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uCertify Study Guide for CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702

A+ Practical Application
Pass your A+ Certification in first attempt

Pass your certification exam in first attem

uCertify Team
www.ucertify.com

Copyright
uCertify Study Guide for CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702
2009 . All rights reserved. No part of this book may be used or reproduced in any manner whatsoever without written permission from uCertify.com. The information contained herein is for the personal use of the reader and may not be incorporated in any commercial programs, other books, databases, or any kind of software without the written consent of uCertify.com. Making copies of this book or any portion for any purpose other than your own use is a violation of the United States Copyright laws. The information contained in this book has been obtained by uCertify.com from sources believed to be reliable. However, because of the possibility of human error by our sources, ucertify.com or others do not guarantee the accuracy, adequacy, or completeness of any information in this book and is not responsible for any errors or omissions or the results obtained from the use of such information.

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uCertify Study Guide for CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702

Foreword
IT certification exams require a lot of study and practice. Many of our customers spend weeks, if not months preparing for the exam. While most classroom training and certification preparation software do a good job of covering exam material and providing practice questions, summarization of the highlights and key study points is often missing. This book is intended to bridge the gap between preparation and the final exam. It is designed to be an easy reference that will walk you through all the exam objectives with easy to remember key points required to successfully pass the certification exam. It reinforces the key points, while helping you focus on the exam requirements. The benefits are multifold and can help you save hours of exam review, while keeping key concepts fresh in your mind before the exam. This critical review will help you with the final exam preparation touches and give you the confidence needed for the big day. Benefits of this exam countdown and quick review guide: 1. Focused approach to reviewing exam material review what you need to know 2. All key exam concepts highlighted and reinforced 3. Time saving must know facts at your finger tips in one condensed version 4. Detailed explanations of all possible answers to practice questions to ensure your grasp of the topic 5 A full length simulation exam to determine your exam readiness

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Table of Contents
Copyright ................................................................................................................. 2 Foreword.................................................................................................................. 3 Table of Contents .................................................................................................... 4 How this book will help you ................................................................................. 6 About uCertify ........................................................................................................ 9 About this Book..................................................................................................... 10 About Exam 220-702: CompTIA A+ Practical Application............................. 11 Exam Registration ............................................................................................. 12 Exam Objectives & Skills Expected ................................................................ 12 FAQ for CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702 ................................................... 14 Test Taking Tips ............................................................................................ 16 The Big Day.................................................................................................... 17 Chapter 1 - Hardware........................................................................................... 19 Overview............................................................................................................ 19 Key Points ...................................................................................................... 19 Key Terms ...................................................................................................... 35 Test Your Knowledge....................................................................................... 36 Answer Explanation ..................................................................................... 39 Chapter 2 - Operating Systems ........................................................................... 44 Overview............................................................................................................ 44 Key Points ...................................................................................................... 44 Key Terms ...................................................................................................... 59 Test Your Knowledge....................................................................................... 60 Answer Explanation ..................................................................................... 62 Chapter 3 - Networking ....................................................................................... 65 Overview............................................................................................................ 65 Key Points ...................................................................................................... 65 Key Terms ...................................................................................................... 73 Test Your Knowledge....................................................................................... 74 Answer Explanation ..................................................................................... 77 Chapter 4 - Security .............................................................................................. 81 Overview............................................................................................................ 81 Key Points ...................................................................................................... 81
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uCertify Study Guide for CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702

Key Terms ...................................................................................................... 89 Test Your Knowledge....................................................................................... 90 Answer Explanation ..................................................................................... 92 Full Length Practice Test Questions ................................................................... 96 Test Your Knowledge....................................................................................... 96 Answer Explanation ................................................................................... 134 Acronyms............................................................................................................. 193 Glossary................................................................................................................ 195 CompTIA Certifications..................................................................................... 210 Things to Practice: A Final Checklist............................................................ 213 uCertify Test Prepration Software for CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702 .. 215 Useful Links......................................................................................................... 218

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How this book will help you


uCertifys guide for CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702 is an invaluable supplement to those in the final stages of their preparation for the CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702 CompTIA A+ Practical Application. This book is organized into three sections. Section A Section A contains general information about the book and Exam 220-702. It describes the exam objectives, pre-requisites, exam format, test taking tips and strategies and more. Section B Section B contains four chapters. Each chapter contains a Quick Review of the material you need to know for a given objective. It reinforces concepts reviewed via pop quizzes and practice questions. Pop Quiz Short, definitive answers. to-the-point questions with

Practice Questions: At the end of each chapter, a series of questions test your understanding of the topics covered in the chapter. These questions are patterned after actual exam questions and difficulty levels. Detailed explanations are provided for each question, explaining not just the correct answer, but the incorrect answers as well, to ensure a real grasp of the question.

Section C Section C contains fifty full-length questions. These questions will test your preparation for the exam within a stipulated period. The Answer Sheet for the exam contains a complete analysis of the question.

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uCertify Study Guide for CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702

Finally, the Appendices includes Acronyms and Glossary followed by References and Index. This is very handy for last minute reviews. We wish you all the best with your exam! Principal contributors: Madhup Sharma, uCertify Team

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Section A Introduction

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uCertify Study Guide for CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702

About uCertify
uCertify is a leading provider of IT certification exam preparation software. For over a decade, we have been preparing top quality preparation guides for over hundreds of IT certification exams. Our software Preparation Kits (Prepkits, as we call them), contain exhaustive study material, tips, study notes and hundreds of practice questions that culminate in a full length simulated preparation exam. Choose exams from vendors such as Microsoft, Oracle, CompTIA, SUN, CIW, EC-Council, ADOBE, CISCO, ITIL, IBM, LPI, ISC-2, and more. Authored by highly experienced and certified professionals, uCertify PrepKits not only guarantee your success at getting certified, but also equip you to truly understand the subject. As they say, "Successful people don't do different things, they do things differently." uCertify's preparation methodology is that difference. We will give you a competitive edge over others who may be paper certified but not qualified to use the skills on the job. A customer pass rate of over 98%, is testimony to the success of our methodology. Learn more about us at www.ucertify.com and www.prepengine.com , our smarter learning platform, which powers each of our Prepkits.

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About this Book

What this book is and what it's not This book is invaluable as a final review guide for CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702. It is a supplement to your exam preparation, be it classroom training, practical experience, or even test preparation software. The book is designed to help you save time while ensuring you are ready, by providing you a Quick Review of all exam objectives, without having to review all exam material. In addition, the book helps reinforce key concepts and terminology, both of which are important to review just before your exam. A big bonus is the full length exam simulation practice test, the results of which are a good indicator of your exam readiness. This book is not a substitute for exhaustive test preparation services such as uCertify Prepkits or classroom training. uCertify strongly recommends that you first study the exam material extensively and gain as much practical experience as possible in the areas you are expected to have skills in. Use this book as a final review before your actual exam.

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About Exam 220-702: CompTIA A+ Practical Application


CompTIA A+ Practical Application (220-702) is an extension of the knowledge and skills identified in CompTIA A+ Essentials (220-701), with more of a "hands-on" orientation focused on scenarios in which troubleshooting and tools must be applied to resolve problems. The CompTIA A+ certification is the industry standard for computer support technicians. The latest version of CompTIA A+ is CompTIA A+ 2009 Edition. Two exams are necessary to be certified: CompTIA A+ Essentials (220-701) and CompTIA A+ Practical Application (220702). The CompTIA A+ Practical Application exam earns you credit towards the following: A+ Certification

Benefits of Certification IT certification is an industry wide, internationally standardized, highly recognized method that demonstrates your technical problem skills and expertise in a given area. By passing a certification exam, an individual shows to his current or potential employer that she/he recognizes the value of staying current with the latest technology. The certification process helps you gain market relevant skills culminating in an industry respected certificate in one or more areas offered for certification. While not all employers require certification, getting certified is tangible proof of your motivation and skills as an IT professional. Surveys consistently show certified professionals to earn more than their counterparts who do not have a formal certification. Most certified professional have found that their financial investment in training and certification is paid off by gains in salary, job opportunities, or expanded roles, typically over a short period of time.

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Exam Registration
CompTIA exams can be registered and taken at Pearson VUE and Prometric testing centers across the globe. Be sure to give yourself plenty of time to prepare for the exam before you schedule your exam day.

Name
Pearson VUE: http://www.vue.com/ Prometric: http://www.prometric.com/

Phone (US and Canada)


877-619-2096 1-800-775-3926

Phone (Other Countries)


6-038-319-1085 1-410-843-8000

Exam Objectives & Skills Expected


CompTIA has specified more than thirteen objectives for the exam 220-702. These objectives are grouped under four topics. Candidates for the 220-702 certification exam are expected to be competent in the following areas: Installing, configuring, computer components and maintaining personal

Detecting problems, troubleshooting and repairing/replacing personal computer components Installing, configuring, detecting problems, troubleshooting and repairing/replacing laptop components Using the tools such as Multimeter, Power supply tester, Specialty hardware / tools, Cable testers, Loop back plugs, Anti-static pad and wrist strap, Extension magnet Detecting and resolving common printer issues

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Selecting the appropriate commands and options to troubleshoot and resolve problems with the operating system Differentiating between different editions of Windows Operating System directory structures Evaluating and resolving Windows operating system common issues with

Troubleshooting client-side connectivity issues using appropriate tools Installing and configuring a small office home office (SOHO) network Preventing, troubleshooting and removing viruses and malware Implementing security and troubleshooting common security issues

Who should take this exam?


The CompTIA A+ is an entry level certification. If you wish to become a support technician, this certification is for you. You can excel your career by getting certified in CompTIA. This certification measures the necessary competencies of an entry-level IT professional with at least 500 hours of hands-on experience in the lab or field. It tests for the fundamentals of computer technology, networking and security, as well as the communication skills and professionalism now required of all entry-level IT professionals.

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FAQ for CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702


Q. What are the pre-requisites to take the 220-702 exam?
A. There are no specific prerequisites to take this exam, this certification measures the necessary competencies of an entrylevel IT professional with at least 500 hours of hands-on experience in the lab or field. You need to pass both the 220-701 and 220-702 exams to achieve the A+ certification.

Q. What is the format of the exam?


A: This exam consists of Multiple-choice questions on the following topics: Hardware Operating Systems Network Security

Q: What does one gain from this certification?


A. The CompTIA A+ certification is the industry standard for computer support technicians. This is the international, vendorneutral certification that proves competence in areas such as installation, preventative maintenance, networking, security and troubleshooting. CompTIA A+ certified technicians have excellent customer service and communication skills to work with clients. The A+ certification demonstrates competency as a computer technician. Officially, the CompTIA A+ certification is a vendor neutral certification. It covers numerous technologies and operating systems from such vendors as Microsoft, Apple Inc., Novell and some of the Linux variations. Some of the companies, such as CompuCom and Ricoh, have made the CompTIA A+ certification mandatory for their service technicians. CompTIA A+ Practical Application (220-702) is an extension of the knowledge and skills identified in CompTIA A+ Essentials (220701), with more of a "hands-on" orientation focused on scenarios in which troubleshooting and tools must be applied to resolve problems.
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Q. Which certification does it cover?


A. Passing the CompTIA A+ Practical Application (220-702) provides credit toward the CompTIA A+ certification.

Q. How many questions are asked in the exam?


A. You will be required to attempt 100 questions.

Q. What is the duration of the exam?


A. Users are required to attempt all questions within 90 minutes.

Q. What is the passing score?


A. You need a score of 700 for CompTIA A+ Practical Application on a scale of 100-900

Q. What is the exam retake policy?


A. There is no wait time fixed between the first and second attempts. However, a third or any subsequent attempt needs to be at least 30 calendar days apart from the previous test.

Q. Where can I get more practice questions?


A. Download uCertify PrepKit to have more Practice questions from the download link below: http://www.ucertify.com/exams/CompTIA/220-702.html

Q. Where can the test 220-702 be taken?


A. CompTIA exams can be registered and taken in Prometric and Pearson VUE testing centers.

Q. What is the exam fee?


A. The net price for taking test 220-702 is US$168. For complete price list of CompTIA certification, visit the following link: http://www.comptia.org/Libraries/Certification_Documents/Glo bal_Certification_Prices.sflb.ashx

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Test Taking Tips


Stay calm and relaxed. When you start the test, read the question and ALL its options carefully even if you think you know the answer. Be prepared for tricky questions! If you are taking an adaptive test, remember that you will not get a chance to change your answer once you move on, so be sure before you mark the answer. In a linear test, you will have a chance to change the answer before you hand in the exam. If you know the correct answer, attempt the question and move on. If you are not sure, mark your best guess and move on. If it is a linear test, you should also bookmark the question so that you can return to it later. Sometimes related questions help you get the right answers for the questions you were unsure of, so it is always a good idea to bookmark the question. If you are unsure of the correct answer, read all the options and eliminate the options that are obviously wrong. Then choose from the options left. Once you have finished answering all the questions, check the time left. If you have time, review the book marked questions. Never leave a question unanswered. All certification tests that we know are timed, and count unanswered questions as wrong. If you don't have time, take a blind guess.

Before the test


Be confident and relaxed. Sleep well the night before the exam.
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The Big Day


It is strongly recommended that you arrive at the testing center at least 15 minutes before the exam is scheduled. Dont forget to bring two pieces of identification with you, one of which must be a photo I.D., such as a valid driver's license. You will be required to show the identification when you sign in at the testing center. The center-incharge will explain the examination rules, after which you will be asked to sign a document that states that you fully understand and abide by the rules of the exam. Once you are signed in, you will be directed to the exam room. Carrying anything into the room is strictly prohibited. You will be given a few blank pieces of paper and a pen upon entering the room. Once you complete the exam, your score will be tabulated and you will know immediately if you have passed or failed the exam. If you failed, you can retake it as soon as you are ready, even the same day. It is a good idea to note down all the difficult topics you faced during the exam and revise this review guide or other training material before retaking the exam. If you fail the same exam a second time, you must wait at least 14 days before you will be allowed to reschedule. The testing center-in-charge is typically available to assist with administrative aspects of the testing.

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Section B Core Contents

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Chapter 1 - Hardware Overview


An A+ certification aspirant is required to have a good know-how of hardware functionality of computers, laptops, printers, and hardware troubleshooting tools. The candidate must be able to: Install, configure and maintain personal computer components Detect problems, troubleshoot and personal computer components repair/replace

Install, configure, detect problems, troubleshoot and repair/replace laptop components Select and use the following tools: Multimeter, Power supply tester, Specialty hardware / tools, Cable testers, Loop back plugs, Anti-static pad and wrist strap, Extension magnet Detect and resolve common printer issues.

Key Points
Given a scenario, install, configure and maintain personal computer components
The Serial ATA (SATA) computer bus is a storageinterface for connecting host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. SATA offers several compelling advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such as reduced cable-bulk and cost, faster and more efficient data transfer, full duplex, and hot swapping. It is designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices support hot plugging and hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for enhanced performance.
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SATA Drives do not have jumpers that require configuration. SATA power connector pins supplies 3.3V, 5V, and 12V to disk drives. Parallel ATA (PATA) is an interface standard for the connection of storage devices such as hard disks, solid-state drives, and CD-ROM drives in computers. PATA standard is the result of technical development in the field of AT Attachment (ATA) interface. PATA only allows cable lengths up to 18 in (460 mm) and because of this length limit, it is used as an internal computer storage interface. PATA is replaced by SATA. A solid-state drive (SSD) is a data storage device that uses solid-state memory to store persistent data. An SSD emulates a hard disk drive interface, thus easily replacing it in most applications. It is also known as solid-state hard disk drive. SSDs have no moving parts; hence, they are less fragile and silent than hard disks. As there are no mechanical delays, SSDs usually enjoy low access time and latency. An SSD using SRAM or DRAM (instead of flash memory) is often called a RAM-drive, which should not be confused with a RAM disk. SSD is not an optical storage device. A jumper is a short length of conductor used to close a break in or bypass part of an electrical circuit. Jumpers are typically used to set up or adjust printed circuit boards, such as the motherboards of computers. Jumper pins (points to be connected by the jumper) are arranged in groups called jumper blocks, each group having at least one pair of contact points and often more. When a jumper is placed over two or more jumper pins, an electrical connection is made between them, and the equipment is thus instructed to activate certain settings accordingly. Jumper blocks and jumpers are also often used on motherboards to clear the CMOS information, resetting the BIOS configuration settings.
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You can set the Master/Slave designations by setting a jumper on the hard disk drive. While mirroring a hard drive, the two drives must be identical. Formatting the drive is usually done during the installation of the operating system. This is true for both Windows and Linux. IDE and Extended IDE both have 40-pin connectors. An active partition is one that is read at start-up and is expected to contain the necessary system files to boot the computer. A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration, date, and time settings when a computer's main power is off. In case, you have forgotten your password and need to access the CMOS, you will have to short the CMOS jumper. This will clear the password settings and allow you to access the CMOS. Blu-ray Disc, also known as Blu-ray or BD, is an optical disc storage medium. It is designed to supersede the standard DVD format for storing highdefinition video, PlayStation 3 games, and other data, with up to 25 GB per single layered, and 50 GB per dual layered disc. Blu-ray Disc was developed by the Blu-ray Disc Association, a group representing makers of consumer electronics, computer hardware, and motion pictures. The disc has the same physical dimensions as standard DVDs and CDs. It is called Blu-ray Disc because of the blue-violet laser, which is used to read the disc. Blu-ray uses a shorter wavelength, a 405 nm blue-violet laser, and allows for almost six times more data storage than on a DVD. A single-layer disc of Blu-ray can hold 25GB of data.
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FireWire ports are found on high-end computers and many new media centers. They are also called IEEE 1394 ports. FireWire ports transfer data at a rate of 400 Mbps or 800 Mbps. They are used primarily for video transfer from digital movie cameras. FireWire ports (IEEE 1394) supports hot plugging. Firewire supports a maximum cable length of 4.5 meters (14.8 ft). Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed port standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. USB provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. Supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners, etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps and USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 1.1 supports a maximum cable length of 3 meters (9.8 ft), whereas USB 2.0 supports a maximum cable length of 5 meters (16 ft).USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480Mbps, whereas a firewire port can support a maximum data transfer rate of 800Mbps. Ports Max. Speed 12 Mbps 480 Mbps 400 Mbps Max. Cable Length 3 meters (9.8 ft) 5 meters (16 ft) 4.5 meters (14.8 ft) Max. Device Support 127 127 63

USB 1.1 USB 2.0 IEEE 1394

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IEEE 1394b

800 Mbps

4.5 meters (14.8 ft)

63

A multi-core processor is a processing system composed of two or more independent cores (or CPUs). A special attachment, called heat sink, is attached to the processor to vent out generated heat. The thermal compound fills the air gap between the microprocessor and the heat sink, and helps in reducing the temperature of the microprocessor. In order to aerate the CPU box, you will have to put a case fan.

Pop Quiz
Q1: Which storage device is not an example of an optical storage device? Ans: Solid State Drive Q2: A special attachment called _______ that is attached to the processor can be used to vent out generated heat. Ans: Heat sink Black color wires will be set adjacent to each other while connecting AT power supply to the motherboard. All power supplies generate Power Good signal. Power Good signal is 5 volts supplied over a wire in the connector that sends power from power supply to the motherboard. If this signal is not sent by the power supply, the computer will not boot. The power supply will turn off the Power Good signal if a power surge causes it to malfunction.

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Given a scenario, detect problems, troubleshoot and repair/replace personal computer components
Motherboard, also known as systemboard, is the main component in a computer on which a microprocessor, display adapters, and other adapters are installed. A multi-core processor is a processing system composed of two or more independent cores (or CPUs). To ensure that you are aligning the CPU correctly, look out for a notch in the corner or similar designation. The thermal compound fills the air gap between the microprocessor and the heat sink, and helps in reducing the temperature of the microprocessor. Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) socket holds the microprocessor on the motherboard. It contains a lever that opens and closes, securing the microprocessor in place. The Pentium 4 processor can be installed on the Socket 423 and Socket 478. Both sockets are old ZIF type sockets and look the same. The Pentium D processor can be installed on LGA 775, which is also known as Socket T. The Itanium 2 processor uses PAC 611 socket. Front side bus is an important factor while considering processing speed. In order to aerate the CPU box, you will have to put a case fan. A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration, date, and time settings when a computer's main power is off.

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In case, you have forgotten your password and need to access the CMOS, you will have to short the CMOS jumper. This will clear the password settings and allow you to access the CMOS. When Windows does not recognize the video card, it gives a set of simplified default settings for refresh rate, resolution, etc. To install a new video card on a computer having an integrated video card, check the BIOS for a setting to disable the integrated board and then install a new video card. You do not enable or disable sound in BIOS as there is no mechanism in BIOS to do so. IDE and Extended IDE both have 40-pin connectors. One of the most common problems with any IDE type drive, is the jumper settings. SATA power connector pins supply 3.3 volts, 5 volts, and 12 volts to a hard disk drive. Disk thrashing is a term for a hard disk drive that is constantly being accessed due to short of available system RAM. When a computer runs on low memory, the computer starts using hard disk drive space as virtual memory. All power supplies generate Power Good signal. Power Good signal is 5 volts supplied over a wire in the connector that sends power from power supply to the motherboard. If this signal is not sent by the power supply, the computer will not boot. The power supply will turn off the Power Good signal if a power surge causes it to malfunction. The motherboard is often discolored due to overheating. The prime cause of overheating is power surge.

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SFX power supplies can be used with microATX, FlexATX, ATX, Mini-ATX, or NLX motherboards. Black color wires will be set adjacent to each other while connecting AT power supply to the motherboard. An inadequate power supply will not cause fan noise. Firewire 800 (also known as IEEE 1394b) supports data transfer rates of 800Mbps. A USB host supplies power to the USB bus at 5 volts. USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480Mbps, whereas a firewire port can support a maximum data transfer rate of 800Mbps. The 6-pin Mini-DIN connector is also known as PS/2 port. By default, the PS/2 mouse uses IRQ 12 in AT based computers. This IRQ can also be used for other peripherals. RAID-0, also known as stripe set, stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. Stripe set does not provide fault tolerance, but offers better performance as compared to mirror set (RAID-1) and stripe set with parity (RAID-5). Stripe set uses a minimum of two and a maximum of thirty-two hard disk drives. RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault-tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. In mirroring, data is kept on two physical disks. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. If a disk fails, the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. A RAID-5 volume is a fault tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. If a disk in the RAID fails, you can recreate the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity.
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Pop Quiz
Q1: What is the maximum data transfer speed supported by USB 2.0? Ans: 480 Mbps Q2: The _______ in a laptop enables users to add USB ports, FireWire ports, SCSI adapters, network interface adapters, etc. Ans: PC Card slot While mirroring a hard drive, the two drives must be identical. When a member of a mirrored volume or a RAID5 volume fails, the failed disk becomes an orphan. Data for the orphaned member can be regenerated from the remaining members. A new area of free space of the same size, or larger than the other members of the RAID5 volume, should be selected in Disk Management and then the data should be regenerated. Formatting the drive is usually done during the installation of the operating system. This is true for both Windows and Linux. An active partition is one that is read at start-up and is expected to contain the necessary system files to boot the computer.

Given a scenario, install, configure, detect problems, troubleshoot and repair/replace laptop components
A single-layer disc of Blu-ray can hold 25GB of data. A multi-core processor is a processing system composed of two or more independent cores (or CPUs). When you change the CMOS batteries, you will lose all current BIOS settings. You must write these settings down so that you can re-enter them. It is very common for the BIOS update software to place an image on a floppy disk. If you then reboot
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with that disk in the drive, it will update the BIOS. If you remove all disks, this cannot happen. By default, the PS/2 mouse uses IRQ 12 in AT based computers. This IRQ can also be used for other peripherals. Disk thrashing is a term for a hard disk drive that is constantly being accessed due to short of available system RAM. When a computer runs on low memory, the computer starts using hard disk drive space as virtual memory. USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480Mbps, whereas a firewire port can support a maximum data transfer rate of 800Mbps. The desktop area of a mobile PC or a laptop, can be increased by connecting an external monitor and choosing the Extended option in the New Display Detected dialog box. Type III Personal Computer Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) card supports hard disk drives. A laptop uses Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) technology for its display system. Liquid crystal display (LCD) is a thin, flat panel used for electronically displaying information such as text, images, and moving pictures. It is an electronicallymodulated optical device made up of any number of pixels filled with liquid crystals and arrayed in front of a light source (backlight) or reflector to produce images in color or monochrome. It is lightweight and portable compared to Cathode-Ray Tube (CRT) technology. It consumes low electrical power, which enables it to be used in battery-powered electronic equipment. Its uses include monitors for computers, televisions, instrument panels, and other devices ranging from aircraft cockpit displays, to everyday consumer devices such as video players, gaming devices, clocks, watches, calculators, and telephones.
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The SO-DIMM memory package is used for DDR memory for laptops. Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SO-DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in 72 pins and 144 pins. The 72-pin SO-DIMM supports 32-bit transfers, and the 144-pin SO-DIMM supports 64-bit transfers. It was introduced for laptops. SO-DIMMs come in smaller packages, consume lesser power, but are more expensive than DIMMs. A laptop should not be operated on a soft surface like bed. It might block the ventilators. This will prevent the hot air from going out of the laptop. A laptop should always be operated on a hard surface. Li-Ion or Lithium Ion battery is the lightest but the most expensive battery used in laptops. AC power and batteries are used to power a laptop. Dskprobe is a steganography. tool that is used to detect

PCI and PCIe are PC expansion slot types, as are VESA, ISA, and AGP. Gently rubbing off the oxidation can correct RAM issue if you see that one is tarnished. If laptop screen is completely blank, your first step should be to plug in an external monitor and see if it works. This will fix that the video card is working, and the screen itself is a problem. Replace the keyboard of a laptop if you discover that someone has spilled Coke on it. Two separate processors allow each processor to be totally dedicated to a given task, such as running a database server. This is called processor affinity and improves performance dramatically.

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Laptops use 144-pin Micro Dual Inline Memory Modules (MicroDIMMs). A docking station is a specialized case into which an entire laptop can be inserted. This allows the laptop to connect to desktop I/O devices such as full-sized keyboards, CRT monitors, etc. Docking stations are highly proprietary items that are designed for use with specific computer models. Type II Personal Computer Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) card is mostly used for modem and network interface cards. Power for the most laptop's LCD screen backlight bulb is supplied by an inverter. The following will be the basic steps to troubleshoot a laptop's LCD screen displays issue: a. Checking if power is supplied to the laptop. b. Checking video signals by connecting an external monitor to the laptop.

Currently, 2.5 inch Parallel ATA HDD form factors are the most popular for laptops and other portable devices. Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SODIMM) and Micro Dual Inline Memory Module (MICRODIMM) come with 144 pins. Personal Computer Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) bus architecture is widely used in laptops. The most likely cause of blurred display on the LCD screen is that the LCD is not set with its native resolution. With LCDs, each pixel is a liquid crystal diode so the number of pixels is set. When an LCD runs on a resolution other than its native resolution setting, the display can be blurred.
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Draining of laptop's battery too quickly indicates that battery has been exhausted and requires to be replaced with a new one.

Given a scenario, select and use the following tools: Multimeter, Power supply tester, Specialty hardware / tools, Cable testers, Loop back plugs, Anti-static pad and wrist strap, Extension magnet
A multimeter is an electronic measuring instrument that combines several measurement functions in one unit. A typical multimeter may include features such as the ability to measure voltage, current, and resistance. It is also known as multitester and volt/ohm meter (VOM). It is a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument, which can measure to a very high degree of accuracy. Multimeters can be used to troubleshoot electrical problems in a wide array of industrial and household devices such as batteries, motor controls, appliances, power supplies, and wiring systems. Both analog and digital forms of multimeters are available in the market. An extension magnet, also known as extension magnet pickup, is a pen-like tool that fits nicely into pockets or toolkits. It is designed in such a manner that it can be extended up to two feet. It has a magnetic tip to pick up small metal objects that may have fallen into an unreachable area. A tone generator is used to test a length of wire for faults. This device comes with another device known as a tone locator. The tone generator is connected to one end of the cable, and the tone locator is connected to the other end. The tone generator generates a signal that is transmitted to the other end of the cable and received by the tone locater. If the tone locator receives the signal, it produces an audible sound or tone.
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A media tester, also called a media certifier, is an electronically programmed device that is used to perform a variety of tests on an installed cable. It tests for shorts, open circuits, transposed wire pairs, attenuation, and various types of crosstalk. A media tester compares the results with standards programmed into the unit, and displays the result in the form of pass or fail readouts for each test. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a highend fiber optic testing device, which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manufacturing faults on fiber optic cable connections. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively. It is an expensive device that costs around $30,000. Optical time domain reflectometer is used to test breakage in fiber optic cables. Anti-static pad is a pad to discharge static charge of a human body and electronic components. Static charge accumulates as a person walks and moves about. Once the static charge accumulates to the level of 3000 volts, the person receives a shock when he/she touches another object. This is painful to humans and very destructive to the object to which the charge is discharged. This object could be a telephone, computer, or any electronic component. Anti-static pad is used to save electronic equipment from this discharge. This pad is also very helpful for laying electronic components while assembling or deassembling a computer. An extension magnet, also known as extension magnet pickup, is a pen-like tool that fits nicely into pockets or toolkits. It is designed in such a manner that it can be extended up to two feet. It has a magnetic tip to pick up small metal objects that may have fallen into an unreachable area. As a precaution, you should always wear the wrist strap attached to the computer case while installing a video-card. Wrist strap provides protection against
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Electrostatic discharge (ESD) that can damage electronic components, such as, chips on the motherboard or adapters. The wrist strap maintains charge equalization between your body and the computer parts. A tone generator is used to test a length of wire for faults. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to detect breaks in network cables. Loopback plug is used to diagnose issues related to following ports: a. A serial port, also known as a COM port b. A parallel port, also known as LPT port c. Universal Serial Bus (USB) port Digital Volt Meters (DVM), Time Domain Reflectometers (TDRs), and Advanced Cable Testers are used to troubleshoot a network's physical media.

Given a scenario, detect and resolve common printer issues


Garbage printing shows that the computer configured with an incorrect print driver. is

When a print job is sent to a printer, the .SPL and .SHD files for that job are created and stored in the spool directory. The .SPL file is the actual spool file of the print job. The .SHD file is a shadow file containing information about the print job, the owner, and the priority of the job. Sometimes when a printer stops responding, the .SPL and .SHD files of the job being printed at that time may get corrupt. This causes the print job in the printer queue to stop responding. The following steps can resolve this problem: a. Stop the Spooler service.
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b. Delete the .SPL and .SHD files for the corrupted job from the spool directory. c. Restart the Spooler service. A fuser assembly, commonly called fuser, is a part of a laser printer. This assembly applies heat and pressure to bond the plastic powder to the paper. A fuser assembly contains two rollers: one roller is a hollow tube (heat roller) and the other is a rubber backing roller (pressure roller). A radiant heat lamp is suspended in the center of the hollow tube, and its infrared energy uniformly heats the roller from the inside. Some printers use a very thin flexible metal fuser roller; hence, there is less mass to be heated and the fuser can more quickly reach operating temperature. This both speeds printing from an idle state and permits the fuser to turn off more frequently to conserve power. A dirty fuser roller can be the cause of a series of black spots on the printed paper at regular intervals. The toner spreads over the paper when the fuser roller is not heated properly. Due to low heating of the roller, the toner does not melt. As a result, it does not stick to the paper. The less amount of memory on a printer can be a possible cause of slow printing of graphics. The printer needs more memory to store graphic information for printing. The DC power supply of a laser printer provides three different DC voltages 5V, -5V, and 24V for pin 1, pin 5, and pin 9, respectively. A scratch or groove on the EP drum of a laser printer prints vertical lines on the documents it prints. As the surface of the scratch or groove is lower than that of the drum, it does not receive as much of charge as the other areas of the drum. Due to this, the toner sticks to it and prints a continuous vertical line throughout the document.
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A faulty driver results in garbage printing while the printer prints a document. It cannot be the cause of paper jams. Printing a test page is the last step of the installation of network printing. The most likely cause of faded printout in a laser printer is low toner level. IP address or printer name and port name are the required information for configuring a TCP/IP printer.

Key Terms
SATA PATA SSD CMOS ZIF LCD TDR OTDR DVM Serial AT Attachment Parallel AT Attachment Solid-state drive Complementary Semiconductor Zero Insertion Force Liquid Crystal Display Time Domain Reflectometer Optical time domain reflectometer Digital Volt Meters Metal Oxide

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Test Your Knowledge


Q 1. You work as a technician in Media Perfect Inc. All client computers on the company's network run Windows XP Professional. You are adding a hard disk to a client computer. You need to add it as a Slave drive. How will you do this?
A. B. C. D. Through the CMOS settings Through a jumper setting on the motherboard Through a jumper setting on the hard disk drive Through Windows Control Panel

Q 2.

You are installing a Blu-ray Disc drive on a computer. How much data can you fit on a single-layer Blu-ray Disc?
A. B. C. D. 10GB 25GB 50GB 75GB

Q 3.

Your company has some old spare parts. You are trying to build a PC from those parts. You find a hard drive with a 40-pin connector and now you want the appropriate controller card for the connector. What type of controller card will you need?
A. B. C. D. SCSI PATA SATA IDE
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Q 4.

You work as a Network Administrator for Contosso Inc. The company has four Windows Server 2008 servers and fifty Windows XP client computers. A computer named GSERVER has one hard disk. The computer runs a custom application that writes a large number of small temporary files in a single directory to support requests from client computers. To improve the performance of the application, you add three new 100GB SCSI disks to the server to hold these temporary files. You are required to accomplish the following tasks:

Ensure that the application uses all 300GB of space with a single drive letter. Ensure the fastest possible performance when writing the temporary files. Configure these disks to be fault tolerant. you take to

Which of the following actions will accomplish the task?


A. B. C. D. Create a mirrored volume. Create a striped volume. Create a RAID-5 volume. Create a spanned volume.

Q 5.

You work as a technician for Dreams Unlimited Inc. A user complains that a laser printer is not printing documents properly. You find that the printed paper has a series of black spots at regular intervals. Which of the following steps will you take to resolve the issue?
A. B. Clean the fuser roller. Replace the EP drum.
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C. D.

Clean the spilt toner. Replace the faulty driver.

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Answer Explanation
A 1. Answer option C is correct. You can set the Master/Slave designations by setting a jumper on the hard disk drive. Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master, Slave, and Cable Select types of jumper settings. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. A jumper is a short length of conductor used to close a break in or bypass part of an electrical circuit. Jumpers are typically used to set up or adjust printed circuit boards, such as the motherboards of computers. Jumper pins (points to be connected by the jumper) are arranged in groups called jumper blocks, each group having at least one pair of contact points and often more. When a jumper is placed over two or more jumper pins, an electrical connection is made between them, and the equipment is thus instructed to activate certain settings accordingly. Jumper blocks and jumpers are also often used on motherboards to clear the CMOS information, resetting the BIOS configuration settings. If two drives are attached to one controller, one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master, or Slave, none of them will work. Answer option A is incorrect. Master/Slave settings are not a part of CMOS. Answer option B is incorrect. You cannot make a hard disk drive a Master or Slave through jumper settings on the motherboard. Answer option D is incorrect. Windows Control Panel has nothing to do with the configuration of a hard disk drive.

A 2.

Answer option B is correct.

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A single-layer disc of Blu-ray can hold 25GB of data. Blu-ray Disc format ensures that it is easily extendable, as it also includes support for multi-layer discs, which should allow the storage capacity to be increased to 100GB-200GB (25GB per layer) in the future simply by adding more layers to the discs.

A 3.

Answer option D is correct. IDE and Extended IDE both have 40-pin connectors. IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) or ATA (Advanced Technology Attachment) is a standard interfacing technology for the connection of storage devices like hard disk, and solid state devices. This standard is maintained by American National Standard Institute (ANSI). IDE is named so because the disk controller is integrated in the mother board of the computer. ATA/ATAPI (ATA Packet Interface) is an evolution of the AT Attachment Interface. It has two types, which are as follows: Parallel ATA (PATA) Parallel ATA standard is the result of technical development in the field of AT Attachment interface. It allows cable lengths up to 46 cm, therefore normally used as an internal computer storage interface. Serial ATA (SATA) The Serial ATA (SATA), computer bus is a storage-interface for connecting host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. Serial ATA was designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). It uses the same low level commands, but serial ATA host-adapters and devices communicate via a high-speed serial cable over two pairs of conductors. SATA provides numerous advantages over Parallel ATA interface, which are as follows : It is faster. It has more efficient data transfer rate.
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It reduces cable-bulk and cost etc.

Answer option A is incorrect. SCSIs have 50-pin connectors. Answer options B and C are incorrect. SATA and PATA both have connectors that do not have a visible pin configuration.

A 4.

Answer option C is correct. A RAID-5 volume is a fault tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. If a disk in the RAID fails, you can recreate the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity. RAID-5 volumes are a good solution for data redundancy in a computer environment in which most activities consist of reading data. RAID-5 volumes have better read-performance than mirrored volumes. Answer option A is incorrect. A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. Both the partitions must be of same size. Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume, striped volume (RAID0), or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). Answer option B is incorrect. Striped volume is a volume that stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. Striped volumes do not provide fault tolerance but offer the best performance as compared to the other volumes available in Windows 2000. Note: You can create striped volumes only on dynamic disks. Striped volumes cannot be mirrored or extended. Answer option D is incorrect. A spanned volume is a dynamic volume supported by the Windows XP Professional operating system. It combines free space from different hard disk drives installed on a computer. In a spanned volume, the amount of disk space used from each hard disk is not identical. It can
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contain disk space from two to thirty-two disks. When a user needs to extend a simple volume that is running low on disk space, he can create the spanned volume by including additional space from different hard disks. Spanned volumes are not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. If any of the disks containing the spanned volume fails, all data in the entire spanned volume is lost. A 5. Answer option A is correct. A dirty fuser roller can be the cause of a series of black spots on the printed paper at regular intervals. To resolve the issue, Mark will have to clean the fuser roller. A fuser assembly, commonly called fuser, is a part of a laser printer. This assembly applies heat and pressure to bond the plastic powder to the paper. A fuser assembly contains two rollers: one roller is a hollow tube (heat roller) and the other is a rubber backing roller (pressure roller). A radiant heat lamp is suspended in the center of the hollow tube, and its infrared energy uniformly heats the roller from the inside.

Some printers use a very thin flexible metal fuser roller; hence, there is less mass to be heated and the fuser can more quickly reach operating temperature. This both speeds printing from an idle state and permits the fuser to turn off more frequently to conserve power. Answer option B is incorrect. This problem is not because of EP drum. You need to replace EP drum in case there is a scratch in EP drum and a continuous vertical line is printing on printouts.

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Answer option C is incorrect. Split toner will not produce black spots at regular intervals. Rather, it will produce irregular patches on documents. Answer option D is incorrect. This is not case of faulty driver. A faulty driver will produce the garbage printing.

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Chapter 2 - Operating Systems Overview


Operating systems is an integral part of A+ certification. A candidate is required to have a good know-how of Windows operating systems. The candidate must be able to: Select the appropriate commands and options to troubleshoot and resolve problems. Differentiate between Windows Operating System directory structures (Windows 2000, XP and Vista). Select and use system utilities / tools and evaluate the results. Evaluate and resolve common issues. Such as Operational Problems, Auto-restart errors, Bluescreen error, System lock-up, Devices drivers failure etc.

Key Points
Select the appropriate commands and options to troubleshoot and resolve problems
The /? switch with any Windows command is used to get the brief description of the command usage and its switches. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly.

The -l switch is used with the ping command to specify the size of packets to be sent to the remote host. By default, the ping command sends 32-byte packets to verify the connectivity to the remote host.
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In order to send continuous echo requests to the remote host through ping, you will have to use the ping command with the -t switch. The -t switch forces the ping command to ping the specified host until stopped. Pressing the Ctrl+C key stops the command. System File Checker (Sfc.exe) is used to verify the integrity of Windows system files before delivering the computer to an end user. System File Checker is a command-line utility used to check the digital signatures of files.

System File Checker (SFC /SCANNOW) is a command-line tool that allows a user to detect and replace any of the missing protected system files, which can cause problems during the booting process or when the operating system components are opened on a computer. XCOPY is a command-line utility that copies files and directory trees. XCOPY is similar to the COPY command except that it has many more switches that allow considerable control over exactly what is copied when using wildcards.

The /v switch with the COPY command verifies that the file copied is written properly. The COPY command copies one or more file to another location. TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host.

The TRACERT utility tells how many hops (maximum 30) away the target device is. MSCONFIG is a command-line tool that opens the System Configuration Utility dialog box, which can be used to troubleshoot and resolve startup errors, resolve unwanted prompts by third party users, find and resolve problems with running services, and resolve the errors regarding boot paths configured on multi-boot computers.
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The MSCONFIG utility is also used to choose which program to run at startup. The CHKDSK command verifies the integrity of the hard disk installed on a computer IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration

The IPCONFIG /all command is used to view the full TCP/IP configuration for all the adapters. Without the [all] parameter, the IPCONFIG command can be used to view only such information as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, etc., of a networked computer.

In order to drop the incorrect DHCP configuration information, run the IPCONFIG /release command to release the existing IP address.

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Pop Quiz
Q1: Which utility tells how many hops (maximum 30) away the target device is? Ans: IPCONFIG Q2: Which command-switch is used to send continuous echo requests to the remote host through ping? Ans: -t

Differentiate between Windows Operating System directory structures (Windows 2000, XP and Vista)
Offline files are copies of network files on the local system. Users can work on these files even when they are not online. The Offline Files feature ensures that users are working with the most current version of the network files, and that the files will be synchronized with the network version of the files when users reconnect. If users have enabled offline files, they can navigate through shared folders and mapped network drives, regardless of whether or not they are connected to a network. Users can also browse network drives and shared folders in My Computer or My Network Places.

Windows operating systems support the Offline Files feature. Any shared file or folder on a Microsoft network can be made available offline. Users can make files available offline from any computer that supports Server Message Block-based (SMB) File and Printer Sharing. The Offline Files feature is not available on Novell NetWare networks.

There are three modes of caching files offline: a. No Caching: In this mode, no files are cached onto the client computers.
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b. Manual: This mode permits users to specify individual files to be available offline. c. Automatic: This mode is applied to the entire share. When a user uses any file in this share, it is made available to the user for offline access. Offline files allow administrators to configure the amount of disk space used to store offline files. However, this only affects the offline files that are stored automatically. It does not affect offline files that are stored manually. Windows XP stores offline files and information about the files in a database in the %SystemRoot%\CSC folder. By default, fonts are located %SystemRoot%\Windows\Fonts folder in Windows Vista. in

In order to enable a user to work on file offline, you should select the Notify me and begin working offline option from Control Panel > Folder Options > Offline Files tab > Advanced properties on his computer/laptop. This option specifies that a user can continue working offline, even if he/she loses his/her connection to the network. A user profile is created for each user when he/she logs on to a computer for the first time. The user profiles include all user-specific settings of a user's Windows environment, including program items, screen colors, network connections, printer connections, mouse settings, window size and position, and desktop preferences. In order to make shortcut available to all the user's desktop, you will have to create it for All Users profile.

All Users profile provides settings for all users.

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Pop Quiz
Q1: Which profile provides Windows environmental setting for all users? Ans: All Users profile Q2: In which folder does Windows XP store offline files and information about the files in a database? Ans: %/Systemroot%\CSC

Select and use system utilities / tools and evaluate the results
System Information is a Windows utility that collects and displays a computer's configuration information such as, devices installed or device drivers loaded. This utility is used for diagnosing and resolving computer problems by viewing reports generated by other files, such as WINREP. It does not create a log file.

The Disk Management tool is used to create partitions and format new disks. An extended partition is a container for logical partitions. These logical partitions are formatted and assigned drive letters. An extended partition cannot be formatted, nor can it be assigned a drive letter. It can be sub-divided into logical drives. Fragmentation is the phenomenon in which files break up and spread over multiple locations on the hard disk. Excessive fragmentation results in poor performance. The Disk Defragmenter tool reorganizes the files on the hard disk into contiguous blocks and improves the performance of the computer. Defragmentation is a part of preventive maintenance for storage devices. In Windows, the Disk Defragmenter tool is used for it.
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Disk Defragmenter is require to defrag the disk as a first step to improve the performance of a computer. Disk Defragmenter is a system tool used to consolidate the fragmented files stored on the hard disk of a computer. The fragmented files are those files that are saved or stored in different areas of the hard disk. The tool arranges such files and stores them on the hard disk in contiguous blocks. The operating system can access these files at a faster rate than the fragmented ones. When this utility is run on a computer, it first analyzes the hard disk and determines the portion of fragmented files, contiguous files, unmovable files, and the total space available on the computer's hard disk

In the analysis display of the Disk Defragmenter utility, the blue color represents the contiguous files in the disk. Device Manager is a tool that can be used to manage devices on a computer. Using Device Manager, users can view and change device properties, update device drivers, configure device settings, and uninstall devices. Device Manager is organized in a tree format with the top branches representing device categories. Users can use Device Manager to identify port resource conflicts. Device Manager can also be used to enable or disable a device.

Device Manager can be used to view and change the properties of devices in a windows computer In order to verify wether a device is functioning properly, you should use the Device Manager utility. The red X icon in Device Manager indicates that the device, over which the X is placed, is disabled. In Device Manager, the icon that has an exclamation mark in a yellow circle indicates that a device is installed and enabled but is not operating properly. Event Viewer is an administrative utility that displays the event logs of a computer.
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Event Viewer performs different types of grouping. The Critical option is used to view serious system-related issues that cause downtime or data loss. The NTBACKUP command runs the Backup utility of Windows XP Professional. Regional and Language Options in Control Panel changes the format used by Windows to display date, time, currency, and numbers. This option is also used to choose speech and handwriting recognition programs and input languages and text services, such as different keyboard layouts, Input Method Editors.

Regional And Language Options, located in Control Panel, is used to switch to different language than the current one for keyboard input. Performance Monitor is used to get statistical information about the hardware and software components of a server. Performance Monitor is used for the following: a. b. c. d. e. f. g. Monitor objects on multiple computers. Log data pertaining to objects on multiple computers, over time. Analyze the effects of changes made to a computer. Launch programs and thresholds are reached. send notifications when

Export data for analysis in spreadsheet or database applications. Save counter and object settings for repeated use. Create reports for use in analyzing performance, over time.

Note: The Log view of the Performance Monitor is able to track events historically for later review. The Alert, View, and Chart
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views are real time views that show the current data or alert messages. The Performance Logs and Alerts utility is used to create reports, which can then be viewed in the System Monitor utility. Task Manager is a utility that is used for managing applications, processes, and the general system performance and also for viewing the networking and user statistics. The Task Manager utility is used to run or end programs or applications. Administrators use this tool to quickly identify and terminate a rogue application.

The Task Manager utility can be used to quickly identify and terminate the application that is causing the slow down. CHKDSK is a command-line tool used to scan and repair volumes on the hard disk for physical problems such as bad blocks. It also repairs volumes for logical structure errors such as lost clusters, cross-linked files, or directory errors. The CHKDSK command verifies the integrity of the hard disk installed on a computer. CHKDSK /f fixes all the errors on the hard disk of a computer. Remote Assistance is a Windows feature to enable support personnel (helper) to provide technical support to a remote user (host). Through Remote Assistance a helper can view Windows session of a host on his computer itself.

Remote Assistance works as follows: a. A remote user sends an invitation to an Administrator (or expert) through e-mail or Windows Messenger. b. The Administrator accepts the request and can then view the user's desktop.
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To maintain privacy and security, all communication is encrypted. Remote Assistance can be used only with the permission of the person who requires the assistance. Note: If the user has enabled the Allow this computer to be controlled remotely option in the Remote control section of the Remote Assistance Settings dialog box, an expert can even take control of the keyboard and mouse of a remote computer to guide the user. Remote Desktop is a Windows XP feature that allows users to remotely access their Windows XP Professional desktops, applications, data, and network resources. If a user remotely wants to access the desktop of another computer, Remote Desktop must be configured on it. A user must be either an administrator or a member of the Remote Users group to remotely connect to a desktop, but only an administrator can locally access his computer when another user is remotely accessing the same computer. The members of the Remote Users group do not have this privilege.

System Restore is a recovery component of Windows XP Professional. It is used to restore a Windows XP Professional computer to a previous state without losing any personal data files. System Restore automatically creates restore points while monitoring changes made to the computer and application files. These restore points are used to revert the system to a previous state. Note: Restore points are created daily and at the time of major system events such as the installation of an application or driver. Restore points can be created and named manually at any time.

Task Scheduler is a graphical tool used to run scripts or programs according to their schedule. Following tasks can be performed with the Task Scheduler: a. Schedule a task to run daily, weekly, monthly, or at specific times.
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b. Change the schedule for a task. c. Stop a scheduled task. d. Customize how a task runs at a scheduled time.

Pop Quiz
Q1: Which application can be used to test performance bottlenecks in Windows? Ans: Performance Monitor Q2: Which of the following utilities will you use to find the process that is consuming most of the processor time? Ans: Task Manager

Evaluate and resolve common issues


Startup Repair is a part of System Recovery Options in Windows Vista. It is used to restore missing files, and repair basic disk error that stop Windows Vista from booting properly. No user intervention is required after starting this option. This option cannot be used to fix hardware failures. It does not help if the computer is infected with virus. NTLDR (abbreviation of NT Loader) is the boot loader for all releases of Microsoft's Windows NT operating system up to and including Windows XP and Windows Server 2003. NTLDR is typically run from the primary hard disk drive, but it can also run from portable storage devices such as a CD-ROM, USB flash drive, or floppy disk. NTLDR can also load a non NT-based operating system given the appropriate boot sector in a file. Corrupted RAM cannot be a reason for missing 'NTLDR, press any key to restart' message.

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If computers are using the exact same version of Windows, you can copy the NTLDR and Ntdetect.com files from any working computer and fix the problem of a corrupt NTLDR in a computer. During the boot process of a Windows XP computer, NTLDR switches the system from real mode to protected mode and enables paging. If the hard disk or the portion on which the operating system is installed is corrupt, an NTFS_FILE_SYSTEM error will be generated. Device drivers are programs used by hardware devices, attached to a computer, to communicate with the operating system. The operating system can communicate with the connected hardware devices only after installing their appropriate drivers. Device drivers load automatically when a computer is started. Sometimes a patch may cause problems for an existing device driver. Usually, you uninstall and then reinstall the driver. This way the driver is installed after the patch. The "Invalid Boot.ini" error message indicates a problem with the boot sequence in Windows. The Recovery console was made for rectifying the issue. Use the MSCONFIG utility to place an application in the startup. Recovery Console is a command-line console that enables administrators to repair a computer. From Recovery Console, administrators can start and stop services, read and write data on a local drive, repair the master boot record (MBR), format drives, and perform other administrative tasks. You should remove all extraneous programs from startup to enhance the performance of a computer. Windows indexing is specifically designed to improve search time.
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Adjust the Virtual Memory to the Maximum if the minimum amount of memory to run the programs is required, but system utilization is quite high. Unfortunately, the 32-bit version of Windows Vista has trouble handling more than 3 gigabytes of memory. This is not a problem for the 64-bit version. The compatibility mode option of Windows Vista 64 bit will allow you to run individual programs as 32 bit. Windows Vista allows you to customize any color in the Aero scheme you want. So you can get an exact match. Windows Aero, an acronym for Authentic, Energetic, Reflective, and Open, is the graphical user interface for Windows. It is a high-performance user interface that gives a computer a new look and feel. It offers a premium user experience that makes it easier to visualize and work with. It provides a smoother, more stable desktop experience. For running Aero, a computer requires a DirectX 9 compatible graphics processor with a Windows Display Driver Model (WDDM) driver, Pixel Shader 2.0 in hardware, and a minimum of 128MB of video RAM. The translucent effect of Aero Glass is a noticeable new element of the Aero experience. Other new Aero features are Windows Flip and Windows Flip 3D. There is a smoother window performance when using Windows Aero. The open windows glide smoothly on screen when they are moved or resized. There are no redraw artifacts, latency, or "tearing" effects. When the UAC (User Account Control) is enabled, the user is prompted every time when anything is to be installed. UAC is disabled either via editing the registry directly (not recommended) or by using the MSCONFIG utility. Windows Defender is a built-in anti-spyware program that Microsoft includes with Windows Vista.
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Windows Vista includes the Parental Controls feature, which allows parents to restrict access based on content and time. Windows includes a number of accessibility options to assist users with disabilities. The magnifier option magnifies things on the screen so that they can be more easily seen. Microsoft Accessibility options provide an onboard keyboard that allows a person to type by clicking with the mouse. Windows Backup can be scheduled to occur at regular intervals. And it can back up the data to any media you wish, including a CD. Windows File Encryption can help provide security to important files. To use this feature in Windows 2000, right-click on any file, go to 'properties', and select 'advanced'. The file gets encrypted. It is encrypted with a key generated from the user account. Now, only this user can unlock and view the file. You can back up the file encryption key so that you can later access the files, even on a different PC. Windows firewall blocking programs is a common problem. A user simply has to go to the firewall control panel and enable that application as an exception for the required authentic applications. Adjusting the contrast settings appropriately can drastically reduce eyestrain. Event Viewer is an administrative utility that displays the event log of a computer. The following logs can be viewed using the Event Viewer tool in Windows 2000/XP computers: i. System log ii. Security log
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iii. Application log Registry is the central storage for all configuration data. It stores Windows operating system configuration, the computer hardware configuration, configuration information about Win32-based applications, and user preferences in a hierarchical database file. Windows registry file can be updated by importing the .reg file through Registry Editor (REGEDIT) and by double-clicking the .reg file. The .reg extension is associated with REGEDIT, and the .reg file is imported automatically when the file is double-clicked. Bluescreen error, sometimes called Blue Screen of Death (BSOD), is the condition that occurs when a Windows computer fails to boot properly or quits unexpectedly. Microsoft refers these blue screens as "Stop errors". There are several causes of the blue screen popping up. It can be due to a poorly written device driver, bad memory, damaged registry, or usage of incompatible versions of DLLs. In Windows NT, Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Server 2003, and Windows Vista, a blue screen of death occurs when the kernel or a driver running in kernel mode encounters an error from which it cannot recover. This is usually caused by an illegal operation being performed. The only safe action to overcome such situations is to restart the computer. Spooling is a process on a server in which the contents of print jobs are written to a file on a hard disk until a printer is ready to process those jobs. This file is called the spool file. The spool file prevents loss of data in the event of power loss during printing, ensuring that the print job is able to resume after power is restored. A spooler accepts each document from each client, stores it, and then sends it to a printer when the printer is ready. The print spooler is a Windows service that sends print jobs to any printer (local or network). If it has stopped, you have to go to the services console and restart it.
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Pop Quiz
Q1: ________ provide an onboard keyboard that allows a person to type by clicking with the mouse. Ans: Microsoft Accessibility options Q2: If the hard disk or the portion on which the operating system is installed is corrupt, an ____ error will be generated.. Ans: NTFS_FILE_SYSTEM

Key Terms
FAT FQDN MBR NTFS SFC UAC File Allocation Table Fully Qualified Domain Name Master Boot Record New Technology File System Sytem File Checker User Account Control

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Test Your Knowledge


Q 1. You work as a technician for Net Perfect Inc. You are troubleshooting a connectivity issue on a network. You are using the ping command to verify the connectivity between two hosts. You want ping to send larger sized packets than the usual 32-byte ones. Which of the following commands will you use?
A. B. C. D. ping -l ping -a ping -t ping -4

Q 2.

You handle tech support for a large office building. One of the employees complains that he cannot print. When you check it out, you find the print spooler has stopped. What should you do?
A. B. C. D. Go to the services management console and start the print spooler. Reinstall the printer drivers. Go to the printers console and start the print spooler. Reinstall the print spooler.

Q 3.

You are working at a retail computer store. A customer comes in complaining that he bought a new PC with Windows Vista, but that when he got home, it did not have the exact same color scheme as the display model in the store. It was a close match, but not exactly. What can you do to get an exact match?
A. Nothing, it is probably due to him having a different monitor.
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B.

Under desktop properties, Windows appearance, you will find 'show color mixer' that allows you to mix colors that you wish for your Aero theme. Most people use the standard themes. To get an exact color match, you will have to use 'regedit' to edit the registry and put in the hexadecimal value for the color you want. Nothing, it is probably a video card issue.

C.

D.

Q 4.

Your office has just moved from Windows XP to Windows Vista. Users immediately complain about being constantly prompted, and they want that to cease. How would you accomplish this?
A. B. C. You cannot because it is a part of Windows Vista security. Go to each user account and disable User Account Controls for that user. Create a group that has User Account Controls disabled, and make all the users members of that group. Use MSCONFIG, and disable UAC.

D.

Q 5.

You have just upgraded a customer's PC. The customer was using 32-bit Windows XP and you have upgraded it to 32-bit Windows Vista. However, the customer's computer is now only recognizing 3 of the 4 gigabytes of memory in the PC. What is the problem?
A. B. C. You have to go into the admin screen and set the memory. You have to go into the BIOS and set the memory. Windows Vista 32-bit has trouble with more than 3 gigabytes of memory.

D.

It is due to a corrupt installation.


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Answer Explanation
A 1. Answer option A is correct. The -l switch is used with the ping command to specify the size of packets to be sent to the remote host. By default, the ping command sends four 32-byte packets to the remote host. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer option B is incorrect. The -a switch with the ping command resolves IP addresses to host names. Answer option C is incorrect. The -t switch pings the specified host until stopped. Answer option D is incorrect. The ping -4 command forces using IPv4.

A 2. Answer option A is correct. The print spooler is a Windows service that sends print jobs to any printer (local or network). If it has stopped, you have to go to the services console and restart it. Answer option B is incorrect. This is not an issue with the individual printer drivers; this is about the Windows print spooler service. Answer option C is incorrect. The printers console is not where you look to start the print spooler service. Answer option D is incorrect. The print spooler is a part of the Windows operating system, not a driver or application you install separately.

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A 3. Answer option B is correct. Windows Vista allows you to customize any color in the Aero scheme you want. So you can get an exact match. Windows Aero, an acronym for Authentic, Energetic, Reflective, and Open, is the graphical user interface for Windows. It is a high-performance user interface that gives a computer a new look and feel. It offers a premium user experience that makes it easier to visualize and work with. It provides a smoother, more stable desktop experience. For running Aero, a computer requires a DirectX 9 compatible graphics processor with a Windows Display Driver Model (WDDM) driver, Pixel Shader 2.0 in hardware, and a minimum of 128MB of video RAM. The translucent effect of Aero Glass is a noticeable new element of the Aero experience. Other new Aero features are Windows Flip and Windows Flip 3D. There is a smoother window performance when using Windows Aero. The open windows glide smoothly on screen when they are moved or resized. There are no redraw artifacts, latency, or "tearing" effects. Answer options A and D are incorrect. This is not a video card or monitor issue; this is a Windows Vista color issue. Answer option C is incorrect. Using the registry to set theme colors is both unnecessary and potentially dangerous. You should usually not go into the registry unless absolutely necessary.

A 4. Answer option D is correct. UAC is disabled either via editing the registry directly (not recommended) or by using the MSCONFIG utility. User Account Control (UAC) is a feature in Windows that helps prevent unauthorized changes to a user's computer. UAC asks the user for permission or an administrator password before performing actions that could potentially affect a computer's operation or that change settings that affect other users.
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Answer option A is incorrect. Yes, UAC is a part of Vista security, but can be easily turned off. Answer options B and C are incorrect. This is not a setting for a group or user. It is a per machine setting done with either the registry or MSCONFIG.

A 5. Answer option C is correct. Unfortunately, the 32-bit version of Windows Vista has trouble handling more than 3 gigabytes of memory. This is not a problem for the 64-bit version. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no mechanism inside of Windows to 'set' the memory. You can set virtual memory, but not actual memory. Answer option B is incorrect. The BIOS will detect memory but not allow you to set it. Answer option D is incorrect. This is not related to the installation process and is not a symptom of a corrupt installation.

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Chapter 3 - Networking Overview


A network is a group of interconnected computers and devices. They are connected to one another either with wires or wirelessly in order to share information and resources, such as printers, scanners, etc. A network allows users to use same resources on more than one computer. An A+ aspiring candidate must be able to: Troubleshoot client-side connectivity issues using appropriate tools. Install and configure a small office home office (SOHO) network.

Key Points
Troubleshoot client-side connectivity issues using appropriate tools
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) is a suite of standard protocols that govern how data passes between networks. It can be used to provide communication between the basic operating systems, on local and wide-area networks (WANs). It is considered the primary protocol of the Internet and the World Wide Web. Subnet mask is a value used to distinguish the network ID portion of the IP address from the host ID. If the IP address of a client computer is in the range of 169.254.y.z; it indicates that the computer is assigned an IP address provided by the APIPA feature. It means that the computer is not receiving the IP address from the DHCP server. To get a new DHCP lease from the DHCP server, you will have to run the IPCONFIG /renew command.
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Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers, so that they can communicate with other network services. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. A DHCP server configures DHCPenabled client computers on the network. It runs on servers only. It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service. Modem, dial-up adapter, and TCP/IP protocol is required to connect to the Internet using a PSTN line. DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings, IP address-to-host name mappings, information about the domain tree structure, etc. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Domain Name System (DNS) is a hierarchical naming system used for locating domain names on private TCP/IP networks and the Internet. It provides a service for mapping DNS domain names to IP addresses and vice versa. DNS enables users to use friendly names to locate computers and other resources on an IP network. TCP/IP uses IP addresses to locate and connect to hosts, but for users, it is easier to use names instead of IP address to locate or connect to a site. For example, users will be more comfortable in using the host name www.uCertify.com rather than using its IP address 66.111.64.227.

The HOSTS file and the DNS service are used to resolve host names to IP addresses. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat
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command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other server-related problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default. TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol used for sending e-mail messages between servers. It is mostly used to send messages from a mail client such as Microsoft Outlook to a mail server. Most of the
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e-mail systems that send mails over the Internet use SMTP to send messages from one server to another. Due to its limitations in queuing messages at the receiving end, it is generally used with either the POP3 or IMAP protocol, which enables a user to save and download messages from the server. The SMTP and POP3 protocols are used to transfer emails between the servers and the client computers in a TCP/IP network. Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) is a protocol used to retrieve e-mails from a mail server. It is designed to work with other applications that provide the ability to send e-mails. POP3 is mostly supported by the commercially available mail servers. It does not support retrieval of encrypted e-mails. POP3 uses port 110. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a primary protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which is used to transfer text and binary files between a host computer and a server computer over the Internet. In order to telnet a switch on remote segment, default gateway is required to be configured on both telnet client and the switch. In networking terms, a proxy server is a computer that acts on behalf of several client PCs requesting content from the Internet or intranet. It acts as a security barrier or firewall between the local network and the Internet, so that external users on the Internet cannot access the internal network. A proxy server provides security by restricting inbound as well as outbound connections. A firewall is a tool to provide security to a network. It is used to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal network and the Internet. Users can configure a
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firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP addresses and ports.

Pop Quiz
Q1: Which command-line utility displays the current TCP/IP configuration? Ans: IPCONFIG Q2: _____ is a value used to distinguish the network ID portion of the IP address from the host ID. Ans: Subnet mask

Install and configure a small office home office (SOHO) network


Small office/home office (SOHO) refers to the category of business, which can be from 1 to 10 workers. SOHO can also stand for small or home office or single office/home office. The small office home office has gone through a great transformation recently since technology has enabled anyone working from a home office to compete globally. The Virtual Office concept has been expanded to enable anyone to do globally what they could do locally before. With a global reach through the use of technology, the SOHO now has a better chance of emerging as a greater challenge in the world marketplace. The 802.11b standard operates in 2.4GHz band and brings data rates up to 11Mbps. In order to know the speed of a wireless network connection and the signal strength of a connection on a client computer, you will have to double-click the wireless networking icon on the taskbar.

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Service Set Identifier (SSID) is a configurable client identification that allows client computers to communicate with a particular base station. SSID stands for Service Set Identifier. It is used to identify a wireless network. SSIDs are case sensitive text strings and have a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have the same SSID in order to communicate with each other. SSIDs can be a maximum of 32 characters long and are case sensitive. For securing a wireless LAN, take the following steps: a. Set the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Shared Key. b. Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all the wireless access points. c. On each client computer, add the SSID for the wireless LAN as the preferred network.

For better security, you should not broadcast your SSID. By disabling the broadcast of SSID, some simple war driving tools won't detect your wireless network. It is very simple to change the SSID of a router. You should simply find the current name and type in a new one. Disabling SSID broadcast will free up bandwidth in a WLAN environment. Rogue AP is an access point (AP) set up by an attacker by using the same SSID and security key of AP of the Enterprise. WPA2 is currently the most encryption protocol available. secure 802.11 compliant

The IEEE 802.11n standard offers data rates from 54mbps to a maximum of 600mbps. The current state of the art supports a physical rate of 450mbps, with the use of 3 spatial streams at
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a channel width of 40 MHz. Depending on the environment, this may translate into a user throughput of 110mbps. 802.11n has a maximum range of 300 feet. MAC address filtering is a security method that enables a device to allow only certain MAC addresses to access the network. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. Move the router to a central location in the house so that the router may catch signals from all corners. You should run the firmware upgrade from the routers administration console, not from the PC. Most routers used in homes have a built-in firewall. Port forwarding allows all the traffic on a given port to be forwarded to a specific internal IP address. Port 80 is used for HTTP/Web traffic. Port triggering allows an internal computer to make an external connection. The returning communications are then automatically routed to that internal PC. Symmetric DSL and High Bit Rate DSL both have upload and download speed of 1.5 mbps. Cellular Internet allows very high mobility with moderate speed. The maximum length for Unshielded Twisted Pair cable is 100 meters (328 feet). 255.255.255.255 is the broadcast address. When the SSID broadcast is disabled, neighbors cannot detect the wireless network. New laptops use WPA protocols; old ones uses the WEP encryption protocol.
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While Satellite is expensive, it is sometimes the only option for very remote areas. One purpose of Network Address Translation (NAT) is to hide internal IP addresses, only exposing the router's IP address to the outside world. Category 6 cable gets speeds of up to 1000mbps (1 gigabit). The maximum cable segment length supported by a 10BaseT network is 100 meters. 100BaseTX cabling can have a maximum segment length of 100 meters. Bluetooth is a standard for very low powered and short-range radio connections. It is used to link personal access devices (PDA), mobile phones and laptops, and provides them with Internet access via hot spots. To connect a client to a secured WLAN, you are required to provide SSID and WEP key.

Pop Quiz
Q1: Which service translates private network addresses into public ones? Ans: NAT Q2: ____ is an access point (AP) set up by an attacker by using the same SSID and security key of AP of the Enterprise. Ans: Rogue AP

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Windows Firewall released as part of Microsoft Windows XP Service Pack 2. To increase the WLAN coverage area, omnidirectional antennas are used. Bluetooth uses the 2.4 Ghz spectrum with a data rate of about 1 Mbps.

Key Terms
AP NAT PDA SOHO SSID WEP WLAN WPA Access Point Network Address Translation Personal access device Small office/home office Service Set Identifier Wired Equivalent Privacy Wireless LAN Wi-Fi Protected Access

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Test Your Knowledge


Q1. You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 Active Directory-based network. All the client computers on the network run Windows 2000 Professional. You have installed DHCP on the network to automatically assign IP addresses to the client computers. You install a new computer for a new user, Maria. She complains that she is unable to access the network resources. No other user is facing this problem. You run the IPCONFIG command on her computer and receive the following IP configuration information: IP address Subnet Mask Default Gateway 169.254.75.182 255.255.0.0 Not configured

You want to obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server on the network. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. B. C. D. NBTSTAT /rr NETSTAT /e IPCONFIG /release IPCONFIG /renew

Q2.

You configure a wireless router at your home. To secure your home Wireless LAN (WLAN), you implement WEP. Now you want to connect your client computer to the WLAN. Which of the following is the required
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information that you will need to configure the client computer?


Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. B. C. D. SSID of the WLAN MAC address of the router WEP key IP address of the router

Q3.

You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based routed network. The network is configured as shown in the image below.

An administrator named Rick wants to configure telnet to Switch-1 from Client1. Which of the following are required to enable Rick to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. B. C. Connect Switch-1 and Client1 through rollover cable. Connect Switch-1 and Client1 through straightthrough cable. Configure 192.168.1.100 as a default gateway address at Switch-1.
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D. E. F.

Configure 192.168.2.100 as a default gateway address at Switch-1. Configure 192.168.1.100 as a default gateway address at Client1. Configure 192.168.2.100 as a default gateway address at Client1.

Q4.

Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008 domain-based network. The network has a file server that runs on Windows Server 2008. His assistant wants to know about the wireless local area network (WLAN) SSID. Which of the following statements are true about WLAN SSID?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. B. C. D. E. It is the name of a wireless local area network (WLAN). It has a maximum length of 24 characters. It is a sequence of alphanumeric characters. It has a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have different SSIDs.

Q5.

You are setting up small offices for a major insurance carrier. The company policy states that all wireless configurations must fully implement the 802.11i standard. Based on this requirement, which encryption algorithm should you implement?
A. B. C. D. WPA2 WPA WEP PKI
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Answer Explanation
A 1. Answer option D is correct. The IP address of the new computer is in the range of 169.254.y.z. This indicates that the computer is assigned an IP address provided by the APIPA feature of Windows 2000. It means that the computer is not receiving the IP address from the DHCP server. To get a new DHCP lease from the DHCP server, you will have to run the IPCONFIG /renew command. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility used to display current TCP/IP network configuration values and update or release the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allocated leases. It is also used to display, register, or flush Domain Name System (DNS) names. Answer option A is incorrect. The /rr switch of the NBTSTAT command is used to re-register the names of WINS clients in a WINS database. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections, update the NetBIOS name cache, and determine the registered names and scope IDs. Answer option B is incorrect. The /e switch of the NETSTAT command displays interface statistics. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer option C is incorrect. The IPCONFIG /release command is used to release the existing IP address.

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A 2.

Answer options A and C are correct. In order to connect a client computer to a secured Wireless LAN (WLAN), you are required to provide the following information: SSID of the WLAN WEP key

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a security protocol for wireless local area networks (WLANs). It has two components, authentication and encryption. It provides security, which is equivalent to wired networks, for wireless networks. WEP encrypts data on a wireless network by using a fixed secret key. WEP incorporates a checksum in each frame to provide protection against the attacks that attempt to reveal the key stream. SSID stands for Service Set Identifier. It is used to identify a wireless network. SSIDs are case sensitive text strings and have a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have the same SSID in order to communicate with each other. The SSID on computers and the devices in WLAN can be set manually and automatically. Configuring the same SSID as that of the other Wireless Access Points (WAPs) of other networks will create a conflict. A network administrator often uses a public SSID that is set on the access point. The access point broadcasts SSID to all wireless devices within its range. Some newer wireless access points have the ability to disable the automatic SSID broadcast feature in order to improve network security.

A 3.

Answer options D and E are correct. As the network is a routed network and Client1 and Switch-1 are on different segment, the default gateway address is required to be set on both Switch-1 and Client1. Telnet uses the IP network to send and receive the data.

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TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Answer options A and B are incorrect. Telnet does not use a specialized cable and physical port on the switch to send and receive data; rather it uses the IP network for this purpose. Answer options C and F are incorrect. The default gateway addresses for Client1 and Switch-1 will be the addresses of the router interface that connects to the segment in which they are located.

A 4.

Answer options A, C, and D are correct.

SSID stands for Service Set Identifier. It is used to identify a wireless network. SSIDs are case sensitive text strings and have a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have the same SSID in order to communicate with each other. The SSID on computers and the devices in WLAN can be set manually and automatically. Configuring the same SSID as that of the other Wireless Access Points (WAPs) of other networks will create a conflict. A network administrator often uses a public SSID that is set on the access point. The access point broadcasts SSID to all wireless devices within its range. Some newer wireless access points have the ability to disable the automatic SSID broadcast feature in order to improve network security.

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A 5.

Answer option A is correct. WPA2 is, to date, the most 802.11 compliant encryption protocol available. WPA2 is an updated version of WPA. This standard is also known as IEEE 802.11i. WPA2 offers enhanced protection to wireless networks than WPA and WEP standards. It is also available as WPA2-PSK and WPA2-EAP for home and enterprise environment respectively. Answer option B is incorrect. WPA is an improvement over WEP, but unlike WPA2, it does not implement certain key elements of 802.11i such as Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code. Answer option C is incorrect. WEP does not implement many aspects of the 802.11i standards. Answer option D is incorrect. PKI is a method for exchanging encryption keys, not for encrypting data.

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Chapter 4 - Security Overview


Security is an integral part of the CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220702. For an A+ certification aspiring candidate, a basic knowledge of securing computers is required. He must also be aware of various security threats on a client computer. An A+ aspiring candidate must be able to: Prevent, troubleshoot, and remove viruses and malware Implement security and troubleshoot common issues.

Key Points
Prevent, troubleshoot and remove viruses and malware.
A computer virus is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the permission or knowledge of the owner. Viruses can increase their chances of spreading to other computers by infecting files on a network file system or a file system that is accessed by another computer. Viruses can be divided into two types based on their behavior when they are executed. Nonresident viruses immediately search for other hosts that can be infected, infect those targets, and finally transfer control to the application program they infected. Resident viruses do not search for hosts when they are started. Instead, a resident virus loads itself into memory on execution and transfers control to the host program. The virus stays active in the background and infects new hosts when those files are accessed by other programs or the operating system itself. A virus can infect boot sector, networking files, and system files. Anti-virus applications/programs are used for disinfection.
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A stealth virus is a file virus. It infects the computer and then hides itself from detection by antivirus software. It uses various mechanisms to avoid detection by antivirus software. It hides itself in computer memory after infecting the computer. It also masks itself from applications or utilities. It uses various tricks to appear that the computer has not lost any memory and the file size has not been changed. The virus may save a copy of original and uninfected data. When the anti-virus program tries to check the files that have been affected, the virus shows only the uninfected data. This virus generally infects .COM and .EXE files. Trojan horse is a malicious software program code that masquerades itself as a normal program. When a Trojan horse program is run, its hidden code runs to destroy or scramble data on the hard disk. An example of a Trojan horse is a program that masquerades as a computer logon to retrieve user names and password information. The developer of a Trojan horse can use this information later to gain unauthorized access to computers. Trojan horses are normally spread by email attachments. Unlike viruses, Trojan horses do not replicate themselves but only destroy information on hard disks. Polymorphic virus has the ability to change its own signature at the time of infection. This virus is very complicated and hard to detect. When the user runs the infected file in the disk, it loads virus into the RAM. The new virus starts making its own copies and infects other files of the operating system. The mutation engine of polymorphic virus generates a new encrypted code, this changes the signature of the virus. Therefore, polymorphic viruses cannot be detected by the signature based antivirus. Virus encyclopedias encapsulate complete information related to known viruses. These encyclopedias are very helpful in getting cleaning instructions and other related information. If an administrator has found a virus, he/she should consult these encyclopedias for
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the product, as vendors sometimes give the same name to different versions of a virus. Antivirus (or anti-virus) software is used to prevent, detect, and remove malware, including computer viruses, worms, and trojan horses. Such programs may also prevent and remove adware, spyware, and other forms of malware. Traditional antivirus software solutions run virus scanners on schedule, on demand and some run scans in real time. If a virus or malware is located, the suspect file is usually placed into a quarantine to terminate its chances of disrupting the system. Traditional antivirus solutions scan and compare against a publicized and regularly updated dictionary of malware otherwise known as a blacklist. Some antivirus solutions have additional options that employ a heuristic engine, which further examines the file to see if it is behaving in a similar manner to previous examples of malware. A new technology utilized by a few antivirus solutions is whitelisting; this technology first checks if the file is trusted and only questions those that are not. With the addition of wisdom of crowds, antivirus solutions backup other antivirus techniques by harnessing the intelligence and advice of a community of trusted users to protect each other. Regularly updating antivirus is a good countermeasure against virus attacks. Worms replicate themselves while Trojan horses do not. A sudden deterioration of performance is a symptom of virus infection. To minimize potential virus attacks, a virus protection program should be installed on each workstation on a network. Updating the anti-virus software regularly is the best way of protecting important data against virus attack.

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Definition is an anti-virus software file that should be updated at regular intervals to protect a computer from new viruses. This file is also known as virus definition file. Application virtualization protects the operating system and other applications from poorly written or buggy code by isolating applications from the operating system. A computer technician will have to do the following to protect the client computers from malware:

i. Educate users of client computers about the


problems arising due to malware. malware.

ii. Educate users of client computers to avoid

Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers, such as mouse, keyboard, etc. It bypasses blocking issues, such as system corruption, or installation of incompatible drivers or system services, enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues.

Pop Quiz
Q1: A ______ virus is a script that attaches itself to a file or template. Ans: Macro Q2: ____ an operating system ensures security againsts attacks and intruders. Ans: Hardening

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Implement security and troubleshoot common issues

An Intrusion detection system (IDS) is used to detect unauthorized attempts to access and manipulate computer systems locally or through the Internet or an intranet. An Intrusion detection system (IDS) can detect several types of attacks and malicious behaviors that can compromise the security of a network and computers. This includes network attacks against vulnerable services, unauthorized logins and access to sensitive data, and malware (e.g. viruses, worms, etc.). An IDS also detects attacks that originate from within a system. In most cases, an IDS has three main components: Sensors, Console, and Engine. Sensors generate security events. A console is used to alert and control sensors and to monitor events. An engine is used to record events and to generate security alerts based on received security events. In many IDS implementations, these three components are combined into a single device. Basically, following two types of IDS are used: Network-based IDS Host-based IDS

A network-based detection system (NIDS) analyzes data packets flowing through a network. It can detect malicious packets that are designed to be overlooked by a firewalls' simplistic filtering rules. It is responsible for detecting anomalous or inappropriate data that may be considered unauthorized on a network. An NIDS captures and inspects all data traffic, regardless of whether it is permitted for checking or not. A host-based IDS (HIDS) is an Intrusion Detection System that runs on the system that is to be monitored. HIDS monitors only the data that is directed to or originating from the system on which HIDS is installed. Besides relying on network traffic for detecting attacks , it can also monitor other parameters of the system, such as running processes, file system access and integrity, and user logins for identifying malicious activities.
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An intrusion detection system will alert you to attempted breaches in security. BlackIce Defender and Tripwire are good examples of HIDS. Tripwire is an HIDS tool that automatically calculates the cryptographic hashes of all system files as well as any other file that a Network Administrator wants to monitor for modifications. It then periodically scans all monitored files and recalculates the information to see whether the files have been modified or not. If changes are detected, it raises an alarm. Most people think of an intrusion detection system (IDS) in terms of detecting attempts to breach your network. However, an IDS can also monitor outgoing traffic looking for anomalies and either block them or notify the network administrator. File system integrity and system files can be monitored by using the host intrusion detection system (HIDS). Snort is a signature-based intrusion detection system. BitLocker is used for full volume protection. BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) is used to protect all files stored on the drive Windows is installed on. It encrypts the entire system drive and helps block hackers from accessing the system files they rely on to discover user passwords. BitLocker also prevents hackers from accessing the hard disk by removing it from a computer and installing it on a different computer. User Account Control (UAC) is a feature in Windows that helps prevent unauthorized changes to a user's computer. Windows Vista User Account Control gives you the option to right-click on a program and run it as an administrator (if you have the admin password). UAC means that the user will have to confirm the installation of anything on the computer.

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A Guest account is designed to provide temporary access to computers. It does not store user-specific profile settings permanently. This account is disabled by default. The guest account is a limited account specifically designed for people who need to occasionally access a computer. The Power Users group has many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users. Power users can perform any tasks except those reserved for administrators. Give users the minimal access required for their job; this is more secure. This is called the principle of 'least privileges'. Each user should be given the least privileges needed to do their job tasks. Read and Execute allows a user to read any file in that folder, or to execute any program. Implementing password in BIOS enhances security. The BIOS (Basic Input Output System) allows a user to completely reconfigure the machine. For security, put a password on BIOS. If a firewall on a desktop is blocking Remote Desktop, add an exception for Remote Desktop to make it work. Default accounts are one of the first things a hacker will attempt to compromise. Leaving default accounts turned on is an invitation to hackers. This is especially true of the default administrator account. A good password should have a minimum of 8 characters and consist of letters and numbers. Encryption is the only real security measure that you may use in a public access scenario. Other methods will block people from using the system. Folder permissions can override file permissions. If the folder permissions have been changed or the file was moved to a different folder then this might cause a problem.

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If the name of a file appears in green, it means that it is encrypted with EFS (Encrypted File System). In order to open encrypted files, a user needs to have a backup of the encryption keys. When an unencrypted file is copied to an encrypted folder, it turns encrypted. Copying or moving a file between partitions results in a new file being created and inheriting the target folder permissions. Use HTTPS for the administrator page to ensure that all communication with the router is encrypted. Setting up shared folders and giving access to everyone in the workgroup is an easy way to share data and also secure it. To move files to a folder, you need to have write permissions on the target folder. You can use CIPHER in your script to encrypt multiple files and folders at a time. In the long file naming convention, a file name up to 255 characters with an extension up to three characters is allowed. The long file naming convention is supported both by NTFS and FAT file systems. NTFS offers features such as disk quotas, distributed link tracking, compression, and mounted drives. NTFS also offers security features, such as encryption and file and folder permissions. These features are not available on FAT volumes. Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user. Nowadays, the usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal scanners is becoming more common in the business environment. System Recovery Options in Windows Vista provides tools for a user to repair a computer in case Safe mode and Last Known Good Configuration do not work.
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Pop Quiz
Q1: Which of authentication methods uses a person's physical attributes as a means of authentication? Ans: Biometrics Q2: ____ is a feature in Windows that helps prevent unauthorized changes to a user's computer. Ans: User Account Control (UAC)

Key Terms
IDS NIDS HIDS BIOS EFS Intrusion Detection System Network-based IDS Host-based IDS Basic Input Output System Encrypted File System

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Test Your Knowledge


Q1. Which of the following technologies is used to detect unauthorized attempts to access and manipulate computer systems locally or through the Internet or an intranet?
A. B. C. D. Packet filtering Firewall Intrusion detection system (IDS) Demilitarized zone (DMZ)

Q2.

You are setting up file permissions on a Windows server. Different users have different access needs. What should be your guiding principal in assigning file permissions?
A. B. C. D. Give everyone access, as this makes administration simpler. Give users the minimal access required for their job, as this is more secure. Make three groups (one with low access, 1 moderate, and 1 high) and fit everyone into one of these groups. Block access to files until a user specifically requests any.

Q3.

You are responsible for technical support at a High School. You are concerned about students with some technical knowledge reconfiguring machines, either maliciously or not. You have already made sure Windows is secure and the students' login has the minimum necessary privileges. What else should you do to prevent students from re-configuring the school lab computers?
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A. B. C. D.

Put a password on BIOS. Put a password on POST. Put a password on the wireless routers. Put a password on all servers.

Q4.

You are handling technical support for a school. A teacher says that he can open a file, but he cannot modify it. You are certain of the fact that he was given 'read and write' permissions for that file. What can be the likely cause?
A. B. C. D. He is logged on with a different username that does not have write permissions. The file is in a folder for which he does not have write permissions. Someone has changed his file permissions. A computer virus has changed the file settings.

Q5.

A customer comes to you stating that his hard drive has crashed. He had backed up the hard drive, but some files on it were encrypted with Windows Encrypted File System (EFS). What do you need to do to be able to give him access to those restored encrypted files?

A. B. C. D.

Nothing, when you restore, he will have access. You need to make sure that when you restore, you give the new machine the same user account so that he can open the encrypted files. You need the encryption key. If that was not saved/backed up, then there is no chance of recovery. Nothing, they are unrecoverable.

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Answer Explanation
A 1. Answer option C is correct. An Intrusion detection system (IDS) is used to detect unauthorized attempts to access and manipulate computer systems locally or through the Internet or an intranet. It can detect several types of attacks and malicious behaviors that can compromise the security of a network and computers. This includes network attacks against vulnerable services, unauthorized logins and access to sensitive data, and malware (e.g. viruses, worms, etc.). An IDS also detects attacks that originate from within a system. In most cases, an IDS has three main components: Sensors, Console, and Engine. Sensors generate security events. A console is used to alert and control sensors and to monitor events. An engine is used to record events and to generate security alerts based on received security events. In many IDS implementations, these three components are combined into a single device. Basically, following two types of IDS are used : Network-based IDS Host-based IDS

Answer option A is incorrect. Packet filtering is a method that allows or restricts the flow of specific types of packets to provide security. It analyzes the incoming and outgoing packets and lets them pass or stops them at a network interface based on the source and destination addresses, ports, or protocols. Packet filtering provides a way to define precisely which type of IP traffic is allowed to cross the firewall of an intranet. IP packet filtering is important when users from private intranets connect to public networks, such as the Internet. Answer option B is incorrect. A firewall is a tool to provide security to a network. It is used to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP addresses and ports.
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Answer option D is incorrect. Demilitarized zone (DMZ) or perimeter network is a small network that lies in between the Internet and a private network. It is the boundary between the Internet and an internal network, usually a combination of firewalls and bastion hosts that are gateways between inside networks and outside networks. DMZ provides a large enterprise network or corporate network the ability to use the Internet while still maintaining its security.

A 2.

Answer option B is correct. This is called the principle of 'least privileges'. Each user should be given the least privileges needed to do their job tasks. Answer option A is incorrect. This would be highly insecure. Answer option C is incorrect. While you may wish to group users and assign privileges that way, arbitrarily picking three groups is a poor way to run security. Answer option D is incorrect. Users should not have to request access to each and every file they need.

A 3.

Answer option A is correct. The BIOS (Basic Input Output System) allows a user to completely reconfigure the machine. Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a ROM-based software that acts as an interpreter between the operating system and the hardware. It contains settings for booting. Answer option B is incorrect. POST (Power On Self Test) is something BIOS does; it is not a separate item that a user can access. Answer options C and D are incorrect. You should have good strong passwords on routers and servers, but that will not keep students from reconfiguring the lab PC's.
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A 4.

Answer option B is correct. Folder permissions can override file permissions. If the folder permissions have been changed, or the file was moved to a different folder this might cause the problem. Answer option A is incorrect. Yes it is possible, but that would also be immediately obvious to both the end user and you. Answer option C is incorrect. This seems unlikely that someone would simply go to that specific file and specifically block this user without his knowledge. Answer option D is incorrect. This would be a very unusual behavior for a virus and there seems no other indications of there being a virus.

A 5. Answer option C is correct. In order to open these encrypted files, the user needs to have a backup of the encryption keys. Answer option A is incorrect. The encryption is tied to the user account on the old hard drive. He will not be able to open them. Answer option B is incorrect. While the username on the new hard drive might be the same, it is not actually the same account as was on the old hard drive. Thus, he will not be able to open the files. Answer option D is incorrect. With the encryption keys, he will be able to open these files.

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Section C Full length Practice Test

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Full Length Practice Test Questions


Test Your Knowledge
Q 1. You work as a technician in Media Perfect Inc. All client computers on the company's network run Windows XP Professional. You are adding a hard disk to a client computer. You need to add it as a Slave drive. How will you do this?
A. B. C. D. Through the CMOS settings Through a jumper setting on the motherboard Through a jumper setting on the hard disk drive Through Windows Control Panel

Q 2. You work as a technician for Tech Perfect Inc. Rick, a sales manager, complains of boot failure in his computer. His computer runs Windows XP Professional. In order to rectify the issue, you need to change the setting in CMOS. CMOS is password protected, and you and Rick do not know the password. What will you do to access the CMOS?
A. B. C. D. Boot the computer in Safe Mode and remove the CMOS password from the Windows Control Panel. Turn off the computer and choose the "Last Known Good Configuration" option while booting. Clear the password on the CMOS by shorting the CMOS jumper. Remove the power cable from the motherboard and replace it back.

Q 3. Which of the following devices are connected through the SATA interface?
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Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. B. C. D. E. Keyboard CD-ROM drive Printer Hard disk drive Scanner

Q 4.

You are installing a Blu-ray Disc drive on a computer. How much data can you fit on a single-layer Blu-ray Disc?
A. B. C. D. 10GB 25GB 50GB 75GB

Q 5. You work as a technician for Blue Well Inc. A user reports that his computer is rebooting every now and then. You suspect that there might be an overheating problem. You open the CPU and discover that there is a gap between the microprocessor and its heat sink. What will you do to resolve the issue?
A. B. C. D. E. Replace the heat sink. Replace the cooler fan. Replace the microprocessor. Place the thermal compound between the heat sink and the microprocessor. An air gap is good for transferring heat. Do nothing to fill the gap.

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Q 6. Which of the following terms describes a system composed of two or more CPUs integrated onto a single integrated circuit die or chip package?
A. B. C. D. Single-core processor Integrated processor Parallel processor Multi-core processor

Q 7.

Your company has some old spare parts. You are trying to build a PC from those parts. You find a hard drive with a 40-pin connector and now you want the appropriate controller card for the connector. What type of controller card will you need?
A. B. C. D. SCSI PATA SATA IDE

Q 8. You are trying to configure a SATA hard drive. Which of the following is NOT a step that you will need to take?
A. B. C. D. Configure jumpers. Configure BIOS. Connect data cables. Connect power cables.

Q 9.

You are an IT Technician for SoftTech Inc. One of your customers reports that his laser printer has suddenly stopped working. The printer has a J210 power connector with a 20-pin female interface. You suspect that it has a power issue. You test the pins by using a
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multi-meter. What reading do you normally get from pin 5?


A. B. C. D. +24v -24v +5v -5v

Q 10. You work as a technician for Dreams Unlimited Inc. A user complains that a laser printer is not printing documents properly. You find that the printed paper has a series of black spots at regular intervals. Which of the following steps will you take to resolve the issue?
A. B. C. D. Clean the fuser roller. Replace the EP drum. Clean the spilt toner. Replace the faulty driver.

Q11. Which of the following statements about thermal compound are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. B. It is used to enhance heat conduction between two surfaces. It fills the air gap between the microprocessor and the heat sink, and helps in reducing the temperature of the microprocessor. It is used to resist the cooling process of a microprocessor. It is used to generate heat inside the CPU.

C. D.

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Q 12. You work as a technician for Troubleshooters Inc. You receive a call from a user named David. He complains that whenever he boots his Windows computer, he finds that the date and time are not maintained. Which of the following steps will you take to resolve the issue?
A. B. C. D. Change the UPS battery. Change the CMOS battery fitted in the motherboard. Reboot the computer in Safe Mode and reset date and time settings. Change the BIOS chip.

Q 13. You work as a technician for Net Perfect Inc. You are troubleshooting a connectivity issue on a network. You are using the ping command to verify the connectivity between two hosts. You want ping to send larger sized packets than the usual 32-byte ones. Which of the following commands will you use?
A. B. C. D. ping -l ping -a ping -t ping -4

Q 14. You handle tech support for a large office building. One of the employees complains that he cannot print. When you check it out, you find the print spooler has stopped. What should you do?
A. B. C. Go to the services management console and start the print spooler. Reinstall the printer drivers. Go to the printers console and start the print spooler.
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D.

Reinstall the print spooler.

Q 15. You are working at a retail computer store. A customer comes in complaining that he bought a new PC with Windows Vista, but that when he got home, it did not have the exact same color scheme as the display model in the store. It was a close match, but not exactly. What can you do to get an exact match?
A. B. Nothing, it is probably due to him having a different monitor. Under desktop properties, Windows appearance, you will find 'show color mixer' that allows you to mix colors that you wish for your Aero theme. Most people use the standard themes. To get an exact color match, you will have to use 'regedit' to edit the registry and put in the hexadecimal value for the color you want. Nothing, it is probably a video card issue.

C.

D.

Q 16. Your office has just moved from Windows XP to Windows Vista. Users immediately complain about being constantly prompted, and they want that to cease. How would you accomplish this?
A. B. C. You cannot because it is a part of Windows Vista security. Go to each user account and disable User Account Controls for that user. Create a group that has User Account Controls disabled, and make all the users members of that group. Use MSCONFIG, and disable UAC.

D.

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Q 17. You have just upgraded a customer's PC. The customer was using 32-bit Windows XP and you have upgraded it to 32-bit Windows Vista. However, the customer's computer is now only recognizing 3 of the 4 gigabytes of memory in the PC. What is the problem?
A. B. C. D. You have to go into the admin screen and set the memory. You have to go into the BIOS and set the memory. Windows Vista 32-bit has trouble with more than 3 gigabytes of memory. It is due to a corrupt installation.

Q 18. You work as a desktop support technician for SoftWorld Inc. The company has a Windows 2003 Active Directory network. All client computers in the company run Windows Vista. The manager of the company purchases a new computer and asks you to install Windows Vista and other necessary software on the computer. You install Windows Vista and other necessary software on the computer. You want to verify the integrity of Windows system files before delivering the computer to the manager. What will you do to accomplish the task?
A. B. C. D. Use Sfc.exe tool. Use Intlcfg.exe tool. Use Offscan.exe tool. Use MsiExec tool.

Q 19. Adrian knows the host names of all the computers on his network. He wants to find the IP addresses of these computers. Which of the following TCP/IP utilities can he use to find the IP addresses of these computers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
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A. B. C. D.

NETSTAT PING TRACERT IPCONFIG

Q 20. In Windows XP Professional, offline files and information about the files are kept in a database. In which of the following folders is the database located?
A. B. C. D. %SystemRoot%\Windows %SystemRoot%\CSC %SystemRoot%\WINNT %SystemRoot%\

Q 21. You are responsible for technical support at a large law firm. One of the attorneys complains that her computer does not boot up. When you check it out, you see it is giving the following message "NTLDR is missing, press any key to restart". All of the following could be the problem except which one?
A. B. C. D. The computer hard disk drive is not properly set up in BIOS. RAM is corrupted. The boot.ini file is misconfigured. The disk drive cable is loose.

Q22. You are working at a retail computer store. A customer comes in complaining that he bought a new PC with Windows Vista, but that when he got home, it did not have the exact same color scheme as the display model in the store. It was a close match, but not exactly. What can you do to get an exact match?
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A. B.

Nothing, it is probably due to him having a different monitor. Under desktop properties, Windows appearance, you will find 'show color mixer' that allows you to mix colors that you wish for your Aero theme. Most people use the standard themes. To get an exact color match, you will have to use 'regedit' to edit the registry and put in the hexadecimal value for the color you want. Nothing, it is probably a video card issue.

C.

D.

Q23. Your office has just moved from Windows XP to Windows Vista. Users immediately complain about being constantly prompted, and they want that to cease. How would you accomplish this?
A. B. C. You cannot because it is a part of Windows Vista security. Go to each user account and disable User Account Controls for that user. Create a group that has User Account Controls disabled, and make all the users members of that group. Use MSCONFIG, and disable UAC.

D.

Q24. You are responsible for technical support at a hospital. Recently, all computers have been upgraded to Windows Vista 64 bit. However, you have a particular custom application that runs only in 32 bit. What should you do?
A. B. Use compatibility mode to run the 32-bit application. You will need a 32-bit version of Vista, not 64 bit.

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C. D.

You will have to uninstall the upgraded operating system. You will need to get the upgraded 64-bit version of the application.

Q25. Your customer has a computer that runs Windows Vista. He is concerned about his children spending too much time on the Internet. What would you recommend?
A. B. C. D. Counseling for the family Third party parental access controls Windows Vista parental controls Windows XP parental controls

Q26. You are trying to assist a college student with PC issues. His PC runs Windows Vista. He states that he is on an extremely limited budget and cannot afford to buy antivirus or anti-spyware. He also keeps getting spyware on his PC. What should you recommend?
A. B. C. D. That he configure and use Windows Defender That he find the money to buy anti-spyware That he significantly limit his time on the Internet in order to reduce exposure to spyware That he accept the fact that without anti-spyware he will have problems

Q27. You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 Active Directory-based network. All the client computers on the network run Windows 2000 Professional. You have installed DHCP on the network to automatically assign IP addresses to the client computers.

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You install a new computer for a new user, Maria. She complains that she is unable to access the network resources. No other user is facing this problem. You run the IPCONFIG command on her computer and receive the following IP configuration information: IP address Subnet Mask Default Gateway 169.254.75.182 255.255.0.0 Not configured

You want to obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server on the network. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. B. C. D. NBTSTAT /rr NETSTAT /e IPCONFIG /release IPCONFIG /renew

Q28. You configure a wireless router at your home. To secure your home Wireless LAN (WLAN), you implement WEP. Now you want to connect your client computer to the WLAN. Which of the following is the required information that you will need to configure the client computer?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two. A. B. C. D. SSID of the WLAN MAC address of the router WEP key IP address of the router
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Q29. You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based routed network. The network is configured as shown in the image below:

An administrator named Rick wants to configure telnet to Switch-1 from Client1. Which of the following are required to enable Rick to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. B. C. D. E. F. Connect Switch-1 and Client1 through rollover cable. Connect Switch-1 and Client1 through straightthrough cable. Configure 192.168.1.100 as a default gateway address at Switch-1. Configure 192.168.2.100 as a default gateway address at Switch-1. Configure 192.168.1.100 as a default gateway address at Client1. Configure 192.168.2.100 as a default gateway address at Client1.

Q30. Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008 domain-based network. The network has a file server that runs on
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Windows Server 2008. His assistant wants to know about the wireless local area network (WLAN) SSID. Which of the following statements are true about WLAN SSID?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three. A. B. C. D. E. It is the name of a wireless local area network (WLAN). It has a maximum length of 24 characters. It is a sequence of alphanumeric characters. It has a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have different SSIDs.

Q31. You are setting up small offices for a major insurance carrier. The company policy states that all wireless configurations must fully implement the 802.11i standard. Based on this requirement, which encryption algorithm should you implement?
A. B. C. D. WPA2 WPA WEP PKI

Q32. Which of the following wireless techniques provides the highest data transfer speed?
A. B. C. D. 802.11 802.11b Bluetooth Infrared

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Q33. Your customer reports he just bought a new laptop and he cannot log on to his wireless router with it. You verify the wireless NIC is working, you can see the wireless routers network, and you verify the customer is using the correct username and password. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. B. C. D. The router has maximum connections now. The router has a virus. MAC filtering is enabled. His new laptop is not compatible with the router.

Q34. You are configuring a router for a small marketing company. Some employees of the company frequently make connections with laptops of sales personnel who are outside the network. You want the return connection from outside the network to be automatically routed to the internal computer that initiated the connection. What would allow you to do this?
A. B. C. D. Port forwarding Port mapping NAT Port triggering

Q35. You handle technical support for a major retail store. A customer is unable to use his new online collaboration program. You can verify that it is installed correctly and is not blocked by the Windows firewall. It works at your store, but not on his home network. What is the most likely cause?
A. B. C. His home connection is too slow. His network router is blocking the traffic. His computer has a virus.
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D.

His computer does not have enough RAM.

Q36. You are setting up a wireless connectivity for a self employed consultant. He needs high speed, but mobility is of greater importance. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. B. C. D. 3G Cellular 802.11g wireless 802.11n wireless Bluetooth

Q37. You are responsible for installing and configuring a network at a sports arena. The customer wants a hard line (actual cable) because he is concerned about the reliability and security of wireless networks. What is the maximum distance you will be able to run UTP cable?
A. B. C. D. 100 feet 100 yards 100 meters 100 kilometers

Q38. You have installed a small network at an accounting office. All the computers have gigabit Ethernet NICs. Yet when you measure internet speed, you see it is going at 100mbps maximum. What should you do to fix this?
A. B. C. D. Replace the cable with Category 6 cable. Replace the cable with Category 5 cable. Replace the router. Replace the cable with fiber optic.

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Q39. Which of the following statements are true about SSID? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. B. C. D. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have different SSIDs. It is a sequence of alphanumeric characters. It is the name of a wireless local area network (WLAN). It has a maximum length of 16 characters.

Q40. Which of the following technologies is used to detect unauthorized attempts to access and manipulate computer systems locally or through the Internet or an intranet?
A. B. C. D. Packet filtering Firewall Intrusion detection system (IDS) Demilitarized zone (DMZ)

Q41. You are setting up file permissions on a Windows server. Different users have different access needs. What should be your guiding principal in assigning file permissions?
A. B. C. D. Give everyone access, as this makes administration simpler. Give users the minimal access required for their job, as this is more secure. Make three groups (one with low access, 1 moderate, and 1 high) and fit everyone into one of these groups. Block access to files until a user specifically requests any.

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Q42. John works as a System Administrator in ABC Inc. The company has a Windows 2003 domain-based network. The network contains two Windows 2003 servers and fifty Windows XP Professional client computers. One of the users of the network complains to John that after a sudden power outage, he is unable to boot his computer successfully. He suspects that some system files might have become corrupted. Which of the following tools will he use to diagnose and resolve this issue? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. B. C. D. System Restore Safe mode Recovery Console Last Known Good Configuration

Q43. You are handling technical support for a school. A teacher says that he can open a file, but he cannot modify it. You are certain of the fact that he was given 'read and write' permissions for that file. What can be the likely cause?
A. B. C. D. He is logged on with a different username that does not have write permissions. The file is in a folder for which he does not have write permissions. Someone has changed his file permissions. A computer virus has changed the file settings.

Q44. A customer comes to you stating that his hard drive has crashed. He had backed up the hard drive, but some
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files on it were encrypted with Windows Encrypted File System (EFS). What do you need to do to be able to give him access to those restored encrypted files?

A. B. C. D.

Nothing, when you restore, he will have access. You need to make sure that when you restore, you give the new machine the same user account so that he can open the encrypted files. You need the encryption key. If that was not saved/backed up, then there is no chance of recovery. Nothing, they are unrecoverable.

Q45. John works as a Network Administrator for We-aresecure Inc. The We-are-secure server is based on Windows Server 2003. One day, while analyzing the network security, he receives an error message that Kernel32.exe is encountering a problem. Which of the following steps should John take as a countermeasure to this situation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. B. C. D.

He should restore his Windows settings. He should upgrade his antivirus program. He should download the latest patches for Windows Server 2003 from the Microsoft site, so that he can repair the kernel. He should observe the process viewer (Task Manager) to see whether any new process is running on the computer or not. If any new malicious process is running, he should kill that process.

Q46. Which of the following is a signature-based intrusion detection system (IDS)?


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A. B. C. D.

StealthWatch RealSecure Snort Tripwire

Q47. You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single domain network. The network contains thirty servers running Windows Server 2008 and 700 client computers running Windows Vista 2008. The Sales Managers of the company use their laptops while traveling. These laptops contain single volume hard disks. For security, you are required to protect system and personal data on all the laptops in case the laptops are stolen. For this, you must enforce full volume protection. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task?
A. B. C. D. Configure IPSec. Configure the volume with RAID-5. Implement EFS on the volume. Implement BitLocker on the volume.

Q48. You work as a technician for Tech Perfect Inc. Rick, a sales manager, complains to you that his computer's disk access period has increased abnormally and that its performance has deteriorated dramatically. He tells you that till two days ago the computer was absolutely fine. He also states that he did not install any new
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application on his computer in the last one month. What is the most likely cause of the issue?
A. B. C. D. Damaged hard disk drive Broken IDE cable Virus infection Low RAM availability

Q49. You are setting up file permissions on a Windows server. Different users have different access needs. What should be your guiding principal in assigning file permissions?
A. B. C. D. Give everyone access, as this makes administration simpler. Give users the minimal access required for their job, as this is more secure. Make three groups (one with low access, 1 moderate, and 1 high) and fit everyone into one of these groups. Block access to files until a user specifically requests any.

Q50. You are responsible for technical support at a High School. You are concerned about students with some technical knowledge reconfiguring machines, either maliciously or not. You have already made sure Windows is secure and the students' login has the minimum necessary privileges. What else should you do to prevent students from re-configuring the school lab computers?
A. B. C. D. Put a password on BIOS. Put a password on POST. Put a password on the wireless routers. Put a password on all servers.
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Q 51. You work as a freelance IT Technician. You attend to a user's call and after examining his computer, you find that some of the components are not working properly. Which of the following components do you think should not be repaired, as it is very risky and the cost of repairing is higher than its actual price?
A. B. C. D. Switch mode power supply (SMPS) Mouse RAM Hard disk drive

Q 52. How many active partitions can be made on the hard disk of a computer?
A. B. C. D. One Two Three Four

Q 53. You work as a Network Administrator for Contosso Inc. The company has four Windows Server 2008 servers and fifty Windows XP client computers. A computer named GSERVER has one hard disk. The computer runs a custom application that writes a large number of small temporary files in a single directory to support requests from client computers. To improve the performance of the application, you add three new 100GB SCSI disks to the server to hold these temporary files. You are required to accomplish the following tasks:
Ensure that the application uses all 300GB of space with a single drive letter.
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Ensure the fastest possible performance when writing the temporary files. Configure these disks to be fault tolerant.

Which of the following actions will you take to accomplish the task? A. B. C. D. Create a mirrored volume. Create a striped volume. Create a RAID-5 volume. Create a spanned volume.

Q 54. A customer is asking you to build a custom PC for him. Processing speed is of the utmost concern. Besides the speed of the CPU, what else should you consider?
A. B. C. D. Number of PCIe slots Size of RAM Hard drive capacity Front side bus speed

Q 55. Which of the following PCMCIA cards support hard disk drives?
A. B. C. D. Type I Type III Type II Type VI

Q 56. You are store. A trying to and two

responsible for technical support at a retail customer is looking for a new server and is decide between buying a dual core processor separate processors. He will be running a
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database server on this machine. What would you recommend?


A. B. C. D. It does not matter; the two terms mean the same. Two separate processors, as they will give better performance. Dual core, as it will give better performance. Two separate processors, as it will be cheaper.

Q 57. You handle technical support for a large company. One of your sales managers complains that his laptop keys are sticky. You discover that someone has spilled Coke on it. What should you do?
A. B. C. D. Replace the keyboard. Ask him to use an external keyboard. Since the keyboards are integrated into laptops, you will have to replace the entire laptop. Gently wash the keyboard with a damp cloth.

Q 58. Which of the following tools can be used to detect the steganography?
A. B. C. D. Dskprobe Snow Blindside ImageHide

Q 59. You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. All the client computers run Windows XP Professional. Rick, a Sales Manager, complains that his laptop battery is not providing adequate backup. You check and verify that
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the laptop is running out of battery power more quickly than expected. What will you do to resolve the issue?
A. Take the battery out of the laptop, fully charge it with more powerful external charger, and then place the battery back to the laptop. Ask Rick to use AC power instead of batteries. Replace the battery with a new one. Change the AC adapter.

B. C. D.

Q 60. You work as a technician for Tech Perfect Inc. You are planning to disassemble a computer. During this process, you will have to lay down the electronic components. Which of the following surfaces is the best place to put these components on?
A. B. C. D. Metal plate Ground Anti-static pad Rubber mat

Q 61. You work as a technician for Meteor Tough Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2003-based network. All client computers run Windows Vista Ultimate. You install a printer on one of the client computers and share it with other user. A user complains that when he prints to the new printer, he gets several pages of garbage printing. You send a test print and find that junk characters are printing on the paper. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. B. C. D. Incorrect driver Faulty power cable Faulty data cable Incorrect network settings
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Q 62. You work as a technician for Media Perfect Inc. A user complains about a laser printer that whenever he prints a document, a vertical line on the documents appears on all pages. Which of the following steps will you take to resolve the issue?
A. B. C. D. Clean the fuser roller. Clean the spilt toner. Replace the fuser roller. Replace the EP drum.

Q 63. Which of the following cannot be the cause of paper jams in a laser printer?
A. B. C. D. Worn pickup rollers Worn exit rollers Moist papers Faulty driver

Q 64. Which of the following options must be specified to install and configure a TCP/IP printer? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. B. C. D. IP address or Printer name Port name Gateway Host name

Q 65. You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. Mark works as a Sales Executive in the company. The
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company's file server has a shared folder named DATA on which Caching offline files is enabled. Mark complains that he is unable to work on files stored in the DATA folder from his laptop when he is not connected to the company's network. You verify that Mark has made the DATA folder offline on his laptop and has required permissions on the DATA folder on the file server You want to ensure that Mark is able to work offline on the files in DATA folder. What will you do to accomplish the task?
A. B. Assign Administrative permissions to Mark on the file server. On Mark's laptop, go to Control Panel > Folder Options > Offline Files tab > Advanced properties. Select the Notify me and begin working offline option on the laptop. On Mark's laptop, go to Control Panel > Add/Remove Programs > Offline Files tab. Select the Notify me and begin working offline option on the laptop. On the server, disable Caching offline files on the DATA folder.

C.

D.

Q 66. You are about to perform a maintenance work on a computer running Windows XP Professional. You want to take back up of key data on the computer. Which of the following commands will run the backup utility of Windows XP?
A. B. C. D. BACKUP ADBACKUP NTBACKUP ACTIVEBACKUP

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Q 67. You work as a Network Administrator for McRoberts Inc. The company has its head office in Tokyo and a branch office in Seattle. The company has a Windows XP Professional computer at the head office. Rick, a Sales Executive, complains that since his last visit to Tokyo, his Windows XP Professional laptop is displaying the Japanese language, which he does not know. You want to change the language settings of Rick's laptop back to the English language. How will you accomplish this?
A. B. C. D. In the registry, add a key named Language under the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE > Hardware node. In the Regional and Language Options, select English input language keyboard. In the Regional and Language Options, select English (United States) Standards and Formats. Select the General Tab of the Accessibility Options dialog box. In the Date and Time options, select the English language.

Q 68. You work as a technician for Troubleshooters Inc. John, an assistant technician, installs a new graphics application and an updated video driver on his Windows XP Professional computer. He restarts his computer and successfully logs on. He reports that the display of dialog boxes on his computer is distorted. What will you do to resolve the issue?
A. B. C. D. Change the power cord of the display monitor. Upgrade RAM. Use Device Manager to roll back the video driver. Reinstall the updated video driver.

Q 69. You work as a technician for Troubleshooters Inc. A user named Barbara calls you and complains about her Windows XP Professional computer. You want to
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connect to and take control of her computer. Which of the following services will you use?
A. B. C. D. RIS VPN RRAS Remote Desktop

Q 70. Which of the following switches is used with the CHKDSK command to fix any errors that the command finds?
A. B. C. D. /f /r /x /i

Q 71. You work as a Network Administrator for Beltech Inc. You want that a particular application that generates the daily work report of all the employees in the IT department should run everyday at 6.00Pm. Which of the following Windows utilities will you use to accomplish the task?
A. B. C. D. Windows SIM Task Scheduler Remote Assistance ImageX

Q 72. Your Windows client computer is performing sluggishly. You discover that there are a large number of programs starting automatically. What should you do?
A. Delete all unnecessary programs.
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B. C. D.

Add more RAM. Defragment the hard drive. Use msconfig to remove many programs from startup.

Q 73. Your office building uses Windows XP. One of the users says his computer does not boot up. When you go to investigate, you see the error message "Windows could not start because the following file is missing or corrupt: Windows\System32\Hal.dll". What should you do?
A. B. C. Reinstall Windows XP. Install the latest Windows XP patch. Start the computer from the Windows XP CD, start the Recovery Console, and then use the Bootcfg.exe tool to rebuild the Boot.ini file. Copy a Hall.dll from another working Windows XP machine.

D.

Q 74. You are responsible for technical support at a High school. You have a student who is extremely near sighted. Which of the following options would be the best to allow that student to use a computer?
A. B. C. D. Get the largest monitor you can. Use the Windows Magnifier option. Use the Windows High Contrast option. Get speakers and a speech-to-text engine.

Q 75. Mark works as the Network Administrator of a Windows 2000 based network. The network has a DNS server installed. He experiences host name resolution problems on the network. In order to rectify the situation, he wants to troubleshoot DNS name resolution problems on the network. Which of the following tools will he use to do this?
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A. B. C. D.

NETSTAT IPCONFIG NSLOOKUP NBTSTAT

Q 76. You work as a Network Administrator for McRobert Inc. Your company has a TCP/IP-based network. You have configured a WAN link for the network. You are facing connectivity problem across the WAN link. What will be your first step in troubleshooting the issue?
A. B. C. D. E. Ensure that NetBEUI protocol is loaded. Check that the correct default gateway is set. Enable DNS. Reinstall TCP/IP protocol. Use the NETSTAT utility to view TCP/IP statistics.

Q 77. Which of the following are used to resolve host names to IP addresses? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. B. C. D. HOSTS LMHOSTS DNS. WINS

Q 78. You work as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. You want to ping a remote TCP/IP host (www.nwi.com) on the Internet. You want to keep on pinging until you manually stop the pinging process. Which of the
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following commands will you use to accomplish the task?


A. B. C. D. PING -r 9 www.nwi.com PING www.nwi.com PING -t www.nwi.com PING -c www.nwi.com

Q 79. You work as a Network Administrator for Net World Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network. Rick, a Sales Manager, reports that he is unable to access other computers on the network. You want to release and renew his IP address lease. Which of the following commands will you use?
A. B. C. D. PING IPCONFIG TRACERT NETSTAT

Q 80. Which of the following utilities is described in the statement below? "It is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway that a TCP/IP packet crosses on its way to the remote host."
A. B. C. D. PING TRACERT FDISK IPCONFIG

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Q 81. Which of the following protocols are used to transfer emails between the servers and client computers in a TCP/IP network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. B. C. D. SMTP FTP POP3 NNTP

Q 82. You are concerned about war driving bringing hackers attention to your wireless network. What is the most basic step you can take to mitigate this risk?
A. B. C. D. Don't broadcast SSID Implement WEP Implement WPA Implement MAC filtering

Q 83. Your client cannot view Web sites via her browser. You think it might be due to a failure to connect to the DNS server. What utility would be best used to verify this?
A. B. C. D. NSLOOKUP DNSCHECK IPCONFIG NETSTAT

Q 84. You are trying to upgrade the firmware in a customer's wireless router. Which of the following is NOT a step you would take?
A. Download the upgrade to the firmware from the manufacturer's web site to your PC.
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B. C. D.

Connect PC to router via an Ethernet cable. Run firmware upgrade from the PC. Run firmware upgrade from routers administration console.

Q 85. You are configuring a router for a company on a small business network. The management needs all the incoming HTTP traffic to be routed to its internal Web server. What should you do?
A. B. C. D. Encourage the management to use a professional web hosting company. Connect the server directly to the router. Set port forwarding to forward the server traffic to the router. Enable port forwarding to forward port 80 to the server.

Q 86. Your home user customer complains that his wireless network signal is inconsistent throughout his house. He has a Wireless N router that is placed at the rear end of the house, which is 2600 square feet in total size. What is the best solution to this problem?
A. B. C. D. Suggest a faster, more modern wireless router. Move the router to a central location in the house. Place repeaters in key places around the house. Add a second router at the front of the house.

Q 87. You are configuring wireless Internet for a High school newspaper. The students frequently have to upload and download large image files, so they want the fastest Internet connection. What type of router would you recommend?
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A. B. C. D.

802.11g 802.11b 802.11a 802.11n

Q 88. Mark works as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 Active Directory domain-based network. The domain contains one hundred Windows XP Professional client computers. Mark is deploying an 802.11 wireless LAN on the network. The wireless LAN will use Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) for all the connections. According to the company's security policy, the client computers must be able to automatically connect to the wireless LAN. However, the unauthorized computers must not be allowed to connect to the wireless LAN and view the wireless network. Mark wants to configure all the wireless access points and client computers to act in accordance with the company's security policy. What will he do to accomplish this? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. B. C. D. E. F. Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Shared Key. Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points. On each client computer, add the SSID for the wireless LAN as the preferred network. Install a firewall software on each wireless access point. Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Open system. Broadcast SSID to connect to the access point (AP).

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Q 89. You are setting up a small office network. You will use private addresses within the network. Which of the following is NOT a valid range for private, non-routable addresses?
A. B. C. D. 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 200.0.0.0 - 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255

Q 90. You are setting up a wireless network for a series of small coffee shops. All the shops are part of a chain. The customer wants a very specific SSID for each location. What are the limits on an SSID? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. A.
B. C. D.

It must be 16 or fewer characters long.


It must be 32 or fewer characters long. It can only contain letters, not numbers. It is case sensitive.

Q 91. You have configured a virtualized Internet browser on your Windows XP professional computer. Using the virtualized Internet browser, you can protect your operating system from which of the following? A.
B. C. D.

Distributed denial of service (DDOS) attack


Mail bombing Malware installation from unknown Web sites Brute force attack

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Q 92. Which of the following statements is true about the difference between worms and Trojan horses?
A. B. C. D. Trojan horses are a form of malicious codes while worms are not. Trojan horses are harmful to computers while worms are not. Worms replicate themselves while Trojan horses do not. Worms can be distributed through emails while Trojan horses cannot.

Q 93. You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Labs Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based network, which is connected to the Internet. You want to provide Internet access to users. You are concerned about virus threats and want to protect the network against potential virus attacks from the Internet. Which of the following steps will you take to minimize potential virus attacks?
A. B. C. D. Run SCANDISK on each workstation. Install a virus protection program on each workstation. Configure a firewall in the network. Install a proxy server in the network.

Q 94. Which of the following terms refers to an anti-virus software file that is updated from time to time to protect a computer from new viruses?
A. B. C. D. Hotfix Service pack Definition Modules
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Q 95. You work as a Network Administrator for McNeel Inc. You want to encrypt each user's MY DOCUMENTS folder. You decide to use Encrypting File System (EFS). You plan to write a script for encryption. Which of the following tools will you use to encrypt specified folders?
A. B. C. D. Windows Explorer CIPHER EFSINFO SYSKEY

Q 96. Your customer has a computer that runs Windows Vista Ultimate. He is trying to move a file to a new folder and cannot do it. What is the most likely cause?
A. B. C. D. He is not logged on as administrator. He does not have full control permissions on the target folder. He does not have write permissions on the target folder. He is not the owner of the file.

Q 97. You are concerned about end users unintentionally downloading spyware or viruses. You are sure they are well informed enough not to do so intentionally. In addition to anti-virus and anti-spyware, what else will help prevent this?
A. B. C. D. Make sure User Account Control (UAC) is turned on. Make sure all PC's have their Windows firewall turned on. Make sure the router has a firewall turned on. Do not allow any users to download anything, even intentionally.
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Q 98. You are responsible for technical support at a hotel. The management keeps a computer in the lobby for guests who want to use the Internet, email, etc. How would you set up access for this?
A. B. C. D. Create a user account for this purpose. Use an existing user account. Use the Administrator account for that PC. Use the Guest account for that PC.

Q 99. You handle technical support for a school. Files are frequently copied or moved from one folder to another for various reasons. When an unencrypted file was copied to a new folder, it became encrypted. What is the most likely reason?
A. B. C. D. It was copied to an encrypted folder. It was moved to an encrypted folder. It was moved to a folder that contained encrypted files. Someone intentionally encrypted the file.

Q100. You are configuring a public access wireless connection. Which of the following options refers to best way to secure the wireless connection?
A. B. C. D. Implement anti virus MAC filtering Not broadcasting SSID Using WPA encryption

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Answer Explanation
A 1. Answer option C is correct. You can set the Master/Slave designations by setting a jumper on the hard disk drive. Each IDE/EIDE drive must support the Master, Slave, and Cable Select types of jumper settings. The Master/Slave setting is accomplished by jumpering a set of pins on the hard disk/CD-ROM drive. A jumper is a short length of conductor used to close a break in or bypass part of an electrical circuit. Jumpers are typically used to set up or adjust printed circuit boards, such as the motherboards of computers. Jumper pins (points to be connected by the jumper) are arranged in groups called jumper blocks, each group having at least one pair of contact points and often more. When a jumper is placed over two or more jumper pins, an electrical connection is made between them, and the equipment is thus instructed to activate certain settings accordingly. Jumper blocks and jumpers are also often used on motherboards to clear the CMOS information, resetting the BIOS configuration settings. If two drives are attached to one controller, one drive should be set as Master and the other as Slave. If both drives using the same controller are set as Master, or Slave, none of them will work. Answer option A is incorrect. Master/Slave settings are not a part of CMOS. Answer option B is incorrect. You cannot make a hard disk drive a Master or Slave through jumper settings on the motherboard. Answer option D is incorrect. Windows Control Panel has nothing to do with the configuration of a hard disk drive.

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A 2.

Answer option C is correct. In order to access the CMOS, you will have to short the CMOS jumper. This will clear the password settings and allow you to access the CMOS. Answer options A and B are incorrect. The CMOS settings can be accessed before the Windows booting process is started. These steps will not help in accessing the CMOS. Answer option D is incorrect. Removing the power cable from the motherboard and replacing it back will not help in this situation.

A 3.

Answer options B and D are correct. The Serial ATA (SATA) computer bus is a storage-interface for connecting host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. SATA offers several compelling advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such as reduced cable-bulk and cost, faster and more efficient data transfer, full duplex, and hot swapping. It is designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices support hot plugging and hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for enhanced performance. Answer options A, C, and E are incorrect. These devices are not connected through the SATA interface.

A 4.

Answer option B is correct. A single-layer disc of Blu-ray can hold 25GB of data. Blu-ray Disc format ensures that it is easily extendable, as it also includes support for multi-layer discs, which should allow the storage capacity to be increased to 100GB-200GB (25GB per layer) in the future simply by adding more layers to the discs.

A 5.

Answer option D is correct.

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According to the question, there is an air gap between the heat sink and the microprocessor. Because air is a bad conductor of heat, heat is not properly transferred through the heat sink. Therefore, in order to resolve the issue, you will have to fill the gap between them by placing the thermal compound between the heat sink and the microprocessor. Thermal compound is used for enhancing heat conduction between two surfaces. In computers, it is commonly used between the microprocessor and the heat sink. Most of the microprocessors do not have flat surfaces. Absence of flat surface creates an air gap between the microprocessor and the heat sink. This air gap resists the cooling process of the microprocessor. Thermal compound fills the air gap and helps in conducting heat through the heat sink. Answer options A, B, and C are incorrect. Replacing these hardware devices is not required in the first place. Answer option E is incorrect. Air is always a bad conductor of heat. Hence, these gaps should always be filled with the thermal compound to radiate heat better.

A 6.

Answer option D is correct. A multi-core processor is a processing system composed of two or more independent cores (or CPUs). The cores are typically integrated onto a single integrated circuit die (known as a chip multiprocessor or CMP), or they may be integrated onto multiple dies in a single chip package. A many-core processor is one in which the number of cores is large enough that traditional multi-processor techniques are no longer efficient and likely requires a network on chip. Multi-core processors are widely used across many application domains including: general-purpose, embedded, network, digital signal processing, and graphics.

A 7.

Answer option D is correct. IDE and Extended IDE both have 40-pin connectors.
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IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics) or ATA (Advanced Technology Attachment) is a standard interfacing technology for the connection of storage devices like hard disk, and solid state devices. This standard is maintained by American National Standard Institute (ANSI). IDE is named so because the disk controller is integrated in the mother board of the computer. ATA/ATAPI (ATA Packet Interface) is an evolution of the AT Attachment Interface. It has two types, which are as follows: Parallel ATA (PATA) Parallel ATA standard is the result of technical development in the field of AT Attachment interface. It allows cable lengths up to 46 cm, therefore normally used as an internal computer storage interface. Serial ATA (SATA) The Serial ATA (SATA), computer bus is a storage-interface for connecting host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. Serial ATA was designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). It uses the same low level commands, but serial ATA host-adapters and devices communicate via a high-speed serial cable over two pairs of conductors. SATA provides numerous advantages over Parallel ATA interface, which are as follows : It is faster. It has more efficient data transfer rate. It reduces cable-bulk and cost etc.

Answer option A is incorrect. SCSIs have 50-pin connectors. Answer options B and C are incorrect. SATA and PATA both have connectors that do not have a visible pin configuration.

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A 8.

Answer option A is correct. SATA drives do not have jumpers that require configuration. SATA offers several compelling advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such as reduced cable-bulk and cost, faster and more efficient data transfer, full duplex, and hot swapping. It is designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices support hot plugging and hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for enhanced performance. Answer option B is incorrect. For any hard drive, you will have to add the hard drive's information into the BIOS. Answer option C and D are incorrect. All drives will require the connections of power and data cables.

A 9.

Answer option D is correct. Pin 5 in a 20-pin female interface of a smoothly functioning printer reads -5v. Answer option A is incorrect. Pin 5 does not give this reading. It is pin 9 that reads +24v. Answer option B is incorrect. No pin in J210 connector gives this reading. Answer option C is incorrect. You do not get this reading from pin 5. Pin 1 reads +5v.

A 10. Answer option A is correct. A dirty fuser roller can be the cause of a series of black spots on the printed paper at regular intervals. To resolve the issue, Mark will have to clean the fuser roller. A fuser assembly, commonly called fuser, is a part of a laser printer. This assembly applies heat and pressure to bond the plastic powder to the paper. A fuser assembly contains two rollers: one roller is a hollow tube (heat roller) and the other is a rubber backing roller (pressure roller). A radiant heat lamp
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is suspended in the center of the hollow tube, and its infrared energy uniformly heats the roller from the inside.

Some printers use a very thin flexible metal fuser roller; hence, there is less mass to be heated and the fuser can more quickly reach operating temperature. This both speeds printing from an idle state and permits the fuser to turn off more frequently to conserve power. Answer option B is incorrect. This problem is not because of EP drum. You need to replace EP drum in case there is a scratch in EP drum and a continuous vertical line is printing on printouts. Answer option C is incorrect. Split toner will not produce black spots at regular intervals. Rather, it will produce irregular patches on documents. Answer option D is incorrect. This is not case of faulty driver. A faulty driver will produce the garbage printing.

A 11. Answer options A and B are correct. Thermal compound is used for enhancing heat conduction between two surfaces. In computers, it is commonly used between the microprocessor and the heat sink. Most of the microprocessors do not have flat surfaces. Absence of flat surface creates an air gap between the microprocessor and the heat sink. This air gap resists the cooling process of the microprocessor. Thermal compound fills the air gap and helps in conducting heat through the heat sink.

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A 12. Answer option B is correct. A Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) battery is installed on the motherboard. It provides backup to CMOS to store computer hardware configuration, date, and time settings when a computer's main power is off. Note: Incorrect date and time on the computer indicate failure of the CMOS battery. Answer option A is incorrect. A UPS supplies power to a computer. The internal settings of the computer do not depend on the supply from the UPS. Answer option C is incorrect. Resetting date and time settings in Safe Mode will not resolve the issue. When the computer boots, the date and time settings will be lost. Answer option D is incorrect. BIOS has nothing to do with the date and time settings of a computer.

A 13. Answer option A is correct. The -l switch is used with the ping command to specify the size of packets to be sent to the remote host. By default, the ping command sends four 32-byte packets to the remote host. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer option B is incorrect. The -a switch with the ping command resolves IP addresses to host names. Answer option C is incorrect. The -t switch pings the specified host until stopped. Answer option D is incorrect. The ping -4 command forces using IPv4.

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A 14. Answer option A is correct. The print spooler is a Windows service that sends print jobs to any printer (local or network). If it has stopped, you have to go to the services console and restart it. Answer option B is incorrect. This is not an issue with the individual printer drivers; this is about the Windows print spooler service. Answer option C is incorrect. The printers console is not where you look to start the print spooler service. Answer option D is incorrect. The print spooler is a part of the Windows operating system, not a driver or application you install separately. A 15. Answer option B is correct. Windows Vista allows you to customize any color in the Aero scheme you want. So you can get an exact match. Windows Aero, an acronym for Authentic, Energetic, Reflective, and Open, is the graphical user interface for Windows. It is a high-performance user interface that gives a computer a new look and feel. It offers a premium user experience that makes it easier to visualize and work with. It provides a smoother, more stable desktop experience. For running Aero, a computer requires a DirectX 9 compatible graphics processor with a Windows Display Driver Model (WDDM) driver, Pixel Shader 2.0 in hardware, and a minimum of 128MB of video RAM. The translucent effect of Aero Glass is a noticeable new element of the Aero experience. Other new Aero features are Windows Flip and Windows Flip 3D. There is a smoother window performance when using Windows Aero. The open windows glide smoothly on screen when they are moved or resized. There are no redraw artifacts, latency, or "tearing" effects. Answer options A and D are incorrect. This is not a video card or monitor issue; this is a Windows Vista color issue. Answer option C is incorrect. Using the registry to set theme colors is both unnecessary and potentially dangerous. You
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should usually not go into the registry unless absolutely necessary.

A 16. Answer option D is correct. UAC is disabled either via editing the registry directly (not recommended) or by using the MSCONFIG utility. User Account Control (UAC) is a feature in Windows that helps prevent unauthorized changes to a user's computer. UAC asks the user for permission or an administrator password before performing actions that could potentially affect a computer's operation or that change settings that affect other users. Answer option A is incorrect. Yes, UAC is a part of Vista security, but can be easily turned off. Answer options B and C are incorrect. This is not a setting for a group or user. It is a per machine setting done with either the registry or MSCONFIG.

A 17. Answer option C is correct. Unfortunately, the 32-bit version of Windows Vista has trouble handling more than 3 gigabytes of memory. This is not a problem for the 64-bit version. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no mechanism inside of Windows to 'set' the memory. You can set virtual memory, but not actual memory. Answer option B is incorrect. The BIOS will detect memory but not allow you to set it. Answer option D is incorrect. This is not related to the installation process and is not a symptom of a corrupt installation.

A 18. Answer option A is correct.


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System File Checker (Sfc.exe) is used to verify the integrity of Windows system files before delivering the computer to an end user. Answer option B is incorrect. The International Settings Update (Intlcfg.exe) tool is used to modify the default language and locale settings in an offline Windows image. After a language pack is added to a Windows image, the Intlcfg.exe command must be executed to recreate the Lang.ini file. This file is used during Windows Setup and contains a list of all available language packs, the locations of the language packs, and the default language to be used during Windows Setup. Answer option C is incorrect. OMPM File Scanner (offscan.exe) is a command-line tool that is used to scan files for conversion issues. This tool can easily be deployed using an automated software deployment technology such as SMS. Answer option D is incorrect. MsiExec is a tool used to install or uninstall Windows Installer packages (.MSI).

A 19. Answer options B and C are correct. TRACERT and PING are the TCP/IP utilities that can be used to find the IP addresses of computers whose domain names are known. The function of the PING utility is to verify a connection to a remote host by sending ICMP echo packets to the host and listening for echo reply packets. By using the PING utility with any of the following options, you can test a connection, an IP address, a host name, or a computer name. Each of these exhibits the IP address along with other ping statistics. The TRACERT utility displays the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to a remote host. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer name or its IP address. Like the ping command, this command also displays the IP address of the computer along with other related statistics.

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Answer option A is incorrect. The NETSTAT utility displays protocol statistics and current TCP/IP connections, but not the IP address. Answer option D is incorrect. The IPCONFIG is a commandline utility that displays the TCP/IP configuration information. This command does not display the IP configuration of remote computers.

A 20. Answer option B is correct. Windows XP stores offline files and information about the files in a database in the SystemRoot\CSC folder. Shared folders are available over the network. However, to access the files in the shared folders when your computer is not connected to the network, you may use the copies of the files in the hard disk space called Cache. You can change the size of the disk cache from the Folder options dialog box, depending on the available disk space and application requirements. Offline files are copies of network files on the local system. Users can work on these files even when they are not online. The Offline Files feature ensures that users are working with the most current version of the network files, and that the files will be synchronized with the network version of the files when users reconnect. If users have enabled offline files, they can navigate through shared folders and mapped network drives, regardless of whether or not they are connected to a network. Users can also browse network drives and shared folders in My Computer or My Network Places. Windows operating systems support the Offline Files feature. Any shared file or folder on a Microsoft network can be made available offline. Users can make files available offline from any computer that supports Server Message Block-based (SMB) File and Printer Sharing. The Offline Files feature is not available on Novell NetWare networks. There are three modes of caching files offline: 1. No Caching: In this mode, no files are cached onto the client computers.
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2. Manual: This mode permits users to specify individual files to be available offline. 3. Automatic: This mode is applied to the entire share. When a user uses any file in this share, it is made available to the user for offline access. Offline files allow administrators to configure the amount of disk space used to store offline files. However, this only affects the offline files that are stored automatically. It does not affect offline files that are stored manually. A 21. Answer option B is correct. This error means that BIOS could not find the master boot sector of the hard drive, or that the copy of NTLDR located there is corrupt. This can be caused by many factors, but corrupted RAM is not one of them. NTLDR (abbreviation of NT Loader) is the boot loader for all releases of Microsoft's Windows NT operating system up to and including Windows XP and Windows Server 2003. NTLDR is typically run from the primary hard disk drive, but it can also run from portable storage devices such as a CD-ROM, USB flash drive, or floppy disk. NTLDR can also load a non NT-based operating system given the appropriate boot sector in a file. Answer options A, C, and D are incorrect. These are valid possible causes of this error. Other possible causes include trying to boot from a non-bootable disk (like a floppy), Corrupt NTLDR, corrupt master boot record, etc.

A 22. Answer option B is correct. Windows Vista allows you to customize any color in the Aero scheme you want. So you can get an exact match. Windows Aero, an acronym for Authentic, Energetic, Reflective, and Open, is the graphical user interface for Windows. It is a high-performance user interface that gives a computer a new look and feel. It offers a premium user experience that makes it easier to visualize and work with. It provides a smoother, more stable desktop experience. For
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running Aero, a computer requires a DirectX 9 compatible graphics processor with a Windows Display Driver Model (WDDM) driver, Pixel Shader 2.0 in hardware, and a minimum of 128MB of video RAM. The translucent effect of Aero Glass is a noticeable new element of the Aero experience. Other new Aero features are Windows Flip and Windows Flip 3D. There is a smoother window performance when using Windows Aero. The open windows glide smoothly on screen when they are moved or resized. There are no redraw artifacts, latency, or "tearing" effects. Answer options A and D are incorrect. This is not a video card or monitor issue; this is a Windows Vista color issue. Answer option C is incorrect. Using the registry to set theme colors is both unnecessary and potentially dangerous. You should usually not go into the registry unless absolutely necessary.

A 23. Answer option D is correct. UAC is disabled either via editing the registry directly (not recommended) or by using the MSCONFIG utility. User Account Control (UAC) is a feature in Windows that helps prevent unauthorized changes to a user's computer. UAC asks the user for permission or an administrator password before performing actions that could potentially affect a computer's operation or that change settings that affect other users. Answer option A is incorrect. Yes UAC is a part of Vista security, but can be easily turned off. Answer options B and C are incorrect. This is not a setting for a group or user. It is a per machine setting done with either the registry or MSCONFIG.

A 24. Answer option A is correct.


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You can right-click on a programs icon and go to properties. There you will find a compatibility mode tab. This will allow you to run individual programs in 32 bit.

Answer options B and C are incorrect. You can run the 32-bit application on the 64 bit Vista using certain applications. Answer option D is incorrect. Software vendors do not immediately release new products for newer versions of Windows.

A 25. Answer option C is correct. Windows Vista includes the Parental Controls feature, which allows a parent to restrict access based on content and time. The Parental Controls feature in Windows Vista enables parents to determine which games their children can play, which programs they can use, and which Web sites they can visit. Parents can also restrict computer usage to certain times of the day through this feature by configuring the settings in the Parental Controls panel. This panel provides a centralized location to turn Parental Controls on and off, to block or allow specific programs, games, and Web sites, and to set controls for every aspect of a child's computer use. Note: The Parental Controls feature does not work on domainjoined computers. Answer option A is incorrect. It would be highly inappropriate for a technician to ever suggest such a thing. Answer option B is incorrect. You do not need third party software, as one is already built into Vista. Answer option D is incorrect. This feature did not exist in Windows XP. A 26. Answer option A is correct. Windows Defender is a built-in anti-spyware program that Microsoft includes with Windows Vista.
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Windows Defender is a Windows tool that keeps spyware and other potentially unwanted software from infecting a computer. It uses definitions to determine if detected software is spyware or malware, and then to alert users of potential risks. Definitions are updated periodically through Windows Update or by setting Windows Defender to check online for updated definitions. Note: While using Windows Defender, it is important to have up-to-date definitions. Answer option B is incorrect. He has already stated that money is a problem. Too often technicians do not listen to and react appropriately to customers' concerns. Answer option C is incorrect. This would be inconvenient for the end user and is unnecessary. Answer option D is incorrect. Since anti-spyware is built into Windows Vista, he can use it, and there is no reason not to.

A 27. Answer option D is correct. The IP address of the new computer is in the range of 169.254.y.z. This indicates that the computer is assigned an IP address provided by the APIPA feature of Windows 2000. It means that the computer is not receiving the IP address from the DHCP server. To get a new DHCP lease from the DHCP server, you will have to run the IPCONFIG /renew command. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility used to display current TCP/IP network configuration values and update or release the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allocated leases. It is also used to display, register, or flush Domain Name System (DNS) names. Answer option A is incorrect. The /rr switch of the NBTSTAT command is used to re-register the names of WINS clients in a WINS database. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections, update the
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NetBIOS name cache, and determine the registered names and scope IDs. Answer option B is incorrect. The /e switch of the NETSTAT command displays interface statistics. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer option C is incorrect. The IPCONFIG /release command is used to release the existing IP address.

A 28. Answer options A and C are correct. In order to connect a client computer to a secured Wireless LAN (WLAN), you are required to provide the following information: SSID of the WLAN WEP key

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a security protocol for wireless local area networks (WLANs). It has two components, authentication and encryption. It provides security, which is equivalent to wired networks, for wireless networks. WEP encrypts data on a wireless network by using a fixed secret key. WEP incorporates a checksum in each frame to provide protection against the attacks that attempt to reveal the key stream. SSID stands for Service Set Identifier. It is used to identify a wireless network. SSIDs are case sensitive text strings and have a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have the same SSID in order to communicate with each other. The SSID on computers and the devices in WLAN can be set manually and automatically. Configuring the same SSID as
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that of the other Wireless Access Points (WAPs) of other networks will create a conflict. A network administrator often uses a public SSID that is set on the access point. The access point broadcasts SSID to all wireless devices within its range. Some newer wireless access points have the ability to disable the automatic SSID broadcast feature in order to improve network security.

A 29.

Answer options D and E are correct. As the network is a routed network and Client1 and Switch-1 are on different segment, the default gateway address is required to be set on both Switch-1 and Client1. Telnet uses the IP network to send and receive the data. TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default. Answer options A and B are incorrect. Telnet does not use a specialized cable and physical port on the switch to send and receive data; rather it uses the IP network for this purpose. Answer options C and F are incorrect. The default gateway addresses for Client1 and Switch-1 will be the addresses of the router interface that connects to the segment in which they are located.

A 30. Answer options A, C, and D are correct. SSID stands for Service Set Identifier. It is used to identify a wireless network. SSIDs are case sensitive text strings and have a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have the same SSID in order to communicate with each other.
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The SSID on computers and the devices in WLAN can be set manually and automatically. Configuring the same SSID as that of the other Wireless Access Points (WAPs) of other networks will create a conflict. A network administrator often uses a public SSID that is set on the access point. The access point broadcasts SSID to all wireless devices within its range. Some newer wireless access points have the ability to disable the automatic SSID broadcast feature in order to improve network security.

A 31. Answer option A is correct. WPA2 is, to date, the most 802.11 compliant encryption protocol available. WPA2 is an updated version of WPA. This standard is also known as IEEE 802.11i. WPA2 offers enhanced protection to wireless networks than WPA and WEP standards. It is also available as WPA2-PSK and WPA2-EAP for home and enterprise environment respectively. Answer option B is incorrect. WPA is an improvement over WEP, but unlike WPA2, it does not implement certain key elements of 802.11i such as Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code. Answer option C is incorrect. WEP does not implement many aspects of the 802.11i standards. Answer option D is incorrect. PKI is a method for exchanging encryption keys, not for encrypting data.

A 32. Answer option B is correct. The IEEE 802.11b standard applies to wireless LAN networks that use radio waves as the transmission medium. These networks each have a separate media access control mechanism, known as Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMS/CA), that works like the CSMA/CD mechanism used by the Ethernet. The difference is
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that in this protocol, when a computer sends its signals, the receiving computer performs a cyclical redundancy check and sends an acknowledgement message to the sending computer if no error is detected. The IEEE 802.11b networks run at the transmission speed of 11 Mbps with a fallback to 5.5, 2, and 1 Mbps in the 2.4 GHz bandwidth. The radio transmission medium used by these networks is called Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS). Answer options A, C, and D are incorrect. These technologies support transfer speed up to 2Mbps.

A 33. Answer option C is correct. MAC filtering is probably enabled and the MAC address for his new laptop is not entered. MAC address filtering is a security method that enables a device to allow only certain MAC addresses to access a network. It can be configured on a Wireless Access Point (WAP) to allow only certain system MAC addresses to communicate with the rest of the network. MAC address filtering can be performed using either of the two policies: exclude all by default, then allow only listed clients; or include all by default, then exclude listed clients. MAC filtering can also be used on a wireless network to prevent certain network devices from accessing the wireless network. MAC addresses are allocated only to hardware devices, not to persons. Answer option A is incorrect. There is not a maximum number of connections allowed on a router. Answer option B is incorrect. A virus can infect a router, and it could theoretically cause this problem, but it is very unlikely. Answer option D is incorrect. Since all Internet communications use TCP/IP, it does not matter what model, operating system, or other laptop characteristics are used.
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A 34. Answer option D is correct. Port triggering allows an internal computer to make an external connection. The returning communications are then automatically routed to that internal PC. Answer option A is incorrect. Port forwarding deals with routing all incoming traffic on a given port to a specific internal IP address. Answer option B is incorrect. Port mapping is a fictitious term. Answer option C is incorrect. Network Address Translation is the process of hiding all internal network addresses and showing only the gateway address.

A 35. Answer option B is correct. Most routers used in homes have a built-in firewall. It is likely that the port this program uses is blocked at the firewall. A firewall is a tool to provide security to a network. It is used to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP addresses and ports. Answer option A is incorrect. A slow connection would cause a slow application. It would not cause it to not work at all. Answer option C is incorrect. A virus would show the same effect in the store and at his home. Answer option D is incorrect. Insufficient RAM would have the same effect at the store and at his home.

A 36. Answer option A is correct.


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Cellular Internet allows high mobility with moderate speed. Answer options B and C are incorrect. They both offer high speed connectivity (with 802.11n being the faster of the two). However, both are limited to a range from the wireless access point that is a matter of yards. Answer option D is incorrect. Bluetooth has a maximum range of about 30 feet.

A 37. Answer option C is correct. The maximum length for Unshielded Twisted Pair cable is 100 meters (328 feet). Answer options A, B, and D are incorrect. These are not valid lengths for UTP cable.

A 38. Answer option A is correct. Category 6 (Cat 6) cable gets speeds of up to 1000 mbps (1 gigabit). Category 6, popularly known as CAT 6, is a cable standard for networking. CAT 6 is the standard for Gigabit Ethernet. It provides backward compatibility with the Category 5/5e and Category 3 cable standards. Cat-6 follows more strict specifications for crosstalk and system noise as compared to Cat-5 and Cat-5e. Category 6 cables can be identified by the printing on the cable sheath itself. 8P8C modular connectors are used to terminate the CAT 6 cable. The maximum allowed length of a Cat-6 cable is 100 meters (330 ft). Answer option B is incorrect. Category 5 cable can only get speeds of up to 100 mbps. Answer option C is incorrect. This is not a router issue. Transmission speed is due to NICs and cable. Answer option D is incorrect. Fiber optic is very expensive and not necessary in a small business network. And the current Ethernet NICs will not work with fiber optic cable.
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A 39. Answer options B and C are correct. SSID stands for Service Set Identifier. It is the name of a wireless local area network (WLAN). SSIDs are case sensitive text strings and have a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have the same SSID to communicate with each other. The SSID on computers and the devices in WLAN can be set manually and automatically. A network administrator often uses a public SSID that is set on the access point. The access point broadcasts SSID to all wireless devices within its range. Some newer wireless access points have the ability to disable the automatic SSID broadcast feature in order to improve network security.

A 40. Answer option C is correct. An Intrusion detection system (IDS) is used to detect unauthorized attempts to access and manipulate computer systems locally or through the Internet or an intranet. It can detect several types of attacks and malicious behaviors that can compromise the security of a network and computers. This includes network attacks against vulnerable services, unauthorized logins and access to sensitive data, and malware (e.g. viruses, worms, etc.). An IDS also detects attacks that originate from within a system. In most cases, an IDS has three main components: Sensors, Console, and Engine. Sensors generate security events. A console is used to alert and control sensors and to monitor events. An engine is used to record events and to generate security alerts based on received security events. In many IDS implementations, these three components are combined into a single device. Basically, following two types of IDS are used : Network-based IDS Host-based IDS

Answer option A is incorrect. Packet filtering is a method that allows or restricts the flow of specific types of packets to provide security. It analyzes the incoming and outgoing
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packets and lets them pass or stops them at a network interface based on the source and destination addresses, ports, or protocols. Packet filtering provides a way to define precisely which type of IP traffic is allowed to cross the firewall of an intranet. IP packet filtering is important when users from private intranets connect to public networks, such as the Internet. Answer option B is incorrect. A firewall is a tool to provide security to a network. It is used to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP addresses and ports. Answer option D is incorrect. Demilitarized zone (DMZ) or perimeter network is a small network that lies in between the Internet and a private network. It is the boundary between the Internet and an internal network, usually a combination of firewalls and bastion hosts that are gateways between inside networks and outside networks. DMZ provides a large enterprise network or corporate network the ability to use the Internet while still maintaining its security.

A 41. Answer option B is correct. This is called the principle of 'least privileges'. Each user should be given the least privileges needed to do their job tasks. Answer option A is incorrect. This would be highly insecure. Answer option C is incorrect. While you may wish to group users and assign privileges that way, arbitrarily picking three groups is a poor way to run security. Answer option D is incorrect. Users should not have to request access to each and every file they need.

A 42. Answer options B and C are correct.


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In order to diagnose and resolve the issue, John will have to first boot the computer in the Safe mode. The Safe mode loads minimal set of drivers and has a higher possibility of successfully booting the Windows. After the computer is booted, he can use various troubleshooting tools such as the Device Manager to diagnose and resolve the issue. John can also use the Recovery Console to resolve the issue. However, it is not as convenient as the safe mode because it is a command-line only. Since a user can load the Recovery Console from a CD, it is functional even if the hard disk is completely damaged. Safe Mode is a Windows feature used to start a computer with basic drivers, such as mouse, keyboard, etc. It bypasses blocking issues, such as system corruption, or installation of incompatible drivers or system services, enabling the Administrator to resolve such issues. Answer option A is incorrect. The System Restore is used to troubleshoot problems caused by misconfiguration of a computer. Moreover, it is a Windows XP utility that can be used only if the computer is bootable. Answer option D is incorrect. The Last Known Good Configuration is a very efficient way to solve problems caused by misconfigurations and incorrect or incompatible driver installation. Selecting the Last Known Good Configuration option will not resolve the current issue because it is most likely that some files have been corrupted or the hard disk is damaged and neither of which can be repaired by booting the computer in the Last Known Good Configuration mode.

A 43. Answer option B is correct. Folder permissions can override file permissions. If the folder permissions have been changed, or the file was moved to a different folder this might cause the problem. Answer option A is incorrect. Yes it is possible, but that would also be immediately obvious to both the end user and you.

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Answer option C is incorrect. This seems unlikely that someone would simply go to that specific file and specifically block this user without his knowledge. Answer option D is incorrect. This would be a very unusual behavior for a virus and there seems no other indications of there being a virus.

A 44. Answer option C is correct. In order to open these encrypted files, the user needs to have a backup of the encryption keys. Answer option A is incorrect. The encryption is tied to the user account on the old hard drive. He will not be able to open them. Answer option B is incorrect. While the username on the new hard drive might be the same, it is not actually the same account as was on the old hard drive. Thus, he will not be able to open the files. Answer option D is incorrect. With the encryption keys, he will be able to open these files.

A 45. Answer options B and D are correct. In such a situation, when John receives an error message revealing that Kernel32.exe is encountering a problem, he needs to come to the conclusion that his antivirus program needs to be updated, because Kernel32.exe is not a Microsoft file (It is a Kernel32.DLL file.). Although such viruses normally run on stealth mode, he should examine the process viewer (Task Manager) to see whether any new process is running on the computer or not. If any new process (malicious) is running on the server, he should exterminate that process. Answer options A and C are incorrect. Since kernel.exe is not a real kernel file of Windows, there is no need to repair or
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download any patch for Windows Server 2003 from the Microsoft site to repair the kernel. Note: Such error messages can be received if the computer is infected with malware, such as Worm_Badtrans.b, Backdoor.G_Door, Glacier Backdoor, Win32.Badtrans.29020, etc.

A 46. Answer option C is correct. Snort is a signature-based open source network intrusion prevention and detection system that operates as a network sniffer. It logs activities of the network that is matched with the predefined signatures. Signatures can be designed for a wide range of traffic, including Internet Protocol (IP), Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). The three main modes in which Snort can be configured are as follows: 1. Sniffer mode: It reads the packets of the network and displays them in a continuous stream on the console. 2. Packet logger mode: It logs the packets to the disk. 3. Network intrusion detection mode: It is the most complex and configurable configuration, allowing Snort to analyze network traffic for matches against a user-defined rule set. Answer option A is incorrect. StealthWatch is a behaviorbased intrusion detection system. Answer option B is incorrect. RealSecure is a network-based IDS that monitors TCP, UDP and ICMP traffic and is configured to look for attack patterns. Answer option D is incorrect. Tripwire is a file integrity checker for UNIX/Linux that can be used for host-based intrusion detection.

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A 47. Answer option D is correct. In order to accomplish the task, you will have to implement BitLocker on the volume. BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) is a feature of Windows Server 2008. It protects server data through full volume encryption and provides an integrity-checking mechanism. It ensures that the boot environment is not tampered with. It is used to protect all files stored on the drive Windows is installed on. It encrypts the entire system drive and helps block hackers from accessing the system files they rely on to discover user passwords. BitLocker also prevents hackers from accessing the hard disk by removing it from a computer and installing it on a different computer. To support integrity checking, BitLocker requires a computer capable of supporting the Trusted Platform Module (TPM). Note: BitLocker can help protect only those files that are stored on the volume Windows is installed on. Answer option A is incorrect. IPSec enables network traffic encryption. Answer option B is incorrect. A RAID-5 volume is a faulttolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. It is not used for securing system or personal data. Answer option C is incorrect. EFS is used to protect specific files, not the entire volume.

A 48. Answer option C is correct. According to the question, Rick has complained of an abnormally increased disk access period and deteriorated performance of his computer. He has also stated that the computer was absolutely fine till two days ago. A sudden deterioration of performance is always a cause of concern for technicians. The prime reason for such an issue is a virus infection. If your system starts showing any of the mentioned symptoms, it is most likely that a virus has attacked your system:
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The disk access period has increased abnormally. Your system receives unusual messages. Your files are either missing or getting corrupted. Your system has become erratic and unstable. There is a sudden reduction in the system's resources. You are unable to access the hard disk or CD-ROM drive.

A virus is a miscreant program whose single distinguishing feature is to clone itself into the code of another program. It poses a threat to the applications and files stored on a system. An anti-virus program can be helpful in keeping them away or eliminating them from a system. A computer virus is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the permission or knowledge of the owner. Viruses can increase their chances of spreading to other computers by infecting files on a network file system or a file system that is accessed by another computer. Viruses can be divided into two types based on their behavior when they are executed. Nonresident viruses immediately search for other hosts that can be infected, infect those targets, and finally transfer control to the application program they infected. Resident viruses do not search for hosts when they are started. Instead, a resident virus loads itself into memory on execution and transfers control to the host program. The virus stays active in the background and infects new hosts when those files are accessed by other programs or the operating system itself. A virus can infect boot sector, networking files, and system files. Anti-virus applications/programs are used for disinfection. Answer options A and B are incorrect. Had these been the causes, Rick would not have been able to use the hard disk drive. Answer option D is incorrect. Low RAM availability is not the likely issue, as an abnormally longer disk access period has nothing to do with RAM.
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A 49. Answer option B is correct. This is called the principle of 'least privileges'. Each user should be given the least privileges needed to do their job tasks. Answer option A is incorrect. This would be highly insecure. Answer option C is incorrect. While you may wish to group users and assign privileges that way, arbitrarily picking three groups is a poor way to run security. Answer option D is incorrect. Users should not have to request access to each and every file they need.

A 50. Answer option A is correct. The BIOS (Basic Input Output System) allows a user to completely reconfigure the machine.Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is a ROM-based software that acts as an interpreter between the operating system and the hardware. It contains settings for booting. Answer option B is incorrect. POST (Power On Self Test) is something BIOS does; it is not a separate item that a user can access. Answer options C and D are incorrect. You should have good strong passwords on routers and servers, but that will not keep students from reconfiguring the lab PC's.

A 51. Answer option A is correct. Although it is possible to open a power supply (SMPS) and repair it, doing so is not recommended, as it contains capacitors, which might hold electrical charges and cause an electrical shock to the technician. Normally, an SMPS is very cheap and the cost of repairing is more than the actual cost.

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Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic equipment. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. Answer option B is incorrect. The cost of repairing a mouse is higher than its actual price. Answer option C is incorrect. A faulty RAM cannot be repaired. Answer option D is incorrect. Bad sectors on a hard disk can be removed up to some extent. Physical damages to a hard disk cannot be repaired.

A 52. Answer option A is correct. An active partition is one that is read at startup and is expected to contain the necessary system files to boot the computer. If no partition is set as Active, a computer does not boot from the hard disk drive. There can be only one active partition in a computer. Only the primary partition can be marked as the active partition.

A 53. Answer option C is correct. A RAID-5 volume is a fault tolerant volume with data and parity striped intermittently across three or more physical disks. If a disk in the RAID fails, you can recreate the data that was on the failed portion from the remaining data and parity. RAID-5 volumes are a good solution for data redundancy in a computer environment in which most activities consist of reading data. RAID-5 volumes have better read-performance than mirrored volumes. Answer option A is incorrect. A mirrored volume (RAID-1) is a fault tolerant volume that duplicates data on two different physical disk drives. It uses two partitions on different disk drives connected to the same disk controller. Both the partitions must be of same size.

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Note: Mirrored volume is the only fault tolerant method used for system and boot partition. The system and boot partition can never be part of a spanned volume, striped volume (RAID0), or striped volume with parity (RAID-5). Answer option B is incorrect. Striped volume is a volume that stores data in stripes on two or more physical disks. Striped volumes do not provide fault tolerance but offer the best performance as compared to the other volumes available in Windows 2000. Note: You can create striped volumes only on dynamic disks. Striped volumes cannot be mirrored or extended. Answer option D is incorrect. A spanned volume is a dynamic volume supported by the Windows XP Professional operating system. It combines free space from different hard disk drives installed on a computer. In a spanned volume, the amount of disk space used from each hard disk is not identical. It can contain disk space from two to thirty-two disks. When a user needs to extend a simple volume that is running low on disk space, he can create the spanned volume by including additional space from different hard disks. Spanned volumes are not fault tolerant and cannot be mirrored or striped. If any of the disks containing the spanned volume fails, all data in the entire spanned volume is lost.

A 54. Answer option D is correct. The front side bus connects the CPU to the northbridge chip set. This will dramatically affect the speed with which data is accessed and processed. Northbridge is one of the two chips on a PC motherboard, the other being the southbridge. It is also known as a memory controller hub (MCH) or an integrated memory controller (IMC) in Intel systems.

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Intel Northbridge Northbridge handles communications among the CPU, RAM, BIOS ROM, and PCI Express (or AGP) video cards. Some northbridges also contain integrated video controllers. The northbridge on a particular motherboard is the most prominent factor in deciding the number, speed, and type of CPU(s) and the amount, speed, and type of RAM that can be used in a system. Answer option A is incorrect. While additional expansion slots are always desirable, they have no effect on processing speed. Answer option B is incorrect. The size of the RAM is not a factor, but the speed would be. Answer option C is incorrect. The size of the hard drive is not related to processing speed.

A 55. Answer option B is correct. Type III Personal Computer Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) card supports hard disk drives. Type III slot is 10.5mm thick. PCMCIA cards are also known as PC cards. The PC card uses a small expansion slot and is primarily used in laptop computers. PC cards are also available for desktop computers. Answer option A is incorrect. Type I card is most commonly used for memory. It is 3.3mm thick.
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Answer option C is incorrect. Type II card is mostly used for modem and LAN adapters. Type II card is 5mm thick. It is the most common PC card type. Most of the laptop computers have at least two Type II slots. A 56. Answer option B is correct. Two separate processors allow each processor to be totally dedicated to a given task, such as running a database server. This is called 'processor affinity' and improves performance dramatically. Answer option A is incorrect. The two terms are not synonymous. Answer option C is incorrect. A dual core chip has two CPU cores in one case. It gives better performance than a single core. However, the external connections, such as front side bus, are all shared. So you do not get the same performance boost you get from two separate processors. Answer option D is incorrect. Two separate processors will be more expensive.

A 57. Answer option A is correct. In order to resolve the issue, you will have to replace the keyboard. While it is certainly more expensive than replacing a keyboard on a PC, you can certainly replace a laptop keyboard. Answer option B is incorrect. You should simply replace the keyboard. An external keyboard is likely to be inconvenient and only represents a temporary fix. Answer option C is incorrect. You can replace keyboards of the laptops. Answer option D is incorrect. The Coke has likely gotten under the keys and probably damaged some circuitry.

A 58. Answer option A is correct.


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Dskprobe is a tool that is used to detect steganography. Steganography is an art and science of hiding information by embedding harmful messages within other seemingly harmless messages. It works by replacing bits of unused data, such as graphics, sound, text, and HTML, with bits of invisible information in regular computer files. This hidden information can be in the form of plain text, cipher text, or even in the form of images. Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. The Snow, Blindside, and ImageHide tools are used to perform steganography. A 59. Answer option A is correct. It is important to know the cause of the issue before deciding how to resolve it. According to the question, the battery backup is not adequate and the laptop is running out of battery power more quickly than expected. This shows that the battery is draining too quickly. The most likely cause of the issue is that the battery is exhausted. In order to resolve the issue, you will have to replace the battery with a new one. Answer option A is incorrect. As it is clear from the question, there is nothing wrong with charging the battery. It is draining that causes the issue. Answer option B is incorrect. Running the laptop only with AC power will hamper the mobility of the laptop. Answer option D is incorrect. AC adapter is not the cause of the issue.

A 60. Answer option C is correct. The best surface to put these components on is anti-static pad. The anti-static pad will discharge any possible static charge that a component has. This will ensure that components are not adversely affecting one-another. Anti-static pad is a pad to discharge static charge of a human body and electronic components. Static charge accumulates as a person walks and moves about. Once the static charge
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accumulates to the level of 3000 volts, the person receives a shock when he/she touches another object. This is painful to humans and very destructive to the object to which the charge is discharged. This object could be a telephone, computer, or any electronic component. Anti-static pad is used to save electronic equipment from this discharge. This pad is also very helpful for laying electronic components while assembling or de-assembling a computer. Answer options A and B are incorrect. Metal plate and the ground are possibly the worst surfaces. These surfaces can harm the electronic components. Answer option D is incorrect. Although rubber mat is better than metal plate or ground, it will not discharge the static current of components. These components may damage oneanother on the rubber mat.

A 61. Answer option A is correct. Garbage printing shows that the computer is configured with an incorrect print driver. Device drivers are programs used by hardware devices, attached to a computer, to communicate with the operating system. The operating system can communicate with the connected hardware devices only after installing their appropriate drivers. Device drivers load automatically when a computer is started. Answer options A, B, and C are incorrect. These can be reasons for printer not printing anything at all. A 62. Answer option D is correct. The likely cause of the issue is a scratch or groove on the EP drum of a laser printer. Because of it, the printer prints vertical lines on all the pages of the documents. As the surface of the scratch or groove is lower than that of the drum, it does not receive as much of charge as the other areas of the drum. Due to this, the toner sticks to it and prints a continuous vertical line throughout the document. In order to resolve the issue, you will have to replace the EP drum. Some
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toner cartridges do not have separate EP drums. In such a case, you will have to replace the toner cartridge itself. Answer options A and C are incorrect. The problem stated in the question is not because of the fuser roller. Answer option B is incorrect. Spilt toner will not print vertical lines, but will give patches on the documents. A 63. Answer option D is correct. A faulty driver results in garbage printing while the printer prints a document. It cannot be the cause of paper jams. Answer options A, B, and C are incorrect. Worn rollers and moist papers are the prime causes of paper jams in laser printers. A 64. Answer options A and B are correct. Select an installed printer, click File > Properties > Ports tab > click Add Port. Click Standard TCP/IP Port and then click New Port. This starts the Add Standard TCP/IP Printer Port wizard. Type a name or the IP address of a print device in the Printer Name or IP Address text box. Type a host-resolvable port name, which can be of any character or string, in the Port Name text box or use the default name that the wizard supplies and then click Next. A 65. In order to enable Mark to work on sales reports offline, you should select the Notify me and begin working offline option from Control Panel > Folder Options > Offline Files tab > Advanced properties on his laptop. This option specifies that a user can continue working offline, even if he/she loses his/her connection to the network.

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Offline files are copies of network files on the local system. Users can work on these files even when they are not online. The Offline Files feature ensures that users are working with the most current version of the network files, and that the files will be synchronized with the network version of the files when users reconnect. If users have enabled offline files, they can navigate through shared folders and mapped network drives, regardless of whether or not they are connected to a network. Users can also browse network drives and shared folders in My Computer or My Network Places. Windows operating systems support the Offline Files feature. Any shared file or folder on a Microsoft network can be made available offline. Users can make files available offline from any computer that supports Server Message Block-based (SMB) File and Printer Sharing. The Offline Files feature is not available on Novell NetWare networks.
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There are three modes of caching files offline: No Caching: In this mode, no files are cached onto the client computers. Manual: This mode permits users to specify individual files to be available offline. Automatic: This mode is applied to the entire share. When a user uses any file in this share, it is made available to the user for offline access.

Offline files allow administrators to configure the amount of disk space used to store offline files. However, this only affects the offline files that are stored automatically. It does not affect offline files that are stored manually. A 66. Answer option C is correct. The NTBACKUP command runs the Backup utility of Windows XP Professional. Backup is a graphical program used to back up and restore user data. In the event of data deletion or hard disk failure, the backup copy can be used to restore lost or damaged data. The Backup utility supports three modes of backup: Full backup backs up all selected files for backup and takes maximum space and time. It needs only one tape to restore data. Incremental backup provides a backup of files that have changed, or are new, since the last incremental or full backup. It needs the last full backup tape and all intermediate tapes used for incremental backup to restore data. A differential backup strategy takes minimum space on the hard disk or network drive. The differential backup backs up only those files that have been created or changed since the last full backup. It takes only the last full backup tape and the last differential backup tape to restore data. Answer option A is incorrect. As question specifically asks for command, it is not the correct choice. Backup is a GUI system tool available under Accessories option.
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Answer options B and D are incorrect. No such commands as ADbackup and Activebackup are available in Windows.

A 67. Answer option B is correct. In order to change the language of Rick's laptop back to the English language, you will have to select the English (United States) input language keyboard in the Regional and Language options. The Regional And Language Options is located in Control Panel. Answer option A is incorrect. The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE key is used to store computer configuration information about the local computer system. Answer option C is incorrect. This option is used to configure the format for displaying numbers, time, and dates. Answer option D is incorrect. The General Tab of the Accessibility Options allows you to configure Windows XP Professional to display a warning message if any feature is activated.

A 68. Answer option C is correct. The most likely cause of the issue is that the updated driver is incorrect. Therefore, as the first step to resolve the issue, you should use Device Manager to roll back the video driver. The Roll Back Driver feature of Device Manager replaces a device driver with its previously installed version. This feature is helpful, when a new device driver installed on a computer is causing it to be unstable. To use this feature, take the following three steps: Start Device Manager. Double-click the device for which the roll back is required. Click the Driver tab > Roll Back Driver button.
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Answer option A is incorrect. A faulty power cord of the display monitor cannot be the cause of the issue, as a damaged power cord of the display monitor will not supply power to the monitor, and nothing will be displayed. Answer option B is incorrect. A distorted display has nothing to do with the availability of RAM. Answer option D is incorrect. Reinstalling the updated video driver will not affect the scenario, as installation is not the cause of the issue.

A 69. Answer option D is correct. Remote Desktop is a Windows XP feature that allows users to remotely access their Windows XP Professional desktops, applications, data, and network resources. If a user remotely wants to access the desktop of another computer, Remote Desktop must be configured on it. A user must be either an administrator or a member of the Remote Users group to remotely connect to a desktop, but only an administrator can locally access his computer when another user is remotely accessing the same computer. The members of the Remote Users group do not have this privilege. Answer option A is incorrect. Remote Installation Services (RIS) is used to install a copy of the operating system throughout an organization from a remote location. Answer option B is incorrect. VPN stands for virtual private network. It allows users to use the Internet as a secure pipeline to their corporate local area networks (LANs). Remote users can dial-in to any local Internet Service Provider (ISP) and initiate a VPN session to connect to their corporate LAN over the Internet. Companies using VPNs significantly reduce long-distance dial-up charges. VPNs also provide remote employees with an inexpensive way of remaining connected to their company's LAN for extended periods. Answer option C is incorrect. Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS) is a single integrated service that provides both remote access and multiprotocol routing. RRAS provides extensive support for demand-dial routing that allows users to
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connect to the Internet, connect remote offices, and implement router-to-router virtual private network (VPN) connections. A 70. Answer option A is correct. The CHKDSK command verifies the integrity of the hard disk installed on a computer. Using the command with different parameters can resolve a number of issues, which are described as follows: Switch Description It fixes all the errors on the hard disk of a computer. It displays the full path and name of every file on the disk. It locates bad sectors and recovers readable information. It changes the log file size to the specified number of kilobytes. If the size is not specified, it displays the current size. It performs a less vigorous check of index entries. It skips checking of cycles within the folder structure.

/f

/v

/r

/l

/i

/c

A 71. Answer option B is correct. You will use Task Scheduler to accomplish the task. Task Scheduler is a graphical tool used to run scripts or programs
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according to their schedule. Following tasks can be performed with the Task Scheduler: Schedule a task to run daily, weekly, monthly, or at specific times. Change the schedule for a task. Stop a scheduled task. Customize how a task runs at a scheduled time.

Answer option A is incorrect. Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM) is a Windows tool that is used to create answer files (unattended.xml) and network shares. It is also used to modify files available in a configuration set. This answer file is then transferred to the master computer, which is used for creating the installation image. Answer option C is incorrect. Remote Assistance is a Windows feature to enable support personnel (helper) to provide technical support to a remote user (host). Through Remote Assistance a helper can view Windows session of a host on his computer itself. Answer option D is incorrect. ImageX is a command-line tool that captures, modifies, and applies installation images for deployment in a large environment. ImageX uses the Microsoft Windows Imaging Format (WIM) image format. ImageX captures a volume to a WIM file and applies a WIM file to a volume.

A 72. Answer option D is correct. You should remove all extraneous programs from startup. Use msconfig to remove many programs from startup. MSCONFIG is a command-line tool that opens the System Configuration Utility dialog box, which can be used to troubleshoot and resolve startup errors, resolve unwanted prompts by third party users, find and resolve problems with running services, and resolve the errors regarding boot paths configured on multi-boot computers. MSCONFIG.EXE helps a user to detect a specific file that is causing startup problems.
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Answer option A is incorrect. Deleting all unnecessary programs might help this problem a little, but you must assume that at least some of these programs in start up are needed. Answer option B is incorrect. While adding more RAM would help the problem, the real issue is too many programs in startup and can be fixed without upgrading hardware. Answer option C is incorrect. The issue here is the number of programs in startup, not the hard drive being fragmented.

A 73. Answer option C is correct. This error indicates a problem with the boot sequence in Windows. Recovery Console was made for this purpose. Recovery Console is a command-line console that enables administrators to repair a computer. By using Recovery Console, administrators can start and stop services, read and write data on a local drive, repair the master boot record (MBR), format drives, and perform other administrative tasks. The Recovery Console can be run in the following two ways: If the computer does not start, Recovery Console can be run using the Windows Setup disks or Setup CDROM. Otherwise, the Recovery Console can be run from the option in the boot menu.

Answer option A is incorrect. While reinstalling Windows XP will fix the problem, this is a drastic and time-consuming action that is not essentially required. Answer option B is incorrect. The issue is not related to patches. Answer option D is incorrect. Since this involves the boot sequences, it is entirely possible that simply copying a file from a working machine will not fix the problem.

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A 74. Answer option B is correct. Windows includes a number of accessibility options to assist users with disabilities. The magnifier option magnifies things on the screen so that they can be more easily seen. Answer option A is incorrect. A larger monitor will usually not magnify the items on the screen enough to help. Answer option C is incorrect. The High Contrast mode is designed to reduce eye strain on those with normal vision. Answer option D is incorrect. Third party speech-to-text engines are not needed.

A 75. Answer option C is correct. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other server-related problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel. Answer option A is incorrect. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory. Answer option B is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration.
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Answer option D is incorrect. NBTSTAT is a Windows utility used to check the state of current NetBIOS over TCP/IP connections, update the NetBIOS name cache, and determine the registered names and scope IDs.

A 76. Answer option B is correct. To troubleshoot a WAN link connectivity problem, you should first ensure that the correct default gateway is set. Answer option A is incorrect. The NetBEUI protocol has nothing to do with the WAN connection. Answer options C and D are incorrect. Enabling DNS or reinstalling TCP/IP protocol should not be your first step towards troubleshooting a connectivity problem. Answer option E is incorrect. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.

A 77. Answer options A and C are correct. The HOSTS file and the DNS service are used to resolve host names to IP addresses. The HOSTS file in Windows and other operating systems is used to map host names to IP addresses. Syntax for entry in HOSTS file: <IP Address> <Host Name> <#comments> The entry for a computer with IP address 198.100.53.6 and host name Bluewell.research.com will be: 198.100.53.6 Bluewell.research.com #comments
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DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings, IP address-to-host name mappings, information about the domain tree structure, etc. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries. Answer options B and D are incorrect. The LMHOSTS file and the WINS service are used to resolve NetBIOS names to IP addresses.

A 78. Answer option C is correct. The -t switch with the PING command pings the specified host until stopped manually by pressing the Ctrl + C key combination. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer option A is incorrect. The -r <count> switch is used to record route for count hops. Answer option B is incorrect. This will ping the remote host only once. Answer option D is incorrect. No such switch as -c is available with the PING command.

A 79. Answer option B is correct. The IPCONFIG command with the /release and /renew switches can be used to accomplish the task. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from
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the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer option A is incorrect. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer option C is incorrect. The TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. Answer option D is incorrect. The netstat command displays protocol-related statistics and the state of current TCP/IP connections. It is used to get information about the open connections on a computer, incoming and outgoing data, as well as the ports of remote computers to which the computer is connected. The netstat command gets all this networking information by reading the kernel routing tables in the memory.

A 80. Answer option B is correct. TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. Answer option A is incorrect. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These
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replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer option C is incorrect. FDISK is a command-line utility used to create, change, delete, or display current partitions on a hard disk. Each of the defined disk spaces (primary partition, extended partition or logical drive) is then assigned a drive letter. Answer option D is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration.

A 81. Answer options A and C are correct. The SMTP and POP3 protocols are used to transfer emails between the servers and the client computers in a TCP/IP network.

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol used for sending e-mail messages between servers. It is mostly used to send messages from a mail client such as Microsoft Outlook to a mail server. Most of the e-mail systems that send mails over the Internet use SMTP to send messages from one server to another. Due to its limitations in queuing messages at the receiving end, it is generally used with either the POP3 or IMAP protocol, which enables a user to save and download messages from the server. Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) is a protocol used to retrieve e-mails from a mail server. It is designed to work with other applications that provide the ability to send e-mails. POP3 is mostly supported by the commercially available mail servers. It does not support retrieval of encrypted e-mails. POP3 uses port 110.

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Answer option B is incorrect. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a primary protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which is used to transfer text and binary files between a host computer and a server computer over the Internet. Answer option D is incorrect. NNTP stands for Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP). It is a simple ASCII text-based protocol used to post, distribute, and retrieve network news messages from NNTP servers and NNTP clients on the Internet.

A 82. Answer option A is correct. By not broadcasting your SSID, some simple war driving tools won't detect your network. However, you should be aware that there are tools that will still detect networks that are not broadcasting their SSID. Answer options B and C are incorrect. While either encryption method is a good idea, they won't reduce the chances of a hacker stumbling across your network. Answer option D is incorrect. While MAC filtering may help prevent a hacker from accessing your network, it won't keep him or her from finding your network.

A 83. Answer option A is correct. NSLOOKUP will list the DNS server(s) and whether or not they can be reached. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other server-related problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel.

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Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such utility as DNSCHECK. Answer option C is incorrect. IPCONFIG with the /all attribute will tell you what DNS server(s) the client is set up to use, but it will not actually try to connect to them. Answer option D is incorrect. NETSTAT will just tell you what connections are currently active.

A 84. Answer option C is correct. You would run the firmware upgrade from the routers administration console, not from the PC. Firmware is a term used to denote the fixed, usually rather small, programs that internally control various electronic devices. There are no strict, or well-defined, boundaries between firmware and software. Both are quite loose descriptive terms. However, firmware is typically involved with very basic low-level operations in a device, without which the device would be completely non-functional. Typical examples range from end-user products such as remote controls or calculators, through computer parts and devices like hard disks, keyboards, TFT screens, or memory cards, all the way to scientific instrumentation and industrial robotics. Simple firmware typically resides in ROM or OTP/PROM, while more complex firmware often employs flash memory to allow for updates. Common reasons for updating firmware include fixing bugs or adding features to the device. Answer options A, B, and D are incorrect. These are legitimate steps you would take in updating the firmware of a wireless router.

A 85. Answer option D is correct. Port forwarding allows all the traffic on a given port to be forwarded to a specific internal IP address. Port 80 is used for HTTP/Web traffic.

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Answer option A is incorrect. There are many scenarios where a small internal Web server is adequate. There is no need of a professional web hosting company. Answer option B is incorrect. Whether or not the server is connected directly to the router is irrelevant as long as it is reachable from the router. Answer option C is incorrect. You need to route traffic to the server, not from the server.

A 86. Answer option B is correct. A wireless N router has enough range to reach all the places in a 3600 square foot house. However, it seems that the router is placed at one end of the house. Answer option A is incorrect. Currently, N routers are the most modern and fastest among all routers. Answer option C is incorrect. Sometimes repeaters are not helpful and, in any case, it is an extra expense that the customer does not need. Answer option D is incorrect. A second router would require significant configuration and would cost the customer additional money that he does not need to spend.

A 87. Answer option D is correct. IEEE 802.11n is an upcoming improvement to the IEEE 802.11-2007 wireless networking standard to improve network throughput over previous standards, such as 802.11b and 802.11g. The IEEE 802.11n standard offers data rates from 54 Mbps to a maximum of 600 Mbps. The current state of the art supports a physical rate of 450 Mbps, with the use of 3 spatial streams at a channel width of 40 MHz. Depending on the environment, this may translate into a user throughput of 110 Mbps. Answer option A is incorrect. 802.11g can only reach up to 54mbps.
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Answer options B and C are incorrect. 802.11a and 802.11b can only reach up to 11mbps.

A 88. Answer options A, B, and C are correct. To configure all the wireless access points and client computers to act in accordance with the company's security policy, Mark will take the following actions: Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Shared Key. Shared Key authentication provides access control. Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all the wireless access points. Disabling SSID Broadcast and enabling MAC address filtering will prevent unauthorized wireless client computers from connecting to the access point (AP). Only the computers with particular MAC addresses will be able to connect to the wireless access points. On each client computer, add the SSID for the wireless LAN as the preferred network.

Answer option E is incorrect. Setting the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Open System will disable Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP). This level of WEP will not provide security. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a security protocol for wireless local area networks (WLANs). It has two components, authentication and encryption. It provides security, which is equivalent to wired networks, for wireless networks. WEP encrypts data on a wireless network by using a fixed secret key. WEP incorporates a checksum in each frame to provide protection against the attacks that attempt to reveal the key stream. Answer option F is incorrect. If Mark enables Service Set Identifier (SSID) Broadcast, the SSID can be used by unauthorized computers to connect to the network, which will not be in accordance with the company's security policy.

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A 89. Answer option C is correct. This address range is not for private IP addresses and, in fact, 255.255.255.255 is the broadcast address. Private IP addresses are basically used for the host computers that require IP connectivity, but that do not need to be visible on the public network. The IANA has reserved a certain numbers of IP addresses for this purpose. Private addresses are not routable to the public network. Therefore, the computers with private IP address connect to the Internet by a proxy server or an other Network Address Translation (NAT) device. Private IP Address Ranges Class Class 'A' Class 'B' Class 'C' From 10.0.0.0 172.16.0.0 192.168.0.0 To 10.255.255.254 172.31.255.254 192.168.255.254

Answer options A, B, and D are incorrect. These are the three valid private, non-routable IP address ranges you should use for private internal IP addresses.

A 90. Answer Answer options B and D are correct. SSIDs can be a maximum of 32 characters long and are case sensitive. SSID stands for Service Set Identifier. It is used to identify a wireless network. SSIDs are case sensitive text strings and have a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have the same SSID in order to communicate with each other. The SSID on computers and the devices in WLAN can be set manually and automatically. Configuring the same SSID as
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that of the other Wireless Access Points (WAPs) of other networks will create a conflict. A network administrator often uses a public SSID that is set on the access point. The access point broadcasts SSID to all wireless devices within its range. Some newer wireless access points have the ability to disable the automatic SSID broadcast feature in order to improve network security. Answer option A is incorrect. The maximum length is 32 characters, not 16. Answer option C is incorrect. An SSID can contain numbers and letters.

A 91. Answer option C is correct. Virtualized Internet browser can protect your operating system from Malware installation from unknown Web sites. It protects the operating system and other applications from poorly written or buggy code by isolating applications from the operating system. Application virtualization is an umbrella term that describes software technologies that improve portability, manageability and compatibility of applications by encapsulating them from the underlying operating system on which they are executed. A fully virtualized application is not installed in the traditional sense, although it is still executed as if it is. The application is fooled at runtime into believing that it is directly interfacing with the original operating system and all the resources are managed by it, when in reality it is not. Application virtualization differs from operating system virtualization in that in the latter case, the whole operating system is virtualized rather than only specific applications. Answer options A, B, and D are incorrect. Virtualized applications cannot protect your computer from these attacks.

A 92. Answer option C is correct.


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Worms replicate themselves while Trojan horses do not. A worm is a software program that uses computer networks and security holes to replicate itself from one computer to another. It usually performs malicious actions, such as using the resources of computers as well as shutting down computers. A Trojan horse is a malicious software program code that masquerades itself as a normal program. When a Trojan horse program is run, its hidden code runs to destroy or scramble data on the hard disk. An example of a Trojan horse is a program that masquerades as a computer logon to retrieve user names and password information. The developer of a Trojan horse can use this information later to gain unauthorized access to computers. Trojan horses are normally spread by e-mail attachments. Unlike viruses, Trojan horses do not replicate themselves but only destroy information on hard disks. Answer option A is incorrect. Both worms and Trojan horses are a form of malicious code. Answer option B is incorrect. Worms and Trojan horses are harmful to computers. Answer option D is incorrect. Both worms and Trojan horses can be distributed through emails.

A 93. Answer option B is correct. To minimize potential virus attacks, you should install a virus protection program on each workstation. A computer virus is a computer program that can copy itself and infect a computer without the permission or knowledge of the owner. Viruses can increase their chances of spreading to other computers by infecting files on a network file system or a file system that is accessed by another computer. Viruses can be divided into two types based on their behavior when they are executed. Nonresident viruses immediately search for other hosts that can be infected, infect those targets, and finally transfer control to the application program they infected. Resident viruses do not search for hosts when they are started. Instead, a resident virus loads itself into memory
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on execution and transfers control to the host program. The virus stays active in the background and infects new hosts when those files are accessed by other programs or the operating system itself. A virus can infect boot sector, networking files, and system files. Anti-virus applications/programs are used for disinfection. Answer option A is incorrect. SCANDISK is a Windows utility that detects and corrects corruption in the disk when a computer is not shut down properly. It also checks and deletes the corrupt files that may be using up disk space. This helps in improving the performance of a computer. Answer option C is incorrect. A firewall is a tool to provide security to a network. It is used to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP addresses and ports. Answer option D is incorrect. In networking terms, a proxy server is a computer that acts on behalf of several client PCs requesting content from the Internet or intranet. It acts as a security barrier or firewall between the local network and the Internet, so that external users on the Internet cannot access the internal network. A proxy server provides security by restricting inbound as well as outbound connections.

A 94. Answer option C is correct. Definition is an anti-virus software file that should be updated at regular intervals to protect a computer from new viruses. This file is also known as virus definition file. The virus definition file contains information about the latest viruses, which helps identify new viruses and protect computers from them. Answer option A is incorrect. Hotfix is a collection of files used by Microsoft for software updates that are released between major service pack releases. A hotfix is about a problem, occurring under specific circumstances, which cannot wait to be fixed till the next service pack release. Hotfixes are
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generally related to security problems. Hence, it is essential to fix these problems as soon as possible. Answer option B is incorrect. A service pack is a collection of Fixes and Patches in a single product. A service pack can be used to handle a large number of viruses and bugs or to update an operating system with advanced and better capabilities. A service pack usually contains a number of file replacements. Answer option D is incorrect. This term does not refer to any anti-virus software file.

A 95. Answer option B is correct. CIPHER is a command-line utility used to encrypt and decrypt folders and files in the NTFS partition. You can use CIPHER in your script to encrypt multiple files and folders at a time. Answer option A is incorrect. Although you can use Windows Explorer for the encryption of files and folders by using Advance Attributes of Files or Folders, it will increase the administrative burden as you will have to right click each folder and set the encryption. Moreover, Windows Explorer cannot be used in scripts. Answer option C is incorrect. EFSINFO is a command-line tool used to display information about files and folders on NTFS volumes that are encrypted with Encrypting File System Answer option D is incorrect. SYSKEY works on a password data stored in the SAM database. It is not used to encrypt files and folders.

A 96. Answer option C is correct. To move files to a folder, you need to have write permissions on the target folder. Answer option A is incorrect. You do not need to be an administrator to copy or move files.
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Answer option B is incorrect. You do not need full control. Folder permissions are Read, Write, Modify, List Folder Contents, Read & Execute, and Full Control. You only need Write permissions. Answer option D is incorrect. You do not have to be the owner of a file or folder to move or copy it.

A 97. Answer option A is correct. User Account Control (UAC) means that the user will have to confirm the installation of anything on the computer. User Account Control (UAC) is a feature in Windows that helps prevent unauthorized changes to a user's computer. UAC asks the user for permission or an administrator password before performing actions that could potentially affect a computer's operation or that change settings that affect other users. Answer options B and C are incorrect. Both are excellent ideas for security, but will not stop users from downloading programs. Answer option D is incorrect. This would prevent users from even downloading necessary email attachments, and even updates/patches.

A 98. Answer option D is correct. The Guest account is a limited account designed specifically for people who need to occasionally access a computer. It does not provide users more than minimal privileges. Answer option A is incorrect. As an account already exists by default, there is no need to create another one. Answer option B is incorrect. Using an existing account for the guests would give them the same privileges as the existing user.

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Answer option C is incorrect. You Administrative privileges to the guests.

should

not

give

A 99. Answer option A is correct. When an unencrypted file is copied to an encrypted folder, it becomes encrypted. Answer option B is incorrect. When an unencrypted file is moved to an encrypted folder, it remains unencrypted. Answer option C is incorrect. The presence of encrypted files does not cause all files in that folder to be encrypted. Answer option D is incorrect. It is possible but less likely than the other answers.

A100. Answer option D is correct. Encryption is the only real security measure you can use in a public access scenario. Other methods will block people from using the system. Wi-fi Protected Access (WPA) is an interoperable security standard for Wireless LAN (WLAN). For using WPA, encryption is required. WPA provides encryption by using Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP). TKIP uses a new encryption algorithm, which is stronger than WEP algorithm. 802.1x authentication is required in WPA. Answer option A is incorrect. Anti virus has nothing to do with your wireless router configuration. Answer option B is incorrect. MAC filtering requires each computer that connects to have its MAC address listed on the router. That will be not practical for a public access situation. Answer option C is incorrect. By not broadcasting SSID, you will make it difficult for the public users to find and access the network.

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Acronyms

AP BIOS CMOS DVM EFS FAT FQDN HIDS IDS LCD MBR NAT NIDS NTFS OTDR PATA PDA SATA

Access Point Basic Input Output System Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor Digital Volt Meters Encrypted File System File Allocation Table Fully Qualified Domain Name Host-based IDS Intrusion Detection System Liquid Crystal Display Master Boot Record Network Address Translation Network-based IDS New Technology File System Optical time domain reflectometer Parallel AT Attachment Personal access device Serial AT Attachment
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SFC SOHO SSD SSID TDR UAC WEP WLAN WPA ZIF

Sytem File Checker Small office/home office Solid-state drive Service Set Identifier Time Domain Reflectometer User Account Control Wired Equivalent Privacy Wireless LAN Wi-Fi Protected Access Zero Insertion Force

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Glossary
Active partition
An active partition is one that is read at startup and is expected to contain the necessary system files to boot the computer. If no partition is set as Active, a computer does not boot from the hard disk drive. There can be only one active partition in a computer. Only the primary partition can be marked as the active partition.

AGP
AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus designed for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct access to a computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of up to 2,133 MB/second.

Anti-virus
Antivirus (or anti-virus) software is used to prevent, detect, and remove malware, including computer viruses, worms, and trojan horses. Such programs may also prevent and remove adware, spyware, and other forms of malware. Traditional antivirus software solutions run virus scanners on schedule, on demand and some run scans in real time. If a virus or malware is located, the suspect file is usually placed into a quarantine to terminate its chances of disrupting the system. Traditional antivirus solutions scan and compare against a publicized and regularly updated dictionary of malware otherwise known as a blacklist. Some antivirus solutions have additional options that employ a heuristic engine which further examines the file to see if it is behaving in a similar manner to previous examples of malware. A new technology utilized by a few antivirus solutions is whitelisting; this technology first checks if the file is trusted and only questions those that are not. With the addition of wisdom of crowds, antivirus solutions backup other antivirus techniques by harnessing the intelligence and advice of a community of trusted users to protect each other.

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Biometrics
Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities to identify a user. Nowadays, the usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal scanners is becoming more common in the business environment.

Bluetooth
Bluetooth is a standard for very low powered and short-range radio connections. It is used to link personal access devices (PDA), mobile phones and laptops, and provides them with Internet access via hot spots. Bluetooth uses the 2.4 Ghz spectrum with a data rate of about 1 Mbps. As a radio technology, Bluetooth does not require line of sight like an infrared connection requires. The maximum transmission range of Bluetooth is around 10 meters. High-powered Bluetooth would extend the range to 100 meters.

Blu-ray Disc
Blu-ray Disc, also known as Blu-ray or BD, is an optical disc storage medium. It is designed to supersede the standard DVD format for storing high-definition video, PlayStation 3 games, and other data, with up to 25 GB per single layered, and 50 GB per dual layered disc. Blu-ray Disc was developed by the Blu-ray Disc Association, a group representing makers of consumer electronics, computer hardware, and motion pictures. The disc has the same physical dimensions as standard DVDs and CDs. It is called Blu-ray Disc because of the blue-violet laser which is used to read the disc. Blu-ray uses a shorter wavelength, a 405 nm blue-violet laser, and allows for almost six times more data storage than on a DVD.

CAT 6
Category 6, popularly known as CAT 6, is a cable standard for networking. CAT 6 is the standard for Gigabit Ethernet. It provides backward compatibility with the Category 5/5e and Category 3 cable standards. Cat-6 follows more strict specifications for crosstalk and system noise as compared to Cat-5 and Cat-5e. Category 6 cables can be identified by the printing on the cable sheath itself. 8P8C modular connectors are used to terminate the CAT 6 cable. The maximum allowed length of a Cat-6 cable is 100 meters (330 ft).
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Device Manager
Device Manager is a tool that can be used to manage devices on a Windows computer. Using Device Manager, users can view and change device properties, update device drivers, configure device settings, and uninstall devices. Device Manager is organized in a tree format with the top branches representing device categories. Users can use Device Manager to identify port resource conflicts. Device Manager can also be used to enable or disable a device.

DHCP
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a TCP/IP standard used to dynamically assign IP addresses to computers, so that they can communicate with other network services. It reduces the complexity of managing network client IP address configuration. A DHCP server configures DHCP-enabled client computers on the network. It runs on servers only. It also provides integration with the Active Directory directory service.

DIMM
Dual inline memory module (DIMM), also known as dual-sided inline memory module, is a type of memory module that has 168 pins. It has two notches on its base.

DNS server
DNS server is a computer that runs the Domain Name System (DNS) service. It contains host name-to-IP address mappings, IP address-tohost name mappings, information about the domain tree structure, etc. A DNS server is also used to resolve DNS client queries.

Docking station
A docking station is a hardware device that contains slots for expansion cards and storage devices, and ports for peripheral devices such as printers and monitors. It allows laptops to connect to printers, storage devices, and other devices that are not usually available with laptops. A docking station also includes a network interface card that connects a laptop to the network and enables users to use a full-size keyboard when they are not traveling.

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ESD
ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone, you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge.

Extension magnet
An extension magnet, also known as extension magnet pickup, is a pen-like tool that fits nicely into pockets or toolkits. It is designed in such a manner that it can be extended up to two feet. It has a magnetic tip to pick up small metal objects that may have fallen into an unreachable area.

Firewall
A firewall is a tool to provide security to a network. It is used to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP addresses and ports.

FireWire ports
FireWire ports are found on high-end computers and many new media centers. They are also called IEEE 1394 ports. FireWire ports transfer data at a rate of 400 Mbps or 800 Mbps. They are used primarily for video transfer from digital movie cameras.

Firmware
Firmware is a term used to denote the fixed, usually rather small, programs that internally control various electronic devices. There are no strict, or well-defined, boundaries between firmware and software. Both are quite loose descriptive terms. However, firmware is typically involved with very basic low-level operations in a device, without which the device would be completely non-functional. Typical examples range from end-user products such as remote controls or calculators, through computer parts and devices like hard disks, keyboards, TFT screens, or memory cards, all the way to scientific instrumentation and industrial robotics. Simple firmware typically
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resides in ROM or OTP/PROM, while more complex firmware often employs flash memory to allow for updates. Common reasons for updating firmware include fixing bugs or adding features to the device.

FTP
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a primary protocol of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which is used to transfer text and binary files between a host computer and a server computer over the Internet.

Fuser
A fuser assembly, commonly called fuser, is a part of a laser printer. This assembly applies heat and pressure to bond the plastic powder to the paper. A fuser assembly contains two rollers: one roller is a hollow tube (heat roller) and the other is a rubber backing roller (pressure roller). A radiant heat lamp is suspended in the center of the hollow tube, and its infrared energy uniformly heats the roller from the inside.

IDS
An Intrusion detection system (IDS) is used to detect unauthorized attempts to access and manipulate computer systems locally or through the Internet or an intranet. It can detect several types of attacks and malicious behaviors that can compromise the security of a network and computers. This includes network attacks against vulnerable services, unauthorized logins and access to sensitive data, and malware (e.g. viruses, worms, etc.). An IDS also detects attacks that originate from within a system. In most cases, an IDS has three main components: Sensors, Console, and Engine. Sensors generate security events. A console is used to alert and control sensors and to monitor events. An engine is used to record events and to generate security alerts based on received security events. In many IDS implementations, these three components are combined into a single device

Infrared
Infrared is a communication medium used for wireless networks to transfer data between devices. Infrared can transmit signals at high rates because of the high bandwidth of infrared light. An infrared network can normally broadcast at 10 Mbps.
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IPCONFIG
IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway etc., of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration.

Jumper
A jumper is a short length of conductor used to close a break in or bypass part of an electrical circuit. Jumpers are typically used to set up or adjust printed circuit boards, such as the motherboards of computers. Jumper pins (points to be connected by the jumper) are arranged in groups called jumper blocks, each group having at least one pair of contact points and often more. When a jumper is placed over two or more jumper pins, an electrical connection is made between them, and the equipment is thus instructed to activate certain settings accordingly. Jumper blocks and jumpers are also often used on motherboards to clear the CMOS information, resetting the BIOS configuration settings.

LCD
Liquid crystal display (LCD) is a thin, flat panel used for electronically displaying information such as text, images, and moving pictures. It is an electronically-modulated optical device made up of any number of pixels filled with liquid crystals and arrayed in front of a light source (backlight) or reflector to produce images in color or monochrome. It is lightweight and portable compared to Cathode-Ray Tube (CRT) technology. It consumes low electrical power which enables it to be used in battery-powered electronic equipment. Its uses include monitors for computers, televisions, instrument panels, and other devices ranging from aircraft cockpit displays, to everyday consumer devices such as video players, gaming devices, clocks, watches, calculators, and telephones.

Media tester
A media tester, also called a media certifier, is an electronically programmed device that is used to perform a variety of tests on an installed cable. It tests for shorts, open circuits, transposed wire pairs, attenuation, and various types of crosstalk. A media tester
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compares the results with standards programmed into the unit, and displays the result in the form of pass or fail readouts for each test.

Modem
Modem stands for Modulator-Demodulator. It is a device that enables a computer to transmit information over standard telephone lines. Since a computer stores information digitally and a telephone line is analog, a modem converts digital signals to analog and vice versa. The conversion of a digital signal to analog is known as modulation and that of an analog signal to digital is known as demodulation.

Multi-core processor
A multi-core processor is a processing system composed of two or more independent cores (or CPUs). The cores are typically integrated onto a single integrated circuit die (known as a chip multiprocessor or CMP), or they may be integrated onto multiple dies in a single chip package. A many-core processor is one in which the number of cores is large enough that traditional multi-processor techniques are no longer efficient and likely requires a network on chip. Multi-core processors are widely used across many application domains including: general-purpose, embedded, network, digital signal processing, and graphics.

Multimeter
A multimeter is an electronic measuring instrument that combines several measurement functions in one unit. A typical multimeter may include features such as the ability to measure voltage, current, and resistance. It is also known as multitester and volt/ohm meter (VOM). It is a hand-held device useful for basic fault finding and field service work or a bench instrument which can measure to a very high degree of accuracy. Multimeters can be used to troubleshoot electrical problems in a wide array of industrial and household devices such as batteries, motor controls, appliances, power supplies, and wiring systems. Both analog and digital forms of multimeters are available in the market.

NSLOOKUP
NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the
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command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other server-related problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel.

Omnidirectional antenna
An omnidirectional (or omni) antenna is a vertical antenna system which sends or receives signals in all directions. Signals generated through an omni antenna lose power as the distance increases. Such antennas are used with Wireless Access Points (WAPs).

OTDR
Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR) is a high-end fiber optic testing device, which is used to locate many different types of cable breaks and manufacturing faults on fiber optic cable connections. It requires a professionally trained person to operate it effectively.

Packet Filtering
Packet filtering is a method that allows or restricts the flow of specific types of packets to provide security. It analyzes the incoming and outgoing packets and lets them pass or stops them at a network interface based on the source and destination addresses, ports, or protocols. Packet filtering provides a way to define precisely which type of IP traffic is allowed to cross the firewall of an intranet. IP packet filtering is important when users from private intranets connect to public networks, such as the Internet.

PATA
Parallel ATA (PATA) is an interface standard for the connection of storage devices such as hard disks, solid-state drives, and CD-ROM drives in computers. PATA standard is the result of technical development in the field of AT Attachment (ATA) interface. PATA only allows cable lengths up to 18 in (460 mm) and because of this length limit, it is used as an internal computer storage interface. PATA is replaced by SATA.

PING
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The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly.

Proxy server
In networking terms, a proxy server is a computer that acts on behalf of several client PCs requesting content from the Internet or intranet. It acts as a security barrier or firewall between the local network and the Internet, so that external users on the Internet cannot access the internal network. A proxy server provides security by restricting inbound as well as outbound connections.

RAID-0
RAID-0, also known as disk striping, is made up of a disk set in which data is divided into blocks and spread equally in each disk. It provides best performance because data read and data write operations are not limited to a single disk, but to a set of disks. It does not provide data redundancy. Data once lost cannot be recovered.

RAID-1
RAID-1 is a type of RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) for standardizing and categorizing fault-tolerant disk systems by using disk mirroring. In mirroring, data is kept on two physical disks. It copies data of one volume to another volume on a different disk. If a disk fails, the computer continues to operate using the unaffected disk. The data writing operation is performed on the primary disk as well as on the mirror disk. The mirror disk has identical data image of the primary disk. This type of disk system provides best fault tolerance, but lower writing performance.

RAID-5
RAID-5 supports striped-with-parity. It contains a minimum of three disks. In this disk system, data along with its parity bits is stored across multiple disks. When a file is written to a RAID-5 volume, the file splits to all the disks in the set excluding the final disk. The final disk contains the parity information. This parity information allows
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the disks in the array to keep functioning, in case a disk in the set fails. Due to data redundancy, RAID-5 provides fault tolerance.

Registry
Registry is the central storage for all configuration data. It stores Windows operating system configuration, the computer hardware configuration, configuration information about Win32-based applications, and user preferences in a hierarchical database file.

Replay attack
Replay attack is a type of attack in which attackers capture packets containing passwords or digital signatures whenever packets pass between two hosts on a network. In an attempt to obtain an authenticated connection, the attackers then resend the captured packet to the system.

RIMM
Rambus Inline Memory Module (RIMM) is a type of memory that has 184 pins. It was developed by Rambus, Intel, and Kingston. This module only supports Rambus memory and fits on its own slot.

SATA
The Serial ATA (SATA) computer bus is a storage-interface for connecting host bus adapters to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives. SATA offers several compelling advantages over the older parallel ATA (PATA) interface, such as reduced cable-bulk and cost, faster and more efficient data transfer, full duplex, and hot swapping. It is designed to replace the older ATA (AT Attachment) standard (Parallel ATA). All SATA devices support hot plugging and hot swapping. SATA supports Native Command Queuing (NCQ) for enhanced performance.

SFX
SFX is a type of power supply that is used in a computer to supply the power to the different hardware components of a computer. The SFX power supply is 100mm wide, 125 mm deep, and 63.5 mm in high. It includes a 60 mm power supply fan for cooling. The main SFX motherboard connector has 20 pins, in the same shape and size as in the ATX connector, and 19 of the pins are the same as those of
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ATX. The one difference here is that the SFX power supply specification does not support for providing the -5V compatibility voltage and therefore should not be used with motherboards that have ISA slots.

SIMM
Single inline memory module (SIMM), also known as single-sided inline memory module, is a type of memory module. There are two types of SIMMs: 30-pin SIMM and 72-pin SIMM. A 72-pin SIMM can be easily identified by a single notch on its base. However, a 30-pin SIMM does not have a notch on its base. The 30-pin and 72-pin SIMMs are no longer being used in new computers and are therefore considered obsolete.

SMPS
Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic equipment. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency.

SMTP
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is a protocol used for sending email messages between servers. It is mostly used to send messages from a mail client such as Microsoft Outlook to a mail server. Most of the e-mail systems that send mails over the Internet use SMTP to send messages from one server to another. Due to its limitations in queuing messages at the receiving end, it is generally used with either the POP3 or IMAP protocol, which enables a user to save and download messages from the server.

SO-DIMM
Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Module (SO-DIMM) is a type of memory module that comes in 72 pins and 144 pins. The 72-pin SODIMM supports 32-bit transfers, and the 144-pin SO-DIMM supports 64-bit transfers. It was introduced for laptops. SO-DIMMs come in smaller packages, consume lesser power, but are more expensive than DIMMs.

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SOHO
Small office/home office (SOHO) refers to the category of business which can be from 1 to 10 workers. SOHO can also stand for small or home office or single office/home office. The small office home office has gone through a great transformation recently since technology has enabled anyone working from a home office to compete globally. The Virtual Office concept has been expanded to enable anyone to do globally what they could do locally before. With a global reach through the use of technology, the SOHO now has a better chance of emerging as a greater challenge in the world marketplace.

Solid-state drives
A solid-state drive (SSD) is a data storage device that uses solid-state memory to store persistent data. An SSD emulates a hard disk drive interface, thus easily replacing it in most applications. It is also known as solid-state hard disk drive. SSDs have no moving parts; hence, they are less fragile and silent than hard disks. As there are no mechanical delays, SSDs usually enjoy low access time and latency. An SSD using SRAM or DRAM (instead of flash memory) is often called a RAM-drive, which should not be confused with a RAM disk.

Spooling
Spooling is a process on a server in which the contents of print jobs are written to a file on a hard disk until a printer is ready to process those jobs. This file is called the spool file. The spool file prevents loss of data in the event of power loss during printing, ensuring that the print job is able to resume after power is restored. A spooler accepts each document from each client, stores it, and then sends it to a printer when the printer is ready.

SSID
SSID stands for Service Set Identifier. It is used to identify a wireless network. SSIDs are case sensitive text strings and have a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have the same SSID in order to communicate with each other.

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TDR
Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR) is used to troubleshoot breaks in cabling. TDR determines the location of a cable break by sending an electrical pulse along the cable. Break in the cable or an open end sends back the pulse reflection through which it measures and determines the distance of the fault. TDR works on the physical layer of the OSI model.

TELNET
TELNET is a command-line connectivity tool that starts terminal emulation with a remote host running the telnet server service. TELNET allows users to communicate with a remote computer, offers the ability to run programs remotely, and facilitates remote administration. The TELNET utility uses the Telnet protocol for connecting to a remote computer running the Telnet server software, to access files. It uses TCP port 23 by default.

Tone generator
A tone generator is used to test a length of wire for faults. This device comes with another device known as a tone locator. The tone generator is connected to one end of the cable, and the tone locator is connected to the other end. The tone generator generates a signal that is transmitted to the other end of the cable and received by the tone locater. If the tone locator receives the signal, it produces an audible sound or tone.

Tracert
TRACERT is a route-tracing Windows utility that displays the path an IP packet takes to reach the destination. It shows the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of each gateway along the route to the remote host.

Trojan horse
Trojan horse is a malicious software program code that masquerades itself as a normal program. When a Trojan horse program is run, its hidden code runs to destroy or scramble data on the hard disk. An example of a Trojan horse is a program that masquerades as a computer logon to retrieve user names and password information. The developer of a Trojan horse can use this information later to gain
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unauthorized access to computers. Trojan horses are normally spread by e-mail attachments. Unlike viruses, Trojan horses do not replicate themselves but only destroy information on hard disks.

UAC
User Account Control (UAC) is a feature in Windows that helps prevent unauthorized changes to a user's computer. UAC asks the user for permission or an administrator password before performing actions that could potentially affect a computer's operation or that change settings that affect other users.

USB
Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a high speed bus standard developed by Compaq, IBM, DEC, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Northern Telecom. It provides the Plug and Play capability of Windows to external hardware devices. USB supports hot plugging, which means that a USB device can be installed or removed while the computer is running. A single USB port can be used to connect up to 127 peripheral devices, such as CD-ROM drives, tape drives, keyboards, scanners etc. USB 1.1 has a maximum data transfer rate of 12 Mbps, whereas USB 2.0 has a maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 is fully backward compatible with USB 1.1.

WAP
A Wireless Access Point (WAP) is a communication device capable of both transmitting and receiving signals in a wireless LAN. This unit is connected to servers or directly to a network and other devices using a standard cabled network protocol.

WEP
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a security protocol for wireless local area networks (WLANs). It has two components, authentication and encryption. It provides security, which is equivalent to wired networks, for wireless networks. WEP encrypts data on a wireless network by using a fixed secret key. WEP incorporates a checksum in each frame to provide protection against the attacks that attempt to reveal the key stream.

Worm
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A worm is a software program that uses computer networks and security holes to replicate itself from one computer to another. It usually performs malicious actions, such as using the resources of computers as well as shutting down computers.

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CompTIA Certifications
Attaining certifications by an individual means increased job security, additional career opportunities, and increased credibility in the workplace. On the other hand, hiring certified workers means higher customer satisfaction, increased productivity, and lower employee turnover for businesses.

CompTIA certification programs are vendor neutral, entry-level certification intended for entering into the information technology industry. Many companies preferably hire people with certification and CompTIA certification are the best route to get recognition for the skills and knowledge of novice IT professionals. Best known for the A+ certification, CompTIA offers many certification in key technology areas such as Network+ for network technology, I-net+ for Internet and Web technology, and Server+ for server technology. Many of the CompTIA certification are electives or prerequisites towards advanced certifications, such as Microsofts MCSA and Novells CNE. Some of the important CompTIA certifications are summarized below.

CompTIA A+
The A+ certification is CompTIAs leading entry-level, vendor neutral exam for computer-service technicians. The CompTIA A+ exam covers preventative maintenance, basic networking, installation, troubleshooting, communication and professionalism.

CompTIA Network+
CompTIAs Network+ certification is intended to certify networking technicians with 18 to 24 months of experience. Attaining Network+ certification indicates that you know how to configure and install the TCP/IP client. This exam is vendor and product-neutral, covering a range of networking technologies. The CompTIA Network+ exam covers managing, maintaining, troubleshooting, operating, and configuring basic network infrastructure.
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CompTIA Security+
CompTIAs Security+ certification is one of the most popular exams that focuses on information security. This is designed for IT professionals who are already working in the field of networking, system administration, and information security. CompTIAs Security+ is a vendor-neutral certification for advance security professional. It provides industry standard knowledge in the field of information security, a gateway to enter into IT professions related to security. The CompTIA Security+ exam covers system security, network infrastructure, cryptography, assessments, and audits.

CompTIA Server+
CompTIAs Server+ certification is positioned alongside Network+ certification as a follow-up to the A+ certification. CompTIAs Server+ exam focuses on advanced network hardware such as SCSI, RAID, SANS, and multiple CPUs. The Server+ exam will certify the knowledge of middle-level and upper-level technicians with 18-24 months of strong IT experience using hardware functionality, including server installation, troubleshooting, support, and secondlevel support., the CompTIA Server+ exam is for experienced IT professionals and it covers areas such as RAID, SCSI, managing multiple CPUs, and disaster recovery.

CompTIA Linux+
CompTIAs Linux+ is a vendor-neutral certification specifically designed to certify technical advance-level skills required to pursue a network or system administrator job role in Linux environments. Its objectives are intended to measure a candidates ability to install, operate and troubleshoot Linux operating systems. The CompTIA Linux+ exam covers user administration, file permissions, software configurations, and the fundamental management of Linux systems.

CompTIA Project+
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CompTIA Project+ certification is an international, vendor-neutral certification that covers the entire project life cycle from initiation and planning through execution, acceptance, support and closure. The Project+ certification is a vendor-neutral certification for project managers. CompTIA Project+ provides the skills necessary for project managers to complete projects on time and within budget. Project+ certification also creates a common project management language among project team members. The CompTIA Project+ certification covers the entire process of project management, including initiation, planning, execution, acceptance, support and closure.

CompTIA Strata Certificate Program


CompTIAs Strata program offers fundamental to advanced certificates. It validates a wide range of subjects in information technology (IT). Students and professional holding a Strata certificate demonstrate that they have the knowledge required to enter and excel in IT and technology-related field. Strata exams currently validate workplace topics in Green IT, Technical Sales and PC concepts.

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Things to Practice: A Final Checklist


The CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702 is meant for entry-level computer technicians. In order to achieve the CompTIA A+ certification, a candidate must register for and pass the CompTIA A+ Essentials (220-701) and CompTIA A+ Practical Application (220-702) exams. However, those who have already achieved the A+ certification on 2006 version can upgrade by taking only the A+ Bridge exam (BR0-003). CompTIA A+ Practical Application (220-702) is an extension of the knowledge and skills identified in 220-701, with more of a "hands-on" orientation focused on scenarios in which troubleshooting and tools must be applied to resolve problems. The CompTIA A+ (2009) certification measures the necessary competencies of an entry-level IT professional with at least 500 hours of hands-on experience in the lab or field. It tests for the fundamentals of computer technology, networking and security, as well as the communication skills and professionalism now required of all entry-level IT professionals. Before taking the CompTIA A+ Practical Application (220-702) exam, a candidate should practice the following: Add, remove, components. configure, and maintain computer

Detect problems, troubleshoot, and repair/replace personal computer components. Install, configure, detect problems, troubleshoot, and repair/replace laptop components. Select and use troubleshooting or components. the appropriate verifying various tools for devices or

Select the appropriate commands and options to troubleshoot and resolve operating system-related problems. Differentiate between Windows Operating System directory structures (Windows 2000, XP and Vista). Use system utilities/tools and evaluate the results.
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Demonstrate the ability to perform preventive maintenance on operating systems, including software and Windows updates. Troubleshoot client-side connectivity issues using appropriate tools. Identify names, purposes, and features of basic networking protocols and terminologies for establishing connectivity, including usage of different networking tools. Identify the purposes and features of access control and event logging. Install and configure software for wireless and data security. Install and configure a small office home office (SOHO) network. Take preventive actions for securing systems from viruses and malware. Implement Bitlocker and EFS for encryption. Besides, an IT Technician aspirant should possess professionalism and excellent communication skills and must know how to interact with customers.

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uCertify Test Prepration Software for CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702


uCertify test preparation simulation software (PrepKit) is designed to efficiently help you pass the CompTIA A+ 2009 Exam 220-702. Each PrepKit contains hundreds of practice questions modeled on real world scenarios. Each exam objective is covered with full explanations of key concepts and numerous study aids such as study guides, pop quizzes and flash cards help reinforce key concepts. Installation is simple and no internet connection is required once you have installed the PrepKit. To download a free trial please visit: Download link: http://www.ucertify.com/exams/CompTIA/220-702.html At the core of every uCertify Prepkit is our powerful PrepEngine that allows for a sophisticated level of customized learning. The folks at uCertify, understand that your time is important. We have created a unique blend of learning and test preparation, the foundation of which is working smarter. Years of experience has gone into the creation of detailed reference material that ensure your learning and practice questions that closely simulate real life technical problems to test your understanding of the subject. Our time tested and continuously improving methodology instantly gives you the benefit of separating the fluff from the real deal. Anticipating your needs and customizing the material to your strengths and weaknesses is at the core of our unique engine. We help you gain the skills you need not just to pass the test, but to actually use them on the job! uCertify's Prepkits have numerous built-in Study Aids such as Flash Cards, Study Notes, Tagging and more reduce the burden of trying to determine how to sift through vast study material by providing refresher or quick reference at any time. Studies have shown this raises the confidence level of students. The student can on the fly, customize Practice tests and learning, such that the content meets their current levels of knowledge. Immediate, Gap analysis reports tell the student what they need to learn to perform better in a particular subject area. Context sensitive study material and tips help enhance a students knowledge of a subject area, helping them truly learn the material. This helps improve student performance and
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productivity on the job for employees. The platform also has the capability for subject matter expertise to be captured and communicated in a consistent manner.

Top 12 features of our Award Winning Prepkits


1. Simple, intuitive, user-friendly interface 2. One click dashboard makes it easy to find what you need 3. Guided learning steps you through the process of learning and test preparation, including crucial information about the exam format and test preparation tips 4. Reference Notes and Study Guides organized according to the actual test objectives 5. Numerous study aids, including study notes, flash cards, pop Pop Quiz and more 6. Useful Technical Articles section contains information written by industry experts and How Tos that help for easy look up to specific questions 7. Collaboration 8. Exhaustive practice questions and tests, Diagnostic tests to determine your initial level 9. Learning and test modes 10. Customize your tests decide how many questions, combine one or more topics of your choice, quiz yourself on a study note, increase the level of difficulty based on your performance at any point in time, even create a test based on the amount of time you have to take a test! 11. Feedback and assessment when you need it, including Gap Analysis that clearly indicate your areas of strength and weakness 12. Full length Final Practice test that closely simulates those on the certification exam to gauge your preparation level for the actual exam
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