core temperature D. levels of Gonio in the body