Quiz - Environmental Science and Sustainability 1. Most of the environmental problems we face are a. increasing linearly c.

increasing exponentially e. increasing logarithmically b. decreasing linearly d. decreasing exponentially 2. A sustainable society a. manages its economy and population size c. protects resources for future generations e. all of the above b. satisfies the needs of its people d. lives within its carrying capacity 3. If the worlds population grew by 2% in 1998 and continued at that rate, how long before the world population doubles? a. 20 years b. 25 years c. 30 years d. 35 years e. 40 years 4. The market value in current dollars of all goods and services produced within a country for final use during a year is the a. gross national product b. gross domestic product c. per capita GNP d. per capita GDP e. inflation GNP 5. Which of the following statements about developed countries is true? a. they tend to be highly agricultural d. they make up about one-fifth of the worlds population b. they have low to moderate per capita GNPs e. they consume about one-fifth of the worlds resources c. they are primarily in Africa, Asia, and Latin America 6. Which of the following is not a renewable resource a. groundwater b. trees in a forest c. fertile soil d. air e. oil 7. Resources that are called nonrenewable a. are also called perpetual resources c. are capable of economic depletion e. none of the above b. are only resources that are alive d. b and c 8. Point sources of pollution include all of the following except a. an automobile exhaust pipe c. a drainpipe from a power plant e. a chimney of a house b. a factory smokestack d. fertilizer runoff from lawns 9. Ronald observed the bird feeder hung from the hemlock tree in the backyard. Chickadees can fly. Blue jays can fly. Cardinals can fly. I think all birds can fly, he concluded. He was a. using inductive reasoning e. a nd c b. using deductive reasoning f. a and d c. creating a generalization from specific observations g. b and c d. hypothesizing about a specific observation from a generalization h. b and d 10. Compared to other natural sciences, environmental science focuses more on a. simplistic thinking d. isolating one variable for study b. comparing experimental groups to control groups e. the pieces; not the big picture c. connections and interactions 11. The population of country X in June 1987 was 500 million. The population reached 1 billion in June 2001. What was the growth rate (%) for this time period? a. 2% b. 3.5% c. 5% d. 7% e. 9% 12. Consumption of resources fuels industrialization and technology, which increase and consume still more resources. This is an example of a a. positive feedback loop b. negative feedback loop c. homeostatic feedback loop d. reductive feedback loop 13. The underlying message from the passage of Ishmael read in class would be. a. avoid trial in error at all costs c. civilization must abide by natural laws b. the Takers have no hope in survival d. planes cannot defy the law of gravity 14. The wealth gap as discussed in class most violates which principle of sustainable development. a. biophysical limits b. intergenerational equity c. intragenerational equity d. ecological justice 15. According to the U.S. National Fish and Wildlife Foundation, 14 major commercial fish species in U.S. waters are so depleted that even if all fishing stopped immediately, it would take up to 20 years for stocks to recover. It may be argued that this situation violates several principles of sustainable development. Which of the following principles is least affected. a. biophysical limits b. intergenerational equity c. intragenerational equity d. ecological justice 1. Liquid, solid, and gas are a. physical forms of matter b. chemical forms of matter c. mixtures d. compounds e. elements 2. Life in the ecosphere depends on interaction of gravity and a. one-way flow of energy d. cycling of matter

b. cycling of energy e. a and d c. one-way flow of matter 3. A parent and a child spent 30 minutes picking up all the toys and placing them on the shelves and in the drawers. The next evening, most of the toys were back on the floor. The concept which best describes this observation is. a. conservation of matter d. kinetic energy b. conservation of energy e. potential energy c. entropy 4. Which of the following is a macronutrient? a. iodine b. sodium c. carbon d. copper e. zinc 5. An example of potential energy is a. electricity flowing through a wire d. a leaf falling from a tree b. chemical energy in an apple e. a perpetual motion machine c. a bullet fired at high velocity 6. Which of the following sources of iron would be of the highest quality? a. iron deposits on the ocean floor d. a one-half-mile-deep deposit of iron ore b. a shelf of iron supplements in the pharmacy e. a field of spinach c. a large, scrap metal junk yard 7. In the field, you observe a lion chase, kill, and eat a gazelle. A vulture pecks away at the left over meat scraps. Crabs attack the remaining fragments. Finally, bacteria complete the breakdown and recycling of organic material. If you were to apply a general classification to the feeders, what would be the correct sequence? a. decomposer > scavenger > detritus feeder > carnivore d. carnivore > scavenger > decomposer > detritus feeder b. carnivore > detritus feeder > scavenger > decomposer e. carnivore > detritus feeder > decomposer > scavenger c. carnivore > scavenger > detritus feeder > decomposer\ 8. The following choices list levels of organization of matter that claim the attention of ecologists. Which correctly lists these levels in sequence from narrower to broader focus? a. organisms - populations - communities - ecosystems - ecosphere b. organisms - communities - populations - ecosystems - ecosphere c. organisms - populations - communities - ecosphere - ecosystems d. ecosphere - ecosystems - communities - populations - organisms e. ecosphere - ecosystems - populations - communities organisms 9. The relative quality of electricity is a. very high b. high c. moderate d. low e. very low 10. Life of an individual organism is maintained by a. cycling of energy and flow of matter d. flow of energy and matter b. flow of energy and cycling of matter e. none of the above c. cycling of energy and matter 11. The service least likely to be performed by the insect family is a. plant reproduction d. chemosynthesis b. plant pollination e. decomposing dead tissues c. turning the soil 12. The amount of energy transferred from an organism on one trophic level to the next trophic level varies from _________ % a. 1-5 d. 45-60 b. 5-20 e. 70-90 c. 20-30 13. A community of living organisms interacting with one another and the physical and chemical factors of their nonliving environment is a. a species d. a lithosphere b. an ecosystem e. a biosphere c. a population 14. H2O and NaCl are a. elements d. organic compounds b. mixtures e. usually liquids c. inorganic compounds 15. Organic compounds include all of the following except a. chlorofluorocarbons d. carbon dioxide b. hydrocarbons e. carbohydrates c. chlorinated hydrocarbons 16. All of the following factors have strong effects on terrestrial ecosystems except

a. temperature d. dissolved oxygen b. precipitation e. level of plant nutrients in the soil c. nature of the soil 17. Most of the energy input in a food chain is a. in the form of heat d. degraded to low-quality heat b. converted to biomass e. used to recycle detritus c. recycled as it reaches the chains end 18. The organisms that are classified as primary consumers are the a. detritivores b. omnivores c. carnivores d. herbivores e. producers 19. Children fly kites in the a. stratosphere b. lithosphere c. biosphere d. hydrosphere e. troposphere 20. If something is biodegradable, it a. can be broken down by autotrophs d. cannot be broken down by any living processes b. can be broken down by heterotrophs e. can be broken down by chemosynthesizers c. can be broken down by decomposers 21. The energy lost by a system is a. usually found d. returned to the system eventually b. equal to the energy the system creates e. converted into an equal amount of matter c. converted to lower-quality energy 22. All of the following are among the six elements which make up the vast majority of the atoms of all living things except a. hydrogen d. carbon b. nitrogen e. sodium c. sulfur 23. Ecology is the study of how a. atoms make up the environment d. energy runs the environment b. humans affect the environment e. societies pass laws to protect the environment c. organisms interact with each other and their nonliving environment 24. All of the following are major causes of differences among aquatic ecosystems except a. temperature d. depth of sunlight penetration b. precipitation e. water currents c. salinity 25. A mineral is a. an inorganic, naturally occurring solid d. an organic, synthetic solid b. an inorganic, naturally occurring liquid e. an inorganic, synthetic solid c. an organic, naturally occurring solid 26. A domesticated species a. plays a strong ecological role d. matures in a natural habitat b. plays a strong evolutionary role e. rarely interacts with the human species c. is subjected to artificial selection 27. All of the following live off remains or wastes of organisms except a. omnivores d. detritivores b. decomposers e. none of the above. All live off wastes c. scavengers 28. All of the following are elements except a. water b. oxygen c. nitrogen d. hydrogen e. carbon 29. N2 and O2 are examples of a. compounds consisting of two different elements d. molecules consisting of two atoms of the same element b. elements consisting of a compound and an ion e. molecules consisting of two ions of the same element c. molecules consisting of two elements of the same compound 30. The pyramid which best explains why there are typically only four to five links in a food chain is the pyramid of a. energy d. matter b. biomass e. chemicals c. numbers 31. Earth is essentially a closed system for a. matter b. energy c. matter and energy d. neither matter nor energy 32. The ecological efficiency at each trophic level of a particular ecosystem is 20%. If the green plants of the ecosystem capture 100 units of energy, about units of energy will be available to support herbivores, and about units of energy will be available to support carnivores. a. 120 . . . 140 d. 20 . . . 4

b. 120 . . . 240 e. 20 . . . 1 c. 20 . . . 2 33. Autotrophs a. might carry on chemosynthesis d. can live without heterotrophs b. are known as producers e. all of the above c. might carry on photosynthesis 34. So far biologists have identified and named about million species, not including bacteria a. 0.5 b. 1.8 c. 3.9 d. 6.0 e. 10.0 35. Fossil fuels and minerals are found in the a. atmosphere b. lithosphere c. biosphere d. hydrosphere e. troposphere 36. Photosynthesis a. converts glucose into energy and water d. yields glucose and oxygen gas as products b. requires the combustion of carbon e. requires carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas c. produces carbon dioxide and oxygen gas 37. Which of the following ecosystems would you expect to have the lowest level of kilocalories per square meter per year? a. savanna d. agricultural land b. tropical rain forest e. lakes and streams c. open ocean 38. An ecosystem can survive without a. producers b. consumers c. decomposers d. b and c e. all of the above 39. The algae in the ocean are eaten by small animals (zooplankton) which are eaten by small fish which are eaten by larger fish. Ultimately, they die and are decomposed by bacteria. This ecosystem illustrates a. producers being eaten by herbivores being eaten by carnivores being recycled by decomposers b. a detrital food web c. a grazing food web d. a and b e. a and c 40. Which of the following statements does not apply to the second law of energy? a. energy conversion results in lower-quality energy d. heat is usually given off from energy conversions b. energy can neither be created nor destroyed e. we cannot recycle high-quality energy to do useful work c. energy conversion results in more dispersed energy 1. The hydrologic cycle is driven primarily by a. solar energy and gravity. d. mechanical and chemical energy. b. solar energy and the moon. e. chemical energy and gravity. c. solar energy and mechanical energy. 2. Water covers about ______ % of Earths surface. a. 56 d. 79 b. 62 e. 83 c. 71 3. The hydrologic cycle refers to the movement of a. hydrogen. d. hydrocarbons. b. oxygen. e. rain. c. water. 4. The most common gas in the atmosphere is a. nitrogen. d. hydrogen. b. carbon dioxide. e. water vapor. c. oxygen. 5. All of the following are general types of nutrient cycles except a. the hydrologic cycle. d. the atmospheric cycle. b. the sedimentary cycle. e. none of the above. All are general types of nutrient cycles. c. the carbohydrate cycle. 6. The phosphorous cycle is an example of a(n) a. hydrologic cycle. d. atmospheric cycle. b. sedimentary cycle. e. bicycle. c. carbohydrate cycle. 7. Of the following parts of the water cycle, the one working against gravity is a. percolation d. transpiration b. infiltration e. precipitation c. runoff

8. The two ways in which humans have most interfered with the carbon cycle are a. removal of forests and aerobic respiration. d. burning fossil fuels and removal of forests and brush. b. aerobic respiration and burning fossil fuels. e. combustion and causing volcanic eruptions. c. respiration and photosynthesis. 9. The nitrogen cycle is an example of a(n) a. hydrologic cycle. d. atmospheric cycle. b. sedimentary cycle. e. bicycle. c. carbohydrate cycle. 10. Of the following carbon-based compounds, which would have the slowest turnover rate? a. calcium carbonate shells d. DNA in a bacterium b. wood in a tree e. carbon dioxide in the atmosphere c. protein in a cow 11. Humans strongly affect the hydrologic cycle through all of the following except a. water withdrawal in heavily populated area. d. paving roads and parking lots. b. clearing vegetation for agriculture. e. construction of large buildings. c. boiling water. 12. Global temperatures rise as levels of ____________________ in the atmosphere increase. a. nitrogen gas d. hydrogen sulfide b. carbon dioxide e. nitrate c. phosphate 13. All of the following increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere except a. respiration. d. decomposition. b. photosynthesis. e. volcanic eruptions. c. combustion. 14. The form of nitrogen most usable to plants is a. ammonia. d. nitrates. b. nitrogen gas. e. nucleic acids. c. proteins. 15. Humans remove nitrogen from the soil by all of the following except a. leaching water-soluble nitrate ions from soil through irrigation. b. harvesting nitrogen-rich crops. c. applying organic fertilizers to agricultural land. d. mining of nitrogen-rich mineral deposits. 16. All of the following are sources of phosphorous except a. inorganic fertilizer. d. acid rain. b. runoff of animal wastes from feedlots. e. ocean sediments. c. detergents. 17. Inorganic nitrogen-containing ions (such as nitrate) are converted into organic molecules through a. nitrification. d. assimilation. b. nitrogen fixation. e. ammonification. c. denitrification. 18. Nitrogen fixation is accomplished by a. earthworms. d. protozoa. b. bacteria. e. worms in the ocean trenches. c. algae. 19. Lava is an example of _______ rock. a. metamorphic d. plasticized b. igneous e. none of the above c. sedimentary 20. When organisms die, their nitrogenous organic compounds are converted to simper inorganic compounds such as ammonia through the process of a. nitrification. d. assimilation. b. nitrogen fixation. e. ammonification. c. denitrification. 21. When nitrogen is added to aquatic systems, it is least likely to result in a. depletion of oxygen in the water. d. fish kills. b. stimulated algae growth. e. aerobic decomposition of dead algae. c. a decrease in gross primary productivity. 22. To which of the following cycles is guano an important component?

a. phosphorous d. sulfur b. carbon e. nitrogen c. hydrologic 23. Nitrogen gas is converted to ammonia through a. nitrification. d. assimilation. b. nitrogen fixation. e. ammonification. c. denitrification. 24. Which of the following is not one of the common phosphorous reservoirs in the ecosystem? a. water d. rocks b. organisms e. soil c. atmosphere 25. Soil is a complex mixture of a. decaying organic matter and decomposers. d. mineral nutrients. b. eroded rock. e. all of the above. c. air and water. 26. All of the following are broad classes of rock except a. sedimentary. d. crystal. b. igneous. e. none of the above; all four are broad classes of rock. c. metamorphic. 27. The zone of accumulation is described by the letter a. A.. b. B c. C d. D e. O 28. The transition zone is described by the letter a. A.. b. B c. C d. D e. O 29. The zones that compose a mature soil are known as a. strata. d. laminae. b. profiles. e. none of the above. c. horizons. 30. The surface litter horizon is described by the letter a. A b. B c. C d. D e. O 31. Which two soil horizons are the most important to agriculture a. A and B d. B and O b. A and C e. B and C c. A and O 32. The A-horizon of soil is commonly referred to as a. topsoil. d. parent rock. b. surface litter. e. zone of leaching. c. subsoil. 33. Leaching occurs when a. humus is dissolved d. rock is shattered by frost action b. water removes soluble soil components e. water is taken up by plant roots c. organic compounds slowly decay 34. Freshly fallen leaves, organic debris, and partially decomposed organic matter are characteristic of the a. surface litter d. subsoil b. zone of leaching e. topsoil c. parent material 35. The _____-horizon of a soil contains no organic material and is composed of parent material. a. A.. b. B c. C d. D e. O 36. Topsoil contains all of the following except a. plant roots d. some inorganic minerals b. humus e. living organisms c. freshly fallen leaves 37. An acidic soil is one with a pH of a. 10 or more d. less than 7 b. exactly 10 e. exactly 7 c. 7 to 10 38. Humus is a. indicative of poor soils d. partially decomposed organic matter b. light colored or nearly white e. water soluble and easily washed away c. poisonous to soil microorganisms

39. Which statement best describes ecosystems? Ecosystems are a. closed systems with self-contained energy flow and nutrient cycling b. closed systems with self-contained energy cycling and nutrient flow c. open systems connected by both precipitation and wind d. open systems connected by precipitation only e. open systems connected by wind only 40. Topsoil that is in color is the most highly fertile a. gray d. yellow b. red e. orange c. dark brown or black 1. Trees of wet tropical forests tend to be a. succulent plants d. coniferous evergreen plants b. broad-leaf evergreen plants e. epiphytes c. broad-leaf deciduous plants 2. A desert is an area where a. evaporation is rapid b. average annual precipitation is less than 10 inches c. most vegetation is low, sparse, and widely spaced d. the atmosphere serves as a poor insulator e. all of the above 3. Climate and vegetation vary with a. latitude only d. latitude and altitude b. longitude only e. latitude and longitude c. altitude only 4. The two most important factors determining the climate of an area are a. temperature and ocean currents d. light and temperature b. precipitation and light e. precipitation and ocean currents c. temperature and precipitation 5. Which of the following adaptations would you least expect to find in a desert animal a. live underground during the heat of the day b. have thick outer coverings to minimize water loss c. drink and store large amounts of water d. become dormant during periods of extreme heat or drought e. are active at night 6. You are going on a scientific expedition from the equator to the North Pole. As you leave the coniferous forest behind, you should anticipate next exploring a. gases captured in ice d. patterns of cone design in coniferous forests b. the fall leaves of New England e. the role of lichens and mosses in boggy ecosystems c. stratified layers of the tropical forest 7. Succulent (Thick leaved) plants are most likely to be found in a. aquatic habitats d. deserts b. cold ecosystems e. tropical rain forests c. high altitudes 8. The biome most likely to be found on the top of a very tall tropical mountain is the a. desert d. temperate deciduous forest b. estuary e. taiga c. grassland 9. Deserts are used for a. underground testing of nuclear weapons d. military maneuvers b. storage of toxic and radioactive wastes e. all of the above c. solar collectors 10. You read the data records of a field ecologist who reports the following varieties of species: Beetles, spiders, grasshoppers, many insects and invertebrates, earthworms, toads, prairie dogs, rabbits, squirrels, meadowlarks, coyotes, foxes, and hawks. You conclude that the field ecologist is located in a a. desert d. Arctic tundra b. tropical grassland e. coniferous forest c. temperate grassland 11. The primary limiting factor for the tropical rain forest is a. water d. light

b. soil nutrients e. wind c. temperature 12. A mature has the greatest species diversity of all terrestrial biomes a. tundra d. temperate deciduous forest b. tropical rain forest e. prairie c. taiga 13. In a tropical rain forest, direct sunlight is strongest a. on the forest floor d. in the emergent layer b. in the canopy e. in the shrub layer c. in the understory 14. Humans affect grasslands by a. planting crops d. drilling wells for water b. drilling for oil e. all of the above c. grazing domestic herds 15. Thick, spongy mats of low-growing plants are typical of the a. Arctic tundra d. tropical forest b. coniferous forest e. cold deserts c. tall-grass prairies 16. Trees with needlelike leaves that are kept year round are especially abundant in which biome? a. tundra d. temperate deciduous forest b. tropical rain forest e. none of the above c. coniferous forest 17. Which of the following describes where a natural grassland would most likely be found? a. where annual precipitation exceeds 45 inches d. in the zone lying between forest and desert b. where drought and fire are very rare e. in areas with maximum light c. in places that are suitable for forests 18. Most of the nutrients in the tropical rain forests are found in the a. organisms d. thick atmosphere b. large rivers e. ponds and streams of the forest c. deep, rich soil 19. Which of the following is false? Temperate deciduous forests a. change significantly during four distinct seasons d. have nutrient-poor soils b. are dominated by a few species of broadleaf trees e. that originally grew in the U.S. have mostly been cleared c. have trees that survive winter by dropping their leaves 20. If you were to make a census in a temperate deciduous forest in the U.S., the most likely dominant mammal species are a. deer d. wildcats b. bears e. wolves c. foxes 21. Humans effect mountain biomes by a. expanding populations who may use the land in an unsustainable way b. ecotourism and recreation c. increased air pollution from urban areas d. hydroelectric dams and reservoirs e. all of the above 22. An aquatic environment a. concentrates toxic metabolic wastes d. requires a strong skeleton b. increases fluctuations in temperature e. dissolves nutrients and makes them readily available c. increases chances of overheating 23. In terms of biodiversity, the tropical rain forest is to land environments as is to water environments a. the abyssal zone d. the coral reef b. the bathyal zone e. the ocean trench c. the euphotic zone 24. Mountain biomes

a. have deep, rich soils b. recover quickly from vegetation loss c. may act as sanctuaries for animal species driven from lowland areas d. have little biodiversity e. are independent of atmospheric changes and the hydrologic cycle 25. Which of the following does not belong with the others? a. taiga d. northern coniferous forest b. steppes e. none of the above; they are all forests c. boreal forest 26. In lakes, large numbers of decomposers are found in the a. limnetic zone d. profundal zone b. benthic zone e. estuarine zone c. littoral zone 27. In your explorations as a marine biologist, you find a new species of algae floating on the surface of a coastal zone. You would most likely classify this species as a. phytoplankton d. nekton b. zooplankton e. a decomposer c. benthos 28. Mature temperate deciduous forests than tropical rain forests. a. have more different tree species d. have less sunlight penetrating to lower levels b. have more different animal species e. have poorer soils c. have more plant life at ground level 29. Cone-bearing trees are characteristic of the a. taiga d. savanna b. tropical rain forest e. prairies c. temperate deciduous forest 30. Out on a fishing boat, a swordfish is caught. You would most likely classify this species as a member of the a. phytoplankton d. nekton b. zooplankton e. decomposers c. benthos 31. Oceans a. play a major role in controlling climate by distributing solar heat d. provide habitats for organisms b. function to dilute and disperse human wastes e. all of the above c. participate in biogeochemical cycles 32. Life in both saltwater and freshwater ecosystems can be limited by a. dissolved oxygen for respirationd. access to sunlight for photosynthesis b. availability of plant nutrients e. all of the above c. temperature f. none of the above. There are no limiting factors in aquatic life zones. 33. Lake overturns, which occur twice a year, bring a. oxygen and nutrients to the surface b. oxygen and nutrients to the lake bottom c. oxygen to the surface and nutrients to the lake bottom d. oxygen to the lake bottom and nutrients to the surface e. no movement of oxygen and nutrients 33. Which of the following illustrations does not match the accompanying ecological concept a. coral reefs have high biodiversity b. estuaries have high productivity c. dissolved oxygen is a primary limiting factor in the upper layers of a stratified lake d. the open ocean is the least productive of aquatic life zones e. light is a limiting factor in the lower layer of a stratified lake 35. Most of the wetlands that are lost go to a. mining d. forestry b. urban development e. highways c. agriculture 1. In a population of cats, you notice there is considerable variation of length of fur. Over the course of time, you observe that there are many cats that exhibit very long fur and many with very short fur. However, there are few cats that exhibit an intermediate length of fur. You conclude that this population is undergoing

a. continuous natural selection d. directional natural selection b. discontinuous natural selection e. stabilizing natural selection c. disruptive natural selection 2. An ecological niche includes all of the following except a. the nutrient relationships with other species d. the range of tolerance to different physical/chemical conditions b. the location where the species lives e. the role it plays with flow of energy and cycling of matter c. the types of resource requirements 3. The change from a light to a dark color in the peppered moth was the result of a. insecticides d. an increase in ultraviolet radiation b. industrial pollution e. ozone depletion c. a change in predators 4. The African Serval Cat and the South American Maned Wolf both have long ears that aid in hunting, long legs that allow for efficient movement in their grassland habitats, and they both feed on native lizards and rodents. These similarities may have occurred due to all of the following except a. adapting to similar environments d. convergence b. responding to similar selective pressures e. none of the above c. divergence 5. Geographic isolation may result from a. a volcanic eruption d. a stream b. an earthquake e. all of the above c. a mountain range f. none of the above 6. Which of the following would be most responsible for the existence of the gray fox and the arctic fox a. stabilizing natural selection d. retrospective evolution b. divergent evolution e. none of the above c. convergent evolution 7. You are an evolutionary biologist studying a population of bats in the rainforest of Brazil. Most of the population possesses moderate length wings, although some individuals have long wings and some individuals have short wings. Over the course of time, you notice that the frequency of moderate length wings increases. You conclude that the most likely course of this development is a. stabilizing natural selection d. coevolution b. directional natural selection e. anthropogenic selection c. diversifying natural selection 8. A change in the genetic composition of a population over successive generations is called a. emigration d. evolution b. mutation e. immigration c. natural selection 9. Species belonging to different taxonomic groups may develop a resemblance resulting from adaptation to similar environments. This process is called a. coevolution d. macroevolution b. microevolution e. divergent evolution c. convergent evolution 10. You study fossils of giraffes. Although there appears to be considerable variability in lengths of necks, there appears to be a definite shift to longer necks over the course of time. You conclude that the species is undergoing a. continuous natural selection d. directional natural selection b. discontinuous natural selection e. stabilizing natural selection c. disruptive natural selection 11. Coevolution can involve the interaction of a. plants and herbivores d. predator and prey b. pollinators and flowers e. all of the above c. parasites and hosts 12. Which of the following statements about extinction is false a. biologists estimate that 99% of all the species that have ever existed are now extinct b. mass extinctions raise the extinction rate above the background extinction rate c. most mass extinctions are believed to be due to global climatic changes d. earth has experienced over a dozen great mass extinctions e. earths mass extinctions have been followed by periods of adaptive radiations 13. Patterns of speciation and extinction are least likely to be affected by a. sudden climatic changes d. changes in the weather b. meteorites crashing into the earth e. human habitat destruction c. volcanic eruptions 14. Geographic isolation is least likely to give rise to

a. reproductive isolation d. divergent evolution b. speciation e. any of the above c. convergent evolution 15. Habitat destruction/alteration, introduction of foreign species/diseases, and predator elimination/introduction are all ways in which humans have a. reduced species diversity d. all of the above b. simplified ecosystems e. only A c. tampered with biotic factors 16. Which change in an ecosystem would result in the most immediate effect on a species a. addition of naturally occurring chemical pollutants b. addition of synthetic chemical pollutants c. a slight increase in average temperature d. an increase in average precipitation 17. Biodiversity is believed to be the result of a. divergent and convergent evolution d. extinction and coevolution b. speciation and extinction e. genetic drift and genetic flow c. speciation and coevolution 18. When monocultures are compared to diverse crops, they are considered to be a. more stable and easier to care for d. less vulnerable to damage from insects b. more vulnerable to plant pathogens e. none of the above c. more likely to show biodiversity 19. The view that describes macroevolution as long periods of relatively little change interrupted by short periods of relatively rapid change is best described as a. dynamic equilibrium d. a gradualist model of evolution b. a steady state hypothesis e. a super-static model of evolution c. a punctuated equilibrium hypothesis 20. Which of the following environmental improvements would take the longest time period a. evolution to fill the niches created by mass extinction b. restoration of ecosystems damaged by air and water pollution c. restoration of degraded soils d. restoration of the ozone layer e. regrowth of cut tropical rain forests 1. Wild African bees found in the continental U.S. are best described as a. nonnative species d. specialist species b. native species e. indicator species c. keystone species 2. Species whose roles in an ecosystem are much more important than their abundance would suggest are called a. nonnative species d. specialist species b. native species e. indicator species c. keystone species 4. Species that normally live and thrive in a particular ecosystem are known as a. nonnative species d. specialist species b. native species e. indicator species c. keystone species 8. Species that serve as early warnings of environmental damage are called a. nonnative species d. specialist species b. native species e. indicator species c. keystone species 11. Species that migrate or are accidentally introduced into an ecosystem are called a. nonnative species d. specialist species b. native species e. indicator species c. keystone species 12. Prey are least likely to defend themselves against predators by a. camouflage d. pursuit and ambush b. acute senses of sight and smell e. defensive chemicals c. protective shells 14. In immature ecosystems a. the species diversity is high d. most plants are annuals b. the decomposers are numerous e. nutrients are efficiently recycled c. there are many specialized niches 15. A new kitten is added to a home with an established older cat. The older cat is observed to gobble up its food as well as that of the younger cat. This behavior is best described as a. interference competition d. predation

b. exploitation competition e. commensalism c. mutualism 16. A relationship in which one species benefits while the other is neither helped nor harmed to any significant degree is best labeled a. competition d. parasitism b. predation e. commensalism c. mutualism 17. Which of the following would exhibit primary succession a. rock exposed by a retreating glacier d. newly flooded land to create a reservoir b. an abandoned farm e. all of the above c. a forest that had been clear-cut 19. A new kitten is added to a home with an established older cat. You observe the older cat hiss and swat at the younger kitten in the kitchen where they are fed. This behavior is best described as a. interference competition d. predation b. exploitation competition e. commensalism c. mutualism 20. You are an evolutionary entomologist. You have observed beetles who can raise their abdomens and give off a defensive chemical that generally repels predators. You discover a new species of beetle that raises its abdomen in a threatening way similar to the first species, but no defensive chemical is given off. You are most likely to characterize this defensive strategy as a form of a. camouflage d. flight mechanism b. chemical warfare e. defensive armor c. mimicry 21. Interspecific competition can be avoided by a. eating at different times d. all of the above b. eating in different spaces e. none of the above. The competitive exclusion principle always results in the c. character displacement elimination of two species who fill the same niche 22. Forms of nondestructive behavior between organisms include all of the following except a. sharing resources by hunting at different times d. mutualism b. sharing resources by looking for food in different places e. commensalism c. parasitism 25. Density-dependent limiting factors include all of the following except a. disease d. competition for resources b. human destruction of habitat e. predation c. parasitism 27. Based on the theory of island biogeography, you would predict that large islands near the mainland would have relatively a. high immigration and low extinction rates d. low immigration and high extinction rates b. high immigration and high extinction rates e. low biodiversity and population sizes c. low immigration and low extinction rates 28. Carrying capacity refers to a. reproductive rate b. interaction of natality and mortality c. the maximum size of population the environment will support d. the proportion of males to females in a population e. litter size 30. You are an ecologist studying the population dynamics of an ecosystem. You observe that resources are not evenly distributed. You predict the population dispersion pattern is a. uniform d. a, b, and c in sequence as succession takes place b. random e. none of the above c. clumped 32. The biotic potential of a population a. is the maximum reproductive rate of a population b. is the current rate of growth of a population c. is an expression of how many offspring survive to reproduce d. can be determined only by studying an age structure diagram e. determines the fitness of a population 34. A logistic growth curve depicting a population that is limited by a definite carrying capacity is shaped like the letter a. J d. S b. L e. W

c. m 1. The population change in a particular year can be calculated by a. (deaths + emigration) - (births + immigration) d. (births + emigration) - (deaths + immigration) b. (births + immigration) - (deaths + emigration) e. (births - deaths) + (emigration - immigration) c. deaths + immigration) - (births + emigration) 2. The crude birth rate is the number of live births per persons in a given year a. 50 b. 100 c. 500 d. 1,000 e. 10,000 3. What is the population growth rate for a country with a doubling time of 20 years a. 0.5% b. 1.5% c. 2.5% d. 3.5% e. 4.5% 4. Between 1963 and 2000, the rate of the worlds annual population change (growth rate) a. dropped 39% b. dropped 63% c. remained stable d. rose 39% e. rose 63% 5. Between 1963 and 2000, the human population size a. dropped 91% b. dropped 58% c. remained stable d. rose 58% e. rose 91% 6. The total fertility rate in the United States reached a peak a. during the late 1700s c. after world War I, in the mid-1920s e. during the golden 1980s b. after the Civil War, in the 1870s d. after World War II, in the mid-1950s 7. The U.S. population of 276 million is the third largest population in the world and makes up of the worlds total population a. 0.5% b. 4.5% c. 20% d. 33% e. 50% 8. Which of the following statements is false a. the rise in the size of the human population is due primarily to a steadily increasing birth rate b. increased food supplies and medical care have increased life expectancy c. only a few countries annually accept a large number of immigrants or refugees d. migration within countries plays an important role in the population dynamics of cities, towns, and rural areas e. a high infant mortality rate usually indicates insufficient food and a high incidence of infectious diseases 9. Which of the following statements is false a. much of the economic burden of helping support retired baby boomers will fall on generation x b. at least 8 million infants die of preventable causes during their first year of life c. in 2000, the U.S. had the lowest infant mortality of any developed nation d. the U.S. has the highest teenage pregnancy rate of any industrialized country e. life expectancy in the U.S. is 74 for men and 79 for women 10. Two useful indicators of overall health in a country or region are a. birth rate and death rate c. life expectancy and infant mortality rate e. birth rate and infant mortality rate b. replacement-level and total fertility rates d. life expectancy and death rate 11. Age structure diagrams a. show only two age groups: reproductive and not reproductive b. show the number of males and females in the infant category only c. are strictly for present use and do not provide insight into future trends d. are useful for comparing one population with another e. should not be considered a valid way of explaining the concept of momentum of a population 12. Rapidly growing countries have an age structure diagram that a. forms an inverted pyramid c. shows little variation in population by age e. has a large infant population b. has a broad-based pyramid d. has a large postreproductive population 13. Which of the following implies the greatest built-in momentum for population growth a. a large population size d. a large number of people under age 15 b. a large number of people age 29 to 44 e. a large number of people age 15 to 25 c. a large number of people under age 34 14. In the demographic transition model, ZPG in a country is likely to occur during a. the industrial stage c. the transitional stage e. none of the above b. the postindustrial stage d. the preindustrial stage 15. In the demographic transition model, birth rates and death rates are high during a. the preindustrial stage c. the postindustrial stage e. all of the above b. the industrial stage d. the transitional stage 16. The developing countries may not be able to complete the transition to the industrial stage because of a. lack of resources c. lack of education and technical skills e. all of the above b. lack of capital d. large debts 17. Government attempts to reduce population growth have included all of the following except a. paying couples who agree to use contraceptives

b. paying couples who agree to be sterilized c. penalizing couples who have more than a certain number of children d. providing needed health care and food allotments to those who have more than a certain number of children e. reducing job opportunities for those who have more than a certain number of children 18. Experience indicates that population growth can be slowed by a. reducing poverty c. elevating women status e. none of the above b. investing in family planning d. a combination of all of the abov